Click Start Test above to launch a full-length AFOQT practice test weighted like the real aptitude subtests, or drill a single subtest — Verbal Analogies, Arithmetic Reasoning, Word Knowledge, Math Knowledge, Reading Comprehension, and more. Every question includes a clear explanation so you learn the reasoning, not just the answer.
The Air Force Officer Qualifying Test (AFOQT) is a standardized aptitude test used by the U.S. Air Force to help predict an applicant’s success in officer and rated training such as pilot and combat systems officer programs.
It is administered for the U.S. Air Force at Pearson VUE test centers and is required for Air Force ROTC and Officer Training School candidates.[2] The AFOQT measures verbal, quantitative, spatial, and aviation aptitude across 12 subtests.
These practice questions follow the published AFOQT subtest structure, mirroring the content and pacing of the real exam so you can build readiness across every aptitude area.[1] To build readiness across every subtest, pair these with our free study guide, flashcards, and cheat sheet.
Policies and minimum scores change — always verify the current details with your Air Force ROTC detachment or recruiter before testing.
AFOQT at a Glance
| Detail | AFOQT |
|---|---|
| Questions | 516 multiple-choice across 12 subtests (Form T) |
| Question type | Multiple choice (computer-based) |
| Time limit | About 5 hours total including breaks (roughly 3.5 hours of timed aptitude subtests) |
| Result | Six composite percentiles (1-99); no single pass/fail score |
| Administered by | Pearson VUE for the U.S. Air Force |
| Eligibility | Air Force ROTC, OTS, and other officer-commissioning applicants |
| Cost | Free — no fee to the candidate (voucher required to schedule) |
| Retakes | Two attempts at least 90 days apart; a third requires a waiver (scores superscored) |
What Is on the AFOQT Exam?
The AFOQT (Form T) covers 12 subtests totaling 516 multiple-choice questions. The scored aptitude subtests include Verbal Analogies, Arithmetic Reasoning, Word Knowledge, Math Knowledge, Reading Comprehension, Physical Science, Table Reading, Instrument Comprehension, Block Counting, and Aviation Information, plus the Situational Judgment and Self-Description Inventory sections.[2]
Our full practice test focuses on the scored aptitude subtests and mirrors their proportions so your reps match where the test actually counts:

Practice Questions by Subtest
Use Start Test for a full weighted AFOQT simulation, or open the hub and pick a single subtest to drill your weak area. After each full exam, your results show a per-subtest breakdown so you know exactly where to focus — rated applicants usually need the most reps on the spatial and aviation subtests.
Who Is Eligible to Take the AFOQT?
The AFOQT is taken by candidates pursuing a U.S. Air Force commission — including Air Force ROTC cadets and Officer Training School applicants — typically as college students or graduates working toward officer accession.[1]
You generally take the AFOQT through your Air Force ROTC detachment or Air Force recruiter, who issues the scheduling voucher and confirms you meet the program prerequisites.
Because requirements vary by path, confirm whether your program requires the AFOQT and which composite minimums apply to the career field you are pursuing. Additional eligibility details come from your detachment or recruiter and official Air Force guidance.[4]
How Do You Register for the AFOQT?
You register for the AFOQT through your Air Force ROTC detachment, Air Force recruiter, or test control officer, who provides a scheduling voucher, and then you book a seat at a Pearson VUE test center.[2]
There is no fee charged to you — the test is free, with the voucher covering scheduling. Confirm your appointment details and bring a valid government-issued photo ID that matches your registration.
After scheduling, you complete the exam at an authorized Pearson VUE professional testing center. Plan for an appointment of about five hours, and arrive early to allow time for check-in.
If you need to retake the AFOQT, you must wait at least 90 days between administrations, and a third attempt requires an approved waiver.[1]
How Is the AFOQT Scored?
AFOQT subtest scores combine into six composite scores — Pilot, Combat Systems Officer, Air Battle Manager, Academic Aptitude, Verbal, and Quantitative — each reported as a percentile from 1 to 99.[3]
There is no single pass/fail score. Instead, each composite percentile shows how you compare to a normative group, and the Air Force applies different minimums depending on the career path you are pursuing.
Scores are superscored across attempts, so your best composite on any administration becomes your score of record, and valid Form T scores do not expire.[1] Common minimums include Verbal 15 and Quantitative 10 for officer applicants, with higher Pilot and CSO minimums for rated paths.
How Hard Is the AFOQT?
The AFOQT is demanding mainly for its breadth and tight pacing — 12 separately timed subtests in an appointment of about five hours — rather than any single hard section.[2] The practical challenge is sustaining focus and managing the clock across very different skills.
The aviation and spatial subtests — Instrument Comprehension, Block Counting, Table Reading, and Aviation Information — are unfamiliar to most applicants because they test visual-spatial reasoning and aviation knowledge rather than recalled academics.
Arithmetic Reasoning and Math Knowledge reward fluency with algebra and mental math, Verbal Analogies and Word Knowledge reward vocabulary and verbal reasoning, and Reading Comprehension tests how quickly you can extract information under time pressure.
The takeaway: drill until you’re consistently clearing the composite minimums for your target career field on full-length, subtest-weighted practice — especially the spatial and aviation subtests if you want a rated slot — before you book your exam date.
What to Expect on Exam Day
Arrive at your Pearson VUE test center early to check in — bring a valid, unexpired government-issued photo ID whose name matches your AFOQT registration.[2] You’ll store phones and personal items, and no outside notes are allowed during the exam.
A short tutorial precedes the exam, then you work through 12 separately timed subtests, with built-in breaks across the roughly five-hour appointment. Each subtest has its own time limit, so you cannot bank time from one section to use on another.
Your results are processed and reported to you and the Air Force after testing. Having simulated the full timing with practice tests makes the long, segmented clock feel routine.
How to Use This AFOQT Practice Test
- Recreate exam conditions. Take the full test timed, with no notes.[2]
- Diagnose, then drill. Use a full AFOQT simulation to find weak subtests, then drill them.
- Prioritize your target composite. Rated applicants should hammer the spatial and aviation subtests.
- Learn the why. Read every explanation — understanding beats memorizing.
- Answer everything. There’s no penalty for guessing, so never leave a question blank.
Why the AFOQT Matters
A strong AFOQT score is one of the clearest ways to qualify and compete for the Air Force career field you want — it gives selection boards an objective, composite-by-composite measure of your aptitude for officer and rated training.[1] Because each path sets its own composite minimums, scoring well across the board widens the range of opportunities open to you, from pilot and combat systems officer to air battle manager. These free AFOQT practice tests are the most efficient way to get there.
Conclusion
Performing well on the AFOQT comes down to broad aptitude — math, verbal, spatial, and aviation reasoning — and the stamina to sustain it across a long, segmented exam. Use this free AFOQT practice test to find your weak subtests, drill them to mastery, and pair it with our free study guide, flashcards, and cheat sheet. Start with one full-length practice test to find your weakest section, then drill that section first.
AFOQT Practice Test FAQ
No. The AFOQT is free to take — there is no fee charged to the candidate. It is administered for the U.S. Air Force at Pearson VUE test centers, and you schedule it using a voucher provided by your Air Force ROTC detachment, recruiter, or test control officer. Because it is a military qualification test, the cost is covered by the Air Force rather than paid out of pocket.
You can take the AFOQT twice, with at least 90 days between administrations. A third attempt is allowed only with an approved waiver, and your scores are superscored — your best composite score across attempts becomes your score of record. Form T scores do not expire, so a qualifying score stays valid.
The AFOQT (Form T) has 12 subtests with 516 multiple-choice questions in total, and the full appointment runs about five hours including breaks (roughly three and a half hours of timed aptitude testing). Each subtest is separately timed, so pacing matters as much as knowledge.
The 12 AFOQT subtests are Verbal Analogies, Arithmetic Reasoning, Word Knowledge, Math Knowledge, Reading Comprehension, Situational Judgment, Self-Description Inventory, Physical Science, Table Reading, Instrument Comprehension, Block Counting, and Aviation Information. Together they measure verbal, quantitative, spatial, and aviation aptitude used to predict success in Air Force training.
Subtest scores combine into six composite scores — Pilot, Combat Systems Officer (CSO), Air Battle Manager, Academic Aptitude, Verbal, and Quantitative — each reported as a percentile from 1 to 99. There is no single pass/fail score; instead, your percentiles are compared against the minimums for the path you are pursuing.
There is no overall passing score, but common minimums apply: most officer applicants need at least Verbal 15 and Quantitative 10, pilot applicants typically need Pilot 25 and CSO 10, and CSO applicants typically need CSO 25. Verify the current minimums for your program with your detachment or recruiter, as requirements can change.
The AFOQT is administered for the U.S. Air Force at Pearson VUE test centers. You receive a scheduling voucher from your Air Force ROTC detachment, Air Force recruiter, or test control officer, then book a seat at an authorized center. Bring a valid government-issued photo ID that matches your registration.
Because the AFOQT is broad and tightly timed across 12 subtests, the most effective preparation is repeated full-length, subtest-weighted practice under timed conditions, with extra reps on the aviation and spatial subtests if you are pursuing a rated career. Read every explanation to learn the reasoning, and reinforce weak areas with a study guide, flashcards, and a cheat sheet.
AFOQT question bank
All 636 questions, by domain
A reference copy of every question in this practice test. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To practice with scoring, timing and your readiness score, use Start Test at the top of the page.
Verbal Analogies (58)
PETAL is to FLOWER as PAGE is to
- A.Library
- B.Word
- C.Text
- D.Book
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Correct answer: Book
The answer is book. A petal is one part of a whole flower, and a page is likewise one part of a whole book. A library is a collection of books rather than the thing a page is part of, and a word and the text are what is printed on the page, so none of them is the whole that the page belongs to.
HUMID is to ARID as ABUNDANT is to
- A.Lavish
- B.Scarce
- C.Steamy
- D.Rich
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Correct answer: Scarce
The answer is scarce. Humid and arid are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of abundant, which is scarce. Lavish and rich describe having plenty, as abundant does, rather than the reverse, and steamy matches the humid half of the first pair, not the idea of quantity.
THERMOMETER is to TEMPERATURE as SCALE is to
- A.Height
- B.Length
- C.Weight
- D.Volume
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Correct answer: Weight
The answer is weight. A thermometer is the instrument that measures temperature, and a scale is the instrument that measures weight. Height and length are measured with a ruler or measuring tape, and volume with a measuring cup, so none is what a scale reads.
TIMID is to BOLD as SHALLOW is to
- A.Flat
- B.Wide
- C.Deep
- D.Long
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Correct answer: Deep
The answer is deep. Timid and bold are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of shallow, which is deep. Flat is close in meaning to shallow, while wide and long describe width or length rather than the reverse of shallow depth.
LION is to PRIDE as WOLF is to
- A.Herd
- B.Lair
- C.Howl
- D.Pack
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Correct answer: Pack
The answer is pack. A pride is the name for a group of lions, and a pack is the name for a group of wolves. A herd is the group name for cattle or deer, a lair is where a wolf shelters, and a howl is the sound a wolf makes, so none is the wolf's group name.
SCISSORS is to CUT as BROOM is to
- A.Sweep
- B.Scrub
- C.Rinse
- D.Shine
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Correct answer: Sweep
The answer is sweep. Cutting is what scissors are used for, and sweeping is what a broom is used for. To scrub is the job of a brush or sponge, to rinse is the job of running water, and to shine is the job of a polishing cloth, so each names another cleaning action rather than the broom's.
SPARK is to FLAME as SEED is to
- A.Grain
- B.Plant
- C.Shell
- D.Earth
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Correct answer: Plant
The answer is plant. A spark grows into a flame, and a seed grows into a plant. A grain is a kind of seed rather than what a seed becomes, a shell is the hard outer covering of some seeds, and earth is where the seed is sown, so none is what the seed develops into.
GENEROUS is to STINGY as HUMBLE is to
- A.Gracious
- B.Modest
- C.Arrogant
- D.Obedient
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Correct answer: Arrogant
The answer is arrogant. Generous and stingy are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of humble, which is arrogant. Modest means nearly the same as humble, and gracious and obedient are traits often found alongside humility rather than its reverse.
PILOT is to COCKPIT as CONDUCTOR is to
- A.Baton
- B.Podium
- C.Soloist
- D.Concert
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Correct answer: Podium
The answer is podium. The cockpit is the station a pilot works from, and the podium is the station a conductor leads from. A baton is the tool the conductor holds, a soloist is a featured performer the conductor accompanies, and a concert is the performance itself, so none is the conductor's station.
EXPAND is to CONTRACT as ASCEND is to
- A.Descend
- B.Elevate
- C.Advance
- D.Climb
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Correct answer: Descend
The answer is descend. Expand and contract are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of ascend, which is descend. Climb means nearly the same as ascend, and elevate and advance both describe moving upward or forward, so none of them means going down.
AUTHOR is to NOVEL as COMPOSER is to
- A.Lyrics
- B.Audience
- C.Symphony
- D.Musician
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Correct answer: Symphony
The answer is symphony. An author creates a novel, and a composer creates a symphony. Lyrics are usually the work of a lyricist, an audience is who listens to the work, and a musician is the broader group a composer belongs to, so none is the work a composer creates.
FRICTION is to HEAT as EXERCISE is to
- A.Fatigue
- B.Workout
- C.Athlete
- D.Barbell
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Correct answer: Fatigue
The answer is fatigue. Friction produces heat, and exercise produces fatigue. A workout is simply another name for a session of exercise, an athlete is a person who exercises, and a barbell is equipment used for it, so none is the result that exercise brings about.
KEYBOARD is to COMPUTER as STEERING WHEEL is to
- A.Horn
- B.Driver
- C.Car
- D.Garage
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Correct answer: Car
The answer is car. A keyboard is the control part of a computer, and a steering wheel is the control part of a car. A horn is another part of the vehicle rather than the whole, a driver is the person who turns the wheel, and a garage is where the car is kept, so none is the machine the wheel belongs to.
WEARY is to RESTED as FAMISHED is to
- A.Faint
- B.Hungry
- C.Feeble
- D.Full
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Correct answer: Full
The answer is full. Weary and rested are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of famished, which is full. Hungry means nearly the same as famished, and faint and feeble describe how a famished person may feel rather than the reverse of being famished.
CHAPTER is to BOOK as ACT is to
- A.Play
- B.Cast
- C.Scene
- D.Role
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Correct answer: Play
The answer is play. A chapter is a major division of a book, and an act is a major division of a play. A scene is a smaller division within an act rather than the whole it belongs to, a role is the part one actor plays, and the cast is the group of actors who perform, so none is the whole work.
CLOCK is to TIME as ODOMETER is to
- A.Speed
- B.Pressure
- C.Altitude
- D.Distance
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Correct answer: Distance
The answer is distance. A clock is the instrument that measures time, and an odometer is the instrument that measures distance. Speed is read from the speedometer, pressure from a pressure gauge, and altitude from an altimeter, so none is what an odometer records.
PRAISE is to CRITICIZE as ACCEPT is to
- A.Permit
- B.Assent
- C.Reject
- D.Obtain
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Correct answer: Reject
The answer is reject. Praise and criticize are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of accept, which is reject. To permit and to assent both mean to agree to something, and to obtain means to get it, so each sits on the same side as accept rather than turning it away.
BEE is to HONEY as COW is to
- A.Calf
- B.Herd
- C.Milk
- D.Hay
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Correct answer: Milk
The answer is milk. A bee produces honey, and a cow produces milk. A calf is a cow's young, a herd is the group a cow lives in, and hay is what a cow eats, so none is the product the cow makes.
WRINKLE is to SMOOTH as TANGLE is to
- A.Intertwine
- B.Snarl
- C.Weave
- D.Straighten
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Correct answer: Straighten
The answer is straighten. To wrinkle and to smooth are opposite actions, so the missing word must be the action opposite to tangle, which is straighten. Intertwine and snarl mean nearly the same as tangle, and to weave is to lace strands together on purpose rather than to undo them.
TROUT is to FISH as SPARROW is to
- A.Bird
- B.Wren
- C.Nest
- D.Beak
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Correct answer: Bird
The answer is bird. A trout is one kind of fish, and a sparrow is one kind of bird. A wren is another small bird at the same level as the sparrow, a nest is the home a sparrow builds, and a beak is part of its body, so none is the broader category.
PEN is to WRITE as KNIFE is to
- A.Stir
- B.Scoop
- C.Cut
- D.Whisk
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Correct answer: Cut
The answer is cut. A pen is used to write, and a knife is used to cut. To stir and to scoop are the jobs of a spoon, and to whisk is the job of a whisk, so each names what a different kitchen tool does rather than what a knife does.
VICTORY is to DEFEAT as ARRIVAL is to
- A.Itinerary
- B.Departure
- C.Entrance
- D.Reception
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Correct answer: Departure
The answer is departure. Victory and defeat are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of arrival, which is departure. An entrance means much the same as an arrival, a reception is the welcome given on arriving, and an itinerary is the plan for the journey, so none is the opposite event.
ROOT is to TREE as FOUNDATION is to
- A.Building
- B.Footing
- C.Flooring
- D.Basement
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Correct answer: Building
The answer is building. A root anchors and supports a tree, and a foundation anchors and supports a building. A footing is one part of the foundation itself, flooring is the surface laid over a floor, and a basement is one level of the building, so none is the whole structure supported.
FERTILE is to BARREN as FLEXIBLE is to
- A.Supple
- B.Pliable
- C.Springy
- D.Rigid
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Correct answer: Rigid
The answer is rigid. Fertile and barren are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of flexible, which is rigid. Supple, pliable, and springy all describe something that bends easily, so each repeats the meaning of flexible rather than reversing it.
LIBRARIAN is to BOOKS as PHARMACIST is to
- A.Pharmacy
- B.Customer
- C.Medicine
- D.Hospital
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Correct answer: Medicine
The answer is medicine. A librarian looks after and hands out books, and a pharmacist looks after and hands out medicine. A pharmacy is the shop where the pharmacist works, a customer is the person served, and a hospital is one place a pharmacist may be employed, so none is the stock the pharmacist hands out.
OVERHEAT is to BREAKDOWN as NEGLECT is to
- A.Care
- B.Shun
- C.Heed
- D.Ruin
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Correct answer: Ruin
The answer is ruin. Overheating leads to a breakdown, and neglect leads to ruin. To shun is close in meaning to neglect itself rather than its result, and care and heed are the opposite of neglect, not what it causes.
HINGE is to DOOR as ELBOW is to
- A.Arm
- B.Leg
- C.Hip
- D.Rib
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Correct answer: Arm
The answer is arm. A hinge is the bending joint of a door, and an elbow is the bending joint of an arm. The leg is the limb whose bending joint is the knee, the hip is a different joint, and a rib is a bone of the chest, so none is the limb the elbow belongs to.
BRAVE is to COWARDLY as CRUEL is to
- A.Kind
- B.Mean
- C.Cold
- D.Vile
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Correct answer: Kind
The answer is kind. Brave and cowardly are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of cruel, which is kind. Mean, cold, and vile all describe cruel or unfeeling behavior, so each repeats the meaning of cruel rather than reversing it.
INK is to PEN as LEAD is to
- A.Eraser
- B.Pencil
- C.Crayon
- D.Marker
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Correct answer: Pencil
The answer is pencil. Ink is the marking material held inside a pen, and lead is the marking material held inside a pencil. A crayon is made of colored wax, a marker holds ink, and an eraser removes pencil marks, so none is the writing tool that holds lead.
VENTILATE is to AIR as IRRIGATE is to
- A.Field
- B.Ditch
- C.Wheat
- D.Water
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Correct answer: Water
The answer is water. To ventilate is to supply a place with air, and to irrigate is to supply land with water. A field is the land that gets irrigated, a ditch is a channel that may carry the water, and wheat is a crop that benefits, so none is what is supplied.
SUMMIT is to BASE as CEILING is to
- A.Floor
- B.Attic
- C.Joist
- D.Light
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Correct answer: Floor
The answer is floor. A summit is the top of a mountain and the base is its bottom, so the matching pair is the ceiling at the top of a room and the floor at its bottom. An attic is the space above the ceiling, a joist is a beam that holds the ceiling up, and a light is a fixture that often hangs from the ceiling, so none is the bottom of the room.
FLUENT is to HALTING as STEADY is to
- A.Constant
- B.Wobbly
- C.Balanced
- D.Calm
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Correct answer: Wobbly
The answer is wobbly. Fluent and halting are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of steady, which is wobbly. Constant, balanced, and calm all mean much the same as steady, so each repeats its meaning rather than reversing it.
WHISTLE is to REFEREE as BATON is to
- A.Orchestra
- B.Conductor
- C.Rehearsal
- D.Composer
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Correct answer: Conductor
The answer is conductor. A whistle is the tool a referee uses to direct play, and a baton is the tool a conductor uses to direct musicians. The orchestra is the group being directed, a rehearsal is a session where the baton is used, and a composer writes the music rather than directing it with a baton.
SPENDING is to DEBT as SAVING is to
- A.Thrift
- B.Wealth
- C.Budget
- D.Loan
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Correct answer: Wealth
The answer is wealth. Spending leads to debt, and saving leads to wealth. Thrift is another word for the habit of saving, a budget is a plan that helps a person save, and a loan is borrowed money that leads to debt, so none is the result that saving brings about.
BUD is to BLOSSOM as TADPOLE is to
- A.Egg
- B.Larva
- C.Swamp
- D.Frog
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Correct answer: Frog
The answer is frog. A bud develops into a blossom, and a tadpole develops into a frog. An egg is the stage before the tadpole, larva is the general name for the stage a tadpole already is, and a swamp is where tadpoles live, so none is the adult form.
LEGIBLE is to ILLEGIBLE as AUDIBLE is to
- A.Perceptible
- B.Inaudible
- C.Discernible
- D.Visible
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Correct answer: Inaudible
The answer is inaudible. Legible and illegible are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of audible, which is inaudible. Perceptible and discernible describe something that can be noticed, as audible does, and visible concerns sight rather than hearing.
GILL is to FISH as LUNG is to
- A.Oxygen
- B.Breath
- C.Thorax
- D.Mammal
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Correct answer: Mammal
The answer is mammal. A gill is the breathing organ of a fish, and a lung is the breathing organ of a mammal. Oxygen is the gas the lung takes in, a breath is the act of breathing, and the thorax is the part of the body that holds the lung, so none is the animal the organ belongs to.
STUDY is to KNOWLEDGE as PRACTICE is to
- A.Drill
- B.Skill
- C.Coach
- D.Sport
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Correct answer: Skill
The answer is skill. Study produces knowledge, and practice produces skill. A drill is one kind of practice rather than its result, a coach is the person who runs it, and a sport is what a person may practice for, so none is the ability gained.
ARCHIPELAGO is to ISLANDS as CONSTELLATION is to
- A.Stars
- B.Comet
- C.Orbit
- D.Space
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Correct answer: Stars
The answer is stars. An archipelago is a group made up of islands, and a constellation is a group made up of stars. A comet is a single icy body, an orbit is the path such a body follows, and space is the setting a constellation is seen in, so none is the members that make up the group.
DILUTE is to CONCENTRATE as WEAKEN is to
- A.Debilitate
- B.Impoverish
- C.Strengthen
- D.Lessen
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Correct answer: Strengthen
The answer is strengthen. Dilute and concentrate are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of weaken, which is strengthen. Debilitate, impoverish, and lessen all describe making something weaker, so each repeats the meaning of weaken rather than reversing it.
CHEF is to KITCHEN as MECHANIC is to
- A.Vehicle
- B.Toolbox
- C.Garage
- D.Ratchet
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Correct answer: Garage
The answer is garage. A chef works in a kitchen, so the matching worker-and-workplace pair is a mechanic working in a garage. A vehicle is what the mechanic repairs, while a toolbox and a ratchet are equipment the mechanic uses, so none of them is the place where the work is done.
FOSSIL is to BONE as ARTIFACT is to
- A.Museum
- B.Tool
- C.Culture
- D.Curator
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Correct answer: Tool
The answer is tool. A bone is one common kind of fossil, so the matching category-and-example pair is a tool as one common kind of artifact. A museum is where artifacts are displayed, culture is the way of life an artifact reflects, and a curator is the person who looks after a collection, so none of them is a kind of artifact.
EXAGGERATE is to UNDERSTATE as INFLATE is to
- A.Overfill
- B.Increase
- C.Pump
- D.Deflate
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Correct answer: Deflate
The answer is deflate. Exaggerate and understate are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of inflate, which is deflate. Increase means much the same as inflate, overfill means to inflate too far, and pump names the way air is usually forced in, so none of them is the reverse.
COMPASS is to DIRECTION as RULER is to
- A.Length
- B.Angle
- C.Pencil
- D.Margin
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Correct answer: Length
The answer is length. A compass is used to find direction, so the analogy needs what a ruler is used to measure, which is length. An angle is what a protractor measures rather than a ruler, a pencil is what draws along the ruler's edge, and a margin is the blank border often ruled off on a page, so none of them is what a ruler measures.
SPOKE is to WHEEL as RUNG is to
- A.Step
- B.Roofer
- C.Ladder
- D.Stairs
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Correct answer: Ladder
The answer is ladder. A spoke is one of the bars that make up a wheel, so the matching part-to-whole pair is a rung as one of the bars that make up a ladder. A step is another name for a rung rather than the whole, stairs are a different structure for climbing that has steps rather than rungs, and a roofer is a person who uses a ladder rather than the object the rung belongs to.
PERMANENT is to TEMPORARY as ETERNAL is to
- A.Enduring
- B.Fleeting
- C.Ancient
- D.Immortal
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Correct answer: Fleeting
The answer is fleeting. Permanent and temporary are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of eternal, which is fleeting. Enduring and immortal both mean much the same as eternal, and ancient means very old, so none of the three is its reverse.
TREMOR is to EARTHQUAKE as DRIZZLE is to
- A.Mist
- B.Sprinkle
- C.Downpour
- D.Overcast
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Correct answer: Downpour
The answer is downpour. A tremor is a mild form of an earthquake, so the matching mild-to-intense pair is a drizzle as a mild form of a downpour. Mist is even lighter than a drizzle, a sprinkle is about the same strength, and overcast describes a cloudy sky rather than heavier rain.
MARINER is to SEA as AVIATOR is to
- A.Pilot
- B.Plane
- C.Sky
- D.Wing
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Correct answer: Sky
The answer is sky. A mariner travels across the sea, so the matching traveler-and-domain pair is an aviator traveling through the sky. A pilot is another word for an aviator, a plane is the vehicle, and a wing is part of that vehicle, so none of them is the space traveled through.
STITCH is to TAILOR as WELD is to
- A.Torch
- B.Welder
- C.Goggles
- D.Girders
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Correct answer: Welder
The answer is welder. Stitching is the joining work done by a tailor, so the matching task-and-worker pair is welding as the joining work done by a welder. A torch is the tool, goggles are protective gear, and girders are steel beams a welder often joins, so none of them is the worker.
CONFINE is to RELEASE as CAPTURE is to
- A.Liberate
- B.Seize
- C.Apprehend
- D.Overpower
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Correct answer: Liberate
The answer is liberate. Confine and release are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of capture, which is to liberate, or set free. Seize and apprehend both mean much the same as capture, and overpower describes subduing someone, which usually comes with a capture rather than reversing it.
CALENDAR is to DATE as MAP is to
- A.Compass
- B.Location
- C.Navigator
- D.Geography
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Correct answer: Location
The answer is location. A calendar is used to find a date, so the analogy needs what a map is used to find, which is a location. A compass is a separate tool for direction, a navigator is the person who reads the map, and geography is the wider subject maps belong to, so none of them is what a map is used to find.
LULLABY is to SLEEP as ALARM is to
- A.Restfulness
- B.Firefighter
- C.Wakefulness
- D.Snooze
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Correct answer: Wakefulness
The answer is wakefulness. A lullaby brings on sleep, so this cause-and-effect pair is matched by an alarm bringing on wakefulness. Restfulness is the calm state a lullaby encourages and an alarm ends, snooze is the setting that delays it, and a firefighter is who a fire alarm calls, so none of them is the state the alarm produces.
TRANSPARENT is to OPAQUE as VISIBLE is to
- A.Obvious
- B.Hidden
- C.Optical
- D.Evident
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Correct answer: Hidden
The answer is hidden. Transparent and opaque are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of visible, which is hidden. Obvious and evident both mean much the same as visible, and optical describes sight itself, so none of them is the reverse.
TEACHER is to STUDENT as COACH is to
- A.Clipboard
- B.Umpire
- C.Passenger
- D.Athlete
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Correct answer: Athlete
The answer is athlete. A teacher instructs a student, so the matching instructor-and-learner pair is a coach instructing an athlete. A clipboard is something a coach carries, an umpire enforces the rules rather than learning a skill, and a passenger is who rides a coach in its sense of a bus.
PROLOGUE is to STORY as OVERTURE is to
- A.Opera
- B.Aria
- C.Finale
- D.Encore
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Correct answer: Opera
The answer is opera. A prologue is the opening section of a story, so the matching opening-and-whole pair is an overture as the opening section of an opera. A finale is the closing section rather than the whole, an aria is a single song within the work, and an encore is an extra piece played after it ends.
FUEL is to FIRE as RAIN is to
- A.Hail
- B.Thunder
- C.Flood
- D.Drought
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Correct answer: Flood
The answer is flood. Fuel feeds a fire and makes it grow, so the matching cause-and-effect pair is heavy rain feeding a flood. Hail is another kind of falling weather, thunder often comes with a storm, and a drought is what happens when rain is missing, so none of them is what rain causes.
BRIEF is to LENGTHY as CONCISE is to
- A.Terse
- B.Laconic
- C.Precise
- D.Verbose
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Correct answer: Verbose
The answer is verbose. Brief and lengthy are opposites, so the missing word must be the opposite of concise, which is verbose, or wordy. Terse and laconic both mean much the same as concise, and precise only looks like it, since it means exact rather than long-winded.
MASON is to STONE as GLAZIER is to
- A.Glass
- B.Window
- C.Pottery
- D.Varnish
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Correct answer: Glass
The answer is glass. A mason works with stone, so the matching worker-and-material pair is a glazier working with glass. A window is the finished product a glazier fits, pottery is coated with a glaze that only sounds like the glazier's trade, and varnish is a finish for wood rather than the glazier's material.
Arithmetic Reasoning (58)
A helicopter flies 195 miles in 1 hour and 30 minutes at a steady speed. What is its average speed in miles per hour?
- A.150 miles per hour
- B.195 miles per hour
- C.130 miles per hour
- D.292.5 miles per hour
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Correct answer: 130 miles per hour
130 miles per hour is correct. One hour and 30 minutes is 1.5 hours, and speed is distance divided by time: 195 / 1.5 = 130. Writing the time as 1.3 hours gives 195 / 1.3 = 150 miles per hour; counting only the 1 hour gives 195 miles per hour; and multiplying instead of dividing gives 195 x 1.5 = 292.5 miles per hour.
A tank column moves at a steady 24 miles per hour. How far will it travel in 45 minutes?
- A.10.8 miles
- B.18 miles
- C.32 miles
- D.16 miles
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Correct answer: 18 miles
18 miles is correct. Forty-five minutes is 45/60 = 0.75 hour, and distance is rate times time: 24 x 0.75 = 18. Writing 45 minutes as 0.45 hour gives 24 x 0.45 = 10.8 miles; dividing instead of multiplying gives 24 / 0.75 = 32 miles; and reducing 45/60 to 2/3 instead of 3/4 gives 24 x 2/3 = 16 miles.
A cargo ship sails 540 nautical miles at 30 knots. How many hours does the voyage take?
- A.18 hours
- B.15.7 hours
- C.180 hours
- D.0.3 hours
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Correct answer: 18 hours
18 hours is correct. A knot is one nautical mile per hour, so the distance and the speed are already in matching units: 540 / 30 = 18. Converting only the speed to statute miles per hour (30 x 1.15 = 34.5) gives 540 / 34.5, or about 15.7 hours; dropping the zero from the speed and dividing 540 by 3 gives 180 hours; and treating a knot as a nautical mile per minute turns the answer into 18 minutes, or 0.3 hours.
A jet takes off and climbs at 250 miles per hour for 12 minutes. How many miles does it cover during that climb?
- A.30 miles
- B.20.8 miles
- C.50 miles
- D.300 miles
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Correct answer: 50 miles
50 miles is correct. Twelve minutes is 12/60 = 0.2 hour, and 250 x 0.2 = 50. Writing 12 minutes as 0.12 hour gives 250 x 0.12 = 30 miles; dividing 250 by 12 gives about 20.8 miles; and reading 12 minutes as 1.2 hours gives 250 x 1.2 = 300 miles.
A car covers 245 miles using 35 miles per gallon of gasoline. How many gallons does the trip consume?
- A.6 gallons
- B.0.14 gallons
- C.7 gallons
- D.8 gallons
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Correct answer: 7 gallons
7 gallons is correct. Fuel used is distance divided by fuel economy: 245 / 35 = 7. Stopping the division at 35 x 6 = 210 and dropping the 35 miles left over gives 6 gallons; dividing the other way, 35 / 245, gives about 0.14 gallons; and 8 gallons would cover 8 x 35 = 280 miles, 35 more than the trip.
Two aircraft depart the same airfield at the same time, one heading east at 480 miles per hour and one heading west at 520 miles per hour. After how many hours are they 4,000 miles apart?
- A.8 hours
- B.4 hours
- C.7.7 hours
- D.100 hours
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Correct answer: 4 hours
4 hours is correct. Flying in opposite directions, the aircraft separate at the sum of their speeds, 480 + 520 = 1,000 miles per hour, so 4,000 / 1,000 = 4. Using their average speed of 500 miles per hour gives 4,000 / 500 = 8 hours; using only the westbound speed gives 4,000 / 520, or about 7.7 hours; and using the difference of the speeds, 40 miles per hour, gives 4,000 / 40 = 100 hours.
A messenger drives the first 90 miles at 45 miles per hour and the next 90 miles at 30 miles per hour. What is the average speed for the whole 180-mile trip?
- A.36 miles per hour
- B.37.5 miles per hour
- C.40 miles per hour
- D.38 miles per hour
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Correct answer: 36 miles per hour
36 miles per hour is correct. Average speed is total distance over total time: the first 90 miles take 90 / 45 = 2 hours and the next 90 take 90 / 30 = 3 hours, so 180 / 5 = 36. Averaging the two speeds, (45 + 30) / 2, gives 37.5 miles per hour; and 40 miles per hour or 38 miles per hour would mean a total time of 4.5 or about 4.7 hours, not the 5 hours the two legs take.
A reconnaissance drone flies at 90 miles per hour. How many minutes does it take to cover 54 miles?
- A.60 minutes
- B.36 minutes
- C.100 minutes
- D.0.6 minutes
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Correct answer: 36 minutes
36 minutes is correct. The time in hours is 54 / 90 = 0.6 hour, and 0.6 x 60 = 36 minutes. Reading 0.6 hour as if it meant 60 minutes gives 60 minutes; dividing the wrong way, 90 / 54 = about 1.67 hours, gives 100 minutes; and stopping before the conversion leaves 0.6 minutes.
A bus leaves a terminal at 7:00 a.m. traveling 50 miles per hour. A car leaves the same terminal at 8:00 a.m. on the same route at 70 miles per hour. At what time does the car overtake the bus?
- A.10:30 a.m.
- B.10:50 a.m.
- C.9:30 a.m.
- D.9:50 a.m.
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Correct answer: 10:30 a.m.
10:30 a.m. is correct. In its one-hour head start the bus covers 50 miles; the car closes that gap at 70 - 50 = 20 miles per hour, so it needs 50 / 20 = 2.5 hours, and 8:00 a.m. plus 2 hours 30 minutes is 10:30 a.m. Reading 2.5 hours as 2 hours 50 minutes gives 10:50 a.m.; adding 2.5 hours to the bus's 7:00 a.m. start gives 9:30 a.m.; and making both slips gives 9:50 a.m.
A pump fills a reservoir at 18 gallons per minute. How many gallons does it deliver in 1 hour and 20 minutes?
- A.1,296 gallons
- B.360 gallons
- C.1,440 gallons
- D.1,080 gallons
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Correct answer: 1,440 gallons
1,440 gallons is correct. One hour and 20 minutes is 60 + 20 = 80 minutes, and 18 x 80 = 1,440. Writing the time as 1.2 hours and converting that to 72 minutes gives 18 x 72 = 1,296 gallons; counting only the 20 minutes gives 18 x 20 = 360 gallons; and counting only the 1 hour gives 18 x 60 = 1,080 gallons.
A soldier marches 15 miles in 5 hours. At that pace, how long will it take to march 24 miles?
- A.14 hours
- B.3 hours
- C.4.8 hours
- D.8 hours
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Correct answer: 8 hours
8 hours is correct. The pace is 15 / 5 = 3 miles per hour, so 24 miles takes 24 / 3 = 8 hours. Reasoning that 9 more miles need 9 more hours gives 5 + 9 = 14 hours; stopping at the pace and reporting it gives 3 hours; and dividing the 24 miles by the 5 hours instead of by the 3-mile-per-hour pace gives 24 / 5 = 4.8 hours.
A train travels at a constant speed and passes mile marker 60 at noon and mile marker 200 at 2:00 p.m. What is the train's speed?
- A.70 miles per hour
- B.100 miles per hour
- C.140 miles per hour
- D.14 miles per hour
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Correct answer: 70 miles per hour
70 miles per hour is correct. The train covers 200 - 60 = 140 miles in the 2 hours from noon to 2:00 p.m., and 140 / 2 = 70. Dividing the 200 marker by 2 hours ignores the starting marker and gives 100 miles per hour; stopping at the distance gives 140 miles per hour; and taking noon to 2:00 p.m. as 12 - 2 = 10 hours gives 140 / 10 = 14 miles per hour.
A satellite transmits data at a constant rate, sending 256 megabytes in 8 seconds. How many megabytes does it send in 1 minute at that rate?
- A.25,600 megabytes
- B.3,200 megabytes
- C.15,360 megabytes
- D.1,920 megabytes
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Correct answer: 1,920 megabytes
1,920 megabytes is correct. The rate is 256 / 8 = 32 megabytes per second, and one minute is 60 seconds, so 32 x 60 = 1,920. Treating a minute as 100 seconds gives 32 x 100 = 3,200 megabytes; multiplying the 256 megabytes by 60 without first finding the per-second rate gives 15,360 megabytes; and making both mistakes, 256 x 100, gives 25,600 megabytes.
A vehicle averages 65 miles per hour for the first 2 hours of a trip and 45 miles per hour for the next 3 hours. What is the total distance traveled?
- A.285 miles
- B.275 miles
- C.130 miles
- D.265 miles
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Correct answer: 265 miles
265 miles is correct. The first part covers 65 x 2 = 130 miles and the second 45 x 3 = 135 miles, and 130 + 135 = 265. Swapping the times, 65 x 3 + 45 x 2, gives 285 miles; multiplying the average of the two speeds, 55, by the 5 hours gives 275 miles; and stopping after the first part gives 130 miles.
An aircraft must reach a destination 1,200 miles away by 4:00 p.m. and it departs at 11:00 a.m. What minimum constant ground speed is required?
- A.240 miles per hour
- B.200 miles per hour
- C.300 miles per hour
- D.171.4 miles per hour
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Correct answer: 240 miles per hour
240 miles per hour is correct. From 11:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. is 5 hours, so the speed is 1,200 / 5 = 240. Counting the hours 11, 12, 1, 2, 3, 4 as 6 hours gives 200 miles per hour; counting only from noon, 4 hours, gives 300 miles per hour; and subtracting 11 - 4 = 7 hours gives 1,200 / 7, or about 171.4 miles per hour.
A pilot flying at 360 miles per hour wants to know how far the aircraft moves each minute. How many miles does it travel per minute?
- A.3.6 miles
- B.6 miles
- C.0.1 miles
- D.5 miles
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Correct answer: 6 miles
6 miles is correct. There are 60 minutes in an hour, so 360 / 60 = 6 miles each minute. Treating an hour as 100 minutes gives 3.6 miles; dividing by the 3,600 seconds in an hour gives 0.1 miles, which is the distance flown each second; and 5 miles a minute would be only 5 x 60 = 300 miles per hour.
A blueprint uses a scale of 1 inch to 4 feet. A wall measured on the blueprint is 7.5 inches long. How long is the actual wall?
- A.30 feet
- B.28 feet
- C.11.5 feet
- D.28.5 feet
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Correct answer: 30 feet
Each inch on the blueprint stands for 4 feet, so multiply the whole 7.5 inches by 4: 7.5 x 4 = 30 feet. Scaling only the 7 whole inches gives 28 feet, which drops the half inch and the 2 feet it stands for; tacking the half back on unscaled (28 + 0.5) gives 28.5 feet. Adding the scale instead of multiplying gives 7.5 + 4 = 11.5 feet, which never uses the scale as a multiplier.
The ratio of pilots to navigators in a squadron is 5 to 2. If there are 40 pilots, how many navigators are there?
- A.16 navigators
- B.37 navigators
- C.100 navigators
- D.56 navigators
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Correct answer: 16 navigators
Set up 5/2 = 40/x. Since 40 is 5 x 8, the navigators number 2 x 8 = 16 navigators. Subtracting the 3-point gap between the ratio terms (40 - 3 = 37 navigators) treats a ratio as a fixed difference rather than a multiple. Turning the ratio upside down (40 x 5/2 = 100 navigators) gives more navigators than pilots, which contradicts 5 to 2. Adding pilots and navigators (40 + 16 = 56 navigators) gives the whole group, not the navigators alone.
A photograph that is 4 inches wide and 6 inches tall is enlarged so its width becomes 10 inches. If the proportions stay the same, what is the new height?
- A.15 inches
- B.12 inches
- C.25 inches
- D.6.7 inches
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Correct answer: 15 inches
The width grows from 4 to 10 inches, a scale factor of 10/4 = 2.5, so the height becomes 6 x 2.5 = 15 inches. Adding the same 6 inches to the height (6 + 6 = 12 inches) treats an enlargement as a fixed increase instead of a multiple. Applying the scale factor to the new width instead of the old height (10 x 2.5) gives 25 inches. Setting up the proportion with the height on the wrong side, 4/6 = x/10, gives x = 40/6, about 6.7 inches.
A fertilizer blend mixes nitrogen and phosphorus in a ratio of 5 to 3. If 45 pounds of nitrogen are used, how many pounds of phosphorus are needed?
- A.75 pounds
- B.43 pounds
- C.27 pounds
- D.72 pounds
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Correct answer: 27 pounds
Nitrogen to phosphorus is 5 to 3, and 45 is 5 x 9, so the phosphorus is 3 x 9 = 27 pounds. Subtracting the 2-point gap between the ratio terms (45 - 2 = 43 pounds) treats the ratio as a difference. Turning the ratio upside down (45 x 5/3 = 75 pounds) gives more phosphorus than nitrogen, which contradicts 5 to 3. Adding the two ingredients (45 + 27 = 72 pounds) gives the whole blend, not the phosphorus.
If 7 pumps can empty a flooded basement in 12 hours, how long would 6 pumps take to empty the same basement at the same rate?
- A.84 hours
- B.13 hours
- C.72 hours
- D.14 hours
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Correct answer: 14 hours
Fewer pumps take longer, so this is an inverse proportion. The job is 7 x 12 = 84 pump-hours, and 6 pumps need 84 / 6 = 14 hours. Stopping at the work total gives 84 hours, which counts pump-hours, not clock hours. Multiplying the new pump count by the old time (6 x 12 = 72 hours) skips the total-work step. Adding one hour for one fewer pump gives 13 hours, but the time grows in proportion (by 7/6), not by a fixed hour.
Three quantities are in the ratio 4 to 5 to 6, and the smallest is 28. What is the largest quantity?
- A.7
- B.42
- C.35
- D.30
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Correct answer: 42
The smallest quantity is 4 parts = 28, so one part is 28 / 4 = 7, and the largest (6 parts) is 6 x 7 = 42. The value 7 is the size of one part, a step short of the answer. The value 35 is the middle quantity (5 parts), not the largest. The value 30 adds the 2-part gap between 4 and 6 to 28 as if each part were 1 unit.
A budget of $96,000 is split among fuel, maintenance, and training in a ratio of 5 to 4 to 3. How much is allotted to fuel?
- A.$24,000
- B.$8,000
- C.$19,200
- D.$40,000
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Correct answer: $40,000
The ratio has 5 + 4 + 3 = 12 parts, so one part is $96,000 / 12 = $8,000, and fuel's 5 parts come to 5 x $8,000 = $40,000. Stopping at one part gives $8,000. Using training's 3 parts gives $24,000, the share at the other end of the ratio. Dividing the budget by fuel's 5 instead of by the 12 total parts gives $19,200.
A press stamps 1,000 emblems using 8 sheets of metal. How many sheets are needed to stamp 2,750 emblems at the same rate?
- A.22 sheets
- B.16 sheets
- C.24 sheets
- D.14 sheets
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Correct answer: 22 sheets
Each sheet yields 1,000 / 8 = 125 emblems, so 2,750 emblems need 2,750 / 125 = 22 sheets. Rounding 2,750 up to 3,000 emblems and using 3 x 8 gives 24 sheets, two more than the job needs. The figure 16 sheets covers only the first 2,000 emblems (2 x 8) and ignores the last 750. The figure 14 sheets covers only the 1,750 emblems beyond the first 1,000 (1,750 / 125) and leaves out the 8 sheets those first 1,000 need.
A garrison has rations for 240 troops to last 30 days. If the garrison grows to 360 troops, how many days will the same rations last?
- A.45 days
- B.12 days
- C.15 days
- D.20 days
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Correct answer: 20 days
More troops use the rations up sooner, so this is an inverse proportion: 240 x 30 = 7,200 troop-days, and 7,200 / 360 = 20 days. Treating it as a direct proportion (30 x 360/240) gives 45 days, more time for more troops. Cutting the days by the same 50 percent that the troops grew gives 15 days, but a 50 percent rise in troops cuts the days by only a third. Reading 'grows to 360' as 'grows by 360' makes the garrison 240 + 360 = 600 troops, and 7,200 / 600 gives 12 days.
A model aircraft is built at a scale of 1 to 48. If the real wingspan is 36 feet, what is the model's wingspan in inches?
