Your FREE TEAS (Test of Essential Academic Skills) Practice Test 2026 – 900+ Q&A

TEAS Practice Questions

1. Watermelons After extensive research, a German botanist and her colleagues have discovered that the watermelon we know today didn’t originate from Mesopotamia, as many other domesticated crops have. Its genetic analysis shows that it is more closely related to the Sudanese variety, although they look very different. Our ‘modern’ version of watermelons has red flesh and a very sweet taste, while the flesh of Sudanese watermelons is white and it isn’t sweet at all; it is mainly used to feed animals. Which of the following provides information about watermelons?
   • Sudanese and domesticated watermelons are too different to be related.
   • Domesticated watermelons might have originated from Sudan.
   • Watermelons should be used as animal feed.
   • Most domesticated fruits and vegetables have originated from Mesopotamia.

   Correct answer: Domesticated watermelons might have originated from Sudan.

   The passage states that they did not originate from Mesopotamia. Furthermore, it mentions the close relation between domesticated watermelons and the Sudanese variety that has been revealed by genetic analysis. Sudanese and domesticated watermelons are too different to be related. This is incorrect because the passage states that they are related, despite their differences. Most domesticated fruits and vegetables have originated from Mesopotamia. This is incorrect because it is unrelated to the main idea of the passage. This piece of information is used only to contrast the main point of the paragraph: the similarities between the Sudanese watermelon and the modern variety, which help understand its origin. Watermelons should be used as animal feed. This is incorrect because the passage suggests that only the Sudanese variety is used to feed animals.

2. Karl just finished reading a graphic novel with a ‘coming of age’ theme about four young sisters who become grown women through the difficulties of living in a working-class family in the 1800s. Which of the following has a contrasting theme?
   • A novel about three friends who go through life fighting their own inner battles and make it through into adulthood.
   • A song in which the singer describes how the relationship with his immature friends is changing.
   • A play in which the main character plans the murder of his father’s killer without any help from his family.
   • A movie about two girls who navigate the world doing the opposite of what society expects of them.

   Correct answer: A play in which the main character plans the murder of his father’s killer without any help from his family.

   This is correct. A ‘revenge’ theme is more suitable for this, as there is no evidence of the ‘coming of age’ or ‘growing up’ theme. A novel about three friends who go through life fighting their own inner battles and make it through into adulthood. This is incorrect because it represents the challenges of growing up to become an adult, which in turn reflects the ‘coming of age’ theme. A movie about two girls who navigate the world doing the opposite of what society expects of them. This is incorrect because it suggests that the girls are learning how to fit into society without following its conventional rules, which reflects the ‘growing up’ theme. A song in which the singer describes how the relationship with his immature friends is changing. This is incorrect because it shows how people change as they grow up.

3. Humidity When days are hot and humid, the air feels heavy and breathing might feel challenging; our skin can also feel overheated and sticky. Humidity feels so uncomfortable because it makes us feel hotter than we feel on dry days. Usually, when we feel hot, we sweat and our sweat evaporates into the air, therefore cooling our skin. However, humidity doesn’t allow our sweat to evaporate as quickly since the air around us cannot absorb any more moisture (vapour). The longer our sweat stays on our skin, the warmer (and more uncomfortable!) we feel. Which of the following is an inference that could be made about humidity?
   • It’s harder for us to cool down on humid days.
   • It is a phenomenon that rarely occurs.
   • It prevents us from breathing regularly.
   • It cools the air around us.

   Correct answer: It’s harder for us to cool down on humid days.

   When the air around us cannot absorb any more moisture, our beads of sweat cannot evaporate, which makes it harder for us to cool down. It is a phenomenon that rarely occurs. This is incorrect because the passage doesn’t mention how frequently it happens. It prevents us from breathing regularly. This is incorrect. Although the passage states that breathing can feel challenging on humid days, there is no mention of regularity. It cools the air around us. This is incorrect because humidity makes the air feel warmer.

4. Mars In 2018, a team of researchers found evidence of a large lake underneath Mars’ south polar surface. This announcement was made after analysing radar data gathered by Europe’s Mars Express spacecraft. The same instruments were used once again to follow up on the discovery and to study a wider area around the newly found lake. This provided evidence for the existence of three more underground lakes. However, a different team of scientists seem unsure regarding the existence of subsurface liquid water on Mars. They simply cannot understand what is preventing the water from freezing in Mars’ sub-zero atmosphere. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?
   • The temperature on Mars is too high to cause water to freeze.
   • There might be a source of heat beneath the lakes, like a volcano.
   • The data analysis might have revealed unreliable information.
   • One of the teams might have misinterpreted the received data.

   Correct answer: There might be a source of heat beneath the lakes, like a volcano.

   The passage states that some researchers are speculating as to what prevents water from freezing under Mars’ surface. This could very well be a subsurface heat source, like a volcano. One of the teams might have misinterpreted the received data. This is incorrect because there is no mention of misinterpretation in the passage. The data analysis might have revealed unreliable information. This is incorrect because there is no mention of unreliable information in the passage. The temperature on Mars is too high to cause water to freeze. This is incorrect because the temperature on Mars is sub-zero.

5. Mia and Her Prosthetic Foot Bearded vultures are the largest flying birds in Europe. When large birds such as these lose one of their limbs, their inability to walk will certainly lead to death from malnutrition. Luckily this won’t be the case for a bearded vulture named Mia, who injured its foot so badly that it had to be amputated. So far, prosthetic limbs have been used in humans; however, for the first time, a bionic limb has been attached directly to a vulture’s bones, allowing the bird to land safely multiple times a day and to grab prey. The veterinary team from Vienna University designed a special bone implant durable enough to withstand the large bird’s daily activity. Only a few weeks after the surgery, Mia was able to walk and land using both feet. Which of the following is an inference that could be made about Mia, the bearded vulture?
   • Bionic limbs will now be used in humans.
   • Because of the size of vultures, the implant is unlikely to work.
   • Mia has become the first bionic bird on the planet.
   • The bird took a long time to recover from its surgery.

   Correct answer: Mia has become the first bionic bird on the planet.

   The passage is about the first bionic limb attached to a vulture, as the answer option suggests. The bird took a long time to recover from its surgery. This is incorrect because it took the vulture only a few weeks to regain the use of its legs. Because of the size of vultures, the implant is unlikely to work. This is incorrect because it states that the prosthetic implant is durable enough to withstand the large bird’s activity. Bionic limbs will now be used in humans. This is incorrect because the passage mentions that bionic limbs have already been used in humans.

6. Beth just finished watching a movie with a ‘revenge’ theme, in which an innocent man spends his time in prison plotting against those who betrayed him and had him jailed. Which of the following has a similar theme?
   • A play about an orphan who receives a large fortune from a mysterious benefactor that wants him to become a gentleman.
   • A graphic novel about a teenager, bullied at school and at home, who uses her supernatural powers to punish those who hurt her.
   • A song about a woman who marries a man she hardly knows to escape an arranged marriage tha6 she has no interest in.
   • A novel about a single mother who works at a small law firm and discovers illegal activities that are causing devastating health issues to the locals.

   Correct answer: A graphic novel about a teenager, bullied at school and at home, who uses her supernatural powers to punish those who hurt her.

   This is correct since it represents a theme of ‘revenge. That is, the main character, tired of being a victim, decides that it’s payback time. A novel about a single mother who works at a small law firm and discovers illegal activities that are causing devastating health issues to the locals. This is incorrect because the theme of ‘revenge’ is not reflected here. A theme of ‘courage and perseverance’ is more suited here. A song about a woman who marries a man she hardly knows to escape an arranged marriage that she has no interest in. This is incorrect since the theme shown here is more suited to unrequited love, than to revenge. A play about an orphan who receives a large fortune from a mysterious benefactor that wants him to become a gentleman. This is incorrect because a suitable theme here would be ‘coming of age’.

7. Passant just finished reading a novel with a ‘redemption’ theme, in which an old businessman realizes how mean and selfish he had been towards others and invests his money, time, and effort to improve the lives of the people around him. Which of the following has a similar theme?
   • A song about remembering humble origins despite current fame and fortune.
   • A play about an ex-convict who dedicates his life to bring prosperity to his community.
   • A movie about a wealthy broker who gets arrested after defrauding wealthy investors.
   • A graphic novel about two childhood friends who become rivals in their teenage years.

   Correct answer: A play about an ex-convict who dedicates his life to bring prosperity to his community.

   This is correct because it reflects the actions that allow people to make up for their own errors. A song about remembering humble origins despite current fame and fortune. This is incorrect because this theme does not reflect the ‘redemption’ or ‘making amends’ theme. A movie about a wealthy broker who gets arrested after defrauding wealthy investors. This is incorrect because getting arrested does not match the concept of ‘seeking redemption’. A graphic novel about two childhood friends who become rivals in their teenage years. This is incorrect because it aligns with the theme of friendship, not of redemption.

8. Understanding OCD On your way to work, do you sometimes go back to check if the front door of your house is locked? Do you always do the washing up after every meal? Well, that’s nothing to be concerned about. However, if you are compelled to perform repetitive behavior by intrusive, persistent, and disturbing thoughts about something terrible — inflicted by you — happening to you, or even to someone else, it could be a sign of an Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD). OCD is a common disorder that can affect individuals of any age. It may start in a mild form during childhood and develop further during adolescence, continuing into adulthood. It isn’t clear what causes this disorder, but there are some factors that might trigger it, such as genetics, a chemical imbalance in the brain, or personality. Exceptionally responsible, methodical people who set high standards for themselves are more prone to develop OCD. Embarrassment and shame often prevent people with OCD from seeking help, but the right treatment and support can help them overcome this disorder. Prescribed medicine and therapy are the most effective treatments, but they may take some time to work. Dealing with OCD can be challenging; therefore, contacting support groups can provide some relief from this stressful situation. Which of the following statements from the passage supports the claim made in paragraph 2?
   • Meticulous individuals are likely to be affected.
   • This disorder remains unchanged over time.
   • OCD can be prompted by past life experiences.
   • OCD originates from differences in the brain.

   Correct answer: Meticulous individuals are likely to be affected.

   This is correct because the paragraph states, “Exceptionally responsible, methodical people who set high standards for themselves are more prone to develop OCD”. OCD can be prompted by past life experiences. This is incorrect. Although this statement may be accurate, it is not stated in the paragraph. OCD originates from differences in the brain. This is incorrect because the cause (i.e. the origin) of this disorder is not clear. This disorder remains unchanged over time. This is incorrect because the paragraph states that the disorder “may start in a mild form during childhood and develop during adolescence”.

9. The Man-Eating Whale Sperm whales are huge marine creatures that can reach the size of a school-bus. They mainly feed on very small sea creatures, such as tiny fish and plankton. When a lobster diver got swallowed by one of these enormous animals, he thought he was going to die. Although whales don’t have teeth, the diver could have been crushed by the animal’s tongue. Luckily for him, the whale decided to spit him out. The diver reported an injury no greater than a dislocated knee. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?
   • There might be more injuries to report.
   • The injury was worse than expected.
   • The diver survived the accident.
   • The diver's injuries were severe.

   Correct answer: The diver survived the accident.

   The passage states that the diver suffered only a minor injury, so we can infer that he survived. The diver’s injuries were severe. This is incorrect because the diver reported an injury “no greater than a dislocated knee”, implying that the injury was not life-threatening. The injury was worse than expected. This is incorrect because there is no mention of this in the last line. However, earlier in the passage, the diver stated that he was expecting to die. There might be more injuries to report. This is incorrect because the passage gives no indication of any other injuries.

10. The Future of Space Exploration Since the first moon landing, many probes have been sent across the solar system, while our spacecraft have orbited around, surveyed, and landed on several planets. Astronauts have already performed extensive experiments on the dangers and requirements of living in space-bound habitats. It seems logical, then, to expect astronauts of the future to repair equipment sent millions of miles away from Earth. Space isn’t a suitable place for a delicate species like us. The conditions in which humans can survive are limited — we need the right amount of pressure, oxygen, water, temperature, radiation, and acceleration, or we die. In fact, we need protective clothing and technology even to explore many areas of our own planet. After all, space exploration is necessary for the human species, as we will have to leave our biosphere when the sun turns into a red giant. But shouldn’t we send robots to do the exploring instead of humans? Robots don’t die — not like humans, anyway. They are designed to withstand extremely harsh conditions that humans would never be able to endure. If one of the robots breaks down or is lost, it can be rebuilt. For humans, it doesn’t work quite like that. We have always imagined artificial servants or artificial minds that exist for the sole purpose of fulfilling human needs. So, perhaps, the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI) is to live and explore space on our behalf. Current robotic explorers are rare and hence extremely expensive, requiring endless pre-mission modeling and careful actions. But robotics is becoming cheaper and more adaptable, as are the ways to hurl them beyond our atmosphere. As space access becomes cheaper, we should expect a more ruthless use of robots. However, we find it impossible to resist the charm of human space exploration, despite its risks. Knowledge and achievements aren’t enough for us — we want to be there to witness the unfolding of our success. First of all, sending humans into space adds glory to our lives. Overcoming the plethora of challenges that come with long-term spaceflight inspires and delights us. Many of us would consider a human landing on Mars as an achievement of paramount importance for our species, not only for personal satisfaction, but also for national pride. Furthermore, the desire for raw materials in order to make profits is one of the greatest incentives that space exploration has to offer. Of course, this poses the moral dilemma that we might not be able to repair any damage we cause, therefore blurring our knowledge of the origin and organization of life in the solar system. The main motivation that will keep us going is that it is challenging and fascinating: humans are ambitious creatures that strive to achieve what is nearly impossible, and be present for the occasion. I wonder if AI will ever be able to learn this very human trait! Meanwhile, it would be useful to consider the advantages that our automated explorers currently maintain over their human counterparts. Which of the following is a counterargument from the passage?
    • National conflicts might be triggered by the rush to conquer space exploration.
    • Most people believe that humans should land on other planets instead of robots.
    • Humans want to be able to witness their achievements as well as learn from them.
    • A human landing on Mars could have a negative impact on its development.

    Correct answer: Humans want to be able to witness their achievements as well as learn from them.

    The passage states, “Knowledge and achievements aren’t enough for us — we want to be there to witness the unfolding of our success”. This is in opposition to the main argument about sending AI to explore space in order to avoid human losses. A human landing on Mars could have a negative impact on its development. This is incorrect. Although the passage mentions this, it isn’t a counterargument. On the contrary, it supports the argument that automated space exploration should be preferred. Most people believe that humans should land on other planets instead of robots. This is incorrect because the passage states, “Many of us would consider a human landing on Mars as an achievement of paramount importance for our species”. Note that the phrase, “Many of us”, does not correspond to “Most people”. National conflicts might be triggered by the rush to conquer space exploration. This is incorrect because there is no evidence supporting it in the passage.

11. An Unusual Event Cheese rolling is an unusual annual event that has taken place every spring since the 15th century in the English region of Gloucester, famous for its Double Gloucester cheese. The rules are simple: a large round of cheese is rolled down from the top of a hill, with the competitors chasing it all the way to the bottom. Once the Master of Ceremonies starts the event, those who are competing race down, following the cheese. The winner is the first to cross the finish line. The prize? It’s the cheese, of course! Although you don’t need to meet any fitness requirements to participate, this race is very difficult, dangerous and muddy! Originally, the aim of the competition was to catch the actual cheese round, but this has proved to be almost impossible to achieve. Since 2013, the cheese has been replaced with an object of similar shape, but much lighter, to reduce the number of accidents that occur each year. Which of the following is a prediction based on the passage?
    • The number of injuries at the event is steadily increasing.
    • The cheese was replaced because it was too difficult to catch.
    • The event is too risky to participate in.
    • They no longer use the cheese wheel because it was too expensive.

    Correct answer: The cheese was replaced because it was too difficult to catch.

    The passage states that the cheese has been replaced with a lighter object because catching the cheese round has proven almost impossible to do. The number of injuries at the event is steadily increasing. This is incorrect because the cheese was replaced to reduce the number of accidents. They no longer use the cheese wheel because it was too expensive. This is incorrect because there is no mention of the cost of the cheese. The event is too risky to participate in. This is incorrect because, despite the danger, people still take part in this competition.

12. The Most Beautiful Sport Its origin is uncertain, but there is no doubt that ‘mermaiding’ is a fascinating water activity. Globally recognised as a sport in 2020, it brings back fond memories of old tales, legends, and cartoon characters for children. It can be described as ‘dancing under water’, while wearing a ‘fishtail’ to keep your legs together. It doesn’t come as a surprise that it is considered to be the ‘most beautiful’ underwater sport in the world. With the help of a professional instructor, this sport can supplement a person’s physical and psychological well-being, but it requires commitment to hours of training and breathing practice. The bond between parents and children becomes stronger when they practice mermaiding together. The children develop their confidence in becoming whoever they want to be, sure of their parents’ support. This type of water sport has become popular worldwide and, as such, it offers many unusual and profitable work opportunities – as performing artists in aquariums and at children’s birthday parties, or as instructors. Which of the following is an inference that could be made about ‘mermaiding’?
    • It is beneficial for the whole family.
    • It attracts large numbers of people.
    • It is a traditional sport.
    • It interests only children.

    Correct answer: It is beneficial for the whole family.

    The passage describes the advantages of parents and children practising ‘mermaiding’ together, emphasizing that the sport helps parents and children develop stronger bonds. It attracts large numbers of people. This is incorrect because there is no indication of how many people are involved in ‘mermaiding’. It interests only children. This is incorrect because it can be practised by adults (e.g. parents) and those seeking physical and psychological well-being. It is a traditional sport. This is incorrect because it was officially recognised as a sport only in 2020.

13. James just finished reading a graphic novel with a ‘circle of life’ theme in which a fox teaches her three cubs to survive in the forest in order to be prepared when she dies. Which of the following has a similar theme?
    • A movie about a man who faces challenging situations to give his son the best opportunities in life.
    • A play about two teenagers in love who end up killing themselves because of the conflicts between their families.
    • An animated film in which a young princess follows her father’s footsteps to become the leader of their country when he becomes old.
    • A song that describes the difficult relationship between parents and children growing up in a different county.

    Correct answer: An animated film in which a young princess follows her father’s footsteps to become the leader of their country when he becomes old.

    This is correct since it represents the ‘circle of life’ theme. That is, the daughter takes her father’s place when he’s too old to carry on and eventually passes away. A movie about a man who faces challenging situations to give his son the best opportunities in life. This is incorrect because it is related to the ‘familial love’ theme. A song that describes the difficult relationship between parents and children growing up in a different county. This is incorrect because it could represent the ‘familial love’ theme. A play about two teenagers in love who end up killing themselves because of the conflicts between their families. This is incorrect because it is centered around the theme of ‘love’.

14. Viking Tombs Archeologists have found seven Viking tombs holding 1,000 year old, well preserved skeletons of eight people — four adults and four children. One of the tombs contains two very small infants, who appear to be of the same age. This is probably the result of late miscarriages of a couple of sets of twins. The graves have been excavated, revealing their unusual lay out which doesn’t match traditional Viking beliefs. At that time, Vikings were cremated, rather than buried, which was a the Christian custom. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?
    • Cremation was likely to happen before the burial.
    • The burial was part of a traditional Viking ritual.
    • The buried Vikings belonged to the same family.
    • The buried Vikings had converted to Christianity.

    Correct answer: The buried Vikings had converted to Christianity.

    Pre-Christian Vikings were likely to be cremated. From the presence of tombs, it can be deduced that the burial happened after the widespread adoption of Christianity. The buried Vikings belonged to the same family. This is incorrect because, beside the twins, there is no mention of family relations. The burial was part of a traditional Viking ritual. This is incorrect because the traditional Viking ritual was cremation. Cremation was likely to happen before the burial. This is incorrect because only one of the two rituals could have happened.

15. Andrea just finished listening to a song with a ‘long lasting friendship’ theme, in which the singer describes the importance of having good friends beside you at any point in life. Which of the following has a contrasting theme?
    • A movie in which two men from different worlds develop a strong bond that will save their lives while they explore the universe.
    • A play in which two twin sisters at important stages of their lives join forces to support their father in a moment of crisis.
    • A novel about an eighty-four-year-old woman on her deathbed, reflecting on the secrets she has kept from her life-long companion.
    • A comic strip in which a boy, his dog and other children reflect on life and rely on one another to face their everyday challenges.

    Correct answer: A play in which two twin sisters at important stages of their lives join forces to support their father in a moment of crisis.

    This shows no evidence of the ‘long lasting friendship’ theme, but it does depict a ‘familial love’ scenario. A comic strip in which a boy, his dog and other children reflect on life and rely on one another to face their everyday challenges. This is incorrect because it reflects the characteristics of the ‘long lasting friendship’ theme. A novel about an eighty-four-year-old woman on her deathbed, reflecting on the secrets she has kept from her life-long companion. This is incorrect because it describes the relationship between two old friends. A movie in which two men from different worlds develop a strong bond that will save their lives while they explore the universe. This is incorrect because sharing adventures and having each other’s backs are solid foundations for true friendship.

16. Understanding OCD On your way to work, do you sometimes go back to check if the front door of your house is locked? Do you always do the washing up after every meal? Well, that’s nothing to be concerned about. However, if you are compelled to perform repetitive behavior by intrusive, persistent, and disturbing thoughts about something terrible — inflicted by you — happening to you, or even to someone else, it could be a sign of an Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD). OCD is a common disorder that can affect individuals of any age. It may start in a mild form during childhood and develop further during adolescence, continuing into adulthood. It isn’t clear what causes this disorder, but there are some factors that might trigger it, such as genetics, a chemical imbalance in the brain, or personality. Exceptionally responsible, methodical people who set high standards for themselves are more prone to develop OCD. Embarrassment and shame often prevent people with OCD from seeking help, but the right treatment and support can help them overcome this disorder. Prescribed medicine and therapy are the most effective treatments, but they may take some time to work. Dealing with OCD can be challenging; therefore, contacting support groups can provide some relief from this stressful situation. What secondary argument does the author make?
    • Negative feelings can hinder any form of treatment.
    • OCD treatment causes unpleasant and unwanted thoughts.
    • Treatments are more effective with the help of support groups.
    • Psychological and medical care can help in treating OCD.

    Correct answer: Psychological and medical care can help in treating OCD.

    This is correct because psychological and medical care “are the most effective treatments” currently available for OCD. Treatment is one of the key points made by the author. OCD treatment causes unpleasant and unwanted thoughts. This is incorrect because unpleasant and unwanted thoughts are the symptoms of OCD, and are not caused by the treatment. Negative feelings can hinder any form of treatment. This is incorrect. Although embarrassment and shame might prevent people with OCD from reaching out for help, they do not affect the treatment. Treatments are more effective with the help of support groups. This is incorrect. Although they are helpful, support groups have no effect on the treatment of OCD.

17. ACV for Your Hair You might be a fan of apple cider vinegar (ACV) for your salad dressing, and you may have used it to remove odors from your fridge or stains from your carpet. What’s more, despite the lack of scientific evidence, many swear by the remarkable health properties that ACV has to offer. But have you ever applied apple cider vinegar to your hair? No? You should! Here’s why: Because it contains high levels of acetic acid and minerals, rinsing your hair regularly with apple cider vinegar can bring your dull, frizzy hair back to life. But its benefits don’t stop here. Chemical substances contained in common shampoos and conditioners can cause hair and scalp acidity imbalance. However, adding ACV to your hair care routine can prevent dandruff, scalp itchiness, and minor infections. But beware! Not all scalps are created equal, so it’s better to err on the side of caution to avoid irritating your skin. If you are new to this, start with diluting a couple of tablespoons of vinegar with plenty of water — you can always try increasing the proportion of vinegar in future applications. What secondary argument does the author make?
    • The benefits ACV brings to hair and scalp are backed by science.
    • Apple cider vinegar has many applications as a home remedy.
    • ACV has properties that can stabilize hair and scalp acidity levels.
    • Vinegar is commonly used to counteract the effects of hair products.

    Correct answer: ACV has properties that can stabilize hair and scalp acidity levels.

    The passage states, “common shampoos and conditioners can cause hair and scalp acidity imbalance”. It then offers apple cider vinegar as a solution to balance these acidity levels. This is secondary to the argument that ACV can help “bring your hair back to life”. The benefits ACV brings to hair and scalp are backed by science. This is incorrect. The passage states that there is a lack of scientific evidence regarding ACV health properties. Apple cider vinegar has many applications as a home remedy. This is incorrect. Although this statement is true, it is not one of the main points of the passage. Vinegar is commonly used to counteract the effects of hair products. This is incorrect because it is not a common way to use ACV. The passage poses the question, “have you ever applied apple cider vinegar to your hair?”, implying that not many people are aware of this.

18. Polly just finished watching a movie with a ‘good vs. evil’ theme in which a young wizard fights against the most powerful villain of all time to avenge his parents and protect his friends. Which of the following has a contrasting theme?
    • A song about the struggle of holding on to core values despite the immorality of modern society.
    • A graphic novel about a paranormal detective who takes on cases connected to the supernatural world and becomes obsessed with recreating evil deeds.
    • A play about an outlaw who robs those who become rich by unjust means to give money to the poor.
    • A novel about a lawyer who defends an innocent man wrongly accused of a terrible crime, despite threats from his community.

    Correct answer: A graphic novel about a paranormal detective who takes on cases connected to the supernatural world and becomes obsessed with recreating evil deeds.

    This is correct because the graphic novel implies the detective is overcome by evil forces, without any indication that there is a battle between good and evil or an attempt to overcome it. A play about an outlaw who robs those who become rich by unjust means to give money to the poor. This is incorrect because the main character, despite being an outlaw, helps the oppressed. She takes from who she thinks is evil in order to carry out good deeds. A song about the struggle of holding on to core values despite the immorality of modern society. This is incorrect because the fight here is between the ‘good’ in the individuals and the ‘evil’ of societal pressure. A novel about a lawyer who defends an innocent man wrongly accused of a terrible crime, despite threats from his community. This is incorrect because the lawyer clearly represents the ‘good’ going against his ‘evil’ community.

19. ACV for Your Hair You might be a fan of apple cider vinegar (ACV) for your salad dressing, and you may have used it to remove odors from your fridge or stains from your carpet. What’s more, despite the lack of scientific evidence, many swear by the remarkable health properties that ACV has to offer. But have you ever applied apple cider vinegar to your hair? No? You should! Here’s why: Because it contains high levels of acetic acid and minerals, rinsing your hair regularly with apple cider vinegar can bring your dull, frizzy hair back to life. But its benefits don’t stop here. Chemical substances contained in common shampoos and conditioners can cause hair and scalp acidity imbalance. However, adding ACV to your hair care routine can prevent dandruff, scalp itchiness, and minor infections. But beware! Not all scalps are created equal, so it’s better to err on the side of caution to avoid irritating your skin. If you are new to this, start with diluting a couple of tablespoons of vinegar with plenty of water — you can always try increasing the proportion of vinegar in future applications. Which of the following statements supports the claim made in the last line?
    • Using vinegar to look after your hair requires experience.
    • The vinegar to water ratio can be adjusted.
    • A gradual increase in vinegar quantities is necessary.
    • Direct application of vinegar causes skin irritation.

    Correct answer: The vinegar to water ratio can be adjusted.

    The last line of the passage states, “you can always try increasing the proportion of vinegar in future applications”, implying that changing the quantity of vinegar in water is optional. Using vinegar to look after your hair requires experience. This is incorrect because the paragraph gives guidance to people who have little or no experience in applying vinegar to their hair. A gradual increase in vinegar quantities is necessary. This is incorrect. Should you decide to increase the vinegar to water ratio, it is recommended (not necessary) that you do so gradually. Direct application of vinegar causes skin irritation. This is incorrect. Although this statement may be accurate, there is no mention of this in the passage.

20. Sandra just finished watching a play with the ‘familial love’ theme, in which two sisters joined at the hip share an extraordinary life that brings them fame.
    • An animated movie about a conflict between two brothers who are unable to accept each other’s choices in life despite their strong bond.
    • A movie about a man who discovers that he has a brother with autism and welcomes him into his life.
    • A novel about a woman married to a powerful man who is murdered by her husband’s family, while running away with her lover.
    • A song in which the singer expresses her gratitude for her upbringing and recognizes the struggles of motherhood.

    Correct answer: A novel about a woman married to a powerful man who is murdered by her husband’s family, while running away with her lover.

    This is correct since there is no evidence of familial love here. In fact, it’s her husband’s family that brings the woman to her death. A song in which the singer expresses her gratitude for her upbringing and recognizes the struggles of motherhood. This is incorrect because the theme of ‘familial love’ is more appropriate here, which is reflected in the singer’s appreciation towards her mother. A movie about a man who discovers that he has a brother with autism and welcomes him into his life. This is incorrect since it shows familial love overcoming obstacles such as difficult relationships and family secrets. An animated movie about a conflict between two brothers who are unable to accept each other’s choices in life despite their strong bond. This is incorrect because despite their differences and disagreements, the two brothers care deeply for one another.

21. Kenyan Work Etiquette If you are new to working in Kenya, you might want to pay attention to the way you interact with others, in order to make a good first impression. Kenyan culture gives great importance to age and position, so remember to greet everyone individually, even when meeting a group. Be respectful in your conduct – don’t address your colleagues by their first names unless you know them well. Should any issue arise between you and a workmate, try to resolve it discreetly, avoiding any public display of anger. Last, but not the least, be on time, even if others might not be! Which of the following summarizes the information about work etiquette in Kenya?
    • Time-keeping and punctuality are often disregarded in Kenya.
    • Work-related problems must be resolved away from the public eye.
    • Kenyans appreciate formal and professional behaviour in the workplace.
    • In a Kenyan work environment, first impressions are the key to a good relationship.

    Correct answer: Kenyans appreciate formal and professional behaviour in the workplace.

    This sentence summarises all the points covered in the passage. Work-related problems must be resolved away from the public eye. This is incorrect because it is only one of the points mentioned in the passage. In a Kenyan work environment, first impressions are the key to a good relationship. This is incorrect because there is no discussion of this in the passage; ‘first impressions’ are mentioned, but not with regard to good relationships. Time-keeping and punctuality are often disregarded in Kenya. This is incorrect. Although this statement might be true, it doesn’t summarise the whole passage.

22. Vegetarian vs. Vegan Speaker 1: Would you like to come over for dinner? There are a few vegetarian recipes I’d like you to try. Speaker 2: It sounds great! And I’m so glad you’re including more vegetarian meals in your diet. It’s a great way to reduce gas emissions, avoid further water pollution, and protect wildlife and its habitat. Speaker 1: That’s very true. But on a personal note, I can already see the benefits of my new eating habits. I used to feel very lethargic after my meals, but not anymore. My mood has improved too! Speaker 2: I’m very pleased to hear that! I know exactly how you feel. In fact, I’m considering pushing my vegetarian diet to the next level and becoming a vegan. Speaker 1: Oh no, I could never do that! I love cheese and steaks too much to give them up altogether. Besides, I believe that we should eat anything in moderation and a balanced diet is the best option. Speaker 2: I guess I’d miss eating cheese too, but I feel that the benefits of avoiding any form of animal fats and proteins are far greater than my cravings for dairy products. Speaker 1: Well, good luck, and let me know how you get on! Which of the following statements could NOT provide support for BOTH arguments?
    • Large amounts of fruit and vegetables in your diet can increase energy levels.
    • A plant-based diet can improve your health while enjoying animal products.
    • The advantages of reducing meat consumption outweigh its disadvantages.
    • A meat-free diet brings considerable health and environmental benefits.

    Correct answer: A plant-based diet can improve your health while enjoying animal products.

    This is correct because this statement can support only one of the two arguments. Only the vegetarian diet allows the consumption of animal products such as cheese and eggs. A meat-free diet brings considerable health and environmental benefits. This is incorrect. Although this statement is accurate, it supports both of the arguments. The advantages of reducing meat consumption outweigh the disadvantages. This is incorrect because this statement doesn’t apply to any of the two diets, which avoid (not reduce) meat consumption. Large amounts of fruit and vegetables in your diet can increase energy levels. This is incorrect. Although this statement is accurate, it can be applied to both diets.

23. The Five-Second Rule Speaker 1: I’m so hungry…and these chips are delicious! Oh no! I’ve just dropped one… Speaker 2: Quick, pick it up and eat it! Don’t you remember the five-second rule? Speaker 1: What’s this five-second rule? Speaker 2: It is a food hygiene theory stating that it is safe to eat food that has been dropped on the floor, as long as it’s picked up within five seconds. This is because such a limited window of time doesn’t allow dropped food to contract enough bacteria to make you sick. Speaker 1: Well, I don’t think that’s a good idea. After all, even if it’s in small amounts, you don’t know what kind of bacteria is on the floor. Speaker 2: I see your point, but in my opinion, small doses of harmful bacteria can improve our immune system. Isn’t it how vaccines work? Speaker 1: First of all, vaccines are prepared safely in a lab; secondly, why should I choose to ingest food that has been contaminated? No way! Speaker 2: Ok, let’s agree to disagree on this! Which of the following statements would the authors agree on?
    • Eating food containing bacteria can be as effective as being vaccinated.
    • The types of bacteria contained in dropped food are unknown.
    • A small number of bacteria can contaminate dropped food within five seconds.
    • Food has fewer chances of being contaminated if picked up within five seconds.

    Correct answer: A small number of bacteria can contaminate dropped food within five seconds.

    This is correct because one person states, “a limited window of time doesn’t allow dropped food to contain enough bacteria…”, while the other replies with, “… even if it’s in small amounts…:”. Therefore, both authors agree on this point. Food has fewer chances of being contaminated if picked up within five seconds. This is incorrect because it is not the chances of being contaminated that are decreased, but the extent of the contamination. Eating food containing bacteria can be as effective as being vaccinated. This is incorrect because, according to one of the speakers, vaccines are science-based and are prepared safely in a lab. The types of bacteria contained in dropped food are unknown. This is incorrect because one of the people involved in this conversation doesn’t express their view on this.

24. Jacque just finished listening to a song with a ‘courage and perseverance’ theme, about the struggles we all endure through life and the strength required to carry on living.
    • A play about an unsuccessful musician who falls in love with an aristocratic lady.
    • A movie about a cook who is trained by demanding mentors to become a successful chef.
    • A novel about two siblings who travel back in time to experience life in the ancient world.
    • A graphic novel about human-like turtles who fight against criminals to keep their city safe.

    Correct answer: A movie about a cook who is trained by demanding mentors to become a successful chef.

    This is correct since it aligns with the ‘courage and perseverance’ theme because it shows that determination can lead to achieving your dreams. A play about an unsuccessful musician who falls in love with an aristocratic lady. This is incorrect because it matches the theme of love or perhaps, ‘unreciprocated love’. A novel about two siblings who travel back in time to experience life in the ancient world. This is incorrect because it focuses on ‘family relationships’. A graphic novel about human-like turtles who fight against criminals to keep their city safe. This is incorrect because it suits the ‘good vs evil’ theme.

25. Constellations Orion is one of the largest constellations visible from anywhere on Earth, mainly in January. Like Aries and Cygnus, Orion is among the 48 constellations listed by Ptolemy in the 2nd century and officially recognised by the International Astronomical Union. It is believed to be the most famous of its kind, probably because it has been mentioned by the poets Virgil and Homer. Orion takes its name after the mythological Greek hunter it represents. It appears to be quite easy to recognise, for the unmistakable row of three stars that indicate the hunter’s belt. Orion is a unique constellation in the sense that it can be used as a guide to find other constellations during the winter months. Which of the following is an inference that could be made about the Orion constellation?
    • Orion can be seen only from Greece.
    • Orion is well-known thanks to classical authors.
    • Orion is similar to other constellations nearby.
    • Orion can be confused with other constellations.

    Correct answer: Orion is well-known thanks to classical authors.

    The passage mentions that poets like Virgil and Homer have mentioned Orion in their works, making it relatively more well-known than other constellations. Orion can be confused with other constellations. This is incorrect because Orion appears to be easy to recognise because of the three stars that form the hunter’s belt. Orion is similar to other constellations nearby. This is incorrect because there is no mention of the constellations nearby. Orion’s only similarity with Aries and Cygnus is that they all appear on the same list. Orion can be seen only from Greece. This is incorrect because Orion can be seen from anywhere in the world.

26. Online Learning There is no denying that the shift to online learning has brought about several challenges, from a sense of isolation to physical discomfort. Perhaps, what really unsettled educators and learners alike is the sudden change that was imposed by a global pandemic. However, there are many advantages to learning online. This modern medium allows learning to take place where and when possible, from a wide range of devices, while reducing the amount of money and time spent on commuting. With so many benefits of online learning, why didn’t we think of it before? Traditional Learning While acknowledging the positive aspects of online learning, it is believed that traditional (or classroom) learning remains invaluable from a pedagogical point of view, especially with regard to young learners’ education. As well as school subjects, children need to learn social skills – how can they be practiced on a screen? In everyone’s best interest, it is worth considering that the future of education might rely on both methods of learning: traditional and online. Which of the following is a common theme between the passages given above?
    • Every dream begins with a dreamer.
    • Adapt to move forward.
    • Leave what you know behind.
    • Change before you have to.

    Correct answer: Adapt to move forward.

    This is correct because the future of education will improve if we embrace and adapt to both learning methods, as suggested in both passages. Change before you have to. This is incorrect because it is mentioned only in one of the two passages (i.e. “why didn’t we think of it before?”). Leave what you know behind. This is incorrect because only one of the two passages hints at this. Every dream begins with a dreamer. This is incorrect because there is no evidence of the ‘dreams and aspirations’ theme in either passage.

27. Chocolate & Nobel prize A study suggests that moderate and regular chocolate intake could have positive effects on the mental functions of senior patients who show early signs of dementia. This has been backed by experiments on rats and snails, with evidence of improved cognitive abilities on the former, and of better memory on the latter. Intrigued by these findings, researchers have taken their studies a step further and found a correlation between chocolate consumption and the number of Nobel Prize winners in any given country. It appears that the highest number of Nobel Prize winners belongs to the countries with the highest chocolate consumption. It might not come as a surprise, then, that Switzerland came in first place, as one of the biggest chocolate producers worldwide. Among this data, an anomaly was found regarding Sweden. Despite the fact that the amount of chocolate consumed in Sweden is much less than that in Germany, the number of Swedish Nobel Prize winners is twice as much as their German counterparts. Which of the following is an exaggerated claim in support of the argument presented in the passage?
    • There could be a connection between mental functions and chocolate consumption.
    • Inconsistency in research findings indicates that Sweden doesn’t need chocolate to win.
    • The amount of chocolate intake might not have any impact on human cognitive abilities.
    • The case of Switzerland provides evidence that eating chocolate increases brain capabilities.

    Correct answer: The case of Switzerland provides evidence that eating chocolate increases brain capabilities.

    This is correct because the phrase, “provides evidence” makes too strong a statement. The passage highlights the fact that Switzerland has the highest consumption of chocolate and the highest number of Nobel Prize winners. However, it also shows that eating chocolate isn’t a foolproof recipe for success, by sharing the data regarding Sweden. The amount of chocolate intake might not have any impact on human cognitive abilities. This is incorrect because it is not an exaggeration. The data given about Sweden and Germany suggests that this could be true. Inconsistency in research findings indicates that Sweden doesn’t need chocolate to win. This is incorrect because it is not an exaggeration. This statement appears to be true, as shown by the example about Sweden. There could be a connection between mental functions and chocolate consumption. This is incorrect because it is not an exaggeration. This statement is true, according to the data collected from experiments on rats and snails.