- A.1.33 inches
- B.0.75 inches
- C.9 inches
- D.3 inches
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Correct answer: 9 inches
Convert first: 36 feet is 36 x 12 = 432 inches. At a scale of 1 to 48, the model spans 432 / 48 = 9 inches. Dividing 48 by 36 gives about 1.33, which sets the scale upside down and never converts, so 1.33 inches is wrong. Dividing 36 by 48 without converting gives 0.75, a length in feet, so 0.75 inches has the wrong unit. Dividing 36 by 12 instead of multiplying gives 3, which converts in the wrong direction and never applies the scale, so 3 inches is wrong.
Two gears mesh so that for every 4 turns of the small gear the large gear makes 3 turns. If the small gear makes 60 turns, how many turns does the large gear make?
- A.105 turns
- B.80 turns
- C.45 turns
- D.180 turns
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Correct answer: 45 turns
The gears turn in the ratio 4 to 3, and 60 is 4 x 15, so the large gear makes 3 x 15 = 45 turns. Multiplying 60 by 3 and forgetting to divide by 4 gives 180 turns. Turning the ratio upside down (60 x 4/3 = 80 turns) has the large gear spinning faster than the small one. Adding both gears' turns (60 + 45 = 105 turns) counts the pair together rather than the large gear alone.
An exchange rate gives 7 of currency A for every 4 of currency B. How many units of currency B equal 91 units of currency A?
- A.88 units
- B.143 units
- C.364 units
- D.52 units
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Correct answer: 52 units
Seven units of A trade for 4 of B, and 91 is 7 x 13, so 91 units of A equal 4 x 13 = 52 units of B. Subtracting the 3-unit gap between the rate terms (91 - 3 = 88 units) treats the rate as a difference. Multiplying 91 by 4 and forgetting to divide by 7 gives 364 units, more B than A, although each unit of B is worth more. Adding 91 and 52 to get 143 units mixes the two currencies.
A concrete mix uses cement, sand, and gravel in a ratio of 1 to 2 to 4. A batch contains 24 cubic feet of gravel. How many cubic feet of cement does it contain?
- A.42 cubic feet
- B.96 cubic feet
- C.8 cubic feet
- D.6 cubic feet
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Correct answer: 6 cubic feet
Gravel is 4 parts = 24 cubic feet, so one part is 24 / 4 = 6, and cement (1 part) is 6 cubic feet. Dividing the gravel by the 3 ingredients (24 / 3 = 8 cubic feet) ignores the ratio's parts. The figure 42 cubic feet is the whole batch (7 parts x 6), not the cement. Multiplying 24 by 4 instead of dividing gives 96 cubic feet, far more cement than gravel.
If 5 technicians can calibrate 80 instruments in a day, how many technicians are needed to calibrate 128 instruments in a day at the same rate?
- A.7 technicians
- B.8 technicians
- C.3 technicians
- D.10 technicians
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Correct answer: 8 technicians
Each technician calibrates 80 / 5 = 16 instruments a day, so 128 instruments need 128 / 16 = 8 technicians. The figure 3 technicians is only the number to add for the 48 extra instruments (48 / 16), not the whole crew. Adding the growth factor 128 / 80 = 1.6 to the 5 technicians instead of multiplying by it gives 6.6, rounded up to 7 technicians. Rounding the growth factor 1.6 up to 2 and doubling the crew gives 10 technicians.
A juice concentrate is mixed with water in a ratio of 2 to 9. How many cups of water are needed to make 44 cups of finished juice?
- A.42 cups
- B.36 cups
- C.4 cups
- D.8 cups
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Correct answer: 36 cups
The parts total 2 + 9 = 11, so one part is 44 / 11 = 4 cups, and the water (9 parts) is 9 x 4 = 36 cups. Stopping at the size of one part gives 4 cups. The figure 8 cups is the concentrate (2 parts), not the water. Subtracting the concentrate's 2 parts as if they were cups (44 - 2 = 42 cups) skips finding the size of a part.
On a wall map, 3 centimeters represents 45 kilometers. Two outposts are 90 kilometers apart in reality. How far apart are they on the map?
- A.15 centimeters
- B.6 centimeters
- C.30 centimeters
- D.2 centimeters
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Correct answer: 6 centimeters
Each centimeter stands for 45 / 3 = 15 kilometers, so 90 kilometers is 90 / 15 = 6 centimeters. Stopping at 90 / 45 = 2 centimeters forgets that 45 kilometers takes 3 centimeters on the map, not 1. Stopping at 45 / 3 = 15 gives the kilometers per centimeter, so 15 centimeters is the scale, not a map distance. Dividing 90 by 3 gives 30 centimeters, which divides by the map length instead of by the scale.
Working alone, one crew can resurface a runway in 12 days and another crew can do it in 6 days. Working together, how many days will they need?
- A.9 days
- B.4 days
- C.3 days
- D.6 days
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Correct answer: 4 days
The crews do 1/12 and 1/6 of the job per day; together that is 1/12 + 2/12 = 3/12 = 1/4 of the job a day, so the job takes 4 days. Averaging the two times gives 9 days, which treats the crews as taking turns rather than working at once. The figure 6 days is the faster crew working alone, and two crews together must finish sooner than that. Halving the faster crew's time gives 3 days, which assumes the slower crew works as fast as the faster one.
A bolt supplier sells 250 bolts for $20. At the same price per bolt, how much do 425 bolts cost?
- A.$11.76
- B.$21.25
- C.$34
- D.$14
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Correct answer: $34
Each bolt costs $20 / 250 = $0.08, so 425 bolts cost 425 x $0.08 = $34. The figure $14 prices only the 175 bolts beyond the first 250. Turning the proportion upside down (250 x $20 / 425) gives about $11.76, less money for more bolts. Dividing the 425 bolts by the $20 price gives 21.25, a count of bolts per dollar, so $21.25 is not the cost.
A scale states that 1 inch equals 60 miles. A river drawn on the chart measures 4.5 inches. What actual distance does that represent?
- A.13.3 miles
- B.64.5 miles
- C.270 miles
- D.240 miles
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Correct answer: 270 miles
Each inch stands for 60 miles, so 4.5 inches is 4.5 x 60 = 270 miles. Scaling only the 4 whole inches (4 x 60) gives 240 miles, which drops the half inch and the 30 miles it stands for. Adding the scale (60 + 4.5) gives 64.5 miles, and dividing 60 by 4.5 gives about 13.3 miles; neither uses the scale as a multiplier.
What is 35 percent of 240?
- A.72
- B.84
- C.156
- D.77
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Correct answer: 84
Thirty-five percent is 0.35, and 0.35 x 240 = 84. Multiplying by 0.65 instead gives 156, the 65 percent that remains after 35 percent is taken away. Splitting it as 30 percent (72) plus 5 percent (12) gives 84; stopping at the 30 percent gives 72, and adding a plain 5 instead of 5 percent gives 77.
A laptop originally priced at $720 is discounted by 15 percent. What is the discounted price?
- A.$612
- B.$705
- C.$828
- D.$108
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Correct answer: $612
The discount is 0.15 x $720 = $108, and $720 - $108 = $612. The figure $108 is the amount saved, not the price paid. Subtracting 15 dollars instead of 15 percent gives $705. Adding the 15 percent instead of subtracting it gives $720 x 1.15 = $828.
A candidate scored 68 out of 80 on an exam section. What percent did the candidate score?
- A.85 percent
- B.68 percent
- C.118 percent
- D.12 percent
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Correct answer: 85 percent
A percent score is points earned over points possible: 68 / 80 = 0.85, or 85 percent. Reading the raw score as a percent gives 68 percent. Dividing the other way (80 / 68) gives about 118 percent, more than a perfect score. Taking the 12 points missed as a percent gives 12 percent, which is neither the score nor its share of 80.
A salary of $52,000 is increased by 6 percent. What is the new salary?
- A.$55,120
- B.$83,200
- C.$52,312
- D.$48,880
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Correct answer: $55,120
The raise is 0.06 x $52,000 = $3,120, and $52,000 + $3,120 = $55,120. Using 0.006 instead of 0.06 adds only $312 and gives $52,312. Subtracting the raise instead of adding it gives $48,880. Using 0.6 instead of 0.06 adds $31,200 and gives $83,200.
After a 30 percent discount, a flight jacket costs $98. What was the original price?
- A.$127.40
- B.$326.67
- C.$128
- D.$140
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Correct answer: $140
After a 30 percent discount the jacket costs 70 percent of the original, so the original is $98 / 0.70 = $140. Adding 30 percent back to the sale price ($98 x 1.30 = $127.40) takes 30 percent of the wrong base. Adding 30 dollars instead of 30 percent gives $128. Dividing by the 30 percent that was taken off instead of the 70 percent that was paid ($98 / 0.30) gives about $326.67.
A 60-liter mixture is 25 percent antifreeze. How many liters of antifreeze does it contain?
- A.15 liters
- B.2.4 liters
- C.25 liters
- D.35 liters
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Correct answer: 15 liters
Antifreeze is 25 percent of the 60 liters: 0.25 x 60 = 15 liters. Dividing 60 by 25 gives 2.4 liters, which treats the percent as a divisor. Subtracting 25 from 60 gives 35 liters, which is not a percentage at all. Reading the 25 percent as 25 liters gives 25 liters, which takes the rate for the amount.
A reading on a gauge falls from 80 to 68. What is the percent decrease?
- A.12 percent
- B.15 percent
- C.17.6 percent
- D.85 percent
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Correct answer: 15 percent
Percent decrease is the change over the original value: (80 - 68) / 80 = 12 / 80 = 0.15, or 15 percent. Dividing the change by the new reading (12 / 68) gives about 17.6 percent, which uses the wrong base. Dividing 68 by 80 gives 85 percent, the share of the reading that remains rather than the drop. Reading the 12-point drop itself as 12 percent skips dividing the change by the original 80.
A fuel tank holds 240 gallons and is currently 65 percent full. How many gallons are in the tank?
- A.175 gallons
- B.84 gallons
- C.144 gallons
- D.156 gallons
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Correct answer: 156 gallons
Sixty-five percent of 240 is 0.65 x 240 = 156 gallons. Subtracting 65 from 240 gives 175 gallons, which is not a percentage at all. Using 60 percent and dropping the 5 gives 0.60 x 240 = 144 gallons. The figure 84 gallons is the empty 35 percent of the tank, not the fuel in it.
A tip of 18 percent on a meal comes to $9. What was the price of the meal before the tip?
- A.$50
- B.$162
- C.$27
- D.$59
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Correct answer: $50
The tip is 18 percent of the meal, so $9 = 0.18 x price and the price is $9 / 0.18 = $50. The figure $59 adds the tip back on, giving the whole bill rather than the meal price. Multiplying 9 by 18 gives $162, which multiplies where the price must be found by dividing. Adding 18 dollars to the $9 instead of working with 18 percent gives $27.
How many gallons of pure water must be added to 24 gallons of a 50 percent saline solution to dilute it to a 30 percent solution?
- A.4.8 gallons
- B.16 gallons
- C.7.2 gallons
- D.40 gallons
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Correct answer: 16 gallons
The salt stays fixed at 0.50 x 24 = 12 gallons. At 30 percent, those 12 gallons are 0.30 of the new total, so the total is 12 / 0.30 = 40 gallons, and the water added is 40 - 24 = 16 gallons. The figure 40 gallons is the new total, not the water added. Taking 30 percent of the original 24 gallons gives 7.2 gallons, which applies the new strength to the old volume. Taking the 20-point drop in strength as 20 percent of 24 gives 4.8 gallons, which treats the change in strength as a share of the volume.
A 40-pound batch of alloy is 15 percent tin. How many pounds of pure tin must be added to raise the tin content to 32 percent?
- A.12.8 pounds
- B.10 pounds
- C.6 pounds
- D.6.8 pounds
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Correct answer: 10 pounds
The batch holds 0.15 x 40 = 6 pounds of tin. Adding x pounds gives 6 + x = 0.32 x (40 + x), so 6 + x = 12.8 + 0.32x, then 0.68x = 6.8 and x = 10 pounds. Keeping the total at 40 (12.8 - 6) gives 6.8 pounds, forgetting that the added tin raises the total weight too. The figure 12.8 pounds is all the tin a 40-pound batch would hold at 32 percent, not the amount to add, and 6 pounds is the tin already in the batch.
A quantity is increased by 20 percent and then the result is decreased by 20 percent. Compared with the original, the final value is
- A.the same as the original
- B.higher than the original
- C.4 percent below
- D.20 percent below
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Correct answer: 4 percent below
Start at 100: a 20 percent rise gives 120, and a 20 percent cut of 120 removes 24, leaving 96, so the final value is 4 percent below the original. The two changes do not cancel to leave the value the same as the original, because the cut is taken from the larger value. Thinking the rise outweighs the cut gives a value higher than the original, but the cut of 24 is bigger than the rise of 20. Counting only the final cut gives 20 percent below; the answer must combine both steps.
A 12 percent solution of bleach contains 6 ounces of pure bleach. What is the total volume of the solution?
- A.44 ounces
- B.0.72 ounces
- C.72 ounces
- D.50 ounces
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Correct answer: 50 ounces
The bleach is 12 percent of the total, so 6 = 0.12 x total and the total is 6 / 0.12 = 50 ounces. Multiplying instead of dividing gives 6 x 12 = 72 ounces or 6 x 0.12 = 0.72 ounces. The figure 44 ounces is the water alone (50 - 6), not the whole solution.
An aircrew completed 42 of 56 assigned sorties. What percent of the sorties were not completed?
- A.42 percent
- B.14 percent
- C.25 percent
- D.75 percent
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Correct answer: 25 percent
The sorties not completed number 56 - 42 = 14, and 14 / 56 = 0.25, or 25 percent. The figure 75 percent is the share that was completed (42 / 56), not the share left undone. Reading the count of 14 sorties as a percent gives 14 percent, and reading the count of 42 completed sorties as a percent gives 42 percent, which makes both mistakes at once.
A deposit of $8,000 earns 5 percent simple interest per year. How much interest accrues after 3 years?
- A.$9,261
- B.$1,261
- C.$9,200
- D.$1,200
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Correct answer: $1,200
Simple interest is principal x rate x time: $8,000 x 0.05 x 3 = $1,200, or $400 a year for 3 years. Compounding the interest ($8,000 x 1.05^3 - $8,000) gives about $1,261, but simple interest is never charged on earlier interest. The figure $9,200 is the balance, principal plus interest, not the interest. The figure $9,261 is the compounded balance, which makes both mistakes.
A mechanic earns $22 per hour for the first 40 hours and time-and-a-half beyond that. What are the gross earnings for a 48-hour week?
- A.$1,496
- B.$1,584
- C.$1,144
- D.$1,056
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Correct answer: $1,144
Regular pay is 40 x $22 = $880. The 8 overtime hours pay 1.5 x $22 = $33 each, or $264, so the week pays $880 + $264 = $1,144. Paying all 48 hours at $22 gives $1,056, which leaves out the overtime premium. Paying all 48 hours at $33 gives $1,584. Swapping the rates, with the first 40 hours at $33 and the last 8 at $22, gives $1,320 + $176 = $1,496.
Of 500 recruits, 92 percent passed the physical fitness test. How many recruits passed?
- A.460 recruits
- B.452 recruits
- C.40 recruits
- D.408 recruits
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Correct answer: 460 recruits
Ninety-two percent of 500 is 0.92 x 500 = 460 recruits. Subtracting 92 from 500 gives 408 recruits, which is not a percentage at all. Taking 90 percent (450) and adding a plain 2 instead of 2 percent gives 452 recruits. The figure 40 recruits is the 8 percent who did not pass.
A 30 percent acid solution is combined with a 70 percent acid solution to make 40 liters of a 45 percent solution. How many liters of the 70 percent solution are used?
- A.25 liters
- B.20 liters
- C.15 liters
- D.6 liters
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Correct answer: 15 liters
Let x be the liters of 70 percent solution, so 40 - x liters are 30 percent. The acid gives 0.70x + 0.30 x (40 - x) = 0.45 x 40 = 18, so 12 + 0.40x = 18, then 0.40x = 6 and x = 15 liters. The figure 25 liters is the amount of 30 percent solution. Stopping at 0.40x = 6 without dividing by 0.40 gives 6 liters. Splitting the 40 liters evenly gives 20 liters, but an even split makes a 50 percent solution.
A part costs $250 before a 12 percent discount, and then a 6 percent sales tax is applied to the discounted price. What is the final amount paid?
- A.$206.80
- B.$235.00
- C.$233.20
- D.$220.00
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Correct answer: $233.20
The discount is 0.12 x $250 = $30, leaving $220. The tax on $220 is 0.06 x $220 = $13.20, so the total is $220 + $13.20 = $233.20. Netting the two rates into a 6 percent discount gives $235.00, which taxes the full price instead of the discounted one. The figure $220.00 stops after the discount and leaves out the tax. Subtracting the tax instead of adding it gives $206.80.
A coffee blend mixes 8 pounds of beans costing $6 per pound with 12 pounds costing $11 per pound. What is the cost per pound of the resulting blend?
- A.$6.60
- B.$8.00
- C.$8.50
- D.$9.00
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Correct answer: $9.00
The beans cost 8 x $6 + 12 x $11 = $48 + $132 = $180 for 20 pounds, so the blend costs $180 / 20 = $9.00 per pound. Averaging the two prices, ($6 + $11) / 2 = $8.50, ignores that there are more pounds of the pricier beans. Swapping the weights (12 x $6 + 8 x $11 = $160, and $160 / 20) gives $8.00. Dividing only the $132 paid for the pricier beans by the 20 pounds gives $6.60, which leaves out the cost of the cheaper beans.
A reservoir is 80 percent full holding 6,400 gallons. What is the reservoir's total capacity?
- A.6,480 gallons
- B.8,000 gallons
- C.5,120 gallons
- D.7,680 gallons
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Correct answer: 8,000 gallons
The 6,400 gallons are 80 percent of capacity, so capacity is 6,400 / 0.80 = 8,000 gallons. Multiplying by 0.80 instead gives 5,120 gallons, less than the water already held. Adding 20 percent of 6,400 gives 7,680 gallons, which takes the missing 20 percent from the wrong base. Adding 80 to 6,400 gives 6,480 gallons.
A trainee gets 45 of the first 50 practice questions correct, then answers the next 30 questions and finishes with 88 percent correct overall. How many of the last 30 questions did the trainee answer correctly?
- A.20 questions
- B.27 questions
- C.28 questions
- D.25 questions
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Correct answer: 25 questions
The answer is 25 questions. All 80 questions (50 plus 30) count toward the overall score, and 88 percent of 80 is 70.4, so the trainee has 70 correct in all (70 of 80 is 87.5 percent, which rounds to 88). Subtracting the 45 from the first block leaves 70 minus 45, or 25 of the last 30. Subtracting the 50 questions of the first block instead of the 45 answered correctly gives 20 questions; assuming the trainee kept the first block's 90 percent rate on the last 30 gives 27 questions; and reading the drop from 90 to 88 percent as only 2 misses gives 30 minus 2, or 28 questions.
A scout vehicle travels 5 miles in 8 minutes at a constant speed. What is its speed in miles per hour?
- A.37.5 miles per hour
- B.62.5 miles per hour
- C.7.5 miles per hour
- D.40 miles per hour
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Correct answer: 37.5 miles per hour
The answer is 37.5 miles per hour. Eight minutes is 8/60 of an hour, so the speed is 5 divided by 8/60, which is 5 x 60/8 = 37.5 miles per hour. Treating 8 minutes as 0.08 hour gives 5/0.08, or 62.5 miles per hour; dividing 60 by 8 and dropping the 5 miles gives 7.5 miles per hour; and treating 8 minutes as one-eighth of an hour gives 5 x 8, or 40 miles per hour.
Word Knowledge (58)
ASTUTE most nearly means
- A.Austere
- B.Studious
- C.Persuasive
- D.Perceptive
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Correct answer: Perceptive
Astute means perceptive: quick to see how a situation really stands and to turn that to advantage, as an astute negotiator does. 'Austere' looks similar but means stern or severely plain; 'studious' means devoted to study, which is diligence rather than sharp judgment; and 'persuasive' means good at convincing others, a skill an astute person may use but not what the word means.
ABATE most nearly means
- A.Abet
- B.Abandon
- C.Escalate
- D.Diminish
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Correct answer: Diminish
To abate is to diminish, to become or make less in force or amount, as a storm abates. 'Escalate' is the reverse, to grow in size or intensity; 'abet' looks similar but means to help or encourage, usually in wrongdoing; and 'abandon' shares the opening letters but means to leave behind or give up.
PRUDENT most nearly means
- A.Prudish
- B.Careful
- C.Cowardly
- D.Heedless
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Correct answer: Careful
Prudent means careful, showing good judgment that avoids needless risk, as in a prudent investment. 'Prudish' looks similar but means easily shocked by matters of propriety; 'cowardly' means lacking courage, which is fear rather than good judgment; and 'heedless' means paying no attention to risk, close to the opposite.
LUCID most nearly means
- A.Lurid
- B.Eloquent
- C.Coherent
- D.Muddled
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Correct answer: Coherent
Lucid means coherent, clearly expressed and easy to follow, as in a lucid explanation. 'Lurid' looks similar but means shocking or sensational; 'eloquent' means fluent and moving in speech or writing, which can still be hard to follow; and 'muddled' means confused and disordered, close to the opposite.
TIMELY most nearly means
- A.Timeless
- B.Prompt
- C.Hurried
- D.Untimely
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Correct answer: Prompt
Timely means prompt, happening at the right moment, as in a timely warning. 'Untimely' means happening at a bad or too-early moment, the opposite; 'timeless' shares the root but means never going out of date; and 'hurried' means done too fast, often carelessly, which is haste rather than good timing.
OMINOUS most nearly means
- A.Onerous
- B.Mysterious
- C.Auspicious
- D.Sinister
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Correct answer: Sinister
Ominous means sinister, suggesting that something bad is about to happen, as in ominous storm clouds. 'Onerous' looks similar but means burdensome; 'mysterious' means hard to explain or understand, which need not threaten anything; and 'auspicious' means promising good fortune, the opposite kind of omen.
BOLSTER most nearly means
- A.Bluster
- B.Upholster
- C.Reinforce
- D.Undermine
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Correct answer: Reinforce
To bolster is to reinforce, to support something and make it stronger, as in bolstering morale. 'Undermine' is the reverse, to weaken from below; 'bluster' looks similar but means to talk loudly and aggressively; and 'upholster' shares the ending and the cushion sense of a bolster but means to fit furniture with padding and covers.
METICULOUS most nearly means
- A.Thorough
- B.Ponderous
- C.Ambitious
- D.Careless
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Correct answer: Thorough
Meticulous means thorough, giving close attention to every detail. 'Careless' is close to the opposite; 'ponderous' means slow and labored, which careful work may look like but is not what the word means; and 'ambitious' means eager to succeed, which describes drive rather than care with details.
CURTAIL most nearly means
- A.Conceal
- B.Postpone
- C.Shorten
- D.Lengthen
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Correct answer: Shorten
To curtail is to shorten or cut back, as in curtailing a visit or curtailing spending. 'Lengthen' is the reverse; 'postpone' means to put off until later, which delays an event without cutting it short; and 'conceal' means to hide, a sense suggested only by the word's resemblance to curtain.
ROBUST most nearly means
- A.Rustic
- B.Bulky
- C.Feeble
- D.Strong
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Correct answer: Strong
Robust means strong, sturdy and healthy, as in a robust frame or a robust economy. 'Feeble' means weak, the opposite; 'bulky' means large and awkward to handle, which describes size rather than strength; and 'rustic' sounds a little like robust but means plain and countrified.
CONCISE most nearly means
- A.Succinct
- B.Precise
- C.Incisive
- D.Verbose
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Correct answer: Succinct
Concise means succinct, saying a great deal in few words. 'Verbose' means using more words than needed, the opposite; 'precise' looks similar but means exact or accurate, which a long statement can also be; and 'incisive' shares the ending but means sharp and penetrating in thought.
ZEALOUS most nearly means
- A.Passionate
- B.Jealous
- C.Indifferent
- D.Industrious
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Correct answer: Passionate
Zealous means passionate, full of energetic devotion to a cause or goal. 'Indifferent' means having no interest or concern, the opposite; 'jealous' looks and sounds similar but means envious or possessive; and 'industrious' means hardworking, which describes steady effort rather than fervor.
HAMPER most nearly means
- A.Impede
- B.Pamper
- C.Hammer
- D.Hasten
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Correct answer: Impede
To hamper is to impede, to get in the way of progress or movement, as bad weather hampers a search. 'Hasten' means to speed something up, the opposite; 'pamper' rhymes with hamper but means to indulge with comfort; and 'hammer' differs by one letter but means to strike repeatedly.
VITAL most nearly means
- A.Visual
- B.Urgent
- C.Trivial
- D.Crucial
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Correct answer: Crucial
Vital means crucial, absolutely necessary to something's success or survival, as in vital supplies. 'Trivial' means of little importance, the opposite; 'visual' looks similar but means relating to sight; and 'urgent' means needing action right away, which concerns timing rather than importance.
WANE most nearly means
- A.Waver
- B.Dwindle
- C.Wean
- D.Prosper
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Correct answer: Dwindle
To wane is to dwindle, to decrease gradually in size or strength, as the moon wanes after it is full. 'Prosper' means to grow and thrive, close to the opposite; 'waver' looks similar but means to sway or hesitate; and 'wean' uses nearly the same letters but means to accustom someone to doing without something.
AFFLUENT most nearly means
- A.Fluent
- B.Influential
- C.Prosperous
- D.Fashionable
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Correct answer: Prosperous
Affluent means prosperous, having plenty of money and comfort. 'Fluent' shares the root but means speaking or writing smoothly; 'influential' means having power over others, which wealth can bring but which is a different quality; and 'fashionable' means in keeping with current style, which costs money but does not mean having it.
BAFFLE most nearly means
- A.Babble
- B.Deceive
- C.Clarify
- D.Perplex
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Correct answer: Perplex
To baffle is to perplex, to confuse someone so completely that they cannot understand. 'Clarify' means to make something clear, the opposite; 'deceive' means to make someone believe something false, which misleads rather than bewilders; and 'babble' looks similar but means to talk rapidly and foolishly.
STERN most nearly means
- A.Stubborn
- B.Sterile
- C.Severe
- D.Merciful
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Correct answer: Severe
Stern means severe, serious and strict in manner, as a stern warning is. 'Merciful' means kind and forgiving, close to the opposite; 'stubborn' means unwilling to change one's mind, which is fixed rather than harsh; and 'sterile' looks similar but means free of germs or unable to produce offspring.
COMMENCE most nearly means
- A.Commend
- B.Start
- C.Conclude
- D.Announce
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Correct answer: Start
To commence is to start, as a ceremony commences at noon. 'Conclude' means to bring to an end, the opposite; 'commend' looks similar but means to praise; and 'announce' means to declare publicly, which may come before a start without being one.
FLAW most nearly means
- A.Fault
- B.Flair
- C.Quirk
- D.Merit
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Correct answer: Fault
A flaw is a fault, an imperfection that spoils something, such as a flaw in a gem or in an argument. 'Merit' is a good quality, close to the opposite; 'flair' looks similar but means a natural talent; and 'quirk' means an odd habit or peculiarity, which is unusual rather than defective.
DEFICIT most nearly means
- A.Shortfall
- B.Deposit
- C.Liability
- D.Surplus
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Correct answer: Shortfall
A deficit is a shortfall, the amount by which something falls short of what is needed, as when spending exceeds income. 'Surplus' is an excess, the opposite; 'deposit' looks similar but means money placed in an account; and 'liability' means a debt or obligation owed, which a deficit may create but which is not the gap itself.
AGILE most nearly means
- A.Fragile
- B.Nimble
- C.Hasty
- D.Awkward
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Correct answer: Nimble
Agile means nimble, able to move quickly and easily. 'Awkward' means clumsy and ungainly, the opposite; 'fragile' shares the ending but means easily broken; and 'hasty' means done too quickly and carelessly, which is rushing rather than moving with ease.
RECTIFY most nearly means
- A.Verify
- B.Remedy
- C.Ratify
- D.Impair
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Correct answer: Remedy
To rectify is to remedy, to put right something that is wrong, as in rectifying an error. 'Impair' means to damage or weaken, close to the opposite; 'ratify' looks similar but means to approve formally, as with a treaty; and 'verify' means to check that something is true, which confirms a fact without putting anything right.
BLUNDER most nearly means
- A.Plunder
- B.Triumph
- C.Gamble
- D.Error
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Correct answer: Error
A blunder is an error, especially a careless or clumsy one. 'Triumph' is a great success, close to the opposite; 'plunder' rhymes with blunder but means goods taken by force; and 'gamble' is a risky move, which may pay off and is not a mistake in itself.
MUNDANE most nearly means
- A.Mandatory
- B.Exceptional
- C.Commonplace
- D.Superficial
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Correct answer: Commonplace
Mundane means commonplace, ordinary and lacking excitement, as in mundane chores. 'Exceptional' means far beyond the usual, the opposite; 'mandatory' looks a little similar but means required by rule, which describes obligation rather than dullness; and 'superficial' means concerned only with the surface, which describes a lack of depth rather than a lack of excitement.
AMIABLE most nearly means
- A.Amenable
- B.Abrasive
- C.Friendly
- D.Capable
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Correct answer: Friendly
Amiable means friendly, pleasant and good-natured in manner. 'Abrasive' means harsh and rude in manner, close to the opposite; 'amenable' looks similar but means willing to go along with a suggestion; and 'capable' shares the ending but means able to do something well.
INHIBIT most nearly means
- A.Curb
- B.Inhabit
- C.Inherit
- D.Provoke
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Correct answer: Curb
To inhibit is to curb, to hold back or restrain an action or process, as cold inhibits the growth of bacteria. 'Provoke' means to stir up or set off a reaction, close to the opposite; 'inhabit' looks similar but means to live in a place; and 'inherit' means to receive property or traits from those who came before.
STAGNANT most nearly means
- A.Shallow
- B.Static
- C.Filthy
- D.Rippled
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Correct answer: Static
Stagnant means static, not moving or flowing and showing no change, as in stagnant water or a stagnant economy. 'Rippled' describes a surface stirred into small waves, the look of moving water; 'shallow' describes water that is not deep, whether it flows or not; and 'filthy' means very dirty, which stagnant water may become but which is not what the word means.
GENUINE most nearly means
- A.Generous
- B.Real
- C.Bogus
- D.Valuable
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Correct answer: Real
Genuine means real, truly what it claims to be rather than counterfeit. 'Bogus' means fake, the opposite; 'generous' looks similar but means giving freely; and 'valuable' means worth a great deal, which a genuine item may or may not be.
LENIENT most nearly means
- A.Negligent
- B.Indolent
- C.Stringent
- D.Tolerant
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Correct answer: Tolerant
Lenient means tolerant, mild rather than severe in judging or punishing, as a lenient sentence is. 'Stringent' means strict and demanding, the opposite; 'negligent' means failing to take proper care, which is carelessness rather than mercy; and 'indolent' shares the ending but means lazy and avoiding effort.
PORTION most nearly means
- A.Potion
- B.Position
- C.Part
- D.Entirety
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Correct answer: Part
A portion is a part, a share of something larger, as in a portion of the meal. 'Entirety' means the whole of something, the opposite; 'potion' looks similar but means a drink with supposed medicinal or magical power; and 'position' means a place or stance, which only resembles portion in spelling.
VIVID most nearly means
- A.Intense
- B.Livid
- C.Glossy
- D.Subdued
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Correct answer: Intense
Vivid means intense, strikingly bright or clear, as in vivid colors or a vivid memory. 'Subdued' means toned down and soft, the opposite; 'livid' looks similar but means furious or bruise-colored; and 'glossy' means smooth and shiny, which describes a surface rather than the strength of a color.
DETACH most nearly means
- A.Disconnect
- B.Detain
- C.Fasten
- D.Distribute
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Correct answer: Disconnect
To detach is to disconnect, to separate one thing from what it was joined to, as when detaching a trailer from a truck. 'Fasten' means to join or attach, the opposite; 'detain' looks similar but means to hold someone back or keep them in custody; and 'distribute' means to hand out or spread among many, which divides a supply rather than unfastening a part.
BRISK most nearly means
- A.Brittle
- B.Frantic
- C.Energetic
- D.Leisurely
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Correct answer: Energetic
Brisk means energetic, quick and active, as in a brisk walk. 'Leisurely' means unhurried and relaxed, the opposite; 'brittle' looks similar but means hard and easily broken; and 'frantic' means wild with fear or hurry, which is panic rather than healthy energy.
COMPLY most nearly means
- A.Compile
- B.Disobey
- C.Conform
- D.Protest
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Correct answer: Conform
To comply is to conform, to act as a rule, order or request requires. 'Disobey' means to refuse to follow an order, the opposite; 'compile' looks similar but means to gather material into a list or collection; and 'protest' means to object publicly, which voices disagreement rather than going along.
MEAGER most nearly means
- A.Eager
- B.Paltry
- C.Lavish
- D.Bland
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Correct answer: Paltry
Meager means paltry, too small in amount to be enough, as in a meager ration. 'Lavish' means plentiful and generous, the opposite; 'eager' looks similar but means keen or impatient to do something; and 'bland' means lacking flavor or interest, which describes taste rather than amount.
RADIANT most nearly means
- A.Radical
- B.Luminous
- C.Fragrant
- D.Somber
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Correct answer: Luminous
Radiant means luminous, shining brightly or glowing with light or happiness. 'Somber' means dark and gloomy, close to the opposite; 'radical' looks similar but means extreme or fundamental; and 'fragrant' shares radiant's -ant ending but means sweet-smelling.
HEED most nearly means
- A.Delay
- B.Heckle
- C.Neglect
- D.Observe
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Correct answer: Observe
To heed is to observe, to pay careful attention to advice or a warning and act on it. 'Neglect' means to ignore or fail to attend to, the opposite; 'delay' means to put off until later; and 'heckle' means to interrupt a speaker with jeers.
SUPERFICIAL most nearly means
- A.Profound
- B.Artificial
- C.Beneficial
- D.Shallow
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Correct answer: Shallow
Superficial most nearly means shallow: concerned only with the surface of something and lacking depth. 'Profound' is close to the opposite, describing deep thought or feeling; 'artificial' shares the same ending and is often confused with superficial, but it means made by people or fake, not lacking depth; and 'beneficial' also shares that ending but means helpful or useful.
ACQUIRE most nearly means
- A.Gain
- B.Lose
- C.Require
- D.Request
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Correct answer: Gain
Acquire most nearly means gain, to come to have or get something. 'Lose' is the opposite, to stop having it; 'require' looks and sounds similar but means to need; and 'request' means to ask for something, which may come before getting it but is not the same as getting it.
TEDIOUS most nearly means
- A.Lively
- B.Tiresome
- C.Studious
- D.Arduous
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Correct answer: Tiresome
Tedious most nearly means tiresome: long, dull, and wearying. 'Lively' is close to the opposite, full of energy and interest; 'studious' looks similar but means devoted to study; and 'arduous' means hard and demanding, while a tedious task can be quite easy and simply dull.
DIMINISH most nearly means
- A.Lessen
- B.Increase
- C.Demolish
- D.Divide
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Correct answer: Lessen
Diminish most nearly means lessen, to make or become smaller or less. 'Increase' is the opposite; 'demolish' looks similar but means to tear down or destroy completely; and 'divide' means to split into parts, which leaves the total amount the same.
ADEPT most nearly means
- A.Expert
- B.Clumsy
- C.Adaptable
- D.Confident
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Correct answer: Expert
Adept most nearly means expert, highly skilled at something. 'Clumsy' is close to the opposite; 'adaptable' looks and sounds similar but means able to adjust to new conditions; and 'confident' means sure of yourself, which a person can be without having real skill.
HOSTILE most nearly means
- A.Unfriendly
- B.Amicable
- C.Volatile
- D.Suspicious
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Correct answer: Unfriendly
Hostile most nearly means unfriendly, openly opposed or showing dislike. 'Amicable' is close to the opposite, meaning friendly and peaceable; 'volatile' means likely to change suddenly or flare up, which describes an unstable mood rather than open opposition; and 'suspicious' means distrustful, which a person can feel quietly without acting against anyone.
PROHIBIT most nearly means
- A.Permit
- B.Exhibit
- C.Condemn
- D.Forbid
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Correct answer: Forbid
Prohibit most nearly means forbid, to refuse to allow something by rule or authority. 'Permit' is the opposite, to allow; 'exhibit' shares the same ending but means to show or display; and 'condemn' means to declare something wrong or to sentence someone, which judges an act rather than forbidding it ahead of time.
FLUCTUATE most nearly means
- A.Rise
- B.Settle
- C.Falter
- D.Vary
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Correct answer: Vary
Fluctuate most nearly means vary, to rise and fall or change irregularly. 'Settle' is close to the opposite, to become steady; 'rise' describes movement in one direction only, while something that fluctuates goes both up and down; and 'falter' means to lose strength or hesitate, not to move up and down.
Of the four words below, which is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to GENEROUS?
- A.Lavish
- B.Grateful
- C.Gracious
- D.Miserly
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Correct answer: Miserly
The word most nearly opposite to generous is miserly, unwilling to spend or give. 'Lavish' means giving or spending freely, which is close to generous rather than opposite; 'grateful' sounds related but means thankful for what you receive; and 'gracious' means kind and courteous, which also sits close to generous.
Of the four words below, which is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to EXPAND?
- A.Inflate
- B.Shrink
- C.Expend
- D.Enlarge
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Correct answer: Shrink
The word most nearly opposite to expand is shrink, to become smaller. 'Inflate' and 'enlarge' both mean to make or grow bigger, so they are close to expand rather than opposite; and 'expend' looks almost the same but means to spend or use up.
Of the four words below, which is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to PERMANENT?
- A.Durable
- B.Persistent
- C.Transient
- D.Stationary
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Correct answer: Transient
The word most nearly opposite to permanent is transient, lasting only a short time. 'Durable' and 'persistent' both describe something that lasts or keeps going, which is close to permanent; and 'stationary' means not moving, which describes position rather than how long something lasts.
Of the four words below, which is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to BRAVE?
- A.Fearless
- B.Cowardly
- C.Brash
- D.Disloyal
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Correct answer: Cowardly
The word most nearly opposite to brave is cowardly, lacking courage in the face of danger. 'Fearless' means much the same as brave; 'brash' means bold in a rude or reckless way, which is too much daring rather than too little; and 'disloyal' means unfaithful to a person or cause, a different failing from a lack of courage.
In the sentence "The squadron carried out the MERITORIOUS rescue under heavy fire," the word meritorious most nearly means
- A.Reckless
- B.Notorious
- C.Dangerous
- D.Admirable
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Correct answer: Admirable
In this sentence meritorious means admirable, deserving praise and reward. 'Reckless' would criticize the squadron for careless risk rather than honor it; 'notorious' shares the same ending but means famous for something bad; and 'dangerous' describes the conditions under heavy fire, not the merit of the rescue itself.
In the sentence "The briefing was so AMBIGUOUS that no one knew the real objective," the word ambiguous most nearly means
- A.Unclear
- B.Precise
- C.Ambitious
- D.Secretive
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Correct answer: Unclear
In this sentence ambiguous means unclear, open to more than one reading, which is why no one knew the real objective. 'Precise' is close to the opposite, exact and clearly defined; 'ambitious' looks similar but means eager to succeed; and 'secretive' means inclined to hide information, while the trouble with this briefing was that its meaning was uncertain, not that it was hidden.
In the sentence "The recruit showed remarkable COMPOSURE during the surprise inspection," the word composure most nearly means
- A.Panic
- B.Posture
- C.Poise
- D.Courage
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Correct answer: Poise
In this sentence composure means poise, staying calm and self-controlled under pressure. 'Panic' is the opposite; 'posture' looks similar and suits an inspection, but it means the way the body is held; and 'courage' means bravery in the face of danger, while composure is about keeping calm.
In the sentence "The wing commander chose to DELEGATE the routine tasks to his staff," the word delegate most nearly means
- A.Perform
- B.Entrust
- C.Debate
- D.Oversee
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Correct answer: Entrust
In this sentence delegate means entrust, to hand a task and the responsibility for it to someone else. 'Perform' is close to the opposite, doing the tasks yourself; 'debate' looks similar but means to argue a question; and 'oversee' means to watch over people as they work, which a commander may do after delegating but which is not the act of handing tasks off.
In the sentence "The faulty sensor produced ERRONEOUS altitude readings," the word erroneous most nearly means
- A.Faultless
- B.Erratic
- C.Mistaken
- D.Excessive
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Correct answer: Mistaken
In this sentence erroneous means mistaken, containing errors, which is what a faulty sensor produces. 'Faultless' is the opposite, free of any error; 'erratic' looks similar but means irregular or unpredictable, and a reading can jump around and still be correct; and 'excessive' means more than is needed, while an erroneous reading can be too high or too low.
In the sentence "The instructor praised the cadet's TENABLE argument during the debate," the word tenable most nearly means
- A.Defensible
- B.Flimsy
- C.Tangible
- D.Unbeatable
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Correct answer: Defensible
In this sentence tenable means defensible, able to be held and supported against challenge, which is why the instructor praised it. 'Flimsy' is close to the opposite, weak and easily knocked down; 'tangible' looks similar but means able to be touched or clearly real; and 'unbeatable' goes too far, since a tenable argument can be defended but may still lose the debate.
In the sentence "The mechanic gave a CURSORY glance at the engine before the flight," the word cursory most nearly means
- A.Hurried
- B.Thorough
- C.Cursive
- D.Critical
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Correct answer: Hurried
In this sentence cursory means hurried, quick and done without close attention. 'Thorough' is the opposite, careful and complete; 'cursive' looks similar but describes joined-up handwriting; and 'critical' means looking closely for faults, which takes far more care than a cursory glance.
In the sentence "The crew worked in TANDEM to load the cargo before dusk," the word tandem most nearly means
- A.Singly
- B.Randomly
- C.Steadily
- D.Jointly
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Correct answer: Jointly
In this sentence in tandem means jointly, working together on the same task. 'Singly' is the opposite, one at a time and alone; 'randomly' looks similar but means without plan or pattern; and 'steadily' describes a constant, even pace, not working together.
Math Knowledge (59)
Solve for x: .
- A.-6
- B.36
- C.6
- D.-36
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Correct answer: 6
Subtract 13 from both sides to get 6x = 36, then divide both sides by 6, so x = 6; check: 6 times 6 plus 13 is 49. -6 subtracts in the wrong order, 13 - 49 = -36, before dividing by 6. 36 stops one step early, at the value of 6x rather than x. -36 makes both slips, subtracting in the wrong order and then stopping at 6x.
Solve for k: .
- A.8
- B.24
- C.-4
- D.4
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Correct answer: 8
Subtract 2k from both sides to get 3k - 18 = 6, add 18 to get 3k = 24, and divide by 3, so k = 8. 24 stops at the value of 3k and never divides by 3. -4 moves the 18 across without changing its sign, giving 3k = 6 - 18 = -12. 4 subtracts the constants in the wrong order, 18 - 6 = 12, so 3k = 12.
Simplify the expression .
- A.17x - 5
- B.14x - 32
- C.14x - 2
- D.17x - 35
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Correct answer: 17x - 35
Distribute the 7 to both terms in the brackets, 7(2x - 5) = 14x - 35, then add the other x term, 14x + 3x = 17x, giving 17x - 35. 17x - 5 multiplies only the 2x by 7 and leaves the 5 alone. 14x - 32 combines the 3x with the constant -35 as if they were like terms. 14x - 2 makes both slips: it leaves the 5 undistributed and then combines 3x with -5.
Solve the inequality for x.
- A.x > -2
- B.x < -2
- C.x < -6
- D.x > -6
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Correct answer: x < -2
Subtract 8 from both sides to get 3x < -6, then divide by 3; dividing by a positive number keeps the direction, so x < -2. x > -2 flips the sign even though nothing was divided by a negative. x < -6 stops at 3x < -6 and never divides by 3. x > -6 makes both slips, skipping the division and flipping the sign.
Solve the inequality for x.
- A.x > -4
- B.x < -5.5
- C.x < -4
- D.x > -5.5
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Correct answer: x < -4
Subtract 3 from both sides to get -4x > 16, then divide by -4; dividing by a negative number reverses the inequality, so x < -4. x > -4 divides correctly but forgets to reverse the sign. x < -5.5 adds 3 instead of subtracting it, giving -4x > 22, then divides and reverses correctly. x > -5.5 makes both slips.
Factor the expression .
- A.(x + 4)(x + 6)
- B.(x + 3)(x + 8)
- C.(x + 4)(x + 7)
- D.(x + 2)(x + 9)
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Correct answer: (x + 3)(x + 8)
Look for two numbers that multiply to 24 and add to 11: 3 and 8 do both, so the factored form is (x + 3)(x + 8). (x + 4)(x + 6) multiplies to 24, but its middle term is 10x, not 11x. (x + 4)(x + 7) and (x + 2)(x + 9) both give 11x, but their constants are 28 and 18 rather than 24, so each checks only the sum.
Factor the expression .
- A.(x - 2)(x + 7)
- B.(x + 2)(x - 7)
- C.(x + 1)(x - 14)
- D.(x - 1)(x + 14)
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Correct answer: (x + 2)(x - 7)
Look for two numbers that multiply to -14 and add to -5: 2 and -7 do both, so the factored form is (x + 2)(x - 7). (x - 2)(x + 7) puts the signs on the wrong factors and expands to x^2 + 5x - 14. (x + 1)(x - 14) uses another pair with product -14, but that pair adds to -13. (x - 1)(x + 14) uses the same pair with the signs reversed, giving a middle term of 13x.
Solve the system and . What is the value of x?
- A.6
- B.3
- C.4.5
- D.1.8
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Correct answer: 3
Adding the two equations cancels y: 5x + 5x = 10x and 24 + 6 = 30, so 10x = 30 and x = 3. 6 adds the equations but counts only one 5x, solving 5x = 30. 4.5 is the value of y (15 + 2y = 24), not x. 1.8 subtracts the constants while adding the x terms, solving 10x = 18.
What is the result of multiplying the binomials ?
- A.x^2 - 3x - 28
- B.x^2 + 3x - 28
- C.x^2 + 3x + 28
- D.x^2 - 3x + 28
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Correct answer: x^2 + 3x - 28
Multiply each pair of terms: x times x = x^2, the outer and inner products -4x and 7x combine to 3x, and 7 times -4 = -28, so the product is x^2 + 3x - 28. x^2 - 3x - 28 gets the sign of the middle term wrong, as if it were 4x - 7x. x^2 + 3x + 28 drops the negative sign when multiplying 7 by -4. x^2 - 3x + 28 makes both sign slips.
Solve for x: .
- A.7
- B.4
- C.2.5
- D.8.5
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Correct answer: 4
Multiply both sides by 2 to get 4x + 6 = 22, subtract 6 to get 4x = 16, and divide by 4, so x = 4. 7 adds the 6 instead of subtracting it, solving 4x = 28. 2.5 divides only the 4x by 2, leaving 2x + 6 = 11. 8.5 makes both slips, solving 2x = 17.
If and , what is the value of ?
- A.4
- B.-2
- C.28
- D.20
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Correct answer: 28
Substitute r = 6 and s = -4: 6^2 + 2(-4) = 36 - 8 = 28. 4 doubles r instead of squaring it, giving 12 - 8. -2 forgets to square r at all, giving 6 - 8. 20 doubles r and also drops the negative sign on s, giving 12 + 8.
Solve for p: .
- A.17
- B.7
- C.10
- D.5
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Correct answer: 5
Distribute on both sides to get 4p + 12 = 2p + 22, subtract 2p to get 2p + 12 = 22, subtract 12 to get 2p = 10, and divide by 2, so p = 5. 17 moves the 12 across as +12, solving 2p = 34. 7 multiplies only the p in each bracket, giving 4p + 3 = 2p + 11, and then also moves the 3 as +3, solving 2p = 14. 10 stops at 2p = 10 and never divides by 2.
One root of is . What is the other root?
- A.5
- B.-9
- C.-5
- D.9
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Correct answer: -5
The roots of x^2 - 2x - 35 = 0 add to 2 and multiply to -35, so the other root r satisfies 7 + r = 2, giving r = -5; check: (x - 7)(x + 5) = 0. 5 takes the sum of the roots as -2 and also moves the 7 with the wrong sign (-2 + 7). -9 takes the sum as -2 but moves the 7 correctly (-2 - 7). 9 uses the right sum but moves the 7 with the wrong sign (2 + 7).
Solve for x: .
- A.98
- B.49
- C.70
- D.20
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Correct answer: 20
Over the common denominator 10, x/2 + x/5 = 5x/10 + 2x/10 = 7x/10, so 7x = 140 and x = 20. 98 adds the denominators, solving x/7 = 14. 49 adds the numerators and the denominators, solving 2x/7 = 14. 70 writes both fractions over 10 but leaves each numerator as x, solving 2x/10 = 14.
Combine like terms in the expression .
- A.8t + 7
- B.5t - 7
- C.8t - 7
- D.5t + 7
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Correct answer: 5t + 7
Group like terms: 8t - 3t = 5t and -5 + 12 = 7, so the expression simplifies to 5t + 7. 8t + 7 combines the constants but leaves out the -3t term. 5t - 7 works out 5 - 12 instead of -5 + 12, so the constant takes the wrong sign. 8t - 7 makes both slips.
Solve for x: .
- A.150
- B.125
- C.30
- D.25
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Correct answer: 30
Multiply both sides by 6/5, the reciprocal of 5/6: 25 times 6 = 150, and 150 divided by 5 = 30. 150 multiplies by 6 but never divides by 5. 125 multiplies 25 by the 5 instead of dividing by it and never uses the 6. 25 skips both steps and treats the left side as plain x.
If , what is the value of x?
- A.6
- B.15
- C.18
- D.3
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Correct answer: 6
Subtract 6x from both sides to get 3x - 7 = 11, add 7 to get 3x = 18, and divide by 3, so x = 6. 15 subtracts the 3 instead of dividing by it (18 - 3). 18 stops at 3x = 18 and never divides by 3. 3 divides 18 by 6, the coefficient from the right side, instead of by 3.
Solve the inequality for x.
- A.x ≤ 2
- B.x > 2
- C.x ≥ 2
- D.x < 2
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Correct answer: x ≥ 2
Subtract 14 from both sides to get -7x ≤ -14, then divide by -7; dividing by a negative number reverses the inequality, so x ≥ 2. x ≤ 2 forgets to reverse the sign. x > 2 reverses correctly but drops the 'or equal to' part, although x = 2 makes 14 - 7x exactly 0. x < 2 makes both slips.
Simplify the expression .
- A.2x - 14
- B.2x + 9
- C.2x + 6
- D.2x - 11
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Correct answer: 2x + 6
Distribute both factors: 4(2x - 1) = 8x - 4 and -2(3x - 5) = -6x + 10. Then 8x - 6x = 2x and -4 + 10 = 6, giving 2x + 6. 2x - 14 multiplies -2 by -5 as -10 instead of +10. 2x + 9 multiplies only the 2x by 4 and leaves the -1 alone. 2x - 11 makes both slips.
If , what is ?
- A.12
- B.60
- C.4
- D.15
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Correct answer: 12
Substitute 2 for x and square before multiplying: 4(2^2) - 3(2) + 2 = 16 - 6 + 2 = 12. 60 multiplies before squaring, (4 times 2)^2 = 64, then 64 - 6 + 2. 4 forgets to square, using 4 times 2 = 8, then 8 - 6 + 2. 15 subtracts 3 instead of 3x, giving 16 - 3 + 2.
Factor the expression .
- A.(4x - 3)(4x + 3)
- B.(8x - 3)(8x + 3)
- C.(4x - 9)(4x + 9)
- D.(8x - 9)(8x + 9)
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Correct answer: (4x - 3)(4x + 3)
16x^2 - 9 is a difference of squares: 16x^2 is (4x)^2 and 9 is 3^2, so it factors as (4x - 3)(4x + 3), which multiplies back to 16x^2 - 9. (8x - 3)(8x + 3) halves 16 instead of taking its square root and expands to 64x^2 - 9; (4x - 9)(4x + 9) leaves the 9 unrooted and expands to 16x^2 - 81; (8x - 9)(8x + 9) makes both slips and expands to 64x^2 - 81.
Solve for v: .
- A.-4
- B.4
- C.20
- D.-20
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Correct answer: 4
Subtract 3v from both sides to get 14 = 5v - 6, add 6 to get 20 = 5v, and divide by 5, so v = 4 (check: 3 times 4 plus 14 is 26, and 8 times 4 minus 6 is 26). 20 stops at 5v = 20 without dividing by 5; -4 comes from a sign slip that writes -5v = 20; -20 makes both slips.
Solve the system and . What is the value of x?
- A.5
- B.2
- C.8
- D.20
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Correct answer: 5
Adding the two equations cancels y and leaves 8x = 40, so x = 5 (and then y = 17 - 15 = 2). 2 is the value of y, not x; 8 comes from dividing 40 by 5 instead of by 8; 20 comes from subtracting 3x from 5x to get 2x = 40 while still adding the right-hand sides.
Simplify the expression .
- A.c^2 + 18c + 81
- B.c^2 - 18c + 81
- C.c^2 + 81
- D.c^2 - 81
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Correct answer: c^2 - 81
Multiply each pair of terms: c times c is c^2, the middle terms -9c and +9c cancel, and 9 times -9 is -81, so the product is c^2 - 81, a difference of squares. c^2 + 81 gives 9 times -9 as +81; c^2 - 18c + 81 is (c - 9)^2 and c^2 + 18c + 81 is (c + 9)^2, each squaring one factor instead of multiplying the two different factors.
The phrase four more than the product of seven and a number n is written as which expression?
- A.4n + 7
- B.7(n + 4)
- C.4(n + 7)
- D.7n + 4
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Correct answer: 7n + 4
The product of seven and n is 7n, and four more than that product adds 4 after multiplying, so the expression is 7n + 4. 4n + 7 swaps the roles of the two numbers; 7(n + 4) adds 4 to n before multiplying, which is seven times four more than n; 4(n + 7) makes both slips.
If , and x is positive, what is the value of x?
- A.4
- B.8
- C.20
- D.16
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Correct answer: 4
Divide both sides by 5 to get x^2 = 16, then take the positive square root, so x = 4 (check: 5 times 16 is 80). 8 halves 16 instead of taking its square root; 16 stops at x^2 = 16 without taking the square root; 20 multiplies 80 by 5 instead of dividing and then takes the square root of 400.
Solve for x: .
- A.1
- B.7
- C.-1
- D.-7
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Correct answer: 1
Distribute -4 to get 20 - 4x - 12 = 4, so 8 - 4x = 4, then -4x = -4 and x = 1. 7 comes from writing -4 times 3 as +12, which gives 32 - 4x = 4; -1 drops the sign when dividing -4x = -4; -7 makes both sign slips.
Solve the system and . What is the value of x?
- A.5
- B.6
- C.13
- D.20
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Correct answer: 5
Substitute 4x for y: 2x + 4x = 30, so 6x = 30 and x = 5 (then y = 20). 20 is the value of y, not x; 13 substitutes 4 instead of 4x, giving 2x + 4 = 30; 6 drops the coefficient 2 and solves x + 4x = 30.
What is the absolute value of ?
- A.-17
- B.1/17
- C.-1/17
- D.17
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Correct answer: 17
Absolute value is the distance from zero on the number line, and a distance is never negative, so the absolute value of -17 is 17. -17 keeps the sign instead of dropping it; 1/17 confuses absolute value with the reciprocal; -1/17 is the opposite of the reciprocal, a different operation again.
Solve the absolute value equation the absolute value of x equals 9. Which set lists all solutions?
- A.9 and -9
- B.9 only
- C.3 and -3
- D.3 only
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Correct answer: 9 and -9
The absolute value of x is 9 whenever x is 9 units from zero, and both 9 and -9 are, so the solutions are 9 and -9. The set '9 only' forgets the negative solution; '3 and -3' treats absolute value like a square root and solves as if x^2 = 9; '3 only' makes both slips.
What is the value of ?
- A.20
- B.625
- C.1024
- D.4096
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Correct answer: 1024
4^5 means five factors of 4: 4 times 4 is 16, times 4 is 64, times 4 is 256, and times 4 is 1024. 20 multiplies the base by the exponent; 4096 uses six factors of 4 instead of five; 625 swaps the base and the exponent, working out 5^4.
Evaluate the expression .
- A.5
- B.27
- C.11
- D.15
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Correct answer: 11
Division comes before addition, so 6 divided by 3 is 2 and 9 + 2 = 11. 5 adds first and then divides 15 by 3; 27 multiplies 6 by 3 instead of dividing, giving 9 + 18; 15 adds 9 and 6 and drops the division altogether.
Evaluate the expression .
- A.15
- B.39
- C.21
- D.34
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Correct answer: 39
Parentheses first: 9 - 6 = 3, and 3 cubed is 27; then 4 times 3 is 12, and 27 + 12 = 39. 15 drops the exponent and adds 3 + 12; 21 squares 3 instead of cubing it (9 + 12); 34 adds 4 and 3 instead of multiplying them (27 + 7).
Write w to the sixth power times w to the sixth power as a single power of w.
- A.w^36
- B.w^12
- C.2w^12
- D.2w^36
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Correct answer: w^12
When powers of the same base are multiplied, the exponents add: 6 + 6 = 12, so the product is w^12 with no coefficient. w^36 multiplies the exponents instead of adding them; 2w^12 adds the exponents but also puts a 2 in front, as if the two factors had been added; 2w^36 makes both slips.
Simplify (p to the twelfth power) divided by (p to the fifth power).
- A.p^17
- B.p^60
- C.p^7
- D.p^2.4
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Correct answer: p^7
When powers of the same base are divided, subtract the exponents: 12 - 5 = 7, so the result is p^7. p^17 adds the exponents, the rule for multiplying; p^60 multiplies them, the rule for a power of a power; p^2.4 divides 12 by 5, which is not an exponent rule at all.
Evaluate the expression .
- A.30
- B.16
- C.60
- D.144
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Correct answer: 30
Division and multiplication come before addition: 54 divided by 9 is 6 and 4 times 6 is 24, so 6 + 24 = 30. 60 works strictly left to right (6 + 4 = 10, then 10 times 6); 16 adds 4 and 6 instead of multiplying them; 144 multiplies 6 by 24 at the last step instead of adding.
What is the value of ?
- A.54
- B.216
- C.729
- D.243
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Correct answer: 729
A power raised to a power multiplies the exponents: 3 times 2 is 6, and 3^6 = 729 (the same as 27 squared). 243 adds the exponents to get 3^5; 54 multiplies 27 by 2 instead of squaring it; 216 multiplies the base 3 by the outer exponent 2 to get 6 and then cubes that.
Evaluate the expression .
- A.15
- B.18
- C.98
- D.95
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Correct answer: 95
The exponent comes first, then the division, then the subtraction: 5^2 = 25, 25 divided by 5 is 5, and 100 - 5 = 95. 15 subtracts before dividing, (100 - 25) divided by 5; 98 doubles 5 instead of squaring it, so it subtracts 10 divided by 5; 18 makes both slips, (100 - 10) divided by 5.
What is the value of ?
- A.1/16
- B.1/8
- C.-1/16
- D.-1/8
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Correct answer: 1/16
A negative exponent means the reciprocal of the positive power, so 4^-2 is 1 divided by 4^2, which is 1/16, a positive number. 1/8 multiplies 4 by 2 instead of squaring it; -1/16 takes the reciprocal but wrongly makes the result negative; -1/8 makes both slips.
Evaluate the expression .
- A.54
- B.9
- C.234
- D.324
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Correct answer: 54
Parentheses first: 8 - 5 = 3; then the exponent: 3^2 = 9; then the multiplication: 6 times 9 = 54. 9 stops after squaring and never multiplies by 6; 324 multiplies 6 by 3 before squaring, giving 18^2; 234 squares 8 and 5 separately, 6 times (64 - 25).
Simplify the expression .
- A.6x^7
- B.8x^7
- C.8x^12
- D.6x^12
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Correct answer: 8x^7
Multiply the coefficients and add the exponents of x: 4 times 2 is 8 and 4 + 3 is 7, so the product is 8x^7. 6x^7 adds the coefficients instead of multiplying them; 8x^12 multiplies the exponents instead of adding them; 6x^12 makes both slips.
What is the value of ?
- A.0
- B.1
- C.6
- D.1/6
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Correct answer: 1
By the zero-exponent rule, any nonzero number raised to the power 0 equals 1, so 6^0 = 1 (6 divided by 6 is both 6^0 and 1). 0 treats the exponent as a multiplier, 6 times 0; 6 leaves the base unchanged; 1/6 confuses a zero exponent with a negative one, since 6^-1 is 1/6.
What is ?
- A.49
- B.98
- C.14
- D.16
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Correct answer: 14
The square root of 196 is the number that multiplies by itself to give 196, and 14 times 14 = 196, so the answer is 14. 49 divides 196 by the perfect square 4 (196 = 4 times 49) and then never takes a square root; 98 halves 196 instead of taking its square root; 16 is too large, since 16 times 16 is 256, not 196.
Evaluate the expression .
- A.8
- B.47
- C.37
- D.23
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Correct answer: 23
Inside the parentheses, multiplication comes first: 4 times 6 is 24 and 3 + 24 = 27; then 50 - 27 = 23. 8 works left to right inside the parentheses, (3 + 4) times 6 = 42, and 50 - 42 = 8; 47 subtracts only the 3 and drops the 4 times 6; 37 adds the 4 and the 6 instead of multiplying them, so it takes 3 + 4 + 6 = 13 from 50.
What is the value of ?
- A.2
- B.4
- C.16
- D.17
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Correct answer: 17
Evaluate each power first: 5^2 is 25 and 2^3 is 8, so 25 - 8 = 17. 16 swaps the base and exponent of 2^3 and subtracts 3^2 = 9; 2 writes 5^2 as 5 times 2 = 10, giving 10 - 8; 4 writes both powers as products, giving 10 - 6.
How is the number written in scientific notation?
- A.7.3 x 10^4
- B.7.3 x 10^5
- C.7.3 x 10^-5
- D.7.3 x 10^-4
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Correct answer: 7.3 x 10^5
Scientific notation puts one nonzero digit before the decimal point: 730,000 is 7.3 times 100,000, and the decimal point moves 5 places, so the number is 7.3 x 10^5. 7.3 x 10^4 counts the four zeros instead of the five places the decimal point moves; 7.3 x 10^-5 uses a negative exponent, which describes a number smaller than 1; 7.3 x 10^-4 makes both slips.
What is the value of plus ?
- A.46
- B.106
- C.16
- D.136
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Correct answer: 16
Take each square root first: the square root of 100 is 10 and the square root of 36 is 6, so 10 + 6 = 16. 46 roots the 100 but forgets to root the 36 (10 + 36); 106 roots the 36 but not the 100 (100 + 6); 136 adds the two numbers without taking either root.
Evaluate the expression .
- A.19
- B.67
- C.35
- D.155
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Correct answer: 35
Exponent first: 4^2 = 16; then multiplication: 2 times 16 = 32; then add and subtract from left to right: 8 + 32 = 40 and 40 - 5 = 35. 67 multiplies 2 by 4 before squaring, so it adds (2 times 4)^2 = 64; 19 doubles 4 instead of squaring it, so it adds 2 times 8 = 16; 155 adds 8 and 2 first and multiplies 10 by 16 before subtracting 5.
Simplify the expression as a single power of 6.
- A.6^6
- B.6^5
- C.12^5
- D.12^6
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Correct answer: 6^5
When powers of the same base are multiplied, keep the base and add the exponents: 3 + 2 = 5, so the product is 6^5. 6^6 multiplies the exponents instead of adding them; 12^5 adds the bases as well as the exponents, but the base stays 6; 12^6 adds the bases and also multiplies the exponents.
Evaluate the expression .
- A.9
- B.6
- C.30
- D.18
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Correct answer: 9
The fraction bar groups the whole top: 24 + 12 = 36, and 2^2 = 4, so 36 divided by 4 is 9. 30 divides only the 12, and by 2 instead of 4, then adds 24; 6 divides only the 24 by 4 and loses the 12; 18 divides 36 by 2 and ignores the exponent.
What is the area of a triangle with a base of 16 inches and a height of 5 inches?
- A.13 square inches
- B.42 square inches
- C.80 square inches
- D.40 square inches
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Correct answer: 40 square inches
The area of a triangle is one-half times base times height: one-half of 16 times 5 is one-half of 80, which is 40 square inches. 80 square inches forgets the one-half and gives the area of a 16 by 5 rectangle; 42 square inches is the perimeter of that rectangle, 2 times (16 + 5), not an area; 13 square inches halves the base to 8 and then adds the 5 instead of multiplying.
A right triangle has legs of 8 and 15. What is the length of the hypotenuse?
- A.529
- B.17
- C.23
- D.289
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Correct answer: 17
By the Pythagorean theorem the hypotenuse squared is 8^2 + 15^2 = 64 + 225 = 289, and the square root of 289 is 17. 23 adds the legs without squaring them; 529 squares the sum of the legs, (8 + 15)^2, instead of adding their squares, and stops before the root; 289 stops before taking the square root.
What is the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with a side length of 11 centimeters?
- A.14 centimeters
- B.121 centimeters
- C.22 centimeters
- D.33 centimeters
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Correct answer: 33 centimeters
An equilateral triangle has three equal sides, so its perimeter is 3 times 11 = 33 centimeters. 121 centimeters squares the side, 11 times 11, which is the area of a square rather than a perimeter; 14 centimeters adds 3 to 11 instead of multiplying; 22 centimeters counts only two of the three sides.
Two angles of a triangle measure 45 degrees and 75 degrees. What is the measure of the third angle?
- A.105 degrees
- B.135 degrees
- C.60 degrees
- D.120 degrees
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Correct answer: 60 degrees
The interior angles of a triangle add to 180 degrees, so the third angle is 180 - 45 - 75 = 60 degrees. 105 degrees subtracts only the 75-degree angle; 135 degrees subtracts only the 45-degree angle; 120 degrees adds the two given angles instead of subtracting them from 180.
What is the circumference of a circle with a diameter of 8, using ?
- A.2.55
- B.50.24
- C.200.96
- D.25.12
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Correct answer: 25.12
Circumference is pi times the diameter, so 3.14 times 8 = 25.12. 200.96 uses the area formula with the diameter as the radius, 3.14 times 8 times 8; 50.24 puts the diameter into 2 times pi times the radius, doubling the answer; 2.55 divides 8 by 3.14 instead of multiplying.
What is the volume of a rectangular box that is 6 by 4 by 5 units?
- A.24 cubic units
- B.120 cubic units
- C.29 cubic units
- D.148 cubic units
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Correct answer: 120 cubic units
The volume of a rectangular box is length times width times height: 6 times 4 is 24, and 24 times 5 = 120 cubic units. 24 cubic units stops at the area of the 6 by 4 base; 29 cubic units adds the height instead of multiplying by it; 148 cubic units is the surface area, 2 times (24 + 30 + 20), not the volume.
Two angles are complementary and one measures 25 degrees. What is the measure of the other angle?
- A.155 degrees
- B.75 degrees
- C.65 degrees
- D.55 degrees
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Correct answer: 65 degrees
Complementary angles add to 90 degrees, so the other angle is 90 - 25 = 65 degrees. 155 degrees uses 180, the sum for supplementary angles; 75 degrees and 55 degrees are borrowing slips in 90 - 25: 75 takes the smaller digit from the larger in each place, and 55 borrows one ten too many.
What is the distance between the points and on the coordinate plane?
- A.7
- B.25
- C.5
- D.12.5
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Correct answer: 5
The horizontal change is 4 - 1 = 3 and the vertical change is 6 - 2 = 4, so the distance is the square root of 3^2 + 4^2 = 25, which is 5. 7 adds the two changes without squaring them, the distance along the grid lines; 25 stops at 3^2 + 4^2 = 25 and skips the square root; 12.5 halves 25 instead of taking its square root.
Two angles are supplementary and one measures 65 degrees. What is the measure of the other angle?
- A.25 degrees
- B.115 degrees
- C.155 degrees
- D.245 degrees
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Correct answer: 115 degrees
Supplementary angles add to 180 degrees, so the other angle is 180 - 65 = 115 degrees. 25 degrees uses 90, the sum for complementary angles; 245 degrees adds 65 to 180 instead of subtracting; 155 degrees makes both slips and adds 65 to 90.
Reading Comprehension (58)
Read the passage and answer the question. The octopus is widely regarded as the most intelligent invertebrate. It can solve puzzles, open jars to reach food, and even recognize individual human handlers. What makes this remarkable is that the octopus achieved such abilities along an evolutionary path entirely separate from that of mammals. What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.Unlike octopuses, most invertebrates have not been considered intelligent.
- B.Octopuses are able to open jars to reach the food inside them.
- C.Octopuses are able to recognize the individual human handlers who look after them.
- D.Octopuses became remarkably clever although they and mammals evolved separately.
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Correct answer: Octopuses became remarkably clever although they and mammals evolved separately.
Octopuses became remarkably clever although they and mammals evolved separately. That is the main idea: the passage lists the octopus's skills and then says what makes them remarkable is that it achieved them "along an evolutionary path entirely separate from that of mammals." The options "Octopuses are able to open jars to reach the food inside them." and "Octopuses are able to recognize the individual human handlers who look after them." are true supporting examples, but each covers only one detail, not the passage as a whole. The option "Unlike octopuses, most invertebrates have not been considered intelligent." generalizes about other invertebrates, which is never the focus of the passage.
Read the passage and answer the question. Many shoppers believe that a higher price always signals higher quality. Studies of blind taste tests, however, show that people often cannot tell expensive products from cheaper ones once the labels are hidden. Much of what we are paying for is the expectation a price creates, not the product itself. What is the central point of this passage?
- A.Blind taste tests show that the cheaper products taste better than the costly ones
- B.Stores raise prices because shoppers believe that a high price means a better product
- C.Shoppers cannot tell costly products from the cheap ones once the labels are taken off
- D.A high price is not a reliable sign of quality because expectation shapes our judgment
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Correct answer: A high price is not a reliable sign of quality because expectation shapes our judgment
The central point is that a high price is not a reliable sign of quality because expectation shapes our judgment: the passage sets up the belief that price signals quality, knocks it down with blind taste tests, and ends by saying much of what we pay for is the expectation a price creates. 'Blind taste tests show that the cheaper products taste better than the costly ones' goes beyond the evidence, which shows only that people often cannot tell the two apart. 'Stores raise prices because shoppers believe that a high price means a better product' is never claimed; the passage says nothing about how stores set prices. 'Shoppers cannot tell costly products from the cheap ones once the labels are taken off' is the supporting evidence, not the point that evidence is used to make.
Read the passage and answer the question. The Great Barrier Reef is sometimes described as a single living structure, but it is actually built by billions of tiny animals called polyps. Each polyp secretes a hard skeleton, and over thousands of years these skeletons accumulate into the vast formation we see today. The reef is less an object than the lasting record of countless small lives. Which statement best expresses the main idea?
- A.The reef was built up over ages from the skeletons of billions of tiny polyps
- B.The reef is a single living creature that grew larger over thousands of years
- C.Each one of the tiny polyps in a colony secretes its own hard outer skeleton
- D.The largest formations on Earth are the work of countless small living things
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Correct answer: The reef was built up over ages from the skeletons of billions of tiny polyps
The main idea is that the reef was built up over ages from the skeletons of billions of tiny polyps: the passage corrects the picture of a single living structure and calls the reef the lasting record of countless small lives. 'The reef is a single living creature that grew larger over thousands of years' repeats the very image the first sentence says is mistaken. 'Each one of the tiny polyps in a colony secretes its own hard outer skeleton' is one step in the process, not the idea the whole passage builds toward. 'The largest formations on Earth are the work of countless small living things' stretches a point about one reef into a claim about every large formation, which the passage never makes.
Read the passage and answer the question. The airline pilot announced that the flight would be delayed, then noticed the maintenance crew rolling heavy equipment toward the right engine. Mechanics opened a panel, conferred over a clipboard, and the gate agent quietly began rebooking the connecting passengers. What can you most reasonably infer from this passage?
- A.The delay is being caused by a storm moving toward the destination airport
- B.The passengers have to wait while heavy freight gets loaded onto the plane
- C.The delay is being caused by a mechanical problem with the aircraft itself
- D.The passengers have asked to switch over to flights on another airline
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Correct answer: The delay is being caused by a mechanical problem with the aircraft itself
The most reasonable inference is that the delay is being caused by a mechanical problem with the aircraft itself: the maintenance crew brings equipment to the right engine, mechanics open a panel and confer, and connecting passengers are rebooked because the wait will be long. 'The delay is being caused by a storm moving toward the destination airport' has no support, since the passage mentions no weather at all. 'The passengers have to wait while heavy freight gets loaded onto the plane' misreads the heavy equipment, which the maintenance crew rolls to the engine rather than loading as cargo. 'The passengers have asked to switch over to flights on another airline' reverses who acts; the gate agent begins the rebooking, and nothing says passengers asked for it.
Read the passage and answer the question. For decades, scientists assumed that the deep ocean floor was a barren desert, too dark and cold to support much life. Then explorers discovered hydrothermal vents teeming with strange creatures that draw energy from chemicals rather than sunlight. The discovery overturned long-held ideas about where life can exist. What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.The deep ocean is far too dark and cold to hold much life of any kind
- B.Creatures at the deep vents draw on a chemical source instead of sunlight
- C.Scientists now believe the first creatures on Earth lived in the deep sea
- D.Life found at the vents disproved the old belief in a barren deep ocean
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Correct answer: Life found at the vents disproved the old belief in a barren deep ocean
The main idea is that life found at the vents disproved the old belief in a barren deep ocean: the passage moves from the old assumption to the vent creatures and ends by saying the discovery overturned ideas about where life can exist. 'The deep ocean is far too dark and cold to hold much life of any kind' is the assumption the passage says was overturned. 'Creatures at the deep vents draw on a chemical source instead of sunlight' is a true detail about the vent creatures, but it supports the main idea rather than stating it. 'Scientists now believe the first creatures on Earth lived in the deep sea' claims more than the passage says; it is about where life can exist, not where life began.
Read the passage and answer the question. The usually crowded marketplace was nearly empty by midmorning. The few vendors who remained were hastily folding their awnings and loading crates into trucks, glancing again and again at the darkening sky to the west. What can be inferred from this passage?
- A.The vendors are packing up early since their goods have already sold out
- B.The vendors are moving their stalls to a new market just west of the town
- C.The vendors are leaving early because a storm seems to be on its way
- D.The vendors are closing at midmorning as they do on most days of the week
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Correct answer: The vendors are leaving early because a storm seems to be on its way
The inference is that the vendors are leaving early because a storm seems to be on its way: they fold their awnings and load crates in a hurry while glancing again and again at the darkening sky to the west. 'The vendors are packing up early since their goods have already sold out' fits the empty market but ignores the darkening sky, and nothing mentions sales. 'The vendors are moving their stalls to a new market just west of the town' misreads the glances west, which are at the sky, not toward a new site. 'The vendors are closing at midmorning as they do on most days of the week' contradicts the passage, which calls the marketplace usually crowded.
Read the passage and answer the question. A common belief holds that goldfish have a memory of only a few seconds. Careful experiments tell a different story. Goldfish can be trained to push levers for food, learn to navigate simple mazes, and remember these tasks weeks later. The myth of the forgetful goldfish has little basis in fact. Which choice best states the main idea?
- A.Goldfish have a much longer memory than the popular myth suggests
- B.Goldfish forget most of what they learn within just a few seconds
- C.Goldfish can be trained to push levers and find their way through mazes
- D.Careful experiments show that goldfish are smarter than most other fish
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Correct answer: Goldfish have a much longer memory than the popular myth suggests
The main idea is that goldfish have a much longer memory than the popular myth suggests: the passage states the few-seconds belief, then shows goldfish remembering learned tasks weeks later, and says the myth has little basis in fact. 'Goldfish forget most of what they learn within just a few seconds' is the myth the passage rejects. 'Goldfish can be trained to push levers and find their way through mazes' lists the evidence, not the point the evidence proves. 'Careful experiments show that goldfish are smarter than most other fish' adds a comparison with other fish that the passage never makes.
Read the passage and answer the question. The quiet bookkeeper had worked at the firm for years without notice. After the audit, however, several managers stopped by his office to shake his hand, the owner mentioned his name warmly in a meeting, and a reserved parking space suddenly appeared with his name on it. What can you most reasonably infer about the bookkeeper?
- A.His work on the audit has earned him new recognition
- B.He is being rewarded for his many long years of service at the firm
- C.He has been promoted to take over from the owner as head of the firm
- D.The managers hope to win him over in their dispute with the owner
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Correct answer: His work on the audit has earned him new recognition
The most reasonable inference is that his work on the audit has earned him new recognition: he went unnoticed for years, and only after the audit did the handshakes, the warm mention, and the parking space appear. 'He is being rewarded for his many long years of service at the firm' misses the timing, since those years passed without notice and the praise began after the audit. 'He has been promoted to take over from the owner as head of the firm' reads far more into a parking space and a warm mention than the passage supports. 'The managers hope to win him over in their dispute with the owner' invents a conflict; the owner praises him too, so nothing suggests a dispute.
Read the passage and answer the question. Recycling is often praised as the answer to our waste problem, yet it is only the last and least effective of three steps. Reducing how much we consume and reusing what we already own both prevent waste before it begins. Recycling merely manages waste that better habits could have avoided entirely. What is the central message of this passage?
- A.Recycling is the best answer to the waste problem because it keeps materials out of the landfill
- B.Recycling should be stopped altogether, since all it does is manage trash headed for the landfill
- C.Reducing and reusing are more effective than recycling because they stop waste before it starts
- D.Reusing what we already own is the first step, and recycling is the step that follows
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Correct answer: Reducing and reusing are more effective than recycling because they stop waste before it starts
The central message is that reducing and reusing are more effective than recycling because they stop waste before it starts: the passage calls recycling the last and least effective of three steps and says reducing and reusing prevent waste before it begins. 'Recycling is the best answer to the waste problem because it keeps materials out of the landfill' repeats the popular praise the passage pushes back against. 'Recycling should be stopped altogether, since all it does is manage trash headed for the landfill' overstates the point; the passage ranks recycling last but never says to give it up. 'Reusing what we already own is the first step, and recycling is the step that follows' sets out an order the passage never gives, since it names reducing before reusing, and it misses the claim that both beat recycling.
Read the passage and answer the question. The young chess player studied the board, reached confidently for her queen, then froze with her hand hovering above the piece. She pulled her hand back, scanned the far corner of the board, and let out a slow breath before choosing a different move. What can be inferred about the chess player?
- A.She forgot which piece she had planned to move on this turn
- B.She was pretending to hesitate so her opponent would grow careless
- C.She realized she should wait and let her opponent make the next move
- D.She spotted a danger that she had nearly missed
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Correct answer: She spotted a danger that she had nearly missed
The inference is that she spotted a danger that she had nearly missed: she reaches confidently for her queen, freezes, scans the far corner, breathes out slowly, and picks a different move, which is what a player does on catching a threat just in time. 'She forgot which piece she had planned to move on this turn' does not fit, since she reached straight for her queen and changed her mind only after scanning the board. 'She was pretending to hesitate so her opponent would grow careless' reads a bluff into the scene with nothing to support it. 'She realized she should wait and let her opponent make the next move' is contradicted by the last line, where she goes on to choose a different move herself.
Read the passage and answer the question. The ordinary household sponge is a marvel of simple engineering. Its countless tiny pores draw in water through a natural pulling force, holding far more liquid than its small size would suggest. When squeezed, it releases that water just as readily, making it endlessly reusable. What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.Sponges are cheap and handy mainly because they are thrown away after a single use
- B.A great many household tools are clever feats of engineering that people take for granted
- C.The countless small pores of a sponge draw water in through a natural pulling force
- D.A sponge cleverly soaks up and releases far more water than its small size suggests
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Correct answer: A sponge cleverly soaks up and releases far more water than its small size suggests
The main idea is that a sponge cleverly soaks up and releases far more water than its small size suggests: the passage calls it a marvel of simple engineering, explains how it holds more water than its size would suggest, and says it gives the water back just as readily. 'Sponges are cheap and handy mainly because they are thrown away after a single use' reverses the passage, which calls the sponge endlessly reusable. 'A great many household tools are clever feats of engineering that people take for granted' turns a point about the sponge into a claim about household tools in general. 'The countless small pores of a sponge draw water in through a natural pulling force' is one detail of how it works, not the idea the passage is built around.
Read the passage and answer the question. The coach watched the rookie sprint the final lap, glancing at his stopwatch and then again in disbelief. He showed the time to an assistant, who shook her head and laughed, and the two immediately began discussing which championship races to enter the rookie in. What can you most reasonably infer about the rookie?
- A.The coach thought his stopwatch had given the rookie a false time
- B.The rookie ran the race so slowly that the coach and assistant laughed
- C.The rookie ran the final lap much faster than anybody had expected
- D.The rookie has already won his place in the upcoming championship race
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Correct answer: The rookie ran the final lap much faster than anybody had expected
The most reasonable inference is that the rookie ran the final lap much faster than anybody had expected: the coach looks at the stopwatch again in disbelief, the assistant laughs, and the two at once start choosing championship races for him. 'The coach thought his stopwatch had given the rookie a false time' misreads the double take; a coach who distrusted the watch would not start planning championship races. 'The rookie ran the race so slowly that the coach and assistant laughed' takes the laughter the wrong way, since it leads straight to talk of big races. 'The rookie has already won his place in the upcoming championship race' goes too far; they are only discussing which races to enter him in.
Read the passage and answer the question. The invention of the wheel is often imagined as a single flash of insight, but the earliest wheels were not used for transport at all. They first appeared as potters' wheels for shaping clay. Only centuries later did someone think to turn the idea on its side and roll it across the ground. What is the central point of this passage?
- A.The wheel was invented by an early potter in a single flash of insight
- B.Carts came first, and potters adopted the wheel many centuries later
- C.Transport became faster once wheels were invented
- D.Wheels were used in pottery long before they carried cargo or people
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Correct answer: Wheels were used in pottery long before they carried cargo or people
The central point is that wheels were used in pottery long before they carried cargo or people: the passage says the earliest wheels were potters' wheels for shaping clay and that only centuries later did someone roll the idea along the ground. 'The wheel was invented by an early potter in a single flash of insight' repeats the flash-of-insight image the first sentence sets out to correct. 'Carts came first, and potters adopted the wheel many centuries later' reverses the order the passage gives. 'Transport became faster once wheels were invented' may well be true, but the passage says nothing about speed; it is about what the first wheels were used for.
Read the passage and answer the question. The substitute teacher walked into a classroom of students who fell silent the moment she entered. A single chalkboard eraser lay balanced on top of the slightly open door, and several students were biting back grins as they watched her approach it. What can be inferred from this passage?
- A.The students are quiet because they respect and fear a new teacher
- B.The pupils have rigged the door to play a prank on the teacher
- C.The teacher set the eraser on the door to see how a class responds
- D.The eraser fell on the door by accident before the teacher came
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Correct answer: The pupils have rigged the door to play a prank on the teacher
The inference is that the pupils have rigged the door to play a prank on the teacher: an eraser is balanced on top of a door left slightly open, and the students go quiet and bite back grins as she walks toward it. 'The students are quiet because they respect and fear a new teacher' ignores the hidden grins, which show they are waiting for something to happen. 'The teacher set the eraser on the door to see how a class responds' reverses who set it up, since she is only now walking into the room. 'The eraser fell on the door by accident before the teacher came' cannot explain a carefully balanced eraser or students watching to see her walk under it.
Read the passage and answer the question. Fireflies do not glow by accident. The cold light they produce comes from a chemical reaction so efficient that almost none of its energy is lost as heat. Engineers studying these insects hope to design lighting that wastes far less power than the bulbs we use today. Which choice best states the main idea?
- A.The glow of fireflies comes about by accident when a chemical reaction inside them gives off heat
- B.The efficient light of fireflies is inspiring engineers to design more efficient lighting
- C.Engineers studying fireflies have already designed bulbs that copy the light these insects make
- D.Modern bulbs waste power because they lack the rare chemical that fireflies use to glow
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Correct answer: The efficient light of fireflies is inspiring engineers to design more efficient lighting
The main idea is that the efficient light of fireflies is inspiring engineers to design more efficient lighting: the passage describes a cold light that loses almost no energy as heat and says engineers hope to build lighting that wastes far less power than today's bulbs. 'The glow of fireflies comes about by accident when a chemical reaction inside them gives off heat' contradicts the first two sentences, which say the glow is no accident and gives off almost no heat. 'Engineers studying fireflies have already designed bulbs that copy the light these insects make' goes too far; the engineers only hope to design such lighting. 'Modern bulbs waste power because they lack the rare chemical that fireflies use to glow' invents a cause the passage never gives for why bulbs waste power.
Read the passage and answer the question. The restaurant that once required reservations weeks in advance now had empty tables every night. A new menu had quietly replaced the dishes regulars loved, several longtime cooks had left, and online reviews mentioned slow service and smaller portions. What can you most reasonably infer about the restaurant?
- A.The restaurant is now losing customers because a rival opened nearby
- B.Recent changes at the restaurant drove away its loyal customers
- C.The restaurant now refuses reservations, so customers no longer come
- D.Cooks left after the restaurant had already lost its loyal customers
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Correct answer: Recent changes at the restaurant drove away its loyal customers
The most reasonable inference is that recent changes at the restaurant drove away its loyal customers: a new menu replaced the dishes regulars loved, longtime cooks left, and reviews complain of slow service and smaller portions, and now the tables sit empty. 'The restaurant is now losing customers because a rival opened nearby' names a cause the passage never mentions. 'The restaurant now refuses reservations, so customers no longer come' misreads the first line, which says reservations were once needed weeks ahead, not that they are now refused. 'Cooks left after the restaurant had already lost its loyal customers' turns cause and effect around; the cooks leaving is one of the changes listed as reasons for the empty tables.
Read the passage and answer the question. Great bridges are admired for their graceful spans, yet their true strength lies hidden. Deep beneath the water, massive foundations anchor the structure against currents, storms, and the constant weight above. The beauty we see depends entirely on the unseen work below. What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.The graceful span is the strongest and the most important part of a bridge
- B.The beauty of a bridge depends on the hidden foundations beneath the water
- C.The massive foundations beneath the water must be rebuilt as storms hit them
- D.People admire the graceful span of a bridge as it rises high above the water
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Correct answer: The beauty of a bridge depends on the hidden foundations beneath the water
The main idea is that the beauty of a bridge depends on the hidden foundations beneath the water: the passage contrasts the admired spans with the massive foundations below and ends by saying the beauty we see depends on the unseen work beneath. 'The graceful span is the strongest and the most important part of a bridge' reverses the passage, which places the true strength in the hidden foundations. 'The massive foundations beneath the water must be rebuilt as storms hit them' adds a claim about repairs the passage never makes; it says the foundations anchor the bridge against storms and currents. 'People admire the graceful span of a bridge as it rises high above the water' restates the opening detail, not the point the passage makes about it.
Read the passage and answer the question. The normally confident lawyer paused longer than usual before answering the judge's question. He shuffled through his notes twice, cleared his throat, and asked for a brief recess to consult with his client. What can be inferred about the lawyer in this moment?
- A.He is stalling and wants a recess to wear down the other party
- B.He is shaken and needs a short recess to regroup with the client
- C.He feels unwell today and wants a recess so he can call his doctor
- D.He knows he is beaten and will settle the case with the other side
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Correct answer: He is shaken and needs a short recess to regroup with the client
The inference is that he is shaken and needs a short recess to regroup with the client: a normally confident lawyer pauses longer than usual, shuffles his notes twice, clears his throat, and asks for a brief recess to consult his client, all signs that the question caught him off guard. 'He is stalling and wants a recess to wear down the other party' reads a tactic into what the passage presents as unusual hesitation in a confident man. 'He feels unwell today and wants a recess so he can call his doctor' misreads the throat-clearing; he asks for the recess to consult his client, not a doctor. 'He knows he is beaten and will settle the case with the other side' goes far beyond one awkward question; nothing says the case is lost or that a settlement is planned.
Read the passage and answer the question. The term saltwater is misleading when applied to the human body. Our blood, sweat, and tears all carry dissolved salt in proportions strikingly close to seawater. Some scientists see in this resemblance a faint echo of the ancient oceans where life first began. Which statement best captures the main idea?
- A.Humans first evolved in the ocean and later crawled out onto dry land
- B.The salt of our body fluids echoes the ancient seas where life began
- C.Blood, sweat, and tears hold far more salt than the water of the ocean
- D.Scientists have proved the salt in our body fluids came from the ocean
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Correct answer: The salt of our body fluids echoes the ancient seas where life began
The main idea is that the salt of our body fluids echoes the ancient seas where life began: the passage notes that blood, sweat, and tears carry salt in proportions close to seawater and links that to the oceans where life first began. 'Humans first evolved in the ocean and later crawled out onto dry land' makes a claim about human evolution that the passage never makes; it speaks only of where life first began. 'Blood, sweat, and tears hold far more salt than the water of the ocean' misreads the passage, which says the proportions are strikingly close to seawater, not higher. 'Scientists have proved the salt in our body fluids came from the ocean' overstates a cautious point; only some scientists see a faint echo, and nothing is said to be proved.
Read the passage and answer the question. The hikers found the cabin door swinging open, a half-eaten meal still warm on the table, and a chair tipped over on the floor. A single boot lay near the threshold, and muddy footprints led down the trail away from the cabin. What can you most reasonably infer happened?
- A.Someone broke into the cabin and stole the belongings of its owners
- B.The cabin has stood empty for many weeks since its owner moved away
- C.The person who was in the cabin left suddenly and in a great hurry
- D.The person who was in the cabin went out for a short, easy walk
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Correct answer: The person who was in the cabin left suddenly and in a great hurry
The most reasonable inference is that the person who was in the cabin left suddenly and in a great hurry: the door swings open, a meal is left half-eaten and still warm, a chair is tipped over, a boot lies at the threshold, and footprints lead away down the trail. 'Someone broke into the cabin and stole the belongings of its owners' adds a theft that nothing in the passage describes. 'The cabin has stood empty for many weeks since its owner moved away' is ruled out by the meal that is still warm. 'The person who was in the cabin went out for a short, easy walk' does not explain the tipped chair, the dropped boot, or the meal left unfinished.
Read the passage and answer the question. Vaccines work in a way that seems almost paradoxical. By introducing a harmless piece or weakened form of a germ, they teach the immune system to recognize the real threat before it ever arrives. When the actual germ appears, the body is already prepared to fight it off. What is the central point of this passage?
- A.Vaccines train the body to fight a germ before a real infection
- B.Vaccines give the body a mild case of the disease a germ causes
- C.The body is unable to fight off a germ unless vaccines train it
- D.Vaccines kill off a germ after the body has already become sick
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Correct answer: Vaccines train the body to fight a germ before a real infection
The central point is that vaccines train the body to fight a germ before a real infection: the passage explains that a harmless piece or weakened form of a germ teaches the immune system to recognize the threat, so the body is ready when the actual germ appears. 'Vaccines give the body a mild case of the disease a germ causes' is a common misunderstanding; the passage says vaccines use a harmless piece or a weakened form of the germ, not the disease itself. 'The body is unable to fight off a germ unless vaccines train it' stretches the point too far; the passage says vaccines prepare the body in advance, not that it is helpless without them. 'Vaccines kill off a germ after the body has already become sick' reverses the timing, since the passage stresses preparing the body before the germ ever arrives.
Read the passage and answer the question. The boy who had begged for a puppy now stood at the back door, leash in hand, looking out at the rain. He set the leash down, wandered to the couch, and turned on the television while the eager dog waited by the door. What can be inferred about the boy?
- A.He has decided to give up the dog he begged for in the first place
- B.He is waiting for the dog to calm down before a walk in the rain
- C.He forgot he had promised to take the dog for a walk before supper
- D.He is reluctant to take the eager dog out for a walk in the rain
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Correct answer: He is reluctant to take the eager dog out for a walk in the rain
The inference is that he is reluctant to take the eager dog out for a walk in the rain: he stands at the door with the leash, looks out at the rain, then puts the leash down and turns on the television while the dog waits. 'He has decided to give up the dog he begged for in the first place' reads far too much into one rainy afternoon; nothing suggests he plans to part with the dog. 'He is waiting for the dog to calm down before a walk in the rain' does not fit, since he settles on the couch with the television and the dog is simply waiting by the door. 'He forgot he had promised to take the dog for a walk before supper' is ruled out by the leash already in his hand, which shows he knows about the walk.