28. Which of the following statements from a company’s mission statement offers evidence in favor of the claim that their business’ purpose is to reduce food waste?
    • To promote healthier living by introducing busy people to simple food.
    • To create and deliver delicious, healthy and organic meals.
    • To reinvent, repurpose, and redistribute unwanted farm produce.
    • To inspire and guide the new generation of home cooks.

    Correct answer: To reinvent, repurpose, and redistribute unwanted farm produce.

    This is correct because unwanted farm produce is one of the causes of food waste. By reinventing, repurposing, and redistributing unwanted produce, the amount of wasted food should decrease. To promote healthier living by introducing busy people to simple food. This is incorrect because it appears that the goal of this business is to introduce a healthier and uncomplicated (i.e. simple food) fast food option for busy people, not to reduce food waste. To create and deliver delicious, healthy and organic meals. This is incorrect because there is no evidence in this statement to suggest that the business’ goal is to reduce food waste. This statement focuses on providing good-tasting and good-quality food. To inspire and guide the new generation of home cooks. This is incorrect because this statement does not provide any evidence regarding food waste reduction.

29. Which of the following car advertising slogans offers evidence in favour of the claim that the vehicles are built to last?
    • Built for the human race.
    • For the epic or everyday.
    • Domestic. Not domesticated.
    • The car of your lifetime.

    Correct answer: The car of your lifetime.

    This is correct because it implies that the car being sold is one that you can choose to keep for life. In other words, the slogan implies that you wouldn’t need to change your car. Domestic. Not domesticated. This is incorrect since it appeals to the patriotic nature of the manufacturer’s customers by claiming that the cars aren’t imported, and have a wild and adventurous nature. This instills a sense of excitement about these cars. There is no evidence that supports any long-lasting qualities of the car in this slogan. For the epic or everyday. This is incorrect because this slogan doesn’t provide evidence regarding long-lasting qualities. Instead, it claims that these vehicles are suitable for any occasion, from everyday commute to special occasions. Built for the human race. This is incorrect because this slogan does not support any claims regarding the longevity of their vehicles. It implies that their cars can meet anyone’s needs.

30. Sumo Wrestling Written records of sumo date back to the 8th century AD and it has been a popular sport for over a thousand years. However, sumo has developed throughout the centuries and the wrestlers, called rikishi, lead their lives by a strict code of conduct and ceremony which connects them to the Shinto religion and the ancient samurai tradition. Each of them belongs to a ‘stable’, where they live, eat, sleep and train. All rikishi wake up at 5 o’clock every day, including weekends. Discipline and routine are necessary for their physical and mental wellbeing. During their five hours of hard training, the rikishi carry out a range of exercises, depending on which part of the body they want to work on and the goal they want to achieve: strength, flexibility, balance etc. Their meals are rich in protein and contain a variety of ingredients, such as vegetables, tofu, meat and fish, accompanied by several bowls of rice. They eat large quantities of food and, if they are considered under-weight, they might be forced to eat even more rice. After their meal, the rikishi sleep for a few hours. This is very important because the lack of movement allows the high calorie intake to be transformed into fat, thereby ensuring an increase in body weight. Which of the following summarizes the topic of the passage?
    • Daily routines of a sumo wrestler
    • Training techniques of a sumo wrestler
    • The origins of sumo wrestling
    • How to become a sumo wrestler

    Correct answer: Daily routines of a sumo wrestler

    The passage describes various aspects of a day in the life of a sumo wrestler. Training techniques of a sumo wrestler. This is incorrect because it covers only one part of the passage. The origins of sumo wrestling. This is incorrect because the origins of this sport are mentioned only in the introduction of the passage. How to become a sumo wrestler. This is incorrect because the passage describes the wrestlers’ lives when they are already part of their ‘stable’, rather than their journey of becoming sumo wrestlers.

31. Creative Writing There’s no doubt that writing is an art and, as such, it cannot be taught. After talking to a university professor who teaches creative writing, I have discovered that it is very rare to come across a course participant who has the talent and the right attitude to make it as a published author. Creativity, imagination, and observational skills are the key features of a good writer. These are unique characteristics that cannot be learnt, but stem from the personality of an individual. However, they can be practiced and developed – which should be the focus of attending a respectable creative writing course. Another vital aspect of literary success that should not be underestimated is the writer’s attitude towards criticism. Although it can be constructive, helping them improve their future work, writers often face useless, negative feedback. This can be the cause of self-doubt and low self-esteem, and it might even lead an aspiring writer to giving up writing altogether. Because of this, writers should develop ‘thick skin’ and avoid getting offended by what others say. In addition to this, while it is important for writers to separate useful from harmful criticism, they should also keep an open mind about the feedback they receive. This helps them create a bond with their audience, which has the advantage of improving a writer’s popularity. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?
    • Writers’ audiences do not directly impact their success.
    • New writers aren't aware of the disadvantages of becoming popular.
    • Popularity is something all writers strive for.
    • Developing rapport with their audience can be positive for a writer's career.

    Correct answer: Developing rapport with their audience can be positive for a writer's career.

    The last line states that writers’ popularity can be improved by creating a bond (i.e. developing rapport) with their audience, hence being advantageous to their career. Popularity is something all writers strive for. This is incorrect because the passage doesn’t mention that all writers want to be popular. Writers’ audiences do not directly impact their success. This is incorrect because the bond writers create with their audiences can improve their popularity and consequently, impact their success. New writers aren’t aware of the disadvantages of becoming popular. This is incorrect because there is no mention of the disadvantages of becoming popular.

32. Circus – Advertisement 1 Do you have a unique skill? Are you ready to share it with the world? Then Fantasy Circus WANTS YOU! Join our team of talented artists and transform your life into a thrilling adventure. Interested? Pop in for more info. Circus – Advertisement 2 The team at Fantasy Circus are delighted to invite you to our brand new show! Treat yourself and your loved ones to a thrilling evening: Come and see us for an unforgettable experience of mesmerizing acts. You won’t regret it – there’s nothing quite like it! Which of the following is a common theme between the two advertisements?
    • A reminder of family values.
    • Trust in a well-known business.
    • A sense of belonging.
    • Excitement about the circus.

    Correct answer: Excitement about the circus.

    This is correct because both advertisements use positive language (e.g. unique, talented, thrilling, unforgettable, mesmerizing) to attract candidates and customers. A sense of belonging. This is incorrect because only one of the two advertisements suggests becoming part of the team. A reminder of family values. This is incorrect because the ‘family’ theme is mentioned in only one of the two advertisements, in the statement, “Treat yourself and your loved ones…”. Trust in a well-known business. This is incorrect because neither of the advertisements mentions whether the circus is well-known or not.

33. Detecting Microplastics Information received from NASA satellites can be now used to track the movement of microplastics, thanks to a team of scientists from the University of Michigan. Microplastics are tiny pieces of plastic trash broken down by the sun’s rays and the motion of ocean waves. Because ocean currents can carry these plastic particles far away from where they originated, it can become very difficult to track them and remove them. It has been observed that microplastics are present in smoother waters because they can affect the ocean roughness. Data from a group of eight small satellites can help scientists predict where microplastics congregate by following ocean and wind speed calculations. Currently, fisher boat trawlers are the main source of information about the locations of microplastics, as they use nets to catch plankton and, accidentally, microplastics. However, the new technique demonstrates that satellite data can successfully track ocean microplastic from space. This might transform the way in which we tackle water pollution. As microplastics are harmful to marine organisms and ecosystems, this can be considered a ground-breaking discovery. Which of the following provides information about a specific use of the satellites?
    • Satellite data can help scientists understand the underwater ecosystem.
    • Satellite data can track ocean microplastics from space.
    • Scientists can now use satellites to identify endangered marine organisms.
    • Scientists can now use satellite data to clean up land and oceans.

    Correct answer: Satellite data can track ocean microplastics from space.

    The passage mentions that the satellites can identify the location of microplastics by calculating the wind speed and ocean roughness. Satellite data can help scientists understand the underwater ecosystem. This is incorrect because there is no direct relation between the satellite data and the ecosystem. Scientists can now use satellite data to clean up land and oceans. This is incorrect because the satellite data can only identify microplastics in water, not on land. Scientists can now use satellites to identify endangered marine organisms. This is incorrect because the satellites can locate microplastics, not marine organisms.

34. Bottled drink – Advertisement 1 Since 1951 you have welcomed us at your dinner tables at your picnic venues at your children’s parties Come rain or shine you have chosen us For this, we THANK YOU by investing in the future of your children by investing in 100% biodegradable bottles by investing in ZERO carbon emissions throughout production. Bottled drink – Advertisement 2 By your side, since 1951 on hot days, on cold days on happy days on tough days On our 70th birthday we want to celebrate with you bringing to your lips the fresh taste of a new fruity flavor. Discover more on our website. Which of the following is a difference between the themes of the two advertisements?
    • A versatile product for every occasion.
    • A long lasting relationship with customers.
    • A strategy to promote eco-friendly values.
    • A new idea to generate interest in the brand.

    Correct answer: A strategy to promote eco-friendly values.

    This is correct because only one of the two advertisements promotes an innovative idea to reduce waste. A long lasting relationship with customers. This is incorrect because both advertisements remind customers that the company has been popular “since 1951”. A versatile product for every occasion. This is incorrect because both advertisements give examples of situations in which the product can be enjoyed. A new idea to generate interest in the brand. This is incorrect because both advertisements promote ideas (new packaging and a new product) that can appeal to new and existing customers.

35. Circus – Advertisement 1 Do you have a unique skill? Are you ready to share it with the world? Then Fantasy Circus WANTS YOU! Join our team of talented artists and transform your life into a thrilling adventure. Interested? Pop in for more info. Circus – Advertisement 2 The team at Fantasy Circus are delighted to invite you to our brand new show! Treat yourself and your loved ones to a thrilling evening: Come and see us for an unforgettable experience of mesmerizing acts. You won’t regret it – there’s nothing quite like it! Which of the following is a difference between the themes of the two advertisements?
    • Enjoying the excitement of an unusual experience.
    • Focusing on individual abilities to make an impact.
    • Feeling empowered to bring change into our lives.
    • Showing appreciation and gratitude for our lives.

    Correct answer: Focusing on individual abilities to make an impact.

    This is correct because only one of the two advertisements is trying to attract potential candidates by asking questions that speak directly to and about the target audience (e.g. “Do you have…? Are you ready…?”) Feeling empowered to bring change into our lives. This is incorrect because both advertisements push for new experiences in life, either for one evening or for longer term, like a career change. Showing appreciation and gratitude for our lives. This is incorrect because neither of the advertisements follows the ‘gratitude’ theme. Enjoying the excitement of an unusual experience. This is incorrect because both watching a show at a circus, and joining a circus team are unusual and exciting experiences (to a different degree).

36. Bottled drink – Advertisement 1 Since 1951 you have welcomed us at your dinner tables at your picnic venues at your children’s parties Come rain or shine you have chosen us For this, we THANK YOU by investing in the future of your children by investing in 100% biodegradable bottles by investing in ZERO carbon emissions throughout production. Bottled drink – Advertisement 2 By your side, since 1951 on hot days, on cold days on happy days on tough days On our 70th birthday we want to celebrate with you bringing to your lips the fresh taste of a new fruity flavor. Discover more on our website. Which of the following is a common theme between the two advertisements?
    • Seeking redemption for poor decisions.
    • A focus on the longevity of the brand.
    • An expression of gratitude for customer loyalty.
    • Promoting the launch of a new product.

    Correct answer: A focus on the longevity of the brand.

    This is correct because both advertisements clearly mention the phrase, “since 1951”, which implies that such a long business history should instil trust in customers. Seeking redemption for poor decisions. This is incorrect because there is no evidence of bad decisions made by this business. Promoting the launch of a new product. This is incorrect because only one of the two advertisements presents a ‘new fruity flavor’. An expression of gratitude for customer loyalty. This is incorrect because only one of the two advertisements says ‘THANK YOU’ to its existing customers.

37. Sumo Wrestling Written records of sumo date back to the 8th century AD and it has been a popular sport for over a thousand years. However, sumo has developed throughout the centuries and the wrestlers, called rikishi, lead their lives by a strict code of conduct and ceremony which connects them to the Shinto religion and the ancient samurai tradition. Each of them belongs to a ‘stable’, where they live, eat, sleep and train. All rikishi wake up at 5 o’clock every day, including weekends. Discipline and routine are necessary for their physical and mental wellbeing. During their five hours of hard training, the rikishi carry out a range of exercises, depending on which part of the body they want to work on and the goal they want to achieve: strength, flexibility, balance etc. Their meals are rich in protein and contain a variety of ingredients, such as vegetables, tofu, meat and fish, accompanied by several bowls of rice. They eat large quantities of food and, if they are considered under-weight, they might be forced to eat even more rice. After their meal, the rikishi sleep for a few hours. This is very important because the lack of movement allows the high calorie intake to be transformed into fat, thereby ensuring an increase in body weight. Which of the following is an inference that could be made about sumo wrestlers?
    • Sumo wrestlers choose their own diet.
    • Being a sumo wrestler is a family tradition.
    • Sumo wrestlers are weighed regularly.
    • Sumo wrestlers' routines are flexible.

    Correct answer: Sumo wrestlers are weighed regularly.

    From the passage, we understand that the weight of sumo wrestlers is an important aspect of this sport, and is therefore constantly monitored. Being a sumo wrestler is a family tradition. This is incorrect because the passage doesn’t mention wrestlers’ family lives. Sumo wrestlers’ routines are flexible. This is incorrect because the passage mentions strict rules and fixed routines. Sumo wrestlers choose their own diet. This is incorrect. Although the passage describes their meals, it doesn’t mention that they can choose what they eat.

38. The Future of Space Exploration Since the first moon landing, many probes have been sent across the solar system, while our spacecraft have orbited around, surveyed, and landed on several planets. Astronauts have already performed extensive experiments on the dangers and requirements of living in space-bound habitats. It seems logical, then, to expect astronauts of the future to repair equipment sent millions of miles away from Earth. Space isn’t a suitable place for a delicate species like us. The conditions in which humans can survive are limited — we need the right amount of pressure, oxygen, water, temperature, radiation, and acceleration, or we die. In fact, we need protective clothing and technology even to explore many areas of our own planet. After all, space exploration is necessary for the human species, as we will have to leave our biosphere when the sun turns into a red giant. But shouldn’t we send robots to do the exploring instead of humans? Robots don’t die — not like humans, anyway. They are designed to withstand extremely harsh conditions that humans would never be able to endure. If one of the robots breaks down or is lost, it can be rebuilt. For humans, it doesn’t work quite like that. We have always imagined artificial servants or artificial minds that exist for the sole purpose of fulfilling human needs. So, perhaps, the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI) is to live and explore space on our behalf. Current robotic explorers are rare and hence extremely expensive, requiring endless pre-mission modeling and careful actions. But robotics is becoming cheaper and more adaptable, as are the ways to hurl them beyond our atmosphere. As space access becomes cheaper, we should expect a more ruthless use of robots. However, we find it impossible to resist the charm of human space exploration, despite its risks. Knowledge and achievements aren’t enough for us — we want to be there to witness the unfolding of our success. First of all, sending humans into space adds glory to our lives. Overcoming the plethora of challenges that come with long-term spaceflight inspires and delights us. Many of us would consider a human landing on Mars as an achievement of paramount importance for our species, not only for personal satisfaction, but also for national pride. Furthermore, the desire for raw materials in order to make profits is one of the greatest incentives that space exploration has to offer. Of course, this poses the moral dilemma that we might not be able to repair any damage we cause, therefore blurring our knowledge of the origin and organization of life in the solar system. The main motivation that will keep us going is that it is challenging and fascinating: humans are ambitious creatures that strive to achieve what is nearly impossible, and be present for the occasion. I wonder if AI will ever be able to learn this very human trait! Meanwhile, it would be useful to consider the advantages that our automated explorers currently maintain over their human counterparts. What is the primary argument of the passage?
    • Sending humans to other planets is an immoral mission.
    • People are fascinated by space exploration, despite its risks.
    • Space exploration should continue for the survival of our species.
    • Automated space exploration should be preferred to avoid losses.

    Correct answer: Automated space exploration should be preferred to avoid losses.

    This is correct because the passage provides a list of reasons as to why automated space exploration should be preferred. Space exploration should continue for the survival of our species. This is incorrect because it is not the main argument of the passage. The passage discusses whether space exploration should be carried out by machinery and AI, or by humans. Sending humans to other planets is an immoral mission. This is incorrect. Although the passage highlights the risks of sending humans into space, it is not the main argument. People are fascinated by space exploration, despite its risks. This is incorrect. Although this is one of the points raised in the passage, it is not the main argument.

39. Studying at the Sound of Music What’s the soundtrack of your learning? What do you have in the background? Some people listen to the sound of birds singing, while others prefer that of the ocean waves. Research suggests that complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving. Most learners, however, prefer to listen to some music while studying. Studies have shown that music with lyrics can be distracting. This is because listening to the words of a song takes brain resources away from the studying process. It turns out that our brain has only so much power to work with at any given time! Despite this, another study shows that songs with unintelligible words do not have such a negative impact on your studying. However, if you are looking for music that can improve your studying and concentrating abilities, it is important to remember that different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains. Generally speaking, classical music is considered a good background choice for studying, but there are some exceptions. Explosive works like Respighi’s Pines of Rome or Rossini’s William Tell Overture may be too energetic for effective studying. As concluded by other studies on music and concentration, it appears that baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying. With 50 to 80 beats per minute, baroque music creates an ideal environment for studying by creating stable mental, physical, and emotional patterns. Another genre without lyrics is meditative music, regarded as a good study option as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music. This hypothesis is supported by studies that focus specifically on this kind of music. It has been found that meditative music, which contains what’s called “alpha” beats, stimulates alpha waves in the brain. These put our brains in a relaxed, yet alert, state, which allows the brain to better absorb and retain information and ideas. Meditative music also commonly includes sounds of nature, like croaking frogs or wind through the trees, which can improve cognitive function and concentration. They also efficiently conceal other sounds that interfere with studying, like people talking or road noise. A study on the correlation between music genres and studying demonstrates that each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre. This was carried out by comparing brain wave patterns reacting to different musical genres and a song selected by each study participant as a personal favorite. They found that neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre. The researcher shared their study results in their paper, titled “Network Science and the Effects of Music Preference on Functional Brain Connectivity: From Beethoven to Eminem.” So, listening to music can improve our concentration and ability to study, but that’s not all, as music is a gift that keeps on giving. It has been suggested that learning to play a musical instrument can strengthen our abilities involved in remembering information, and it could even enhance our IQ. Regardless of whether you can become more intelligent or not, you can use music to make studying more enjoyable and more effective. Ultimately, you know when you’re studying well and when you’re not, so try out some different genres and find out what works for you. Which of the following statements from the passage supports the claim made in paragraph 4?
    • Any music genre can improve and strengthen people’s learning skills.
    • Brain waves create a variety of patterns when reacting to different types of music.
    • Nervous impulses linked to learning can be enhanced depending on individual preferences.
    • The findings of the study about music and learning are stated in a published paper.

    Correct answer: Nervous impulses linked to learning can be enhanced depending on individual preferences.

    Referring to the study, the passage states that “that neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre”. This supports the claim that “each person’s taste may be a stronger indicator of the best studying music than any specific genre”. The findings of the study about music and learning are stated in a published paper. This is incorrect. Although this statement is true, it doesn’t support the claim that “each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre”. Brain waves create a variety of patterns when reacting to different types of music. This is incorrect. Although this statement is true, it doesn’t provide evidence to support the claim that “each person’s taste may be a stronger indicator of the best studying music than any specific genre”. Any music genre can improve and strengthen people’s learning skills. This is incorrect because it is only partially true. Any music genre can improve learning abilities if it is the preferred genre of the individual in question.

40. Studying at the Sound of Music What’s the soundtrack of your learning? What do you have in the background? Some people listen to the sound of birds singing, while others prefer that of the ocean waves. Research suggests that complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving. Most learners, however, prefer to listen to some music while studying. Studies have shown that music with lyrics can be distracting. This is because listening to the words of a song takes brain resources away from the studying process. It turns out that our brain has only so much power to work with at any given time! Despite this, another study shows that songs with unintelligible words do not have such a negative impact on your studying. However, if you are looking for music that can improve your studying and concentrating abilities, it is important to remember that different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains. Generally speaking, classical music is considered a good background choice for studying, but there are some exceptions. Explosive works like Respighi’s Pines of Rome or Rossini’s William Tell Overture may be too energetic for effective studying. As concluded by other studies on music and concentration, it appears that baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying. With 50 to 80 beats per minute, baroque music creates an ideal environment for studying by creating stable mental, physical, and emotional patterns. Another genre without lyrics is meditative music, regarded as a good study option as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music. This hypothesis is supported by studies that focus specifically on this kind of music. It has been found that meditative music, which contains what’s called “alpha” beats, stimulates alpha waves in the brain. These put our brains in a relaxed, yet alert, state, which allows the brain to better absorb and retain information and ideas. Meditative music also commonly includes sounds of nature, like croaking frogs or wind through the trees, which can improve cognitive function and concentration. They also efficiently conceal other sounds that interfere with studying, like people talking or road noise. A study on the correlation between music genres and studying demonstrates that each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre. This was carried out by comparing brain wave patterns reacting to different musical genres and a song selected by each study participant as a personal favorite. They found that neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre. The researcher shared their study results in their paper, titled “Network Science and the Effects of Music Preference on Functional Brain Connectivity: From Beethoven to Eminem.” So, listening to music can improve our concentration and ability to study, but that’s not all, as music is a gift that keeps on giving. It has been suggested that learning to play a musical instrument can strengthen our abilities involved in remembering information, and it could even enhance our IQ. Regardless of whether you can become more intelligent or not, you can use music to make studying more enjoyable and more effective. Ultimately, you know when you’re studying well and when you’re not, so try out some different genres and find out what works for you. Which of the following is a counterargument in the passage?
    • Learning to play an instrument can increase mental abilities.
    • Sounds of nature are more effective than Baroque music.
    • Many opt for no background sounds to concentrate.
    • The slow tempo of Baroque music facilitates learning.

    Correct answer: Many opt for no background sounds to concentrate.

    The passage states that according to some researchers, “complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving”. This statement contrasts the main point of the passage — that baroque music is particularly useful for studying. The slow tempo of Baroque music facilitates learning. This is incorrect because it is in favor of the argument, rather than against it. Sounds of nature are more effective than Baroque music. This is incorrect because there is no evidence to support this in the passage. However, some people may prefer to listen to nature sounds instead of listening to music. Learning to play an instrument can increase mental abilities. This is incorrect. Although this statement is true according to the passage, it doesn’t go against the main argument.

41. Creative Writing There’s no doubt that writing is an art and, as such, it cannot be taught. After talking to a university professor who teaches creative writing, I have discovered that it is very rare to come across a course participant who has the talent and the right attitude to make it as a published author. Creativity, imagination, and observational skills are the key features of a good writer. These are unique characteristics that cannot be learnt, but stem from the personality of an individual. However, they can be practiced and developed – which should be the focus of attending a respectable creative writing course. Another vital aspect of literary success that should not be underestimated is the writer’s attitude towards criticism. Although it can be constructive, helping them improve their future work, writers often face useless, negative feedback. This can be the cause of self-doubt and low self-esteem, and it might even lead an aspiring writer to giving up writing altogether. Because of this, writers should develop ‘thick skin’ and avoid getting offended by what others say. In addition to this, while it is important for writers to separate useful from harmful criticism, they should also keep an open mind about the feedback they receive. This helps them create a bond with their audience, which has the advantage of improving a writer’s popularity. Which of the following summarizes the main message about creative writing courses?
    • They can help develop a writer's existing skills.
    • They can teach writers how to deal with harsh criticism.
    • They can be demotivating and offensive.
    • They can teach creativity and imagination.

    Correct answer: They can help develop a writer's existing skills.

    The passage suggests that a creative writing course can help a writer practice and develop skills such as creativity, imagination, and observation – skills that make up the backbone of good writing. They can be demotivating and offensive. This is incorrect. It is not the courses that can be demotivating and offensive, but the feedback and comments from the audience. They can teach writers how to deal with harsh criticism. This is incorrect because the paragraph mentions that writers should have (or develop) a positive attitude towards criticism. They can teach creativity and imagination. This is incorrect because courses can only help a writer practice and develop, rather than cultivate, creativity and imagination.

42. Studying at the Sound of Music What’s the soundtrack of your learning? What do you have in the background? Some people listen to the sound of birds singing, while others prefer that of the ocean waves. Research suggests that complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving. Most learners, however, prefer to listen to some music while studying. Studies have shown that music with lyrics can be distracting. This is because listening to the words of a song takes brain resources away from the studying process. It turns out that our brain has only so much power to work with at any given time! Despite this, another study shows that songs with unintelligible words do not have such a negative impact on your studying. However, if you are looking for music that can improve your studying and concentrating abilities, it is important to remember that different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains. Generally speaking, classical music is considered a good background choice for studying, but there are some exceptions. Explosive works like Respighi’s Pines of Rome or Rossini’s William Tell Overture may be too energetic for effective studying. As concluded by other studies on music and concentration, it appears that baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying. With 50 to 80 beats per minute, baroque music creates an ideal environment for studying by creating stable mental, physical, and emotional patterns. Another genre without lyrics is meditative music, regarded as a good study option as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music. This hypothesis is supported by studies that focus specifically on this kind of music. It has been found that meditative music, which contains what’s called “alpha” beats, stimulates alpha waves in the brain. These put our brains in a relaxed, yet alert, state, which allows the brain to better absorb and retain information and ideas. Meditative music also commonly includes sounds of nature, like croaking frogs or wind through the trees, which can improve cognitive function and concentration. They also efficiently conceal other sounds that interfere with studying, like people talking or road noise. A study on the correlation between music genres and studying demonstrates that each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre. This was carried out by comparing brain wave patterns reacting to different musical genres and a song selected by each study participant as a personal favorite. They found that neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre. The researcher shared their study results in their paper, titled “Network Science and the Effects of Music Preference on Functional Brain Connectivity: From Beethoven to Eminem.” So, listening to music can improve our concentration and ability to study, but that’s not all, as music is a gift that keeps on giving. It has been suggested that learning to play a musical instrument can strengthen our abilities involved in remembering information, and it could even enhance our IQ. Regardless of whether you can become more intelligent or not, you can use music to make studying more enjoyable and more effective. Ultimately, you know when you’re studying well and when you’re not, so try out some different genres and find out what works for you. Which of the following is evidence that supports the argument?
    • Classical music helps stabilize people’s minds and emotions.
    • The absence of lyrics prevents any form of distraction.
    • Specific styles of classical music have a fairly slow rhythm.
    • Alpha beats stimulate the brain waves that promote learning.

    Correct answer: Specific styles of classical music have a fairly slow rhythm.

    This is correct because Baroque music, which is a type of classical music, generally travels within 50 to 80 beats per minute. This implies that it has a fairly slow rhythm. Alpha beats stimulate the brain waves that promote learning. This is incorrect because alpha beats refer to meditative music, not classical music. Classical music helps stabilize people’s minds and emotions. This is incorrect because not every kind of classical music has the same effect on the brain. The absence of lyrics prevents any form of distraction. This is incorrect. Although it is true that lyrics can cause distraction, this statement does not provide sufficient evidence to support the argument.

43. Studying at the Sound of Music What’s the soundtrack of your learning? What do you have in the background? Some people listen to the sound of birds singing, while others prefer that of the ocean waves. Research suggests that complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving. Most learners, however, prefer to listen to some music while studying. Studies have shown that music with lyrics can be distracting. This is because listening to the words of a song takes brain resources away from the studying process. It turns out that our brain has only so much power to work with at any given time! Despite this, another study shows that songs with unintelligible words do not have such a negative impact on your studying. However, if you are looking for music that can improve your studying and concentrating abilities, it is important to remember that different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains. Generally speaking, classical music is considered a good background choice for studying, but there are some exceptions. Explosive works like Respighi’s Pines of Rome or Rossini’s William Tell Overture may be too energetic for effective studying. As concluded by other studies on music and concentration, it appears that baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying. With 50 to 80 beats per minute, baroque music creates an ideal environment for studying by creating stable mental, physical, and emotional patterns. Another genre without lyrics is meditative music, regarded as a good study option as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music. This hypothesis is supported by studies that focus specifically on this kind of music. It has been found that meditative music, which contains what’s called “alpha” beats, stimulates alpha waves in the brain. These put our brains in a relaxed, yet alert, state, which allows the brain to better absorb and retain information and ideas. Meditative music also commonly includes sounds of nature, like croaking frogs or wind through the trees, which can improve cognitive function and concentration. They also efficiently conceal other sounds that interfere with studying, like people talking or road noise. A study on the correlation between music genres and studying demonstrates that each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre. This was carried out by comparing brain wave patterns reacting to different musical genres and a song selected by each study participant as a personal favorite. They found that neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre. The researcher shared their study results in their paper, titled “Network Science and the Effects of Music Preference on Functional Brain Connectivity: From Beethoven to Eminem.” So, listening to music can improve our concentration and ability to study, but that’s not all, as music is a gift that keeps on giving. It has been suggested that learning to play a musical instrument can strengthen our abilities involved in remembering information, and it could even enhance our IQ. Regardless of whether you can become more intelligent or not, you can use music to make studying more enjoyable and more effective. Ultimately, you know when you’re studying well and when you’re not, so try out some different genres and find out what works for you. Which of the following is a claim that supports the argument of the passage?
    • Not all classical music is equal in its effects.
    • Classical music does not help relaxation.
    • Meditative music is not a better option.
    • Fast-paced music is not suitable for studying.

    Correct answer: Not all classical music is equal in its effects.

    This is correct because the passage states that “different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains”. More specifically, “there are some exceptions” to the pieces of classical music that are beneficial to our learning processes. Classical music does not help relaxation. This is incorrect because the passage doesn’t mention ‘relaxation’ in relation to classical music. Meditative music is not a better option. This is incorrect because the passage states, “Another genre without lyrics is meditative music, regarded as a good study option as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music”. Fast-paced music is not suitable for studying. This is incorrect. Although it is suggested that a slower pace of music might be more beneficial when studying, the passage states that “cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their preferred music, regardless of the genre”.

44. Studying at the Sound of Music What’s the soundtrack of your learning? What do you have in the background? Some people listen to the sound of birds singing, while others prefer that of the ocean waves. Research suggests that complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving. Most learners, however, prefer to listen to some music while studying. Studies have shown that music with lyrics can be distracting. This is because listening to the words of a song takes brain resources away from the studying process. It turns out that our brain has only so much power to work with at any given time! Despite this, another study shows that songs with unintelligible words do not have such a negative impact on your studying. However, if you are looking for music that can improve your studying and concentrating abilities, it is important to remember that different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains. Generally speaking, classical music is considered a good background choice for studying, but there are some exceptions. Explosive works like Respighi’s Pines of Rome or Rossini’s William Tell Overture may be too energetic for effective studying. As concluded by other studies on music and concentration, it appears that baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying. With 50 to 80 beats per minute, baroque music creates an ideal environment for studying by creating stable mental, physical, and emotional patterns. Another genre without lyrics is meditative music, regarded as a good study option as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music. This hypothesis is supported by studies that focus specifically on this kind of music. It has been found that meditative music, which contains what’s called “alpha” beats, stimulates alpha waves in the brain. These put our brains in a relaxed, yet alert, state, which allows the brain to better absorb and retain information and ideas. Meditative music also commonly includes sounds of nature, like croaking frogs or wind through the trees, which can improve cognitive function and concentration. They also efficiently conceal other sounds that interfere with studying, like people talking or road noise. A study on the correlation between music genres and studying demonstrates that each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre. This was carried out by comparing brain wave patterns reacting to different musical genres and a song selected by each study participant as a personal favorite. They found that neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre. The researcher shared their study results in their paper, titled “Network Science and the Effects of Music Preference on Functional Brain Connectivity: From Beethoven to Eminem.” So, listening to music can improve our concentration and ability to study, but that’s not all, as music is a gift that keeps on giving. It has been suggested that learning to play a musical instrument can strengthen our abilities involved in remembering information, and it could even enhance our IQ. Regardless of whether you can become more intelligent or not, you can use music to make studying more enjoyable and more effective. Ultimately, you know when you’re studying well and when you’re not, so try out some different genres and find out what works for you. What is the primary argument of the passage?
    • Some classical music can be beneficial to our learning skills.
    • Your favorite songs can improve your studying abilities.
    • Classical music can have an impact on our mood.
    • Song lyrics can undermine your studying efforts.

    Correct answer: Some classical music can be beneficial to our learning skills.

    This is correct because the passage states, “As concluded by other studies on music and concentration, it appears that baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying”. Song lyrics can undermine your studying efforts. This is incorrect. Although this statement may be accurate, it is not the primary argument of the passage. Classical music can have an impact on our mood. This is incorrect since there is no evidence to support this in the passage. Your favorite songs can improve your studying abilities. This is incorrect. Although this statement may be accurate, it is not the primary argument of the passage.

45. A Prayer in Spring Oh, give us pleasure in the flowers to-day; And give us not to think so far away As the uncertain harvest; keep us here All simply in the springing of the year. The Secret Garden They always called it Magic and indeed it seemed like it in the months that followed—the wonderful months—the radiant months—the amazing ones. Oh! the things which happened in that garden! If you have never had a garden you cannot understand, and if you have had a garden you will know that it would take a whole book to describe all that came to pass there. At first it seemed that green things would never cease pushing their way through the earth, in the grass, in the beds, even in the crevices of the walls. Then the green things began to show buds and the buds began to unfurl and show color, every shade of blue, every shade of purple, every tint and hue of crimson. In its happy days flowers had been tucked away into every inch and hole and corner. Which of the following is a difference between the poem and the passage?
    • Only the passage shows excitement for nature’s transformation.
    • Only the poem describes what is observed in nature.
    • Only the poem talks about nature in a positive way.
    • Only the passage mentions how nature changes over time.

    Correct answer: Only the passage shows excitement for nature’s transformation.

    This is correct because the passage states, “in the months that followed—the wonderful months—the radiant months—the amazing ones”. This clearly indicates an excitement about the changes that time brings to nature. On the contrary, the poem shows concern and worry about those changes. Only the passage mentions how nature changes. This is incorrect because both texts mention the changes that nature endures with the passage of time. Only the passage talks about nature. This is incorrect because both the poem and the text focus on a ‘nature’ theme and express positive feelings about it. Only the poem describes what is observed. This is incorrect because the passage also describes what is seen in nature (e.g. shades of colors).

46. Detecting Microplastics Information received from NASA satellites can be now used to track the movement of microplastics, thanks to a team of scientists from the University of Michigan. Microplastics are tiny pieces of plastic trash broken down by the sun’s rays and the motion of ocean waves. Because ocean currents can carry these plastic particles far away from where they originated, it can become very difficult to track them and remove them. It has been observed that microplastics are present in smoother waters because they can affect the ocean roughness. Data from a group of eight small satellites can help scientists predict where microplastics congregate by following ocean and wind speed calculations. Currently, fisher boat trawlers are the main source of information about the locations of microplastics, as they use nets to catch plankton and, accidentally, microplastics. However, the new technique demonstrates that satellite data can successfully track ocean microplastic from space. This might transform the way in which we tackle water pollution. As microplastics are harmful to marine organisms and ecosystems, this can be considered a ground-breaking discovery. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?
    • Fish and other creatures are endangered because of microplastics.
    • This new technique might damage the underwater environment.
    • In the future, satellites will help reduce water pollution.
    • Scientists are experimenting on the use of satellites.

    Correct answer: In the future, satellites will help reduce water pollution.

    Using satellite data would help identify where microplastics are located, which would make it easier to remove them and consequently, to tackle water pollution. Fish and other creatures are endangered because of microplastics. This is incorrect. Although this statement is accurate, it is not a prediction. This new technique might damage the underwater environment. This is incorrect because this technique might actually save the environment. Scientists are experimenting on the use of satellites. This is incorrect because there is no mention of this in the last line.

47. The Secret I loved thee, though I told thee not, Right earlily and long, Thou wert my joy in every spot, My theme in every song. And when I saw a stranger face Where beauty held the claim, I gave it like a secret grace The being of thy name. And all the charms of face or voice Which I in others see Are but the recollected choice Of what I felt for thee. Pride and Prejudice In spite of her deeply-rooted dislike, she could not be insensible to the compliment of such a man’s affection, and though her intentions did not vary for an instant, she was at first sorry for the pain he was to receive; till, roused to resentment by his subsequent language, she lost all compassion in anger. Which of the following is a common theme between the poem and the passage?
    • Growing up means making difficult choices.
    • Love can cause suffering.
    • Beauty is in the eye of the beholder.
    • Dreams and aspirations lead to disappointment.

    Correct answer: Love can cause suffering.

    This is correct because both texts clearly express how a broken heart causes pain. Beauty is in the eye of the beholder. This is incorrect because there is no discussion of the ‘beauty’ theme in the paragraph. Growing up means making difficult choices. This is incorrect because there is no evidence of the ‘coming of age’ or ‘growing up’ theme in either text. Dreams and aspirations lead to disappointment. This is incorrect because there is no evidence of the ‘dreams and aspirations’ theme in either text, although the feeling of disappointment appears in both.

48. Aphantasia The term ‘aphantasia’ was coined in 2015 from the Greek words ‘a’ and ‘phantasia’ meaning ‘without’ and ‘imagination’ respectively. It describes a neurological condition that causes an inability to visualise mental images of thoughts, memories, people, and places, even if they are very familiar. Although the term was coined not so long ago, the actual condition of having a blind mind’s eye was reported by Sir Francis Galton in one of his studies about mental imagery in 1880. While the cause of aphantasia is currently unknown, it has been discovered that it is often a congenital condition. It can also occur after a brain injury. This phenomenon, however, remains highly understudied overall. For those who aren’t affected by aphantasia, creating images in their minds is such an important part of their lives that they cannot imagine what life would be without it. Nevertheless, there are some advantages to having aphantasia, such as the inability to recall vivid images of past traumas and a high ability to concentrate. Which of the following defines ‘aphantasia’?
    • It is a congenital condition that doesn't allow the visualization of mental images.
    • It is a neurological condition that affects people's ability to create mental images.
    • It is an understudied condition that doesn’t allow those affected to be creative.
    • It is a condition that remains difficult to explain to those who aren't affected by it.

    Correct answer: It is a neurological condition that affects people's ability to create mental images.

    This answer option provides the type and description of the condition, therefore it correctly and briefly summarizes it. It is a congenital condition that doesn’t allow the visualisation of mental images. This is incorrect. Aphantasia is not always a congenital condition. It can also occur after a brain injury. It is an understudied condition that doesn’t allow those affected to be creative. This is incorrect. This statement is not only untrue, but also fails to provide sufficient information about the topic. It is a condition that remains difficult to explain to those who aren’t affected by it. This is incorrect. Although the statement is accurate, it doesn’t summarize the topic.