Read the passage and answer the question. The word disaster comes from old roots meaning bad star. Long ago, people believed that misfortunes were written in the heavens and that an ill-placed planet could doom a voyage or a battle. The word survives even though almost no one today blames the stars for their troubles. What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.People once believed that planets sealed the fate of voyages and battles
- B.Most people today still blame their bad luck on the position of stars
- C.The word disaster preserves an old belief that stars caused misfortune
- D.The word disaster was first used by sailors to describe their shipwrecks
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Correct answer: The word disaster preserves an old belief that stars caused misfortune
The main idea is that the word disaster preserves an old belief that stars caused misfortune: the passage traces the word to roots meaning bad star and notes that it survives even though the belief behind it has faded. 'People once believed that planets sealed the fate of voyages and battles' is true of the past, but it is the background, not the point the passage makes about the word. 'Most people today still blame their bad luck on the position of stars' contradicts the last sentence, which says almost no one does today. 'The word disaster was first used by sailors to describe their shipwrecks' invents an origin; the passage traces the word to roots meaning bad star.
Read the passage and answer the question. The scientist set up her telescope earlier than usual, checked the forecast three times, and kept glancing toward the eastern horizon. She had circled this single date on her calendar months ago and refused all other appointments for the evening. What can you most reasonably infer about the evening?
- A.She is worried that a storm will soon damage the telescope
- B.She is expecting a major event to occur in the night sky
- C.She is testing a new telescope before she uses it for real
- D.She has a meeting that night that she is hoping to skip
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Correct answer: She is expecting a major event to occur in the night sky
The most reasonable inference is that she is expecting a major event to occur in the night sky: she circled this one date months ago, sets up early, checks the forecast three times, keeps watching the eastern horizon, and turns down every other plan for the evening. 'She is worried that a storm will soon damage the telescope' misreads the forecast checks, which show she wants a clear sky for viewing, not that she fears damage. 'She is testing a new telescope before she uses it for real' does not explain why one date was circled months in advance. 'She has a meeting that night that she is hoping to skip' reverses the passage; she refused other appointments because of the sky, not to dodge one meeting.
Read the passage and answer the question. The spice trade did more than carry pepper and cinnamon across the world. In their search for spices, merchants opened new sea routes, funded daring voyages, and connected cultures that had never before met. The hunt for flavor reshaped the map of the world. Which choice best states the main idea?
- A.The hunt for spices drove voyages that changed how the world was linked
- B.The merchants traded spices mainly because pepper and cinnamon were rare
- C.The spice trade did little more than carry pepper and cinnamon to market
- D.The spice trade mattered mainly because it made its merchants rich
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Correct answer: The hunt for spices drove voyages that changed how the world was linked
The main idea is that the hunt for spices drove voyages that changed how the world was linked: the passage says the spice trade did more than move goods, listing new sea routes, daring voyages, and cultures meeting for the first time, and ends by saying it reshaped the map of the world. 'The merchants traded spices mainly because pepper and cinnamon were rare' names a reason for the trade that the passage never gives. 'The spice trade did little more than carry pepper and cinnamon to market' contradicts the first sentence, which says the trade did far more than carry spices. 'The spice trade mattered mainly because it made its merchants rich' adds a claim about wealth that the passage never makes.
Read the passage and answer the question. The usually rowdy locker room had gone quiet. Players sat with towels over their heads, the coach stared silently at the floor, and the scoreboard outside still showed the final margin from the championship game they had just lost. What can be inferred about the team?
- A.The team lost after its coach made several bad decisions in a row
- B.The players are crushed after losing the big championship game
- C.The players are resting quietly before the final championship match
- D.The team is upset that the scoreboard showed the wrong final margin
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Correct answer: The players are crushed after losing the big championship game
The inference is that the players are crushed after losing the big championship game: the usually rowdy locker room is silent, players hide under towels, the coach stares at the floor, and the scoreboard still shows the margin of the championship game they just lost. 'The team lost after its coach made several bad decisions in a row' blames the coach, but the passage gives no reason for the loss. 'The players are resting quietly before the final championship match' gets the timing wrong, since the game has already been played and lost. 'The team is upset that the scoreboard showed the wrong final margin' misreads the scoreboard, which simply still shows the real final margin.
Read the passage and answer the question. Maps of the night sky group stars into constellations, but the stars in any given pattern have nothing to do with one another. They lie at wildly different distances, some far behind others, joined only by the chance angle from which we view them. The shapes we see are illusions of perspective. What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.Stars in the same constellation sit at roughly the same distance from Earth
- B.Constellations are tricks of perspective, not real groups of related stars
- C.Constellations were first drawn, long ago, to help sailors steer by stars
- D.Some stars in a constellation, though they look near, lie far behind others
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Correct answer: Constellations are tricks of perspective, not real groups of related stars
The main idea is that constellations are tricks of perspective, not real groups of related stars: the passage says the stars in a pattern have nothing to do with one another and are joined only by the chance angle from which we view them. 'Stars in the same constellation sit at roughly the same distance from Earth' contradicts the passage, which says they lie at wildly different distances. 'Constellations were first drawn, long ago, to help sailors steer by stars' gives a purpose for constellations that the passage never mentions. 'Some stars in a constellation, though they look near, lie far behind others' is a true detail, but it is evidence for the main idea rather than the idea itself.
Read the passage and answer the question. The small bookstore on the corner had survived for forty years, but the owner now spent more time chatting with old friends than ringing up sales. A handwritten sign in the window thanked customers for decades of loyalty, and shelves that were once packed stood half empty. What can you most reasonably infer about the bookstore?
- A.The owner is selling off old books to make room for new ones
- B.The bookstore is ready to expand thanks to its loyal customers
- C.The bookstore is about to close after forty years of business
- D.The owner is too busy talking with friends to care about sales
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Correct answer: The bookstore is about to close after forty years of business
The most reasonable inference is that the bookstore is about to close after forty years of business: a sign thanks customers for decades of loyalty, shelves that were once packed stand half empty, and the owner spends his time with old friends rather than on sales. 'The owner is selling off old books to make room for new ones' does not fit the farewell-style thank-you sign. 'The bookstore is ready to expand thanks to its loyal customers' contradicts the half-empty shelves and the owner's lack of sales. 'The owner is too busy talking with friends to care about sales' takes the chatting at face value and ignores the sign and empty shelves that explain it.
Read the passage and answer the question. The phrase common sense suggests something everyone naturally possesses, yet what counts as obvious varies enormously from place to place. A gesture considered polite in one country may be an insult in another. So-called common sense is largely learned, not born in us. What is the central point of this passage?
- A.What we call common sense is mostly learned and varies across cultures
- B.A gesture seen as polite in one country can be an insult somewhere else
- C.Everyone is born with an identical sense of what is obvious and polite
- D.Travelers should learn the local customs before they visit another land
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Correct answer: What we call common sense is mostly learned and varies across cultures
The central point is that what we call common sense is mostly learned and varies across cultures: the passage says what counts as obvious differs from place to place and ends by calling so-called common sense largely learned, not born in us. 'A gesture seen as polite in one country can be an insult somewhere else' is the example the passage uses, not the point the example supports. 'Everyone is born with an identical sense of what is obvious and polite' is the assumption the passage rejects. 'Travelers should learn the local customs before they visit another land' is advice the passage never gives.
Read the passage and answer the question. The toddler who had screamed at every bath now splashed happily in the tub, slapping the water and laughing. His mother had added a few floating rubber toys and a cup for pouring, and the bathroom echoed with giggles instead of cries. What can be inferred from this passage?
- A.The new toys turned bath time into something the toddler enjoys
- B.The toddler has outgrown his fear of water as he has grown older
- C.The mother has warmed the water so the toddler is no longer cold
- D.The toddler still dislikes baths but is pretending to be happy
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Correct answer: The new toys turned bath time into something the toddler enjoys
The inference is that the new toys turned bath time into something the toddler enjoys: the toddler who screamed at every bath now splashes and laughs, and the only change the passage names is the floating toys and the pouring cup his mother added. 'The toddler has outgrown his fear of water as he has grown older' offers a cause the passage never mentions and ignores the toys. 'The mother has warmed the water so the toddler is no longer cold' invents a change to the water; the passage says nothing about its temperature. 'The toddler still dislikes baths but is pretending to be happy' is contradicted by the splashing and the giggles that replace his cries.
Read the passage and answer the question. The humble dandelion is treated as a weed, yet nearly every part of it is useful. Its leaves can be eaten in salads, its roots brewed into a drink, and its bright flowers turned into syrup. A plant that gardeners fight to remove was once valued as food and medicine. Which statement best expresses the main idea?
- A.Though seen as weeds, dandelions are useful plants with many edible parts
- B.Dandelions are useless pests that most gardeners are right to fight
- C.Dandelions are now widely farmed around the world for both food and medicine
- D.Most weeds, such as dandelions, are more useful than people realize
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Correct answer: Though seen as weeds, dandelions are useful plants with many edible parts
The main idea is that, though seen as weeds, dandelions are useful plants with many edible parts: the passage contrasts the plant's reputation as a weed with leaves for salads, roots for a drink, and flowers for syrup. 'Dandelions are useless pests that most gardeners are right to fight' reverses the passage, which says nearly every part of the plant is useful. 'Dandelions are now widely farmed around the world for both food and medicine' changes the past to the present; the passage says the plant was once valued as food and medicine. 'Most weeds, such as dandelions, are more useful than people realize' stretches a point about one plant into a claim about most weeds.
Read the passage and answer the question. At the airport gate, the woman checked her watch every minute, scanned each arriving passenger with rising eagerness, and held a bouquet of flowers behind her back. When a tall man in uniform stepped through the doors, she dropped the flowers and ran. What can you most reasonably infer about the woman?
- A.She is a florist who brings flowers to a passenger at the gate
- B.She is nervous about meeting a stranger who is due at the gate
- C.She is late for her own flight and is now rushing to the gate
- D.She is eagerly waiting to greet a person she loves at the gate
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Correct answer: She is eagerly waiting to greet a person she loves at the gate
The most reasonable inference is that she is eagerly waiting to greet a person she loves at the gate: she checks her watch, scans each arriving passenger with rising eagerness, hides a bouquet, and then drops the flowers and runs to a man in uniform. 'She is a florist who brings flowers to a passenger at the gate' cannot explain why she drops the bouquet and runs to him. 'She is nervous about meeting a stranger who is due at the gate' misreads her rising eagerness and her run toward him, which show joy, not nerves. 'She is late for her own flight and is now rushing to the gate' misreads the watch-checking; she is already at the gate watching arrivals, not hurrying to catch a plane.
Read the passage and answer the question. The idea that we use only ten percent of our brains is one of the most enduring myths about the mind. Brain scans show that even simple tasks light up many regions at once, and over the course of a day nearly the whole brain is active. There is no idle reserve waiting to be unlocked. What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.The ten percent idea is a myth because nearly the whole brain is active
- B.Simple tasks light up a few regions of the brain, leaving most idle
- C.People could become smarter by unlocking the idle parts of their brain
- D.Brain scans are the best tool because they show the whole brain at work
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Correct answer: The ten percent idea is a myth because nearly the whole brain is active
The main idea is that the ten percent idea is a myth because nearly the whole brain is active: the passage names the myth, cites scans showing many regions active even in simple tasks, and ends by saying there is no idle reserve. 'Simple tasks light up a few regions of the brain, leaving most idle' contradicts the scans, which show simple tasks lighting up many regions at once. 'People could become smarter by unlocking the idle parts of their brain' restates the myth's promise; the passage says no idle reserve is waiting to be unlocked. 'Brain scans are the best tool because they show the whole brain at work' turns the evidence into a claim about scanning tools that the passage never makes.
Read the passage and answer the question. The village had always drawn its water from a single well in the square. After the new factory opened upstream, the water turned cloudy, several children fell ill, and the village council called an urgent meeting with the factory's owners. What can be inferred from this passage?
- A.The children fell ill from flu that began before the factory opened
- B.The well has dried up since the new factory began drawing river water
- C.The new factory upstream is probably polluting the water in the well
- D.The villagers are meeting the owners to ask about jobs at the factory
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Correct answer: The new factory upstream is probably polluting the water in the well
The inference is that the new factory upstream is probably polluting the water in the well: only after the factory opened did the water turn cloudy and several children fall ill, and the council at once called an urgent meeting with the factory's owners. 'The children fell ill from flu that began before the factory opened' contradicts the timing, since the passage says the trouble came after the factory opened. 'The well has dried up since the new factory began drawing river water' misreads the problem; the water turned cloudy, not scarce. 'The villagers are meeting the owners to ask about jobs at the factory' ignores the sick children and cloudy water that make the meeting urgent.
Read the passage and answer the question. Lighthouses once stood as the only guardians of dangerous coasts, their keepers tending the flame through every storm. Today, automated lights and satellite navigation have made the keepers obsolete. The towers remain as monuments to a vanished way of life. What is the central message of this passage?
- A.The lighthouses are no longer needed, now that ships use satellite guidance
- B.Lighthouse keepers worked hard, keeping their flames lit through the storms
- C.The old lighthouse towers should be protected as monuments to the past
- D.Technology replaced the keepers, leaving the towers as relics of the past
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Correct answer: Technology replaced the keepers, leaving the towers as relics of the past
The central message is that technology replaced the keepers, leaving the towers as relics of the past: the passage contrasts the keepers who once tended the flame with today's automated lights and satellite navigation, and calls the towers monuments to a vanished way of life. 'The lighthouses are no longer needed, now that ships use satellite guidance' goes too far; the passage says automated lights replaced the keepers, not that the lights themselves are useless. 'Lighthouse keepers worked hard, keeping their flames lit through the storms' is a detail about the past, not the message about what changed. 'The old lighthouse towers should be protected as monuments to the past' turns a description into advice the passage never gives.
Read the passage and answer the question. The normally generous donor returned the charity's letter unopened and did not answer their calls. Last year he had given freely, but recent news reports had questioned how the organization spent its funds, and a former employee had spoken out about waste. What can you most reasonably infer about the donor?
- A.He is upset that the charity keeps asking him for more money
- B.He no longer trusts the charity to spend its money wisely
- C.He has run low on money and can no longer afford a gift
- D.He is angry at the former worker for criticizing the charity
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Correct answer: He no longer trusts the charity to spend its money wisely
The most reasonable inference is that he no longer trusts the charity to spend its money wisely: he gave freely last year, but after news reports questioned how the charity spent its funds and a former employee spoke out about waste, he ignores its letter and calls. 'He is upset that the charity keeps asking him for more money' ignores the reports of waste that the passage places right before his silence. 'He has run low on money and can no longer afford a gift' offers a cause the passage never mentions. 'He is angry at the former worker for criticizing the charity' reverses where his doubts point, since the criticism is what turned him away from the charity.
Read the passage and answer the question. Most people think of bones as dry, lifeless scaffolding, but living bone is constantly changing tissue. Cells continually break down old bone and lay down new material, so that the skeleton you have today is not the one you had a decade ago. Bone is among the most active tissues in the body. Which choice best states the main idea?
- A.Bone is living tissue which the body constantly breaks down and rebuilds
- B.Bone forms an unchanging frame that stays the same in youth and old age
- C.Bone cells mostly break down old bone, so the skeleton gets weak with age
- D.Bone is the most active tissue, so the skeleton grows stronger as it ages
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Correct answer: Bone is living tissue which the body constantly breaks down and rebuilds
The main idea is that bone is living tissue which the body constantly breaks down and rebuilds: the passage rejects the picture of dry, lifeless scaffolding and explains that cells keep removing old bone and laying down new material. 'Bone forms an unchanging frame that stays the same in youth and old age' is the view the passage rejects; it says your skeleton today is not the one you had a decade ago. 'Bone cells mostly break down old bone, so the skeleton gets weak with age' leaves out the new material that cells lay down and adds a claim about aging the passage never makes. 'Bone is the most active tissue, so the skeleton grows stronger as it ages' overstates the last sentence, which calls bone among the most active tissues, and adds a claim about strength the passage never makes.
Read the passage and answer the question. The experienced sailor studied the gulls flying inland, the falling reading on his barometer, and the long swells rolling in from the open sea. He ordered the crew to reef the sails and secure everything on deck well before the sky showed any sign of trouble. What can be inferred about the sailor?
- A.He is getting the boat ready for a long race on the open sea
- B.He thinks the gulls flying inland show that land is close by
- C.He thinks the barometer is broken and gives bad readings
- D.He is reading the signs and expects a storm to arrive soon
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Correct answer: He is reading the signs and expects a storm to arrive soon
The inference is that he is reading the signs and expects a storm to arrive soon: gulls flying inland, a falling barometer, and long swells from the open sea lead him to reef the sails and secure the deck before the sky shows any trouble. 'He is getting the boat ready for a long race on the open sea' misreads the preparations; reefing sails and securing gear make a boat safer in rough weather, not faster. 'He thinks the gulls flying inland show that land is close by' misreads the gulls, which he reads as a weather warning along with the barometer and swells. 'He thinks the barometer is broken and gives bad readings' cannot be right, since he acts on the falling reading at once.
Read the passage and answer the question. We tend to picture a desert as scorching hot, yet the largest desert on Earth is Antarctica. A desert is defined not by temperature but by how little precipitation it receives, and the frozen continent gets almost no snow or rain. By that measure, ice can be just as much a desert as sand. What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.Heat and a lack of plants define a desert, so frozen Antarctica cannot be one
- B.Most deserts, like Antarctica, are cold places buried under thick sheets of ice
- C.Antarctica receives far too much snow each year to count as a true desert
- D.Deserts are defined by low precipitation, so even icy Antarctica counts as one
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Correct answer: Deserts are defined by low precipitation, so even icy Antarctica counts as one
The main idea is that deserts are defined by low precipitation, so even icy Antarctica counts as one: the passage replaces the hot-sand picture with the real definition, little rain or snow, and applies it to the frozen continent. 'Heat and a lack of plants define a desert, so frozen Antarctica cannot be one' repeats the mistaken picture the passage corrects, since a desert is defined not by temperature. 'Most deserts, like Antarctica, are cold places buried under thick sheets of ice' stretches one example into a claim about most deserts. 'Antarctica receives far too much snow each year to count as a true desert' contradicts the passage, which says the continent gets almost no snow or rain.
Read the passage and answer the question. The new manager promised an open-door policy, but employees soon noticed that her door was usually closed, that messages went unanswered for days, and that her schedule was always too full for the meetings she had encouraged. What can you most reasonably infer about the manager?
- A.She is too busy with important work to meet anyone this month
- B.The employees have given up trying to reach her with problems
- C.Her actions fail to match the openness she promised her staff
- D.She has dropped the policy and now keeps her office door shut
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Correct answer: Her actions fail to match the openness she promised her staff
The most reasonable inference is that her actions fail to match the openness she promised her staff: she announced an open-door policy, yet her door is usually closed, messages go unanswered for days, and she has no time for the meetings she encouraged. 'She is too busy with important work to meet anyone this month' takes her full schedule at face value and misses the gap between her promise and her conduct. 'The employees have given up trying to reach her with problems' is not stated; the passage shows them noticing the problem, not giving up. 'She has dropped the policy and now keeps her office door shut' invents an announcement; she never withdrew the policy, she simply does not follow it.
Read the passage and answer the question. The humble paper clip seems too simple to have a history, yet its familiar looped shape was the result of years of trial and error. Earlier fasteners tore the paper, slipped loose, or rusted onto the page. The version we use today succeeded because it held firmly without leaving a mark. What is the central point of this passage?
- A.The paper clip was invented in a single flash by a clever thinker
- B.The earliest paper clip failed because it was made of cheap metal
- C.The simple paper clip took years of trial and error to get right
- D.The paper clip used today still slips loose and marks the page
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Correct answer: The simple paper clip took years of trial and error to get right
The central point is that the simple paper clip took years of trial and error to get right: the passage challenges the idea that the clip is too simple to have a history and explains how earlier fasteners tore, slipped, or rusted until today's design held firmly without a mark. 'The paper clip was invented in a single flash by a clever thinker' contradicts the years of trial and error the passage describes. 'The earliest paper clip failed because it was made of cheap metal' names a cause the passage never gives; it describes the failures but not their material. 'The paper clip used today still slips loose and marks the page' contradicts the last sentence, which says today's clip holds firmly without leaving a mark.
Read the passage and answer the question. The quiet neighbor who rarely spoke to anyone was seen carrying groceries up to the elderly widow's apartment, shoveling her walk before dawn, and leaving fresh bread on her step. He never knocked or waited to be thanked. What can be inferred about the neighbor?
- A.He cares for the widow but keeps his kindness private.
- B.He works for the widow but resents his endless chores.
- C.He longs for the widow but conceals his true feelings.
- D.He hopes for thanks from the widow but hides his pride.
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Correct answer: He cares for the widow but keeps his kindness private.
He rarely speaks to anyone, yet he carries her groceries, shovels her walk before dawn, and leaves bread on her step, and he "never knocked or waited to be thanked." The best inference is therefore that he cares for the widow but keeps his kindness private. Because he never waits for thanks, it does not follow that he hopes for thanks from the widow but hides his pride. The passage mentions no job and no grudge, so nothing shows that he works for the widow but resents his endless chores. Nothing in his actions points to romance either, so it is unsupported that he longs for the widow but conceals his true feelings.
Read the passage and answer the question. The phrase reinventing the wheel is meant as a warning against wasted effort, yet some inventions truly do deserve a second look. The wheels on luggage, for instance, existed for decades before someone thought to attach them in a way that made suitcases easy to roll. Sometimes a small rethinking of the familiar changes everything. Which statement best captures the main idea?
- A.Rethinking something familiar can be a big waste of effort.
- B.Luggage wheels existed for ages before suitcases rolled well.
- C.Luggage wheels show that most old inventions need a redesign.
- D.Rethinking something familiar can yield major improvements.
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Correct answer: Rethinking something familiar can yield major improvements.
The passage ends, "Sometimes a small rethinking of the familiar changes everything," so its main idea is that rethinking something familiar can yield major improvements. The warning about wasted effort is set up only to be qualified with "yet some inventions truly do deserve a second look," so its point is not that rethinking something familiar can be a big waste of effort. It is a true detail of the example, not the main idea, that luggage wheels existed for ages before suitcases rolled well. One example cannot carry a sweeping rule, and the passage never claims that luggage wheels show that most old inventions need a redesign.
Read the passage and answer the question. The diner where the truckers always stopped had its lights off and its parking lot empty by noon. A notice taped to the door listed a phone number, the cook's car was nowhere to be seen, and the daily specials board still showed last week's date. What can you most reasonably infer about the diner?
- A.The diner has been sold, and new owners will take over.
- B.The diner has moved to a new address, listed on the notice.
- C.The diner has closed for the afternoon, at least until six.
- D.The diner has unexpectedly closed, at least for the moment.
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Correct answer: The diner has unexpectedly closed, at least for the moment.
The lights are off, the lot is empty by noon, the cook's car is gone, a notice is taped to the door, and the specials board "still showed last week's date," so the most reasonable inference is that the diner has unexpectedly closed, at least for the moment. That stale date shows the closure has lasted days, which rules out the idea that the diner has closed for the afternoon, at least until six. The notice lists only a phone number, so nothing shows that the diner has moved to a new address, listed on the notice. Nothing mentions a sale or a buyer, so it goes too far to say the diner has been sold, and new owners will take over.
Read the passage and answer the question. The rings inside a tree trunk are more than decoration. Each ring marks a year of growth, and its width records the conditions of that year. A wide ring speaks of a wet, favorable season, while a thin one hints at drought. Reading the rings is like reading a diary the tree kept of its own life. What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.A tree's rings reveal its age but say little about the conditions it lived through.
- B.A tree's rings grow widest in the driest years it lived through.
- C.A tree's rings keep a detailed yearly record of the conditions it lived through.
- D.A tree's rings are decoration with no link to the conditions it lived through.
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Correct answer: A tree's rings keep a detailed yearly record of the conditions it lived through.
Each ring marks a year, its width "records the conditions of that year," and reading the rings "is like reading a diary," so the main idea is that a tree's rings keep a detailed yearly record of the conditions it lived through. The passage's whole point about ring width contradicts the claim that a tree's rings reveal its age but say little about the conditions it lived through. The passage says a wide ring means a wet season and a thin one hints at drought, which reverses the claim that a tree's rings grow widest in the driest years it lived through. The opening line, "The rings inside a tree trunk are more than decoration," rules out the claim that a tree's rings are decoration with no link to the conditions it lived through.
Read the passage and answer the question. The student who had failed his first two exams arrived at office hours every week, turned in extra practice problems, and stayed late to ask questions. By the final exam he scored among the highest in the class, and his professor noted the change in front of everyone. What can be inferred from this passage?
- A.The student's final exam score improved since the test was easier.
- B.The student's final exam score rose once the professor praised him.
- C.The student's final exam score was lifted by his persistent effort.
- D.The student's final exam score rose with help from a private tutor.
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Correct answer: The student's final exam score was lifted by his persistent effort.
After failing two exams he came to office hours every week, turned in extra problems, and stayed late, and "by the final exam he scored among the highest in the class," so the best inference is that the student's final exam score was lifted by his persistent effort. Nothing suggests the test itself changed, so the passage gives no reason to think the student's final exam score improved since the test was easier. The professor's public remark came after the final, so it reverses the order of events to say the student's final exam score rose once the professor praised him. The passage mentions no outside helper, so nothing supports the claim that the student's final exam score rose with help from a private tutor.
Read the passage and answer the question. The word salary comes from the Latin word for salt. In ancient Rome, salt was so valuable for preserving food that soldiers were sometimes paid in it or given an allowance to buy it. The everyday word for our wages still carries the memory of a time when salt was almost as good as money. Which choice best states the main idea?
- A.The word salary comes from a Latin term for wages, not salt.
- B.The word salary echoes an era when salt itself served as pay.
- C.Roman soldiers were paid in salt alone instead of with coins.
- D.Roman cooks prized salt mostly for its flavor in their meals.
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Correct answer: The word salary echoes an era when salt itself served as pay.
The passage closes by saying our word for wages "still carries the memory of a time when salt was almost as good as money," so its main idea is that the word salary echoes an era when salt itself served as pay. The first sentence traces the word to "the Latin word for salt," which contradicts the claim that the word salary comes from a Latin term for wages, not salt. Soldiers were "sometimes paid in it or given an allowance to buy it," so it overstates the passage to say Roman soldiers were paid in salt alone instead of with coins. The passage values salt for preserving food, not for taste, so it misreads the text to say Roman cooks prized salt mostly for its flavor in their meals.
Read the passage and answer the question. The nurse noticed that the patient who had been weak and pale for weeks now sat up in bed, asked for a full meal, and laughed at a joke from a visitor. His chart showed steady improvement in every reading over the past three days. What can you most reasonably infer about the patient?
- A.The patient is fit enough to go home to his family today.
- B.The patient is cheerful but still too weak to eat a meal.
- C.The patient is steadily regaining the health he had lost.
- D.The patient is cleverly faking a good mood for visitors.
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Correct answer: The patient is steadily regaining the health he had lost.
After weeks of weakness he now sits up, asks for a full meal, and laughs, and his chart shows "steady improvement in every reading over the past three days," so the most reasonable inference is that the patient is steadily regaining the health he had lost. His asking for a full meal contradicts the claim that the patient is cheerful but still too weak to eat a meal. The chart's improving readings show the change is real, which rules out the idea that the patient is cleverly faking a good mood for visitors. Improving is not the same as being ready to leave, and the passage says nothing about a discharge, so it goes beyond the evidence to say the patient is fit enough to go home to his family today.
Read the passage and answer the question. The color of a flame can reveal what is burning. Sodium burns with a yellow glow, copper with a blue-green tint, and other elements each lend their own hue. Chemists use this fact to identify substances simply by the color they produce in a flame. What is the central point of this passage?
- A.Sodium is the single metal that chemists can identify by the color of its flame.
- B.Each element gives its flame a distinct color that chemists can use to identify it.
- C.The color of a flame is what chemists use to identify how hot a burning substance is.
- D.Chemists can identify which element is burning by how brightly its flame glows.
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Correct answer: Each element gives its flame a distinct color that chemists can use to identify it.
Sodium glows yellow, copper blue-green, and "other elements each lend their own hue," so chemists "identify substances simply by the color they produce"; the central point is that each element gives its flame a distinct color that chemists can use to identify it. The passage names copper and other elements as well, so it is wrong to say sodium is the single metal that chemists can identify by the color of its flame. The passage never connects hue to temperature, so it does not say the color of a flame is what chemists use to identify how hot a burning substance is. The passage is about hue, not brightness, so it misreads the text to say chemists can identify which element is burning by how brightly its flame glows.
Read the passage and answer the question. The driver pulled over to the shoulder, switched on the hazard lights, and stepped out to stare at the front of the car. Steam was rising from beneath the hood, the temperature gauge had climbed into the red, and he reached for his phone to call for help. What can be inferred from this passage?
- A.The engine has exploded and caught fire.
- B.The front tire has burst and gone flat.
- C.The engine has overheated and broken down.
- D.The front bumper has hit a deer and crumpled.
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Correct answer: The engine has overheated and broken down.
Steam is rising from under the hood, "the temperature gauge had climbed into the red," and the driver has turned on his hazards and is calling for help, so the best inference is that the engine has overheated and broken down. The passage describes steam, not a blast or flames, so it misreads the scene to say the engine has exploded and caught fire. The driver stares at the front of the car, but a flat tire would not send steam from the hood or push the gauge into the red, so nothing shows the front tire has burst and gone flat. No collision is mentioned, and a crash would not explain the gauge either, so the passage gives no support to the idea that the front bumper has hit a deer and crumpled.
Read the passage and answer the question. We often credit a calendar to the ancient Romans, but their early version drifted badly out of step with the seasons. Months wandered until winter festivals fell in autumn. Only after major reforms did the calendar finally line up with the sun, giving us the system we still rely on today. Which statement best expresses the main idea?
- A.The Roman calendar needed major reforms before it matched the sun and became the model we use.
- B.The early Roman calendar drifted so far from the seasons that its winter festivals fell in autumn.
- C.The Roman calendar tracked the sun closely from the start, and major reforms changed very little.
- D.The Romans moved their winter festivals to autumn to keep their calendar in step with the seasons.
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Correct answer: The Roman calendar needed major reforms before it matched the sun and became the model we use.
The passage says, "Only after major reforms did the calendar finally line up with the sun, giving us the system we still rely on today," so its main idea is that the Roman calendar needed major reforms before it matched the sun and became the model we use. It is a true supporting detail, not the main idea, that the early Roman calendar drifted so far from the seasons that its winter festivals fell in autumn. The early version "drifted badly," which contradicts the claim that the Roman calendar tracked the sun closely from the start, and major reforms changed very little. The festivals landed in autumn because the months wandered, not by design, so it misreads the cause to say the Romans moved their winter festivals to autumn to keep their calendar in step with the seasons.
Read the passage and answer the question. The usually crowded beach was empty despite the sunny day. A red flag flew from the lifeguard tower, a printed warning had been posted at the entrance, and the few people present stood on the sand watching the unusually high, fast-breaking waves. What can you most reasonably infer from this passage?
- A.The weather is too chilly for anyone to swim.
- B.The water is too polluted for anyone to swim.
- C.The beach is too crowded for anyone to swim.
- D.The surf is too dangerous for anyone to swim.
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Correct answer: The surf is too dangerous for anyone to swim.
A red flag flies, a warning is posted, and the few people present watch "the unusually high, fast-breaking waves" from the sand, so the most reasonable inference is that the surf is too dangerous for anyone to swim. The day is described as sunny, so nothing suggests the weather is too chilly for anyone to swim. Nothing mentions pollution, so it goes beyond the passage to say the water is too polluted for anyone to swim. The usually busy beach is described as empty, which contradicts the claim that the beach is too crowded for anyone to swim.
Read the passage and answer the question. Honey never truly spoils. Archaeologists have found pots of honey in ancient tombs that remain edible after thousands of years. Its very low water content and natural acidity create conditions in which bacteria cannot survive, allowing it to outlast nearly every other food. What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.Honey's makeup keeps it fit to eat for exceedingly long periods.
- B.Honey's sweetness is the main reason bacteria cannot grow in it.
- C.Honey's presence in tombs shows it was mainly a burial offering.
- D.Honey's shelf life depends mostly on being sealed inside tombs.
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Correct answer: Honey's makeup keeps it fit to eat for exceedingly long periods.
Honey "never truly spoils," stays edible for thousands of years, and outlasts "nearly every other food" because of its low water content and acidity, so the main idea is that honey's makeup keeps it fit to eat for exceedingly long periods. The passage gives low water and natural acidity as the cause, so it misreads the text to say honey's sweetness is the main reason bacteria cannot grow in it. The tomb finds are evidence of honey's long life, not of its purpose, so nothing supports the claim that honey's presence in tombs shows it was mainly a burial offering. The passage credits honey's own chemistry rather than where it was kept, so it is wrong to say honey's shelf life depends mostly on being sealed inside tombs.
Read the passage and answer the question. The interviewer leaned forward as the candidate spoke, jotted several notes, and smiled at her answers. As the meeting ended, he walked her to the elevator, mentioned the salary range without being asked, and said the team was excited to move forward. What can be inferred about the interviewer's impression of the candidate?
- A.He was unconvinced and is likely to reject her.
- B.He was distracted and is likely to forget her.
- C.He was impressed and is likely to advance her.
- D.He was gracious and is likely to turn her down.
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Correct answer: He was impressed and is likely to advance her.
He leaned forward, took notes, smiled at her answers, raised the salary range "without being asked," and "said the team was excited to move forward," so the best inference is that he was impressed and is likely to advance her. Smiling at her answers contradicts the idea that he was unconvinced and is likely to reject her. Leaning in and jotting notes show close attention, which rules out the claim that he was distracted and is likely to forget her. Telling her the team is excited to move forward goes well beyond politeness, so it does not fit that he was gracious and is likely to turn her down.
Read the passage and answer the question. The word museum traces back to a temple of the Muses, the ancient goddesses of art and learning. The first such institution was less a hall of objects than a center for scholars to study and create. Even now, the word carries that older sense of a place devoted to knowledge. Which choice best states the main idea?
- A.The first museums were built as a showcase for rare objects.
- B.The word museum reflects its beginnings as a home for study.
- C.The word museum has drifted far from its roots in study.
- D.The first museums were built by scholars to glorify artists.
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Correct answer: The word museum reflects its beginnings as a home for study.
The first such institution was "a center for scholars to study and create," and "even now, the word carries that older sense," so the main idea is that the word museum reflects its beginnings as a home for study. That last sentence contradicts the claim that the word museum has drifted far from its roots in study. The passage says the first was "less a hall of objects" than a place of study, which reverses the claim that the first museums were built as a showcase for rare objects. The passage links the word to the Muses, goddesses of art and learning, not to honoring artists, so nothing supports the claim that the first museums were built by scholars to glorify artists.
Read the passage and answer the question. The veteran cook tasted the soup, paused, and reached for neither salt nor pepper. He set down the spoon, nodded once to himself, and carried the pot straight out to the waiting customers without changing a thing. What can you most reasonably infer about the soup?
- A.The cook was satisfied that the soup was seasoned perfectly.
- B.The cook was unhappy with the soup but too rushed to fix it.
- C.The cook was sure that the soup needed salt but had run out.
- D.The cook was content to let the customers season the soup.
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Correct answer: The cook was satisfied that the soup was seasoned perfectly.
He tasted the soup, "reached for neither salt nor pepper," nodded to himself, and served it "without changing a thing," so the most reasonable inference is that the cook was satisfied that the soup was seasoned perfectly. His nod of approval contradicts the idea that the cook was unhappy with the soup but too rushed to fix it. He never reached for the salt at all, so nothing suggests the cook was sure that the soup needed salt but had run out. His nod points to a finished soup, not to a plan to leave the job to diners, so it is unsupported that the cook was content to let the customers season the soup.
Read the passage and answer the question. The brilliant colors of autumn leaves are not painted on in fall; they are there all along. Through spring and summer, green pigment masks the yellows and oranges beneath. Only when the green fades in autumn do the hidden colors finally show themselves. What is the central point of this passage?
- A.The yellows and oranges of fall leaves remain hidden all summer and disappear with the green.
- B.Cold autumn nights make the leaves produce new yellow and orange pigments that replace green.
- C.Autumn leaves turn brilliant shades of yellow and orange.
- D.The yellows and oranges of fall leaves are present all year but hidden until the green wanes.
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Correct answer: The yellows and oranges of fall leaves are present all year but hidden until the green wanes.
The colors "are there all along," green pigment masks them through spring and summer, and "only when the green fades" do they show, so the central point is that the yellows and oranges of fall leaves are present all year but hidden until the green wanes. The last sentence says the hidden colors finally show themselves, which contradicts the claim that the yellows and oranges of fall leaves remain hidden all summer and disappear with the green. The passage corrects the idea that new color is made in fall, so it is wrong to say cold autumn nights make the leaves produce new yellow and orange pigments that replace green. The passage's point is that those colors were there all along, which is more than the bare detail that autumn leaves turn brilliant shades of yellow and orange.
Read the passage and answer the question. The town that had emptied during the factory's decline began to stir again. New families moved into the long-vacant houses, the boarded-up shops on Main Street reopened one by one, and the school announced it would reopen a wing closed for years. What can be inferred about the town?
- A.The town is still losing families to larger cities.
- B.The town is thriving since its old factory reopened.
- C.The town is being turned into a resort for tourists.
- D.The town is springing back to life after hard times.
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Correct answer: The town is springing back to life after hard times.
The town "had emptied during the factory's decline," and now new families are moving in, shops are reopening, and the school is reopening a closed wing, so the best inference is that the town is springing back to life after hard times. New families moving into vacant houses contradicts the claim that the town is still losing families to larger cities. The passage never says the factory reopened; its decline is what emptied the town, so it is unsupported that the town is thriving since its old factory reopened. The newcomers are families settling into houses, not visitors, so nothing suggests the town is being turned into a resort for tourists.
Physical Science (93)
Newton's first law of motion is also commonly known as the law of:
- A.Momentum
- B.Inertia
- C.Acceleration
- D.Action and reaction
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Correct answer: Inertia
Newton's first law is also called the law of inertia, because it describes an object's tendency to stay at rest or keep moving at constant velocity unless a net force acts on it. Acceleration belongs to the second law, which links net force to acceleration. Momentum is the quantity that stays constant in collisions, a result tied to the third law rather than a name for the first, and action and reaction is the third law itself, which says every force comes with an equal and opposite force.
A spacecraft drifting far from any star or planet keeps moving in a straight line at steady speed without firing its engines. This continued motion is best explained by:
- A.Newton's third law
- B.Kepler's first law
- C.Newton's first law
- D.Kepler's third law
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Correct answer: Newton's first law
Newton's first law explains the motion: an object in motion keeps moving in a straight line at constant speed unless a net force acts on it, and far from any star or planet nothing is pushing or pulling the craft. Newton's third law describes equal and opposite force pairs, which matter only while the engines are firing. Kepler's first law says planets orbit the sun in ellipses, and Kepler's third law relates a planet's orbital period to its distance from the sun; both describe orbits around a star, and this craft is not orbiting anything.
Newton's second law of motion is most often written as which relationship?
- A.Force is mass times acceleration
- B.Force is mass times velocity
- C.Momentum is mass times velocity
- D.Momentum is mass times acceleration
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Correct answer: Force is mass times acceleration
Newton's second law is usually written as force is mass times acceleration (F = ma): the net force on an object equals its mass multiplied by the acceleration that force produces. The statement that momentum is mass times velocity is the definition of momentum, a different quantity, not the second law. Mixing the two up gives statements that are simply wrong: saying force is mass times velocity confuses force with momentum, and saying momentum is mass times acceleration confuses momentum with force.
A delivery truck has twice the mass of a small car. If the same net forward force is applied to each, the truck will have:
- A.Twice as much acceleration as the car
- B.Just as much acceleration as the car
- C.Four times as much acceleration as the car
- D.Half as much acceleration as the car
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Correct answer: Half as much acceleration as the car
The truck will have half as much acceleration as the car. By Newton's second law, acceleration equals net force divided by mass, so with the same force, doubling the mass halves the acceleration. Twice as much acceleration as the car gets the relationship backward by treating acceleration as growing with mass. Just as much acceleration as the car ignores the mass entirely, and four times as much acceleration as the car both reverses and squares the effect.
When you walk forward, your foot pushes backward on the ground and the ground pushes forward on your foot. This pair of forces illustrates:
- A.The law of gravity
- B.Newton's second law
- C.The law of inertia
- D.Newton's third law
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Correct answer: Newton's third law
This pair of forces illustrates Newton's third law: for every action force there is an equal and opposite reaction force, so your foot's backward push on the ground is matched by the ground's forward push on you. The law of inertia (Newton's first law) describes an object keeping its state of motion, not a pair of forces between two objects. Newton's second law relates net force to acceleration on a single object, and the law of gravity describes attraction between masses, which pulls downward rather than producing the forward push.
A 10-kilogram cart is pushed with a net force of 25 newtons. What is its acceleration?
- A.250 m/s squared
- B.0.4 m/s squared
- C.0.26 m/s squared
- D.2.5 m/s squared
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Correct answer: 2.5 m/s squared
The acceleration is 2.5 m/s squared: by Newton's second law, acceleration equals force divided by mass, so 25 newtons divided by 10 kilograms gives 2.5. Multiplying instead of dividing gives 250 m/s squared, and dividing the mass by the force (10 / 25) gives 0.4 m/s squared. Dividing by the cart's weight (about 98 newtons) instead of its mass gives about 0.26 m/s squared, but the second law uses mass in kilograms.
Two ice skaters of equal mass push off from each other while standing still on frictionless ice. Immediately afterward, they will:
- A.Move apart in opposite directions at equal speeds
- B.Travel in the same direction at equal speeds
- C.Stay at rest because the paired forces cancel out
- D.Stay at rest because frictionless ice has no grip
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Correct answer: Move apart in opposite directions at equal speeds
They will move apart in opposite directions at equal speeds. By Newton's third law each skater pushes the other with an equal and opposite force, and with equal masses they gain equal speeds in opposite directions. To travel in the same direction at equal speeds, both would need a push the same way, which a push-off cannot give. The two forces act on different skaters, so they do not cancel, which rules out the claim that they stay at rest because the paired forces cancel out. They push on each other, not on the ice, so the idea that they stay at rest because frictionless ice has no grip is also wrong.
A passenger standing on a bus lurches forward when the bus suddenly brakes. This happens because the passenger's body tends to:
- A.Be flung forward by the braking force
- B.Keep moving ahead due to its inertia
- C.Be pulled forward by its own weight
- D.Slow down to the same pace as the bus
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Correct answer: Keep moving ahead due to its inertia
The passenger's body tends to keep moving ahead due to its inertia. By Newton's first law, the body continues at the bus's original speed while the brakes slow the bus, so it lurches forward relative to the bus. If the body could slow down to the same pace as the bus, there would be no lurch at all. No forward force acts on the passenger: the brakes act on the bus, not on the body, so nothing causes the body to be flung forward by the braking force, and weight acts straight down, so it cannot be pulled forward by its own weight.
If you triple the net force applied to an object while keeping its mass the same, the acceleration will:
- A.Decrease by a factor of three
- B.Increase by a factor of nine
- C.Decrease by a factor of nine
- D.Increase by a factor of three
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Correct answer: Increase by a factor of three
The acceleration will increase by a factor of three. By Newton's second law, with mass held constant acceleration is directly proportional to net force, so tripling the force triples the acceleration. To decrease by a factor of three would treat acceleration as inversely proportional to force, which is how it depends on mass, not force. To increase by a factor of nine squares the factor, as if the relationship were a square law, and to decrease by a factor of nine applies an inverse-square rule like the one for gravity, which does not describe force and acceleration.
Which everyday situation is the clearest example of an object's inertia?
- A.A loaded sled that slowly grinds to a stop on rough ground
- B.A rubber ball that speeds up as it rolls down steep ground
- C.A massive flywheel that resists changes to its spin rate
- D.A toy balloon that darts forward as air leaves its neck
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Correct answer: A massive flywheel that resists changes to its spin rate
The clearest example of inertia is a massive flywheel that resists changes to its spin rate: its large mass makes it hard to start turning and just as hard to stop, which is exactly the resistance to a change in motion that inertia describes. A loaded sled that slowly grinds to a stop on rough ground shows friction changing an object's motion. A rubber ball that speeds up as it rolls down steep ground shows gravity causing acceleration, and a toy balloon that darts forward as air leaves its neck shows Newton's third law, action and reaction.
A rocket lifts off by burning fuel and expelling exhaust gases downward at high speed. The upward thrust on the rocket is the reaction to the:
- A.Upward push of the rocket on the exhaust gases
- B.Downward push of the exhaust gases on the ground
- C.Upward push of the ground on the exhaust gases
- D.Downward push of the rocket on the exhaust gases
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Correct answer: Downward push of the rocket on the exhaust gases
The upward thrust is the reaction to the downward push of the rocket on the exhaust gases. By Newton's third law, when the rocket forces the gases down, the gases push the rocket up with an equal and opposite force, which is why rockets work even in the vacuum of space. An upward push of the rocket on the exhaust gases has the direction backward: the rocket throws the gases down, not up. A downward push of the exhaust gases on the ground and an upward push of the ground on the exhaust gases are forces between the gases and the ground, not forces on the rocket, and they vanish once the rocket climbs, yet the thrust continues.
An object has a mass of 6 kilograms and experiences a net force of 18 newtons. After this force acts, the object's acceleration is best described as:
- A.3 m/s squared in the same direction as the force
- B.0.33 m/s squared in the same direction as the force
- C.3 m/s squared opposite to the force
- D.0.33 m/s squared opposite to the force
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Correct answer: 3 m/s squared in the same direction as the force
The acceleration is 3 m/s squared in the same direction as the force. Newton's second law gives acceleration as net force divided by mass, so 18 newtons divided by 6 kilograms is 3 m/s squared, and acceleration always points the same way as the net force. Answers of 0.33 m/s squared in the same direction as the force or 0.33 m/s squared opposite to the force come from dividing mass by force (6 / 18), and 3 m/s squared opposite to the force has the right size but the wrong direction.
Weight differs from mass because weight is:
- A.The amount of matter that makes up an object
- B.The force on an object's mass due to gravity
- C.The resistance of an object's mass to changes in motion
- D.The total volume that an object takes up
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Correct answer: The force on an object's mass due to gravity
Weight is the force on an object's mass due to gravity, so it is measured in newtons and changes with the local strength of gravity. The amount of matter that makes up an object is the definition of mass, which is measured in kilograms and stays the same everywhere. The resistance of an object's mass to changes in motion describes inertia, and the total volume that an object takes up is a measure of size; neither is weight.
A car traveling at steady speed around a circular track is accelerating even though its speedometer reading does not change. This is because acceleration also occurs whenever an object changes its:
- A.Position
- B.Direction
- C.Mass
- D.Elevation
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Correct answer: Direction
The car is accelerating because it changes its direction. Acceleration is any change in velocity, and velocity includes direction as well as speed, so steering around a curve is acceleration even at constant speed. A change in position alone is just motion: an object moving in a straight line at constant velocity changes position without accelerating. A change in elevation is the same, since a car climbing a straight ramp at steady speed is not accelerating, and a change in mass is not part of the definition of acceleration at all.
On the periodic table, a horizontal row of elements is called a:
- A.Group
- B.Period
- C.Series
- D.Block
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Correct answer: Period
A horizontal row on the periodic table is called a period, and properties change gradually as you move across it. A group, also called a family, is a vertical column of elements with similar chemical behavior. A series is a name for a run of related elements, such as the lanthanide series, not the standard term for a row, and a block is a region of the table, such as the s-block or the p-block, sorted by which type of orbital is filling.
The atomic number of an element tells you the number of:
- A.Neutrons inside the nucleus
- B.Electron shells in the atom
- C.Protons inside the nucleus
- D.Outer electrons in the atom
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Correct answer: Protons inside the nucleus
The atomic number gives the number of protons inside the nucleus, and that count is what identifies the element. The number of neutrons inside the nucleus can differ between isotopes of the same element, so it cannot define the atomic number. The number of electron shells in the atom matches the element's period on the table, and the number of outer electrons in the atom (the valence electrons) relates to its group; neither is the atomic number.
What is the chemical symbol for the element oxygen?
- A.O
- B.Os
- C.Og
- D.Ox
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Correct answer: O
The chemical symbol for oxygen is the single capital letter O. Os is the symbol for osmium and Og is the symbol for oganesson, two different elements. Ox looks like a natural shortening of the name, but it is not the symbol of any element.
The far-right column of the periodic table contains helium, neon, and argon, which are known as the noble gases because they are:
- A.Very eager to gain more electrons
- B.Very unlikely to react chemically
- C.Very eager to give away electrons
- D.Very likely to react chemically
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Correct answer: Very unlikely to react chemically
The noble gases are very unlikely to react chemically, because their outer electron shells are already full and they have almost no tendency to form bonds. Being very likely to react chemically is the opposite of that behavior. Being very eager to gain more electrons describes the halogens in the column just to their left, such as fluorine and chlorine, and being very eager to give away electrons describes the alkali metals on the far left, such as sodium.
A neutral atom always has equal numbers of:
- A.Electrons and protons
- B.Protons and neutrons
- C.Neutrons and electrons
- D.Isotopes and molecules
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Correct answer: Electrons and protons
A neutral atom always has equal numbers of electrons and protons, so the negative and positive charges cancel and the atom carries no overall charge. Neutrons have no charge, so the neutron count does not have to match anything: protons and neutrons are equal in some light atoms, such as carbon-12, but not in most heavier ones, so neither protons and neutrons nor neutrons and electrons must always match. Isotopes and molecules are not particles inside a single atom at all, so their numbers have nothing to do with an atom's charge.
In the chemical equation describing the formation of water, the arrow that separates the starting materials from the new substances points from the:
- A.Reactants to the products
- B.Products to the reactants
- C.Coefficients to the subscripts
- D.Subscripts to the coefficients
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Correct answer: Reactants to the products
The arrow points from the reactants to the products: the starting materials are written on the left, the new substances on the right, and the arrow shows the direction of the change. Products to the reactants reverses that direction. Coefficients (the numbers in front of each formula) and subscripts (the small numbers inside a formula) appear on both sides of the equation, so an arrow from coefficients to the subscripts or from subscripts to the coefficients does not describe what the arrow separates.
A substance made of only one type of atom that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by ordinary chemical means is called a(n):
- A.Compound
- B.Isotope
- C.Element
- D.Molecule
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Correct answer: Element
Such a substance is an element: it contains only one kind of atom and cannot be broken down into anything simpler by ordinary chemical means. A compound contains two or more elements chemically bonded together and can be broken down chemically. An isotope is one form of an element with a particular number of neutrons, not the name for the kind of substance, and a molecule is a single particle of bonded atoms, which in many substances, such as water, joins more than one element.
When an atom loses or gains electrons and becomes electrically charged, the resulting particle is called a(n):
- A.Isotope
- B.Radical
- C.Ion
- D.Isomer
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Correct answer: Ion
An atom that loses or gains electrons and becomes charged is called an ion: losing electrons makes a positive ion and gaining them makes a negative ion. An isotope is a form of an element with a different number of neutrons, which does not change the charge. A radical is a particle with an unpaired electron, defined by that unpaired electron rather than by a charge, and an isomer is one of two or more compounds with the same formula but a different structure.
Salt water can be separated back into salt and water by boiling. This shows that salt water is a:
- A.Compound
- B.Mixture
- C.Element
- D.Molecule
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Correct answer: Mixture
Salt water is a mixture: the salt and water keep their own identities and can be separated by a physical process such as boiling off the water. A compound has its elements chemically bonded and cannot be split apart by boiling, and an element is a single kind of atom, so salt water, which contains several elements, is neither. A molecule is one particle of bonded atoms, while salt water is a blend of many water molecules and dissolved salt.
A solution with a pH of 3 is best described as:
- A.Neutral
- B.Basic
- C.Acidic
- D.Saline
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Correct answer: Acidic
A pH of 3 is acidic: any value below 7 on the pH scale marks an acid, and the lower the number, the stronger the acid. 'Neutral' means a pH of exactly 7, as in pure water. 'Basic' means a pH above 7, the opposite side of the scale from a reading of 3. 'Saline' means salty: it describes dissolved salt, not a place on the pH scale, and a plain salt solution sits near neutral.
During an ordinary chemical reaction, the law of conservation of mass states that the total mass of the products:
- A.Is greater than the mass of the reactants
- B.Is equal to the mass of the reactants
- C.Is less than the mass of the reactants
- D.Is equal to the mass of the solid reactants
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Correct answer: Is equal to the mass of the reactants
The total mass of the products is equal to the mass of the reactants: a chemical reaction only rearranges atoms, so none are gained or lost. 'Is greater than the mass of the reactants' is the trap set by rusting iron, which seems to gain weight only because it takes in oxygen from the air. 'Is less than the mass of the reactants' is the trap set by burning wood, which seems to lose weight because gases escape. 'Is equal to the mass of the solid reactants' leaves out gases, which have mass and must be counted on both sides.
Which of the following is a physical change rather than a chemical change?
- A.An iron nail rusting into reddish flakes
- B.An oak log burning into powdery ash
- C.An ice cube melting into liquid water
- D.An antacid tablet fizzing into gas bubbles
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Correct answer: An ice cube melting into liquid water
An ice cube melting into liquid water is a physical change: only the state changes, the substance is still water, and it can be frozen back into ice. 'An iron nail rusting into reddish flakes' forms iron oxide, a new substance. 'An oak log burning into powdery ash' is combustion, which turns wood into ash, smoke and new gases. 'An antacid tablet fizzing into gas bubbles' looks like simple dissolving, but the bubbles are carbon dioxide made by a reaction between the tablet's ingredients and the water, so it is a chemical change.
A substance changes directly from a solid to a gas without passing through the liquid state, as dry ice does. This process is called:
- A.Deposition
- B.Sublimation
- C.Evaporation
- D.Melting
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Correct answer: Sublimation
This change is sublimation, the direct passage from solid to gas; dry ice, which is solid carbon dioxide, does it at ordinary pressure. 'Deposition' is the reverse, gas straight to solid, as when frost forms on a cold window. 'Evaporation' turns a liquid into a gas, so it needs a liquid to start from. 'Melting' turns a solid into a liquid, the very stage that dry ice skips.
Hydrogen and helium, the two simplest elements, are found at the very top of the periodic table because they have the smallest:
- A.Ionization energy
- B.Atomic number
- C.Electronegativity
- D.Reactivity
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Correct answer: Atomic number
They have the smallest atomic number, which is the number of protons in the nucleus: hydrogen has 1 and helium has 2, and the periodic table is laid out in order of atomic number. 'Ionization energy' points the wrong way, since helium and hydrogen have some of the highest ionization energies of all the elements. 'Electronegativity' does not set the order either; hydrogen's is moderate and higher than that of lithium, the metal below it. 'Reactivity' fails too: hydrogen is quite reactive while helium is almost inert, so the two do not share a smallest value.
Most metals on the periodic table share the property of being:
- A.Strongly drawn to magnets and quick to rust
- B.Good conductors of heat and electricity
- C.Dull and likely to shatter when hammered
- D.Liquid and shiny at room temperature
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Correct answer: Good conductors of heat and electricity
Most metals are good conductors of heat and electricity, which is why wires are made of copper and cooking pans of aluminum or steel. 'Strongly drawn to magnets and quick to rust' fits iron and steel but not most metals; copper, aluminum and gold are not pulled by magnets and do not rust. 'Dull and likely to shatter when hammered' describes nonmetal solids such as sulfur, while metals are shiny and bend or flatten instead. 'Liquid and shiny at room temperature' fits only mercury; nearly every other metal is a solid.
Potential energy stored in an object because of its height above the ground is specifically called:
- A.Electrostatic potential energy
- B.Elastic potential energy
- C.Gravitational potential energy
- D.Chemical potential energy
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Correct answer: Gravitational potential energy
Energy stored because of height is gravitational potential energy, equal to weight times height, so it grows as the object is raised. 'Elastic potential energy' is stored in a stretched or compressed object such as a spring. 'Chemical potential energy' is held in the bonds of fuels, food and batteries. 'Electrostatic potential energy' comes from the positions of electric charges relative to one another, not from height above the ground.
The law of conservation of energy states that energy can be:
- A.Made by generators and then stored in batteries
- B.Changed into other forms but not created or destroyed
- C.Used up gradually by machines as they do their work
- D.Lost for good when friction brings moving objects to rest
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Correct answer: Changed into other forms but not created or destroyed
Energy can be changed into other forms but not created or destroyed, so the total in a closed system stays constant. 'Made by generators and then stored in batteries' misreads a generator, which only converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. 'Used up gradually by machines as they do their work' confuses converting energy with using it up; a machine turns it into heat, sound and motion. 'Lost for good when friction brings moving objects to rest' misses that the kinetic energy becomes thermal energy in the rubbing surfaces, so none of it disappears.
A worker uses a machine that produces 1,000 watts of power for 4 seconds. How much work does it do in that time?
- A.4,000 joules
- B.1,000 joules
- C.250 joules
- D.0.25 joules
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Correct answer: 4,000 joules
Work equals power times time, and a watt is one joule per second, so 1,000 watts for 4 seconds gives 1,000 x 4 = 4,000 joules. '250 joules' comes from dividing the power by the time instead of multiplying. '1,000 joules' treats the power rating as the work done and ignores the 4 seconds. '0.25 joules' makes two slips at once: it rewrites 1,000 watts as 1 kilowatt without converting back, and it divides that 1 by the 4 seconds.
Power is best defined as the:
- A.Total amount of work done or energy transferred
- B.Force multiplied by the distance that an object moves
- C.Strength of the force that acts on an object
- D.Rate at which work is done or energy is transferred
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Correct answer: Rate at which work is done or energy is transferred
Power is the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred, measured in watts, or joules per second. 'Total amount of work done or energy transferred' leaves out time; two motors can do the same total work at very different power. 'Force multiplied by the distance that an object moves' is the definition of work, not power. 'Strength of the force that acts on an object' mixes up power with force, which is measured in newtons.
A roller coaster car has its greatest gravitational potential energy at which point on the track?
- A.At the track's lowest point
- B.At the point of greatest slope
- C.At the point of greatest speed
- D.At the track's highest point
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Correct answer: At the track's highest point
Gravitational potential energy depends on height, so it is greatest at the track's highest point. 'At the track's lowest point' is where potential energy is least and kinetic energy is greatest. 'At the point of greatest speed' is that same low spot, where most of the potential energy has already turned into kinetic energy. 'At the point of greatest slope' confuses slope with height; a steep drop can sit well below the top of the first hill.
Warm air rising from a heater while cooler air sinks to take its place transfers thermal energy mainly by:
- A.Conduction
- B.Radiation
- C.Convection
- D.Diffusion
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Correct answer: Convection
Rising warm air and sinking cool air form a circulating current, and heat carried by the movement of a fluid is convection. 'Conduction' passes heat through direct contact, particle to particle, without the material flowing. 'Radiation' carries energy as electromagnetic waves and needs no medium at all. 'Diffusion' is the spreading of particles from high to low concentration, such as a scent drifting through a room; it is not the heat-driven circulation described here.
A stretched spring and a charged battery both store energy that can be released later. This stored, ready-to-use energy is best described as:
- A.Kinetic energy
- B.Thermal energy
- C.Electrical energy
- D.Potential energy
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Correct answer: Potential energy
Energy stored and ready for later use is potential energy: elastic potential energy in the stretched spring and chemical potential energy in the battery. 'Kinetic energy' is energy of motion, and neither object is moving. 'Thermal energy' is the random motion of particles, felt as heat, not a store held for later. 'Electrical energy' is what the battery delivers once a circuit is closed; inside the battery the energy is held in chemical form, and a spring holds no electrical energy at all.
A pendulum swings back and forth. At the lowest point of its swing, the pendulum's energy is mostly:
- A.Kinetic energy
- B.Potential energy
- C.Thermal energy
- D.Chemical energy
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Correct answer: Kinetic energy
At the bottom of the swing the pendulum moves fastest, so its energy is mostly kinetic energy. 'Potential energy' peaks at the two ends of the swing, where the bob is highest and stops for an instant. 'Thermal energy' appears only as a small loss to air resistance and to friction at the pivot. 'Chemical energy' plays no part in a swinging pendulum.
A crane lifts a heavy beam straight upward at a steady speed. As the beam rises, the work the crane does on it is converted mainly into the beam's:
- A.Kinetic energy
- B.Elastic potential energy
- C.Thermal energy
- D.Gravitational potential energy
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Correct answer: Gravitational potential energy
Lifting at a steady speed adds height but not speed, so the crane's work goes mainly into the beam's gravitational potential energy. 'Kinetic energy' is the energy of the beam's motion; it would grow only if the beam sped up, and at a steady speed it does not. 'Thermal energy' is only a small friction loss in the crane's machinery, not the beam's main store of the added energy. 'Elastic potential energy' is stored only when something is stretched or squeezed, and a stiff beam barely deforms, so it is negligible here.
A flashlight converts the chemical energy in its battery primarily into which two useful forms of energy?
- A.Light and thermal energy
- B.Light and kinetic energy
- C.Sound and thermal energy
- D.Sound and kinetic energy
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Correct answer: Light and thermal energy
A flashlight turns the battery's chemical energy mainly into light and thermal energy: the bulb glows, and it also warms up. 'Light and kinetic energy' and 'sound and kinetic energy' both name kinetic energy, but nothing in a flashlight moves as it shines. 'Sound and thermal energy' names the warmth correctly but swaps the light, the flashlight's main output, for sound it barely makes.
In the metric system, the standard unit used to measure both work and energy is the:
- A.Watt
- B.Newton
- C.Joule
- D.Pascal
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Correct answer: Joule
The joule is the standard metric unit of both work and energy; one joule is the work done by a force of one newton acting through one meter. 'Watt' is the unit of power, one joule per second. 'Newton' is the unit of force. 'Pascal' is the unit of pressure, one newton per square meter.
Electric current is best described as the:
- A.Flow of electric charge through a conductor
- B.Buildup of electric charge on a surface
- C.Opposition of a wire to moving electric charge
- D.Energy of electric charge stored in a battery
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Correct answer: Flow of electric charge through a conductor
Electric current is the flow of electric charge through a conductor, measured in amperes, or coulombs per second. 'Buildup of electric charge on a surface' is static electricity, charge that stays put rather than flowing. 'Opposition of a wire to moving electric charge' is resistance, measured in ohms. 'Energy of electric charge stored in a battery' describes what a battery holds, chemical energy that can drive a current once a circuit is closed, not the flow of charge itself.
In a simple series circuit containing several bulbs in a single loop, what happens when one bulb burns out?
- A.The remaining bulbs glow more brightly
- B.The remaining bulbs go dark as well
- C.The remaining bulbs stay lit as before
- D.The remaining bulbs glow more dimly
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Correct answer: The remaining bulbs go dark as well
In a series circuit the bulbs share one path, so when one bulb burns out the loop is broken and the remaining bulbs go dark as well. 'The remaining bulbs stay lit as before' describes a parallel circuit, where each bulb has its own branch. 'The remaining bulbs glow more brightly' and 'the remaining bulbs glow more dimly' both assume current still flows around the loop, but a broken loop carries no current.
A circuit has a voltage of 12 volts and a resistance of 4 ohms. Using Ohm's law, what is the current flowing through it?
- A.48 amperes
- B.3 amperes
- C.36 amperes
- D.4 amperes
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Correct answer: 3 amperes
Ohm's law gives current as voltage divided by resistance: 12 volts divided by 4 ohms is 3 amperes. '48 amperes' comes from multiplying the voltage by the resistance. '36 amperes' comes from the power formula, squaring 12 volts and dividing by 4 ohms, which gives 36 watts of power, not a current. '4 amperes' simply repeats the resistance figure as if ohms and amperes were the same thing.
A material such as rubber or glass that strongly resists the flow of electric current is called a(n):
- A.Conductor
- B.Insulator
- C.Semiconductor
- D.Resistor
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Correct answer: Insulator
Rubber and glass hold their electrons tightly, so they block current; such a material is an insulator, which is why rubber and plastic coat wires. 'Conductor' is the opposite, a material such as copper that lets current flow easily. 'Semiconductor' names materials such as silicon, whose conductivity lies between the two and can be controlled. 'Resistor' is a circuit component made to limit current while still letting it pass, not a material that blocks it.
Voltage in an electric circuit is best understood as the:
- A.Rate at which charges flow around the circuit
- B.Opposition that slows the flow of charges around the circuit
- C.Rate at which charges carry energy around the circuit
- D.Electrical pressure that pushes charges around the circuit
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Correct answer: Electrical pressure that pushes charges around the circuit
Voltage is the electrical pressure that pushes charges around the circuit, the push a battery supplies, measured in volts. 'Rate at which charges flow around the circuit' is current, measured in amperes. 'Opposition that slows the flow of charges around the circuit' is resistance, measured in ohms. 'Rate at which charges carry energy around the circuit' is power, measured in watts.
A fuse protects an electrical circuit by:
- A.Lowering the supply voltage to protect the wiring when current runs too high
- B.Melting a thin wire to break the circuit when current runs too high
- C.Sending the extra charge into the ground when current runs too high
- D.Tripping the breaker lever when current runs too high
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Correct answer: Melting a thin wire to break the circuit when current runs too high
A fuse protects a circuit by melting a thin wire to break the circuit when current runs too high: the fuse's own thin wire heats up and melts, opening the circuit before the wiring can overheat. 'Lowering the supply voltage to protect the wiring when current runs too high' describes a regulator; a fuse has no way to adjust voltage. 'Sending the extra charge into the ground when current runs too high' describes a grounding path, which carries fault current away but does not open the circuit. 'Tripping the breaker lever when current runs too high' is how a circuit breaker works; a breaker can be reset, while a blown fuse must be replaced.
If the voltage across a fixed resistance is doubled, the current through that resistance will:
- A.Halve
- B.Double
- C.Quadruple
- D.Remain unchanged
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Correct answer: Double
By Ohm's law, current equals voltage divided by resistance, so with the resistance fixed the current is directly proportional to the voltage and will double. 'Halve' reverses the relationship, as if current were inversely proportional to voltage. 'Quadruple' borrows the square law for power, which does rise fourfold when the voltage across a fixed resistance doubles. 'Remain unchanged' treats current as set by the source no matter what voltage is applied.
Newton's law of universal gravitation states that the gravitational attraction between two objects grows stronger as their:
- A.Masses grow
- B.Separation grows
- C.Speed grows
- D.Charges grow
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Correct answer: Masses grow
Gravitational attraction is proportional to the product of the two masses, so it grows stronger as the masses grow. 'Separation grows' is backward: the force weakens with the square of the distance between the objects. 'Speed grows' has no effect, because how fast the objects move does not appear in the law. 'Charges grow' describes the electric force of Coulomb's law, which gravity does not depend on.
An apple and a bowling ball are dropped at the same instant from the same height in a vacuum, where there is no air. They will:
- A.Hit the ground at the same moment
- B.Have the bowling ball land first
- C.Have the apple land first
- D.Float in place at the same height
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Correct answer: Hit the ground at the same moment
In a vacuum there is no air resistance, and gravity gives every object the same acceleration whatever its mass, so the two hit the ground at the same moment. 'Have the bowling ball land first' is the classic belief that heavier objects fall faster; the ball is pulled harder, but it also has more mass to move, so its acceleration is the same. 'Have the apple land first' gets the same comparison backward. 'Float in place at the same height' confuses a vacuum with weightlessness; removing the air does not remove gravity.
An object moving at a steady velocity in a straight line has a net force on it that is:
- A.Zero, since the forces balance out
- B.Forward, since the motion needs a push
- C.Backward, since friction slows it down
- D.Downward, since gravity pulls it down
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Correct answer: Zero, since the forces balance out
At a steady velocity in a straight line the object is not accelerating, so by Newton's first law the net force is zero, since the forces balance out. 'Forward, since the motion needs a push' is the old belief that motion needs a force to keep it going; a forward net force would make the object speed up. 'Backward, since friction slows it down' describes an object that is slowing, but at a steady velocity any friction is exactly matched by a forward force. 'Downward, since gravity pulls it down' ignores the supporting force that balances the object's weight.
Friction is best described as a force that:
- A.Pulls objects toward the center of the Earth
- B.Acts on objects only while they are sliding
- C.Pushes two touching surfaces away from each other
- D.Opposes relative motion of two touching surfaces
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Correct answer: Opposes relative motion of two touching surfaces
Friction opposes relative motion of two touching surfaces, which is why a sliding box slows down and why a parked car on a slope stays put. 'Acts on objects only while they are sliding' ignores static friction, which holds objects still before they ever start to slide. 'Pulls objects toward the center of the Earth' describes gravity. 'Pushes two touching surfaces away from each other' describes the normal force, which acts at right angles to the surfaces, while friction acts along them.
Momentum of a moving object is calculated by multiplying its mass by its:
- A.Acceleration
- B.Gravity
- C.Velocity
- D.Height
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Correct answer: Velocity
Momentum is mass times velocity, so a heavier or faster object carries more of it. 'Acceleration' belongs to Newton's second law, where force equals mass times acceleration. 'Gravity' belongs to weight, which is mass times the acceleration due to gravity. 'Height' belongs to gravitational potential energy, which is mass times gravity times height.
A 2-kilogram ball rolls at 5 meters per second. What is its momentum?
- A.5 kilogram-meters per second
- B.50 kilogram-meters per second
- C.25 kilogram-meters per second
- D.10 kilogram-meters per second
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Correct answer: 10 kilogram-meters per second
Momentum is mass times velocity: 2 kilograms x 5 meters per second = 10 kilogram-meters per second. '5 kilogram-meters per second' wrongly carries the one-half from the kinetic energy formula into momentum. '50 kilogram-meters per second' squares the speed, as kinetic energy does, and drops the one-half. '25 kilogram-meters per second' is the full kinetic energy formula, one-half x 2 x 5 x 5, which gives 25 joules of energy, not momentum.
Average speed is found by dividing the total distance traveled by the:
- A.Time spent in motion
- B.Highest speed reached
- C.Final speed reached
- D.Overall elapsed time
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Correct answer: Overall elapsed time
Average speed is total distance divided by the overall elapsed time, stops included, which gives distance covered per unit of time. 'Time spent in motion' leaves out the stops, so it gives the average moving speed, not the average speed for the whole trip. 'Highest speed reached' and 'final speed reached' turn the formula around: dividing a distance by a speed gives a time, not a speed.
A car travels 150 kilometers in 3 hours. What is its average speed?
- A.450 kilometers per hour
- B.75 kilometers per hour
- C.50 kilometers per hour
- D.150 kilometers per hour
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Correct answer: 50 kilometers per hour
Average speed is distance divided by time: 150 kilometers divided by 3 hours is 50 kilometers per hour. '450 kilometers per hour' multiplies the distance by the time instead of dividing. '75 kilometers per hour' halves the distance, as if finding an average always meant dividing by 2, and ignores the 3 hours. '150 kilometers per hour' treats the whole distance as if it were covered in a single hour.
The difference between speed and velocity is that velocity also includes the object's:
- A.Rate of acceleration
- B.Distance traveled
- C.Direction of motion
- D.Initial position
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Correct answer: Direction of motion
Speed tells only how fast an object moves; velocity adds the direction of motion, which makes it a vector. 'Rate of acceleration' is a separate quantity that measures how quickly velocity changes. 'Distance traveled' is already what speed is built from, distance per unit of time, so it does not separate the two. 'Initial position' describes where the object started, which neither speed nor velocity records.
Kinetic energy is the energy an object has because of its:
- A.Motion
- B.Position
- C.Mass
- D.Temperature
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Correct answer: Motion
Kinetic energy is the energy of motion; an object at rest has none, however heavy it is. 'Position' describes potential energy, such as the energy stored because of height. 'Mass' affects how much kinetic energy a moving object carries, but a resting mass has none, so mass alone is not the source. 'Temperature' reflects thermal energy, the motion of the particles inside an object, not the motion of the object as a whole.
If two objects of different mass move at the same speed, the one with greater mass has:
- A.More kinetic energy
- B.Less kinetic energy
- C.Equal kinetic energy
- D.Half the kinetic energy
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Correct answer: More kinetic energy
Kinetic energy is one-half times mass times speed squared, so at the same speed the heavier object has more kinetic energy. 'Equal kinetic energy' assumes speed alone sets kinetic energy and leaves out mass. 'Less kinetic energy' and 'half the kinetic energy' both reverse the relationship; kinetic energy rises in direct proportion to mass, so the heavier object cannot have less.
In physics, work is done on an object only when a force causes the object to:
- A.Gain speed over time
- B.Push back with an equal force
- C.Change its position
- D.Remain held in place
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Correct answer: Change its position
In physics, work is force times the distance moved in the direction of the force, so work is done only when the force makes the object change its position. 'Remain held in place' is the everyday idea of effort; holding a heavy box still feels like work, but with no movement no work is done on the box. 'Gain speed over time' is too narrow, since lifting a load at a steady speed is still work. 'Push back with an equal force' describes the reaction force of Newton's third law, which exists whether or not any work is done.
A person pushes against a heavy parked car with a steady force, but the car does not move at all. The amount of work done on the car, in the physics sense, is:
- A.Positive, because the person spends energy
- B.Large, because the person pushes hard
- C.Negative, because the car pushes back
- D.Zero, because the car stays motionless
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Correct answer: Zero, because the car stays motionless
The work is zero, because the car stays motionless: work requires a force to move an object through a distance, and here the distance is zero. 'Positive, because the person spends energy' mixes up effort with work; that energy becomes heat in the person's muscles, not work on the car. 'Large, because the person pushes hard' forgets that even a huge force does no work without movement. 'Negative, because the car pushes back' misreads Newton's third law; the car's push acts on the person, and the car itself still has not moved.
Heat naturally flows from an object at a higher temperature to one at a lower temperature until the two reach:
- A.Chemical equilibrium
- B.Equal heat content
- C.Equal specific heat
- D.Thermal equilibrium
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Correct answer: Thermal equilibrium
Heat flows from the hotter object to the cooler one until both are at the same temperature, a state called thermal equilibrium; after that there is no net heat flow. 'Equal heat content' confuses heat with temperature: a bathtub of warm water holds far more thermal energy than a cup of water at the same temperature. 'Equal specific heat' names a fixed property of each material, which heat flow cannot change. 'Chemical equilibrium' describes a reversible reaction whose forward and reverse rates are balanced, not a balance of temperatures.
Metal feels colder than wood at the same room temperature mainly because metal:
- A.Conducts cold into your hand faster
- B.Is actually at a lower temperature
- C.Conducts heat from your hand faster
- D.Is actually giving off cold rays
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Correct answer: Conducts heat from your hand faster
Both objects are at room temperature, but metal conducts heat from your hand faster than wood does, so your skin cools quickly and the metal feels colder. 'Is actually at a lower temperature' is wrong because both have sat in the same room long enough to match its temperature. 'Conducts cold into your hand faster' and 'is actually giving off cold rays' both treat cold as something that flows; only heat moves, from the warmer object to the cooler one.
Heat traveling from the Sun across the empty vacuum of space to reach the Earth is transferred by:
- A.Radiation
- B.Conduction
- C.Convection
- D.Diffusion
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Correct answer: Radiation
The space between the Sun and Earth is nearly empty, so the energy travels by radiation, electromagnetic waves that need no medium. 'Conduction' needs particles in direct contact to pass heat along. 'Convection' needs a fluid such as air or water to flow and carry heat. 'Diffusion' is the spreading of particles, so it too needs matter to move through.
When a beam of light passes from air into water and bends at the surface, this bending of light is called:
- A.Reflection
- B.Absorption
- C.Refraction
- D.Dispersion
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Correct answer: Refraction
Light that bends as it crosses from air into water is showing refraction: it slows down in the water and changes direction at the surface. Reflection is light bouncing back off a surface, absorption is light being taken in by a material and turned into heat, and dispersion is white light splitting into its colors, so none of those is the name for the bending itself.
When light strikes a smooth mirror and bounces back, this behavior of light is called:
- A.Transmission
- B.Refraction
- C.Reflection
- D.Diffraction
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Correct answer: Reflection
Light bouncing back from a smooth mirror is reflection: the rays leave the surface at the same angle at which they struck it. Transmission is light passing on through a material such as clear glass, refraction is light bending as it enters a new material, and diffraction is light spreading around an edge, so none of those describes light returning from a mirror.
A prism separates white light into a band of colors because white light is actually a mixture of:
- A.Light and darkness
- B.Infrared and ultraviolet
- C.Different colors of light
- D.Three primary paint colors
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Correct answer: Different colors of light
White light is a mixture of different colors of light, each with its own wavelength, and a prism bends each color by a slightly different amount, fanning them out into a band from red to violet. The old idea that colors come from light and darkness mixed together does not explain a spectrum, infrared and ultraviolet rays are invisible and lie outside the visible band, and three primary paint colors describes mixing pigments, not what white light is made of.
Sound waves cannot travel through the vacuum of outer space because sound requires:
- A.A material medium such as air or water
- B.A force such as gravity or a magnetic field
- C.Oxygen to carry the waves along
- D.Sunlight to give the waves energy
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Correct answer: A material medium such as air or water
Sound is a vibration handed from particle to particle, so it needs a material medium such as air or water, or a solid such as rock, to pass it along; the vacuum of space has almost no particles to carry it. Sound does not need a force such as gravity or a magnetic field, because the vibration is passed on by particles bumping into one another; it travels through steel and through pure nitrogen gas, so it does not need oxygen to carry the waves along; and it does not need sunlight to give the waves energy, since it carries perfectly well in a dark room.
The pitch of a sound, how high or low it seems, is determined mainly by the sound wave's:
- A.Amplitude
- B.Speed
- C.Intensity
- D.Frequency
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Correct answer: Frequency
Pitch depends mainly on frequency, the number of vibrations each second: a higher frequency gives a higher pitch. Amplitude and intensity set how loud a sound is rather than how high it sounds, and the speed of sound depends on the material it travels through, not on the note being played.
In a vacuum, light travels much faster than sound. This explains why, during a thunderstorm, you usually:
- A.See the lightning before the thunder arrives
- B.Notice the lightning and thunder together
- C.Hear the thunder before the lightning appears
- D.Never hear the thunder at all
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Correct answer: See the lightning before the thunder arrives
Because light travels far faster than sound, you usually see the lightning before the thunder arrives: the flash reaches you almost at once, while the sound needs about three seconds for every kilometer. You do not notice the lightning and thunder together, because the sound needs time to travel; you do not hear the thunder before the lightning appears; and from a storm a few kilometers away the thunder does reach you a few seconds after the flash, so it is not true that you never hear the thunder at all.
Density is defined as an object's mass divided by its:
- A.Weight
- B.Area
- C.Length
- D.Volume
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Correct answer: Volume
Density is mass divided by volume, so it tells how much matter is packed into each unit of space. Mass divided by weight gives only a number tied to the pull of gravity, area measures a flat surface rather than the space an object fills, and length is a single dimension, so none of those turns mass into density.
A solid object placed in water will float if its density is:
- A.Lower than the density of water
- B.Higher than the density of water
- C.Higher than the density of iron
- D.Lower than the density of iron
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Correct answer: Lower than the density of water
A solid floats when its density is lower than the density of water, because the water then supplies enough buoyant force to hold it up at the surface. An object whose density is higher than the density of water sinks, one higher than the density of iron is denser still and sinks too, and being lower than the density of iron is not enough, since stone and glass are less dense than iron yet still sink.
A magnet has two ends, or poles, named the:
- A.Positive pole and negative pole
- B.Top pole and bottom pole
- C.Magnetic pole and geographic pole
- D.North pole and south pole
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Correct answer: North pole and south pole
The two ends of a magnet are named the north pole and south pole, after the way a freely hanging magnet lines up with Earth's north and south. The names positive pole and negative pole belong to batteries and electric charge, not magnets; magnetic pole and geographic pole are two kinds of pole on Earth, not the two ends of a bar magnet; and top pole and bottom pole are not names used for magnets, since a magnet's poles stay the same whichever way it is turned.
When you bring the north pole of one magnet near the north pole of another magnet, the two poles will:
- A.Repel each other
- B.Attract each other
- C.Demagnetize each other
- D.Have no effect on each other
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Correct answer: Repel each other
Like poles repel each other, so two north poles push apart. Unlike poles, a north and a south, are the ones that attract each other. Simply bringing two magnets close does not make them demagnetize each other, and the poles cannot be said to have no effect on each other, because the push between them is easy to feel as they approach.
Wrapping a coil of current-carrying wire around an iron core creates a magnet that can be switched on and off. This device is called a(n):
- A.Electromagnet
- B.Transformer
- C.Permanent magnet
- D.Electric motor
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Correct answer: Electromagnet
A coil of current-carrying wire around an iron core is an electromagnet: it is magnetic only while current flows, so it can be switched on and off. A transformer uses coils on an iron core to change voltage rather than to act as a switchable magnet, a permanent magnet keeps its magnetism with no current at all, and an electric motor uses magnets and current to produce turning motion.
Resistance in an electric circuit is the opposition to the flow of current and is measured in units called:
- A.Volts
- B.Ohms
- C.Amps
- D.Joules
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Correct answer: Ohms
Resistance is measured in ohms, the unit named for Georg Ohm, who linked voltage, current, and resistance. Volts measure electrical potential difference, amps measure the current itself, and joules measure energy, so each of those belongs to a different quantity.
In a parallel circuit, several bulbs are connected on separate branches. If one bulb burns out, the other bulbs will:
- A.Go out along with the burned-out bulb
- B.Stay lit at the same brightness
- C.Glow brighter
- D.Glow dimmer
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Correct answer: Stay lit at the same brightness
In a parallel circuit each bulb sits on its own branch with its own path back to the source, so when one burns out the others stay lit at the same brightness; this is why homes are wired in parallel. They do not go out along with the burned-out bulb, because only that bulb's branch is open; they do not glow brighter, because each branch still has the same voltage across it and draws the same current as before; and for the same reason they do not glow dimmer.
An ordinary battery supplies electrical energy by converting energy that is stored in the battery as:
- A.Electrical energy
- B.Thermal energy
- C.Chemical energy
- D.Nuclear energy
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Correct answer: Chemical energy
A battery stores chemical energy in the substances inside its cells and turns it into electricity as reactions run once the circuit is closed. It does not hold electrical energy in storage, which is the form it delivers rather than the form it keeps; thermal energy is only a waste product of the reactions; and nuclear energy comes from changes in atomic nuclei, which ordinary batteries do not use.
Two metals are often joined to form an alloy. Which of the following best describes an alloy such as brass?
- A.A compound of metals
- B.A thin layer of metal plated on other metals
- C.A mixture of two or more metals
- D.A natural ore of metals
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Correct answer: A mixture of two or more metals
An alloy such as brass is a mixture of two or more metals, here mainly copper and zinc, blended while molten and left to set as a solid without the metals bonding chemically. It is not a compound of metals, which would have a fixed chemical formula; it is not a thin layer of metal plated on other metals, which is plating; and it is not a natural ore of metals, which is rock dug from the ground before any metal is extracted.
Water has the chemical formula H2O, which means each water molecule contains:
- A.One hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms
- B.Two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms
- C.One hydrogen atom and one oxygen atom
- D.Two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom
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Correct answer: Two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom
In H2O the subscript 2 belongs to the hydrogen and the oxygen carries an unwritten count of one, so each molecule holds two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. Reading the 2 as belonging to oxygen gives one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms; giving the 2 to both gives two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms, which is the ratio in hydrogen peroxide; and ignoring the subscript gives one hydrogen atom and one oxygen atom.
When sugar fully dissolves in a cup of hot tea to form a clear liquid, the dissolved sugar is called the:
- A.Solute
- B.Solvent
- C.Solution
- D.Suspension
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Correct answer: Solute
The substance that gets dissolved is the solute, so the sugar is the solute, while the hot tea doing the dissolving is the solvent. The clear sweet liquid as a whole is the solution, and a suspension is a cloudy mix whose particles settle out instead of dissolving, so neither name fits the dissolved sugar itself.
Boiling liquid water turns it into steam. During boiling, the water changes from a liquid into a:
- A.Solid
- B.Plasma
- C.New compound
- D.Gas
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Correct answer: Gas
Boiling turns liquid water into a gas, the invisible water vapor we call steam. It does not make a solid, which needs freezing, and it does not make a plasma, which needs temperatures thousands of degrees higher to strip electrons from atoms; boiling is a physical change, so the vapor is still water and not a new compound.
Of the three common states of matter, which one has a definite volume but takes the shape of its container?
- A.Liquid
- B.Solid
- C.Gas
- D.Plasma
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Correct answer: Liquid
A liquid has a definite volume but takes the shape of its container, because its particles stay close together yet slide past one another. A solid keeps both its own shape and its own volume, while a gas or a plasma spreads out to fill whatever container holds it, so neither has a definite volume.
Carbon dioxide gas is produced when an antacid tablet fizzes in water. The bubbling and formation of a new gas indicate that this is a:
- A.Physical change
- B.Chemical change
- C.Phase change
- D.Nuclear change
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Correct answer: Chemical change
Fizzing that produces a new gas, carbon dioxide, signals a chemical change, because new substances with new properties are forming. A physical change alters only form or appearance, and a phase change such as boiling makes bubbles of the same substance rather than a new one; a nuclear change alters atomic nuclei, which does not happen when a tablet dissolves.
Adding heat to a block of ice at its melting point causes the ice to change into liquid water. This change of state is called:
- A.Freezing
- B.Melting
- C.Evaporation
- D.Sublimation
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Correct answer: Melting
Ice turning into liquid water as heat is added is melting. Freezing is the reverse change from liquid to solid, evaporation is a liquid becoming a gas at its surface, and sublimation is a solid turning straight into a gas without passing through the liquid state, so none of those describes ice becoming water.
On the pH scale, a common household substance such as baking soda dissolved in water, with a pH of about 9, would be classified as:
- A.Acidic
- B.Neutral
- C.Strongly acidic
- D.Basic
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Correct answer: Basic
On the pH scale 7 is neutral, values below 7 are acidic, and values above 7 are basic, so baking soda at a pH of about 9 is basic. It is not acidic, and it is not neutral, which needs a pH of exactly 7. Calling it strongly acidic comes from assuming a higher pH number means a stronger acid, when the reverse is true.
A balanced chemical equation must have the same number of each kind of atom on both sides because of the law of:
- A.Conservation of energy
- B.Conservation of mass
- C.Definite proportions
- D.Multiple proportions
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Correct answer: Conservation of mass
Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction, so a balanced equation must show the same atoms on each side; this is the law of conservation of mass. Conservation of energy concerns energy rather than atom counts, definite proportions says a given compound always contains its elements in the same ratio by mass, and multiple proportions compares the ratios in two compounds made of the same elements, so none of those explains why equations balance.
The smallest particle of a compound that still keeps all the chemical properties of that compound is a:
- A.Atom
- B.Electron
- C.Element
- D.Molecule
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Correct answer: Molecule
The smallest particle of a compound that still has the compound's chemical properties is a molecule, two or more atoms bonded together, such as a single unit of water. One atom is only part of that molecule and lacks the compound's properties, an electron is a subatomic particle inside an atom, and an element is a substance made of one kind of atom, not a particle of a compound.
When two or more elements chemically combine in a fixed ratio to form a new substance with its own properties, the result is a:
- A.Mixture
- B.Suspension
- C.Compound
- D.Element
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Correct answer: Compound
Elements that combine chemically in a fixed ratio to form a new substance with its own properties make a compound, such as water or table salt. A mixture is a physical blend whose parts keep their own properties and can be present in varying proportions, a suspension is a cloudy mixture whose particles settle out, and an element contains only one kind of atom, so none of those fits the description.
A device used to measure electric current flowing in a circuit is called a(n):
- A.Voltmeter
- B.Ohmmeter
- C.Ammeter
- D.Wattmeter
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Correct answer: Ammeter
Electric current is measured with an ammeter, named for the ampere, the unit of current; it is wired in series so the current passes through it. A voltmeter measures the potential difference across a part, an ohmmeter measures resistance, and a wattmeter measures power, so none of those reads the current itself.
Electrical power used by a device is found by multiplying the voltage across it by the:
- A.Current it draws
- B.Resistance it has
- C.Time it runs
- D.Charge it holds
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Correct answer: Current it draws
Electrical power equals voltage times current, so the voltage across a device is multiplied by the current it draws. Multiplying by the resistance it has does not give power, voltage times the time it runs is not a power at all, since time enters only when finding the energy used, and voltage times the charge it holds would give an amount of energy rather than a rate.
A light-year, used in astronomy, is a unit that measures:
- A.A span of time
- B.A speed
- C.A distance
- D.A brightness
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Correct answer: A distance
A light-year is a distance: how far light travels in one year, about 9.5 trillion kilometers. Despite the word year, it is not a span of time; it is not a speed, even though it is built from the speed of light; and it does not measure a brightness, which astronomers express in magnitudes.
An object in free fall near the Earth's surface, ignoring air resistance, speeds up at a steady rate because of the constant pull of:
- A.Inertia
- B.Gravity
- C.Friction
- D.Momentum
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Correct answer: Gravity
A falling object speeds up at a steady rate because of the constant pull of gravity, which gives every object near Earth's surface the same acceleration when air resistance is ignored. Inertia is an object's tendency to keep its present motion and does not make it speed up, friction would slow the fall rather than quicken it, and momentum grows as a result of the fall rather than causing it.
Visible light, radio waves, and X-rays all belong to the same family of energy that travels as waves through space, known as the:
- A.Visible spectrum
- B.Sound frequency spectrum
- C.Electromagnetic spectrum
- D.Atomic emission spectrum
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Correct answer: Electromagnetic spectrum
Visible light, radio waves, and X-rays are all part of the electromagnetic spectrum, the full range of electric and magnetic waves that travel through space at the speed of light. The visible spectrum is only the narrow band our eyes detect, so it leaves out radio waves and X-rays; the sound frequency spectrum covers vibrations that need a medium such as air; and an atomic emission spectrum is the set of lines one element gives off, not the family these waves belong to.
Table Reading (79)
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 13 17 21 25 29 33 37. What value sits at X = 1, Y = 7?
- A.25
- B.13
- C.29
- D.21
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Correct answer: 29
Count across the headings -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3: the column headed 1 is the fifth, and the fifth entry in the row 13 17 21 25 29 33 37 is 29. Stopping one column short gives 25, the column headed 0; reading the X value as -1 gives 21; and taking X = 1 to mean the first column gives 13.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 22 26 30 34 38 42. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 8?
- A.34
- B.30
- C.22
- D.26
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Correct answer: 30
The column headed 0 is the third of the headings -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, and the third entry in the row 22 26 30 34 38 42 is 30. Stopping one column short gives 26, the column headed -1; going one column too far gives 34, the column headed 1; and treating X = 0 as the first column of the row gives 22.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 44 49 54 59 64. What value sits at X = 2, Y = 6?
- A.64
- B.59
- C.49
- D.54
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Correct answer: 59
The headings run -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, so the column headed 2 is the fourth, and the fourth entry in the row 44 49 54 59 64 is 59. Stopping one column short gives 54, the column headed 1; going one column too far gives 64, the column headed 3; and counting four entries in from the right-hand end gives 49.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 8 13 18 23 28 33. What value sits at X = -1, Y = 9?
- A.8
- B.18
- C.28
- D.13
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Correct answer: 18
The headings run -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, so the column headed -1 is the third, and the third entry in the row 8 13 18 23 28 33 is 18. Stopping one column short gives 13, the column headed -2; stopping two columns short gives 8, the column headed -3; and dropping the minus sign to read X = 1 gives 28.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 17 27 37 47 57. What value sits at X = 3, Y = 7?
- A.37
- B.57
- C.27
- D.47
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Correct answer: 47
The headings run 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, so the column headed 3 is the fourth, and the fourth entry in the row 17 27 37 47 57 is 47. Taking X = 3 to mean the third column gives 37, the column headed 2; going one column too far gives 57; and counting four entries in from the right-hand end gives 27.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 10 contains the entries 61 58 55 52 49. What value sits at X = -1, Y = 10?
- A.55
- B.61
- C.52
- D.58
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Correct answer: 58
The headings run -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, so the column headed -1 is the second, and the second entry in the row 61 58 55 52 49 is 58. The values fall from left to right, but the count still starts at the left. Stopping one column short gives 61, the column headed -2; going one column too far gives 55, the column headed 0; and dropping the minus sign to read X = 1 gives 52.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 90 84 78 72 66 60 54. What value sits at X = 2, Y = 8?