49. Dragon Man In June 2021, a group of paleontologists announced the discovery of a new human species named Homo Longi. This discovery was brought to light after the study of a nearly intact cranium found in China in 1933. The nickname Dragon Man comes from the name of the region in which the skull was found – the Black Dragon River. According to the researchers, the skull belonged to a large male individual who lived approximately 146,000 years ago in a forested area. He was around 50 years of age, hunted mammals and birds, gathered fruits and vegetables, and was perhaps able to catch fish. It is Homo Longi‘s large size that might have made it easier for the species to travel long distances and adapt to harsh conditions. This is the largest Homo skull ever found, and while some characteristics separate this species from us, its size brings it closer to the description of a modern human, i.e. Homo Sapiens. Therefore, Homo Longi appears to be a sister species of Homo Sapiens. This evidence demonstrates that Homo Sapiens did not evolve directly from the Neanderthal, as was previously believed. However, many scientists argue that there isn’t enough physical and genetic difference between the species to consider them separate from each other. Which of the following is an inference that can be made about Homo Longi?
    • The Dragon Man is the closest relative of Homo Sapiens.
    • Modern humans didn't evolve from Homo Sapiens.
    • Neanderthals are the sister species of Homo Longi.
    • The progression of human evolution cannot be established.

    Correct answer: The Dragon Man is the closest relative of Homo Sapiens.

    Dragon Man In June 2021, a group of paleontologists announced the discovery of a new human species named Homo Longi. This discovery was brought to light after the study of a nearly intact cranium found in China in 1933. The nickname Dragon Man comes from the name of the region in which the skull was found – the Black Dragon River. According to the researchers, the skull belonged to a large male individual who lived approximately 146,000 years ago in a forested area. He was around 50 years of age, hunted mammals and birds, gathered fruits and vegetables, and was perhaps able to catch fish. It is Homo Longi‘s large size that might have made it easier for the species to travel long distances and adapt to harsh conditions. This is the largest Homo skull ever found, and while some characteristics separate this species from us, its size brings it closer to the description of a modern human, i.e. Homo Sapiens. Therefore, Homo Longi appears to be a sister species of Homo Sapiens. This evidence demonstrates that Homo Sapiens did not evolve directly from the Neanderthal, as was previously believed. However, many scientists argue that there isn’t enough physical and genetic difference between the species to consider them separate from each other. Which of the following is an inference that can be made about Homo Longi?

50. The Secret I loved thee, though I told thee not, Right earlily and long, Thou wert my joy in every spot, My theme in every song. And when I saw a stranger face Where beauty held the claim, I gave it like a secret grace The being of thy name. And all the charms of face or voice Which I in others see Are but the recollected choice Of what I felt for thee. Pride and Prejudice In spite of her deeply-rooted dislike, she could not be insensible to the compliment of such a man’s affection, and though her intentions did not vary for an instant, she was at first sorry for the pain he was to receive; till, roused to resentment by his subsequent language, she lost all compassion in anger. Which of the following is a difference between the poem and the passage?
    • In the poem, one of the characters is rejected.
    • Only the passage describes characters with mutual feelings.
    • In the poem, feelings are never expressed.
    • Only the passage talks about strong feelings.

    Correct answer: In the poem, feelings are never expressed.

    This is correct because despite being in love, the poet never expressed his feelings to his loved one. In the passage, however, it is implied that the woman is about to tell the man how she feels, regardless of how it will impact him. In the poem, one of the characters is rejected. This is incorrect because both texts describe a situation in which those who have fallen in love are rejected. Only the passage talks about strong feelings. This is incorrect because the poem talks about the feeling of love for someone who cannot be replaced, while the passage describes a ‘deep-rooted dislike’. Only the passage describes characters with mutual feelings. This is incorrect because in neither of the texts, the characters have mutual feelings.

51. Aphantasia The term ‘aphantasia’ was coined in 2015 from the Greek words ‘a’ and ‘phantasia’ meaning ‘without’ and ‘imagination’ respectively. It describes a neurological condition that causes an inability to visualise mental images of thoughts, memories, people, and places, even if they are very familiar. Although the term was coined not so long ago, the actual condition of having a blind mind’s eye was reported by Sir Francis Galton in one of his studies about mental imagery in 1880. While the cause of aphantasia is currently unknown, it has been discovered that it is often a congenital condition. It can also occur after a brain injury. This phenomenon, however, remains highly understudied overall. For those who aren’t affected by aphantasia, creating images in their minds is such an important part of their lives that they cannot imagine what life would be without it. Nevertheless, there are some advantages to having aphantasia, such as the inability to recall vivid images of past traumas and a high ability to concentrate. Which of the following is an inference that can be made about ‘aphantasia’?
    • The advantages of having aphantasia outweigh its disadvantages.
    • Understanding how aphantasia can affect one's life is difficult.
    • More research should be done on this condition.
    • People affected by aphantasia cannot live a fulfilling life.

    Correct answer: Understanding how aphantasia can affect one's life is difficult.

    In paragraph #3, it is mentioned that people not affected by aphantasia are unable to imagine their lives without mental images. As a result, they might struggle to understand how aphantasia can affect one’s life. People affected by aphantasia cannot live a fulfilling life. This is incorrect since there is no evidence in the text that supports it. More research should be done on this condition. This is incorrect. While the text notes that aphantasia is understudied, it doesn’t suggest that there is a need to study it further. The advantages of having aphantasia outweigh its disadvantages. This is incorrect because the text doesn’t compare the advantages of aphantasia to its disadvantages.

52. The Future of Space Exploration Since the first moon landing, many probes have been sent across the solar system, while our spacecraft have orbited around, surveyed, and landed on several planets. Astronauts have already performed extensive experiments on the dangers and requirements of living in space-bound habitats. It seems logical, then, to expect astronauts of the future to repair equipment sent millions of miles away from Earth. Space isn’t a suitable place for a delicate species like us. The conditions in which humans can survive are limited — we need the right amount of pressure, oxygen, water, temperature, radiation, and acceleration, or we die. In fact, we need protective clothing and technology even to explore many areas of our own planet. After all, space exploration is necessary for the human species, as we will have to leave our biosphere when the sun turns into a red giant. But shouldn’t we send robots to do the exploring instead of humans? Robots don’t die — not like humans, anyway. They are designed to withstand extremely harsh conditions that humans would never be able to endure. If one of the robots breaks down or is lost, it can be rebuilt. For humans, it doesn’t work quite like that. We have always imagined artificial servants or artificial minds that exist for the sole purpose of fulfilling human needs. So, perhaps, the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI) is to live and explore space on our behalf. Current robotic explorers are rare and hence extremely expensive, requiring endless pre-mission modeling and careful actions. But robotics is becoming cheaper and more adaptable, as are the ways to hurl them beyond our atmosphere. As space access becomes cheaper, we should expect a more ruthless use of robots. However, we find it impossible to resist the charm of human space exploration, despite its risks. Knowledge and achievements aren’t enough for us — we want to be there to witness the unfolding of our success. First of all, sending humans into space adds glory to our lives. Overcoming the plethora of challenges that come with long-term spaceflight inspires and delights us. Many of us would consider a human landing on Mars as an achievement of paramount importance for our species, not only for personal satisfaction, but also for national pride. Furthermore, the desire for raw materials in order to make profits is one of the greatest incentives that space exploration has to offer. Of course, this poses the moral dilemma that we might not be able to repair any damage we cause, therefore blurring our knowledge of the origin and organization of life in the solar system. The main motivation that will keep us going is that it is challenging and fascinating: humans are ambitious creatures that strive to achieve what is nearly impossible, and be present for the occasion. I wonder if AI will ever be able to learn this very human trait! Meanwhile, it would be useful to consider the advantages that our automated explorers currently maintain over their human counterparts. Which of the following is evidence that supports the primary argument of this text?
    • Robots are more durable and can perform in any climate.
    • Astronauts can carry out dangerous and demanding missions.
    • Acquiring profitable resources is an incentive for space exploration.
    • Cheaper equipment will make the use of robots more widespread.

    Correct answer: Robots are more durable and can perform in any climate.

    Referring to robots, the passage states, “They are designed to withstand extremely harsh conditions that humans would never be able to endure”. This makes robots more suitable for risky missions into space. Acquiring profitable resources as an incentive for space exploration. This is incorrect. Although it is mentioned in the passage, this statement does not support the primary argument of the passage. Cheaper equipment will make the use of robots more widespread. This is incorrect. Although this statement is true, it does not support the primary argument of the passage. Astronauts can carry out dangerous and demanding missions. This is incorrect because it does not support the primary argument of the passage despite being true.

53. The Future of Space Exploration Since the first moon landing, many probes have been sent across the solar system, while our spacecraft have orbited around, surveyed, and landed on several planets. Astronauts have already performed extensive experiments on the dangers and requirements of living in space-bound habitats. It seems logical, then, to expect astronauts of the future to repair equipment sent millions of miles away from Earth. Space isn’t a suitable place for a delicate species like us. The conditions in which humans can survive are limited — we need the right amount of pressure, oxygen, water, temperature, radiation, and acceleration, or we die. In fact, we need protective clothing and technology even to explore many areas of our own planet. After all, space exploration is necessary for the human species, as we will have to leave our biosphere when the sun turns into a red giant. But shouldn’t we send robots to do the exploring instead of humans? Robots don’t die — not like humans, anyway. They are designed to withstand extremely harsh conditions that humans would never be able to endure. If one of the robots breaks down or is lost, it can be rebuilt. For humans, it doesn’t work quite like that. We have always imagined artificial servants or artificial minds that exist for the sole purpose of fulfilling human needs. So, perhaps, the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI) is to live and explore space on our behalf. Current robotic explorers are rare and hence extremely expensive, requiring endless pre-mission modeling and careful actions. But robotics is becoming cheaper and more adaptable, as are the ways to hurl them beyond our atmosphere. As space access becomes cheaper, we should expect a more ruthless use of robots. However, we find it impossible to resist the charm of human space exploration, despite its risks. Knowledge and achievements aren’t enough for us — we want to be there to witness the unfolding of our success. First of all, sending humans into space adds glory to our lives. Overcoming the plethora of challenges that come with long-term spaceflight inspires and delights us. Many of us would consider a human landing on Mars as an achievement of paramount importance for our species, not only for personal satisfaction, but also for national pride. Furthermore, the desire for raw materials in order to make profits is one of the greatest incentives that space exploration has to offer. Of course, this poses the moral dilemma that we might not be able to repair any damage we cause, therefore blurring our knowledge of the origin and organization of life in the solar system. The main motivation that will keep us going is that it is challenging and fascinating: humans are ambitious creatures that strive to achieve what is nearly impossible, and be present for the occasion. I wonder if AI will ever be able to learn this very human trait! Meanwhile, it would be useful to consider the advantages that our automated explorers currently maintain over their human counterparts. Which of the following is a claim that supports the argument of the passage?
    • Humans need specific conditions to survive.
    • Artificial Intelligence will work instead of us.
    • Machines, unlike people, are expendable.
    • Advances in technology improve exploration.

    Correct answer: Machines, unlike people, are expendable.

    The passage states, “If one of the robots breaks down or is lost, it can be rebuilt. For humans, it doesn’t work quite like that”. This is the main claim that supports the argument of avoiding human losses by pushing for automated space exploration. Artificial Intelligence will work instead of us. This is incorrect. Although the text mentions AI exploring space instead of humans, there is no mention of ‘work’ in general. Advances in technology improve exploration. This is incorrect because there is no evidence to support it in the passage. Humans need specific conditions to survive. This is incorrect. Although this statement is true, it is not a claim that supports the argument of the passage.

54. Dragon Man In June 2021, a group of paleontologists announced the discovery of a new human species named Homo Longi. This discovery was brought to light after the study of a nearly intact cranium found in China in 1933. The nickname Dragon Man comes from the name of the region in which the skull was found – the Black Dragon River. According to the researchers, the skull belonged to a large male individual who lived approximately 146,000 years ago in a forested area. He was around 50 years of age, hunted mammals and birds, gathered fruits and vegetables, and was perhaps able to catch fish. It is Homo Longi‘s large size that might have made it easier for the species to travel long distances and adapt to harsh conditions. This is the largest Homo skull ever found, and while some characteristics separate this species from us, its size brings it closer to the description of a modern human, i.e. Homo Sapiens. Therefore, Homo Longi appears to be a sister species of Homo Sapiens. This evidence demonstrates that Homo Sapiens did not evolve directly from the Neanderthal, as was previously believed. However, many scientists argue that there isn’t enough physical and genetic difference between the species to consider them separate from each other. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?
    • Further research will be carried out on existing evidence.
    • Scientists cannot decide if Homo Longi is a new species.
    • Further evidence is needed for scientists to agree.
    • Homo Longi has similar characteristics to Homo Sapiens.

    Correct answer: Further evidence is needed for scientists to agree.

    The study of the current evidence available hasn’t provided enough information about the issue. That further evidence is needed for scientists to agree is therefore a valid prediction. Scientists cannot decide if Homo Longi is a new species. This is incorrect. Although the statement is accurate, it is not a prediction. Research will be carried out on existing evidence. This is incorrect because research has already been carried out and it has provided insufficient information about the issue. Homo Longi has similar characteristics to Homo Sapiens. This is incorrect. Although the statement is accurate, it is not a prediction.

55. A Prayer in Spring Oh, give us pleasure in the flowers to-day; And give us not to think so far away As the uncertain harvest; keep us here All simply in the springing of the year. The Secret Garden They always called it Magic and indeed it seemed like it in the months that followed—the wonderful months—the radiant months—the amazing ones. Oh! the things which happened in that garden! If you have never had a garden you cannot understand, and if you have had a garden you will know that it would take a whole book to describe all that came to pass there. At first it seemed that green things would never cease pushing their way through the earth, in the grass, in the beds, even in the crevices of the walls. Then the green things began to show buds and the buds began to unfurl and show color, every shade of blue, every shade of purple, every tint and hue of crimson. In its happy days flowers had been tucked away into every inch and hole and corner. Which of the following has a common theme between the poem and the passage?
    • The seasons mark the stages of life.
    • Hope for better times to come.
    • People marvel at nature’s wonders.
    • Solitude brings peace to the mind.

    Correct answer: People marvel at nature’s wonders.

    This is correct because both texts follow a ‘nature’ theme. In the poem, the author is expressing his wish to enjoy what Spring has to offer. In the paragraph, the unfolding of nature is compared to magic – something inexplicable and wonderful that happens under the eyes of those who observe it. Hope for better times to come. This is incorrect because in the poem, the author doesn’t want to think about the future (e.g. “not to think so far away” / “keep us here”). Solitude brings peace to the mind. This is incorrect because there is no evidence of this in either text. The seasons mark the stages of life. This is incorrect because in the paragraph, “stages of life” (or growing up/old) are not mentioned.

56. Franco just finished reading a novel with a ‘moral corruption’ theme. It is about a man who trades his soul for an ever-youthful appearance and lives a dissolute and evil life, while the portrait that represents his soul rots away. Which of the following has a similar theme?
    • A song about a woman who feels taken for granted by her partner and demands respect from him.
    • A play about a nobleman who, blinded by his lust for power, kills a good king to take his place and keeps on killing to secure his place on the throne.
    • A movie about a curious and inquisitive young woman who plays a major role in the lives of those around her.
    • A poem about the relief and deep sadness of the army troops coming home after the end of a war.

    Correct answer: A play about a nobleman who, blinded by his lust for power, kills a good king to take his place and keeps on killing to secure his place on the throne.

    This is correct since it shows that moral corruption can lead people to commit cruel acts and walk all over anyone to achieve their goals. A poem about the relief and deep sadness of the army troops coming home after the end of a war. This is incorrect because it doesn’t involve the ‘moral corruption’ theme. A movie about a curious and inquisitive young woman who plays a major role in the lives of those around her. This is incorrect because there is no evidence of ‘moral corruption’ in this statement. A song about a man who feels taken for granted by his partner and demands respect from her. This is incorrect because it is more suited to the theme of ‘love’.

57. Jean just finished reading a novel with a ‘dreams and aspirations’ theme about a shepherd boy who embarks on a journey during which he learns to listen to his heart in order to achieve his dreams. Which of the following has a contrasting theme?
    • A play about the members of a poor family, each with their own hopes for the future.
    • A graphic novel about a teeneger who spends his free time trying to build a time machine.
    • A song about working towards your own goals and never giving up.
    • A movie about a woman who joins her friend on a trip to settle their differences.

    Correct answer: A movie about a woman who joins her friend on a trip to settle their differences.

    This is correct since it shows characteristics of the ‘friendship’ theme. A song about working towards your own goals and never giving up. This is incorrect because these are the core features of the ‘dreams and aspirations’ theme. A play about the members of a poor family, each with their own hopes for the future. This is incorrect because it suggests that everyone has hopes and dreams. A graphic novel about a teeneger who spends his free time trying to build a time machine. This is incorrect because the main character has a goal that he wants to achieve.

58. Chess Boxing Chess boxing is a sport that combines mental ability and physical strength, and appeals to a wide range of people, from the office worker to the martial art fighter. This sport was invented by a French artist for his comic books in 1992, but it took over a decade for the first chess boxing match to happen in real life, in Germany. In each match there are 11 total rounds of both boxing and chess. The boxing rounds last three minutes, while the chess ones last four. To win the match, players need to beat their opponents at either boxing or chess, not both. The player with the highest score wins. Those who practice it say that the challenge of switching from mental focus to physical strain is what keeps them engaged in this sport. They also believe that it helps them develop a flexible attitude that can be useful in every-day situations. Fireball Soccer Football (or soccer, in the USA) is probably the most popular sport in the world among people of all ages, but what about fireball soccer? Known as Sepak Bola Api in Indonesia, this sport is often played by students to test their courage. In this sport, a leather football is replaced with a coconut soaked in petrol or pure alcohol and set on fire. The players cover themselves in salt to avoid burning themselves before kicking the ball of fire with their bare feet. During the month before this dangerous match, the players spend their time praying. By doing so, they hope to develop their inner strength that should prevent them from being afraid of the fire and should protect their bodies from getting hurt. Fireball soccer is without a doubt a fascinating sport to watch, but it takes truly brave people to play it. Which of the following is a common theme between the passages given above?
    • Mental and physical strength are equally important.
    • Courage is not the absence of fear.
    • Good things come to those who wait.
    • Work hard, play hard.

    Correct answer: Mental and physical strength are equally important.

    This is correct because the passages state that players require physical strength and mental preparation to face the challenges that these unusual sports pose. Good things come to those who wait. This is incorrect because there is no evidence supporting this statement in the passage. Courage is not the absence of fear. This is incorrect because the ‘fear’ theme is not mentioned in the passages. Work hard, play hard. This is incorrect because even if both sports require hard work and intense preparation, the ‘work hard, play hard’ theme is not present in the passages.

59. AI and Nursing Artificial Intelligence (AI) is progressing at an exponential rate. These advances could radically transform the healthcare industry, which is investing in quality preventive care and moving away from occasional assistance. To support these changes, outdated policies should be replaced by a series of new and flexible reforms that can adapt to and work with the science of robotics. Hopefully, this will ensure that nurses in all settings can continue to play a pivotal role in the healthcare landscape, trusting that AI will enhance their skills without posing a threat to their position. There is no doubt that this technological innovation will transform the way in which healthcare workers perform their day-to-day tasks. Which of the following is an exaggerated claim in support of the argument presented in the passage?
    • AI will have a major impact on nursing.
    • Nurses will soon be replaced by machines.
    • New regulations are needed to support AI.
    • The healthcare system is developing fast.

    Correct answer: Nurses will soon be replaced by machines.

    This is correct because, in references to nurses, the passage states, “AI will enhance their skills without posing a threat to their position”. New regulations are needed to support AI. This is incorrect because it is not an exaggeration. The passage states, “outdated policies should be replaced by a series of new and flexible reforms that can adapt to and work with the science of robotics”. The healthcare system is developing fast. This is incorrect because it is not an exaggeration. The passage states, “These advances could radically transform the healthcare industry, which is investing in quality preventive care, moving from occasional assistance”, implying that the development has already started. AI will have a major impact on nursing. This is incorrect because it is not an exaggeration. The passage states, “There is no doubt that this technological innovation will transform the way in which healthcare workers perform their day-to-day tasks”.

60. I bought a new bag to match my shoes. Match v. 1. a short, thin piece of wood used to light a fire 2. a sports contest in which people compete against each other 3. to be equal to something in quality or strength 4. to put things together to look pleasant and harmonious. Which of the following dictionary definitions best fits the word match as used in context?
    • Entry 4
    • Entry 3
    • Entry 2
    • Entry 1

    Correct answer: Entry 4

    This is correct because the context implies that the new bag looks good (match) with the shoes, perhaps in terms of color or style. Entry 1 is incorrect. This is because the context is completely different and this entry describes a thing or a noun. The correct use of Entry 1 is as follows: “I can’t light this candle with this match. Can I borrow your lighter?” Entry 2 is incorrect. This is because the context is completely different and this entry describes a thing or a noun. The correct use of Entry 2 is as follows: “What a great match – we won 3-1!” Entry 4 is incorrect. The correct use of Entry 4 is as follows: “Her smile didn’t match her feelings,” implying that she is pretending to be happy by smiling, while she might feel different feelings like anger or sadness.

61. Dealing with Distractions while Studying: If you find yourself overly distracted while studying, you may need to take some steps to establish a peaceful environment before you even begin studying. With an environment free of distractions, you can use your time more efficiently. First, assess your needs. It’s important to be honest with yourself here. People often cannot resist the temptation of a certain environmental feature and will try to convince themselves they can study in its presence. For example, you may want to study while watching your favorite television show, but realistically, the best case scenario here is a divided attention. If what you’re studying is even a bit challenging, you will need more focus than what you’ll be able to devote when you’re also watching television. Be honest, therefore, about what can or cannot be in your environment while you study. You may need to be away from the television, your phone, and possibly even family members. Once you’ve decided on a distraction-free environment, take stock of all the things that you will need with you for an effective study session. This will certainly include your reading material and may also include things like a notebook, pens, highlighters, folders, coffee, water, and snacks. If you have all these things with you when you begin your study session, you won’t have to interrupt your study time to get them. This is important because leaving your study environment creates chances for distraction. You may go to the kitchen for a cup of coffee and find yourself in an extended conversation with a family member. By the time you make it back to your study environment, you may have lost your motivation, or you may have to move on to other life tasks.With a distraction-free environment, you’ll be able to spend less time studying because you’ll be using your time more efficiently. You’ll also feel more accomplished and better about studying, which will make it easier to come back to it with the consistency that you’ll need to make progress. With a little preparation work, you can establish a good environment and develop positive study habits.
    • Sequence
    • Persuasive
    • Comparison-contrast
    • Narrative

    Correct answer: Sequence

    This is correct because the passage explains how to set up a good study environment through a sequence of steps. Persuasive is incorrect. The passage does not argue or take a position on the given topic. Comparison-contrast is incorrect. The passage does not compare two subjects on the same points. Narrative is incorrect. The passage is not structured like a story.

62. The Dewey Decimal Classes: 000 Computer science, information, and general works 100 Philosophy and psychology 200 Religion 300 Social sciences 400 Languages 500 Science and mathematics 600 Technical and applied science 700 Arts and recreation 800 Literature 900 History, geography, and biography. During her research, Marta discovers that India was once a British colony. To which section of the library should she go to find out about the fall of the British empire?
    • 300
    • 100
    • 800
    • 900

    Correct answer: 900

    The History, geography, and biography section contains collected accounts of events, therefore it is the correct place to look for a historical event such as the fall of an empire. 100 is incorrect. The Philosophy and psychology section contains subjects like Metaphysics and Ethics, therefore it is not the correct place to look for a historical event such as the fall of an empire. 300 is incorrect. The Social sciences section contains subjects like Political science, Economics, and Law, therefore it is not the correct place to look for a historical event such as the fall of an empire. 800 is incorrect. The Literature section contains poetry and fiction, therefore it is not the correct place to look for a historical event such as the fall of an empire.

63. Play Therapy: Some might associate vibrant colored blocks and crayons with frivolity. For children, playing is not an absent way to kill time. Playing is a primary way for children to interpret experiences and communicate. So, mental health professionals have utilized play in children’s therapy since the early 1900s. Child-Centered Play Therapy (CCPT) resembles person-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers. It is the most prevalent play therapy approach in the U.S. The Association for Play Therapy (APT) was established in 1982. It has published many findings, developed training, and contributed to the rapid growth of play therapy over the past few decades. A well-trained therapist uses individualized play therapy in a variety of clinical applications. CCPT aims for children aged three to ten years. Ages two to ten (preoperational stage) have emerging abilities to represent surroundings in words and images. Four to seven is when reasoning and self-regulation skills develop. Cognition grows in complexity during the concrete operational stage from seven to eleven. Then comes abstract thought and deduction during the adolescent formal operational stage. Play therapy adapts to older children and adolescents, too. They begin to experience deeper emotional complexity and social relationships. Play therapy’s versatility and capacity to access nonverbal parts of the brain suits a host of challenges in addition to a range of age groups. It helps address aggression, ADHD, anxiety, depression, speech problems, and trauma. The principles behind CCPT mirror Carl Rogers’ standards. They emphasize empathy, acceptance, and unconditional positive regard for the client. The idea is to facilitate the child’s innate propensity for growth and self-directed healing. Therapists find imaginative ways to visualize difficult concepts, navigate relationships, and build confidence. CCPT appears in more than 90 cross-cultural studies spanning seven decades, including meta-analyses. The research shows encouraging outcomes for children across diverse circumstances and conditions. It works because play is a natural, enjoyable, and enriching state. It meets children where they are, to help them unlock their inner selves. Which of the following is the author’s main purpose for paragraph 2?
    • To explain how CCPT can be used for different age groups and for different purposes
    • To explain the foundational principles of CCPT
    • To explain how CCPT can be useful for older children and adolescents
    • To explain how CCPT has changed over the years

    Correct answer: To explain how CCPT can be used for different age groups and for different purposes

    This is correct. The paragraph discusses qualities of various ages as they apply to CCPT usage. It also touches on the question of how these uses include treatments of various conditions. To explain the foundation principles of CCPT. This is incorrect because it would apply more to paragraph 3. To explain how CCPT has changed over the years. This is incorrect. Years are mentioned in paragraph 1, but not to chart the change over the years. To explain how CCPT can be useful for older children and adolescents. This is incorrect because while it is mentioned in paragraph 2, it is not the main idea or purpose of the entire paragraph.

64. Play Therapy: Some might associate vibrant colored blocks and crayons with frivolity. For children, playing is not an absent way to kill time. Playing is a primary way for children to interpret experiences and communicate. So, mental health professionals have utilized play in children’s therapy since the early 1900s. Child-Centered Play Therapy (CCPT) resembles person-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers. It is the most prevalent play therapy approach in the U.S. The Association for Play Therapy (APT) was established in 1982. It has published many findings, developed training, and contributed to the rapid growth of play therapy over the past few decades. A well-trained therapist uses individualized play therapy in a variety of clinical applications. CCPT aims for children aged three to ten years. Ages two to ten (preoperational stage) have emerging abilities to represent surroundings in words and images. Four to seven is when reasoning and self-regulation skills develop. Cognition grows in complexity during the concrete operational stage from seven to eleven. Then comes abstract thought and deduction during the adolescent formal operational stage. Play therapy adapts to older children and adolescents, too. They begin to experience deeper emotional complexity and social relationships. Play therapy’s versatility and capacity to access nonverbal parts of the brain suits a host of challenges in addition to a range of age groups. It helps address aggression, ADHD, anxiety, depression, speech problems, and trauma. The principles behind CCPT mirror Carl Rogers’ standards. They emphasize empathy, acceptance, and unconditional positive regard for the client. The idea is to facilitate the child’s innate propensity for growth and self-directed healing. Therapists find imaginative ways to visualize difficult concepts, navigate relationships, and build confidence. CCPT appears in more than 90 cross-cultural studies spanning seven decades, including meta-analyses. The research shows encouraging outcomes for children across diverse circumstances and conditions. It works because play is a natural, enjoyable, and enriching state. It meets children where they are, to help them unlock their inner selves. What is the purpose of the last sentence of the passage?
    • It reinforces the suggestion that all children should be treated with CCPT
    • It encourages parents to look into CCPT if their children are experiencing problems
    • It provides a succinct summary of the overall significance of CCPT
    • It emphasizes the importance of children’s inner selves

    Correct answer: It provides a succinct summary of the overall significance of CCPT

    This is correct. The sentence leaves readers with a sense of why CCPT is valuable, which this answer option summarizes. It encourages parents to look into CCPT if their children are experiencing problems. This is incorrect because while the sentence says something good about CCPT, it does not make this specific encouragement, nor does it speak to parents specifically. It reinforces the suggestion that all children should be treated with CCPT. This is incorrect because the sentence is more general than this. It emphasizes the importance of children’s inner selves. This is incorrect because while inner selves are mentioned, they are not the focus of the sentence; CCPT is.

65. The Necks of Flying Dinosaurs: During the late Cretaceous period, the skies were filled with giants. Around 70 million years ago, few creatures were safe from the pterosaurs who soared through the air and preyed on all kinds of living things below. The most formidable of them all, Quetzalcoatlus northropi, had a wingspan that stretched up to 33 feet and a neck as long as a giraffe’s. It is thought to be the largest living thing to ever fly. Until recently, scientists were at a loss to explain how this gargantuan creature could possibly carry heavy prey in its beak without breaking its long neck. This question has now been answered, thanks to a new study that found the flying reptile possess bones unlike any others found in nature. As a part of this breakthrough study, Ph.D. students at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign utilized a CT scan to analyze a pterosaur vertebra found in the Kem Kem fossil beds of Morocco. They couldn’t believe what they found. Inside, the vertebra was composed of an intricate network of struts, connecting a central tube to the outer walls of the bone. Its cross-section looks much like a bicycle wheel, with spokes radiating out from a central point. A bone like this had never been seen in the animal kingdom. The spoke structure allowed pterosaurs’ necks to be both lightweight and extremely strong. The team behind the discovery calculated that the addition of just 50 spokes increased the weight the bone could carry by 90 percent. The research team plans to follow up this study by scanning the vertebrae of other pterosaur species, to see whether they also possess this unique structure. In order to lift their massive bodies into the air, pterosaurs had to be exceptionally light for their size, and their bones needed to be thin and nearly hollow like those of a bird. As a result, their bones were exceedingly fragile and have mainly disintegrated over time. Though largely absent from the fossil record, pterosaur bones have been well preserved at the Kem Kem fossil site, which was once a thriving river system. Which of the following rephrases the author’s point of view that the discovery made by PhD students at University of Illinois was revolutionary?
    • The PhD students’ discovery would significantly increase their chances of obtaining university employment after completing their degrees.
    • The PhD students were able to make their discovery because of the work done by early scientists.
    • The PhD students’ discovery provided a remarkable explanation to a mystery that had long perplexed scientists.
    • Early scientists weren’t nearly as capable of analyzing prehistoric bones as modern PhD students.

    Correct answer: The PhD students’ discovery provided a remarkable explanation to a mystery that had long perplexed scientists.

66. Which of the following statements indicates a stereotype?
    • Our annual report proves that the art museum installations are more popular than the science museum installations.
    • From experience, we have found that funding for a museum is easier to attain when it pertains to science-related installments.
    • More tours of the art museum are given in the mornings than in the afternoons.
    • All female students are better suited to art-related subjects, whereas all male students excel in the sciences.

    Correct answer: All female students are better suited to art-related subjects, whereas all male students excel in the sciences.

    This is correct because it is a clear stereotype that places all female students into one category and all male students into another. Remember, a stereotype is a fixed, widely held belief about a particular group of people or things. However, these beliefs are over-generalized. When we stereotype someone or something, we are drawing the conclusion that this person or thing possesses an entire range of characteristics we assume all members of that group have. Our annual report proves that the art museum installations are more popular than the science museum installations. This is incorrect because it is not a stereotype. It is a fact that is based on proof in the form of an annual report. More tours of the art museum are given in the mornings than in the afternoons. This is incorrect because it is not a stereotype about tours. It simply suggests which tour time is more popular. From experience, we have found that funding for a museum is easier to attain when it pertains to science-related installments. This is incorrect because it is not a stereotype. It is a fact that is based on experience.

67. The Necks of Flying Dinosaurs: During the late Cretaceous period, the skies were filled with giants. Around 70 million years ago, few creatures were safe from the pterosaurs who soared through the air and preyed on all kinds of living things below. The most formidable of them all, Quetzalcoatlus northropi, had a wingspan that stretched up to 33 feet and a neck as long as a giraffe’s. It is thought to be the largest living thing to ever fly. Until recently, scientists were at a loss to explain how this gargantuan creature could possibly carry heavy prey in its beak without breaking its long neck. This question has now been answered, thanks to a new study that found the flying reptile possess bones unlike any others found in nature. As a part of this breakthrough study, Ph.D. students at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign utilized a CT scan to analyze a pterosaur vertebra found in the Kem Kem fossil beds of Morocco. They couldn’t believe what they found. Inside, the vertebra was composed of an intricate network of struts, connecting a central tube to the outer walls of the bone. Its cross-section looks much like a bicycle wheel, with spokes radiating out from a central point. A bone like this had never been seen in the animal kingdom. The spoke structure allowed pterosaurs’ necks to be both lightweight and extremely strong. The team behind the discovery calculated that the addition of just 50 spokes increased the weight the bone could carry by 90 percent. The research team plans to follow up this study by scanning the vertebrae of other pterosaur species, to see whether they also possess this unique structure. In order to lift their massive bodies into the air, pterosaurs had to be exceptionally light for their size, and their bones needed to be thin and nearly hollow like those of a bird. As a result, their bones were exceedingly fragile and have mainly disintegrated over time. Though largely absent from the fossil record, pterosaur bones have been well preserved at the Kem Kem fossil site, which was once a thriving river system. What word best describes the author’s point of view?
    • Skeptical
    • Mystified
    • Indifferent
    • Awed

    Correct answer: Awed

    Awe indicates a feeling of wonder. We can see this in the author calling the discovery a “breakthrough” and indicating that the creature’s bones are unique and something completely unexpected. Indifferent is incorrect. To be indifferent to something is to not care about it, but we can see that the author is impressed by the discovery of how the creature was able to carry heavy prey and yet fly. Skeptical is incorrect. This means to be doubtful, and there is no sense that the author doubts the discovery. Mystified is incorrect. Although the nature of the creature’s neck was at one time a mystery, the author does not feel confused about the material he is writing on.

68. Renting or Buying a Home?: For most people, housing is probably by far the biggest monthly expense. It’s understandable, therefore, that people want to figure out whether renting or buying a home is better. While cost is certainly a factor, you should also consider the level of responsibility and freedom you are looking for. If you buy a home, you will be responsible for all its repairs and replacements. This would be true even if the repairs are needed shortly after you move in. Depending upon the state of your home, this could end up adding significantly to your cost of living. However, with this responsibility comes complete decision-making freedom. If you want to change your paint color, you can do that. If you don’t like the flooring, you can change it to anything you want. It will take time and money, but you can customize your house to your liking. If you choose to rent a home, you will be spared the expenses of repairs and replacements. When there’s a leak in a pipe or the dryer doesn’t seem to be working (assuming a dryer was provided by the landlord), you can call the landlord or the property management office and they will make the necessary repairs at no cost to you. However, you will not get to make any decisions about how these repairs are conducted. For example, if the dryer needs to be replaced, you will not be able to pick the replacement. Likewise, you won’t be able to make any aesthetic changes to the home, at least not without the landlord’s permission. If the carpet or paint is not to your liking, you will simply have to accept it. Given these differences, which choice is better might depend on the level of commitment you’re ready to make to home maintenance and improvement. What is the structure of the passage?
    • Expository
    • Argumentative
    • Comparison-contrast
    • Descriptive

    Correct answer: Comparison-contrast

    This is correct because the main goal of the passage is to compare and contrast buying and renting a home. The two are compared on the basis of responsibility and the freedom offered. Descriptive is incorrect. The passage does not describe renting or buying a home. Expository is incorrect. While explanations are offered, these are not general but are focused on comparison. Argumentative is incorrect. The passage does not argue either in favor of renting or buying a house.

69. The Happy Planet Index The Happy Planet Index was developed by Nic Marks, an independent policy advisor who applies statistics to gain a deeper understanding of happiness and sustainability. The index seeks to provide a broader view of progress than that typically touted by governments. National progress is generally measured in economic terms, as if gross domestic product (GDP)1 itself can fully convey the wellbeing of a nation’s citizenry. However, it takes more than economic output to build happy lives for people and sustainability for the planet. What It Measures The Happy Planet Index measures four criteria: wellbeing, life expectancy, inequality of outcomes, and ecological footprint. A Happy Planet Index (HPI) score for a given nation is determined by multiplying the first of those three factors and dividing the resulting value by the fourth (ecological footprint). Some of these factors, like wellbeing, may seem hard to quantify, but a value is given to them, nonetheless. Wellbeing is assessed on a scale of 1-10 using data collected in a Gallup World Poll. Surprising Results HPI scores have been calculated for 140 countries, and the results may be surprising. Wealthy first-world countries tend to have poorer results. These countries have impressive GDPs and they’re powerful in many respects, but they don’t necessarily succeed at facilitating happy lives for their citizens in a way that is sustainable for the planet. The United States of America, for example, has an HPI score of 20.7, which gives it a rank of 108 out of 140. The US does reasonably well on life expectancy and wellbeing, but there’s room for improvement in equity. Most notably, though, the US does horribly on ecological footprint. The goal for the US and similar countries, then, would be to build on their strengths in a way that doesn’t cost the planet. 1 Defined by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development as “the standard measure of the value added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.” Which text feature highlights a specific, surprising conclusion of the Happy Planet Index research?
    • Bolding
    • Footnote(s)
    • Italics
    • Subheading(s)

    Correct answer: Italics

    The italics are used to draw readers’ attention to something surprising. The slanted font makes them more noticeable. Subheading(s) is incorrect. The subheadings indicate the general content of the section. Footnote(s) is incorrect. The footnote provides further information on a term. Bolding is incorrect. Bold text can also show emphasis, but there is none in this passage, save for the heading and subheadings.