- A.60
- B.84
- C.78
- D.66
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Correct answer: 60
The headings run -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, so the column headed 2 is the sixth, and the sixth entry in the row 90 84 78 72 66 60 54 is 60. Stopping one column short gives 66, the column headed 1; taking the first column as X = 0, so that X = 2 lands on the third column, gives 78; and reading X = 2 as -2 gives 84, the same entry that counting from the right-hand end produces.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 11 contains the entries 33 37 41 45 49. What value sits at X = 3, Y = 11?
- A.41
- B.33
- C.45
- D.49
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Correct answer: 49
The headings run -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, so the column headed 3 is the fifth and last, and the fifth entry in the row 33 37 41 45 49 is 49. Stopping one column short gives 45, the column headed 2; taking X = 3 to mean the third column gives 41; and counting from the wrong end of the row gives 33.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 120 116 112 108 104 100. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 6?
- A.112
- B.120
- C.108
- D.116
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Correct answer: 112
The headings run -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, so the column headed 0 is the third, and the third entry in the row 120 116 112 108 104 100 is 112. The values fall from left to right, but the count still starts at the left. Stopping one column short gives 116, the column headed -1; going one column too far, or counting three entries in from the right-hand end, gives 108; and treating X = 0 as the first column gives 120.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -4, -3, -2, -1, 0 from left to right. The row for Y = 5 contains the entries 26 31 36 41 46. What value sits at X = -1, Y = 5?
- A.36
- B.41
- C.46
- D.31
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Correct answer: 41
The headings run -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, so the column headed -1 is the fourth, and the fourth entry in the row 26 31 36 41 46 is 41. Stopping one column short gives 36, the column headed -2; going one column too far gives 46, the column headed 0; and counting four entries in from the right-hand end gives 31.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 4 11 18 25 32 39. What value sits at X = 1, Y = 7?
- A.18
- B.32
- C.11
- D.25
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Correct answer: 32
Counting across the headings -3, -2, -1, 0, 1 puts the column headed 1 fifth from the left, and the fifth entry of the row is 32. 25 sits under the neighboring heading 0, one column short; 18 sits under -1, the value you get by misreading the sign of X; 11 is the fifth entry counted from the right-hand end, so the row was read from the wrong end.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 55 51 47 43 39. What value sits at X = 2, Y = 8?
- A.43
- B.39
- C.47
- D.51
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Correct answer: 47
With headings 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, the column headed 2 is the third column, and the third entry is 47. 51 sits under the neighboring heading 1 (it is also what you get by counting two entries in from the left); 43 sits under the neighboring heading 3; 39 sits under the heading 4, two columns too far right. The values fall from left to right, but the columns are still counted from the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 37 40 43 46 49 52. What value sits at X = 2, Y = 9?
- A.43
- B.49
- C.40
- D.46
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Correct answer: 49
The column headed 2 is fifth from the left (-2, -1, 0, 1, 2), so the entry is 49. 46 sits under the neighboring heading 1, one column short; 43 is the third entry, which comes from treating the first column as if it were headed 0 and counting to 2; 40 is the fifth entry counted from the right, the row read from the wrong end.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 25 30 35 40 45 50 55. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 6?
- A.40
- B.45
- C.50
- D.25
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Correct answer: 40
Zero is the middle heading of -3 to 3, the fourth column, so the entry is 40. 45 sits under the neighboring heading 1, one column too far right; 50 sits under the heading 2, two columns too far right; 25 sits under the heading -3, the first column taken as X = 0.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 11 contains the entries 9 15 21 27 33. What value sits at X = 1, Y = 11?
- A.33
- B.27
- C.15
- D.21
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Correct answer: 27
The column headed 1 is the fourth column (-2, -1, 0, 1), and the fourth entry is 27. 21 sits under the neighboring heading 0 and 33 under the neighboring heading 2, one column off either way; 15 sits under -1, the value given by misreading the sign of X (it is also the fourth entry counted from the right).
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 88 82 76 70 64 58. What value sits at X = -1, Y = 6?
- A.58
- B.76
- C.70
- D.64
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Correct answer: 70
Counting -4, -3, -2, -1 from the left puts the column headed -1 fourth, and the fourth entry is 70. 76 sits under the neighboring heading -2 and 64 under the neighboring heading 0; 58 sits under the heading 1, the answer if the minus sign on X is dropped. The values fall from left to right, but the count still starts at the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 16 21 26 31 36 41. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 8?
- A.36
- B.31
- C.41
- D.26
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Correct answer: 31
The column headed 0 is fourth from the left (-3, -2, -1, 0), and the fourth entry is 31. 26 sits under the neighboring heading -1 and 36 under the neighboring heading 1; 41 is the last entry, which comes from taking the right-hand end of the row as the zero column.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 100 94 88 82 76. What value sits at X = 2, Y = 9?
- A.88
- B.94
- C.76
- D.82
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Correct answer: 82
The column headed 2 is the fourth column (-1, 0, 1, 2), so the entry is 82. 88 sits under the neighboring heading 1 and 76 under the neighboring heading 3; 94 is the fourth entry counted from the right, the row read from the wrong end (it is also the second entry, if X = 2 is taken as two columns in from the left).
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 45 49 53 57 61 65. What value sits at X = 1, Y = 7?
- A.57
- B.61
- C.49
- D.53
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Correct answer: 57
The column headed 1 is fourth from the left (-2, -1, 0, 1), so the entry is 57. 53 sits under the neighboring heading 0 and 61 under the neighboring heading 2; 49 sits under -1, the value given by misreading the sign of X.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 22 29 36 43 50. What value sits at X = 1, Y = 6?
- A.43
- B.36
- C.29
- D.22
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Correct answer: 29
With headings starting at 0, the column headed 1 is the second column, and the second entry is 29. 36 sits under the neighboring heading 2; 43 is the second entry counted from the right, the row read from the wrong end; 22 sits under the neighboring heading 0, the first column taken as X = 1.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 60 57 54 51 48 45 42. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 9?
- A.45
- B.42
- C.48
- D.51
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Correct answer: 51
Zero is the middle heading of -3 to 3, the fourth column, and the fourth entry is 51. 48 sits under the neighboring heading 1; 45 sits under the heading 2, two columns too far right; 42 is the last entry, which comes from taking the right-hand end of the row as the zero column. The values fall from left to right, but the count still starts at the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 33 38 43 48 53. What value sits at X = -1, Y = 8?
- A.48
- B.33
- C.43
- D.38
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Correct answer: 38
The column headed -1 is the second column (-2, -1), and the second entry is 38. 43 sits under the neighboring heading 0; 48 sits under the heading 1, the answer if the minus sign on X is dropped; 33 sits under the neighboring heading -2, one column short.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 8 14 20 26 32. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 7?
- A.26
- B.14
- C.8
- D.20
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Correct answer: 14
The column headed 0 is the second column (-1, 0), so the entry is 14. 20 sits under the neighboring heading 1, one column too far right; 26 is the second entry counted from the right, the row read from the wrong end; 8 sits under the neighboring heading -1, the first column taken as X = 0.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -4, -3, -2, -1, 0 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 50 55 60 65 70. What value sits at X = -2, Y = 6?
- A.65
- B.55
- C.60
- D.70
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Correct answer: 60
The column headed -2 is the third column (-4, -3, -2), and the third entry is 60. 55 sits under the neighboring heading -3 and 65 under the neighboring heading -1, one column off either way; 70 sits under the heading 0, two columns too far right.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 10 contains the entries 72 68 64 60 56 52. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 10?
- A.52
- B.64
- C.56
- D.60
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Correct answer: 60
The column headed 0 is fourth from the left (-3, -2, -1, 0), and the fourth entry is 60. 64 sits under the neighboring heading -1 and 56 under the neighboring heading 1; 52 is the last entry, which comes from taking the right-hand column as X = 0. The values fall from left to right, but the count still starts at the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 11 15 19 23 27 31. What value sits at X = 2, Y = 8?
- A.27
- B.31
- C.19
- D.23
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Correct answer: 27
The column headed 2 is fifth from the left (-2, -1, 0, 1, 2), so the entry is 27. 23 sits under the neighboring heading 1 and 31 under the neighboring heading 3; 19 is the third entry, which comes from treating the first column as if it were headed 0 and counting to 2.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 41 46 51 56 61. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 6?
- A.46
- B.41
- C.51
- D.56
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Correct answer: 46
Reading -1, 0 from the left, the column headed 0 is the second, and the second entry is 46. 51 sits under the neighboring heading 1; 56 is the second entry counted from the right-hand end, the row read from the wrong end; 41 sits under the neighboring heading -1, the first column taken as X = 0.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 80 75 70 65 60. What value sits at X = 1, Y = 9?
- A.80
- B.75
- C.60
- D.65
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Correct answer: 75
With headings 0 to 4, the column headed 1 is the second, and the second entry is 75. 65 is the second entry counted from the right, the row read from the wrong end; 80 sits under the neighboring heading 0, the first column taken as X = 1; 60 is the last entry, which comes from counting one column in from the right-hand end. The values fall from left to right, but the count still starts at the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 9 14 19 24 29 34 39. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 7?
- A.29
- B.34
- C.19
- D.24
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Correct answer: 24
Zero is the middle heading of -3 to 3, the fourth column, so the entry is 24. 19 and 29 sit under the neighboring headings -1 and 1, one column off on either side; 34 sits under the heading 2, two columns too far right.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 55 52 49 46 43. What value sits at X = 1, Y = 9?
- A.52
- B.46
- C.43
- D.49
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Correct answer: 46
The column headed 1 is the fourth column (-2, -1, 0, 1), and the fourth entry is 46. 49 sits under the neighboring heading 0 and 43 under the neighboring heading 2; 52 sits under -1, the value given by misreading the sign of X (it is also the fourth entry counted from the right).
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 27 32 37 42 47. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 8?
- A.42
- B.37
- C.32
- D.27
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Correct answer: 32
The column headed 0 is the second column (-1, 0), and the second entry is 32. 37 sits under the neighboring heading 1; 42 is the second entry counted from the right, which comes from reading the row from the wrong end; 27 sits under the neighboring heading -1, the first column taken as X = 0.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 13 19 25 31 37 43. What value sits at X = -2, Y = 7?
- A.25
- B.37
- C.31
- D.19
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Correct answer: 25
The column headed -2 is the third column (-4, -3, -2), and the third entry is 25. 19 sits under the neighboring heading -3 and 31 under the neighboring heading -1 (31 is also the third entry counted from the right); 37 is the second entry from the right, which comes from counting two columns in from the wrong end.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 98 93 88 83 78 73. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 6?
- A.73
- B.88
- C.78
- D.83
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Correct answer: 83
The column headed 0 is fourth from the left (-3, -2, -1, 0), and the fourth entry is 83. 88 sits under the neighboring heading -1 and 78 under the neighboring heading 1; 73 sits under the heading 2, two columns too far right.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 10 contains the entries 6 12 18 24 30 36. What value sits at X = 2, Y = 10?
- A.30
- B.24
- C.12
- D.18
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Correct answer: 30
The column headed 2 is fifth from the left (-2, -1, 0, 1, 2), so the entry is 30. 24 sits under the neighboring heading 1; 18 is the third entry, which comes from treating the first column as if it were headed 0; 12 is the fifth entry counted from the right, the row read from the wrong end.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 40 44 48 52 56 60 64. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 8?
- A.44
- B.48
- C.40
- D.52
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Correct answer: 52
Zero is the middle heading of -3 to 3, the fourth column, so the entry is 52. 48 sits under the neighboring heading -1, one column short; 44 sits under -2, two columns too far left; 40 is the first entry, which comes from treating the left-hand column as X = 0.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 21 27 33 39 45. What value sits at X = -1, Y = 6?
- A.27
- B.39
- C.21
- D.33
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Correct answer: 27
The column headed -1 is the second column (-2, -1), and the second entry is 27. 33 sits under the neighboring heading 0; 39 sits under the heading 1, the answer if the minus sign on X is dropped; 21 sits under the neighboring heading -2, one column short.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 11 contains the entries 15 19 23 27 31. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 11?
- A.19
- B.23
- C.15
- D.27
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Correct answer: 19
Reading -1, 0 from the left, the column headed 0 is the second, so the entry is 19. 23 sits under the neighboring heading 1; 27 is the second entry counted from the right-hand end, the row read from the wrong end; 15 sits under the neighboring heading -1, the first column taken as X = 0.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -4, -3, -2, -1, 0 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 44 40 36 32 28. What value sits at X = -3, Y = 8?
- A.36
- B.32
- C.40
- D.44
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Correct answer: 40
The column headed -3 is the second column (-4, -3), and the second entry is 40. 44 sits under the neighboring heading -4 and 36 under the neighboring heading -2; 32 is the second entry counted from the right, the row read from the wrong end. The values fall from left to right, but the count still starts at the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 10 17 24 31 38 45. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 7?
- A.24
- B.10
- C.31
- D.17
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Correct answer: 31
The column headed 0 is fourth from the left (-3, -2, -1, 0), and the fourth entry is 31. 24 sits under the neighboring heading -1, one column short; 17 sits under -2, two columns too far left; 10 is the first entry, which comes from treating the left-hand column as X = 0.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 53 50 47 44 41 38. What value sits at X = 1, Y = 9?
- A.44
- B.38
- C.47
- D.41
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Correct answer: 44
The column headed 1 is fourth from the left (-2, -1, 0, 1), so the entry is 44. 47 sits under the neighboring heading 0 and 41 under the neighboring heading 2; 38 is the last entry, which comes from counting one column in from the right-hand end. The values fall from left to right, but the count still starts at the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 7 13 19 25 31 37 43. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 7?
- A.25
- B.31
- C.19
- D.37
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Correct answer: 25
Zero is the middle heading of -3 to 3, the fourth column, and the fourth entry is 25. 19 and 31 sit under the neighboring headings -1 and 1, one column off on either side; 37 sits under the heading 2, two columns too far right.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 64 59 54 49 44. What value sits at X = -1, Y = 8?
- A.44
- B.59
- C.54
- D.49
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Correct answer: 59
The column headed -1 is the second column (-2, -1), so the entry is 59. 54 sits under the neighboring heading 0; 49 sits under the heading 1, the answer if the minus sign on X is dropped; 44 is the last entry, which comes from counting one column in from the right-hand end.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 38 43 48 53 58. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 9?
- A.53
- B.43
- C.38
- D.48
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Correct answer: 43
The column headed 0 is the second column (-1, 0), and the second entry is 43. 48 sits under the neighboring heading 1, one column too far right; 53 is the second entry counted from the right, the row read from the wrong end; 38 sits under the neighboring heading -1, the first column taken as X = 0.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 9 16 23 30 37 44. What value sits at X = -3, Y = 6?
- A.9
- B.37
- C.16
- D.23
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Correct answer: 16
The column headed -3 is the second column (-4, -3), and the second entry is 16. 23 sits under the neighboring heading -2; 37 is the second entry counted from the right, the row read from the wrong end; 9 sits under the neighboring heading -4, one column short.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 105 100 95 90 85 80. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 8?
- A.85
- B.80
- C.95
- D.90
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Correct answer: 90
The column headed 0 is fourth from the left (-3, -2, -1, 0), so the entry is 90. 95 sits under the neighboring heading -1 and 85 under the neighboring heading 1; 80 is the last entry, which comes from taking the right-hand column as X = 0. The values fall from left to right, but the count still starts at the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 3 9 15 21 27 33. What value sits at X = 2, Y = 7?
- A.21
- B.27
- C.33
- D.15
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Correct answer: 27
The column headed 2 is fifth from the left (-2, -1, 0, 1, 2), and the fifth entry is 27. 21 sits under the neighboring heading 1 and 33 under the neighboring heading 3; 15 is the third entry, which comes from treating the first column as if it were headed 0 and counting to 2.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 56 52 48 44 40. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 6?
- A.48
- B.52
- C.40
- D.56
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Correct answer: 56
The headings start at 0, so X = 0 is the first column on the left, and its entry is 56. 52 sits under the neighboring heading 1; 40 is the first entry counted from the right, the row read from the wrong end; 48 sits under the heading 2, two columns too far right. The values fall from left to right, but the count still starts at the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 50 56 62 68 74 80 86. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 9?
- A.80
- B.62
- C.68
- D.74
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Correct answer: 68
Zero is the middle heading of -3 to 3, the fourth column, so the entry is 68. 62 and 74 sit under the neighboring headings -1 and 1, one column off on either side; 80 sits under the heading 2, two columns too far right.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 73 69 65 61 57. What value sits at X = -1, Y = 7?
- A.61
- B.57
- C.69
- D.65
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Correct answer: 69
The column headed -1 is the second column (-2, -1), and the second entry is 69. 65 sits under the neighboring heading 0; 61 sits under the heading 1, the answer if the minus sign on X is dropped; 57 is the last entry, which comes from counting one column in from the right-hand end.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 13 18 23 28 33. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 8?
- A.28
- B.23
- C.13
- D.18
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Correct answer: 18
Reading -1, 0 from the left, the column headed 0 is the second, so the entry is 18. 23 sits under the neighboring heading 1; 28 is the second entry counted from the right-hand end, the row read from the wrong end; 13 sits under the neighboring heading -1, the first column taken as X = 0.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -4, -3, -2, -1, 0 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 60 55 50 45 40. What value sits at X = -3, Y = 9?
- A.50
- B.60
- C.55
- D.45
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Correct answer: 55
The value is 55. Counting the headings -4, -3, -2, -1, 0 from the left, -3 is the second column, and the second entry of 60 55 50 45 40 is 55. 60 is one column too far left, under -4, and 50 is one column too far right, under -2. 45 is the second entry counted from the right-hand end, the result of reading the row backward. The entries fall from left to right, but the columns are still counted from the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 12 19 26 33 40 47. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 6?
- A.40
- B.33
- C.19
- D.26
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Correct answer: 33
The value is 33. Counting -3, -2, -1, 0 from the left, the heading 0 is the fourth column, and the fourth entry of 12 19 26 33 40 47 is 33. 26 is one column too far left, under -1, and is also what counting four places in from the right-hand end gives. 40 is one column too far right, under 1, and 19 is two columns too far left, under -2, the result of the pencil stopping two columns short.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 10 contains the entries 44 41 38 35 32 29. What value sits at X = 1, Y = 10?
- A.35
- B.41
- C.38
- D.44
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Correct answer: 35
The value is 35. Counting -2, -1, 0, 1 from the left, the heading 1 is the fourth column, and the fourth entry of 44 41 38 35 32 29 is 35. 41 sits under -1, the column read when a minus sign is wrongly added to X = 1. 38 is one column too far left, under 0, and is also the fourth entry counted from the right-hand end; 44 is the first entry, under -2, the result of taking X = 1 to mean the first column.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 5 12 19 26 33 40 47. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 8?
- A.33
- B.40
- C.19
- D.26
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Correct answer: 26
The value is 26. Counting -3, -2, -1, 0 from the left, the heading 0 is the fourth column, and the fourth entry of 5 12 19 26 33 40 47 is 26. 19 is one column too far left, under -1, and 33 is one column too far right, under 1. 40 is two columns too far right, under 2, the result of the pencil drifting past the target. Because 0 is the middle heading of seven, counting from either end lands on the same cell here.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 48 44 40 36 32. What value sits at X = -1, Y = 9?
- A.36
- B.48
- C.44
- D.40
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Correct answer: 44
The value is 44. Counting -2, -1 from the left, the heading -1 is the second column, and the second entry of 48 44 40 36 32 is 44. 48 is one column too far left, under -2, and 40 is one column too far right, under 0. 36 sits under 1, the column read when the minus sign on X = -1 is missed; it is also the second entry counted from the right-hand end.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 54 59 64 69 74. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 7?
- A.64
- B.59
- C.69
- D.54
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Correct answer: 59
The value is 59. Counting -1, 0 from the left, the heading 0 is the second column, and the second entry of 54 59 64 69 74 is 59. 54 is one column too far left, under -1, and 64 is one column too far right, under 1. 69 is the second entry counted from the right-hand end, the result of reading the row backward; it sits under 2.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 17 24 31 38 45 52. What value sits at X = -3, Y = 8?
- A.24
- B.38
- C.45
- D.31
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Correct answer: 24
The value is 24. Counting -4, -3 from the left, the heading -3 is the second column, and the second entry of 17 24 31 38 45 52 is 24. 31 is one column too far right, under -2, and 38 is two columns too far right, under -1. 45 is the second entry counted from the right-hand end, the result of reading the row backward.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 110 104 98 92 86 80. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 7?
- A.86
- B.98
- C.92
- D.80
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Correct answer: 92
The value is 92. Counting -3, -2, -1, 0 from the left, the heading 0 is the fourth column, and the fourth entry of 110 104 98 92 86 80 is 92. 98 is one column too far left, under -1, and is also the fourth entry counted from the right-hand end. 86 is one column too far right, under 1, and 80 is two columns too far right, under 2. The entries fall from left to right, but the columns are still counted from the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 8 16 24 32 40 48. What value sits at X = 2, Y = 6?
- A.40
- B.16
- C.32
- D.8
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Correct answer: 40
The value is 40. Counting -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from the left, the heading 2 is the fifth column, and the fifth entry of 8 16 24 32 40 48 is 40. 8 sits under -2, the column read when X = 2 is taken as negative. 32 is one column too far left, under 1. 16 is the fifth entry counted from the right-hand end, the result of reading the row backward.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 14 20 26 32 38 44 50. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 6?
- A.38
- B.26
- C.44
- D.32
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Correct answer: 32
The value is 32. Counting -3, -2, -1, 0 from the left, the heading 0 is the fourth column, and the fourth entry of 14 20 26 32 38 44 50 is 32. 26 is one column too far left, under -1, and 38 is one column too far right, under 1. 44 is two columns too far right, under 2, the result of the pencil drifting past the target.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 10 contains the entries 39 36 33 30 27. What value sits at X = -1, Y = 10?
- A.33
- B.36
- C.30
- D.39
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Correct answer: 36
The value is 36. Counting -2, -1 from the left, the heading -1 is the second column, and the second entry of 39 36 33 30 27 is 36. 39 is one column too far left, under -2, and 33 is one column too far right, under 0. 30 sits under 1, the column read when the minus sign on X = -1 is missed; it is also the second entry counted from the right-hand end.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 9 contains the entries 18 24 30 36 42. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 9?
- A.24
- B.36
- C.18
- D.30
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Correct answer: 24
The value is 24. Counting -1, 0 from the left, the heading 0 is the second column, and the second entry of 18 24 30 36 42 is 24. 18 is one column too far left, under -1, and 30 is one column too far right, under 1. 36 is the second entry counted from the right-hand end, the result of reading the row backward; it sits under 2.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -4, -3, -2, -1, 0 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 25 31 37 43 49. What value sits at X = -3, Y = 7?
- A.31
- B.43
- C.37
- D.25
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Correct answer: 31
The value is 31. Counting -4, -3 from the left, the heading -3 is the second column, and the second entry of 25 31 37 43 49 is 31. 25 is one column too far left, under -4, and 37 is one column too far right, under -2. 43 is the second entry counted from the right-hand end, the result of reading the row backward; it sits under -1.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 8 contains the entries 66 61 56 51 46 41. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 8?
- A.61
- B.51
- C.56
- D.66
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Correct answer: 51
The value is 51. Counting -3, -2, -1, 0 from the left, the heading 0 is the fourth column, and the fourth entry of 66 61 56 51 46 41 is 51. 56 is one column too far left, under -1, and is also the fourth entry counted from the right-hand end. 61 is two columns too far left, under -2, and 66 is the first entry, under -3, the result of taking the first column as X = 0. The entries fall from left to right, but the columns are still counted from the left.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 7 contains the entries 4 10 16 22 28 34. What value sits at X = 2, Y = 7?
- A.22
- B.10
- C.16
- D.28
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Correct answer: 28
The value is 28. Counting -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from the left, the heading 2 is the fifth column, and the fifth entry of 4 10 16 22 28 34 is 28. 22 is one column too far left, under 1, and 16 is two columns too far left, under 0. 10 is the fifth entry counted from the right-hand end, the result of reading the row backward.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 from left to right. The row for Y = 6 contains the entries 3 8 13 18 23 28 33. What value sits at X = 0, Y = 6?
- A.28
- B.23
- C.3
- D.18
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Correct answer: 18
The value is 18. Counting -3, -2, -1, 0 from the left, the heading 0 is the fourth column, and the fourth entry of 3 8 13 18 23 28 33 is 18. 23 is one column too far right, under 1, and 28 is two columns too far right, under 2, the result of the pencil drifting past the target. 3 is the first entry, under -3, the result of taking the first column as X = 0. Because 0 is the middle heading of seven, counting from either end lands on the same cell here.
Refer to a Table Reading grid with columns headed -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 from left to right. The row for Y = 11 contains the entries 70 66 62 58 54. What value sits at X = -1, Y = 11?
- A.66
- B.58
- C.70
- D.62
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Correct answer: 66
The value is 66. Counting -2, -1 from the left, the heading -1 is the second column, and the second entry of 70 66 62 58 54 is 66. 70 is one column too far left, under -2, and 62 is one column too far right, under 0. 58 sits under 1, the column read when the minus sign on X = -1 is missed; it is also the second entry counted from the right-hand end.
Before time begins on Table Reading, a candidate notices the column headings run from -3 on the far left up to 3 on the far right. Knowing this layout in advance mainly helps because it lets the candidate:
- A.Assume each row climbs from left to right without checking the printed entries
- B.Go straight to the column for each X value without counting across the top
- C.Figure out each cell from the number pattern without reading its printed entry
- D.Find where the row sits for each Y value without checking the side labels
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Correct answer: Go straight to the column for each X value without counting across the top
Knowing the layout lets the candidate go straight to the column for each X value without counting across the top: with -3 to 3 fixed in mind, X = 2 is known at once to be the sixth column. It does not let the candidate 'assume each row climbs from left to right without checking the printed entries', because rows can run either way. 'Figure out each cell from the number pattern without reading its printed entry' invites errors, since the printed value, not a pattern, is the answer. 'Find where the row sits for each Y value without checking the side labels' is wrong because the column layout says nothing about where the rows sit.
A candidate marks the chosen Y row with the left index finger and traces across with the pencil tip to the X column. The chief advantage of using two reference points rather than one is that it:
- A.Removes the need to read the row and column headings so the lookup is faster
- B.Keeps the pencil near the row and column so the answer is marked faster
- C.Locks the row and the column together so the eyes hit the intended cell
- D.Marks the row and column for review so the answer gets checked later on
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Correct answer: Locks the row and the column together so the eyes hit the intended cell
The chief advantage of two reference points is that it locks the row and the column together so the eyes hit the intended cell: the finger keeps the Y row from drifting while the pencil keeps the X column, so neither axis slips at speed. It is not that it 'removes the need to read the row and column headings so the lookup is faster', because the X and Y headings still have to be read. Nor is its value that it 'keeps the pencil near the row and column so the answer is marked faster' or 'marks the row and column for review so the answer gets checked later on'; its job is the lookup itself.
Across the whole Table Reading subtest, which behavior best balances the competing demands of speed and accuracy?
- A.Racing through at full speed while accepting the odd misread cell along the way
- B.Checking every answer a second time before moving on to the next item
- C.Keeping a brisk steady pace while anchoring the row and column for each lookup
- D.Skipping any item with long rows, then coming back to it after the rest are done
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Correct answer: Keeping a brisk steady pace while anchoring the row and column for each lookup
The best balance is keeping a brisk steady pace while anchoring the row and column for each lookup: the steady pace reaches enough of the forty items, and anchoring both the row and the column guards against neighboring-cell errors. 'Racing through at full speed while accepting the odd misread cell along the way' gives away the points the speed was meant to earn, and 'checking every answer a second time before moving on to the next item' burns the clock on items already done. 'Skipping any item with long rows, then coming back to it after the rest are done' wastes time, because every row is read the same way and no item is worth more than another.
On a Table Reading grid the same numeric value, such as 30, appears in more than one cell. When an item asks for X = 1, Y = 2, the candidate should report 30 only if:
- A.Column 1 holds 30 in at least one of its rows
- B.The cell where column 1 meets row 2 holds 30
- C.Row 2 holds 30 in at least one of its columns
- D.The column found by adding 1 and 2 holds 30
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Correct answer: The cell where column 1 meets row 2 holds 30
The candidate should report 30 only if the cell where column 1 meets row 2 holds 30, because the answer is defined by that one intersection and a matching value elsewhere does not count. 'Row 2 holds 30 in at least one of its columns' checks only the row, and 'column 1 holds 30 in at least one of its rows' checks only the column; each ignores the other coordinate. 'The column found by adding 1 and 2 holds 30' treats the coordinates as numbers to add, but X and Y name a column and a row, not a sum.
A candidate is deciding whether to double-check an early Table Reading answer or move on to unreached items near the end of the time limit. The stronger choice is usually to:
- A.Double-check, since early items count for more of the final mark
- B.Move on, since the later items count for more of the final score
- C.Double-check, since a wrong answer costs more than skipped items
- D.Move on, since reaching more items adds more scorable points
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Correct answer: Move on, since reaching more items adds more scorable points
The stronger choice is usually to move on, since reaching more items adds more scorable points: every item carries the same weight, so a blank at the end is a certain zero while a quick fresh lookup can score. 'Double-check, since early items count for more of the final mark' and 'move on, since the later items count for more of the final score' both rest on a weighting the subtest does not use. 'Double-check, since a wrong answer costs more than skipped items' is also wrong, because the AFOQT does not subtract points for wrong answers.
Suppose a Table Reading grid has eight labeled columns and six labeled rows. The number of individual data cells in the body of the table is:
- A.Fifty-six cells
- B.Sixty-three cells
- C.Forty-eight cells
- D.Fifty-four cells
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Correct answer: Forty-eight cells
The body holds forty-eight cells: eight columns times six rows gives forty-eight data cells, and the labels are not part of the body. 'Fifty-six cells' counts the row of column headings as a seventh data row (8 x 7), 'fifty-four cells' counts the column of row labels as a ninth data column (9 x 6), and 'sixty-three cells' counts both label strips (9 x 7).
Why might a candidate who is highly accurate but slow still score poorly on Table Reading?
- A.Each answer is scored by how fast it is given, and slow answers are worth less
- B.The score is based on the average time per item, so slower lookups pull the score down
- C.Speed is weighted more heavily than accuracy is, and thorough answers count for less
- D.Time runs out before many items are reached, and unreached items earn nothing
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Correct answer: Time runs out before many items are reached, and unreached items earn nothing
A slow but accurate candidate scores poorly because time runs out before many items are reached, and unreached items earn nothing: the subtest gives forty items in about seven minutes and counts right answers, so a blank at the end scores zero however accurate the finished ones are. The claim that 'each answer is scored by how fast it is given, and slow answers are worth less' is false, since a right answer earns the same point at any speed. 'The score is based on the average time per item, so slower lookups pull the score down' and 'speed is weighted more heavily than accuracy is, and thorough answers count for less' are also wrong: time is not scored, and a right answer counts the same however carefully it was found.
A candidate reads X first to fix the column, then reads Y to fix the row, then reports the cell where they cross. This ordered procedure is valuable mainly because it:
- A.Lets the two coordinates be added to find the position of the cell
- B.Keeps the two coordinates matched to the intended axes of the grid
- C.Keeps the eyes moving left to right while the grid values increase
- D.Lets the X headings be read just once for the whole of the subtest
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Correct answer: Keeps the two coordinates matched to the intended axes of the grid
Reading X first for the column and Y second for the row keeps the two coordinates matched to the intended axes of the grid, so the number meant for the column is never used for the row under time pressure. The order does not mean it 'lets the two coordinates be added to find the position of the cell', since the coordinates name a column and a row, not a sum. It is also not what 'keeps the eyes moving left to right while the grid values increase', because rows can rise or fall, and not what 'lets the X headings be read just once for the whole of the subtest', because each item has its own X and Y to look up.
During Table Reading a candidate's pencil slips two columns past the target before reading a value. Compared with a one-column slip, this two-column slip is:
- A.Now a row slip, so the value comes from a different Y than planned
- B.Harmless when row Y is right, since a small slip keeps the value nearby
- C.Worth partial credit, since a two-column slip still finds the right row
- D.Still a sideways slip, so the value comes from an X two places off
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Correct answer: Still a sideways slip, so the value comes from an X two places off
Compared with a one-column slip, a two-column slip is still a sideways slip, so the value comes from an X two places off: the row is right, but the heading is two positions from the target, so the answer belongs to the wrong X. It is not 'now a row slip, so the value comes from a different Y than planned', because the pencil moved along the row, not down the grid. 'Harmless when row Y is right, since a small slip keeps the value nearby' is wrong because only the exact cell scores, and 'worth partial credit, since a two-column slip still finds the right row' is wrong because Table Reading gives no partial credit.
A practice plan for Table Reading sets a goal of completing all forty items with several seconds to spare. Hitting this goal in practice most directly builds the candidate's:
- A.Recall of the practice values so answers come from memory at test time
- B.Skill at guessing from the numeric pattern so fewer cells need reading
- C.A habit of passing over hard items so the easy ones get finished first
- D.Pacing through the full test so the time limit stops capping the score
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Correct answer: Pacing through the full test so the time limit stops capping the score
Hitting that goal builds pacing through the full test so the time limit stops capping the score: finishing practice sets with time to spare trains the rapid lookups needed to reach every item on test day. It does not build 'recall of the practice values so answers come from memory at test time', since the test grid is new. 'Skill at guessing from the numeric pattern so fewer cells need reading' and 'a habit of passing over hard items so the easy ones get finished first' are habits the goal does not train, and both cost points, because each answer must be read from its cell and every item is worth the same.
On a Table Reading item the four answer choices are 18, 24, 30, and 36. After locating the intersection the candidate sees the cell shows 27. The best next action is to:
- A.Choose 24, since it is the nearest choice below the value that was read
- B.Choose 30, since rounding the value read up lands on the nearest choice
- C.Recheck the coordinates, since the right value is one of those options
- D.Leave it blank, since a value absent from the choices means a misprint
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Correct answer: Recheck the coordinates, since the right value is one of those options
The best next action is to recheck the coordinates, since the right value is one of those options: a cell value that matches none of the choices means the row or column was misread, so locating the intersection again fixes it. 'Choose 24, since it is the nearest choice below the value that was read' and 'choose 30, since rounding the value read up lands on the nearest choice' both keep the misread and only guess near it. 'Leave it blank, since a value absent from the choices means a misprint' gives up a point that a second look would earn.
Why does anchoring on the Y row matter more than usual when a Table Reading grid has many rows packed close together?
- A.Tight spacing shrinks the printed numbers in the rows, so the eye misreads a figure
- B.Extra rows repeat the same numbers, so a matching entry anywhere counts
- C.Tight spacing crowds the rows together, so the eye slides to a neighboring row
- D.Extra rows shift the headings along, so the columns then need a recount
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Correct answer: Tight spacing crowds the rows together, so the eye slides to a neighboring row
Anchoring matters more because tight spacing crowds the rows together, so the eye slides to a neighboring row: the closer the rows, the smaller the drift needed to land on the wrong Y partway across, so a finger keeps the intended row fixed. 'Tight spacing shrinks the printed numbers in the rows, so the eye misreads a figure' describes misreading a figure, not slipping to another row, and anchoring the row would not fix it. 'Extra rows repeat the same numbers, so a matching entry anywhere counts' is wrong because only the cell at the given X and Y scores, and 'extra rows shift the headings along, so the columns then need a recount' is wrong because adding rows leaves the X headings unchanged.
Instrument Comprehension (58)
On the attitude indicator, the line where the brown ground meets the blue sky is known as the:
- A.Pitch scale
- B.Horizon bar
- C.Turn needle
- D.Sky pointer
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Correct answer: Horizon bar
The boundary between the brown ground and the blue sky is the horizon bar, the moving line that the fixed aircraft symbol is judged against for both pitch and bank. The pitch scale is the set of short lines above and below it that mark degrees of pitch, and the sky pointer is the small triangle that shows the bank angle; the turn needle belongs to the turn indicator, a different instrument.
On the attitude indicator, the small fixed shape that represents the examinee's own airplane is the:
- A.Bank angle scale
- B.Aircraft symbol
- C.Turn coordinator
- D.Bank index mark
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Correct answer: Aircraft symbol
The small fixed shape that stands for your own airplane is the aircraft symbol, often called the miniature aircraft; it stays still while the sky-and-ground background moves behind it. The bank angle scale is the arc of degree marks around the dial and a bank index mark is one of those marks, so neither represents the airplane. The turn coordinator is a separate instrument with its own small airplane, not a part of the attitude indicator.
When the aircraft symbol appears to touch the horizon line at its center with the line perfectly flat, a pilot can conclude the wings are:
- A.Level with the horizon
- B.Banked toward the left
- C.Banked toward the right
- D.Inverted relative to the horizon
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Correct answer: Level with the horizon
The wings are level with the horizon: a flat, untilted horizon line with the symbol centered on it means there is no roll either way. Wings 'banked toward the left' or 'banked toward the right' would show the horizon line tilted across the dial. An aircraft 'inverted relative to the horizon' also shows a flat line, but with the brown ground above it and the blue sky below, the reverse of the normal picture.
Comparing two attitude indicators that both show level wings: the first has the symbol just below the line and the second has it far below the line. The second aircraft is in a:
- A.Gentler dive than the first
- B.Steeper climb than the first
- C.Gentler climb than the first
- D.Steeper dive than the first
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Correct answer: Steeper dive than the first
The second aircraft is in a steeper dive than the first: with the wings level, the farther the symbol sits below the horizon line, the more the nose is pitched down. 'Gentler dive than the first' reverses the comparison, and 'steeper climb than the first' and 'gentler climb than the first' misread the symbol's position, since a symbol below the line means the nose is down, not up.
On the attitude indicator the horizon line tilts only a few degrees off level while the symbol stays centered on it. This indicates a:
- A.Shallow bank with level pitch
- B.Steep bank with nose raised
- C.Steep bank with level pitch
- D.Shallow bank with nose raised
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Correct answer: Shallow bank with level pitch
This indicates a shallow bank with level pitch: a small tilt of the horizon line means a gentle roll, and the symbol resting on the line means the nose is neither up nor down. 'Steep bank with level pitch' would need a much larger tilt, and 'shallow bank with nose raised' and 'steep bank with nose raised' would put the symbol above the line instead of centered on it.
On the attitude indicator the colored portion representing the ground (commonly brown) is normally shown:
- A.Underneath the horizon line
- B.Along the outer rim of the dial
- C.Above the horizon line
- D.At the center of the dial
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Correct answer: Underneath the horizon line
The ground portion is shown underneath the horizon line, mirroring the view out the windscreen: brown earth below the line and blue sky above it. 'Above the horizon line' reverses the two colors. 'Along the outer rim of the dial' and 'at the center of the dial' confuse the ground area with the bank scale on the rim and the aircraft symbol in the middle.
If a pilot raises the nose into a climb without changing the wings, the horizon line on the attitude indicator will appear to:
- A.Climb upward relative to the symbol
- B.Tilt until its right end sits lower
- C.Tilt until its left end hangs lower
- D.Dip downward relative to the symbol
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Correct answer: Dip downward relative to the symbol
The horizon line will appear to dip downward relative to the symbol: the symbol is fixed, so raising the nose drops the line beneath it and more sky shows above. 'Climb upward relative to the symbol' is what a dive shows. 'Tilt until its right end sits lower' and 'tilt until its left end hangs lower' describe a bank, and the wings were not moved.
If a pilot lowers the nose into a dive without changing the wings, the horizon line on the attitude indicator will appear to:
- A.Tilt until its right end sits higher
- B.Shift upward relative to the symbol
- C.Sink downward relative to the symbol
- D.Tilt until its left end sits higher
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Correct answer: Shift upward relative to the symbol
The horizon line will appear to shift upward relative to the symbol: the symbol stays fixed, so lowering the nose lifts the line above it and more ground shows below. 'Sink downward relative to the symbol' is what a climb shows. 'Tilt until its right end sits higher' and 'tilt until its left end sits higher' describe a bank, and the wings were not moved.
On the attitude indicator a symbol sitting above a horizon line that is also tilted left-side-low tells the pilot the aircraft is simultaneously:
- A.Diving, banked left
- B.Climbing, wings level
- C.Climbing, banked left
- D.Diving, wings level
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Correct answer: Climbing, banked left
The aircraft is climbing, banked left: the symbol above the horizon line shows a nose-up climb, and the line's left-side-low tilt shows the bank. 'Diving, banked left' and 'diving, wings level' would put the symbol below the line, and 'climbing, wings level' would leave the horizon line flat rather than tilted.
On the attitude indicator a symbol sitting below a horizon line that is tilted right-side-low tells the pilot the aircraft is simultaneously:
- A.Diving and banked right
- B.Climbing and banked right
- C.Diving with wings level
- D.Climbing with wings level
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Correct answer: Diving and banked right
The aircraft is diving and banked right: the symbol below the horizon line shows a nose-down dive, and the line's right-side-low tilt shows the bank. 'Climbing and banked right' and 'climbing with wings level' would put the symbol above the line, and 'diving with wings level' would leave the horizon line flat rather than tilted.
On the attitude indicator, increasing the bank angle while holding pitch constant changes the display by:
- A.Moving the horizon line farther down the dial
- B.Tilting the aircraft symbol farther from level
- C.Tilting the horizon line farther from level
- D.Moving the aircraft symbol farther up the dial
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Correct answer: Tilting the horizon line farther from level
Increasing the bank while holding pitch constant shows up as tilting the horizon line farther from level: more roll tilts the line more steeply, while the steady pitch keeps the symbol's height against the line unchanged. 'Tilting the aircraft symbol farther from level' is wrong because on a standard attitude indicator the symbol is fixed to the case and does not roll. 'Moving the horizon line farther down the dial' and 'moving the aircraft symbol farther up the dial' describe a change in pitch, not in bank.
An attitude indicator shows the horizon line tilted right-side-low by only a slight amount, with the symbol centered. Compared with a line tilted right-side-low by a large amount, the slight tilt means a:
- A.Steeper right bank
- B.Gentler right bank
- C.Gentler left bank
- D.Steeper left bank
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Correct answer: Gentler right bank
A slight right-side-low tilt shows a gentler right bank. The bank angle equals how far the horizon line rotates from horizontal, so a small tilt is a shallow bank and a large tilt is a steep one. 'Steeper right bank' fits the large tilt, not the slight one. 'Gentler left bank' and 'steeper left bank' both misread the side: a line that is low on the right means the right wing is down, which is a right bank.
On the attitude indicator, two pictures show identical left-side-low tilts; the first has the symbol on the line and the second has the symbol below the line. The second adds which element to the maneuver?
- A.A climb
- B.A steeper bank
- C.A shallower bank
- D.A descent
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Correct answer: A descent
The second picture adds a descent. The identical left-side-low tilts show the same bank in both pictures, and the symbol sitting below the line adds nose-down pitch, a dive. 'A climb' reverses the cue, since a climb puts the symbol above the line. 'A steeper bank' would need a larger tilt and 'a shallower bank' a smaller one, but the two tilts are identical, so the bank has not changed.
On the attitude indicator, the feature that does NOT change when only the heading changes is the:
- A.Horizon tilt and heading number
- B.Compass card and the symbol's vertical position
- C.Compass card and heading number
- D.Horizon tilt and the symbol's vertical position
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Correct answer: Horizon tilt and the symbol's vertical position
Horizon tilt and the symbol's vertical position stay the same when only the heading changes, because the attitude indicator shows pitch and bank, not direction. A heading change turns the compass card and changes the heading number, so 'horizon tilt and heading number', 'compass card and the symbol's vertical position' and 'compass card and heading number' each name a part that moves with heading. Neither the compass card nor the heading number is shown on the attitude indicator; direction is read from the compass.
A pilot smoothly rolls out of a right bank back to wings level. During the roll-out, the horizon line on the attitude indicator will:
- A.Rotate from left-side-low to level
- B.Rotate from right-side-low to level
- C.Rotate from level to right-side-low
- D.Rotate from level to left-side-low
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Correct answer: Rotate from right-side-low to level
During the roll-out the horizon line will rotate from right-side-low to level. A right bank shows as a right-side-low line, and taking the bank out flattens the line until the wings are level. 'Rotate from left-side-low to level' is the picture for rolling out of a left bank. 'Rotate from level to right-side-low' describes rolling into a right bank, and 'rotate from level to left-side-low' describes rolling into a left bank.
On the attitude indicator, when blue sky fills nearly the entire instrument and only a sliver of ground remains at the bottom with level wings, the aircraft is in a:
- A.Shallow climb with wings level
- B.Steep climb with wings level
- C.Steep dive with wings level
- D.Shallow dive with wings level
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Correct answer: Steep climb with wings level
The aircraft is in a steep climb with wings level. Sky filling almost the whole instrument means a large nose-up pitch, and level wings mean no bank. A 'shallow climb with wings level' would leave much more ground showing. A 'steep dive with wings level' and a 'shallow dive with wings level' would fill the instrument with ground, not sky.
On the attitude indicator, when brown ground fills nearly the entire instrument and only a sliver of sky remains at the top with level wings, the aircraft is in a:
- A.Steep dive with wings level
- B.Steep climb with wings level
- C.Shallow dive with wings level
- D.Shallow climb with wings level
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Correct answer: Steep dive with wings level
The aircraft is in a steep dive with wings level. Ground filling almost the whole instrument means a large nose-down pitch, and level wings mean no bank. A 'shallow dive with wings level' would leave much more sky showing. A 'steep climb with wings level' and a 'shallow climb with wings level' would fill the instrument with sky, not ground.
On the attitude indicator, a small nose-up pitch held together with a strong right bank appears as the symbol:
- A.Just above a steeply right-side-low line
- B.Just below a steeply right-side-low line
- C.Just above a steeply left-side-low line
- D.Just below a steeply left-side-low line
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Correct answer: Just above a steeply right-side-low line
It appears as the symbol just above a steeply right-side-low line. The small nose-up pitch lifts the symbol only a little above the line, and the strong right bank tilts the line sharply with its right end low. 'Just below a steeply right-side-low line' shows a slight dive, not a climb. 'Just above a steeply left-side-low line' shows a left bank, and 'just below a steeply left-side-low line' gets both the pitch and the bank wrong.
On the heading indicator, the value used as the current heading is always the one positioned at the:
- A.Lower index on the dial
- B.Left index on the dial
- C.Right index on the dial
- D.Upper index on the dial
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Correct answer: Upper index on the dial
The current heading is the value at the upper index on the dial: the card turns so that the direction the nose points sits under this fixed mark at the top. The value at the 'lower index on the dial' is the reciprocal heading, 180 degrees away. Values at the 'left index on the dial' or the 'right index on the dial' lie 90 degrees off the nose, toward the wingtips.
On the compass card, the marking N is the same heading as which numeric value?
- A.360 degrees
- B.090 degrees
- C.180 degrees
- D.270 degrees
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Correct answer: 360 degrees
The marking N is the same heading as 360 degrees, also read as 000: north sits at the top of the card, where the count starts and ends. '090 degrees' is east, '180 degrees' is south (the reciprocal of north), and '270 degrees' is west.
On the compass, the marking W corresponds to which heading in degrees?
- A.090
- B.180
- C.360
- D.270
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Correct answer: 270
The marking W corresponds to 270, three-quarters of the way clockwise around the card from north. '090' is east, where W would land if the card were counted the wrong way or its reciprocal read. '180' is south and '360' is north, the two 90-degree neighbors of west.
On the compass, a heading of 020 degrees points the aircraft nearly toward the:
- A.North, just west of due north
- B.South, just west of due south
- C.North, just east of due north
- D.South, just east of due south
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Correct answer: North, just east of due north
A heading of 020 points north, just east of due north: it is only 20 degrees clockwise from 360. 'North, just west of due north' is 340, which comes from counting the card the wrong way. 'South, just west of due south' is 200, the reciprocal of 020, and 'south, just east of due south' is 160, the reciprocal of 340.
On the compass, a heading of 200 degrees points the aircraft toward roughly the:
- A.North-northeast
- B.South-southeast
- C.North-northwest
- D.South-southwest
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Correct answer: South-southwest
A heading of 200 points roughly south-southwest, just past due south (180) on the way to southwest (225). 'North-northeast' is 020, the reciprocal of 200. 'South-southeast' is 160, from counting the card the wrong way, and 'north-northwest' is 340, the reciprocal of that misreading.
On the compass, a heading of 290 degrees points the aircraft toward roughly the:
- A.East-southeast
- B.East-northeast
- C.West-northwest
- D.West-southwest
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Correct answer: West-northwest
A heading of 290 points roughly west-northwest, just past due west (270) on the way to northwest (315). 'East-southeast' is 110, the reciprocal of 290. 'East-northeast' is 070, from counting the card the wrong way, and 'west-southwest' is 250, the reciprocal of that misreading.
On the compass, a heading of 110 degrees points the aircraft toward roughly the:
- A.East-southeast
- B.West-northwest
- C.West-southwest
- D.East-northeast
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Correct answer: East-southeast
A heading of 110 points roughly east-southeast, just past due east (090) on the way to southeast (135). 'West-northwest' is 290, the reciprocal of 110. 'West-southwest' is 250, from counting the card the wrong way, and 'east-northeast' is 070, the reciprocal of that misreading.
An aircraft's compass heading changes from 030 to 330 over a few seconds. The aircraft has turned to the:
- A.Right, through north
- B.Right, through south
- C.Left, through north
- D.Left, through south
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Correct answer: Left, through north
The aircraft turned left, through north: the short way from 030 to 330 runs counterclockwise, 030 to 360 to 330, a 60-degree left turn. 'Right, through south' is the long way round, a 300-degree turn that a few seconds cannot cover; it comes from reading the larger number as a right turn. 'Right, through north' and 'left, through south' cannot happen here, since a right turn from 030 to 330 never passes north, and a left turn from 030 reaches 330 long before south.
An aircraft's compass heading changes from 350 to 020 over a few seconds. The aircraft has turned to the:
- A.Left, through south
- B.Right, through north
- C.Left, through north
- D.Right, through south
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Correct answer: Right, through north
The aircraft turned right, through north: the short way from 350 to 020 runs clockwise, 350 to 360 to 020, a 30-degree right turn. 'Left, through south' is the long way round, a 330-degree turn that a few seconds cannot cover; it comes from reading the smaller number as a left turn. 'Left, through north' and 'right, through south' cannot happen here, since a left turn from 350 to 020 never passes north, and a right turn from 350 reaches 020 long before south.
If the compass currently reads south (180), the reciprocal (opposite) heading is:
- A.North
- B.East
- C.West
- D.Northeast
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Correct answer: North
The reciprocal of south (180) is north, at 360: a reciprocal lies 180 degrees away, and 180 plus 180 is 360. 'East' (090) and 'west' (270) are only 90 degrees from south, a quarter turn instead of a half turn. 'Northeast' (045) is only 135 degrees from south, 45 degrees short of the half turn.
If the compass currently reads northwest (315), the reciprocal (opposite) heading is:
- A.Northeast
- B.Southeast
- C.Southwest
- D.South
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Correct answer: Southeast
The reciprocal of northwest (315) is southeast, at 135: subtracting 180 from 315 gives 135, the direction directly opposite. 'Southwest' (225) reverses only the north half of northwest, and 'northeast' (045) reverses only the west half; each is just 90 degrees from 315. 'South' (180) is 135 degrees from 315, short of the half turn a reciprocal needs.
On the compass card, the letter E appears under the top index when the aircraft is flying a heading of:
- A.270 degrees
- B.180 degrees
- C.090 degrees
- D.360 degrees
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Correct answer: 090 degrees
The letter E is under the top index at a heading of 090 degrees, since east is 090 on the card. '270 degrees' is west, the reciprocal of east and where E would fall if the card were counted the wrong way. '180 degrees' is south and '360 degrees' is north, the two 90-degree neighbors of east.
On the compass card, the letter W appears under the top index when the aircraft is flying a heading of:
- A.180 degrees
- B.360 degrees
- C.090 degrees
- D.270 degrees
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Correct answer: 270 degrees
The letter W is under the top index at a heading of 270 degrees, since west is 270 on the card. '090 degrees' is east, the reciprocal of west and where W would fall if the card were counted the wrong way. '180 degrees' is south and '360 degrees' is north, the two 90-degree neighbors of west.
On the compass, the intercardinal direction southeast is found at which heading?
- A.315 degrees
- B.045 degrees
- C.135 degrees
- D.225 degrees
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Correct answer: 135 degrees
Southeast is at 135 degrees, midway between east (090) and south (180). '315 degrees' is northwest, the reciprocal of southeast. '225 degrees' is southwest, where southeast lands if the card is counted the wrong way, and '045 degrees' is northeast, the reciprocal of that misreading.
On the compass, the intercardinal direction southwest is found at which heading?
- A.135 degrees
- B.225 degrees
- C.045 degrees
- D.315 degrees
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Correct answer: 225 degrees
Southwest is at 225 degrees, midway between south (180) and west (270). '045 degrees' is northeast, the reciprocal of southwest. '135 degrees' is southeast, where southwest lands if the card is counted the wrong way, and '315 degrees' is northwest, the reciprocal of that misreading.
As an aircraft holds a steady heading and does not turn, the value under the top index of the compass will:
- A.Rise steadily
- B.Fall steadily
- C.Swing up and down
- D.Stay unchanged
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Correct answer: Stay unchanged
The value under the top index will stay unchanged: with no turn the direction of flight is fixed, so the heading number holds. Values that 'rise steadily' or 'fall steadily' would mean a right or a left turn, and a value that would 'swing up and down' means the nose is wandering from side to side, not holding a steady heading.
On the compass, a heading that is changing in steps of 250, 240, 230 indicates the aircraft is turning toward the:
- A.Right, toward 270
- B.Left, toward 180
- C.Right, toward 180
- D.Left, toward 270
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Correct answer: Left, toward 180
The aircraft is turning left, toward 180: headings increase clockwise, so numbers falling from 250 to 230 mean the nose is swinging counterclockwise toward south (180). 'Right, toward 270' reads the falling numbers as a right turn, which would carry the heading up toward west (270). 'Right, toward 180' and 'left, toward 270' mix the two, since a right turn from 250 moves away from 180 and a left turn from 250 moves away from 270.
On the compass, a heading that is changing in steps of 300, 310, 320 indicates the aircraft is turning toward the:
- A.Right, toward 360
- B.Left, toward 270
- C.Left, toward 360
- D.Right, toward 270
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Correct answer: Right, toward 360
The aircraft is turning right, toward 360: headings increase clockwise, so numbers rising from 300 to 320 mean the nose is swinging clockwise toward north (360). 'Left, toward 270' reads the rising numbers as a left turn, which would carry the heading down toward west (270). 'Left, toward 360' and 'right, toward 270' mix the two, since a left turn from 300 moves away from 360 and a right turn from 300 moves away from 270.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows a level horizon with the symbol centered and the compass reading 090. The matching silhouette is an aircraft:
- A.Flying level with no bank, toward the west
- B.Flying level with no bank, toward the east
- C.Flying level in a right bank, toward the east
- D.Flying level in a right bank, toward the west
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Correct answer: Flying level with no bank, toward the east
The matching silhouette is flying level with no bank, toward the east: a centered symbol on a flat horizon means no climb, no dive and no bank, and 090 is due east. 'Flying level with no bank, toward the west' misreads 090 as 270. 'Flying level in a right bank, toward the east' adds a bank the flat horizon does not show, and 'flying level in a right bank, toward the west' adds the bank and misreads the heading.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows the symbol above a level horizon and the compass reading 270. The matching silhouette is an aircraft:
- A.Diving, heading west
- B.Climbing, heading east
- C.Diving, heading east
- D.Climbing, heading west
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Correct answer: Climbing, heading west
The matching silhouette is climbing, heading west: the symbol above a flat horizon means a wings-level climb, and 270 is due west. 'Diving, heading west' reverses the pitch cue, since a dive puts the symbol below the line. 'Climbing, heading east' misreads 270 as 090, and 'diving, heading east' gets both the pitch and the heading wrong.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows the symbol below a level horizon and the compass reading 360. The matching silhouette is an aircraft:
- A.Diving, heading north
- B.Climbing, heading north
- C.Diving, heading south
- D.Climbing, heading south
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Correct answer: Diving, heading north
The matching silhouette is diving, heading north: the symbol below a flat horizon means a wings-level dive, and 360 is due north. 'Climbing, heading north' reverses the pitch cue, since a climb puts the symbol above the line. 'Diving, heading south' reads the reciprocal heading, 180, and 'climbing, heading south' gets both the pitch and the heading wrong.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows the symbol centered on a horizon tilted right-side-low and the compass reading 225. The matching silhouette is an aircraft:
- A.Level, banking right, heading southwest
- B.Level, banking left, heading northeast
- C.Climbing, banking right, heading northeast
- D.Climbing, banking left, heading southwest
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Correct answer: Level, banking right, heading southwest
The matching silhouette is level, banking right, heading southwest: the centered symbol means no climb or dive, the right-side-low line means a right bank, and 225 is southwest. 'Level, banking left, heading northeast' mirrors the bank and reads the reciprocal heading, 045. 'Climbing, banking right, heading northeast' adds a climb the centered symbol does not show and reads 045, and 'climbing, banking left, heading southwest' adds the climb and mirrors the bank.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows the symbol centered on a horizon tilted left-side-low and the compass reading 135. The matching silhouette is an aircraft:
- A.Level, banking left, heading southeast
- B.Level, banking right, heading northwest
- C.Level, banking left, heading northwest
- D.Level, banking right, heading southeast
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Correct answer: Level, banking left, heading southeast
The matching silhouette is level, banking left, heading southeast: the centered symbol means no climb or dive, the left-side-low line means a left bank, and 135 is southeast. 'Level, banking right, heading southeast' mirrors the bank, since a right bank lowers the right side of the line. 'Level, banking left, heading northwest' reads the reciprocal heading, 315, and 'level, banking right, heading northwest' makes both mistakes.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows the symbol above a horizon tilted right-side-low and the compass reading 315. The matching silhouette is an aircraft:
- A.Climbing, banking left, heading southeast
- B.Climbing, banking right, heading northwest
- C.Climbing, banking right, heading southeast
- D.Climbing, banking left, heading northwest
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Correct answer: Climbing, banking right, heading northwest
The matching silhouette is climbing, banking right, heading northwest: the symbol above the line means a climb, the right-side-low line means a right bank, and 315 is northwest. 'Climbing, banking left, heading northwest' mirrors the bank. 'Climbing, banking right, heading southeast' reads the reciprocal heading, 135, and 'climbing, banking left, heading southeast' makes both mistakes.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows the symbol below a horizon tilted right-side-low and the compass reading 045. The matching silhouette is an aircraft:
- A.Diving, banking left, heading southwest
- B.Climbing, banking right, heading southwest
- C.Climbing, banking left, heading northeast
- D.Diving, banking right, heading northeast
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Correct answer: Diving, banking right, heading northeast
The matching silhouette is diving, banking right, heading northeast: the symbol below the line means a dive, the right-side-low line means a right bank, and 045 is northeast. 'Diving, banking left, heading southwest' mirrors the bank and reads the reciprocal heading, 225. 'Climbing, banking right, heading southwest' reverses the pitch cue and reads 225, and 'climbing, banking left, heading northeast' reverses the pitch and mirrors the bank.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows the symbol above a horizon tilted left-side-low and the compass reading 315. The matching silhouette is an aircraft:
- A.Climbing, banking right, heading southeast
- B.Diving, banking left, heading southeast
- C.Climbing, banking left, heading northwest
- D.Diving, banking right, heading northwest
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Correct answer: Climbing, banking left, heading northwest
The matching silhouette is climbing, banking left, heading northwest: the symbol above the line means a climb, the left-side-low line means a left bank, and 315 is northwest. 'Climbing, banking right, heading southeast' mirrors the bank and reads the reciprocal heading, 135. 'Diving, banking left, heading southeast' reverses the pitch cue and reads 135, and 'diving, banking right, heading northwest' reverses the pitch and mirrors the bank.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows the symbol below a horizon tilted left-side-low and the compass reading 225. The matching silhouette is an aircraft:
- A.Diving, banking right, heading northeast
- B.Level, banking left, heading northeast
- C.Level, banking right, heading southwest
- D.Diving, banking left, heading southwest
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Correct answer: Diving, banking left, heading southwest
The matching silhouette is diving, banking left, heading southwest: the symbol below the line means a dive, the left-side-low line means a left bank, and 225 is southwest. 'Diving, banking right, heading northeast' mirrors the bank and reads the reciprocal heading, 045. 'Level, banking left, heading northeast' misses the dive shown by the low symbol and reads 045, and 'level, banking right, heading southwest' misses the dive and mirrors the bank.
In an Instrument Comprehension item, the artificial horizon shows level wings with the symbol above the line, and the compass reads a steadily increasing number. The aircraft is best described as:
- A.Climbing and turning right
- B.Climbing and flying straight
- C.Diving and turning right
- D.Diving and flying straight
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Correct answer: Climbing and turning right
The aircraft is climbing and turning right: the symbol above the line shows a climb, and a steadily increasing heading shows a clockwise, right turn. 'Climbing and flying straight' trusts the level wings but ignores the changing heading, since straight flight would hold the number fixed. 'Diving and turning right' reverses the pitch cue, and 'diving and flying straight' reverses the pitch and ignores the turn.
In an Instrument Comprehension item, the artificial horizon shows the symbol below the line, and the compass reads a steadily decreasing number. The aircraft is best described as:
- A.Climbing and turning left
- B.Diving and turning right
- C.Diving and turning left
- D.Climbing and turning right
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Correct answer: Diving and turning left
The aircraft is diving and turning left: the symbol below the line shows a dive, and a steadily decreasing heading shows a counterclockwise, left turn. 'Diving and turning right' reads the falling numbers as a right turn. 'Climbing and turning left' reverses the pitch cue, and 'climbing and turning right' reverses both the pitch and the turn.
A rear-view silhouette shows both wing tips at equal height and the nose pointing slightly upward. The aircraft is:
- A.Diving with no bank
- B.Climbing in a right bank
- C.Climbing with no bank
- D.Diving in a right bank
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Correct answer: Climbing with no bank
The aircraft is climbing with no bank: wing tips at equal height mean the wings are level, and a nose pointing upward means a climb. 'Diving with no bank' reverses the nose cue, since a dive points the nose down. 'Climbing in a right bank' would need the right wing tip lower than the left, and 'diving in a right bank' gets both the nose and the wings wrong.
A rear-view silhouette shows the right wing tip high, the left wing tip low, and the nose pointing downward. The aircraft is:
- A.Climbing in a left bank
- B.Diving in a right bank
- C.Diving in a left bank
- D.Climbing in a right bank
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Correct answer: Diving in a left bank
The aircraft is diving in a left bank: the low left wing tip shows a left bank, and the nose pointing downward shows a dive. 'Diving in a right bank' mirrors the bank, since a right bank lowers the right wing tip. 'Climbing in a left bank' reverses the nose cue, and 'climbing in a right bank' reverses both the nose and the bank.
When matching a silhouette viewed from behind, the wing tip that is lower than the other always indicates the:
- A.Pitch direction
- B.Compass reading
- C.Bank direction
- D.Altitude reading
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Correct answer: Bank direction
The lower wing tip always shows the bank direction: an airplane rolls toward its dropped wing, so a low right wing means a right bank and a low left wing means a left bank. 'Pitch direction', climb or dive, is shown by the nose instead. A 'compass reading' comes from the heading dial and an 'altitude reading' from the altimeter; neither can be read from which wing tip is lower.
When matching a silhouette viewed from behind, the position of the nose (up or down) always indicates the:
- A.Bank direction
- B.Pitch direction
- C.Compass reading
- D.Altitude reading
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Correct answer: Pitch direction
The nose position always shows the pitch direction: a raised nose means a climb and a lowered nose means a dive. 'Bank direction' is shown by the wing tips, whichever one is lower. A 'compass reading' comes from the heading dial and an 'altitude reading' from the altimeter; a raised nose shows attitude, not height, since an aircraft can be nose-up and still losing altitude.
If three answer silhouettes all show a climbing right bank but each points a different way, the examinee should select the one whose direction matches the:
- A.Heading shown on the horizon
- B.Bank shown on the compass
- C.Bank shown on the horizon
- D.Heading shown on the compass
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Correct answer: Heading shown on the compass
Pick the silhouette that matches the heading shown on the compass. When pitch and bank are the same in every choice, only direction separates them, and direction is read from the compass. "Heading shown on the horizon" is wrong because the artificial horizon gives pitch and bank, never heading. "Bank shown on the horizon" is a real reading, but it is identical in all three choices, so it cannot separate them. "Bank shown on the compass" is wrong twice over, since the compass shows no bank at all.
Because pitch and bank are read on one dial and direction on another, a complete Instrument Comprehension answer requires that the chosen silhouette agree with the dials on all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.Climb or dive attitude
- B.Left or right bank
- C.Magnetic compass heading
- D.Outside air temperature
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Correct answer: Outside air temperature
The silhouette does not have to agree with the outside air temperature, because neither Instrument Comprehension dial shows it. It must agree with the climb or dive attitude and the left or right bank, both read from the artificial horizon, and with the magnetic compass heading read from the compass.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows level wings with the symbol on the line and a compass reading that holds steady at 045. The matching silhouette is an aircraft:
- A.Straight and level toward the southwest
- B.Straight and level toward the northeast
- C.Climbing with wings level toward the northeast
- D.Climbing with wings level toward the southwest
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Correct answer: Straight and level toward the northeast
The matching silhouette is flying straight and level toward the northeast. Level wings with the symbol on the line mean no bank and no climb, and a steady 045 is northeast. "Climbing with wings level toward the northeast" would need the symbol above the line. "Straight and level toward the southwest" reads the tail of the needle, 225 instead of 045. "Climbing with wings level toward the southwest" makes both mistakes.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows the symbol on a horizon tilted steeply left-side-low while the compass holds steady. The aircraft is in a:
- A.Steep right bank at that moment
- B.Gentle left bank at that moment
- C.Gentle right bank at that moment
- D.Steep left bank at that moment
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Correct answer: Steep left bank at that moment
The aircraft is in a steep left bank at that moment. In these items the low side of the tilted line names the bank, so left-side-low is a left bank; a steep tilt means a large bank angle; and the steady compass is simply the heading at the instant pictured. "Steep right bank at that moment" reverses the side of the tilt. "Gentle left bank at that moment" underreads how steep the tilt is. "Gentle right bank at that moment" makes both errors.
In Instrument Comprehension, why must an examinee consult the compass even after fully reading the artificial horizon?
- A.The artificial horizon shows heading and pitch but not bank
- B.The artificial horizon shows pitch and bank but not heading
- C.The compass dial shows bank and heading but not pitch
- D.The compass dial shows pitch and heading but not bank
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Correct answer: The artificial horizon shows pitch and bank but not heading
You still need the compass because the artificial horizon shows pitch and bank but not heading; it is an attitude display, so direction must come from the second dial. "The artificial horizon shows heading and pitch but not bank" has the instrument backwards, since its tilt is exactly how bank is shown. "The compass dial shows bank and heading but not pitch" and "the compass dial shows pitch and heading but not bank" both credit the compass with an attitude reading it never gives; it shows heading only.
On the compass card, the marking S is the same heading as which numeric value?
- A.135 degrees
- B.270 degrees
- C.180 degrees
- D.360 degrees
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Correct answer: 180 degrees
The S marking is 180 degrees, halfway around the card from north. "360 degrees" is north, the reciprocal reading taken from the wrong end of the needle. "270 degrees" is west, a quarter turn too far. "135 degrees" is southeast, the point between E and S.
An Instrument Comprehension item shows the symbol centered on a horizon tilted right-side-low and the compass reading 135. The matching silhouette is an aircraft:
- A.Banking left in level flight, heading southeast
- B.Banking right in level flight, heading southeast
- C.Banking right in level flight, heading northwest
- D.Banking left in level flight, heading northwest
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Correct answer: Banking right in level flight, heading southeast
The matching silhouette is banking right in level flight, heading southeast. In these items the right-side-low tilt marks a right bank, the centered symbol means no climb or dive, and 135 is southeast. "Banking left in level flight, heading southeast" reverses the bank. "Banking right in level flight, heading northwest" reads the reciprocal, 315, from the tail of the needle. "Banking left in level flight, heading northwest" makes both errors.
Block Counting (69)
On the AFOQT Block Counting subtest, two cubes are counted as touching only when they share what kind of contact?
- A.Contact over the whole of a face
- B.Contact over all or part of an edge
- C.Contact over the whole of an edge
- D.Contact over all or part of a face
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Correct answer: Contact over all or part of a face
Two cubes count as touching when there is contact over all or part of a face, so a partial flat overlap still qualifies. "Contact over the whole of a face" is too strict, because a partly shared face counts. "Contact over all or part of an edge" and "contact over the whole of an edge" both count edge-only contact, which the official rule never counts, however long the shared edge is.
The AFOQT Block Counting subtest gives 30 questions in 4.5 minutes. This works out to roughly how many seconds per question on average?
- A.About 7 seconds
- B.About 10 seconds
- C.About 9 seconds
- D.About 15 seconds
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Correct answer: About 9 seconds
The answer is about 9 seconds: 4.5 minutes is 270 seconds, and 270 / 30 = 9. "About 15 seconds" comes from 4.5 / 30 = 0.15 minute, misread as 15 seconds. "About 10 seconds" treats 4.5 minutes as 4 minutes 50 seconds, or 290 seconds. "About 7 seconds" divides the wrong way, 30 / 4.5, which gives questions per minute rather than seconds per question.
Two cubes in a Block Counting figure meet only along a single edge, with no flat side overlapping. Under the official counting rule, this edge-only contact is counted as:
- A.Zero touching blocks
- B.One touching block
- C.Two touching blocks
- D.Half a touching block
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Correct answer: Zero touching blocks
Edge-only contact counts as zero touching blocks, because the rule counts a neighbor only when a face is shared, and cubes meeting along an edge share none. "One touching block" is the usual slip of counting the edge as contact. "Two touching blocks" counts that same contact once from each cube. "Half a touching block" invents partial credit; a contact either counts as a whole block or not at all.
A cube has flat-side neighbors on its left, right, and top, while its front, back, and bottom faces are all open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.3
- B.2
- C.4
- D.6
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Correct answer: 3
It touches 3 blocks: the neighbors on its left, right, and top faces, while the open front, back, and bottom faces add nothing. An answer of 2 misses the top neighbor by counting only along the row. An answer of 4 counts the cube itself along with its neighbors. An answer of 6 counts every face of the cube instead of only the faces that have a neighbor.
Skill on the AFOQT Block Counting subtest depends most on the ability to mentally picture a three-dimensional pile, including the parts you cannot directly see. This ability is best described as:
- A.Mechanical comprehension
- B.Perceptual speed
- C.Working memory
- D.Spatial visualization
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Correct answer: Spatial visualization
Picturing a three-dimensional pile, hidden parts included, is spatial visualization. "Perceptual speed" is quick scanning and matching of what is printed on the page, not building the unseen part of a solid. "Working memory" holds information briefly while you work but is not the picturing itself. "Mechanical comprehension" is understanding how gears, levers, and forces behave.
A cube sits at the bottom front of a deep pile. You can clearly see neighbors on its left and right, and the pile continues backward so a cube must press against its back face as well. Counting the hidden back neighbor, how many blocks does it touch?
- A.4
- B.3
- C.5
- D.6
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Correct answer: 3
It touches 3 blocks: the visible left and right neighbors plus the hidden cube pressed against its back face. An answer of 4 adds the floor it rests on, which is not a block. An answer of 5 adds the two cubes behind it on the left and right, which meet it only along an edge. An answer of 6 makes both of those mistakes.
On Block Counting, the figures are always drawn using cubes that are all the same size and shape. The main reason for using identical cubes is to:
- A.Keep each figure at the same level of difficulty
- B.Let the pile be counted from its overall volume
- C.Isolate spatial counting from other distractions
- D.Let the test figures be drawn and printed more quickly
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Correct answer: Isolate spatial counting from other distractions
Identical cubes isolate spatial counting from other distractions, so the score reflects how well you track three-dimensional contacts and nothing else. "Keep each figure at the same level of difficulty" is wrong because the piles still vary widely in how hard they are. "Let the pile be counted from its overall volume" misreads the task, which asks about one cube's contacts, not the size of the pile. "Let the test figures be drawn and printed more quickly" names a production convenience, not the measurement reason.
A flat row of five cubes is lined up touching face-to-face in a straight line. The cube in the exact center of the row touches how many other blocks?
- A.Three
- B.Four
- C.One
- D.Two
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Correct answer: Two
The center cube touches two blocks, one on each side of it. "Three" adds the floor under the row, which is not a block. "Four" counts every other cube in the row, though only the two beside it share a face. "One" counts only the cube on one side.
A test taker counts a cube as touching another cube simply because the two are drawn very close together near the front of the figure. This is a risky habit because two cubes can appear near each other yet:
- A.Meet along an edge or at a corner, so the contact still counts
- B.Be separated by a gap or another block, so they do not share a face
- C.Differ in size, so the nearer one merely looks as if it touches the other
- D.Overlap in the drawing, so one must be pressed against its neighbor
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Correct answer: Be separated by a gap or another block, so they do not share a face
Cubes drawn close together can be separated by a gap or another block, so they do not share a face; nearness on the page proves nothing. "Meet along an edge or at a corner, so the contact still counts" is wrong because contact along an edge or at a corner is never counted. "Differ in size, so the nearer one merely looks as if it touches the other" cannot happen, since every cube in the subtest is the same size. "Overlap in the drawing, so one must be pressed against its neighbor" treats an overlap on the page as proof of contact, which is exactly the habit that causes overcounting.
A cube near the bottom of a wide pile has a neighbor pressed against every one of its four side faces (left, right, front, and back), plus one cube stacked on top, while it rests on the floor. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Four
- B.Six
- C.Nine
- D.Five
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Correct answer: Five
It touches five blocks: one on each of its four side faces and one on top. "Six" adds the floor under it, which is not a block. "Four" misses a neighbor, usually the one hidden behind it or the one on top. "Nine" also counts the four cubes at its diagonal positions in the pile, which meet it only along an edge.
Because the Block Counting subtest is heavily timed, a strong pacing habit is to:
- A.Move steadily through the figures at a quick, even pace
- B.Tally the blocks in the whole pile first, then give an answer
- C.Trace each pile with a pencil, then count its blocks
- D.Stay on each hard figure, recounting it until you are certain
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Correct answer: Move steadily through the figures at a quick, even pace
The strong habit is to move steadily through the figures at a quick, even pace; with about 9 seconds per figure, that tempo is what gets you to all 30 items. "Tally the blocks in the whole pile first, then give an answer" wastes time, since each item asks about one cube's neighbors only. "Trace each pile with a pencil, then count its blocks" adds a slow step to every figure. "Stay on each hard figure, recounting it until you are certain" spends the seconds the later figures need and leaves them unanswered.
A cube is positioned with a neighbor pressed against its bottom face and a neighbor pressed against its left face only, with all other faces open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.One
- B.Four
- C.Two
- D.Six
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Correct answer: Two
It touches two blocks, the ones on its bottom and left faces. "One" misses the cube underneath, which is easy to overlook because it is hidden below. "Four" counts the four open faces instead of the faces that have a neighbor. "Six" counts every face of the cube.
A cube is completely buried deep inside a large packed pile so that a neighbor presses against all six of its faces. How many blocks does this hidden interior cube touch?
- A.Five
- B.Eight
- C.Six
- D.Twelve
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Correct answer: Six
It touches six blocks, one on each of its six faces. "Five" forgets one hidden neighbor, usually the one below. "Eight" counts the cube's corners and "Twelve" counts its edges; cubes that meet only at a corner or along an edge are not counted.
On Block Counting, a frequent reason test takers undercount is that they:
- A.Include blocks that share just an edge with the target
- B.Treat the floor under the pile as one more touching block
- C.Overlook cubes hidden behind or beneath the visible ones
- D.Run out of time before reaching the last figure or two
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Correct answer: Overlook cubes hidden behind or beneath the visible ones
A common cause of undercounting is to overlook cubes hidden behind or beneath the visible ones; they still share a face with the target and must be counted. "Include blocks that share just an edge with the target" and "treat the floor under the pile as one more touching block" are real mistakes, but both push the count too high, not too low. "Run out of time before reaching the last figure or two" costs unanswered items, not a low count on the figures you do answer.
A vertical column is four cubes tall, each resting directly on the one below. The cube that is second from the bottom touches how many other blocks?
- A.Two
- B.One
- C.Three
- D.Four
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Correct answer: Two
It touches two blocks: the cube under it and the cube on top of it. "One" counts only the cube it rests on and forgets the one above. "Three" counts every other cube in the column, though the top cube is not against it. "Four" counts every cube in the column, itself included.
A single cube rests on a flat surface and has one cube pressed against its left face and one cube pressed against its right face, with nothing above, below by stacking, in front, or behind. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Three
- B.Two
- C.Four
- D.One
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Correct answer: Two
It touches two blocks, the ones against its left and right faces. "Three" adds the flat surface underneath, which is not a block. "Four" assumes hidden neighbors in front and behind, which the description rules out. "One" counts only the cube on one side.
In a perspective drawing, the back face of a cube at the front of the pile is impossible to see directly. The most reliable way to decide whether a block touches that hidden back face is to:
- A.Work out from the visible layout whether a cube must fill that spot
- B.Count just the visible cubes, as if the hidden face were open
- C.Assume a cube sits behind it if the figure is more than one row deep
- D.Judge from front-face shading if a cube sits behind it
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Correct answer: Work out from the visible layout whether a cube must fill that spot
The reliable method is to work out from the visible layout whether a cube must fill that spot; the shape of a solid pile often leaves no other possibility. "Count just the visible cubes, as if the hidden face were open" ignores neighbors that the drawing hides but the pile requires. "Assume a cube sits behind it if the figure is more than one row deep" is unreliable, because deep piles can still have gaps and steps. "Judge from front-face shading if a cube sits behind it" relies on a cue that says nothing about what lies behind.
Four cubes form an L-shape lying flat: three cubes in a straight row, plus one extra cube pressed against the front face of the rightmost cube of the row. The rightmost cube of the row touches how many other blocks?
- A.Two
- B.One
- C.Three
- D.Four
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Correct answer: Two
The rightmost cube touches two blocks: its neighbor to the left in the row and the extra cube against its front face. "One" counts only along the row and misses the front cube. "Three" counts every other cube in the L, but the far-left cube of the row is not against it. "Four" counts every cube in the L, itself included.
A cube sits at a position where it has a neighbor on its top, bottom, front, and back faces, but the left and right faces are open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Two
- B.Four
- C.Three
- D.Six
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Correct answer: Four
It touches four blocks, the ones on its top, bottom, front, and back faces. "Three" misses one neighbor, usually the hidden one behind it. "Two" counts only the cubes above and below it. "Six" counts every face, including the open left and right faces.
Why does the AFOQT Block Counting subtest place some touching blocks where they are hidden from the viewer's angle?
- A.To check that you leave out any block you cannot see
- B.To test how fast you can count the cubes that are in view
- C.To make you mentally rebuild the parts you cannot see
- D.To measure how well you recall figures shown earlier
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Correct answer: To make you mentally rebuild the parts you cannot see
Hidden touching blocks are there to make you mentally rebuild the parts you cannot see and count the neighbors that must be there, which is the spatial skill the subtest measures. "To check that you leave out any block you cannot see" has the rule backwards, since hidden neighbors do count. "To test how fast you can count the cubes that are in view" misses the point, because the visible cubes alone give the wrong total. "To measure how well you recall figures shown earlier" describes a memory test; each figure stays on the page while you answer.
A solid wall is three cubes tall and three cubes wide, all in one vertical plane (nine cubes). The cube in the very center of the wall touches how many other cubes by their faces?
- A.Two
- B.Six
- C.Four
- D.Eight
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Correct answer: Four
The center cube touches four cubes by their faces: the ones above, below, left, and right of it. "Eight" also counts the four corner cubes of the wall, which meet it only along an edge. "Six" assumes neighbors in front and behind, but the wall is one cube thick. "Two" counts only one direction, the row or the column.
In that same three-by-three vertical wall of nine cubes, a cube at one of the four corners touches how many other cubes by their faces?
- A.One
- B.Three
- C.Two
- D.Eight
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Correct answer: Two
A corner cube touches two cubes by their faces: one beside it in its row and one above or below it in its column. "Three" also counts the diagonal center cube, which meets it only along an edge. "One" counts only the neighbor in its row and misses the one in its column. "Eight" counts every other cube in the wall.
A staircase rises to the right: each cube has the next cube placed both higher and to its right. Consider an interior step cube that has one cube pressed against its right face, one against its top face, and one against its left face, with all other faces open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.3
- B.4
- C.5
- D.6
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Correct answer: 3
It touches 3 blocks: the neighbors against its right, top, and left faces. An answer of 4 assumes a cube under it, as in a solid staircase, though its bottom face is open. An answer of 5 adds the two diagonal steps, above-right and below-left, which meet it only along an edge. An answer of 6 counts every face of the cube.
A test taker answers that a numbered cube touches seven other blocks. Since the cubes are all identical and meet only flush on faces, this answer must be a mistake because a single cube can have at most:
- A.Six face neighbors
- B.Four face neighbors
- C.Eight face neighbors
- D.Twelve face neighbors
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Correct answer: Six face neighbors
A cube can have at most six face neighbors, one per face, so seven is impossible. "Four face neighbors" counts only the side faces and leaves out the top and bottom. "Eight face neighbors" counts the cube's corners and "twelve face neighbors" counts its edges; neither corners nor edges can carry a face contact.
A cube has a neighbor pressed against its top face and a neighbor pressed against its bottom face, and nothing else touches it. Where is this cube most likely located?
- A.In the middle of a horizontal row
- B.At the bottom of a vertical stack
- C.At the end of a horizontal row
- D.In the middle of a vertical stack
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Correct answer: In the middle of a vertical stack
A cube with neighbors only above and below sits in the middle of a vertical stack. "In the middle of a horizontal row" would give it neighbors on the left and right instead. "At the bottom of a vertical stack" gives it a neighbor on top only, since the floor is not a block. "At the end of a horizontal row" gives it a single side neighbor.
A cross (plus-sign) shape lies flat: a center cube with one cube pressed against each of its four side faces. A second, identical cross is built one layer higher, directly on top, and the two centers are stacked. The lower center cube touches how many other blocks?
- A.Four
- B.Six
- C.Five
- D.Nine
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Correct answer: Five
The lower center cube touches five blocks: its four arm cubes and the upper center cube on top. "Four" forgets the upper center cube. "Six" adds the floor beneath it, which is not a block. "Nine" also counts the four upper arm cubes, which sit diagonally above it and meet it only along an edge.
A cube rests on the floor with a neighbor on its left, right, and back faces, and a cube stacked on its top, while the front face is open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Four
- B.Three
- C.Five
- D.Six
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Correct answer: Four
It touches four blocks: the neighbors on its left, right, and back faces plus the cube on top. "Five" adds the floor under it, which is not a block. "Three" misses one neighbor, usually the hidden one behind it. "Six" counts every face, including the open front.
On Block Counting, if time is almost up and a figure remains unanswered, the best move under AFOQT scoring is to:
- A.Leave it blank, since wrong answers cost a penalty
- B.Recheck each earlier figure, since accuracy outweighs finishing
- C.Solve the figure fully, since partial effort earns credit
- D.Enter a quick guess, since wrong answers cost nothing
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Correct answer: Enter a quick guess, since wrong answers cost nothing
With time almost gone, enter a quick guess, since wrong answers cost nothing under AFOQT scoring and a blank can never earn a point. "Leave it blank, since wrong answers cost a penalty" rests on a guessing penalty the AFOQT does not have. "Recheck each earlier figure, since accuracy outweighs finishing" throws away a free chance at a point. "Solve the figure fully, since partial effort earns credit" fails twice: there is no time left, and there is no partial credit.
Two cubes are arranged so that the bottom half of one cube's right face is pressed flat against the top half of the other cube's left face (a partial but flat overlap). Under the official rule, do these cubes count as touching?
- A.Not unless over half of each face is pressed flat
- B.Yes, part of a face pressed flat is enough
- C.No, a face must be pressed flat in full
- D.No, an offset face pressed flat counts as an edge contact
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Correct answer: Yes, part of a face pressed flat is enough
Yes, part of a face pressed flat is enough: the rule counts a partial flat overlap as a face contact. "No, a face must be pressed flat in full" adds a full-match condition the rule does not have. "No, an offset face pressed flat counts as an edge contact" is wrong because these faces press flat against each other over a real area, not along a line. "Not unless over half of each face is pressed flat" invents a minimum overlap; any flat overlap counts.
A pyramid-style stack has a bottom layer of nine cubes in a three-by-three square and a single cube placed centered on top, resting on the center cube of the layer below. The single top cube touches how many other blocks?
- A.Four
- B.Five
- C.Nine
- D.One
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Correct answer: One
The top cube touches one block, the center cube it rests on. "Four" counts the four base cubes beside the center, which meet it only along an edge. "Five" adds those four to the center cube. "Nine" counts every cube in the base, including the corner cubes that meet it only at a corner.
A cube near the surface of a pile shows three faces open to the air in the drawing. The most blocks it could possibly touch is therefore:
- A.Four
- B.Three
- C.Six
- D.Seven
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Correct answer: Three
The most it could touch is three, one on each face that is not open to the air. "Six" forgets that the three open faces cannot have neighbors. "Four" adds the floor as if it were a block. "Seven" also counts cubes that would meet it only along an edge or at a corner, as around the corner cube of a two-by-two-by-two block.
A flat row of four cubes is lined up touching face-to-face. How many of the four cubes touch exactly one other block?
- A.One
- B.Two
- C.Three
- D.Four
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Correct answer: Two
Two cubes, the two at the ends, touch exactly one other block; the two inner cubes touch two each. "Four" counts every cube that touches at least one block, which is all of them. "Three" counts the shared faces in the row rather than the cubes. "One" counts only one end of the row.
A cube sits at the top corner of a stack. It has one cube pressed against its left face, one cube pressed against its back face, and one cube directly below it, with all other faces open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Three
- B.Two
- C.Six
- D.Seven
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Correct answer: Three
It touches three blocks: the cubes against its left face, its back face, and its bottom face. "Two" misses the hidden neighbor behind it. "Six" counts every face, including the open top, right, and front. "Seven" also counts the cubes in the stack that meet it only along an edge or at a corner.
Two separate piles of cubes stand on a table with empty space between them. A cube on the near edge of one pile has clear air between it and the nearest cube of the other pile. For this cube, the cubes in the other pile are:
- A.Excluded, since the open gap keeps their faces apart
- B.Included, since both piles rest on the same tabletop
- C.Counted, since the nearest cubes sit at the same level
- D.Added, since the drawing shows their edges overlapping
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Correct answer: Excluded, since the open gap keeps their faces apart
The cubes in the other pile are excluded, since the open gap keeps their faces apart: a contact needs a flat face pressed against a flat face, and clear air between the piles means no face of this cube meets any cube over there. 'Included, since both piles rest on the same tabletop' is wrong because the tabletop is not a block and does not join the piles. 'Counted, since the nearest cubes sit at the same level' is wrong because standing at the same height does not close the gap. 'Added, since the drawing shows their edges overlapping' is wrong because an overlap created by the perspective drawing is not a shared face.
A reliable, systematic method for counting contacts on a numbered cube is to check each of its six faces in turn. How many possible face positions must you check?
- A.Five
- B.Six
- C.Three
- D.Eight
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Correct answer: Six
Six is correct: a cube has six faces (top, bottom, left, right, front, and back), and a complete check asks about each one before totaling the neighbors. Five skips the bottom face, but a block can rest on another cube rather than on the floor, so that face must be checked too. Three covers only the faces a drawing shows and misses the hidden ones. Eight is the number of corners on a cube, and corner contact never counts.
A two-layer stack has a bottom layer that is a three-cube-by-one-cube row and an identical three-cube row resting directly on top. Consider the center cube of the bottom row. It touches how many other cubes by their faces?
- A.3
- B.2
- C.4
- D.5
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Correct answer: 3
The answer is 3: the center cube of the bottom row touches its left neighbor, its right neighbor, and the cube resting directly on top of it. '2' comes from forgetting the cube above and counting only the row. '4' comes from adding the table, which is not a block. '5' comes from adding the two outer cubes of the top row, which meet the center cube only along an edge.
In the same two-layer stack (a three-cube bottom row with an identical three-cube row on top), consider the center cube of the TOP row. It touches how many other cubes by their faces?
- A.2
- B.3
- C.5
- D.6
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Correct answer: 3
The answer is 3: the center cube of the top row has a left neighbor, a right neighbor, and the cube directly beneath it. '2' comes from forgetting the supporting cube below. '5' comes from adding the two outer cubes of the bottom row, which meet it only along an edge. '6' assumes every face has a neighbor, but its top, front, and back faces are open.
A test taker forgets that a cube is tucked directly behind the numbered block and reports one fewer contact than the correct total. This kind of error happens because the test taker:
- A.Dropped a neighbor that covers just part of one face
- B.Mistook a cube right beneath it for part of the ground
- C.Missed a hidden neighbor that presses against one face
- D.Confused the numbered block with a cube just beside it
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Correct answer: Missed a hidden neighbor that presses against one face
The test taker missed a hidden neighbor that presses against one face: a cube tucked directly behind shares a full face even though it is out of view, so leaving it out makes the total one too low. 'Dropped a neighbor that covers just part of one face' describes a different slip, since the hidden cube here covers a whole face. 'Mistook a cube right beneath it for part of the ground' would lose the bottom contact, not the one behind. 'Confused the numbered block with a cube just beside it' would change which block is being counted rather than leave out a hidden neighbor.
A cube at the bottom edge of a wall has a neighbor on its left face, on its right face, and on its top face, with the floor below and open air in front and behind. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.3
- B.4
- C.2
- D.5
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Correct answer: 3
The answer is 3: the left, right, and top faces each press against a cube, while the front and back are open and the floor is not a block. '4' comes from counting the floor as a contact. '2' comes from forgetting the cube on top. '5' comes from adding the cubes above and to each side, which meet it only along an edge.
A cube touches a neighbor on five of its six faces, with only the front face left open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Six
- B.Five
- C.Four
- D.Three
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Correct answer: Five
Five is correct: five faces each have a neighbor pressed against them, and the single open front face adds nothing. Six counts the open front face as if a cube were there. Four misses one of the hidden neighbors, usually the cube behind or the one below. Three counts only the side faces that have neighbors and forgets the cubes above and below.
A cube directly behind the numbered cube is completely hidden in the drawing but shares a full face with it. For counting purposes, this hidden cube should be:
- A.Skipped, since the drawing hides it
- B.Ignored unless an edge is in view
- C.Counted as one touching block
- D.Taken as part of the numbered cube
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Correct answer: Counted as one touching block
The hidden cube should be counted as one touching block: a full shared face makes it a contact whether or not the drawing shows it. 'Skipped, since the drawing hides it' confuses being seen with touching. 'Ignored unless an edge is in view' still makes visibility the test, when the rule asks only about shared faces. 'Taken as part of the numbered cube' merges two separate cubes, so the hidden neighbor would never be added to the count.
A long flat row of six cubes is lined up touching face-to-face. How many of the six cubes touch exactly two other blocks?
- A.Six
- B.Five
- C.Four
- D.Two
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Correct answer: Four
Four is correct: the four inner cubes of the row each touch one cube on each side, while the two end cubes touch only one block apiece. Six forgets that the end cubes have a neighbor on one side only. Five counts the joints between cubes rather than the cubes themselves. Two counts the end cubes, which are the ones touching exactly one block.
A cube rests at the center of the bottom layer of a deep, wide pile. It has a neighbor on all four side faces and a cube stacked on top, resting on the floor. Many test takers undercount this cube because they:
- A.Leave out the floor, which also counts as a touching block
- B.Miss the cubes behind and around it that the front hides
- C.Skip the diagonal cubes that touch it at edges and corners
- D.Stop short at five, but the block has six faces to count
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Correct answer: Miss the cubes behind and around it that the front hides
Test takers undercount this cube because they miss the cubes behind and around it that the front hides; it really touches five blocks, and in a deep pile most of those neighbors are out of view. 'Leave out the floor, which also counts as a touching block' is wrong because the floor is never a block. 'Skip the diagonal cubes that touch it at edges and corners' is wrong because edge and corner contact do not count, so skipping them is correct. 'Stop short at five, but the block has six faces to count' is wrong because five is the right total here; its bottom face rests on the floor.