70. Many Worlds in One Trek: Anyone in search of adventure can find it in unexpected places. All it takes is a working set of wheels and some time to kill. There are plentiful unexpected places along a unique route meandering northwest from that top-hat on Texas to Salt Lake City, Utah. Amarillo gets less attention than Texas’ other cities, but it characteristically offers plains, big sky, and plenty to eat. The Big Texan steakhouse signature 72 ouncer is on the house if you can finish it. From there, expect a couple zen hours of scraggy brush, ghost towns, and dirt. Approaching Albuquerque, NM, hills and windy roads start to appear. The sunsets here are breathtaking but blinding, so timing is key. Navajo and Ute lands appear next in dramatic fashion, boasting jaw-dropping buttes and mesas. Cutting across the tiniest southwest corner of Colorado, take a load off at the unassuming diner in Cortez for some hearty huevos rancheros. Another pit stop might be in order roughly ninety minutes later in Monticello, UT. Peaceful country roads lead from there towards the noble La Sal mountains with a foreground of rolling rock formations. Drawing closer to Moab and Arches National Park will bring surreal, Martian red landscapes well worth exploring. Rest up before braving a stretch of picturesque desert followed by a collage of majestic peaks and plunging vistas. Finally in Salt Lake City, remember to enjoy a satisfying victory lap across the gleaming salt flats. What is the main purpose of the text?
    • To entertain readers with descriptions of highlights of a road trip route
    • To encourage readers to take a road trip from Texas to Salt Lake City, Utah
    • To encourage people to be adventurous
    • To argue that driving is a better way to take a vacation than other forms of travel

    Correct answer: To encourage readers to take a road trip from Texas to Salt Lake City, Utah

    This is correct. This particular route is indicated in the third sentence, and from there, the passage develops supporting details relevant to that route. The word choice is meant to make the route seem appealing. To entertain readers with descriptions of highlights of a road trip route. This is incorrect because while the passage does discuss highlights of this route, entertainment is not its main purpose. To encourage people to be adventurous. This is incorrect because it is too broad and general to be the main purpose of the passage. To argue that driving is a better way to take a vacation than other forms of travel. This is incorrect because while the writer is promoting a specific road trip, there isn’t a comparison to other forms of travel.

71. The Leaning Tower Building the Leaning Tower of Pisa took 200 years before it was finally completed in 1372. However, five years after the work had begun in 1173, the tower started tilting. As it was in danger of collapsing, the tower was closed to the public in 1990. A British-led team of 13 experts was appointed by the Italian government to lay out a ‘straightening’ plan. The stabilizing work was completed in 2001, straightening the tower by 38cm. In 2013, a study found that the tower had straightened by a further 2.5cm. The tower is expected to continue to straighten by another few millimeters, before gradually leaning again. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?
    • Narrative
    • Persuasive
    • Expository
    • Technical

    Correct answer: Expository

    Expository is correct. This is because the purpose of the passage is to inform the readers about a specific subject (i.e. the Leaning Tower of Pisa) with facts, figures, and dates, without offering the author’s opinion. Narrative is incorrect because the purpose of this passage is to inform its readers, not to entertain or tell a story. Persuasive is incorrect because the author is not trying to influence the readers by expressing their personal opinion. Technical is incorrect because the passage does not outline any instructions or procedures to follow.

72. A voter is researching a ballot proposition. Which of the following is a primary source that the voter could use to learn more about this topic?
    • The text of the ballot proposition
    • A discussion about the ballot proposition by a politician
    • A summary of the ballot proposition in a voters’ pamphlet
    • A discussion about the ballot proposition by a radio news host

    Correct answer: The text of the ballot proposition

    The text of the ballot proposition is correct because the actual text itself is a primary source. It is the original item; there’s no way to get closer to the topic than the thing itself being studied. A discussion about the ballot proposition by a radio news host. This is incorrect because it is someone else’s take on a primary source. A discussion about the ballot proposition by a politician. This is incorrect because it is someone else’s take on a primary source. A summary of the ballot proposition in a voters’ pamphlet. This is incorrect because the primary source has been altered and is no longer in its original form. A summary is a step away from the source itself.

73. Surgeons and Robots: Robots currently play a vital role in the operating room, from aiding surgeons in minute tasks to reducing the size and number of incisions required to perform many surgeries. With advances in robotic systems and artificial intelligence, robots could be poised to have an even bigger impact on the way surgeries are done. While many operations once required incisions large enough for a doctor’s hands to access the body cavity, robotic technology now allows for the same tasks to be accomplished with only small incisions in what is known as minimally invasive surgeries. During these procedures, robotic arms enter the body through an opening about the size of a keyhole and are controlled by surgeons with the aid of a camera inserted through another small incision. This type of surgery significantly reduces strain on the body and cuts down on recovery time. Some new robots are even able to accomplish major surgical procedures through just a single incision. In a single-incision surgery, the camera and tools are all inserted through just one small opening. In the case of one robot that is currently in development, this incision is only six-tenths of an inch. Questions remain, however, about how viable this technology really is in a real-world hospital context. The machines required are incredibly costly and many hospitals may not be convinced that the benefits of single-incision surgery justify the steep price tag. Regardless, researchers have been testing the possibility of using artificial intelligence (AI) in performing some simple surgical tasks autonomously – with a human surgeon observing but not actually controlling the machine. Advances in machine learning can enable robots to watch videos of human-controlled surgeries and effectively “learn” how to perform procedures such as incisions or sutures. These autonomous robots would have the benefit of relieving the load of over-worked surgeons and cutting down on costly mistakes if done reliably. So far, the robots have not proven themselves to be as effective as humans, but researchers claim that it is only a matter of time until they are able to reliably perform tasks on their own. Further advances in the field could open up the possibility of remote surgery, allowing doctors to operate on patients who are miles away, on a distant battlefield, or even, someday, on the moon. Which word best describes the author’s attitude towards robotic technology?
    • The author supports relegating robotic technology to a more limited role.
    • The author strongly opposes robotic technology in most situations.
    • The author believes that robotic technology has the potential to extend the reach of human doctors.
    • The author feels that robotic technology will entirely displace human doctors in the future.

    Correct answer: The author believes that robotic technology has the potential to extend the reach of human doctors.

    We can see this in the author’s discussion of the potential uses of the technology, especially in the conclusion when he provides hypothetical examples of how this technology could allow doctors to operate in places that are difficult or impossible to reach. The author feels robotic technology will entirely displace human doctors in the future. This is incorrect. While the author does note the possibility of AI being developed to perform some tasks without direct human agency, most of the uses noted by the author involve AI as an extension rather than a replacement for human doctors. The author strongly opposes robotic technology in most situations. This is incorrect. While the author acknowledges some limitations or reservations people have about this technology, she has, on the whole, a positive attitude towards it. The author supports relegating robotic technology to a more limited role. This is incorrect. The last sentence in particular shows that the author envisions a bigger role for robotic technology, not a smaller one.

74. Many Worlds in One Trek: Anyone in search of adventure can find it in unexpected places. All it takes is a working set of wheels and some time to kill. There are plentiful unexpected places along a unique route meandering northwest from that top-hat on Texas to Salt Lake City, Utah. Amarillo gets less attention than Texas’ other cities, but it characteristically offers plains, big sky, and plenty to eat. The Big Texan steakhouse signature 72 ouncer is on the house if you can finish it. From there, expect a couple zen hours of scraggy brush, ghost towns, and dirt. Approaching Albuquerque, NM, hills and windy roads start to appear. The sunsets here are breathtaking but blinding, so timing is key. Navajo and Ute lands appear next in dramatic fashion, boasting jaw-dropping buttes and mesas. Cutting across the tiniest southwest corner of Colorado, take a load off at the unassuming diner in Cortez for some hearty huevos rancheros. Another pit stop might be in order roughly ninety minutes later in Monticello, UT. Peaceful country roads lead from there towards the noble La Sal mountains with a foreground of rolling rock formations. Drawing closer to Moab and Arches National Park will bring surreal, Martian red landscapes well worth exploring. Rest up before braving a stretch of picturesque desert followed by a collage of majestic peaks and plunging vistas. Finally in Salt Lake City, remember to enjoy a satisfying victory lap across the gleaming salt flats. Which of the following is the author’s main purpose for paragraph 2?
    • To inform readers of good places to eat along the road trip route
    • To tell readers what they should do upon getting to Salt Lake City, Utah
    • To explain how to get from Navajo and Ute native lands to Salt Lake City, Utah
    • To describe the leg of the trip from Navajo and Ute native lands to Salt Lake City, Utah

    Correct answer: To describe the leg of the trip from Navajo and Ute native lands to Salt Lake City, Utah

    This is correct. The paragraph begins with the starting point of this leg of the trip and ends with the end-point of the trip. To tell readers what they should do upon getting to Salt Lake City, Utah. This is incorrect because it is too narrow. It expresses the purpose of the last sentence of the paragraph, but not the whole paragraph. To inform the readers of good places to eat along the road trip route. This is incorrect. Places to eat are mentioned in the paragraph, but they are supporting details of its purpose, not the purpose itself. To explain how to get from Navajo and Ute native lands to Salt Lake City, Utah. This is incorrect because while the second paragraph is organized around this route, the purpose is more descriptive than merely giving specific directions.

75. Motivation: I woke up early and got ready as quickly as possible. Within thirty minutes, I had eaten my breakfast and was out the door speed walking to my 8 A.M. advanced German grammar and translation class. I would be on time, but being on time wasn’t good enough. I needed to be early. I arrived seven minutes early and slightly out of breath. The board was numbered one through twenty; sentences one through nine had already been completed and other students were working on eleven and twelve. Thirteen won’t be bad, I thought. I quickly put down my bag and began rummaging in it for my notebook. Someone rushed past me and took sentence thirteen. Fine. Fourteen it is. At 8 A.M. exactly, the professor entered the classroom and began going over the translation sentences with us. Each class session, we had to have twenty English to German translations complete. The lower numbers were easier while the higher numbers were hard. Everyone was eager to get an easier sentence because not only did we have to put them up on the board, but we also had to explain our translation in front of the class. No one wanted to get one wrong in front of the class. I’ve never before or since seen a class of students so eager to be early to an already early class. What is the structure of the passage?
    • Descriptive
    • Process analysis
    • Narrative
    • Problem-solution

    Correct answer: Narrative

    This is correct because the passage focuses on telling a story. A narrative tells of an event happening in time. A narrative has a narrator, and this passage is narrated in first person. Process analysis is incorrect. The passage is not set up as a “how-to” guide to give readers steps to do something. Problem-solution is incorrect. The teacher’s technique is not presented as a solution that should be adopted by others. Descriptive is incorrect. While we learn about the teaching strategy in the course of the narrative, it is from the perspective of the narrator. The strategy is not described in general.

76. A parent wants to learn about the academic achievements of students in local high schools. Which of the following is a primary source that the parent could use to locate information on this topic?
    • Achievement test scores from the schools in question
    • A newspaper article about the local schools’ achievement test scores
    • Testimonials from students who attend the schools in question
    • An analysis of the schools’ test scores over a period of time conducted by a group of education scholars

    Correct answer: Achievement test scores from the schools in question

    Achievement test scores from the schools in question is correct because it is raw data and would therefore be a primary source Testimonials from students who attend the schools in question. This is incorrect because it wouldn’t give the parent the breadth of information he/she/they are looking for. A newspaper article about the local schools’ achievement test scores. This is incorrect because while it might include primary source data in it, but it is likely to also include articles that comment on primary sources. An analysis of the schools’ test scores over a period of time conducted by a group of education scholars. This is incorrect because it is a secondary source. It is written by experts for other scholars.

77. The Happy Planet Index The Happy Planet Index was developed by Nic Marks, an independent policy advisor who applies statistics to gain a deeper understanding of happiness and sustainability. The index seeks to provide a broader view of progress than that typically touted by governments. National progress is generally measured in economic terms, as if gross domestic product (GDP)1 itself can fully convey the wellbeing of a nation’s citizenry. However, it takes more than economic output to build happy lives for people and sustainability for the planet. What It Measures The Happy Planet Index measures four criteria: wellbeing, life expectancy, inequality of outcomes, and ecological footprint. A Happy Planet Index (HPI) score for a given nation is determined by multiplying the first of those three factors and dividing the resulting value by the fourth (ecological footprint). Some of these factors, like wellbeing, may seem hard to quantify, but a value is given to them, nonetheless. Wellbeing is assessed on a scale of 1-10 using data collected in a Gallup World Poll. Surprising Results HPI scores have been calculated for 140 countries, and the results may be surprising. Wealthy first-world countries tend to have poorer results. These countries have impressive GDPs and they’re powerful in many respects, but they don’t necessarily succeed at facilitating happy lives for their citizens in a way that is sustainable for the planet. The United States of America, for example, has an HPI score of 20.7, which gives it a rank of 108 out of 140. The US does reasonably well on life expectancy and wellbeing, but there’s room for improvement in equity. Most notably, though, the US does horribly on ecological footprint. The goal for the US and similar countries, then, would be to build on their strengths in a way that doesn’t cost the planet. 1 Defined by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development as “the standard measure of the value added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.” What information is included in the footnote?
    • The footnote gives information related to the Happy Planet Index.
    • The footnote gives information about the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development.
    • The footnote defines gross domestic product.
    • The footnote gives an acronym for gross domestic product.

    Correct answer: The footnote defines gross domestic product.

    This is important for readers who may be unfamiliar with the term. A footnote often clarifies something in the main body of the text. The footnote gives an acronym for gross domestic product is incorrect. The footnote’s superscript is placed after an acronym, but the information provided in the footnote itself is other than giving an acronym. The footnote gives information related to the Happy Planet Index is incorrect. The footnote explains a term that is included in the explanation of the Happy Planet Index, but it does not directly provide information on the Happy Planet Index. The footnote gives information about the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development is incorrect. The organisation is the source of the information, but the footnote does not provide information about the organisation.

78. The Happy Planet Index The Happy Planet Index was developed by Nic Marks, an independent policy advisor who applies statistics to gain a deeper understanding of happiness and sustainability. The index seeks to provide a broader view of progress than that typically touted by governments. National progress is generally measured in economic terms, as if gross domestic product (GDP)1 itself can fully convey the wellbeing of a nation’s citizenry. However, it takes more than economic output to build happy lives for people and sustainability for the planet. What It Measures The Happy Planet Index measures four criteria: wellbeing, life expectancy, inequality of outcomes, and ecological footprint. A Happy Planet Index (HPI) score for a given nation is determined by multiplying the first of those three factors and dividing the resulting value by the fourth (ecological footprint). Some of these factors, like wellbeing, may seem hard to quantify, but a value is given to them, nonetheless. Wellbeing is assessed on a scale of 1-10 using data collected in a Gallup World Poll. Surprising Results HPI scores have been calculated for 140 countries, and the results may be surprising. Wealthy first-world countries tend to have poorer results. These countries have impressive GDPs and they’re powerful in many respects, but they don’t necessarily succeed at facilitating happy lives for their citizens in a way that is sustainable for the planet. The United States of America, for example, has an HPI score of 20.7, which gives it a rank of 108 out of 140. The US does reasonably well on life expectancy and wellbeing, but there’s room for improvement in equity. Most notably, though, the US does horribly on ecological footprint. The goal for the US and similar countries, then, would be to build on their strengths in a way that doesn’t cost the planet. 1 Defined by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development as “the standard measure of the value added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.” What is the purpose of the headings/subheadings in this passage?
    • They provide additional information.
    • They indicate the topic and the parts of the topic that will be discussed.
    • They define key terms.
    • They highlight important information.

    Correct answer: They indicate the topic and the parts of the topic that will be discussed.

    Headings and subheadings are organizational tools that provide a general sense of the content of the upcoming material, with subheadings being more focused than headings. They provide additional information is incorrect. “Additional” indicates an elaboration on something already stated, which is what a footnote does. They define key terms is incorrect. A heading or subheading could certainly indicate a key term, but defining one isn’t their general purpose. Definitions are more likely to be provided in the body of the text or footnotes. They highlight important information is incorrect. Headings and subheadings focus on identifying the content of a section of text. Highlighting key information is generally done with bold or italics in the body of the text.

79. Surgeons and Robots: Robots currently play a vital role in the operating room, from aiding surgeons in minute tasks to reducing the size and number of incisions required to perform many surgeries. With advances in robotic systems and artificial intelligence, robots could be poised to have an even bigger impact on the way surgeries are done. While many operations once required incisions large enough for a doctor’s hands to access the body cavity, robotic technology now allows for the same tasks to be accomplished with only small incisions in what is known as minimally invasive surgeries. During these procedures, robotic arms enter the body through an opening about the size of a keyhole and are controlled by surgeons with the aid of a camera inserted through another small incision. This type of surgery significantly reduces strain on the body and cuts down on recovery time. Some new robots are even able to accomplish major surgical procedures through just a single incision. In a single-incision surgery, the camera and tools are all inserted through just one small opening. In the case of one robot that is currently in development, this incision is only six-tenths of an inch. Questions remain, however, about how viable this technology really is in a real-world hospital context. The machines required are incredibly costly and many hospitals may not be convinced that the benefits of single-incision surgery justify the steep price tag. Regardless, researchers have been testing the possibility of using artificial intelligence (AI) in performing some simple surgical tasks autonomously – with a human surgeon observing but not actually controlling the machine. Advances in machine learning can enable robots to watch videos of human-controlled surgeries and effectively “learn” how to perform procedures such as incisions or sutures. These autonomous robots would have the benefit of relieving the load of over-worked surgeons and cutting down on costly mistakes if done reliably. So far, the robots have not proven themselves to be as effective as humans, but researchers claim that it is only a matter of time until they are able to reliably perform tasks on their own. Further advances in the field could open up the possibility of remote surgery, allowing doctors to operate on patients who are miles away, on a distant battlefield, or even, someday, on the moon. Which word best describes the author’s point of view towards AI?
    • Incredulous
    • Optimistic
    • Doubtful
    • Giddy

    Correct answer: Optimistic

    The author identifies positive things that AI does and could do. Even though the author acknowledges that there are some limitations to the machines, the closing statement is hopeful and looks to the future with positive expectations. Doubtful is incorrect. This is the opposite of the author’s general feelings on the topic. Although the author does acknowledge questions and limitations about the technology, the focus is on the benefits. The author also believes AI will likely continue to benefit humanity. Incredulous is incorrect. This means being skeptical or not believing something. The author reports doubts people have about AI, but these are not presented as the author’s own feelings. Giddy is incorrect. This feeling is more extreme than what the author expresses. Giddy means excited to the point of dizziness or flightiness. The author does express optimism about AI, but it is balanced. The author shows awareness of the current limitations of AI.

80. Not us Don’t try us if you are afraid of excitement. Don’t try us if you fear thrilling rides. Don’t try us if you are scared of entertainment at its best. But if you want a one-of-a-kind, fun-packed experience then look no further Visit Rockin’ & Rollin’ theme park! The biggest and boldest entertainment park in the southern states. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?
    • Narrative
    • Persuasive
    • Expository
    • Technical

    Correct answer: Persuasive

    Persuasive is correct. With this advertisement, the author is trying to attract visitors to the theme park by using reverse psychology (e.g. ‘don’t try us if…’ and something positive such as ‘thrilling rides’), and language that excites the reader (e.g. as ‘one-of-a-kind’, ‘fun-packed’, ‘look no further’). Narrative is incorrect. Although the object of the advertisement is entertainment, the purpose of the passage is not to tell a story. Expository is incorrect because the purpose of this passage is to persuade its readers, not to explain or provide information about something. Technical is incorrect because the passage does not outline any instructions or procedures to follow.

81. Transitioning from High School to College: In order to transition effectively from high school to college, it’s important for students to recognize the different level of academic responsibility that will be expected of them. While all classes are different, college classes generally require a greater amount of out-of-class study and preparation time than high school classes do. College classes may have a significant amount of reading meant to be completed on students’ own study time. Class time will likely build on that material or related material, but not repeat it directly. College classes are also more likely to require extensive research projects and longer essays. This also means more out-of-class preparation time than one likely experienced in high school. College students may also find fewer opportunities for make-up work should they get behind in their coursework. Late policies are often stricter in college classes than in high school classes. Additionally, while small amounts of extra credit may be offered in a given college course, college students should not expect that an extra credit assignment can take the place of a significant amount of missed work throughout the quarter or semester. Ultimately, it is generally harder to catch up in a college class than a high school class should one lag behind. This means that college students will need to take on a greater amount of academic responsibility. This might seem daunting, but it doesn’t have to be. Consistent effort throughout the term will pay off with more learning and less stress! What is the structure of the passage?
    • Problem-solution
    • Narrative
    • Expository
    • Comparison-contrast

    Correct answer: Comparison-contrast

    This is correct because the passage compares high school and college on the point of academic responsibility. Problem-solution is incorrect. The passage doesn’t present a problem or a solution. Narrative is incorrect. The passage is not structured like a story. Expository is incorrect. The passage does not offer a general explanation of the topic.

82. The Walk We had been walking for hours and I had fallen behind. I was tired and hungry, and I couldn’t wait to get to my uncle’s villa. I had now reached the end of the woods and the trees were behind me. I couldn’t see the others yet, but I could hear the waterfalls and my cousin calling me. “Come on, Adam, hurry up! You won’t believe your eyes!”, she said. Filled with excitement, I ran as fast as I was able to. They had already gone in, lit a fire, and started cooking. The fresh air had given me lots of unexpected energy and I wanted to make myself useful, but there was nothing for me to do. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?
    • Technical
    • Persuasive
    • Narrative
    • Expository

    Correct answer: Narrative

    Narrative is correct. The passage contains features of fiction writing, similar to short stories and novels. Using first-person narration, the author describes a country walk. Persuasive is incorrect because the author is not trying to influence the reader by expressing their personal opinion. Expository is incorrect because the purpose of this passage is to tell a story, not to explain or provide information about something. Technical is incorrect because the passage does not outline any instructions or procedures to follow.

83. The Dewey Decimal Classes: 000 Computer science, information, and general works 100 Philosophy and psychology 200 Religion 300 Social sciences 400 Languages 500 Science and mathematics 600 Technical and applied science 700 Arts and recreation 800 Literature 900 History, geography, and biography. Stuti needs to do research on residential buildings. To which section of the library should she go to?
    • 300
    • 700
    • 500
    • 600

    Correct answer: 700

    The Arts and recreation section contains a section on Architecture, therefore it is the correct place to look for residential buildings. 300 is incorrect. The Social sciences section contains subjects such as Political science, Economics, and Law, therefore it is not the correct place to look for residential buildings. 500 is incorrect. The Science and mathematics section contains subjects such as Physics and Biology, therefore it is not the correct place to look for residential buildings. 600 is incorrect. The Technical and applied science section contains subjects such as Engineering and Agriculture, therefore it is not the correct place to look for residential buildings.

84. The Happy Planet Index The Happy Planet Index was developed by Nic Marks, an independent policy advisor who applies statistics to gain a deeper understanding of happiness and sustainability. The index seeks to provide a broader view of progress than that typically touted by governments. National progress is generally measured in economic terms, as if gross domestic product (GDP)1 itself can fully convey the wellbeing of a nation’s citizenry. However, it takes more than economic output to build happy lives for people and sustainability for the planet. What It Measures The Happy Planet Index measures four criteria: wellbeing, life expectancy, inequality of outcomes, and ecological footprint. A Happy Planet Index (HPI) score for a given nation is determined by multiplying the first of those three factors and dividing the resulting value by the fourth (ecological footprint). Some of these factors, like wellbeing, may seem hard to quantify, but a value is given to them, nonetheless. Wellbeing is assessed on a scale of 1-10 using data collected in a Gallup World Poll. Surprising Results HPI scores have been calculated for 140 countries, and the results may be surprising. Wealthy first-world countries tend to have poorer results. These countries have impressive GDPs and they’re powerful in many respects, but they don’t necessarily succeed at facilitating happy lives for their citizens in a way that is sustainable for the planet. The United States of America, for example, has an HPI score of 20.7, which gives it a rank of 108 out of 140. The US does reasonably well on life expectancy and wellbeing, but there’s room for improvement in equity. Most notably, though, the US does horribly on ecological footprint. The goal for the US and similar countries, then, would be to build on their strengths in a way that doesn’t cost the planet. 1 Defined by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development as “the standard measure of the value added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.” What is the meaning of the superscript “1” in the passage?
    • This indicates the first example of research used in the passage.
    • This indicates the first acronym used in the passage.
    • This indicates that a quotation will be provided in the footnote.
    • This indicates that additional information will be provided in a footnote.

    Correct answer: This indicates that additional information will be provided in a footnote.

    A footnote can provide information that might be cumbersome if situated in the main passage. It allows the writer more room to add information without worrying about the space. This indicates the first acronym used in the passage is incorrect. While this superscript is positioned next to an acronym, identifying acronyms is not the specific purpose of a footnote. This indicates that a quotation will be provided in the footnote is incorrect. A quotation could be provided in a footnote, but that is not the specific purpose of a footnote. This indicates the first example of research used in the passage is incorrect. Identifying the use of research is not the purpose of footnotes.

85. Website The first step to building your own website is to find a domain name that you like and that is available. Think of something catchy! Remember to register it, so that nobody else can use it. Next, you need to choose a hosting service and connect it to your website. At this point, you are ready to install the software that will enable you to create your website how you want it to be. Choose a suitable design in line with the message you want to send across the web. Configuration is the next step, to give your visitors the best experience possible. Well done, your website is all set! All that is left to do now is to add your content. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?
    • Narrative
    • Expository
    • Technical
    • Persuasive

    Correct answer: Technical

    Technical is correct. This type of writing has the purpose to instruct and direct regarding a specific subject. In this case, the author is explaining the process of creating a website in simple steps. Narrative is incorrect because the purpose of this passage is not to tell a story. Persuasive is incorrect because the author is not trying to influence the reader by expressing their personal opinion. Expository is incorrect because the purpose of this passage is to instruct, not to explain or provide information about something.

86. The Dewey Decimal Classes: 000 Computer science, information, and general works 100 Philosophy and psychology 200 Religion 300 Social sciences 400 Languages 500 Science and mathematics 600 Technical and applied science 700 Arts and recreation 800 Literature 900 History, geography, and biography. James needs to do research on Christian theology. To which section of the library should he go to?
    • 100
    • 200
    • 400
    • 300

    Correct answer: 200

    Theology is the study of the divine (e.g. God, gods, goddesses, divinities, etc.) and religions. The Religion section contains several sections on Christianity, therefore it is the correct place to look for Christian theology. 100 is incorrect. The Philosophy and psychology section contains subjects like Metaphysics and Ethics, therefore it is not the correct place to look for Christian theology. 300 is incorrect. The Social sciences section contains subjects like Political science, Economics, and Law, therefore it is not the correct place to look for Christian theology. 400 is incorrect. The Language section contains subjects like Linguistics and Etymology, therefore it is not the correct place to look for Christian theology.

87. After careful examination, the researchers managed to date the fossil back to 3000 years ago. Date v. 1. a specific day or year on which a given event occurred or will occur 2. a person with whom one has a social or romantic appointment 3. to go out with someone that one is romantically involved with 4. to establish the year/period of origin of an object or event. Which of the following dictionary definitions best fits the word date as used in context?
    • Entry 4
    • Entry 1
    • Entry 2
    • Entry 3

    Correct answer: Entry 4

    This makes sense in the given context because the researchers established the period of origin (3000 years ago) of the fossil. Entry 1 is incorrect because date is a noun here. We are looking for a verb. Entry 2 is incorrect because date is a noun here. We are looking for a verb. In addition, it describes a person, not an object (fossil). Entry 3 is incorrect because the context of the sentence (i.e. establishing the period of origin) doesn’t relate to the definition (romantic relationship, as in, “Jon likes to date older women”).

88. Confirmation Bias When someone is influenced by confirmation bias, that person is not being objective, although they likely won’t recognize this. Confirmation bias means to favor information that confirms a viewpoint that one already holds. Should the information be of questionable credibility, the person will often overlook or excuse any problems. They may not pay attention to such problems as an author’s lack of authority on an issue, inadequate research, or illogical arguments. They will wish to validate the information because it validates their beliefs. However, confirmation bias will influence someone to respond quite differently to information that does not support the person’s pre-existing viewpoint. Even if a text is credible and makes a logical argument, the person will be inclined to find fault with it for one reason or another. The perceived fault may not even be actually present, but the person seeks an excuse to not deal with the substance of the argument. Ultimately, this is a defense mechanism to preserve belief in a viewpoint that one finds comforting on some level. The confirmation bias is likely to be stronger if the topic is something that bolsters a person’s worldview or sense of self. What is the structure of the passage?
    • Problem-solution
    • Process analysis
    • Argumentative
    • Comparison-contrast

    Correct answer: Comparison-contrast

    This is correct because the passage focuses on two different reactions regarding confirmation bias. The reactions are contrasted because they are different. Argumentative is incorrect. While the writer does state that confirmation bias affects the objectivity of one’s mindset, the passage is not primarily focused on trying to convince people not to have confirmation bias. Problem-solution is incorrect since no solutions are presented in the passage. Process analysis is incorrect since no steps or stages are discussed in the passage.

89. The Cascadia Subduction Zone: Picture the millions of people living in and around Portland and Seattle. They bustle about their daily lives right on the precipice of the West Coast of the United states. Now, zoom out. Seven hundred miles off that Pacific Northwest Coast lies the Cascadia Subduction Zone. It is situated within the 500 km by 40,000 km Ring of Fire — the volcanic hotbed wrapped around the Pacific Ocean rim. The name comes from the Cascadia Range, roughly one hundred miles inland. The volcanic mountain range stretches from northern California, up through Oregon and Washington to British Columbia. There is evidence of destructive earthquakes at the Cascadia Subduction Zone long before all those people got there. Another might be around the corner. Near the Washington coast, there is a ghost forest. Soil layers and dendrochronology (the study of growth-ring patterns) show that an entire grove of cedars suddenly died between August 1699 and May 1700. The cause was an earthquake that made the ground drop out from under itself. An ‘orphan tsunami’ of unknown origin at the time occurred on the coast of Japan. In 1966, seismologists determined that the magnitude-9.0 earthquake and land drop that killed the cedars of coastal Washington’s ghost forest created a massive wave half a continent long that struck the Northwest coast and then Japan. First nation tribes of the area have also passed down accounts of this event. Seafloor core samples recording the past ten thousand years of geographic history depict a deposit from torrents of land rushing off the continental slope. This evidence offers glimpses into the frequency and extent of Cascadia Subduction Zone ruptures. 41 times over the past 10,000 years, land has collapsed into the seafloor from earthquakes in the Pacific Northwest, leaving deposits. That is a recurrence interval of 243 years. The most recent earthquake happened there in 1700 (320 years ago), so the Pacific Northwest is almost 80 years overdue for another devastating event. Chris Goldfinger is a scientist studying the Cascadia Subduction Zone’s volatility. He predicts a one in three chance of a big earthquake in the next 50 years, and a one in ten chance of a completely catastrophic one. What is the author’s purpose for writing this passage?
    • To argue that coastal communities need to fund building improvements to reduce the destructiveness of an impending natural disaster
    • To encourage people who live in the Pacific Northwest to consider moving somewhere less likely to be affected by natural disasters
    • To inform readers of the likelihood of a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest in the next few decades
    • To entertain readers with a tale of natural disaster survival

    Correct answer: To inform readers of the likelihood of a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest in the next few decades

    This is correct. The language is objective and neutral, which is typical of informative writing. The writer isn’t arguing a position. To argue that coastal communities need to fund building improvements to reduce the destructiveness of an impending natural disaster. This is incorrect because the passage isn’t an argument. There’s no position being supported on which people could agree or disagree. To encourage people who live in the Pacific Northwest to consider moving somewhere less likely to be affected by natural disasters. This is incorrect. While it’s understandable that people from those areas who read this might be concerned, moving is never mentioned or implied. To entertain readers with a tale of natural disaster survival.This is incorrect because the text’s language is neutral. There isn’t an effort to use exciting or suspense-building words. Also, this isn’t a narrative, so it’s not a tale.

90. The Decapitating Sea Slug: While the placid shallow waters of the South Pacific Ocean might call to mind images of tropical love stories, beneath their tranquil surface dwells a creature whose regenerative ability is more akin to the grisly spectacle of a horror film. This monster is no toothy menace, but rather the leaf-like sea slug, Elysia marginata. Recently, scientists have discovered that these slugs are able to decapitate themselves and regrow brand new bodies in a matter of weeks. This shocking finding represents a novel scientific discovery with numerous potential applications for human medicine. A few years ago, researchers at Nara Women’s University in Japan were astounded to find the severed head of one of their laboratory’s Elysia marginata sea slugs crawling away from its discarded body, continuing to eat algae as if nothing had occurred. Meanwhile, the body continued to show signs of life, wriggling and writhing around, with its heart still beating. Within three weeks, the sea slug had regrown a brand new body from the base of its detached head. While this kind of self-amputation, called autotomy, is not altogether uncommon across the animal kingdom, the sea slug’s feat is notable for the complexity of the body parts that it is able to regenerate. Various species of reptiles and insects are known to detach limbs in order to escape predation, and simple-bodied organisms like flatworms and sea squirts are able to regenerate large portions of their bodies. In each of these cases, however, the regrown body parts are relatively straightforward structures. Elysia marginata, on the other hand, is the first animal known to detach its entire body and then regrow vital organs such as its heart and kidneys. The secret to an Elysia marginata’s regeneration appears to lie in the chloroplasts that it hijacks from algae. Chloroplasts are the green-tinted drivers of photosynthesis that algae and other plants use to draw energy directly from the sun’s rays. Incredibly, when these sea slugs eat algae, they incorporate these chloroplasts into their own cells, giving them the nickname “solar-powered sea slugs”, and allowing them to synthesize sugars directly from the sun and thus survive without their organs. The sea slug’s radical autotomy appears to be a way to rid itself of parasitic infection. All of the individuals in the lab who underwent self-decapitation were observed to be carrying harmful parasites. After regenerating their bodies, these parasites were nowhere to be found. While researchers are thrilled by these novel discoveries, much remains unknown about the biological processes that enable this amazing phenomenon. Scientists believe that deepening our understanding of these slugs could one day lead to advances in regenerative medicine and other scientific fields. Which word best describes the author’s attitude towards sea slugs?
    • The author feels that sea slugs are regenerative.
    • The author feels that sea slugs are odious.
    • The author feels that sea slugs are intriguing.
    • The author feels that sea slugs are tedious.

    Correct answer: The author feels that sea slugs are intriguing.

    The author uses words like “incredibly” and “amazing” to describe the sea slug’s regenerative ability. The author also emphasizes that this discovery could impact medical advancements. The author feels sea slugs are odious. This is incorrect because odious means disgusting. While the author does note that this type of self-amputation might seem grisly, this conveys the uniqueness of what the sea slug can do. The author is impressed by the sea slug. She goes beyond reporting about it and calls it “amazing”. The author feels sea slugs are tedious. This is incorrect because tedious means boring. The author seems excited, not bored, about the sea slug. The author notes that even though other creatures have some form of self-amputation, what the sea slug does is unique.The author feels that sea slugs are regenerative. This is incorrect. That sea slugs are regenerative is a fact. It isn’t an opinion or something that describes a feeling.

91. The Decapitating Sea Slug: While the placid shallow waters of the South Pacific Ocean might call to mind images of tropical love stories, beneath their tranquil surface dwells a creature whose regenerative ability is more akin to the grisly spectacle of a horror film. This monster is no toothy menace, but rather the leaf-like sea slug, Elysia marginata. Recently, scientists have discovered that these slugs are able to decapitate themselves and regrow brand new bodies in a matter of weeks. This shocking finding represents a novel scientific discovery with numerous potential applications for human medicine. A few years ago, researchers at Nara Women’s University in Japan were astounded to find the severed head of one of their laboratory’s Elysia marginata sea slugs crawling away from its discarded body, continuing to eat algae as if nothing had occurred. Meanwhile, the body continued to show signs of life, wriggling and writhing around, with its heart still beating. Within three weeks, the sea slug had regrown a brand new body from the base of its detached head. While this kind of self-amputation, called autotomy, is not altogether uncommon across the animal kingdom, the sea slug’s feat is notable for the complexity of the body parts that it is able to regenerate. Various species of reptiles and insects are known to detach limbs in order to escape predation, and simple-bodied organisms like flatworms and sea squirts are able to regenerate large portions of their bodies. In each of these cases, however, the regrown body parts are relatively straightforward structures. Elysia marginata, on the other hand, is the first animal known to detach its entire body and then regrow vital organs such as its heart and kidneys. The secret to an Elysia marginata’s regeneration appears to lie in the chloroplasts that it hijacks from algae. Chloroplasts are the green-tinted drivers of photosynthesis that algae and other plants use to draw energy directly from the sun’s rays. Incredibly, when these sea slugs eat algae, they incorporate these chloroplasts into their own cells, giving them the nickname “solar-powered sea slugs”, and allowing them to synthesize sugars directly from the sun and thus survive without their organs. The sea slug’s radical autotomy appears to be a way to rid itself of parasitic infection. All of the individuals in the lab who underwent self-decapitation were observed to be carrying harmful parasites. After regenerating their bodies, these parasites were nowhere to be found. While researchers are thrilled by these novel discoveries, much remains unknown about the biological processes that enable this amazing phenomenon. Scientists believe that deepening our understanding of these slugs could one day lead to advances in regenerative medicine and other scientific fields. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author’s opinion about autotomy?
    • We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is astounding and rare.
    • We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is intriguing yet standard.
    • We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is inscrutable.
    • We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is disreputable.

    Correct answer: We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is intriguing yet standard.

92. The Cascadia Subduction Zone: Picture the millions of people living in and around Portland and Seattle. They bustle about their daily lives right on the precipice of the West Coast of the United states. Now, zoom out. Seven hundred miles off that Pacific Northwest Coast lies the Cascadia Subduction Zone. It is situated within the 500 km by 40,000 km Ring of Fire — the volcanic hotbed wrapped around the Pacific Ocean rim. The name comes from the Cascadia Range, roughly one hundred miles inland. The volcanic mountain range stretches from northern California, up through Oregon and Washington to British Columbia. There is evidence of destructive earthquakes at the Cascadia Subduction Zone long before all those people got there. Another might be around the corner. Near the Washington coast, there is a ghost forest. Soil layers and dendrochronology (the study of growth-ring patterns) show that an entire grove of cedars suddenly died between August 1699 and May 1700. The cause was an earthquake that made the ground drop out from under itself. An ‘orphan tsunami’ of unknown origin at the time occurred on the coast of Japan. In 1966, seismologists determined that the magnitude-9.0 earthquake and land drop that killed the cedars of coastal Washington’s ghost forest created a massive wave half a continent long that struck the Northwest coast and then Japan. First nation tribes of the area have also passed down accounts of this event. Seafloor core samples recording the past ten thousand years of geographic history depict a deposit from torrents of land rushing off the continental slope. This evidence offers glimpses into the frequency and extent of Cascadia Subduction Zone ruptures. 41 times over the past 10,000 years, land has collapsed into the seafloor from earthquakes in the Pacific Northwest, leaving deposits. That is a recurrence interval of 243 years. The most recent earthquake happened there in 1700 (320 years ago), so the Pacific Northwest is almost 80 years overdue for another devastating event. Chris Goldfinger is a scientist studying the Cascadia Subduction Zone’s volatility. He predicts a one in three chance of a big earthquake in the next 50 years, and a one in ten chance of a completely catastrophic one. Which of the following is the author’s main purpose for paragraph 3?
    • To identify the connection between a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest and Japan
    • To interest the reader in the topic
    • To provide specific details on the likely timing of a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest
    • To explain the location of the Cascadia Subduction Zone

    Correct answer: To provide specific details on the likely timing of a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest

    This is correct. The paragraph identifies the specific recurrence interval and when the area is due for another occurrence. To identify the connection between a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest and Japan. This is incorrect because it is the purpose of paragraph 2, not paragraph 3. To interest the reader in the topic. This is incorrect because this is the general purpose of any introduction. To explain the location of the Cascadia Subduction Zone. This is incorrect because it is relevant to paragraph 1 rather than paragraph 3.

93. Welcome Aboard Congratulations on being selected! We look forward to having you as part of our crew. This study pack will guide you through your course of study — 40 hours approximately — and it is divided into two parts: ‘General’ and ‘Specific’. The former gives you an overview of the tasks that need to be carried out during each flight on a daily basis. The latter explains the procedures involved in the safety training. At the end of each section, there are revision questions to help you identify the areas that you need to improve on. Please ensure that you understand and learn all the information covered in your study pack. At the end of your training, there are five theory tests and one practical exam that you need to pass in order for you to become a fully-fledged cabin crew member. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?
    • Persuasive
    • Narrative
    • Expository
    • Technical

    Correct answer: Technical

    Technical is correct. This type of writing has the purpose to instruct and direct regarding a specific subject. In this case, the author is explaining the process of cabin crew training. Narrative is incorrect because the purpose of this passage is not to entertain or to tell a story. Persuasive is incorrect because the author is not trying to influence the reader by expressing their personal opinion. Expository is incorrect because the purpose of this passage is to instruct, not to explain or provide information about something.

94. First Day at Work Mara was nervously looking for her car keys because she couldn’t remember where she had put them. She could have easily taken the bus, but counting on the unreliable frequency of her town’s public transport didn’t fill her with confidence. It was her first day at work and she wanted to feel in control of the situation, so driving was the best option. Unfortunately, it was rush-hour — her least favourite time of the day. She would have to find her keys soon to avoid the stress of dashing through the busy roads of the city centre. Mara didn’t like rushing. She was a calm person and she didn’t like to do things in a hurry. She often arrived late at dinners, appointments and even business meetings. There they were! The keys were in her handbag all along. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?
    • Technical
    • Persuasive
    • Narrative
    • Expository

    Correct answer: Narrative

    Narrative is correct. The passage contains features of fiction writing, similar to short stories and novels. The author takes the reader through the thoughts and emotions of a woman on her first day of work. Persuasive is incorrect because the author is not trying to influence the reader by expressing their personal opinion. Expository is incorrect because this passage tells a story. It does not explain or provide information about something. Technical is incorrect because the passage does not outline any instructions or procedures to follow.

95. In “The Chimney Sweeper,” British poet William Blake uses dramatic irony to craft a poem that is all the more chilling for the naive innocence of the speaker. The speaker is a young chimney sweeper. Chimney sweepers had to be extremely small in order to crawl into chimneys, so they were children, not adults. It was also catastrophically unhealthy. This was not something a child ended up doing unless he was an orphan or his family was in perilously dire financial straits. The unnamed chimney sweeper in Blake’s poem recounts having been “sold” into the profession (2) and sleeping in “soot” (4). Despite a life of sadness and deprivation, he displays an unspoiled, child-like sweetness. He soothes another chimney sweeper and encourages dutiful patience, affirming, in the final line, that “if all do their duty, they need not fear harm” (24). The irony, of course, is that doing their duty (sweeping chimneys) is exactly what will send these young children to an early grave. The innocent young speaker doesn’t realize this, and his pure trust makes this poem more chilling for adult readers who recognize the irony and are more aware of the unfairness of the world. Which of the following citations would be the best resource to support the author’s purpose?
    • A citation from a famous actor
    • A citation from a literary scholar specializing in 20th century American literature
    • A citation from a literary scholar specializing in William Blake
    • A citation from a blog focused on poetry

    Correct answer: A citation from a literary scholar specializing in William Blake

    A citation from a literary scholar specializing in William Blake. This is correct because this person would have relevant expertise on the topic. A citation from a literary scholar specializing in 20th century American literature. This is incorrect. While a literary scholar would be in the correct general academic field, scholars specialize also within a field. A scholar specializing in 20th century American literature would not be an expert on William Blake. A citation from a blog focused on poetry. This is incorrect because it would not offer the same level of expertise as a secondary source written by an expert in a relevant field. A citation from a famous actor. This is incorrect because this person would not have the relevant expertise.

96. Fixing a Run-On Sentence Many people think a run-on sentence (also called a fused sentence) is just a really long sentence. However, it’s certainly possible to have a long sentence that is correctly punctuated. A run-on occurs when two independent clauses are squished together without appropriate punctuation or a conjunction. Run-on sentences can be corrected in a variety of ways. The most straightforward way to fix a run-on sentence is to simply add a period after the first independent clause. A semicolon can also separate independent clauses; however, semicolons and periods are not interchangeable. A period forms a stronger separation, whereas a semicolon keeps the two clauses in the same sentence, thus indicating a greater degree of relation than clauses separated by a period. Another punctuation choice is a comma. However, just adding a comma creates another type of error, a comma splice. A conjunction must be used with the comma. A coordinating conjunction would be placed after the comma. These conjunctions are for, and, nor, but, or, yet, and so. There are also subordinating conjunctions, such as when, after, although, and while. One of these would be placed at the beginning of one of the two independent clauses; the clause with the subordinating conjunction would then become dependent, making the comma joining the two clauses acceptable. One final type of conjunction is a conjunctive adverb, such as furthermore and otherwise. After the initial independent clause, there would be a semicolon, a conjunctive adverb, a comma, and then the next independent clause. Since there are various methods of fixing run-on sentences, how do you know which one to use? All of them are grammatically correct, so consider how each of them impacts style and meaning. You may find, for example, that while a period is the easiest method to end a sentence, overusing it can create choppy writing. Additionally, you may find that using a subordinating conjunction to make one of the clauses dependent better supports your meaning by shifting emphasis to the remaining independent clause. In any event, good grammar is about more than being “correct.” It also reinforces your meaning and helps you develop your writing style. What is the structure of the passage?
    • Argumentative
    • Comparison-contrast
    • Descriptive
    • Process analysis

    Correct answer: Process analysis

    This is correct since the passage is a how-to text. Descriptive is incorrect. The passage doesn’t describe run-ons in general but rather, how to fix them. Argumentative is incorrect. A run-on sentence is a type of grammatical error; it’s not something you can take a position for or against. Comparison-contrast is incorrect. While comma splices are mentioned, the focus of the passage isn’t comparing them to run-ons.

97. The Cascadia Subduction Zone: Picture the millions of people living in and around Portland and Seattle. They bustle about their daily lives right on the precipice of the West Coast of the United states. Now, zoom out. Seven hundred miles off that Pacific Northwest Coast lies the Cascadia Subduction Zone. It is situated within the 500 km by 40,000 km Ring of Fire — the volcanic hotbed wrapped around the Pacific Ocean rim. The name comes from the Cascadia Range, roughly one hundred miles inland. The volcanic mountain range stretches from northern California, up through Oregon and Washington to British Columbia. There is evidence of destructive earthquakes at the Cascadia Subduction Zone long before all those people got there. Another might be around the corner. Near the Washington coast, there is a ghost forest. Soil layers and dendrochronology (the study of growth-ring patterns) show that an entire grove of cedars suddenly died between August 1699 and May 1700. The cause was an earthquake that made the ground drop out from under itself. An ‘orphan tsunami’ of unknown origin at the time occurred on the coast of Japan. In 1966, seismologists determined that the magnitude-9.0 earthquake and land drop that killed the cedars of coastal Washington’s ghost forest created a massive wave half a continent long that struck the Northwest coast and then Japan. First nation tribes of the area have also passed down accounts of this event. Seafloor core samples recording the past ten thousand years of geographic history depict a deposit from torrents of land rushing off the continental slope. This evidence offers glimpses into the frequency and extent of Cascadia Subduction Zone ruptures. 41 times over the past 10,000 years, land has collapsed into the seafloor from earthquakes in the Pacific Northwest, leaving deposits. That is a recurrence interval of 243 years. The most recent earthquake happened there in 1700 (320 years ago), so the Pacific Northwest is almost 80 years overdue for another devastating event. Chris Goldfinger is a scientist studying the Cascadia Subduction Zone’s volatility. He predicts a one in three chance of a big earthquake in the next 50 years, and a one in ten chance of a completely catastrophic one. What is the purpose of the first sentence of the passage?
    • It calls out the target audience
    • It presents the thesis
    • It gives a warning to people who live in major Pacific Northwest cities
    • It encourages the readers to imaginatively enter into the topic

    Correct answer: It encourages the readers to imaginatively enter into the topic

    This is correct. The use of the word picture encourages imagination. With imaginative participation, the readers will be more interested in the topic and more likely to continue reading. It presents the thesis. This is incorrect because the thesis is usually presented at the end of the first paragraph. Also, the first sentence does not present a main idea about the passage. It gives a warning to people who live in major Pacific Northwest cities. This is incorrect because the sentence only asks readers to picture something. While a warning could be implied from later material, that hasn’t happened yet. It calls out the target audience. This is incorrect. The people of the Pacific Northwest (especially those who live in major cities as they are more numerous) would be closely concerned with this topic, but they aren’t identified as the target audience. This can be seen in the fact that they’re referred to as the third person. This implies that other people (the audience) are being asked to imagine them.

98. Public Transit Big cities offer unparalleled recreation options. There are restaurants, museums, parks, and other unique features. And, if you want to visit these places, you’ll notice something else big cities offer: traffic. Rather than sit in bumper-to-bumper traffic as your day and sanity slip away, consider using public transit. Not only will it save you the stress of driving, but some cities also offer innovative forms of transportation that are themselves pleasant and entertaining. Water Taxi, Seattle, Washington As part of its public transit array, Seattle offers a water taxi on two routes, both departing from Pier 50 on Alaskan Way. One goes to Vashon Island and the other to Seacrest Park in West Seattle. The vessels offer indoor seating and tables and plenty of windows so you can enjoy Pacific Northwest views while staying warm and dry, regardless of the weather. If you’d like to step outside, though, there are viewing decks available. The fare for an adult is $5.75 if you’re paying with cash or a ticket or $5.00 if you’re paying with a public transit card (an ORCA card). While this is a little pricier than the more mundane forms of public transit, the ride itself offers more than convenience; it is also part of the day’s fun. Which text feature is primarily used in this text?
    • Bolded term(s)
    • Footnote(s)
    • Italics
    • Headings and subheadings

    Correct answer: Headings and subheadings

    These features give readers an immediate idea of the content of the section. Italics is incorrect. These are words in slanted font and are not present. Footnote(s) is incorrect. These are notes that are called out by a number or letter and later explained at the bottom of a page; they are not present. Bolded term(s) is incorrect. While bold is used, it is used for the headings here and not to highlight specific terms within the passage.

99. After the baby was born, Angela spent two months on maternity leave before returning to work. Leave n. 1. a period of time off from work, usually for holiday or illness 2. official permission to do something 3. to arrange for someone to receive an inheritance when one dies 4. to go away from a place Which of the following dictionary definitions best fits the word leave as used in context?
    • Entry 3
    • Entry 1
    • Entry 4
    • Entry 2

    Correct answer: Entry 1

    This is correct because the context of the sentence describes a situation in which Angela was away from work (“before returning to work”) for a specific reason (maternity leave is a period of time away from work granted to a mother before and after the birth of a child). Entry 2 is incorrect. The correct use of Entry 2 is as follows: “The Secretary of State obtained leave to appeal against the sentence”. Entry 3 is incorrect. The correct use of Entry 3 is as follows: “My grandmother didn’t leave anything to her children when she passed away”. Also, here, the word leave is a verb, and we need a noun for the sentence. Entry 4 is incorrect. The correct use of Entry 4 is as follows: “She wanted to leave the party because she felt tired”. Also, here, the word leave is a verb, and we need a noun for the sentence.

100. The Decapitating Sea Slug: While the placid shallow waters of the South Pacific Ocean might call to mind images of tropical love stories, beneath their tranquil surface dwells a creature whose regenerative ability is more akin to the grisly spectacle of a horror film. This monster is no toothy menace, but rather the leaf-like sea slug, Elysia marginata. Recently, scientists have discovered that these slugs are able to decapitate themselves and regrow brand new bodies in a matter of weeks. This shocking finding represents a novel scientific discovery with numerous potential applications for human medicine. A few years ago, researchers at Nara Women’s University in Japan were astounded to find the severed head of one of their laboratory’s Elysia marginata sea slugs crawling away from its discarded body, continuing to eat algae as if nothing had occurred. Meanwhile, the body continued to show signs of life, wriggling and writhing around, with its heart still beating. Within three weeks, the sea slug had regrown a brand new body from the base of its detached head. While this kind of self-amputation, called autotomy, is not altogether uncommon across the animal kingdom, the sea slug’s feat is notable for the complexity of the body parts that it is able to regenerate. Various species of reptiles and insects are known to detach limbs in order to escape predation, and simple-bodied organisms like flatworms and sea squirts are able to regenerate large portions of their bodies. In each of these cases, however, the regrown body parts are relatively straightforward structures. Elysia marginata, on the other hand, is the first animal known to detach its entire body and then regrow vital organs such as its heart and kidneys. The secret to an Elysia marginata’s regeneration appears to lie in the chloroplasts that it hijacks from algae. Chloroplasts are the green-tinted drivers of photosynthesis that algae and other plants use to draw energy directly from the sun’s rays. Incredibly, when these sea slugs eat algae, they incorporate these chloroplasts into their own cells, giving them the nickname “solar-powered sea slugs”, and allowing them to synthesize sugars directly from the sun and thus survive without their organs. The sea slug’s radical autotomy appears to be a way to rid itself of parasitic infection. All of the individuals in the lab who underwent self-decapitation were observed to be carrying harmful parasites. After regenerating their bodies, these parasites were nowhere to be found. While researchers are thrilled by these novel discoveries, much remains unknown about the biological processes that enable this amazing phenomenon. Scientists believe that deepening our understanding of these slugs could one day lead to advances in regenerative medicine and other scientific fields. Which of the following words would the author use to describe regenerative medicine?
     • Promising
     • Opaque
     • Novel
     • Autotomic

     Correct answer: Promising

     The author feels that the field of regenerative medicine has much to offer. The last paragraph states that understanding the sea slug better could lead to advances, which would indicate that the field has some promise. The last paragraph also implies that part of the excitement around the sea slug relates to what these advances could be. Autotomic is incorrect. This is the adjective form of autotomy, or self-amputation. It is discussed in the passage as an ability or behavior of some creatures; it does not refer to regenerative medicine. Novel is incorrect. Novel means new. The field of regenerative medicine is not new or unheard of, even if more advances are expected. The word novel is used in the passage to refer to the discovery of the sea slug’s unique ability, not to the state of regenerative medicine. Opaque is incorrect. This means something that is unclear or hard to understand. While the field of regenerative medicine is doubtless challenging to understand, especially for a layperson, this isn’t how the writer feels about it in the passage.

101. Researchers have been studying the virus to trace the origin of the pandemic. Trace v. 1. an indication of the existence or passing of something 2. a quantity so small that cannot be measured 3. to find or discover something by investigation 4. to draw something with your finger or toe. Which of the following dictionary definitions best fits the word trace as used in context?
     • Entry 2
     • Entry 3
     • Entry 4
     • Entry 1

     Correct answer: Entry 4

     Entry 3 is correct because the researchers are analyzing the virus to discover (trace) how the pandemic started. Entry 1 is incorrect. The correct use of Entry 1 is as follows: “The killer didn’t leave any trace that could help the police”. Also, the word trace here is a noun, and we need a verb for the sentence. Entry 2 is incorrect. The correct use of Entry 2 is as follows: “There was no trace of alcohol in her blood”. Entry 4 is incorrect. The correct use of Entry 4 is as follows: “It’s so romantic when you trace the shape of a heart in the sand with your finger”.

102. Procrastination: Procrastination is often thought of as a time-management problem. In such a view, the person is simply so overwhelmed by their tasks or so inept at managing them that they are unable to make time for everything. Conversely, some see it as a laziness problem. In this view, the person doesn’t do much of anything, whether that be the particular task they are procrastinating or anything else, from housework to exercising to other important activities. However, even highly motivated and organized people procrastinate. That’s because procrastination is often an emotional response. For some reason, the task evokes a negative emotional reaction in the person. This often happens when the task is performative in some way, when we’ll be judged on it. It might therefore not be the task itself that we’re avoiding so much as the potential negative reaction to our efforts at the task. This feared negative reaction could come from others or even ourselves. We are often our own harshest critics, and the fear that what we’re doing isn’t good enough may keep us from starting the task in the first place, lest we risk confirming our fears. That a person who is procrastinating isn’t incapable of time management and isn’t lazy is often clear in that people who are procrastinating often assuage their guilt by making great progress in other tasks. Then, they are able to accomplish something while avoiding the task that evokes negative emotions. What is the structure of the passage?
     • Cause-effect
     • Argumentative
     • Process analysis
     • Narrative

     Correct answer: Cause-effect

     This is correct because the passage focuses on the most accurate cause or source of procrastination. It briefly explains factors that are often considered the causes of procrastination and then transitions to present a more reasonable and likely cause. Narrative is incorrect. The passage does not tell a story. Instead, it provides information. Process analysis is incorrect. The passage does explain how to procrastinate. Argumentative is incorrect. The passage does not take and support a stance on procrastination.

103. I asked him to be more polite – he can’t just bark his orders at everyone. Bark v. 1. thin sheet of chocolate topped with nuts 2. the tough outer layer of a tree 3. to give commands in an aggressive manner 4. to make a sound like a dog Which of the following dictionary definitions best fits the word bark as used in context?
     • Entry 2
     • Entry 1
     • Entry 4
     • Entry 3

     Correct answer: Entry 3

     This is correct. It makes sense in context because it implies that the “orders” (commands) have been given in an aggressive manner (as in, “I asked him to be more polite”). Entry 1 is incorrect because bark is a noun here. We are looking for a verb. In addition, the context (giving orders) doesn’t relate to the definition (chocolate with nuts). Entry 2 is incorrect because bark is a noun here. We are looking for a verb. In addition, the context (giving orders) doesn’t relate to the definition (outer layer of a tree) Entry 4 is incorrect because the context of the sentence (giving orders) doesn’t match this definition (to sound like a dog).

104. COVID Price-Gouging With the onslaught of COVID-19, people naturally wanted to do what they could to ensure their families’ safety and their own. For many, this meant increased attention to hand-washing and sanitizing. Accordingly, store shelves were soon barren of cleaning and sanitizing products. While the sudden increase in demand was certainly a cause of this, the shortage was exacerbated by opportunistic individuals who quickly made the rounds of every store in reach, buying up huge supplies of these products in order to sell them at an exorbitant cost to desperate people. Many people were willing to pay these prices, but that doesn’t mean they were happy about it. State attorney generals noted vast increases in complaints of price gouging, and, as most states have laws against price gouging, these complaints were legally actionable. Many retailers received citations and fines for price gouging. Additionally, online retailers like Amazon took action, including the removal of thousands of seller accounts. That products like sanitizer were viewed as necessities for the pandemic and not luxuries likely increased people’s indignation. Supplying a need and creating a reasonable profit is one thing, but artificially amplifying that need by hoarding products and then taking advantage of people’s desperation is another. What is the structure of the passage?
     • Comparison-contrast
     • Persuasive
     • Narrative
     • Cause-effect

     Correct answer: Cause-effect

     This is correct because the passage is primarily a cause-and-effect analysis. It explains a contributing cause to the shortage of certain products and then the effects of price gouging, especially as consequences for those engaged in it. Narrative is incorrect. The passage is not in the style of a story. It is an informational text. Persuasive is incorrect. This passage does not attempt to do something or think a certain way about the content. Comparison-contrast is incorrect. This passage does not compare and contrast different things or ideas. Rather, it simply provides information about COVID price gouging.

105. The Necks of Flying Dinosaurs: During the late Cretaceous period, the skies were filled with giants. Around 70 million years ago, few creatures were safe from the pterosaurs who soared through the air and preyed on all kinds of living things below. The most formidable of them all, Quetzalcoatlus northropi, had a wingspan that stretched up to 33 feet and a neck as long as a giraffe’s. It is thought to be the largest living thing to ever fly. Until recently, scientists were at a loss to explain how this gargantuan creature could possibly carry heavy prey in its beak without breaking its long neck. This question has now been answered, thanks to a new study that found the flying reptile possess bones unlike any others found in nature. As a part of this breakthrough study, Ph.D. students at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign utilized a CT scan to analyze a pterosaur vertebra found in the Kem Kem fossil beds of Morocco. They couldn’t believe what they found. Inside, the vertebra was composed of an intricate network of struts, connecting a central tube to the outer walls of the bone. Its cross-section looks much like a bicycle wheel, with spokes radiating out from a central point. A bone like this had never been seen in the animal kingdom. The spoke structure allowed pterosaurs’ necks to be both lightweight and extremely strong. The team behind the discovery calculated that the addition of just 50 spokes increased the weight the bone could carry by 90 percent. The research team plans to follow up this study by scanning the vertebrae of other pterosaur species, to see whether they also possess this unique structure. In order to lift their massive bodies into the air, pterosaurs had to be exceptionally light for their size, and their bones needed to be thin and nearly hollow like those of a bird. As a result, their bones were exceedingly fragile and have mainly disintegrated over time. Though largely absent from the fossil record, pterosaur bones have been well preserved at the Kem Kem fossil site, which was once a thriving river system. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about early scientists’ opinions of the Quetzalcoatlus northropi?
     • It can be inferred that early scientists found the Quetzalcoatlus northropi uninspiring.
     • It can be inferred that early scientists found the Quetzalcoatlus northropi baffling.
     • It can be inferred that early scientists found the Quetzalcoatlus northropi fathomable.
     • It can be inferred that early scientists found the Quetzalcoatlus northropi trivial.

     Correct answer: It can be inferred that early scientists found the Quetzalcoatlus northropi baffling.

     The passage says these scientists were “at a loss” about how the creature was able to carry weighty prey without harming itself. This indicates that the scientists had no idea at all. Baffling fits well with this, as it means the scientists were utterly confused. It can be inferred that early scientists found the Quetzalcoatlus northropi uninspiring. This is incorrect. While the scientists were confused by the creature’s neck, that doesn’t mean they found it uninspiring. In fact, the mystery that the creature presented may have made it even more inspiring to them. It can be inferred that early scientists found the Quetzalcoatlus northropi trivial. This is incorrect. Trivial means inconsequential, of no significance. That the early scientists devoted time to trying to understand the creature, even if they didn’t find all the answers they sought, shows they did not feel that it was trivial. It can be inferred that early scientists found the Quetzalcoatlus northropi fathomable. This is incorrect. Something that is fathomable can be understood, but we learn that the early scientists were “at a loss” about how to understand the creature’s ability to carry heavy prey without harming itself. So, there was something significant about it that they had no explanation for.

106. Beloved English novelist Jane Austen died at age 41 of what most biographers believe to have been Addison’s disease, an endocrine disorder named after Thomas Addison, who first described it in 1855. The author uses italics __________.
     • To emphasize a point
     • To provide an explanation
     • To identify a new term
     • To question a point

     Correct answer: To identify a new term

     Authors can use italics (slanted font) to draw attention to words and terms they expect their readers to be unfamiliar with. To question a point is incorrect. Since italics can be used to add emphasis, that emphasis could involve a question, but that isn’t occurring here. To provide an explanation is incorrect. There is a brief explanation in this sentence, but it is not part of the italicized material. To emphasize a point is incorrect. Italics always draw attention, but in this case, they are not emphasizing a point but highlighting a term.

107. Play Therapy: Some might associate vibrant colored blocks and crayons with frivolity. For children, playing is not an absent way to kill time. Playing is a primary way for children to interpret experiences and communicate. So, mental health professionals have utilized play in children’s therapy since the early 1900s. Child-Centered Play Therapy (CCPT) resembles person-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers. It is the most prevalent play therapy approach in the U.S. The Association for Play Therapy (APT) was established in 1982. It has published many findings, developed training, and contributed to the rapid growth of play therapy over the past few decades. A well-trained therapist uses individualized play therapy in a variety of clinical applications. CCPT aims for children aged three to ten years. Ages two to ten (preoperational stage) have emerging abilities to represent surroundings in words and images. Four to seven is when reasoning and self-regulation skills develop. Cognition grows in complexity during the concrete operational stage from seven to eleven. Then comes abstract thought and deduction during the adolescent formal operational stage. Play therapy adapts to older children and adolescents, too. They begin to experience deeper emotional complexity and social relationships. Play therapy’s versatility and capacity to access nonverbal parts of the brain suits a host of challenges in addition to a range of age groups. It helps address aggression, ADHD, anxiety, depression, speech problems, and trauma. The principles behind CCPT mirror Carl Rogers’ standards. They emphasize empathy, acceptance, and unconditional positive regard for the client. The idea is to facilitate the child’s innate propensity for growth and self-directed healing. Therapists find imaginative ways to visualize difficult concepts, navigate relationships, and build confidence. CCPT appears in more than 90 cross-cultural studies spanning seven decades, including meta-analyses. The research shows encouraging outcomes for children across diverse circumstances and conditions. It works because play is a natural, enjoyable, and enriching state. It meets children where they are, to help them unlock their inner selves. What is the main purpose of the text?
     • To explain the best ways to treat childhood problems
     • To explain what children are most likely to benefit from Child-Centered Play Therapy
     • To explain Child-Centered Play Therapy
     • To explain the contributions of Carl Rogers to psychological treatment methods

     Correct answer: To explain Child-Centered Play Therapy

     This is correct. The passage is informative. It explains the origin, application, and general principles of Child-Centered Play Therapy. To explain the best ways to treat childhood problems. This is incorrect because it is too broad. The passage focuses on Child-Centered Play Therapy specifically, not treatment methods in general. To explain what children are most likely to benefit from Child-Centered Play Therapy. This is incorrect. The passage does explain that CCPT is applicable to children of various ages, but this isn’t the aim of the entire passage. It is mentioned in just one paragraph. To explain the contributions of Carl Rogers to psychological treatment methods. This is incorrect because while Carl Rogers is discussed as the developer of CCPT, the passage isn’t focused on him or his contributions in general.

108. Eyebrows can be tweezed, trimmed, penciled in, microbladed, tattooed, and, in a more recent trend, laminated. Eyebrow lamination gives eyebrows a thicker, fuller look, in contrast to the thinner, more heavily plucked look favored in the 90’s and early 2000’s. The process of eyebrow lamination starts with the application of a degreasing solution. Next comes a perming gel, and then the eyebrows are brushed. Finally, a neutralizing gel sets the brows. This process involves several chemicals, so it’s important that it be done by a trained esthetician. Which text feature is primarily used in this text?
     • Bolded term(s)
     • Footnote(s)
     • Italics
     • Headings and subheadings

     Correct answer: Bolded term(s)

     A key term is bolded so readers recognize its importance to the text. Headings and subheadings is incorrect. These don’t occur in the passage. Italics is incorrect. These are words in slanted font and are not present. Footnote(s) is incorrect. These are notes that are called out by a number or letter and later explained at the bottom of a page; they are not present.

109. Tokyo Declaration In 2015, the Tokyo Declaration on Dental Care and Oral Health for Healthy Longevity was adopted at the end of the World Congress. With this declaration, policy-makers and health professionals are asked to actively contribute to the promotion of equal provision of oral health solutions. Among others, the main objectives of this declaration are to gather scientific evidence regarding the impact of oral health on longevity and to introduce new policies based on such evidence. This is part of the plan towards the implementation of WHO’s Global Action Plan for the Prevention and Control of Noncommunicable diseases (2013-2030). Which of the following best describes this type of writing?
     • Narrative
     • Persuasive
     • Technical
     • Expository

     Correct answer: Expository

     Expository is correct because the purpose of the passage is to inform the readers about certain facts, without offering the author’s opinion. Narrative is incorrect because the purpose of this passage is not to tell a story, but to provide information. Persuasive is incorrect is because the author is not trying to influence the reader by expressing their personal opinion. Technical is incorrect because the passage does not outline any instructions or procedures to follow.

110. Opportunity for Experience Hi everyone! I’m reaching out on behalf of a fellow educational writer who has just finished writing his first book, due to be published later this year. The content is great and the resource has great potential, but the manuscript requires some editing. Although this project is unpaid, it will offer you the unique opportunity to get your name out there if you are new to the game. What’s more, it would give you the chance to showcase your editorial skills on your CV. Drop me a line if you are available. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?
     • Narrative
     • Persuasive
     • Technical
     • Expository

     Correct answer: Persuasive

     Persuasive is correct. The author is trying to convince the readers to respond to their appeal by using language that emphasizes the positive aspects of their offer, such as ‘unique opportunity’, ‘get your name out there’, ‘the chance to showcase…’, etc. Narrative is incorrect because the purpose of this passage is not to entertain or tell a story. Expository is incorrect because the purpose of this passage is not to explain or provide information about something. Technical is incorrect because the passage does not outline any instructions or procedures to follow.

111. Universal Design for Learning (UDL) is a teaching framework that seeks to increase accessibility and reduce barriers for students. It is organized around three principles: providing students with multiple means of engagement, multiple means of representation, and multiple means of action and expression. Within each principle are numerous teaching and classroom management strategies that teachers could implement. This might seem overwhelming, but it’s important to realize that not all strategies would work for all classes. Additionally, the strategies vary in the degree to which they rely on technology. Some do not at all rely on technology, while some are fairly high-tech, and some are in the middle. This means that there’s something available for all teachers to implement, no matter what their comfort level with technology may be. However, it should be noted that technological tools open up more options for increasing student access. For example, providing discussions online via your school’s learning management system (LMS) as well as in person provides an additional way for students to interact with their classmates and the teacher. Online discussions can increase engagement for students who might be too shy to easily engage in in-person discussions. Additionally, online discussions give students a chance to put more effort into developing and refining their contributions, which might be significantly harder in a real-time, in-person discussion. This helps students successfully convey their ideas and gain mastery of class concepts. Which of the following citations would be the best resource to support the author’s purpose?
     • A citation from a teacher who does not use and is not interested in using UDL principles in her class
     • A citation from a politician
     • A citation from a teacher who has successfully implemented UDL principles in her class
     • A citation from an administrator

     Correct answer: A citation from a teacher who has successfully implemented UDL principles in her class

     A citation from a teacher who has successfully implemented UDL principles in her class. This is correct because a teacher would have expertise relevant to the topic, and a teacher who had used UDL principles would have experience relevant to the topic. A citation from an administrator. This is incorrect because while some administrators do have teaching experience, someone who is actively involved with teaching would make for a better source. A citation from a politician. This is incorrect because while a politician might work on laws that are relevant to schools, a politician’s area of expertise is not educational strategies. A citation from a teacher who does not use and is not interested in using UDL principles in her class. This is incorrect. A teacher would have relevant expertise, but a teacher who does not use UDL and is not interested in doing so would not have relevant experience.

112. Although staying hydrated is important, it’s also important to avoid extremes; excessive water consumption can result in death. The author uses italics ___________.
     • To make a comparison
     • To emphasize a point
     • To explain a key term
     • To introduce new vocabulary

     Correct answer: To emphasize a point

     Italics are visually distinct from normal text (slanted font) and thus draw readers’ attention. Here we see the italics emphasize something that is meant to serve as a warning. To introduce new vocabulary is incorrect. There is no new term being introduced. To explain a key term is incorrect. While there is a brief explanation, it is of the dangers of excessive water consumption, not of a key term. To make a comparison is incorrect. There is no comparison being made.

113. The Longest Voyage : 1. When you think of long voyages, your mind might immediately think back to a tedious transatlantic flight or perhaps even a relaxing cruise journey across vast oceans. Botanists and environmentalists, on the other hand, would probably think about the famous migration pattern of the vanessa cardui, a native sub-Saharan butterfly that makes an exceptional, yearly expedition from West Africa to Scandinavia, totaling just over 8,600 miles each year! Past research has indicated that specific climatic conditions likely need to be present in order for these butterflies to make the long journey and breed around the world successfully. However, evidence has always been lacking — until now. Thanks to a recent study on migration patterns, more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey of these insects. 2. This well-traveled species goes by a few different names, ranging from its scientific term, vanessa cardui, to the colloquial nickname of the “painted lady”. Unlike similar species, the painted lady breeds constantly throughout the year. Thus, it is one of the most popular butterflies that can thrive in almost any climate and can be found in gardens on every continent, excluding South America and Antarctica. While most are probably not familiar with the scientific details surrounding this butterfly, it has definitely become a household name. According to a psychology study, an astounding number of people picture the painted lady’s classic orange and black wing detail when asked to describe the image of a butterfly. As of now, even more information is known regarding this popular species. 3. To begin the research process on migration patterns, a team from the University of Reading (UK) compared data regarding the presence of the butterfly in Europe. The study included decades worth of information regarding the climate and atmosphere of sub-Saharan Africa. After the initial analysis, scientists discovered that the number of specimens of the vanessa cardui in Europe alone can actually fluctuate up to 100 times from one year to the next. When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa. The number of painted lady butterflies in Europe matched up with the climate data from the past few decades, finally providing enough evidence to solidify past speculation. 4. Regarding vegetation, it has been found that the vanessa cardui caterpillars multiply at a rapid speed when the African savannah’s humidity rate is higher than average. This allows the species to become stronger before crossing the Sahara desert. When it comes to winds, simulations have shown that the stronger the tailwind, the easier it is for the species to reach the necessary altitude of two miles above sea level. This height allows them to attain a desirable flight speed of 6 miles per second. While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effect that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
     • Fluctuations in wind patterns and decreased vegetation can have detrimental effects on the migration patterns of the vanessa cardui.
     • The painted butterfly species will have a harder time migrating if there is hardly any wind present.
     • Differences in wind patterns and vegetation can result in vast differences in the number of painted lady butterflies that successfully migrate.
     • The climate and atmospheric conditions of sub-Saharan Africa are fluctuating each year, making it difficult for the vanessa cardui to complete successful migrations at a steady pace.

     Correct answer: Differences in wind patterns and vegetation can result in vast differences in the number of painted lady butterflies that successfully migrate.

     This is the most comprehensive summary for the paragraph because it highlights the fact that differences in wind patterns and vegetation can have an impact on the number of painted lady butterflies that migrate successfully. The climate and atmospheric conditions of sub-Saharan Africa are fluctuating each year, making it difficult for the vanessa cardui to complete successful migrations at a steady pace. This is incorrect. This may have seemed like the best option because it includes all of the major details given in the paragraph, including the climate and atmospheric conditions of sub-Saharan Africa. However, the paragraph does not state that the conditions are fluctuating each year. Rather, it says that “the number of specimens of the vanessa cardui in Europe alone can actually fluctuate…”. It is true that the conditions related to the climate can vary, but it cannot be inferred that they are fluctuating each year. Fluctuations in wind patterns and decreased vegetation can have detrimental effects on the migration patterns of the vanessa cardui. This is incorrect since the paragraph does not state that anything detrimental can occur to the species because of the fluctuations in wind patterns or decreased vegetation. Rather, it only discusses the fact that differences in wind patterns and vegetation have an effect on the number of migrations. The painted butterfly species will have a harder time migrating if there is hardly any wind present. This is incorrect. Although this could be a logical inference based on the information in the passage, it is not a comprehensive summary. It also fails to include information regarding the impact of vegetation on the painted lady butterfly.

114. The aspiring author decided to write her book in imitation of the trends; her story, therefore, was banal. Which of the following is an antonym for the word “banal” as used in the sentence above?
     • Stale
     • Trite
     • Original
     • Conventional

     Correct answer: Original

     Original is correct. It is the opposite of banal. Since the writer deliberately imitated others, it is logical that her writing would not be original, so we can see that the word original is an antonym of banal. Trite is incorrect. It is a synonym of banal, instead of an antonym because it means overused. Conventional is incorrect. It is also similar in meaning to banal. It means something that follows the standard, accepted way of doing things. It could serve as a replacement for banal in the sentence. Stale is incorrect. It is more figurative than the other incorrect answers, but it too is similar in meaning to banal and hence not an antonym.

115. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the following information? As soon as I hear the overture start playing from the orchestra, I always feel as though I never should have become a musical theatre performer. If I told most people that I suffer from complex stage fright, they would be shocked, given my outgoing personality and long career in the theatre arts.
     • The performer has never had another job outside of the theatre.
     • If the performer avoided listening to the overture, they would feel better.
     • The performer has probably had counseling for their stage fright.
     • Most people do not know about the performer’s stage fright.

     Correct answer: Most people do not know about the performer’s stage fright.

     The passage states, “If I told most people that I suffer from complex stage fright, they would be shocked, given my outgoing personality and long career in the theatre arts”. This proves that the performer has not told “most” people about their stage fright since they believe that people would “be shocked”. The performer has never had another job outside of the theatre. This is incorrect. Even though the performer mentions their “long career in the theatre arts”, it does not necessarily mean that they have not had another job outside of the theatre. All we can correctly infer from the text is that they have had a long career. The performer has probably had counseling for their stage fright. This is incorrect. Nothing in the text leads us to correctly infer this. If the performer avoided listening to the overture, they would feel better. This is incorrect, even though the performer specifically mentions the overture when expressing their feelings. The performer also mentions a “complex stage fright”, so we cannot simply suggest that the overture is the only component that would help the performer. The overture could simply be a specific trigger that is symbolic of a bigger feeling of “complex stage fright”. Even if the performer did not listen to the overture, it does not mean that they would “feel better”. So, we cannot infer this answer option with any accuracy.

116. Chaos in Translation 1. Although it can seem quite technical, translating texts into different languages is a delicate art. Not only does it require a solid understanding of languages, but it also calls for an artistic voice that can truly make the words seem natural to native speakers. When it is done well, readers do not even realize that they are reading a text that has been translated from another language. When it is done badly, however, chaos ensues. One of the most emblematic examples of a translation mishap occurred at the dawn of the twentieth century, when an American diplomat received an incorrectly translated copy of a popular book about aliens. As you might imagine, the mistake ignited both fear and disbelief regarding a concept that was already so foreign to begin with. 2. It all started with Giovanni Virginio Schiaparelli, an Italian astronomer and astrophysicist, in the late 1800s. In addition to studying astronomy at renowned universities, Schiaparelli was the lead director of a famous observatory in Milan, where he was able to observe stars and planets with a telescope. When he first viewed Mars this way in 1877, he quickly made a hand drawn picture of what he had seen on a piece of paper. Using this reference, he believed that the chromatic differences and the “grooves” that he had seen on the surface of Mars meant that continents and seas existed on the planet. Even more interesting was the fact that “channels”, bodies of water that join two larger areas of water, seemed to connect the various seas. Of course, Schiaparelli had written the original works and explanations in his native language of Italian. He immediately received national success for his findings, and his works were quickly translated into English. 3. Once the information made its way into the United States, it attracted the attention of a wealthy American named Percival Lowell, who had previously abandoned his career as a foreign diplomat to invest his time and interests in astronomy. He, too, had observed Mars with a telescope, but was shocked when he read Schiaparelli’s description of the planet. Although he was familiar with the grooves and ridges described in Schiaparelli’s work, he was shocked to read about the “canals” — artificial man-made structures — that connected large bodies of water on Mars. Not only did this prove that life exists on Mars, but it suggested that these life forms could construct immense structures in a short period of time! Understanding that Schiaparelli had been a distinguished astronomer and a credible source, Lowell decided that the shocking discovery must be made accessible to the public. 4. What he did not realize at the time, however, was that the translation was incorrect, and Schiaparelli had never intended to say that man-made structures existed on Mars. In any case, on August 27, 1911, the front page of the New York Times contained a startling headline: “Martians Build Two Immense Canals in Two Years”. This gave rise to incorrect assumptions about intelligent life on Mars. For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in, while others remained skeptical. Luckily, the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography. Despite this, conspiracy theories about “martians” and their strength persisted for decades to come. Later, scientists and other astronomers came to the conclusion that the channels were simply optical illusions, and future high-resolution snapshots from visiting spacecrafts would only confirm that the man-made “canals” were only a result of a language mishap. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from paragraph 2?
     • Schiaparelli was already well-known in the field of astronomy, even before his findings of “channels” became public.
     • Although he was an astrophysicist, Schiaparelli’s true passion was directing the observatory in Milan.
     • Schiaparelli was skilled at various arts, including drawing planets.
     • The geographical terrain of Mars had the most impact on Schiaparelli’s idea of “channels” on the planet.