A cube sits with a neighbor on its right face, its front face, and its bottom face only, with the left, back, and top faces open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.2
- B.1
- C.4
- D.3
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Correct answer: 3
The answer is 3: neighbors press against the right, front, and bottom faces, and the open left, back, and top faces add nothing. '2' comes from missing one of those neighbors, most often the cube underneath. '1' counts only the cube underneath and misses the right and front neighbors. '4' adds a diagonal cube that meets it only along an edge, which does not count.
Two cubes meet so that a complete flat face of one is pressed exactly against a complete flat face of the other, with nothing between them. Under the official rule, this is:
- A.A double contact that adds two blocks to the total
- B.A contact at the edges that adds zero to the total
- C.A face contact that counts as a single neighbor
- D.A partial contact that counts as half a block
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Correct answer: A face contact that counts as a single neighbor
It is a face contact that counts as a single neighbor: a full face pressed flat against a full face is exactly the contact the rule describes, and each neighbor adds one to the count. 'A double contact that adds two blocks to the total' counts the same neighbor twice. 'A contact at the edges that adds zero to the total' is wrong because the cubes meet across whole faces, not just along edges. 'A partial contact that counts as half a block' is wrong because the faces meet completely, and the rule never gives half credit.
A cube at the outer corner of the top layer of a stack has open air on three of its faces. It has a cube directly below it and one cube pressed against one side face. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Three
- B.One
- C.Four
- D.Two
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Correct answer: Two
Two is correct as described: the cube directly below and the single side neighbor are its only contacts, and the open faces meet only air. Three comes from subtracting the three open faces from six instead of counting the neighbors actually named. One comes from forgetting the cube underneath, which is easy to miss in a drawing. Four adds diagonal cubes that meet it only along an edge, which do not count.
Comparing positions in a large pile, a cube fully buried in the interior generally touches a number of blocks that is:
- A.Lower than a cube along an outer edge
- B.The same as a cube at an outer corner
- C.Equal to a cube along an outer edge
- D.Larger than a cube at an outer corner
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Correct answer: Larger than a cube at an outer corner
A buried cube's count is generally larger than a cube at an outer corner: it can have a neighbor on all six faces, while a corner cube has three faces open to the air. 'Lower than a cube along an outer edge' reverses the comparison, since an edge cube also has open faces. 'The same as a cube at an outer corner' and 'equal to a cube along an outer edge' both ignore that every face left open on the surface is one less possible contact.
A vertical column is five cubes tall. How many of the five cubes touch exactly two other blocks?
- A.5
- B.4
- C.2
- D.3
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Correct answer: 3
The answer is 3: the three inner cubes each have a neighbor above and below, while the top and bottom cubes touch only one block apiece. '5' forgets that the end cubes have a neighbor on one side only. '4' counts the joints between the five cubes rather than the cubes themselves. '2' counts the end cubes, which are the ones touching exactly one block.
A cube sits in the bottom row of a stack and has a neighbor on its left face and on its right face, plus a cube directly behind it and a cube directly on top, with the front face open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Five
- B.Four
- C.Three
- D.Six
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Correct answer: Four
Four is correct: the left, right, and back faces each have a neighbor, and the cube on top adds a fourth, while the open front and the floor add nothing. Five comes from counting the floor as a block. Three comes from missing the hidden cube behind it. Six assumes every face has a neighbor, ignoring the open front and the floor below.
When two cubes look slightly offset on the page because of the perspective drawing, the best way to decide whether they touch is to determine whether:
- A.Any part of a flat face of one presses against a flat face of the other
- B.A sharp edge of one is pressed up against a sharp edge of the other
- C.The top edge of one is drawn level with the top edge of the other
- D.Any part of the drawn outline of one runs over the drawn outline of the other
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Correct answer: Any part of a flat face of one presses against a flat face of the other
The test is whether any part of a flat face of one presses against a flat face of the other; full or partial face contact counts, and the offset look created by perspective changes nothing. 'A sharp edge of one is pressed up against a sharp edge of the other' describes edge contact, which does not count. 'The top edge of one is drawn level with the top edge of the other' only compares heights on the page. 'Any part of the drawn outline of one runs over the drawn outline of the other' is an effect of the perspective drawing, not proof that the surfaces meet.
A two-by-two-by-two cube of eight blocks is fully solid. Every one of the eight cubes occupies a corner of the big cube. Each individual cube therefore touches how many other cubes by their faces?
- A.Seven
- B.Three
- C.Six
- D.Two
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Correct answer: Three
Three is correct: each corner cube has one face neighbor in each of the three inward directions. Seven counts every other cube in the big cube, including the ones that meet it only along an edge or at a single corner. Six assumes every face has a neighbor, but three of its faces are on the outside. Two counts only the neighbors a drawing would show and misses the one behind.
On the AFOQT, the number you select for each Block Counting figure represents:
- A.How many blocks are piled up on top of the numbered block
- B.How many blocks share the same pile as the numbered block
- C.How many blocks press a face against the numbered block
- D.How many blocks touch the numbered block at just a corner
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Correct answer: How many blocks press a face against the numbered block
The number you select is how many blocks press a face against the numbered block; each figure asks only for the touching neighbors of the indicated cube. 'How many blocks are piled up on top of the numbered block' measures the height above it, not contact. 'How many blocks share the same pile as the numbered block' counts the whole pile, including cubes that never touch it. 'How many blocks touch the numbered block at just a corner' counts corner contact, which the rule leaves out.
A cube is the only block in the top layer and rests centered across the seam between two cubes of the layer below, touching the top face of each. The top cube touches how many other blocks?
- A.Two
- B.One
- C.Zero
- D.Three
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Correct answer: Two
Two is correct: resting across the seam, the top cube presses part of its bottom face against the top face of each cube beneath it, and partial face contact still counts. One treats the two half contacts as a single block. Zero assumes only a complete face-to-face match counts. Three adds the floor, which is not a block and does not touch a cube in the top layer.
A test taker correctly visualizes that a numbered cube has a neighbor on all six faces because it is buried in a solid pile. The correct contact count is:
- A.Six
- B.Five
- C.Four
- D.Seven
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Correct answer: Six
Six is correct: a neighbor on each of its six faces gives six contacts, the most any cube can have. Five leaves out one face, usually the bottom, as if the floor were beneath it. Four counts only the side faces and forgets the cubes above and below. Seven adds the numbered cube itself to its own count.
A horizontal row of three cubes sits on the floor, and one cube is stacked on top of the leftmost cube of the row. The leftmost (bottom) cube of the row touches how many other blocks?
- A.Three
- B.One
- C.Four
- D.Two
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Correct answer: Two
Two is correct: the cube to its right in the row and the cube stacked on its top are its only contacts. Three adds the floor or the far cube at the other end of the row, neither of which counts. One forgets the cube stacked on top. Four counts the faces that have no neighbor instead of the faces that do.
A cube has a neighbor on its top, left, and right faces, and a cube directly behind it, with the bottom and front faces open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Three
- B.Five
- C.Four
- D.Six
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Correct answer: Four
Four is correct: the top, left, right, and back faces each have a neighbor, while the open bottom and front faces add nothing. Three misses the hidden cube behind it. Five counts the open bottom face as if a cube or the floor were there. Six assumes every face has a neighbor, ignoring the two open faces.
A cube fully enclosed inside a packed pile cannot be seen at all from outside. Compared with a visible cube on the surface having the same neighbors arrangement, the enclosed cube's contact count is:
- A.Set at zero, by leaving out the blocks that cannot be seen
- B.Determined the same way, by counting the faces with neighbors
- C.Set at six, by assuming a buried block has a neighbor on each face
- D.Cut down to half, by giving each hidden face partial credit
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Correct answer: Determined the same way, by counting the faces with neighbors
The enclosed cube's count is determined the same way, by counting the faces with neighbors, whether anyone can see them or not; being hidden changes nothing about which faces have neighbors. 'Set at zero, by leaving out the blocks that cannot be seen' confuses seeing with touching. 'Set at six, by assuming a buried block has a neighbor on each face' replaces the count with an assumed maximum instead of checking the actual neighbors. 'Cut down to half, by giving each hidden face partial credit' invents a half-credit rule that does not exist.
A cube at the top of a tower has nothing above it and nothing to any side, with only the cube directly beneath it in contact. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Two
- B.Zero
- C.One
- D.Five
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Correct answer: One
One is correct: the cube directly below is its only contact, and every other face meets open air. Two adds the next cube down the tower, which touches the cube below but not this one. Zero assumes a cube resting on another does not count as touching it. Five counts the open faces instead of the neighbors.
A cube buried in the center of a pile touches six blocks, while a cube on the outer corner of the same pile touches three blocks. The buried cube touches how many MORE blocks than the corner cube?
- A.9
- B.6
- C.3
- D.4
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Correct answer: 3
The answer is 3: six contacts minus three contacts leaves three more for the buried cube. '9' adds the two counts instead of subtracting them. '6' gives the buried cube's own total rather than the difference. '4' is off by one in the subtraction.
Block Counting feeds the Combat Systems Officer (CSO) composite of the AFOQT alongside Word Knowledge, Math Knowledge, and Table Reading. The skill it contributes to that composite is:
- A.Verbal reasoning about the meanings of written words
- B.Quantitative knowledge of basic algebra formulas
- C.Spatial visualization of shapes in three dimensions
- D.Perceptual speed in scanning the rows of data tables
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Correct answer: Spatial visualization of shapes in three dimensions
Block Counting contributes spatial visualization of shapes in three dimensions: you must picture how cubes stack and which faces meet, including the ones hidden from view. 'Verbal reasoning about the meanings of written words' is what Word Knowledge measures. 'Quantitative knowledge of basic algebra formulas' belongs to Math Knowledge. 'Perceptual speed in scanning the rows of data tables' is the Table Reading skill, not the one Block Counting adds.
A cube sits with a neighbor on its bottom face and on its back face only, while the top, front, left, and right faces are open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Four
- B.One
- C.Three
- D.Two
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Correct answer: Two
Two is correct: the bottom and back faces each have a neighbor, while the top, front, left, and right faces are open. Four counts the four open faces instead of the neighbors. One misses the hidden cube behind it. Three counts one of the open faces as if a cube were there.
A flat three-by-three layer of nine cubes sits on a tabletop. Then a single cube is stacked on top of the center cube of that layer. The center cube of the bottom layer now touches how many other blocks?
- A.Five
- B.Six
- C.Nine
- D.Four
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Correct answer: Five
Five is correct: in the flat layer the center cube has four face neighbors (left, right, front, and back), and the cube stacked on top adds a fifth. Six counts the tabletop as a block. Nine adds the four corner cubes of the layer, which meet the center cube only along an edge. Four leaves out the cube stacked on top.
A test taker thinks two cubes touch because their painted faces are the same shade in the drawing, even though a clear gap separates them. The mistake is to:
- A.Let a touching edge stand in for a shared face
- B.Let similar shading stand in for a shared face
- C.Let the same height stand in for a shared face
- D.Let close placement stand in for a shared face
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Correct answer: Let similar shading stand in for a shared face
The mistake is to let similar shading stand in for a shared face; color in the drawing says nothing about contact, and a clear gap means the cubes do not touch. 'Let a touching edge stand in for a shared face' is a different error, and here the cubes do not meet at all. 'Let the same height stand in for a shared face' is not what misled this test taker, who went by color. 'Let close placement stand in for a shared face' also misjudges contact, but with a clear gap showing, nearness was not the cue; the shade was.
A cube at the bottom of a pile rests on the floor and has a neighbor on its left, right, front, and back faces, with nothing stacked on top. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Five
- B.Four
- C.Three
- D.Eight
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Correct answer: Four
Four is correct: the four side faces each have a neighbor, while the open top face and the floor under the bottom face add nothing. Five counts the floor as a block. Three misses the hidden cube behind it. Eight adds the four diagonal cubes in the layer, which meet it only along an edge.
An efficient mental routine for a numbered cube is to picture it and ask, one direction at a time, whether a cube presses against it above, below, left, right, in front, and behind. This routine works because it:
- A.Adds edge contacts, so diagonal cubes are counted too
- B.Adds the floor below it, so the base contact is counted too
- C.Sweeps across the whole pile, including the blocks far away
- D.Checks every face exactly once, including hidden directions
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Correct answer: Checks every face exactly once, including hidden directions
The routine works because it checks every face exactly once, including hidden directions, so no neighbor is missed and no face is looked at twice, which keeps it fast and reliable. 'Adds edge contacts, so diagonal cubes are counted too' is wrong because edge contact does not count. 'Adds the floor below it, so the base contact is counted too' is wrong because the floor is not a block. 'Sweeps across the whole pile, including the blocks far away' is wrong because blocks that do not touch the numbered cube are never counted.
A cube has a neighbor on its left, right, and top faces, plus a cube directly behind it and a cube directly below it, with only the front face open. How many blocks does it touch?
- A.Four
- B.Six
- C.One
- D.Five
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Correct answer: Five
Five is correct: the left, right, top, back, and bottom faces each have a neighbor, and only the front face is open. Four misses one hidden neighbor, usually the cube behind. Six counts the open front face as well. One counts the single open face instead of the neighbors.
A staircase of cubes climbs upward to the right, two steps high. The lowest cube has one cube stacked on its top face and one cube pressed against its right face, and no other neighbors. The lowest cube touches how many other blocks?
- A.Three
- B.One
- C.Four
- D.Two
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Correct answer: Two
Two is correct: the cube stacked on its top and the cube pressed against its right face are its only neighbors. Three adds the floor beneath it, which is not a block. One forgets the cube stacked on top. Four counts the faces with no neighbor (left, front, back, and bottom) instead of the faces that have one.
A single cube stands completely apart from every other cube in the figure. The correct count of blocks it touches, and the reason, is:
- A.Zero, since no other cube shares a face with it
- B.One, since one of its faces sits on the floor
- C.Six, since each of its faces counts as a contact
- D.Three, since three sides show in the drawing
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Correct answer: Zero, since no other cube shares a face with it
The count is zero, since no other cube shares a face with it; a contact needs another cube pressed against a face, and an isolated cube has none. 'One, since one of its faces sits on the floor' is wrong because the floor is not a block. 'Six, since each of its faces counts as a contact' confuses having faces with having neighbors. 'Three, since three sides show in the drawing' counts visible sides, not touching blocks.
A cube sits in the middle of a single-layer field of cubes that is one cube tall but many cubes wide and deep. It has a neighbor on its left, right, front, and back faces. Because nothing is stacked above and the floor is below, how many blocks does it touch?
- A.Four
- B.Six
- C.Five
- D.Eight
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Correct answer: Four
Four is correct: the four side faces each meet a cube in the layer, while the open top face and the floor under the bottom face add nothing. Six assumes all six faces are covered. Five counts the floor as a block. Eight adds the four diagonal cubes of the field, which meet it only along an edge.
Aviation Information (46)
In steady, straight-and-level unaccelerated flight, which pairing of the four forces of flight is in balance?
- A.Lift balances thrust, and weight balances drag
- B.Lift balances drag, and thrust balances weight
- C.Lift balances weight, and thrust exceeds drag
- D.Lift balances weight, and thrust balances drag
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Correct answer: Lift balances weight, and thrust balances drag
'Lift balances weight, and thrust balances drag' is correct. In steady, level, unaccelerated flight the four forces cancel in opposing pairs: lift acts up against weight, and thrust acts forward against drag, so the airplane neither climbs nor sinks and neither speeds up nor slows down. 'Lift balances thrust, and weight balances drag' and 'lift balances drag, and thrust balances weight' each pair a vertical force with a horizontal one, and forces at right angles cannot cancel each other, so none of them describes steady flight. 'Lift balances weight, and thrust exceeds drag' would make the airplane speed up, so the flight would not be unaccelerated.
Which of the four forces of flight is the only one produced directly by the airplane's engine and propeller (or jet exhaust)?
- A.Thrust
- B.Lift
- C.Drag
- D.Weight
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Correct answer: Thrust
Thrust is correct. Thrust is the forward force made by the propeller or the jet exhaust to overcome drag and move the airplane ahead. Lift is produced by the wings, drag is the air's resistance to motion, and weight is the pull of gravity, so none of them comes from the engine.
As an airplane burns fuel during a long flight, the weight force acting on it gradually:
- A.Increases, so more lift is required for level flight
- B.Stays constant, since the airframe is unchanged in flight
- C.Drops to zero, since the airplane is weightless in flight
- D.Decreases, so less lift is needed to hold level flight
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Correct answer: Decreases, so less lift is needed to hold level flight
'Decreases, so less lift is needed to hold level flight' is correct. Fuel has mass, so burning it makes the airplane lighter, and because lift must equal weight in level flight, the lift required falls as well. 'Increases, so more lift is required for level flight' gets the direction backward, 'stays constant, since the airframe is unchanged in flight' forgets that the fuel on board is part of the weight, and 'drops to zero, since the airplane is weightless in flight' confuses balanced forces with having no weight at all.
Aerodynamic drag on an airplane acts in which direction relative to the aircraft's flight path?
- A.Rearward along the flight path, opposing motion
- B.Forward along the flight path, assisting thrust
- C.Upward, at right angles to the flight path
- D.Downward, at right angles to the flight path
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Correct answer: Rearward along the flight path, opposing motion
'Rearward along the flight path, opposing motion' is correct. Drag is the air's resistance, so it acts parallel to the flight path and opposite to the direction of motion, directly against thrust. 'Forward along the flight path, assisting thrust' describes thrust itself, 'upward, at right angles to the flight path' describes lift, and 'downward, at right angles to the flight path' describes weight in level flight.
During a steady climb at constant airspeed, why must thrust exceed the value needed for level flight?
- A.Thrust must overcome drag as well as a rearward component of weight along the climb path
- B.Thrust must keep lift greater than weight for the whole time the airplane is climbing
- C.Thrust must overcome the added drag of the raised nose pushing against the oncoming airflow
- D.Thrust must make up for the lift the wings lose as the air thins with altitude
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Correct answer: Thrust must overcome drag as well as a rearward component of weight along the climb path
'Thrust must overcome drag as well as a rearward component of weight along the climb path' is correct. On an inclined climb path part of the weight points backward along that path, so thrust has to overcome that share as well as the drag. 'Thrust must keep lift greater than weight for the whole time the airplane is climbing' rests on a common myth, since lift is actually slightly less than weight in a steady climb; 'thrust must overcome the added drag of the raised nose pushing against the oncoming airflow' fails because drag depends on airspeed and angle of attack, not on where the nose points; and 'thrust must make up for the lift the wings lose as the air thins with altitude' fails because at a constant indicated airspeed the wings make the same lift.
Rotation of an airplane about its longitudinal axis is known as:
- A.Pitch
- B.Yaw
- C.Drift
- D.Roll
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Correct answer: Roll
Roll is correct. The longitudinal axis runs from nose to tail, and rotation about it, with one wing rising as the other drops, is roll. Pitch is rotation about the lateral axis, yaw is rotation about the vertical axis, and drift is sideways movement caused by wind rather than rotation about an axis.
The lateral axis of an airplane runs from wingtip to wingtip. Motion about this axis is called:
- A.Yaw
- B.Roll
- C.Pitch
- D.Bank
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Correct answer: Pitch
Pitch is correct. Nose-up or nose-down rotation about the wingtip-to-wingtip axis is pitch. Roll is rotation about the longitudinal axis, yaw is rotation about the vertical axis, and bank is the tilted attitude the airplane holds after rolling about the longitudinal axis, not a rotation about the lateral axis.
A pilot steps on the left rudder pedal, swinging the nose to the left without banking. The airplane is rotating about which axis, and what is the motion called?
- A.The vertical axis, a motion called pitch
- B.The vertical axis, a motion called yaw
- C.The lateral axis, a motion called yaw
- D.The lateral axis, a motion called pitch
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Correct answer: The vertical axis, a motion called yaw
'The vertical axis, a motion called yaw' is correct. Swinging the nose left or right with the rudder turns the airplane about its vertical axis, and that motion is yaw. 'The vertical axis, a motion called pitch' names the wrong motion, 'the lateral axis, a motion called yaw' names the wrong axis, and 'the lateral axis, a motion called pitch' describes raising or lowering the nose with the elevator.
Which statement correctly pairs each axis of flight with its orientation through the aircraft?
- A.Longitudinal: nose to tail; lateral: wingtip to wingtip; vertical: top to bottom
- B.Longitudinal: wingtip to wingtip; lateral: top to bottom; vertical: nose to tail
- C.Longitudinal: wingtip to wingtip; lateral: nose to tail; vertical: top to bottom
- D.Longitudinal: top to bottom; lateral: nose to tail; vertical: wingtip to wingtip
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Correct answer: Longitudinal: nose to tail; lateral: wingtip to wingtip; vertical: top to bottom
'Longitudinal: nose to tail; lateral: wingtip to wingtip; vertical: top to bottom' is correct. The three axes cross at the center of gravity: roll is about the nose-to-tail axis, pitch about the wingtip-to-wingtip axis, and yaw about the top-to-bottom axis. 'Longitudinal: wingtip to wingtip; lateral: nose to tail; vertical: top to bottom' swaps the first two, while 'longitudinal: wingtip to wingtip; lateral: top to bottom; vertical: nose to tail' and 'longitudinal: top to bottom; lateral: nose to tail; vertical: wingtip to wingtip' scramble all three.
The ailerons on an airplane move in opposite directions; one goes up while the other goes down. Their primary purpose is to:
- A.Roll the aircraft about the longitudinal axis
- B.Pitch the nose up or down about the lateral axis
- C.Yaw the nose left or right for coordinated turns
- D.Increase the lift on both wings together for landing
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Correct answer: Roll the aircraft about the longitudinal axis
'Roll the aircraft about the longitudinal axis' is correct. The ailerons move in opposite directions, raising lift on one wing and lowering it on the other, which banks the airplane about its nose-to-tail axis. 'Pitch the nose up or down about the lateral axis' is the elevator's job, 'yaw the nose left or right for coordinated turns' is the rudder's job, and 'increase the lift on both wings together for landing' describes the flaps, which move together rather than in opposite directions.
Which primary control surface controls movement of the airplane about its lateral (pitch) axis?
- A.Aileron
- B.Elevator
- C.Rudder
- D.Flaperon
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Correct answer: Elevator
Elevator is correct. Hinged to the horizontal stabilizer, the elevator raises or lowers the nose, rotating the airplane about its lateral axis. An aileron controls roll, a rudder controls yaw, and a flaperon combines the jobs of a flap and an aileron, so none of them governs pitch.
The rudder is the movable control surface attached to the:
- A.Horizontal stabilizer
- B.Wingtip trailing edge
- C.Wing leading edge
- D.Vertical stabilizer
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Correct answer: Vertical stabilizer
Vertical stabilizer is correct. The rudder is hinged to the rear of the vertical stabilizer, or fin, and swings the nose left or right. The elevator attaches to the horizontal stabilizer, the ailerons sit near the wingtip trailing edge, and the wing leading edge carries slats on some airplanes, never the rudder.
A pilot deflects the right aileron upward and the left aileron downward. The airplane will:
- A.Bank to the left
- B.Skid to the right
- C.Bank to the right
- D.Skid to the left
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Correct answer: Bank to the right
'Bank to the right' is correct. The raised right aileron reduces lift on the right wing while the lowered left aileron adds lift on the left wing, so the right wing drops and the airplane rolls right. 'Bank to the left' reverses the effect, and 'skid to the right' and 'skid to the left' describe sideways sliding from too much rudder, which aileron movement alone does not produce.
On many light airplanes, the elevator and rudder are operated by, respectively:
- A.The foot pedals, and the yoke or stick moved fore and aft
- B.The yoke or stick moved fore and aft, and the foot pedals
- C.The yoke or stick moved side to side, and the foot pedals
- D.The foot pedals, and the yoke or stick moved side to side
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Correct answer: The yoke or stick moved fore and aft, and the foot pedals
'The yoke or stick moved fore and aft, and the foot pedals' is correct. Pushing or pulling the yoke moves the elevator for pitch, and the rudder pedals move the rudder for yaw. 'The foot pedals, and the yoke or stick moved fore and aft' reverses the two, 'the yoke or stick moved side to side, and the foot pedals' gives the elevator the aileron input, and 'the foot pedals, and the yoke or stick moved side to side' makes both errors.
According to Bernoulli's principle as applied to a wing, where air moves faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil, the static pressure there is:
- A.Lower than the pressure beneath the wing
- B.Higher than the pressure beneath the wing
- C.Equal to the pressure under the wing
- D.Unrelated to the pressure under the wing
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Correct answer: Lower than the pressure beneath the wing
'Lower than the pressure beneath the wing' is correct. Bernoulli's principle says faster-moving air exerts less static pressure, so the air speeding over the curved top leaves lower pressure above than below, and that difference helps produce lift. 'Higher than the pressure beneath the wing' reverses the principle, 'equal to the pressure under the wing' would leave no pressure difference to lift the wing, and 'unrelated to the pressure under the wing' ignores that the difference between the two pressures is what pushes the wing up.
The angle of attack of a wing is best defined as the angle between the:
- A.Chord line and the longitudinal axis
- B.Longitudinal axis and the horizontal
- C.Flight path and the horizontal plane
- D.Chord line and the relative wind
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Correct answer: Chord line and the relative wind
'Chord line and the relative wind' is correct. Angle of attack is the acute angle between the airfoil's chord line and the oncoming relative wind. 'Chord line and the longitudinal axis' is the angle of incidence, 'longitudinal axis and the horizontal' is the pitch attitude, and 'flight path and the horizontal plane' is the climb or descent angle.
As a pilot increases the angle of attack up to a point, the lift produced by the wing generally:
- A.Increases with the angle of attack until stall speed is reached
- B.Increases until the critical angle of attack is reached
- C.Remains constant as the angle of attack climbs
- D.Drops off steadily as the angle of attack climbs
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Correct answer: Increases until the critical angle of attack is reached
'Increases until the critical angle of attack is reached' is correct. Raising the angle of attack adds lift up to the critical angle, beyond which the airflow separates, the wing stalls, and lift falls off sharply. 'Increases with the angle of attack until stall speed is reached' ties the limit to a speed instead of an angle, 'remains constant as the angle of attack climbs' ignores that lift grows as the angle rises, and 'drops off steadily as the angle of attack climbs' reverses the relationship below the stall.
An aerodynamic stall occurs when the wing exceeds its critical angle of attack. This can happen:
- A.Only at slower speeds, in any flight attitude
- B.Only at reduced speeds and with the nose high
- C.At all airspeeds, provided the nose is raised
- D.At all airspeeds and in all flight attitudes
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Correct answer: At all airspeeds and in all flight attitudes
'At all airspeeds and in all flight attitudes' is correct. A stall is defined by exceeding the critical angle of attack, not by a speed or a nose position, so it can occur at high speed in a steep turn or an abrupt pull-up. 'Only at slower speeds, in any flight attitude' and 'only at reduced speeds and with the nose high' tie the stall to speed, and 'at all airspeeds, provided the nose is raised' ties it to where the nose points.
The greatest distance from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil, measured along the chord line, is the wing's:
- A.Aspect ratio
- B.Chord length
- C.Thickness
- D.Dihedral
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Correct answer: Chord length
Chord length is correct. The chord is the straight-line distance from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the airfoil. Thickness is the depth between the upper and lower surfaces, dihedral is the upward angle of the wings from root to tip, and aspect ratio compares the wingspan with the chord.
Camber, an important feature of an airfoil, refers to the:
- A.Angle between the wing's chord and the fuselage
- B.Upward tilt from the wing's root to its tip
- C.Curvature of the wing's top and bottom surfaces
- D.Rearward sweep angle at the wing's leading edge
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Correct answer: Curvature of the wing's top and bottom surfaces
'Curvature of the wing's top and bottom surfaces' is correct. Camber describes how much the airfoil curves, and greater upper camber helps create the pressure difference that produces lift. 'Angle between the wing's chord and the fuselage' is the angle of incidence, 'upward tilt from the wing's root to its tip' is dihedral, and 'rearward sweep angle at the wing's leading edge' is sweepback.
The empennage of an airplane refers to the:
- A.Main body, with the flight deck, cabin, and baggage hold
- B.Powerplant housing, with the cowling and motor mounts
- C.Undercarriage, with the wheels, shock struts, and brakes
- D.Tail unit, with the vertical and horizontal stabilizers
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Correct answer: Tail unit, with the vertical and horizontal stabilizers
'Tail unit, with the vertical and horizontal stabilizers' is correct. The empennage is the group of surfaces at the rear of the airplane: the vertical stabilizer with its rudder and the horizontal stabilizer with its elevator. 'Main body, with the flight deck, cabin, and baggage hold' is the fuselage, 'powerplant housing, with the cowling and motor mounts' is the engine nacelle, and 'undercarriage, with the wheels, shock struts, and brakes' is the landing gear.
The fuselage of an airplane is the:
- A.Tail section that carries the fin, rudder, and stabilizer
- B.Main wing that carries the ailerons, flaps, and fuel
- C.Central body that carries the crew, passengers, and cargo
- D.Landing gear that carries the wheels, struts, and brakes
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Correct answer: Central body that carries the crew, passengers, and cargo
'Central body that carries the crew, passengers, and cargo' is correct. The fuselage is the airplane's main body, and the wings, empennage, and landing gear all attach to it. 'Tail section that carries the fin, rudder, and stabilizer' is the empennage, 'main wing that carries the ailerons, flaps, and fuel' is the wing, and 'landing gear that carries the wheels, struts, and brakes' is the undercarriage.
Which component provides directional (yaw) stability by keeping the nose of the airplane pointed into the relative wind?
- A.Horizontal stabilizer
- B.Wing dihedral
- C.Vertical stabilizer
- D.Wing flaps
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Correct answer: Vertical stabilizer
The vertical stabilizer is correct. This fixed fin works like a weathervane, swinging the nose back into the relative wind and so giving directional (yaw) stability. The horizontal stabilizer gives pitch stability, wing dihedral gives roll stability, and wing flaps are lift-and-drag devices used for takeoff and landing, not a source of yaw stability.
The horizontal stabilizer at the rear of the airplane primarily provides:
- A.Stability about the longitudinal axis
- B.Control about the longitudinal axis
- C.Stability about the lateral axis
- D.Control about the vertical axis
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Correct answer: Stability about the lateral axis
Stability about the lateral axis is correct; this is pitch stability, which pilots also call longitudinal stability. Like the feathers on an arrow, the horizontal stabilizer resists nose-up and nose-down pitching about the lateral axis, the line from wingtip to wingtip. Stability about the longitudinal axis (roll) comes mainly from wing dihedral, control about the longitudinal axis comes from the ailerons, and control about the vertical axis (yaw) comes from the rudder.
The retractable wheels and struts that support an airplane on the ground and absorb landing loads are collectively called the:
- A.Wing struts
- B.Wing spars
- C.Engine mounts
- D.Landing gear
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Correct answer: Landing gear
Landing gear is correct. The landing gear is the set of wheels, struts, and shock absorbers that carries the airplane on the ground and takes the load of touchdown. Wing struts brace a high wing against flight loads, wing spars are the main beams inside the wing, and engine mounts attach the engine to the airframe; none of them supports the airplane on the ground.
Extending the wing flaps for landing changes the wing's characteristics by:
- A.Increasing both lift and drag at a given airspeed
- B.Decreasing both lift and drag at a given airspeed
- C.Increasing lift while decreasing drag at a given airspeed
- D.Decreasing lift while increasing drag at a given airspeed
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Correct answer: Increasing both lift and drag at a given airspeed
Increasing both lift and drag at a given airspeed is correct. Lowering flaps adds camber (and on many designs wing area), so the wing makes more lift at the same speed, while the deflected surface also adds drag that steepens the descent. 'Decreasing both lift and drag at a given airspeed' describes retracting the flaps; 'increasing lift while decreasing drag at a given airspeed' ignores the drag that pilots rely on during the approach; and 'decreasing lift while increasing drag at a given airspeed' describes spoilers, not flaps.
A primary benefit of using flaps during landing is that they allow the airplane to:
- A.Approach and land at a shallower angle
- B.Reach a higher top speed in cruise
- C.Reach a higher climb rate on takeoff
- D.Approach and land at a slower airspeed
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Correct answer: Approach and land at a slower airspeed
Approach and land at a slower airspeed is correct. Flaps raise the lift the wing makes at low speed, which lowers the stall speed and lets the airplane fly a slower approach and touch down at a lower speed. Flaps steepen the descent rather than letting the airplane approach and land at a shallower angle, and their extra drag means they cannot help it reach a higher top speed in cruise or reach a higher climb rate on takeoff.
Wing flaps are hinged surfaces normally located on which part of the wing?
- A.On the trailing edge, outboard near the wingtips
- B.On the trailing edge, inboard near the fuselage
- C.On the leading edge, inboard near the fuselage
- D.On the leading edge, outboard near the wingtips
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Correct answer: On the trailing edge, inboard near the fuselage
On the trailing edge, inboard near the fuselage is correct. Conventional flaps are hinged to the rear edge of the wing between the fuselage and the ailerons. 'On the trailing edge, outboard near the wingtips' is where the ailerons sit, while 'on the leading edge, inboard near the fuselage' and 'on the leading edge, outboard near the wingtips' describe slats and other leading-edge devices that some aircraft add, not the standard flap.
If a pilot extends a large amount of flaps but adds no power, the most likely immediate effect on the flight path is that the airplane will:
- A.Descend more steeply because of the added drag
- B.Hold its altitude because of the added lift
- C.Speed up because of the reduced drag
- D.Stall more readily because of the reduced lift
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Correct answer: Descend more steeply because of the added drag
Descend more steeply because of the added drag is correct. Fully extended flaps create a large amount of drag; with no added power the airplane must lower its nose to keep a safe airspeed, so the glide path steepens. Flaps do add lift, but without power that is not enough to 'hold its altitude because of the added lift'; flaps add drag, so the airplane cannot 'speed up because of the reduced drag'; and flaps lower the stall speed, so it will not 'stall more readily because of the reduced lift'.
Under Visual Flight Rules (VFR), the pilot is primarily responsible for navigating and avoiding other aircraft by:
- A.Looking inside at the panel and the instruments
- B.Following radar vectors and traffic calls from the controller
- C.Following traffic alerts and warnings on the cockpit display
- D.Looking outside at the ground and the horizon
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Correct answer: Looking outside at the ground and the horizon
Looking outside at the ground and the horizon is correct. Under VFR the pilot navigates by landmarks and must see and avoid other aircraft, which is why VFR has minimum visibility and cloud-clearance rules. Looking inside at the panel and the instruments is instrument flying, the method used under IFR. Following radar vectors and traffic calls from the controller and following traffic alerts and warnings on the cockpit display are useful aids, but they never replace the VFR pilot's own outside lookout.
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) are generally required when:
- A.The flight carries passengers well after sunset
- B.The weather falls below visual flight minimums
- C.The flight carries paying passengers for hire
- D.The flight stays below a high cloud layer
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Correct answer: The weather falls below visual flight minimums
The weather falls below visual flight minimums is correct. When the cloud ceiling or the visibility drops below the VFR minimums, flight by outside reference is no longer allowed, so the pilot must file and fly IFR, using the instruments and air traffic control clearances. 'The flight carries passengers well after sunset' is still allowed under night VFR rules for a pilot who is current for night flight; 'the flight carries paying passengers for hire' can be flown VFR within charter weather limits; and 'the flight stays below a high cloud layer' is ordinary VFR flying as long as the required cloud clearance and visibility are kept.
A pilot flying IFR in clouds determines the airplane's attitude and position mainly by:
- A.Sensing the motion through the inner ear and seat
- B.Spotting the ground through breaks in the clouds
- C.Hearing the traffic reports from the controller
- D.Scanning the flight instruments in the cockpit
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Correct answer: Scanning the flight instruments in the cockpit
Scanning the flight instruments in the cockpit is correct. In cloud the outside view is gone, so the IFR pilot builds the picture from the attitude indicator, heading indicator, altimeter, and the rest of the panel. Sensing the motion through the inner ear and seat is the classic cause of spatial disorientation; spotting the ground through breaks in the clouds is unreliable and is not how instrument flight works; and hearing the traffic reports from the controller tells the pilot about other aircraft, not about the airplane's own attitude or position.
Which of the following is the clearest example of conditions that would require flying under IFR rather than VFR?
- A.A solid overcast with visibility of less than one mile
- B.A high overcast with visibility of more than ten miles
- C.A scattered layer with visibility of about five miles
- D.A light haze with visibility of about four miles
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Correct answer: A solid overcast with visibility of less than one mile
A solid overcast with visibility of less than one mile is correct. A solid ceiling with visibility under a mile is below the VFR minimums in nearly all airspace, so the flight has to be flown under IFR. A high overcast with visibility of more than ten miles leaves plenty of room to fly VFR beneath it, and a scattered layer with visibility of about five miles or a light haze with visibility of about four miles both meet the usual three-mile VFR visibility minimum.
A runway numbered 27 is aligned with a magnetic heading of approximately:
- A.270 degrees
- B.027 degrees
- C.090 degrees
- D.009 degrees
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Correct answer: 270 degrees
270 degrees is correct. A runway number is its magnetic heading rounded to the nearest 10 degrees with the last zero dropped, so runway 27 points to about 270 degrees, which is west. Reading the number exactly as written gives 027 degrees; 090 degrees is the heading of the opposite end, runway 9; and 009 degrees makes both slips at once, reading runway 9 as written.
In a standard traffic pattern, the leg flown parallel to the landing runway but in the opposite direction of landing is the:
- A.Upwind leg
- B.Base leg
- C.Downwind leg
- D.Crosswind leg
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Correct answer: Downwind leg
The downwind leg is correct. It runs parallel to the landing runway in the opposite direction, and it is where the pilot completes the before-landing checklist. The upwind leg is parallel to the runway but in the direction of landing, the base leg is flown at a right angle to the runway just before final, and the crosswind leg is the right-angle leg flown after takeoff.
Unless otherwise indicated, the standard direction of turns in an airport traffic pattern is:
- A.Right-hand turns
- B.Left-hand turns
- C.Turns into the wind
- D.Turns away from the wind
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Correct answer: Left-hand turns
Left-hand turns is correct. Unless a chart, a segmented circle, or the tower calls for a right-hand pattern, every turn in the standard rectangular pattern is made to the left. Right-hand turns are used only where they are published or assigned. The wind decides which runway is in use, but the pattern's direction is not set by turns into the wind or turns away from the wind.
The leg of the traffic pattern aligned directly with the runway centerline as the airplane descends to land is the:
- A.Departure leg
- B.Base leg
- C.Right downwind leg
- D.Final approach leg
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Correct answer: Final approach leg
The final approach leg is correct. After the turn from base, the airplane lines up with the extended runway centerline and descends on final approach to the touchdown point. The departure leg is also aligned with the runway, but it is flown climbing out after takeoff; the base leg runs at a right angle to the runway; and the right downwind leg runs parallel to it, opposite the landing direction.
The defining difference between a fixed-wing aircraft and a rotary-wing aircraft is that:
- A.A fixed-wing aircraft gets its thrust from the exhaust of a jet engine, while a rotary-wing aircraft gets its thrust from a turning propeller
- B.A fixed-wing aircraft generates lift from stationary wings as it moves forward, while a rotary-wing aircraft generates lift from rotating blades
- C.A fixed-wing aircraft is powered by several engines working together, while a rotary-wing aircraft is powered by one engine driving its main rotor
- D.A fixed-wing aircraft rests on wheeled landing gear when it is parked, while a rotary-wing aircraft rests on a pair of tubular skids
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Correct answer: A fixed-wing aircraft generates lift from stationary wings as it moves forward, while a rotary-wing aircraft generates lift from rotating blades
'A fixed-wing aircraft generates lift from stationary wings as it moves forward, while a rotary-wing aircraft generates lift from rotating blades' is correct. An airplane's wings are fixed to the fuselage and make lift only when the whole aircraft moves forward through the air, while a helicopter's rotor blades spin to make lift even in a hover. The other three describe things that vary within each category, so none of them is the defining difference: 'A fixed-wing aircraft gets its thrust from the exhaust of a jet engine, while a rotary-wing aircraft gets its thrust from a turning propeller' fails because many airplanes are driven by propellers and a helicopter gets both lift and thrust from its main rotor; 'A fixed-wing aircraft is powered by several engines working together, while a rotary-wing aircraft is powered by one engine driving its main rotor' fails because many airplanes have a single engine and many helicopters have two; and 'A fixed-wing aircraft rests on wheeled landing gear when it is parked, while a rotary-wing aircraft rests on a pair of tubular skids' fails because many helicopters roll on wheels.
Which capability is characteristic of a rotary-wing aircraft such as a helicopter but not a conventional fixed-wing airplane?
- A.Gliding with the engine off and landing on water
- B.Flying above the weather and cruising faster than sound
- C.Flying through clouds and landing on instruments
- D.Taking off straight up and hovering motionless
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Correct answer: Taking off straight up and hovering motionless
Taking off straight up and hovering motionless is correct. A helicopter's rotor makes lift without forward speed, so it can rise vertically and hold a hover, which a conventional airplane cannot do because its wings need airflow from forward motion. Gliding with the engine off and landing on water and flying through clouds and landing on instruments are things both types can do, while flying above the weather and cruising faster than sound describes high-performance airplanes, not helicopters.
Which of the following is an example of a rotary-wing aircraft?
- A.Turboprop
- B.Floatplane
- C.Helicopter
- D.Sailplane
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Correct answer: Helicopter
Helicopter is correct. A helicopter makes its lift with spinning main rotor blades, which is what makes it a rotary-wing aircraft. A turboprop has spinning propellers, but they make thrust while its fixed wings make the lift; a floatplane is a fixed-wing airplane mounted on floats; and a sailplane is an unpowered fixed-wing glider.
The altimeter measures the airplane's altitude by sensing changes in:
- A.Outside air temperature, which falls as height increases
- B.Pitot ram pressure, which rises as airspeed increases
- C.Static air pressure, which falls as height increases
- D.Gyroscopic rigidity, which rises as rotor speed increases
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Correct answer: Static air pressure, which falls as height increases
Static air pressure, which falls as height increases, is correct. The altimeter's sealed aneroid wafers expand as the static pressure around them drops in a climb, and the linkage shows that change as altitude. 'Outside air temperature, which falls as height increases' is true but is read on a separate thermometer; 'pitot ram pressure, which rises as airspeed increases' drives the airspeed indicator; and 'gyroscopic rigidity, which rises as rotor speed increases' is the principle behind the attitude and heading indicators.
The airspeed indicator displays how fast the airplane is moving through the air by comparing:
- A.Current static pressure against delayed static pressure
- B.Static pressure against a sealed aneroid capsule
- C.Outside air temperature against static pressure
- D.Pitot tube ram pressure against static pressure
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Correct answer: Pitot tube ram pressure against static pressure
Pitot tube ram pressure against static pressure is correct. The airspeed indicator feeds ram air from the pitot tube into a diaphragm surrounded by static pressure, and the difference between them grows with airspeed. Current static pressure against delayed static pressure is how the vertical speed indicator works; static pressure against a sealed aneroid capsule is how the altimeter works; and outside air temperature against static pressure is used to work out density altitude, not indicated airspeed.
The heading indicator (directional gyro) in the cockpit shows the pilot the airplane's:
- A.Direction in which the airplane is drifting
- B.Direction in which the airplane is pointing
- C.Rate at which the airplane is climbing
- D.Rate at which the airplane is turning
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Correct answer: Direction in which the airplane is pointing
Direction in which the airplane is pointing is correct. The heading indicator is a gyro-driven compass card, set to match the magnetic compass, that shows the heading of the nose. It does not show the direction in which the airplane is drifting, which is the difference between heading and ground track; the rate at which the airplane is climbing comes from the vertical speed indicator; and the rate at which the airplane is turning comes from the turn coordinator.
Which instrument shows the pilot the rate of turn and, with its inclinometer ball, whether the turn is coordinated?
- A.Attitude indicator
- B.Turn coordinator
- C.Heading indicator
- D.Magnetic compass
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Correct answer: Turn coordinator
The turn coordinator is correct. Its miniature airplane shows the rate of roll and turn, and the inclinometer ball below it shows whether the turn is coordinated, slipping, or skidding. The attitude indicator shows pitch and bank but has no ball, while the heading indicator and the magnetic compass show which way the airplane is headed, not how fast it is turning.
The attitude indicator (artificial horizon) provides the pilot with a direct display of the airplane's:
- A.Pitch and bank angles
- B.Heading and drift angles
- C.Turn rate and slip
- D.Climb rate and altitude
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Correct answer: Pitch and bank angles
Pitch and bank angles is correct. The attitude indicator's miniature airplane sits against an artificial horizon line, so it shows directly how far the nose is above or below the horizon and how steeply the wings are banked. Heading and drift angles come from the heading indicator and navigation aids, turn rate and slip from the turn coordinator, and climb rate and altitude from the vertical speed indicator and the altimeter.
A propeller-driven airplane produces thrust mainly by:
- A.Accelerating a jet of exhaust rearward with the turbine engine
- B.Deflecting the passing airflow downward with a horizontal rotor
- C.Accelerating a mass of air rearward with the spinning blades
- D.Deflecting the passing airflow downward with a lowered flap
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Correct answer: Accelerating a mass of air rearward with the spinning blades
Accelerating a mass of air rearward with the spinning blades is correct. Each propeller blade is a small rotating wing that throws air backward, and by Newton's third law the reaction pushes the airplane forward. Accelerating a jet of exhaust rearward with the turbine engine is how a turbojet makes its thrust, deflecting the passing airflow downward with a horizontal rotor is how a helicopter makes lift, and deflecting the passing airflow downward with a lowered flap adds lift and drag on the approach, not forward thrust.
References
- 1.U.S. Air Force ROTC. “Academic Standards.” afrotc.com. ↑
- 2.Pearson VUE. “Air Force Officer Qualifying Test (AFOQT).” Pearson VUE (for the U.S. Air Force). ↑
- 3.Air Force's Personnel Center. “AFOQT scores updated as AF implements new test, form.” afpc.af.mil. ↑
- 4.Department of the Air Force. “DAFMAN 36-2664, Personnel Assessment Program.” static.e-publishing.af.mil. ↑
- 5.Air Force Personnel Center. “Air Force Officer Qualifying Test (AFOQT) Rated Composite Information Pamphlet.” access.afpc.af.mil. ↑

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