     Correct answer: Schiaparelli was already well-known in the field of astronomy, even before his findings of “channels” became public.

     The statements earlier in the paragraph prove this to be true. The author states, “In addition to studying astronomy, Schiaparelli was the lead director of a famous observatory in Milan, where he was able to observe stars and planets with a telescope”. The fact that Schiaparelli was a leading director of a famous observatory suggests that he was well-known even before the findings presented in the passage became public. Although he was an astrophysicist, Schiaparelli’s true passion was directing the observatory in Milan. This is incorrect. Although the author states that Schiaparelli did both of these things, nothing suggests that one was more important than the other. Schiaparelli was skilled at various arts, including drawing planets. This is incorrect, even though the passage states, “When he first viewed Mars this way in 1877, he quickly made a hand drawn picture of what he had seen on a piece of paper. Using this reference, he believed that the chromatic differences and the ‘grooves’ that he had seen on the surface of Mars meant that continents and seas existed on the planet”. Even if the drawings allowed him to imbibe more information about Mars, we cannot infer that he was skilled at the arts in general or even at drawing planets. Additionally, we cannot accurately infer anything about the quality of the drawings, as he could have made rough drawings that were understandable only to him. The geographical terrain of Mars majorly impacted Schiaparelli’s idea of “channels” on the planet. This is incorrect. The statement, “he believed that the chromatic differences and the ‘grooves’ that he had seen on the surface of Mars meant that continents and seas existed on the planet” proves this to be correct, as “chromatic differences” and “grooves”

117. It was imprudent to attempt such a difficult stunt without the proper safety precautions. Which of the following is an antonym for the word “imprudent” as used in the sentence?
     • Incautious
     • Rational
     • Rash
     • Reserved

     Correct answer: Rational

     Rational is correct. It is the opposite, or an antonym, of imprudent. We can see from the context clues that what the person did put their safety at risk. So, that would be the opposite of rational, which means to do something that makes sense, or that is reasonable. Incautious is incorrect. It is a synonym for imprudent, meaning careless, as opposed to an antonym. Rash is also incorrect. It is not an antonym for imprudent. As an adjective, rash means jumping into something too quickly, not taking reasonable precautions. Reserved is incorrect. It means to set something aside for a purpose or to be restrained. It is out of context in this sentence.

118. After her diatribe against the manager, she was called in for a discussion on more productive methods of conflict resolution. A synonym for “diatribe” as it is used in this sentence is ___________.
     • Diplomacy
     • Discussion
     • Tirade
     • Civility

     Correct answer: Tirade

     Tirade is correct because it is a synonym for diatribe. It means sharp criticism, a verbal attack. Diplomacy is incorrect. Its meaning is the opposite of diatribe, which means tirade. Diplomacy would require more peacefulness. Discussion is incorrect. Its connotation is more neutral, whereas diatribe is not neutral, but angry. Civility is incorrect. It means polite, whereas a diatribe would not be polite, but angry.

119. The Longest Voyage : 1. When you think of long voyages, your mind might immediately think back to a tedious transatlantic flight or perhaps even a relaxing cruise journey across vast oceans. Botanists and environmentalists, on the other hand, would probably think about the famous migration pattern of the vanessa cardui, a native sub-Saharan butterfly that makes an exceptional, yearly expedition from West Africa to Scandinavia, totaling just over 8,600 miles each year! Past research has indicated that specific climatic conditions likely need to be present in order for these butterflies to make the long journey and breed around the world successfully. However, evidence has always been lacking — until now. Thanks to a recent study on migration patterns, more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey of these insects. 2. This well-traveled species goes by a few different names, ranging from its scientific term, vanessa cardui, to the colloquial nickname of the “painted lady”. Unlike similar species, the painted lady breeds constantly throughout the year. Thus, it is one of the most popular butterflies that can thrive in almost any climate and can be found in gardens on every continent, excluding South America and Antarctica. While most are probably not familiar with the scientific details surrounding this butterfly, it has definitely become a household name. According to a psychology study, an astounding number of people picture the painted lady’s classic orange and black wing detail when asked to describe the image of a butterfly. As of now, even more information is known regarding this popular species. 3. To begin the research process on migration patterns, a team from the University of Reading (UK) compared data regarding the presence of the butterfly in Europe. The study included decades worth of information regarding the climate and atmosphere of sub-Saharan Africa. After the initial analysis, scientists discovered that the number of specimens of the vanessa cardui in Europe alone can actually fluctuate up to 100 times from one year to the next. When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa. The number of painted lady butterflies in Europe matched up with the climate data from the past few decades, finally providing enough evidence to solidify past speculation. 4. Regarding vegetation, it has been found that the vanessa cardui caterpillars multiply at a rapid speed when the African savannah’s humidity rate is higher than average. This allows the species to become stronger before crossing the Sahara desert. When it comes to winds, simulations have shown that the stronger the tailwind, the easier it is for the species to reach the necessary altitude of two miles above sea level. This height allows them to attain a desirable flight speed of 6 miles per second. While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effect that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 2?
     • The vanessa cardui is unlike other butterfly species because it can procreate quickly, thus leading to its widespread existence.
     • The painted lady butterfly is popular, adaptable to different climates, and quite ubiquitous.
     • Research suggests that people are very familiar with the painted butterfly because it is found on nearly every continent.
     • Not many people are familiar with the details of how the vanessa cardui migrate, but they would be able to detail the species’ physical characteristics.

     Correct answer: The painted lady butterfly is popular, adaptable to different climates, and quite ubiquitous.

     This is correct. The goalof this paragraph is to provide the reader with background information regarding the vanessa cardui, or the “painted lady butterfly”. The text states, “Unlike similar species, the painted lady breeds constantly throughout the year. Thus, it is one of the most popular butterflies that can thrive in almost any climate, and can be found in gardens on every continent”. The information in the answer option satisfies all of these points and is therefore the most comprehensive. Research suggests that people are very familiar with the painted butterfly because it is found on nearly every continent. This is incorrect. Although the information is correct and combines two details given in the paragraph, it is not the focus of the paragraph and therefore is irrelevant for a summary. This information serves solely as a way for the reader to understand that the vanessa cardui is quite popular. The vanessa cardui is unlike other butterfly species because it can procreate quickly, thus leading to its widespread existence. This is incorrect because it is not the main idea of the paragraph, even though it contains two ideas that are present in the text. Although the vanessa cardui is unlike other species, breeds “constantly throughout the year”, and “can be found in gardens on every continent”, this statement is still not the most comprehensive summary. Specifically, the fact that the species is unique is not necessary to highlight, as it is just a supporting detail. Not many people are familiar with the details of how the vanessa cardui migrate, but they would be able to detail the species’ physical characteristics. This is incorrect because it is not factually correct. The paragraph states, “According to a psychology study, an astounding number of people picture the painted lady’s classic orange and black wing detail when asked to describe the image of a butterfly”. However, the answer option suggests that people would be able to detail the specifics of this butterfly while knowing that it is the vanessa cardui. The text implies that people think of the species’ physical details as those of a standard butterfly. Additionally, the paragraph does not describe any migration details.

120. 4 1 1 2 3 4 1 2 4 1 Using the number string above, replace every 1 with the letter T, every 2 with the letter A, every 3 with the letter S, and every 4 with the letter G. For letters that appear only twice, delete the first instance of those letters. Delete the first two letters in the string, and replace the letter T with the letter R only the first time it appears.
     • RTSGTAGT
     • RSGRAGR
     • RSGTAGT
     • TSGTAGT

     Correct answer: RSGTAGT

     RSGTAGT is the correct answer. Let’s examine this step by step: 4112341241 Step 1: Replace every 1 with the letter T. 4TT234T24T Step 2: Replace every 2 with the letter A. 4TTA34TA4 Step 3: Replace every 3 with the letter S. 4TTAS4TA4T Step 4: Replace every 4 with the letter G. GTTASGTAGT Step 5: For letters that appear only twice, delete the first instance of those letters. (Since A appears twice, only the first A will be deleted). GTTSGTAGT Step 6: Delete the first two letters in the string. TSGTAGT Step 7: Replace the letter T with the letter R only the first time it appears. RSGTAGT are the letters that remain.

121. Book or movie? : 1. You shouldn’t miss this movie. Don’t get me wrong, the book is great too, but the movie brings a different appeal. This often happens in the industry. You see, the book is entertaining, but it begins with long winded and detailed descriptions of the setting and characters, while the movie kicks off with explosive action scenes that will keep you on edge for some time. The overall storyline of the movie, however, is not affected by these dissimilarities. 2. The plot of both the novel and the movie adaptation is about a post-apocalyptic world, years from now, where people struggle to survive. Trying to escape their depressing daily routines, people spend time in a virtual world where they can reinvent themselves. During his time in the virtual world, one of the ‘players’ finds love and clues that lead him to inherit the wealth that the creator of this game has accumulated before his death. Which of the sentences from the passage best presents the topic of the passage?
     • The plot is about a post-apocalyptic world, years from now, where people struggle to survive.
     • You shouldn’t miss this movie.
     • During his time in the virtual world, one of the ‘players’ finds love and clues.
     • Don’t get me wrong, the book is great too, but the movie brings a different appeal.

     Correct answer: Don’t get me wrong, the book is great too, but the movie brings a different appeal.

     Don’t get me wrong, the book is great too, but the movie brings a different appeal is correct because the passage describes the plot as well as the differences between the book and the movie. There are many differences that can be found right from the start is incorrect because the differences are only part of the topic of the whole passage. The plot is about a post-apocalyptic world years from now, where people struggle to survive is incorrect because it provides details about the storyline, not the topic of the passage. During his time in the virtual world, one of the ‘players’ finds love and clues is incorrect because it is part of the storyline and therefore a supporting detail, not the topic of the passage.

122. Book or movie? : 1. You shouldn’t miss this movie. Don’t get me wrong, the book is great too, but the movie brings a different appeal. This often happens in the industry. You see, the book is entertaining, but it begins with long winded and detailed descriptions of the setting and characters, while the movie kicks off with explosive action scenes that will keep you on edge for some time. The overall storyline of the movie, however, is not affected by these dissimilarities. 2. The plot of both the novel and the movie adaptation is about a post-apocalyptic world, years from now, where people struggle to survive. Trying to escape their depressing daily routines, people spend time in a virtual world where they can reinvent themselves. During his time in the virtual world, one of the ‘players’ finds love and clues that lead him to inherit the wealth that the creator of this game has accumulated before his death. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
     • Written narratives are sometimes different from motion pictures.
     • There is a contrast between our real lives and our dream lives.
     • The setting and characters are described in great detail.
     • Certain audiences might enjoy this storyline more than others.

     Correct answer: Written narratives are sometimes different from motion pictures.

     Written narratives are sometimes different from motion pictures is correct because the main idea of the first paragraph is centered around the differences between the book and the movie. Certain audiences might enjoy this storyline more than others is incorrect. The narrator encourages everyone to engage with this storyline, but this is simply the introductory sentence, not the main idea. The setting and characters are described in great detail is incorrect because it is a detail that supports the idea that the novel is different from the film. There is a contrast between our real lives and our dream lives is incorrect because there is no evidence of this in the passage.

123. To: Seymour Lewis From: Amber Shield Subject: Additional Materials Requested Dear Mr. Lewis, Thank you for your interest in East Oliver County’s call for submissions in our sustainability campaign. Our team has reviewed your proposal on placing sustainable water fountains throughout the city, and we are quite intrigued. The ideas you put forth in your proposal are both innovative and relevant to East Oliver’s needs at this time. However, we need more information regarding the timeline of the project before we can move forward in our decision-making process. In your proposal, you mentioned that you typically work with a separate engineering and design team, which tends to speed up the process. Could you please submit a more detailed schedule, including estimated start and end times for the project? Once you have submitted your estimated schedule, we would then be interested in discussing the budget and expenses you have proposed as well. Please keep in mind that we are still reviewing other applications at this time, and your prompt attention to this matter is appreciated. In any case, we were very pleased with your ideas and believe that your ideals align quite well with our organization’s goals on making East Oliver a thriving county in southwestern Maryland! Your contact for the application process, Margaret Davis, will be in touch regarding the additional details that we have requested. Please reach out to her should you have any questions. Thank you in advance for your dedication to the project and your commitment to East Oliver County. Best, Amber Shield, Selection Committee Chair What is the main purpose of this email?
     • To inform the recipient of the final decision in the process
     • To thank the recipient for sending in a proposal
     • To entertain the recipient with a story about sustainability
     • To request more information about the recipient’s proposal

     Correct answer: To request more information about the recipient’s proposal

     To request more information about the recipient’s proposal. This is correct. The main purpose of this email is to get more information from the recipient, namely information about the timeframe. Although there are other components in this email, such as thanking the recipient and detailing the process thus far, the main purpose involves asking for more information. To thank the recipient for sending in a proposal. This is incorrect. Although this is mentioned in the email, it is not the main purpose of the email. The writer of the email is requesting more information from the recipient to move forward in the process. To entertain the recipient with a story about sustainability. This is incorrect. The purpose of the email is to request more information about the project. The email is not entertaining. It is just informative and inquisitive. To inform the recipient of the final decision in the process. This is incorrect and inaccurate since a final decision has not been made. The writer of the email mentions that they are still looking at other applications, and requests more information.

124. 4 4 2 3 1 4 1 1 2 3 Using the number string above, replace every 1 with the letter E, every 2 with the letter A, every 3 with the letter U, and every 4 with the letter N. For letters that appear twice, delete the first instance of each. Switch the first and last letters in the string, and replace the consonants with the letter O.
     • UOOENEEAUO
     • ONONOOON
     • EOAUEOEO
     • UAUEOEAO

     Correct answer: UAUEOEAO

     UAUEOEAO is the correct answer. Let’s examine this step by step: 4423141123 Step 1: Replace every 1 with the letter E. 4423E4EE23 Step 2: Replace every 2 with the letter A. 44A3E4EEA3 Step 3: Replace every 3 with the letter U. 44AUE4EEAU Step 4: Replace every 4 with the letter N. NNAUENEEAU Step 5: For letters that appear twice, delete the first instance of each. (In this case, the first N and the second E would be deleted). NAUENEAU Step 6: Switch the first and last letters in the string. UAUENEAN Step 7: Replace the consonants with the letter O. UAUEOEAO are the letters that remain.

125. To: Ruth Graze From: Gregory Thomas Subject: Recent Customer Service Experience Dear Ms. Graze, Thank you for reaching out to our Customer Service Team regarding your most recent experience at one of our physical locations. Here at Lightpost Shopping Services, we pride ourselves on our superior customer service experiences, which has been rated ten out of ten by our clients. Unfortunately, it seems as though we did not live up to this standard based on your recent feedback, and we would like to make up for this. First off, we would like to extend our sincerest apologies regarding the subpar service you received in our electronics department at the Lightpost Shopping Center on Perry Highway. After reading your email, we looked into the matter and would like to shed some light on the situation. Since we have been short staffed for quite some time, we have recently hired more seasonal workers. The manager at our Perry Highway store, for instance, has been training an influx of new employees for the past five months. As such, it seems as though you were given incorrect information regarding the cost and maintenance of your laptop battery from a new employee. To prevent this from happening in the future, we are currently revamping our training methods so that our employees’ knowledge of the product is accurate. Thank you for bringing this to our attention! Secondly, we would like to fully reimburse you for the cost of the laptop battery. You will find the refunded amount on your credit card within three to five business days. Please let us know if you have any questions or further comments regarding this matter. Once again, we appreciate your business and look forward to assisting you with all of your future electronics needs! Kind Regards, Gregory Thomas According to the writer, why did the recipient likely perceive subpar customer service?
     • The training at the store is below average.
     • The employee had inadequate product knowledge.
     • The manager at the store does not have time to work.
     • It is difficult to recall the details regarding the requested laptop battery.

     Correct answer: The employee had inadequate product knowledge.

     The employee had inadequate product knowledge. This is correct. The email states, “As such, it seems as though you were given incorrect information regarding the cost and maintenance of your laptop battery from a new employee. To prevent this from happening in the future, we are currently revamping our training methods so that our employees’ knowledge of the product is accurate”. This shows that the main complaint was that the customer was given incorrect information regarding the product. As a result, the company will revamp its training methods so that the employees’ knowledge is accurate. This proves that the problem involved inadequate product knowledge. The manager at the store does not have time to work. This is incorrect. The email states, “Since we have been short staffed for quite some time, we have recently hired more seasonal workers. The manager at our Perry Highway store, for instance, has been training an influx of new employees for the past five months”. But, this is only to explain that there are many new employees at the store. This finally leads to the explanation that the problem involved inadequate product knowledge. It is difficult to recall the details regarding the requested laptop battery. This is incorrect. The email states, “As such, it seems as though you were given incorrect information regarding the cost and maintenance of your laptop battery from a new employee,” as a way to explain that the employee had inadequate product knowledge. Nothing is included regarding the difficulty of remembering the details of this specific laptop battery. The training at the store is below average. This is incorrect. Although the email brings up training at this specific store, it is not the main reason for the problem. The email states, “Since we have been short staffed for quite some time, we have recently hired more seasonal workers. The manager at our Perry Highway store, for instance, has been training an influx of new employees for the past five months”. However, this is not to explain that there are many new employees undergoing training at the store. This finally leads to the explanation that the problem involved inadequate product knowledge.

126. The McCluster Health Company is preparing information for its annual company retreat. Part of the Marketing Team’s presentation will explain the number of program enrollments attained with each of the marketing plans over the last two years. Each marketing plan had a different budget. The team will demonstrate how the number of program enrollments rose with an increase in the marketing budget, with the highest budget of $14,000 reaching over 2000 program enrollments. For this reason, they are asking for an increase in the next marketing campaign’s budget. Which of the following is a conclusion based on the graph?
     • Increases in the number of program enrollments correlate with increased marketing budgets.
     • Customers are more interested in programs that spend more money on marketing gadgets.
     • If the company is interested in obtaining the most program enrollments, it should spend roughly $10,000 on marketing budgets.
     • The number of program enrollments is not dependent on marketing budgets.

     Correct answer: Increases in the number of program enrollments correlate with increased marketing budgets.

     Increases in the number of program enrollments correlate with increased marketing budgets is the correct answer. The graph clearly shows that as marketing budgets increase, the number of program enrollments also increases. So, these two things are correlated. Customers are more interested in programs that spend more money on marketing gadgets is incorrect. This is because this conclusion cannot be completely verified using the graph. All that can be concluded is that enrollments rise as the marketing budget rises. If the company is interested in obtaining the most program enrollments, they should spend roughly $10,000 on marketing budgets is incorrect. This is because if a company is interested in obtaining the most program enrollments, they would spend $14,000, which provided over 2000 enrollments, whereas $10,000 provided under 2000 enrollments. The number of program enrollments is not dependent on marketing budgets is incorrect. This is because the opposite is true; as the marketing budgets increase, the number of program enrollments also increases. So, these two things are correlated.

127. After all the unsuccessful interviews, I have finally landed a position in a promising company. When I decided to quit my last job at a tech start-up, I immediately got in touch with a headhunter who I had first worked with years ago. Even though I had a fairly updated resume, it was not until I updated my online portfolio that I finally got my first call for an interview. Then, the calls just kept on coming! What happened before the narrator’s first call for an interview?
     • She continued to receive calls.
     • She updated her resume.
     • She updated her online portfolio.
     • She got a job at a successful company.

     Correct answer: She updated her online portfolio.

     She updated her online portfolio. This is correct, which is indicated by the statement, “…it was not until I updated my online portfolio that I finally got my first call for an interview”. The phrase, “it was not until…” suggests that the call for an interview was preceded by the narrator updating her online portfolio. She continued to receive calls. This is incorrect since it happens after she received her first call. This is made clear by the sentence, “Then, the calls just kept on coming!” She updated her resume. This is incorrect since the narrator states, “Even though I had a fairly updated resume, it was not until I updated my online portfolio that I finally got my first call for an interview.” This means that she already had an updated resume before getting the first call. She got a job at a successful company. This is incorrect since it is the last part of the sequence, which is signaled by the word “finally” in the sentence, “I have finally landed a position…”.

128. The McCluster Health Company is preparing information for its annual company retreat. Part of the Marketing Team’s presentation will explain the number of program enrollments attained with each of the marketing plans over the last two years. Each marketing plan had a different budget. The team will demonstrate how the number of program enrollments rose with an increase in the marketing budget, with the highest budget of $14,000 reaching over 2000 program enrollments. For this reason, they are asking for an increase in the next marketing campaign’s budget. Using the information in the graph, which of the following courses of action would likely be the best if the company needs 2500 program enrollments?
     • The company should maintain its marketing budget of $14,000.
     • The company should increase its marketing budget by roughly $2,000 to $4,000.
     • The company should increase its marketing budget by at least $6,000.
     • The company should decrease its marketing budget by roughly $1,500.

     Correct answer: The company should increase its marketing budget by roughly $2,000 to $4,000.

     The company should increase its marketing budget by roughly $2,000 to $4,000 is the correct answer. The graph shows an incremental increase of $2,000, and it would be accurate to use this trend when looking to obtain 2500 program enrollments. This is the trend that is present in the graph and is likely the best course of action. The company should increase its marketing budget by at least $6,000 is incorrect. The graph shows an incremental increase of $2,000, and an increase of at least $6,000 would likely result in more than 2500 program enrollments, since $14,000 resulted in just over 2,000. The company should decrease its marketing budget by roughly $1,500 is incorrect. This is because the trend in the graph shows that when the marketing budget increases, the number of program enrollments increases. It would be incorrect to assume that decreasing the budget by $1,500 would result in more program enrollments. The company should maintain their marketing budget of $14,000 is incorrect. This is because the trend in the graph shows that when the marketing budget increases, the number of program enrollments increases. It would be incorrect to assume that maintaining the budget would result in more program enrollments.

129. Glasses or Contacts? We’re used to thinking of contacts as making people more attractive than glasses. In movies and makeovers, when someone makes an impressive transformation, part of that, inevitably, seems to be switching from glasses to contacts. These movies are often silly and trite, but nonetheless influential in shaping cultural perceptions. In pop culture, there’s also the association of glasses with people who are shy and bookish; these aren’t qualities our society often sees as positive. However, glasses are far easier and more convenient than contacts. Even if you decide to go for contacts, you’ll want a pair of glasses when your eyes are too tired or sensitive for contacts. Glasses do have to be cleaned, but overall, their maintenance is simpler than contacts. You don’t have to store them in saline each night or throw them out and get new ones each morning. You don’t have to worry about washing your hands before you put on your glasses; however, forgetting to wash your hands before you put on your contacts could lead to irritating particles on your contacts, which can hurt your eyes. Glasses also produce fewer annoying situations. You can fall asleep with your glasses on, but if you fall asleep with your contacts in, your eyes may become dry, and removing your contacts may become uncomfortable. Also, you never have to worry about your glasses getting stuck up your eyelid, but this can happen with contacts. Many contact wearers have experienced this. Ultimately, your contact cannot actually go behind your eye. This is because of how the eye is constructed. The inside of the eyelids has a lining called the conjunctiva. It transitions into the white part of the eyeball, which is the sclera. There’s a complete connection there; there are no holes or anything for the contact to slip through and migrate to the back of the eye. Still, having one lost under your eyelid can be stressful and irritating. This is something that can never happen with glasses. Ultimately, individual preference is key. However, you shouldn’t spare a second thought when it comes to movies and other media that connect glasses with unattractiveness. Wear what’s best for you, but do consider at least having a pair of glasses as a back-up for when you don’t want to deal with those little discs of discomfort. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses an opinion?
     • It transitions into the white part of the eyeball, which is the sclera.
     • However, glasses are far easier and more convenient than contacts.
     • Also, you never have to worry about your glasses getting stuck up your eyelid, but this can happen with contacts.
     • The inside of the eyelids has a lining called the conjunctiva.

     Correct answer: However, glasses are far easier and more convenient than contacts.

     This statement represents an opinion. This is suggested by the words “silly” and “trite”, which show the writer’s feelings about a topic. You don’t have to store them in saline each night or throw them out and get new ones each morning. This is incorrect since it is a fact about the usage of contacts, which are meant to be stored in saline or thrown out if they’re disposable. Relevant experts could verify this statement. You can fall asleep with your glasses on, but if you fall asleep with your contacts in, your eyes may become dry, and removing your contacts may be uncomfortable. This is incorrect since it presents a situation that can occur. This can be validated through experience. The use of the word “may” in two places means that these situations don’t have to occur all the time in order for the statement to be factual. Many contacts wearers have experienced this. This is incorrect since it is a fact that can be verified through the experience of “many contact wearers”. The word “many” indicates that not all contact wearers have to have experienced this in order for the statement to be factual.

130. I never thought that I would be saying this after all the difficulties that I faced, but at long last, I officially have my driver’s license after having passed the exam! Every time I get behind the wheel, I will remember the stress and anxiety that came with this process. I am so glad that I never gave up, even after failing the theory and practical exams twice! Which event came last in the sequence?
     • The narrator received their driver’s license.
     • The narrator thought about the stress and anxiety of the exam process.
     • The narrator faced difficulties during the exam process.
     • The narrator failed the theory and practical exams.

     Correct answer: The narrator received their driver’s license.

     The narrator received their driver’s license. This is correct, which is signaled by the phrase, “at long last”. Another clue is the signal word “after”, which shows that the narrator received their driver’s license after having passed the exam. The narrator thought about the stress and anxiety of the exam process. This is incorrect as it has not necessarily happened yet. The narrator starts this line with “Every time I get behind the wheel, I will remember…”. It is more of a promise of the future. So, it has not happened yet and cannot be last in this specific sequence. The narrator failed the theory and practical exams. This is incorrect. It did not happen last, but rather, earlier in the events. The phrase, “I am so glad that I never gave up, even after” that comes before “failing the theory and practical exams twice” shows that this is not the last thing that happens. In fact, one could argue that “I never gave up” comes after this event, making this option incorrect. The narrator faced difficulties during the exam process. This is incorrect as it happened before the final event, which is signaled by the phrase “at long last”.

131. After just a few years, my small knitting hobby has turned into a full-blown business with paying clients. I usually start out a new project with a trip to the craft store, accompanied by the notes made previously during my initial meeting with each client. These meetings are the second step in the process, which happen shortly after a new client expresses interest in my work. What happens before the narrator meets with clients?
     • The narrator goes to the craft store.
     • The clients show interest in the narrator’s work.
     • The narrator starts on the project.
     • The narrator makes notes.

     Correct answer: The clients show interest in the narrator’s work.

     The clients show interest in the narrator’s work. This is correct. The sentence, “These meetings are the second step in the process, which happen shortly after a new client expresses interest in my work,” proves it to be correct, and the signal phrase “shortly after” is the biggest clue. The narrator goes to the craft store. This is incorrect. Although this sentence has the signal word “start”, it comes right before the phrase, “accompanied by the notes made previously during my initial meeting with each client”, showing that this could not have happened beforehand. The narrator makes notes. This is incorrect. Although this sentence has the signal word “previously”, it says that the notes are made during the initial meeting. Therefore, it cannot be correct. The narrator starts on the project. This is incorrect. The sentence, “I usually start out a new project with a trip to the craft store, accompanied by the notes made previously…” shows that this happens after the initial meeting with clients.

132. Chaos in Translation 1. Although it can seem quite technical, translating texts into different languages is a delicate art. Not only does it require a solid understanding of languages, but it also calls for an artistic voice that can truly make the words seem natural to native speakers. When it is done well, readers do not even realize that they are reading a text that has been translated from another language. When it is done badly, however, chaos ensues. One of the most emblematic examples of a translation mishap occurred at the dawn of the twentieth century, when an American diplomat received an incorrectly translated copy of a popular book about aliens. As you might imagine, the mistake ignited both fear and disbelief regarding a concept that was already so foreign to begin with. 2. It all started with Giovanni Virginio Schiaparelli, an Italian astronomer and astrophysicist, in the late 1800s. In addition to studying astronomy at renowned universities, Schiaparelli was the lead director of a famous observatory in Milan, where he was able to observe stars and planets with a telescope. When he first viewed Mars this way in 1877, he quickly made a hand drawn picture of what he had seen on a piece of paper. Using this reference, he believed that the chromatic differences and the “grooves” that he had seen on the surface of Mars meant that continents and seas existed on the planet. Even more interesting was the fact that “channels”, bodies of water that join two larger areas of water, seemed to connect the various seas. Of course, Schiaparelli had written the original works and explanations in his native language of Italian. He immediately received national success for his findings, and his works were quickly translated into English. 3. Once the information made its way into the United States, it attracted the attention of a wealthy American named Percival Lowell, who had previously abandoned his career as a foreign diplomat to invest his time and interests in astronomy. He, too, had observed Mars with a telescope, but was shocked when he read Schiaparelli’s description of the planet. Although he was familiar with the grooves and ridges described in Schiaparelli’s work, he was shocked to read about the “canals” — artificial man-made structures — that connected large bodies of water on Mars. Not only did this prove that life exists on Mars, but it suggested that these life forms could construct immense structures in a short period of time! Understanding that Schiaparelli had been a distinguished astronomer and a credible source, Lowell decided that the shocking discovery must be made accessible to the public. 4. What he did not realize at the time, however, was that the translation was incorrect, and Schiaparelli had never intended to say that man-made structures existed on Mars. In any case, on August 27, 1911, the front page of the New York Times contained a startling headline: “Martians Build Two Immense Canals in Two Years”. This gave rise to incorrect assumptions about intelligent life on Mars. For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in, while others remained skeptical. Luckily, the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography. Despite this, conspiracy theories about “martians” and their strength persisted for decades to come. Later, scientists and other astronomers came to the conclusion that the channels were simply optical illusions, and future high-resolution snapshots from visiting spacecrafts would only confirm that the man-made “canals” were only a result of a language mishap. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from paragraph 4?
     • Most people blamed Schiaparelli for propagating conspiracy theories, even though it was not his fault.
     • Some people did not believe the information, even if it was published in the New York Times.
     • The idea of man-made canals on Mars was debunked only when spacecrafts were able to visit the planet.
     • People who had read the original headline quickly changed their minds about the man-made channels, based on new information.

     Correct answer: Some people did not believe the information, even if it was published in the New York Times.

     The fourth paragraph states, “In any case, on August 27, 1911, the front page of the New York Times contained a startling headline: ‘Martians Build Two Immense Canals in Two Years’. This gave rise to incorrect assumptions about intelligent life on Mars. For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in, while others remained skeptical”. This indicates that not everyone believed the information, even when it came from the well-established newspaper. People who had read the original headline quickly changed their minds about the man-made channels, based on new information. This is incorrect. Although the author states that the New York Times was able to quickly correct the mistake, this does not mean that the people who had read the headline knew about it. For instance, the newspaper could have issued a correction article, but the people who had read the original article may not have read it. And even if they did read it, nothing in the paragraph suggests that the correction article “changed their minds”. The idea of man-made canals on Mars was debunked only when spacecrafts were able to visit the planet. This is incorrect because the information in the passage does not factually support it. The idea of man-made canals on Mar was technically debunked when “the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography”, though the conspiracy theories still existed. Most people blamed Schiaparelli for propagating conspiracy theories, even though it was not his fault. This is incorrect. The passage does not make any claims regarding the people at fault, but merely describes the language mishap. Although the passage contains information about conspiracy theories, they are not specifically connected to Schiaparelli.

133. Glasses or Contacts? We’re used to thinking of contacts as making people more attractive than glasses. In movies and makeovers, when someone makes an impressive transformation, part of that, inevitably, seems to be switching from glasses to contacts. These movies are often silly and trite, but nonetheless influential in shaping cultural perceptions. In pop culture, there’s also the association of glasses with people who are shy and bookish; these aren’t qualities our society often sees as positive. However, glasses are far easier and more convenient than contacts. Even if you decide to go for contacts, you’ll want a pair of glasses when your eyes are too tired or sensitive for contacts. Glasses do have to be cleaned, but overall, their maintenance is simpler than contacts. You don’t have to store them in saline each night or throw them out and get new ones each morning. You don’t have to worry about washing your hands before you put on your glasses; however, forgetting to wash your hands before you put on your contacts could lead to irritating particles on your contacts, which can hurt your eyes. Glasses also produce fewer annoying situations. You can fall asleep with your glasses on, but if you fall asleep with your contacts in, your eyes may become dry, and removing your contacts may become uncomfortable. Also, you never have to worry about your glasses getting stuck up your eyelid, but this can happen with contacts. Many contact wearers have experienced this. Ultimately, your contact cannot actually go behind your eye. This is because of how the eye is constructed. The inside of the eyelids has a lining called the conjunctiva. It transitions into the white part of the eyeball, which is the sclera. There’s a complete connection there; there are no holes or anything for the contact to slip through and migrate to the back of the eye. Still, having one lost under your eyelid can be stressful and irritating. This is something that can never happen with glasses. Ultimately, individual preference is key. However, you shouldn’t spare a second thought when it comes to movies and other media that connect glasses with unattractiveness. Wear what’s best for you, but do consider at least having a pair of glasses as a back-up for when you don’t want to deal with those little discs of discomfort. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses a fact?
     • However, you shouldn’t spare a second’s thought for the movies and other cultural quirks that connect glasses with unattractiveness.
     • Ultimately, your contact cannot actually go behind your eye.
     • Even if you decide to go for contacts, you’ll want a pair of glasses when your eyes are too tired or sensitive for contacts.
     • Glasses also produce fewer annoying situations.

     Correct answer: Ultimately, your contact cannot actually go behind your eye.

     This statement is a fact and can be scientifically verified. Glasses also produce fewer annoying situations. This is incorrect since this statement is not a fact. The word “annoying” indicates a personal reaction, so it is an opinion. Even if you decide to go for contacts, you’ll want a pair of glasses when your eyes are too tired or sensitive for contacts. This is incorrect since it is not a fact. The author is making a judgement based on a personal sense of what they consider a good course of action. However, you shouldn’t spare a second thought for the movies and other cultural quirks that connect glasses with unattractiveness. This is incorrect since it is not a fact but an opinion. The word “should” indicates that this statement is a judgement.

134. The McCluster Health Company is preparing information for its annual company retreat. Part of the Marketing Team’s presentation will explain the number of program enrollments attained with each of the marketing plans over the last two years. Each marketing plan had a different budget. The team will demonstrate how the number of program enrollments rose with an increase in the marketing budget, with the highest budget of $14,000 reaching over 2000 program enrollments. For this reason, they are asking for an increase in the next marketing campaign’s budget. Which of the following best describes the results of the marketing budget analysis?
     • Program enrollments decline as the marketing budget increases.
     • After reaching a peak of just over 1500, program enrollments begin to decline.
     • As more money is spent on the marketing budget, the number of program enrollments steadily increases.
     • When the budget increases, the number of program enrollments rises drastically.

     Correct answer: As more money is spent on the marketing budget, the number of program enrollments steadily increases.

     As more money is spent on the marketing budget, the number of program enrollments steadily increases is the correct answer. The graph clearly shows that as more money is spent on the budget, the number of program enrollments rises. The program enrollments start at just below 500 and finish at over 2000. When the budget increases, the number of program enrollments rises drastically is incorrect. This is because the number of program enrollments does not necessarily rise “drastically,” since it is quite gradual. The program enrollments start at just below 500 and finish at over 2000. After reaching a peak of just over 1500, program enrollments begin to decline is incorrect. This is because the program enrollments do not reach a peak of just over 1500. The peak is over 2000, and they do not decline. Program enrollments decline as the marketing budget increases is incorrect. This is because the opposite is true. The program enrollments increase as the marketing budget increases.

135. To: Ruth Graze From: Gregory Thomas Subject: Recent Customer Service Experience Dear Ms. Graze, Thank you for reaching out to our Customer Service Team regarding your most recent experience at one of our physical locations. Here at Lightpost Shopping Services, we pride ourselves on our superior customer service experiences, which has been rated ten out of ten by our clients. Unfortunately, it seems as though we did not live up to this standard based on your recent feedback, and we would like to make up for this. First off, we would like to extend our sincerest apologies regarding the subpar service you received in our electronics department at the Lightpost Shopping Center on Perry Highway. After reading your email, we looked into the matter and would like to shed some light on the situation. Since we have been short staffed for quite some time, we have recently hired more seasonal workers. The manager at our Perry Highway store, for instance, has been training an influx of new employees for the past five months. As such, it seems as though you were given incorrect information regarding the cost and maintenance of your laptop battery from a new employee. To prevent this from happening in the future, we are currently revamping our training methods so that our employees’ knowledge of the product is accurate. Thank you for bringing this to our attention! Secondly, we would like to fully reimburse you for the cost of the laptop battery. You will find the refunded amount on your credit card within three to five business days. Please let us know if you have any questions or further comments regarding this matter. Once again, we appreciate your business and look forward to assisting you with all of your future electronics needs! Kind Regards, Gregory Thomas What is the main purpose of this email?
     • To inform the recipient about the new training protocol.
     • To persuade the recipient to continue shopping with the brand.
     • To thank the recipient for their business.
     • To apologize to the recipient for the recent negative experience at the store.

     Correct answer: To apologize to the recipient for the recent negative experience at the store.

     To apologize to the recipient for the recent negative experience at the store. This is correct. The main purpose of this email from the company is to excuse themselves and apologize for the recipient’s recent negative experience at the store. The writer provides information that seeks to clarify the reasons behind the experience while providing an apology in terms of a reimbursement. Although one could argue that the email is persuading the recipient to continue shopping with the company because of the reimbursement, nothing is specifically stating that the recipient should continue shopping with the company. To persuade the recipient to continue shopping with the brand. This is incorrect because the email is informative and apologetic in nature, and nothing is explicitly persuasive. Although one could argue that the email is persuading the recipient to continue shopping with the company because of the reimbursement, nothing is specifically stating that the recipient should continue shopping with the company. For instance, the statement, “Once again, we appreciate your business and look forward to assisting you with all of your future electronics needs”, is appreciative and hopeful, but does not persuade the recipient to continue shopping with the company. To inform the recipient about the new training protocol. This is incorrect since this piece of information is included as a supporting detail. It shows that the company has taken the feedback seriously and made a change because of it. This supports the main idea of apologizing for the recipient’s recent negative experience at the store. To thank the recipient for their business. This is incorrect since this piece of information is included as a supporting detail. It shows that the company appreciates the feedback and the recipient’s business. This supports the main idea of apologizing for the recipient’s recent negative experience at the store.

136. Shark attack (source) A new analysis of a 3000-year-old skeleton unearthed 100 years ago reveals the earliest evidence of a shark attack ever recorded. Archaeologists believe that the skeleton, missing a hand and a leg, belongs to a Japanese fisherman or shellfish diver who was killed while at work. Presumably, his severed body was taken back to land by his comrades. Prior to this discovery, the oldest signs of a shark attack were found on a skeleton dated back to 1000 years ago from Puerto Rico. Which of the following best rephrases the main idea of the passage?
     • A skeleton in Puerto Rico shows injuries from a shark attack.
     • Recent studies contradict previous shark attack findings.
     • New shark attack evidence has been discovered in Japan.
     • A shark attack was identified by Japanese archaeologists.

     Correct answer: Recent studies contradict previous shark attack findings.

     Recent studies contradict previous shark attack findings is correct because it includes the topic (a shark attack), new data from recent studies (the oldest shark attack known to man is 3000 years old) and a supporting detail about the topic (the oldest shark attack is 1000 years old). New shark attack evidence has been discovered in Japan is incorrect because the evidence discovered is a hundred years old. According to the paragraph, further studies have led to new information. A skeleton in Puerto Rico shows injuries from a shark attack is incorrect. Although this statement is correct, the shark attack in Puerto Rico is not the main idea of the passage. The paragraph is more about findings surrounding various shark attacks. A shark attack was identified by Japanese archaeologists is incorrect because the passage does not state where the archaeologists are from. This information is not included in the passage.

137. Differences (source) Many believe that what makes humans different from animals is the ability to solve difficult problems and to feel emotions like joy and sorrow. Many biologists affirm that understanding these differences is a complex process. By observing a Caledonian crow solve a problem that impedes it from reaching its drinking water, it appears evident that some animals are able to find solutions to practical issues as humans would. Similarly, watching a single raven slide down a snowy roof countless times on a piece of plastic for no practical reasons could be a sign that they are partaking in a bit of fun and perhaps feeling joy. It seems that we might need to rethink our beliefs on what makes us different from animals after all. Which of the following states the main idea of the passage?
     • Evidence shows that animals possess problem-solving skills.
     • Both animals and humans can find ways to entertain themselves.
     • Animals and people might be more similar than we think.
     • Humans are able to have fun and solve practical problems.

     Correct answer: Animals and people might be more similar than we think.

     Animals and people might be more similar than we think is correct because it includes both of the subjects (animals and humans) and the topic (assumptions about differences between animals and humans), which is supported by examples in the passage. Evidence shows that animals possess problem-solving skills is incorrect because it provides only one subject (animals) and one example of the alleged differences (problem-solving skills) out of the two presented in the passage. Both animals and humans can find ways to entertain themselves is incorrect because it provides only one example of the alleged differences (i.e. ways to entertain themselves) out of the two presented in the passage. Humans are able to have fun and solve practical problems is incorrect because it includes only one subject (humans) out of the two included in the passage. The passage is also about animals and must be noted in order to convey the main idea.

138. Constellation Aries (source) Aries is the Latin term for ‘ram’, and it is a winter constellation, most visible in December in the northern hemisphere. Unlike other constellations, many cultures have always recognized Aries as the representation of a ram, and it gives its name to one of the star signs in western astrology. In the tale of Jason and the Argonauts, Jason is sent to find the Golden Fleece in order to claim his throne as king, which he finds with the help of his future wife, Medea. In Greek mythology, the Golden Fleece is the symbol of power and authority, and it is supposed to be the fleece belonging to Aries, the flying ram, after it had been sacrificed to Zeus. This is one of the most famous ancient stories, which was current in Homer’s time. Although this medium-sized constellation is formed of 5 stars, only 4 are often visible, creating a line from the ram’s head all the way down its back. Which of the following best rephrases the topic of the passage?
     • A well-known story in Greek mythology
     • Visibility of the constellation Aries
     • The origin of a constellation
     • Cultural representation in star patterns

     Correct answer: Cultural representation in star patterns

     Cultural representation in star patterns is correct because it includes the subject (star patterns, as in constellations) and the theme (what the star pattern represents in Greek mythology) of the passage. A well-known story in Greek mythology is incorrect because it doesn’t include the topic (the constellation Aries) of the passage. Visibility of the constellation Aries. This is incorrect because it does not include the detail that highlights what the constellation represents in Greek mythology. By omitting this detail, the topic is incorrect. The origin of a constellation is incorrect because the passage does not describe the origin of the constellation Aries. In addition, this sentence omits an important detail (what the constellation represents in Greek mythology) about the topic.

139. Saving giant pandas (source) With their distinctive black and white wooly coat and their usually docile temperament, giant pandas are the symbol of China. The decrease of the giant panda population prompted the country to put a lot of effort into protecting this species, which was removed from the ‘endangered’ list and labeled as ‘vulnerable’ in 2016. After poaching spiralled out of control in the 1980s and deforestation exhausted their bamboo food resources, giant pandas were officially deemed endangered in 1990. Since then, the Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide have worked to reforest and protect the habitat in which the giant panda and other wildlife can thrive. There are now over sixty reserves dotted around the country, where pandas can breed in captivity and are cared for if injured. Furthermore, visitors are educated about conservation programs, while the locals learn the importance of panda-related tourism and how it can benefit their community. What is the main idea of the passage?
     • Recovering pandas has been a joint effort.
     • Giant pandas were saved from extinction.
     • Giant pandas are important for the Chinese economy.
     • Pandas became endangered due to poaching.

     Correct answer: Recovering pandas has been a joint effort.

     Recovering pandas has been a joint effort is correct because the paragraph describes that giant pandas are endangered and highlights the work that has been put into place to protect this species and prevent its disappearance. Giant pandas were saved from extinction is incorrect because the paragraph does not mention extinction. Instead, the passage explains that giant pandas are endangered. Pandas became endangered due to poaching. This is incorrect because it is described only in the first paragraph of the passage. The relevant supporting detail about how organizations worldwide have stepped up to help save pandas is omitted. Giant pandas are important for the Chinese economy. This is incorrect because it is only briefly mentioned in the second paragraph of the passage and is an irrelevant supporting detail.

140. Saving giant pandas (source) With their distinctive black and white wooly coat and their usually docile temperament, giant pandas are the symbol of China. The decrease of the giant panda population prompted the country to put a lot of effort into protecting this species, which was removed from the ‘endangered’ list and labeled as ‘vulnerable’ in 2016. After poaching spiralled out of control in the 1980s and deforestation exhausted their bamboo food resources, giant pandas were officially deemed endangered in 1990. Since then, the Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide have worked to reforest and protect the habitat in which the giant panda and other wildlife can thrive. There are now over sixty reserves dotted around the country, where pandas can breed in captivity and are cared for if injured. Furthermore, visitors are educated about conservation programs, while the locals learn the importance of panda-related tourism and how it can benefit their community. Which of the following is a supporting detail for the idea that people have attempted to save giant pandas?
     • The Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide have worked to reforest and protect the habitat.
     • After poaching spiraled out of control in the 1980s and deforestation exhausted their bamboo food resources, giant pandas were officially deemed endangered in 1990.
     • The country of China has put a lot of effort into protecting this species.
     • Visitors are educated about conservation programs.

     Correct answer: The Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide have worked to reforest and protect the habitat.

     The Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide have worked to reforest and protect the habitat is correct because it indicates a global effort (by the Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide) to save the pandas. After poaching spiraled out of control in the 1980s and deforestation exhausted their bamboo food resources, giant pandas were officially deemed endangered in 1990 is incorrect because it indicates the causes that led to the pandas’ endangered situation and explains what prompted actions to save this species. Visitors are educated about conservation programs is incorrect because it provides information about the steps taken to protect the giant panda, not how people have attempted to save giant pandas. The country has put a lot of effort into protecting this species. This is incorrect because it implies that the work to save the giant panda has been carried out by China alone. According to the passage, many organizations worldwide have contributed to this goal.

141. Saving giant pandas (source) With their distinctive black and white wooly coat and their usually docile temperament, giant pandas are the symbol of China. The decrease of the giant panda population prompted the country to put a lot of effort into protecting this species, which was removed from the ‘endangered’ list and labeled as ‘vulnerable’ in 2016. After poaching spiralled out of control in the 1980s and deforestation exhausted their bamboo food resources, giant pandas were officially deemed endangered in 1990. Since then, the Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide have worked to reforest and protect the habitat in which the giant panda and other wildlife can thrive. There are now over sixty reserves dotted around the country, where pandas can breed in captivity and are cared for if injured. Furthermore, visitors are educated about conservation programs, while the locals learn the importance of panda-related tourism and how it can benefit their community. Which detail is irrelevant to the main idea?
     • Locals learn the importance of panda-related tourism.
     • Giant pandas were removed from the endangered list and labeled as vulnerable in 2016.
     • With their distinctive black and white wooly coats, giant pandas are the symbol of China.
     • There are now over sixty giant panda reserves dotted around the country.

     Correct answer: With their distinctive black and white wooly coats, giant pandas are the symbol of China.

     With their distinctive black and white wooly coats, giant pandas are the symbol of China is correct because it does not directly support the main idea (saving giant pandas) of the passage. It is an irrelevant detail. Giant pandas were removed from the ‘endangered’ list and labeled as ‘vulnerable’ in 2016 is incorrect because it shows the successful results of working towards saving giant pandas and is therefore relevant to the main idea. There are now over sixty giant panda reserves dotted around the country is incorrect because it is one of the steps taken to protect giant pandas in China, and is therefore relevant to the main idea. Locals learn the importance of panda-related tourism is incorrect because it is one of the steps taken by the Chinese government to raise awareness about the issue among the locals, and is therefore relevant to the main idea.

142. The Longest Voyage : 1. When you think of long voyages, your mind might immediately think back to a tedious transatlantic flight or perhaps even a relaxing cruise journey across vast oceans. Botanists and environmentalists, on the other hand, would probably think about the famous migration pattern of the vanessa cardui, a native sub-Saharan butterfly that makes an exceptional, yearly expedition from West Africa to Scandinavia, totaling just over 8,600 miles each year! Past research has indicated that specific climatic conditions likely need to be present in order for these butterflies to make the long journey and breed around the world successfully. However, evidence has always been lacking — until now. Thanks to a recent study on migration patterns, more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey of these insects. 2. This well-traveled species goes by a few different names, ranging from its scientific term, vanessa cardui, to the colloquial nickname of the “painted lady”. Unlike similar species, the painted lady breeds constantly throughout the year. Thus, it is one of the most popular butterflies that can thrive in almost any climate and can be found in gardens on every continent, excluding South America and Antarctica. While most are probably not familiar with the scientific details surrounding this butterfly, it has definitely become a household name. According to a psychology study, an astounding number of people picture the painted lady’s classic orange and black wing detail when asked to describe the image of a butterfly. As of now, even more information is known regarding this popular species. 3. To begin the research process on migration patterns, a team from the University of Reading (UK) compared data regarding the presence of the butterfly in Europe. The study included decades worth of information regarding the climate and atmosphere of sub-Saharan Africa. After the initial analysis, scientists discovered that the number of specimens of the vanessa cardui in Europe alone can actually fluctuate up to 100 times from one year to the next. When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa. The number of painted lady butterflies in Europe matched up with the climate data from the past few decades, finally providing enough evidence to solidify past speculation. 4. Regarding vegetation, it has been found that the vanessa cardui caterpillars multiply at a rapid speed when the African savannah’s humidity rate is higher than average. This allows the species to become stronger before crossing the Sahara desert. When it comes to winds, simulations have shown that the stronger the tailwind, the easier it is for the species to reach the necessary altitude of two miles above sea level. This height allows them to attain a desirable flight speed of 6 miles per second. While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effect that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 1?
     • The vanessa cardui travels the most and the longest out of any insect group.
     • New information has confirmed that climatic conditions affect the migration pattern of the vanessa cardui.
     • A recent study has confirmed that general migration patterns are affected by climatic conditions.
     • Botanists and environmentalists are most concerned about the lack of information regarding the migration period of the vanessa cardui.

     Correct answer: New information has confirmed that climatic conditions affect the migration pattern of the vanessa cardui.

     The paragraph states, “Past research has indicated that specific climatic conditions likely needed to be present in order for these butterflies to make the long journey and breed around the world successfully. However, evidence has always been lacking — until now”. This suggests that while this had been the previous understanding, the recent study has verified the ideas. Therefore, this statement is the most plausible of the options. The vanessa cardui travels the most and the longest out of any insect group. This is incorrect. Although this information is included in the statement, “Thanks to a recent study on migration patterns, more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey of these insects”, it is only a supporting detail regarding the migration habits of the vanessa cardui, not a statement that encompasses all of the key ideas from the paragraph. A recent study has confirmed that general migration patterns are affected by climatic conditions. This is incorrect. This statement is a bit too general to be correct for this passage, as it fails to explain the type of the migration pattern. Additionally, important information regarding the new confirmation of the idea is left out of this option. Botanists and environmentalists are most concerned about the lack of information regarding the migration period of the vanessa cardui. This is incorrect. Although this statement contains many keywords located in paragraph 1, it is not factually correct. The paragraph does not state this information. Rather, it simply states that botanists and environmentalists are aware of the famous migration period. Furthermore, there is not a lack of information surrounding the subject. The paragraph later states that “more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey taken by these insects.”

143. When giving feedback on someone’s performance, do not enumerate all of their shortcomings, which can be discouraging; instead, identify just one or two things to focus on. Which of the following defines “enumerate” in the sentence above?
     • Praise
     • List
     • Ameliorate
     • Ignore

     Correct answer: List

     List is correct. To enumerate is to count or itemize all items separately, like a list. Praise is incorrect. The sentence states that enumerating all of someone’s shortcomings would be discouraging; however, praise would be the opposite of discouraging. Ameliorate is incorrect. This means to make something better, more bearable. It would not be discouraging to have one’s shortcomings made better. Ignore is incorrect. Ignoring someone’s shortcomings would not be discouraging because they wouldn’t realize that there was something to be discouraged about.

144. From: Shannon Edler, President To: All Staff Date: September 1 Subject: New Marketing Materials Attachment: Zip File Hello everyone, As you should all be aware, McKensey Enterprises has forged a new partnership with Harris Public Relations. After a year of discussions and shifts in our company’s target markets, we have finally decided on our new brand. It is a fresh take on tradition while still adhering to our company’s values and core mission. Among other things, this change includes different color schemes and an updated company logo. Attached to this email, you will find the most updated changes in a zip File. Please look through the file with utmost attention, as you will find everything you need when updating client material, your personal business cards, and any other business material. A copy of the file will also be uploaded to the company’s employee portal within two business days. Please note that our Marketing team is still in the process of updating our website to reflect these new changes. It will be done within two business days, or in other words, before the weekend. If you have any other questions regarding the recent rebranding, keep an eye out for our in-company newsletter, which will be making its way to you soon. For any other issues, please refer to your direct manager for clarification. Best, Shannon Edler President, McKensey Enterprises When will employees be able to view the company’s new website?
     • Within one business day
     • Within three business days
     • Within the week
     • Immediately

     Correct answer: Within the week

     Within the week. This is correct. The email states, “Please note that our Marketing team is still in the process of updating our website to reflect these new changes. It will be done within two business days, or in other words, before the weekend”. This shows that the two business days would end before the weekend. Therefore, employees will be able to view the new website “within the week”. Within one business day. This is incorrect since the email states, “Please note that our Marketing team is still in the process of updating our website to reflect these new changes. It will be done within two business days, or in other words, before the weekend”. Within three business days. This is incorrect since the email states, “Please note that our Marketing team is still in the process of updating our website to reflect these new changes. It will be done within two business days, or in other words, before the weekend”. Immediately is incorrect. The email states, “Please note that our Marketing team is still in the process of updating our website to reflect these new changes. It will be done within two business days, or in other words, before the weekend”. The only thing available immediately is the zip file attached to the email.

145. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the following information? After hearing a strange noise in the next room, Beth tiptoed slowly to the hallway and scanned the area for potential self-defense weapons. To her relief, she noticed a pile of large books that had fallen after her cat had pushed them off the tall bookshelf.
     • Beth is an avid reader.
     • Beth has just moved into the house and feels unsafe.
     • Beth lives in an area with a high crime rate.
     • Beth’s cat can climb on furniture.

     Correct answer: Beth’s cat can climb on furniture.

     The text includes the phrase, “after her cat had pushed them off the tall bookshelf” which allows us to infer that Beth’s cat can climb onto her furniture. Beth is an avid reader. This is incorrect, even though it may seem like a good choice. We do not know anything about the books other than the fact that they are large. We do not know if they are books that can be read for pleasure, or if they are academic textbooks. All that we know is that Beth keeps the books on the bookshelf, which does not necessarily mean that she is an avid reader. Beth has just moved into the house and feels unsafe. This is incorrect. Although the fact that she “scanned the area for potential self-defense weapons” may have made you think that this answer option is plausible, the passage does not contain anything that would prove this to be correct. We do not know when she moved into the house, and we do not know for certain that she feels unsafe, even though she looked for a self-defense weapon when she heard the noise. Beth lives in an area with a high crime rate. This is incorrect. Although the fact that she “scanned the area for potential self-defense weapons” may have made you think that this answer option is plausible, the passage does not contain anything that would prove this to be correct. We do not know for certain that the area has a high crime rate, even though she looked for a self-defense weapon when she heard the noise.

146. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the following information? After a few months of traveling through Italy, I was finally starting to grasp the basics of the beautiful romance language. I could order a gelato and check-in to a hotel with ease, which were things that I had never thought possible with only two years worth of Italian classes from college decades ago.
     • The writer’s acquisition of the Italian language required time.
     • The writer had not retained much from university studies.
     • The writer took advanced level Italian courses in college.
     • This was the writer’s first trip abroad.

     Correct answer: The writer’s acquisition of the Italian language required time.

     The beginning of the sentence suggests that the writer has been in Italy for “a few months”. After this, the writer is “finally starting to grasp the basics”. We know that this experience is an acquisition of the Italian language because the writer had “two years worth of Italian classes”. Thus, this is the correct option. The writer had not retained much from university studies. This is incorrect, even though it may seem like a good option. This answer option is not limited to the writer’s retention of his Italian language classes from university, but rather, all university studies. Since we don’t know about anything other than her Italian classes from college, we cannot correctly infer this. The writer took advanced level Italian courses in college. This is incorrect because nothing in the text indicates the level of Italian classes that the writer took in college. This is the writer’s first trip abroad. This is incorrect, even though it might seem like a good option. Nothing officially tells us that this is the writer’s first time abroad. Based on the statements, we cannot make a logical conclusion about the writer’s travel history.

147. The company’s fees were exorbitant, more than twice what their competitors charged. Which of the following defines “exorbitant” in the sentence above?
     • Reasonable
     • Deliberate
     • Excessive
     • Endless

     Correct answer: Excessive

     Excessive is correct. We can see this in the fact that the company’s fees are more than twice those of their competitors. Endless is incorrect. Fees could not truly be endless. While exorbitant does mean excessive, it doesn’t mean endless. Deliberate is incorrect. This meaning is not supported by the context clues of the sentence. Reasonable is incorrect. It is an antonym of exorbitant.

148. If the statements listed below are true, which of the answer choices is the logical conclusion? Driving in Europe is not all that it’s cracked up to be, and driving in the middle of the night is never ideal. But I am fresh out of options since the taxi service was unavailable and my transatlantic flight home is leaving in just three hours.
     • The writer is driving in Europe for the first time.
     • The writer is going home for an emergency.
     • The writer must drive to the airport.
     • The writer’s home is in another European country.

     Correct answer: The writer must drive to the airport.

     The writer states that he is “fresh out of options”, that “the taxi service was unavailable”, and that their “flight home is leaving in just three hours”. This proves that the writer’s only option, given the circumstances, is to drive to the airport. The writer is driving in Europe for the first time. This is incorrect. Although the writer may not particularly like or be accustomed to driving in Europe, nothing in the passage suggests that this is the writer’s first time driving there. The writer’s home is in another European country. This is incorrect. The phrase, “my transatlantic flight home”, suggests that the writer must cross the Atlantic ocean. Although the inclusion of the phrase, “driving in Europe is not all that it’s cracked up to be,” suggests that the writer may have driven in Europe before, it doesn’t imply that they have a home in Europe. The writer is going home for an emergency. This is incorrect. Although the writer may seem to be out of options and did not plan ahead for the trip to the airport, nothing suggests that they are going home for emergency purposes.

149. To: Seymour Lewis From: Amber Shield Subject: Additional Materials Requested Dear Mr. Lewis, Thank you for your interest in East Oliver County’s call for submissions in our sustainability campaign. Our team has reviewed your proposal on placing sustainable water fountains throughout the city, and we are quite intrigued. The ideas you put forth in your proposal are both innovative and relevant to East Oliver’s needs at this time. However, we need more information regarding the timeline of the project before we can move forward in our decision-making process. In your proposal, you mentioned that you typically work with a separate engineering and design team, which tends to speed up the process. Could you please submit a more detailed schedule, including estimated start and end times for the project? Once you have submitted your estimated schedule, we would then be interested in discussing the budget and expenses you have proposed as well. Please keep in mind that we are still reviewing other applications at this time, and your prompt attention to this matter is appreciated. In any case, we were very pleased with your ideas and believe that your ideals align quite well with our organization’s goals on making East Oliver a thriving county in southwestern Maryland! Your contact for the application process, Margaret Davis, will be in touch regarding the additional details that we have requested. Please reach out to her should you have any questions. Thank you in advance for your dedication to the project and your commitment to East Oliver County. Best, Amber Shield, Selection Committee Chair After the requested details are submitted, what will be the next step in the selection process?
     • Comparing the application with those of other applicants
     • Discussing the sustainability of the water fountains
     • Discussing the financial estimates
     • Discussing the timeframe of project completion

     Correct answer: Discussing the financial estimates

     Discussing the financial estimates. This is correct. The email states, “Once you have submitted your estimated schedule, we would then be interested in discussing the budget and expenses you have proposed as well.” This shows that once the requested details are submitted, the next step will be a discussion about financial estimates (i.e. the budget and the expenses). Comparing the application with those of other applicants. This is incorrect. Although the email states, “Please keep in mind that we are still reviewing other applications at this time…”, nothing regarding comparing applications is stated. This is also not the next step, since the email states, “Once you have submitted your estimated schedule, we would then be interested in discussing the budget and expenses you have proposed as well.” Discussing the sustainability of the water fountains. This is incorrect because the email mentions the sustainability of the project in the opening paragraph, and it does not have anything to do with the next step, i.e. reviewing the financial estimates. Discussing the timeframe of completion. This is incorrect because it is the information that is requested, which cannot be the next step. The email states, “Could you please submit a more detailed schedule, including estimated start and end times for the project?”, proving that these are the requested details.

150. Recently, a group of 100 professionals aged 25-30 took part in a study that examined the correlation between hours of sleep and cognitive scores. Participants were asked to keep track of the number of hours they slept each night for a total of 7 nights. Each morning, an hour after participants woke up, they were asked to complete a brief cognitive function test online. Based on these results, researchers believe that one’s sleeping hours do have an impact on one’s cognitive scores. It is clear that the more hours one slept, the better the test performance was, but only up until the 9-hour mark. In fact, those who slept an average of 9 hours each night performed the best on the cognitive test, attaining just over 90 points. Interestingly, the trend began to decrease with participants who slept more than 9 hours each night, since they performed worse on the tests. With this trend, participants reported lower scores for each additional hour of sleep. In order to continue studying this correlation, researchers will create a similar experiment for older and younger age groups. Which of the following describes the cognitive score of someone who has slept for 5 hours?
     • It is less than double the score of someone who has slept for 3 hours.
     • Their cognitive score is half of the highest cognitive score.
     • Their score is lower than someone who has slept for double the time.
     • It is five times lower than someone who has slept for 12 hours.

     Correct answer: Their score is lower than someone who has slept for double the time.

     Their score is lower than someone who has slept for double the time is correct. This is correct because the score of someone who has slept for double the time (i.e., 10 hours) is just over 80. Their cognitive score is half of the highest cognitive score. This is incorrect because the highest cognitive score is just over 90. Half of 90 would be 45, and the cognitive score correlating to 5 hours of sleep is just over 20. It is five times lower than someone who has slept for 12 hours. This is incorrect because the score of someone who has slept for 12 hours is around 70, and the score of someone who has slept for 5 hours is around 20. Five times lower than 70 is approximately 14. It is less than double the score of someone who has slept for 3 hours. This is incorrect because it is inaccurate. The score of someone who has slept for 3 hours is 10, and the score of someone who has slept for 5 hours is over 20.

151. The unscrupulous manager tried to coerce the employees to skip their lunch breaks by threatening to reduce their hours. A synonym for “coerce” as it is used in the sentence above would be __________.
     • Force
     • Convince
     • Suggest
     • Ask

     Correct answer: Force

     Force is correct. It is a synonym for coerce. To coerce is to apply pressure to someone to do something they wouldn’t otherwise choose to do. We see this pressure in the fact that the manager threatens the employees. Convince is incorrect. It is not a synonym of the word coerce. To convince is to present reasons and form an argument. It gives the other person the chance to choose. To coerce is to try to take away someone’s chance to choose by exerting a form of force. This force need not be physical. Suggest is incorrect. It is not a synonym of coerce. Unless it is being used ironically, the word suggest would not convey pressure or force. Ask is incorrect. It is not a synonym of coerce. Asking means the person has a choice and the asker honors the person’s chance to make that choice. It does not convey force or pressure, which the word coerce does convey.

152. 4 4 1 1 3 2 3 1 1 3 Using the number string above, replace every 1 with the letter R, every 2 with the letter E, every 3 with the letter F and every 4 with the letter B. Delete the third instance of the letter that appears the most. Change the letter in the exact middle of the string to an X, and replace any vowels with the letter H.
     • BBRRHFRRF
     • BBRRHHFRF
     • BBRRXHFRR
     • BBRRXHFRF

     Correct answer: BBRRXHFRF

     BBRRXHFRF is the correct answer. Let’s examine this step by step: 4411323113 Step 1: Replace every 1 with the letter R.44RR323RR3 Step 2: Replace every 2 with the letter E. 44RR3E3RR3 Step 3: Replace every 3 with the letter F. 44RRFEFRRF Step 4: Replace every 4 with the letter B. BBRRFEFRRF Step 5: Delete the third instance of the letter that appears the most. In this case, the letter that appears the most is R (four times). So, the third R will be deleted. BBRRFEFRF Step 6: Change the letter in the exact middle of the string to an X. Since there are now 9 letters, the exact middle of the string is the letter F. This will be changed to an X. BBRRXEFRF Step 7: Replace any vowels with the letter H. BBRRXHFRF are the letters that remain.

153. About dogs : 1. Their behavior can tell us a lot about their personalities, but there are some myths that revolve around dogs’ nature. The misconception that large dogs are more aggressive than small ones still exists so does that of believing that it is normal for dogs to have bad breath. Unfortunately, persistent bad breath could be a sign of tooth decay or gum disease. It is also believed that dogs can only see in black and white. However, this is not true, as they are able to distinguish some colors. 2. Among many myths, a true fact is that dogs have played an important role in society throughout history. Dogs are able to track and catch prey during hunting trips without eating it and can help shepherds with their sheep and cows. Nowadays, dogs are often employed to trace illegal drugs and explosives in public places, and during rescue missions, we rely on dogs to find people in danger. Some are trained to become guide dogs to assist people with vision impairment. However, most dogs can be great companions to the elderly and families with young children. What is the main idea of paragraph 2?
     • There are many myths surrounding dogs.
     • Dogs were more useful in the past.
     • Humans benefit from dogs.
     • Dogs’ main role is to hunt.

     Correct answer: Humans benefit from dogs.

     Humans benefit from dogs is correct. This is correct because this paragraph lists many ways in which dogs can be important to our society and therefore humans. Dogs were more useful in the past is incorrect because it is not true. According to the paragraph, dogs have more roles than they did in the past, but there is no comparison regarding their usefulness between now and in the past. Dogs’ main role is to hunt is incorrect because the passage refers to other benefits of dogs such as companionship, rescue missions, and aiding the visually impaired. It is background information about the main idea. There are many myths surrounding dogs is incorrect because this answer choice aligns more with the main idea of the first paragraph, not the second paragraph.

154. A yarn shop sells exactly seven different types of colored yarn: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. Choose five different types of yarn to buy using the following guidelines: If type 4 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen. If type 1 is chosen, then type 4 must be chosen. If type 6 is chosen, then type 1 must be chosen. Which of the following combinations of yarn corresponds with the directions?
     • 3,1,2,6,5
     • 4,2,5,1,6
     • 6,2,1,3,4
     • 1,6,3,2,5

     Correct answer: 4,2,5,1,6

     4,2,5,1,6 is correct because it follows all the guidelines. If type 4 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen, and 3 is not present in the string. If type 1 is chosen, then type 4 must be chosen, which is true for this string. Lastly, If type 6 is chosen, then type 1 must be chosen, which is also true. 6,2,1,3,4 is incorrect. It does not follow the first guideline, i.e. If type 4 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen, since both 4 and 3 are present. 1,6,3,2,5 is incorrect. This does not follow the second guideline, i.e. If type 1 is chosen, then type 4 must be chosen. 3,1,2,6,5 is incorrect. This does not follow the second guideline, i.e. If type 1 is chosen, then type 4 must be chosen.

155. About dogs : 1. Their behavior can tell us a lot about their personalities, but there are some myths that revolve around dogs’ nature. The misconception that large dogs are more aggressive than small ones still exists so does that of believing that it is normal for dogs to have bad breath. Unfortunately, persistent bad breath could be a sign of tooth decay or gum disease. It is also believed that dogs can only see in black and white. However, this is not true, as they are able to distinguish some colors. 2. Among many myths, a true fact is that dogs have played an important role in society throughout history. Dogs are able to track and catch prey during hunting trips without eating it and can help shepherds with their sheep and cows. Nowadays, dogs are often employed to trace illegal drugs and explosives in public places, and during rescue missions, we rely on dogs to find people in danger. Some are trained to become guide dogs to assist people with vision impairment. However, most dogs can be great companions to the elderly and families with young children. Which of the sentences from the passage best presents the topic of the passage?
     • Their behavior can tell us a lot about their personalities, but there are some myths that revolve around dogs’ nature.
     • Dogs are able to track and catch prey during hunting trips without eating it and can help shepherds with their sheep and cows.
     • The misconception that large dogs are more aggressive than small ones still exists, so does that of believing that it is normal for dogs to have bad breath.
     • Among many myths, a true fact is that dogs have played an important role in society throughout history.

     Correct answer: Among many myths, a true fact is that dogs have played an important role in society throughout history.

     Among many myths, a true fact is that dogs have played an important role in society throughout history is correct because this sentence mentions both the myths and the truth about the role of dogs in our lives. These details reflect the topic of the passage. Their behavior can tell us a lot about their personalities, but there are some myths that revolve around dogs’ nature is incorrect because this sentence only refers to the topic of the first paragraph, not that of the whole passage. Dogs are able to track and catch prey during hunting trips without eating it and can help shepherds with their sheep and cows is incorrect because this sentence reflects supporting details about the second paragraph, but does not communicate the main idea of the passage as a whole. The misconception that large dogs are more aggressive than small ones still exists, so does that of believing that it is normal for dogs to have bad breath. This is incorrect because this sentence covers supporting details about the first paragraph, but does not communicate the main idea.

156. The Longest Voyage : 1. When you think of long voyages, your mind might immediately think back to a tedious transatlantic flight or perhaps even a relaxing cruise journey across vast oceans. Botanists and environmentalists, on the other hand, would probably think about the famous migration pattern of the vanessa cardui, a native sub-Saharan butterfly that makes an exceptional, yearly expedition from West Africa to Scandinavia, totaling just over 8,600 miles each year! Past research has indicated that specific climatic conditions likely need to be present in order for these butterflies to make the long journey and breed around the world successfully. However, evidence has always been lacking — until now. Thanks to a recent study on migration patterns, more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey of these insects. 2. This well-traveled species goes by a few different names, ranging from its scientific term, vanessa cardui, to the colloquial nickname of the “painted lady”. Unlike similar species, the painted lady breeds constantly throughout the year. Thus, it is one of the most popular butterflies that can thrive in almost any climate and can be found in gardens on every continent, excluding South America and Antarctica. While most are probably not familiar with the scientific details surrounding this butterfly, it has definitely become a household name. According to a psychology study, an astounding number of people picture the painted lady’s classic orange and black wing detail when asked to describe the image of a butterfly. As of now, even more information is known regarding this popular species. 3. To begin the research process on migration patterns, a team from the University of Reading (UK) compared data regarding the presence of the butterfly in Europe. The study included decades worth of information regarding the climate and atmosphere of sub-Saharan Africa. After the initial analysis, scientists discovered that the number of specimens of the vanessa cardui in Europe alone can actually fluctuate up to 100 times from one year to the next. When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa. The number of painted lady butterflies in Europe matched up with the climate data from the past few decades, finally providing enough evidence to solidify past speculation. 4. Regarding vegetation, it has been found that the vanessa cardui caterpillars multiply at a rapid speed when the African savannah’s humidity rate is higher than average. This allows the species to become stronger before crossing the Sahara desert. When it comes to winds, simulations have shown that the stronger the tailwind, the easier it is for the species to reach the necessary altitude of two miles above sea level. This height allows them to attain a desirable flight speed of 6 miles per second. While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effect that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects. Which of the following sentences is most representative of a summary sentence for this passage?
     • When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa.
     • While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effects that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects.
     • According to a psychology study, an astounding number of people picture the painted lady’s classic orange and black wing detail when asked to describe the image of a butterfly.
     • Thanks to a recent study on migration patterns, more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey of these insects.

     Correct answer: When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa.

     This statement is the most representative of a summary sentence for this passage because it contains all of the important information given in the passage. The main point of the passage is to describe the new information regarding the species’ migration, which includes the information regarding climate conditions and vegetation. While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effects that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects. This is incorrect. This statement is not the most representative summary sentence for the passage because it serves as a way to link the information to further research. Although the climatic conditions have had an effect on the vanessa cardui’s migration patterns, the rest of the statement concerns future studies. Thanks to a recent study on migration patterns, more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey of these insects. This is incorrect. This statement is not the most representative summary sentence for the passage because it is vague and lacks substance. It does not describe the new information given in the passage. According to a psychology study, an astounding number of people picture the painted lady’s classic orange and black wing detail when asked to describe the image of a butterfly. This is incorrect. The only purpose of this statement is to support the idea that many people are familiar with the physical characteristics of this butterfly, given that it is so widespread.

157. From: Shannon Edler, President To: All Staff Date: September 1 Subject: New Marketing Materials Attachment: Zip File Hello everyone, As you should all be aware, McKensey Enterprises has forged a new partnership with Harris Public Relations. After a year of discussions and shifts in our company’s target markets, we have finally decided on our new brand. It is a fresh take on tradition while still adhering to our company’s values and core mission. Among other things, this change includes different color schemes and an updated company logo. Attached to this email, you will find the most updated changes in a zip File. Please look through the file with utmost attention, as you will find everything you need when updating client material, your personal business cards, and any other business material. A copy of the file will also be uploaded to the company’s employee portal within two business days. Please note that our Marketing team is still in the process of updating our website to reflect these new changes. It will be done within two business days, or in other words, before the weekend. If you have any other questions regarding the recent rebranding, keep an eye out for our in-company newsletter, which will be making its way to you soon. For any other issues, please refer to your direct manager for clarification. Best, Shannon Edler President, McKensey Enterprises What is the main point of the printed communication?
     • To urge staff members to visit the new website and read the company newsletter
     • To persuade staff members to use the newly updated material
     • To go into detail regarding the recent changes associated with the company’s rebranding
     • To update staff members on the recent changes regarding the company’s brand

     Correct answer: To update staff members on the recent changes regarding the company’s brand

     To update staff members on the recent changes regarding the company’s brand. This is correct. The purpose of the email is to inform staff members about the recent changes to the company’s brand, and bring them up to date. There is a brief description of what the changes include and just enough information to bring the staff up to speed. To persuade staff members to use the newly updated materials. This is incorrect because the main purpose of the email is to inform staff members about the recent changes to the company’s brand. Although the email contains information about using the newly updated material, it is informatory in nature. Nothing is regarded as persuasion since the tone of the email does not suggest that there is a choice in the matter. To urge staff members to visit the new website and read the company newsletter. This is incorrect because the main purpose of the email is to inform staff members about the recent changes to the company’s brand. Although the email contains information about the website and when it will be finished, it is solely informational. To go into detail regarding the recent changes associated with the company’s rebranding. This is incorrect. Although the main purpose of this email is to inform staff members about the recent changes, the email does not go into detail regarding the changes. It solely brings the staff up to date and provides them with a zip file for further information. The biggest clue that this is an incorrect answer is in these sentences: “Among other things, this change includes different color schemes and an updated company logo. Attached to this email, you will find the most updated changes in a Zip File.” If the purpose of this email was to go into detail, there would have been more information regarding the reason behind the changes, or what the colors are. Additionally, the phrase, “among other things”, would not be included, since it is a general way of showing the staff that some things have been changed.

158. After a long day of test preparation, I called my friend Jonathan and asked if he wanted to see a movie and get a pizza later. Jonathan was up for it, but he asked if we could wait until his girlfriend gets home, since he lost his keys yesterday. So, when his girlfriend gets home, Jonathan will come over to my place. What happens after Jonathan’s girlfriend arrives at home?
     • Jonathan will get his keys.
     • Jonathan will get a pizza.
     • Jonathan will wait.
     • Jonathan will meet the narrator.

     Correct answer: Jonathan will meet the narrator.

     Jonathan will meet the narrator. This is correct, as is signaled by the word “when” in the statement, “when his girlfriend gets home, Jonathan will come over to my place”. Jonathan will get his keys. This is incorrect. Nothing is mentioned in terms of Jonathan getting his keys, but the narrator mentions that Jonathan has lost his keys. In any case, this happened the day before (as signaled by the word, ‘yesterday’). Jonathan will get a pizza. This is incorrect. Although the narrator and Jonathan will likely get pizza later, the word “when” signals that when Jonathan’s girlfriend gets home, he will meet up with the narrator. Jonathan will wait. This is incorrect since it happens before Jonathan’s girlfriend comes home. This is signaled with the word ‘until’ in the statement, “…he asked if we could wait until his girlfriend gets home…”.

159. Are Electronic Books or Hard Copy Books Better for College Students? College students generally have the option of choosing electronic books or their hardcopies. Which is the better choice? Electronic books are generally a bit less expensive than hard copy books, more so if the books are textbooks as opposed to trade paperbacks. You will need a device on which to read electronic books, however. If you already have a device that you use for other purposes, you may not consider this part of the expense. However, if you purchase a dedicated e-reader, you probably will. Convenience is also a factor, and both types of books are convenient in their own ways. Hundreds of ebooks can be stored on one device, which makes them very portable. E-readers also have lighted screens, so you don’t have to worry about sitting somewhere with good lighting. E-readers do have to be charged, though; you never have to worry about this with a hard copy. Hard copy books are also more aesthetically pleasing. They offer a wide variety of colorful, beautiful covers. Hard copy books also look nice on shelves. They can contribute significantly to your decor. The most significant factor for college students, though, is which type is better for learning. To some degree, this is a matter of personal preference. However, e-books comprise 15-20 percent of trade book sales. This indicates that people still feel that hard copy books offer a valuable reading experience. Research indicates that people feel a greater tactile connection to physical books, and that this might improve reading comprehension. In an e-reader, every book is the same physically; they are all on the same device. Hard copy books, though, have different thicknesses, different paper textures, and different feels. People often remember where something was in a book by how the book felt in their hands when they read the thing. Depending on how far into the book they were, there would be a certain amount of pages on the left side of the book and on the right. This could help recall the memory of where the information was located. Additionally, many people read e-books on devices that can also access the internet. You can do no such thing with a hard copy book. This means fewer distractions, and hence, better learning. Ultimately, therefore, hard copy books are better for college students. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses a fact?
     • Hard copy books also look nice on shelves.
     • You will need a device on which to read electronic books, however.
     • Hard copy books are also more aesthetically pleasing.
     • The most significant factor for college students, though, is what type is better for learning.

     Correct answer: You will need a device on which to read electronic books, however.

     This is correct since this statement is a fact beyond dispute. Electronic books must be read on a device that supports that function. The most significant factor for college students, though, is which type is better for learning. This is incorrect since it is an opinion of the author and therefore, not a fact. The author can make a case as to why others should adopt this opinion, but the opinion itself cannot be presented as factual. Hard copy books are also more aesthetically pleasing. This is incorrect since it represents an opinion, i.e. the author’s subjective impression about the aesthetic value of hard copy books. Hard copy books also look nice on shelves. This is incorrect since it is an opinion held by the author. Other people could hold a different opinion, which would be just as valid.

160. Are Electronic Books or Hard Copy Books Better for College Students? College students generally have the option of choosing electronic books or their hardcopies. Which is the better choice? Electronic books are generally a bit less expensive than hard copy books, more so if the books are textbooks as opposed to trade paperbacks. You will need a device on which to read electronic books, however. If you already have a device that you use for other purposes, you may not consider this part of the expense. However, if you purchase a dedicated e-reader, you probably will. Convenience is also a factor, and both types of books are convenient in their own ways. Hundreds of ebooks can be stored on one device, which makes them very portable. E-readers also have lighted screens, so you don’t have to worry about sitting somewhere with good lighting. E-readers do have to be charged, though; you never have to worry about this with a hard copy. Hard copy books are also more aesthetically pleasing. They offer a wide variety of colorful, beautiful covers. Hard copy books also look nice on shelves. They can contribute significantly to your decor. The most significant factor for college students, though, is which type is better for learning. To some degree, this is a matter of personal preference. However, e-books comprise 15-20 percent of trade book sales. This indicates that people still feel that hard copy books offer a valuable reading experience. Research indicates that people feel a greater tactile connection to physical books, and that this might improve reading comprehension. In an e-reader, every book is the same physically; they are all on the same device. Hard copy books, though, have different thicknesses, different paper textures, and different feels. People often remember where something was in a book by how the book felt in their hands when they read the thing. Depending on how far into the book they were, there would be a certain amount of pages on the left side of the book and on the right. This could help recall the memory of where the information was located. Additionally, many people read e-books on devices that can also access the internet. You can do no such thing with a hard copy book. This means fewer distractions, and hence, better learning. Ultimately, therefore, hard copy books are better for college students. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses the author’s opinion?
     • However, e-books comprise 15-20 percent of trade book sales.
     • Research indicates that people feel a greater tactile connection to physical books, and that this might improve reading comprehension.
     • Additionally, many people read e-books on devices that can also access the internet.
     • Ultimately, therefore, hard copy books are better for college students.

     Correct answer: Ultimately, therefore, hard copy books are better for college students.

     This statement expresses an opinion held by the author. While the author makes a case for the reasonableness of the opinion, it can still not be considered a fact. However, e-books comprise 15-20 percent of trade book sales. This is incorrect since it is not an opinion. It is a fact because it can be factually verified. Research indicates that people feel a greater tactile connection to physical books, and that this might improve reading comprehension. This is incorrect since it references research — anyone could read this research and find the information mentioned. Additionally, many people read e-books on devices that can also access the internet. This is incorrect since it is not an opinion. It could be verified by the existence and sales of these devices.

161. Recently, a group of 100 professionals aged 25-30 took part in a study that examined the correlation between hours of sleep and cognitive scores. Participants were asked to keep track of the number of hours they slept each night for a total of 7 nights. Each morning, an hour after participants woke up, they were asked to complete a brief cognitive function test online. Based on these results, researchers believe that one’s sleeping hours do have an impact on one’s cognitive scores. It is clear that the more hours one slept, the better the test performance was, but only up until the 9-hour mark. In fact, those who slept an average of 9 hours each night performed the best on the cognitive test, attaining just over 90 points. Interestingly, the trend began to decrease with participants who slept more than 9 hours each night, since they performed worse on the tests. With this trend, participants reported lower scores for each additional hour of sleep. In order to continue studying this correlation, researchers will create a similar experiment for older and younger age groups. Which of the following is a conclusion based on the graph and explanation?
     • Hours of sleep and cognitive scores increase and decrease at the same rate.
     • After a certain point, more sleep can result in lower cognitive scores.
     • Everyone should strive to get 9 hours of sleep a night, regardless of circumstances or age.
     • Getting more than 9 hours of sleep each night is unhealthy.

     Correct answer: After a certain point, more sleep can result in lower cognitive scores.

     After a certain point, more sleep can result in lower cognitive scores is the correct answer. This is correct because the graph clearly shows that when participants got more than 9 hours of sleep, cognitive scores declined, even though scores improved with each additional hour until the 9-hour mark. So, the certain point that the answer option refers to is 9 hours. Everyone should strive to get 9 hours of sleep a night, regardless of circumstances or age. This is incorrect because the results state, “In order to continue studying this correlation, researchers will create a similar experiment for older and younger age groups,” which is not comprehensive. Plus, it is quite a broad statement to use for this specific graph. People may have other health issues (aside from cognitive scores) that require them to sleep a certain amount. Getting more than 9 hours of sleep each night is unhealthy. This is incorrect because the study looked at cognitive function, not health. It would be incorrect to assume that sleeping more than 9 hours each night is unhealthy just because it resulted in lower cognitive scores. Hours of sleep and cognitive scores increase and decrease at the same rate. This is incorrect because the graph indicates otherwise. This is true up until the 9-hour mark; after that, the hours of sleep increase while the scores decrease.

162. Even though my local post office is small, it has specific reservation requirements for people who need to get passport photos taken. As I was waiting in line early this afternoon, I witnessed countless walk-ins get rejected after not having booked appointments prior to coming in. Luckily, I had remembered to call in and book my spot first thing this morning! I finally have my photos and can send off my application on time. Which event came first in the sequence?
     • The narrator called to make a reservation for passport photos.
     • The narrator waited in line at the post office.
     • People were turned away since they had not made reservations.
     • The narrator received their passport photos.

     Correct answer: The narrator called to make a reservation for passport photos.

     The narrator called to make a reservation for passport photos. This is correct, as is signaled by the sentence, “Luckily, I had remembered to call in and book my spot first thing this morning!”. This shows that it is the first thing that happened in the sequence. The narrator waited in line at the post office. This is incorrect. Although you may have noticed the word “early”, suggesting that it comes first, it does not. The sentence, “Luckily, I had remembered to call in and book my spot first thing this morning!” shows that something else happened prior to the narrator waiting in line. People were turned away since they had not made reservations. This is incorrect. First off, the narrator was waiting in line when they saw this, so it could be argued that they had to wait in line first. In any case, the sentence, “Luckily, I had remembered to call in and book my spot first thing this morning!” shows that something else happened prior to people getting rejected. The narrator received their passport photos. This is incorrect since it is the last thing that happened in the sequence, as signaled by the word “finally”.

163. Applying for college can be a complicated process, and it is important to pay attention to deadlines that come up throughout the year. Students will typically have a meeting with their guidance counselors early in the academic year, but not before they pinpoint their future academic interests. Then, they should book college tours and interviews with the respective admission teams before applying to the programs of choice. What happens before the meeting with the guidance counselor?
     • Students decide what they want to study in the future.
     • Students apply to the chosen programs.
     • Students book college tours.
     • Students have interviews with the college admissions teams.

     Correct answer: Students decide what they want to study in the future.

     Students decide what they want to study in the future. This is correct. The phrase that follows the meeting with the guidance counselor, “but not before”, shows that “[students] pinpoint their future academic interests” before the meeting with the guidance counselor. The other options come after the word “then”, which means they occur later. Students book college tours. This is incorrect since it comes after the word “then”, which shows that it happens after the information in the previous sentence (meeting with the guidance counselor). Students have interviews with the college admissions teams. This is incorrect since it comes after the word “then”, which shows that it happens after the information in the previous sentence (meeting with the guidance counselor). Students apply to the chosen programs. This is incorrect since it comes after the word, “then”, which shows that it happens after the information in the previous sentence (meeting with the guidance counselor).

164. "A couple, on a budget, is shopping for fruits. At this specific store, they are looking to buy just one piece of fruit. They have a choice between three different types of fruit. The chart shows the prices of more than one piece of each fruit. Which single piece of fruit is the cheapest when bought on its own? Type of Fruit | Price: Banana 2 for $1.12, Apple 4 for $2.50, Nectarine 3 for $1.89"
     • The nectarine
     • The apple
     • The banana
     • The apple and nectarine

     Correct answer: The banana

     The banana is the correct answer. This is because $1.12 divided by 2 is $0.56, making it the cheapest option. The apple is incorrect. This is because $2.50 divided by 4 is $0.625, which is not the cheapest option. The nectarine is incorrect. This is because $1.89 divided by 3 is $0.63, which is not the cheapest option. The apple and nectarine is incorrect. This is because they are both close to $0.63, which is not the cheapest option.

165. A perfume shop sells exactly seven different types of perfume: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. Choose five different types of perfume to buy using the following guidelines: If type 7 is chosen, then type 1 cannot be chosen. If type 1 is chosen, then type 2 must be chosen. If type 4 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen. Which of the following combinations of flavored sodas corresponds with the directions?
     • 5,3,7,4,6
     • 7,2,3,5,6
     • 4,1,2,5,3
     • 1,4,6,5,7

     Correct answer: 7,2,3,5,6

     7,2,3,5,6 is correct. It follows the first guideline, i.e. If type 7 is chosen, then type 1 cannot be chosen, since 1 is not present. Type 3 is present, but it is fine since type 4 is not present. Type 2 is present, and 1 is not, but it is also fine, because the second guideline only states that if type 1 is chosen, then type 2 must be chosen. However, it is not the other way around. Types 5 and 6 do not have a connection with the guidelines, so they can also be included. 5,3,7,4,6 is incorrect. This breaks the third guideline, i.e. If type 4 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen, since 3 and 4 are both in the string. 1,4,6,5,7 is incorrect. This breaks the first and second guidelines. The first guideline, i.e. If type 7 is chosen, then type 1 cannot be chosen, has not been followed because 1 and 7 are both in the string. The second guideline, i.e. if type 1 is chosen, then type 2 must be chosen, has been broken because 2 is not in the string. 4,1,2,5,3 is incorrect. This does not follow the last guideline, i.e. if type 4 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen, since both 4 and 3 are present.

166. Passage 3 (4 Paragraphs) Losing The Past, Losing The Present 1. The word “biodiversity” is a combination of two words: “biological” and “diversity”. On a basic level, it represents the variety of plant and animal life on Earth. For decades, scientists have been studying biodiversity loss, ranging from insect extinction to the effects of overfishing. From a philosophical standpoint, some would argue that biodiversity is also representative of the vast knowledge humans have acquired through trial and error over millions of years. This information would include understanding how to survive in certain environmental conditions, or knowing how to treat common ailments. This comprehensive view of biodiversity triggered a recent study into the slow disappearance of indigenous languages and its effects on the future of society. Based on the findings, some linguists believe that loss of language can be just as devastating as climate change, if not more so. 2. Of about 7,400 languages spoken around the world, thirty percent are expected to become extinct by the end of the century, many of which are indigenous languages. Indigenous languages are distinct communication methods that are native to a specific region. Typically, they are only spoken by the indigenous people of that area, although some indigenous languages (such as Navajo and Sioux) have become somewhat mainstream and have been studied in-depth. In order to understand the consequences of indigenous language loss, a team of biologists from the University of Zurich analyzed three geographic areas known for their cultural diversity and distinct biological traits: North America, Northwest Amazonia, and New Guinea. Part of the study involved examining nearly 12,000 different medicinal plants that were associated with a specific purpose. An example of this would include using an aloe vera plant specifically for burns and cuts. 3. The study found that over seventy-five percent of the information specific to the medicinal plants is either known or transmitted using indigenous languages. Thus, losing access to these languages would seriously set back the centuries worth of information that has been gathered regarding holistic healing. This lack of information could also have disastrous consequences for the development of new pharmaceuticals and the treatment of diseases. While most medicinal molecules are synthesized in laboratories, the chemicals produced by plants help create new treatments and are necessary to support human health. According to the World Health Organization, the active principle of a quarter of synthetic pharmaceuticals currently on the market is derived from plants. 4. In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity. It encompasses more than solely cultural aspects of society. Rather, it branches off into the future of medicine and how we can move forward as a human race. Many scholars hope that plans will be put into place to delay the extinction of languages. The United Nations, for instance, has already taken action against this risk by creating the International Decade of Indigenous Languages initiative, which is set to take place from 2022 to 2032. Perhaps through these efforts, information and experiences from the past will continue to help navigate the present and the future. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 1?
     • Depending on one’s background, biodiversity can be understood in different ways.
     • Information that the human race has attained is an example of biodiversity.
     • Languages hold valuable information regarding the long journey of the human race.
     • For some, the loss of languages could be just as detrimental to society as biodiversity loss.

     Correct answer: For some, the loss of languages could be just as detrimental to society as biodiversity loss.

     Although the paragraph touches upon the different ways to understand the term, ‘biodiversity’, it does so in order to better explain what a ‘biodiversity loss’ would look like. This leads the way in explaining how some scholars believe that language loss could be just as devastating, which is the best summarizing statement of the paragraph. Languages hold valuable information regarding the long journey of the human race. This is incorrect as a general summary of the paragraph. Although information regarding languages, and indigenous languages, is included in the paragraph, nothing suggests that languages hold ‘valuable information’. Information that the human race has attained is an example of biodiversity. This is incorrect when it comes to the main summary of paragraph 1. Although it is factually accurate, according to the paragraph, it does not provide a general summary of the information included in the paragraph. Depending on one’s background, biodiversity can be understood in different ways. This is incorrect. This answer option is true factually correct, but it is not the best summary of the paragraph. The paragraph touches upon the different ways to understand the term, ‘biodiversity’, but it does so in order to provide supporting information regarding ‘biodiversity loss’.

167. Passage 3 (4 Paragraphs) Losing The Past, Losing The Present 1. The word “biodiversity” is a combination of two words: “biological” and “diversity”. On a basic level, it represents the variety of plant and animal life on Earth. For decades, scientists have been studying biodiversity loss, ranging from insect extinction to the effects of overfishing. From a philosophical standpoint, some would argue that biodiversity is also representative of the vast knowledge humans have acquired through trial and error over millions of years. This information would include understanding how to survive in certain environmental conditions, or knowing how to treat common ailments. This comprehensive view of biodiversity triggered a recent study into the slow disappearance of indigenous languages and its effects on the future of society. Based on the findings, some linguists believe that loss of language can be just as devastating as climate change, if not more so. 2. Of about 7,400 languages spoken around the world, thirty percent are expected to become extinct by the end of the century, many of which are indigenous languages. Indigenous languages are distinct communication methods that are native to a specific region. Typically, they are only spoken by the indigenous people of that area, although some indigenous languages (such as Navajo and Sioux) have become somewhat mainstream and have been studied in-depth. In order to understand the consequences of indigenous language loss, a team of biologists from the University of Zurich analyzed three geographic areas known for their cultural diversity and distinct biological traits: North America, Northwest Amazonia, and New Guinea. Part of the study involved examining nearly 12,000 different medicinal plants that were associated with a specific purpose. An example of this would include using an aloe vera plant specifically for burns and cuts. 3. The study found that over seventy-five percent of the information specific to the medicinal plants is either known or transmitted using indigenous languages. Thus, losing access to these languages would seriously set back the centuries worth of information that has been gathered regarding holistic healing. This lack of information could also have disastrous consequences for the development of new pharmaceuticals and the treatment of diseases. While most medicinal molecules are synthesized in laboratories, the chemicals produced by plants help create new treatments and are necessary to support human health. According to the World Health Organization, the active principle of a quarter of synthetic pharmaceuticals currently on the market is derived from plants. 4. In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity. It encompasses more than solely cultural aspects of society. Rather, it branches off into the future of medicine and how we can move forward as a human race. Many scholars hope that plans will be put into place to delay the extinction of languages. The United Nations, for instance, has already taken action against this risk by creating the International Decade of Indigenous Languages initiative, which is set to take place from 2022 to 2032. Perhaps through these efforts, information and experiences from the past will continue to help navigate the present and the future. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
     • Much of the information known regarding medicinal plants is communicated using indigenous languages.
     • The loss of indigenous languages would impact not only natural healing processes, but also more mainstream forms of medicinal healing.
     • Without people who understand indigenous languages, the pharmaceutical market would not be as successful.
     • Even though most pharmaceuticals are made in laboratories, indigenous languages are still necessary for the creation of treatments.

     Correct answer: The loss of indigenous languages would impact not only natural healing processes, but also more mainstream forms of medicinal healing.

     This is the correct summary for paragraph 3, since it appropriately combines the different consequences of the lack of indigenous languages described in the paragraph. The natural healing processes in the answer option are the same as the paragraph’s “holistic healing”, and the “mainstream forms of medicinal healing” is the same as the “development of new pharmaceuticals”. Much of the information known regarding medicinal plants is communicated using indigenous languages. This is incorrect. Although the statement is true, it is not the best summary statement for the paragraph as a whole since it fails to recognize the effects of losing indigenous language. Even though most pharmaceuticals are made in laboratories, indigenous languages are still necessary for the creation of treatments. This is incorrect. The paragraph states, “While most medicinal molecules are synthesized in laboratories, the chemicals produced by plants help create new treatments and are necessary to support human health”. However, this is not the best statment for the paragraph as a whole, as it does not address the impact of a loss of indigenous languages. Without people who understand indigenous languages, the pharmaceutical market would not be as successful. This is incorrect as a summary paragraph. It is also inaccurate, based on the information in the paragraph. Although the paragraph mentions the market in the statement, “…the active principle of a quarter of synthetic pharmaceuticals currently on the market derives from plants…”, it does not prove the idea stated in the answer option. In other words, while the lack of information surrounding indigenous languages would impact the pharmaceutical industry, the paragraph does not mention its success as a whole.

168. Passage 3 (4 Paragraphs) Losing The Past, Losing The Present 1. The word “biodiversity” is a combination of two words: “biological” and “diversity”. On a basic level, it represents the variety of plant and animal life on Earth. For decades, scientists have been studying biodiversity loss, ranging from insect extinction to the effects of overfishing. From a philosophical standpoint, some would argue that biodiversity is also representative of the vast knowledge humans have acquired through trial and error over millions of years. This information would include understanding how to survive in certain environmental conditions, or knowing how to treat common ailments. This comprehensive view of biodiversity triggered a recent study into the slow disappearance of indigenous languages and its effects on the future of society. Based on the findings, some linguists believe that loss of language can be just as devastating as climate change, if not more so. 2. Of about 7,400 languages spoken around the world, thirty percent are expected to become extinct by the end of the century, many of which are indigenous languages. Indigenous languages are distinct communication methods that are native to a specific region. Typically, they are only spoken by the indigenous people of that area, although some indigenous languages (such as Navajo and Sioux) have become somewhat mainstream and have been studied in-depth. In order to understand the consequences of indigenous language loss, a team of biologists from the University of Zurich analyzed three geographic areas known for their cultural diversity and distinct biological traits: North America, Northwest Amazonia, and New Guinea. Part of the study involved examining nearly 12,000 different medicinal plants that were associated with a specific purpose. An example of this would include using an aloe vera plant specifically for burns and cuts. 3. The study found that over seventy-five percent of the information specific to the medicinal plants is either known or transmitted using indigenous languages. Thus, losing access to these languages would seriously set back the centuries worth of information that has been gathered regarding holistic healing. This lack of information could also have disastrous consequences for the development of new pharmaceuticals and the treatment of diseases. While most medicinal molecules are synthesized in laboratories, the chemicals produced by plants help create new treatments and are necessary to support human health. According to the World Health Organization, the active principle of a quarter of synthetic pharmaceuticals currently on the market is derived from plants. 4. In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity. It encompasses more than solely cultural aspects of society. Rather, it branches off into the future of medicine and how we can move forward as a human race. Many scholars hope that plans will be put into place to delay the extinction of languages. The United Nations, for instance, has already taken action against this risk by creating the International Decade of Indigenous Languages initiative, which is set to take place from 2022 to 2032. Perhaps through these efforts, information and experiences from the past will continue to help navigate the present and the future. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 4?
     • The preservation of linguistic diversity may be possible through more concerted efforts and an awareness of its wider impact.
     • Society is dependent on information and experiences from the past for solving future problems.
     • Preserving linguistic diversity impacts not only culture, but other areas of society.
     • Organizations, such as the United Nations, must take a more active approach in preserving linguistic diversity.

     Correct answer: The preservation of linguistic diversity may be possible through more concerted efforts and an awareness of its wider impact.

     This is the best summary for paragraph 4. It contains all of the important points of the paragraph, including the need for an awareness surrounding linguistic diversity and the fact that it may be possible through concerted efforts. An example of the latter is the statement, “The United Nations, for instance, has already taken action against this risk by creating the International Decade of Indigenous Languages initiative, which is set to take place from 2022 to 2032”. Additionally, the last sentence of the paragraph is a hopeful look at the possibility of language preservation. Organizations, such as the United Nations, must take a more active approach in preserving linguistic diversity. This is incorrect. Although the author mentions the actions taken by the United Nations, this is not the main idea of the paragraph. Rather, it serves as a supporting detail regarding some organizations that are seeking to delay the extinction. Preserving linguistic diversity impacts not only culture, but other areas of society. This is incorrect. Although this statement provides a great summary of the passage in general, it leaves out important information that is included towards the end of this paragraph. There are some concerted efforts taking place to delay the extinction of languages, and a somewhat hopeful tone towards the end of the paragraph that is missing from this summary. Society is dependent on information and experiences from the past for solving future problems. This is incorrect. Although this statement would fit in well with the information towards the end of the paragraph, it is not an adequate summary of the paragraph as a whole; it only serves as supporting information.

169. Passage 3 (4 Paragraphs) Losing The Past, Losing The Present 1. The word “biodiversity” is a combination of two words: “biological” and “diversity”. On a basic level, it represents the variety of plant and animal life on Earth. For decades, scientists have been studying biodiversity loss, ranging from insect extinction to the effects of overfishing. From a philosophical standpoint, some would argue that biodiversity is also representative of the vast knowledge humans have acquired through trial and error over millions of years. This information would include understanding how to survive in certain environmental conditions, or knowing how to treat common ailments. This comprehensive view of biodiversity triggered a recent study into the slow disappearance of indigenous languages and its effects on the future of society. Based on the findings, some linguists believe that loss of language can be just as devastating as climate change, if not more so. 2. Of about 7,400 languages spoken around the world, thirty percent are expected to become extinct by the end of the century, many of which are indigenous languages. Indigenous languages are distinct communication methods that are native to a specific region. Typically, they are only spoken by the indigenous people of that area, although some indigenous languages (such as Navajo and Sioux) have become somewhat mainstream and have been studied in-depth. In order to understand the consequences of indigenous language loss, a team of biologists from the University of Zurich analyzed three geographic areas known for their cultural diversity and distinct biological traits: North America, Northwest Amazonia, and New Guinea. Part of the study involved examining nearly 12,000 different medicinal plants that were associated with a specific purpose. An example of this would include using an aloe vera plant specifically for burns and cuts. 3. The study found that over seventy-five percent of the information specific to the medicinal plants is either known or transmitted using indigenous languages. Thus, losing access to these languages would seriously set back the centuries worth of information that has been gathered regarding holistic healing. This lack of information could also have disastrous consequences for the development of new pharmaceuticals and the treatment of diseases. While most medicinal molecules are synthesized in laboratories, the chemicals produced by plants help create new treatments and are necessary to support human health. According to the World Health Organization, the active principle of a quarter of synthetic pharmaceuticals currently on the market is derived from plants. 4. In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity. It encompasses more than solely cultural aspects of society. Rather, it branches off into the future of medicine and how we can move forward as a human race. Many scholars hope that plans will be put into place to delay the extinction of languages. The United Nations, for instance, has already taken action against this risk by creating the International Decade of Indigenous Languages initiative, which is set to take place from 2022 to 2032. Perhaps through these efforts, information and experiences from the past will continue to help navigate the present and the future. Which of the following sentences is most representative of a summary sentence for this passage?
     • Thus, losing access to these languages would seriously hinder the centuries worth of information that has been gathered regarding holistic healing.
     • In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity.
     • From a philosophical standpoint, some would argue that biodiversity is also representative of the vast knowledge humans have acquired through trial and error over millions of years.
     • Of all the 7,400 languages spoken around the world, thirty percent are expected to become extinct by the end of the century, many of which are indigenous languages.

     Correct answer: In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity.

     This is the most representative of a summary sentence for this passage. The preceding paragraphs provide examples that show how languages are not just about culture; rather, they are linked to other aspects of human life, such as medicine and science. Thus, losing access to these languages would seriously hinder the centuries worth of information that has been gathered regarding holistic healing. This is incorrect. Although this statement contains information regarding the importance of languages and the fact that losing them would result in the loss of specific information, it is a bit too specific for a summary of the general passage. It does not provide the overarching idea behind going past cultural identities. From a philosophical standpoint, some would argue that biodiversity is also representative of the vast knowledge humans have acquired through trial and error over millions of years. This is incorrect. This is a statement that describes the definition of biodiversity, and how vast the definition can be. It is not an accurate summary of the entire passage. Of all the 7,400 languages spoken around the world, thirty percent are expected to become extinct by the end of the century, many of which are indigenous languages. This is incorrect. This statement provides support for the importance and purpose of the passage, but it is not general enough to be an overarching summary.

170. Passage 4 (4 Paragraphs) Brain Workouts 1. Medical experts have claimed that mental and physical health are equally important for a healthy, balanced life. While exercising can cut back on heart disease, for example, meditating has been proven to counteract stress in a positive way. Although no one is debating the effectiveness of these types of activities, experts are now wondering what we can do to “tone up” our brain in order to properly take care of our neurons. In fact, recent studies suggest that the human brain can continue to produce new nerve cells, even in old age. Neuroscientists believe that positive lifestyle choices can greatly contribute to brain health, slow cognitive decline, and improve our emotional state. However, these lifestyle choices are quite specific, and include other parts of the body that may not seem to be obviously linked to the brain. 2. First off, neuroscientists believe that what goes on in the human intestinal tract can highly impact both short-term and long-term brain function. Further, in recent years, nutritionists and food scientists have made some breakthroughs regarding the relationship between intestinal bacteria and mood disorders, including anxiety and depression. Although the exact link is not yet known, it has been proven that most of the mood-stabilizing hormone, serotonin, is produced in the intestine, whereas only ten percent of it is produced in the brain. Nutritionists believe that poor eating habits and dehydration are two major triggers to an unbalanced bacterial component. Thus, most would recommend a diet rich in plant-based foods that can nourish the body and provide a healthy environment for good bacteria to thrive. In addition to contributing to overall health, neuroscientists suspect that fewer imbalances in the gut could ward off neurodegenerative diseases, such as Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s. 3. The next link between health and the brain relies on both the quantity and quality of the food we ingest. When it comes to quantity, evolution has shown us that humans have survived periods in which food was periodically scarce and fasting was mandatory. In these cases, when little food was available, it was normal to switch from burning energy (glucose) to getting energy from the body’s fat storage. Now known as a specific diet called intermittent fasting, some neuroscientists are trying to understand if this process could actually slow cognitive decline. The quantity of the specific food groups that we ingest, on the other hand, has also come a long way over time. When analyzing the Western diet, for instance, it is clear that the intake of polyunsaturated fats has increased over time, which has led to a rise in inflammation. Thus, it is advisable to decrease these aforementioned fats and replace them with more omega-3 fats, which are known to improve brain function. 4. The last aspect regarding brain health is tied in closely with emotional well-being and involves physical activity. Quite simply, neuroscientists believe that introducing more movement into an increasingly sedentary society can perhaps reverse cognitive decline. In fact, it has been proven that thirteen percent of Alzheimer’s cases in the world have been linked to physical inactivity. The mechanism behind this connection lies within movement. Physical activity tends to reduce inflammation, which otherwise inhibits the growth of new brain cells. The end result is neurogenesis, or the process by which new neurons are formed in the brain. Although thirty minutes of physical activity each day would be ideal, experts suggest that small steps, such as making a conscious effort to get up and walk around every so often, could make positive changes in brain health. In short, approaching brain health in a similar way to physical workouts might be one way to work towards a healthier future. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 1?
     • The lifestyle choices impacting brain health are unlikely to be understood since they can be quite vague.
     • Even in old age, the brain continues to bring forth new cells and contribute to a healthy life.
     • The way in which a person lives could have an impact on brain health and play a part in delaying brain diseases.
     • Exercising one’s brain can be just as important as other forms of activity.

     Correct answer: The way in which a person lives could have an impact on brain health and play a part in delaying brain diseases.

     This is the best summary for paragraph 1. There are quite a few introductory details in this paragraph, but this summary does a good job of including the most relevant, e.g. the fact that “lifestyle choices can greatly contribute to brain health, slow cognitive decline”. The rest of the information in the paragraph supports this idea. Exercising one’s brain can be just as important as other forms of activity. This is incorrect. Although this is something that the author would probably agree with, based on information in the paragraph, it is not the best summary for all of the information in the paragraph. It is more of a claim than a summary, and leaves out important information regarding the brain’s capabilities and human lifestyle. Even in old age, the brain continues to bring forth new cells and contribute to a healthy life. This is incorrect. Although this statement is technically true, based on the information in the passage, it is a piece of supporting information rather than an adequate summary. The lifestyle choices impacting brain health are unlikely to be understood since they can be quite vague. This is incorrect. The author states, “However, these lifestyle choices are quite specific, and include other parts of the body that may not seem to be obviously linked to the brain”, but this does not mean that the lifestyle choices are unlikely to be understood. Rather, they just might not be overtly obvious.

171. Passage 4 (4 Paragraphs) Brain Workouts 1. Medical experts have claimed that mental and physical health are equally important for a healthy, balanced life. While exercising can cut back on heart disease, for example, meditating has been proven to counteract stress in a positive way. Although no one is debating the effectiveness of these types of activities, experts are now wondering what we can do to “tone up” our brain in order to properly take care of our neurons. In fact, recent studies suggest that the human brain can continue to produce new nerve cells, even in old age. Neuroscientists believe that positive lifestyle choices can greatly contribute to brain health, slow cognitive decline, and improve our emotional state. However, these lifestyle choices are quite specific, and include other parts of the body that may not seem to be obviously linked to the brain. 2. First off, neuroscientists believe that what goes on in the human intestinal tract can highly impact both short-term and long-term brain function. Further, in recent years, nutritionists and food scientists have made some breakthroughs regarding the relationship between intestinal bacteria and mood disorders, including anxiety and depression. Although the exact link is not yet known, it has been proven that most of the mood-stabilizing hormone, serotonin, is produced in the intestine, whereas only ten percent of it is produced in the brain. Nutritionists believe that poor eating habits and dehydration are two major triggers to an unbalanced bacterial component. Thus, most would recommend a diet rich in plant-based foods that can nourish the body and provide a healthy environment for good bacteria to thrive. In addition to contributing to overall health, neuroscientists suspect that fewer imbalances in the gut could ward off neurodegenerative diseases, such as Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s. 3. The next link between health and the brain relies on both the quantity and quality of the food we ingest. When it comes to quantity, evolution has shown us that humans have survived periods in which food was periodically scarce and fasting was mandatory. In these cases, when little food was available, it was normal to switch from burning energy (glucose) to getting energy from the body’s fat storage. Now known as a specific diet called intermittent fasting, some neuroscientists are trying to understand if this process could actually slow cognitive decline. The quantity of the specific food groups that we ingest, on the other hand, has also come a long way over time. When analyzing the Western diet, for instance, it is clear that the intake of polyunsaturated fats has increased over time, which has led to a rise in inflammation. Thus, it is advisable to decrease these aforementioned fats and replace them with more omega-3 fats, which are known to improve brain function. 4. The last aspect regarding brain health is tied in closely with emotional well-being and involves physical activity. Quite simply, neuroscientists believe that introducing more movement into an increasingly sedentary society can perhaps reverse cognitive decline. In fact, it has been proven that thirteen percent of Alzheimer’s cases in the world have been linked to physical inactivity. The mechanism behind this connection lies within movement. Physical activity tends to reduce inflammation, which otherwise inhibits the growth of new brain cells. The end result is neurogenesis, or the process by which new neurons are formed in the brain. Although thirty minutes of physical activity each day would be ideal, experts suggest that small steps, such as making a conscious effort to get up and walk around every so often, could make positive changes in brain health. In short, approaching brain health in a similar way to physical workouts might be one way to work towards a healthier future. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
     • Adding in omega-3 fats into one's diet would cancel out the negative effects of polyunsaturated fats and increase positive brain function.
     • Although there are some similarities regarding the way our bodies consume energy, the food ingested by society has changed over time.
     • Food and the ways in which it is consumed by society has changed over time and could impact brain health.
     • Specific diets, such as intermittent fasting, may be better for brain health.

     Correct answer: Food and the ways in which it is consumed by society has changed over time and could impact brain health.

     This is correct because it contains all of the main information from the paragraph. It mentions the quality and quantity of the food consumed by society, and how it has changed throughout human history. It also mentions how this could impact brain health, as is mentioned in the paragraph. Although there are some similarities regarding the way our bodies consume energy, the food ingested by society has changed over time. This is incorrect. Although the paragraph mentions the differences in food, and the similarities mentioned in this answer option are in line with the “intermittent fasting diets” mentioned in the paragraph, this idea is not the best summary for the paragraph. It is too specific and lacks relevant information regarding brain health. Adding in omega-3 fats into one’s diet would cancel out the negative effects of polyunsaturated fats and increase positive brain function. This is incorrect and too specific to qualify for an accurate summary of this paragraph. The author only includes these details as a way to demonstrate how the western diet is different from past diets. Specific diets, such as intermittent fasting, may be better for brain health. This is incorrect. Although the paragraph states, “Now known as intermittent fasting, some neuroscientists are trying to understand if this process could actually slow cognitive decline”, it is not the main idea of the passage. Rather, it acts as a supporting detail regarding the ways in which food is consumed.

172. Mosquitoes in Winter : Mosquitoes tend to be ubiquitous in the summer months, especially in humid areas with damp climates. With the advent of cooler autumn months though, they seem to disappear for the entire year. Where do they go? In short, they go into hiding since they cannot survive temperatures below 73 degrees Fahrenheit. This process is known as a diapause and it gives adult mosquitoes the opportunity to go into a “standby” of sorts during the colder months. The first step involves finding a place to settle in for the winter, including natural areas (such as caves or tree trunks) or in some cases, man-made structures like garages and cellars. They then enter a highly lethargic state in which they do not move, eat, or grow until they can sense a change in the weather. In other words, time seems to stand still until the arrival of spring and a warmer climate. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the given information?
     • It is possible that mosquitoes do not survive the diapause.
     • The length of the diapause depends on whether the mosquitoes are outside or in a man-made structure.
     • Mosquitoes are capable of terminating their diapause when the time is right.
     • The diapause of mosquitoes will typically begin immediately after summer ends.

     Correct answer: Mosquitoes are capable of terminating their diapause when the time is right.

     The text states, “They then enter a highly lethargic state in which they do not move, eat, or grow until they can sense a change in the weather. In other words, time seems to stand still until the arrival of spring and a warmer climate”. Since the mosquitoes can “sense the change in weather”, and they are lethargic until this occurs, it can be inferred that they are capable of knowing when to wake up from their diapause. The diapause of mosquitoes will typically begin immediately after summer ends. This is incorrect, even though it might seem like a good option. The text states, “With the cooler autumn months though, they seem to disappear for the entire year”, but it does not differentiate between the earlier autumn months and the time period immediately after summer ends. With the wording of the passage, the diapause could technically take place in November, which is technically an autumn month. So, it could be possible that some areas maintain a temperature of 73 degrees or higher during that time. Therefore, we cannot correctly infer that it occurs immediately after summer ends. The length of the diapause depends on whether the mosquitoes are outside or in a man-made structure. This is incorrect. The text mentions that there are two possibilities for mosquitoes to reside during the diapause: “caves or tree trunks or man-made structures like garages and cellars”. Nothing differentiates the two when it comes to the length of the diapause. It is possible that mosquitoes do not survive the diapause. This is incorrect. Nothing in the text would lead one to correctly infer this. If anything, the text states, “They then enter a highly lethargic state in which they do not move, eat, or grow until they can sense a change in the weather”, implying that this diapause happens only until a certain point.

173. Since the claim is based on spurious sources, we cannot accept it as legitimate. Which of the following defines “spurious” in the sentence above?
     • False
     • Credible
     • Simple
     • Extant

     Correct answer: False

     False is correct. Spurious means inauthentic, problematic, or false. A claim based on such a source wouldn’t be legitimate until proven with a credible source. Simple is incorrect. Simple doesn’t indicate good or bad, just a lack of complexity, which wouldn’t, by itself, be a problem in a source’s quality. Extant is incorrect. This word means in existence or available, which wouldn’t relate to a source’s quality. Credible is incorrect because it is the opposite of spurious.

174. Passage 1 (4 Paragraphs) Expanding a Viking Family Tree with DNA : 1. When a genomicist team from the University of Copenhagen set out to research ancient DNA, they expected to discover more information about the origins of Scandinavian populations. What they did not expect to find, however, was a familial tie between two warriors from the Viking Age, buried around 500 miles away from each other. This unexpected element not only provided a fascinating look into the ancient Viking population, but it also debunked some common ideas related to the general time period of the Viking Age, spanning from around 750 to 1100 CE. These findings are changing what we know about this time period and even offering up more information regarding genetic diversity. 2. In the research project’s early stages, Ashot Margaryan, the lead genomicist on the project, and his team set off to sample and sequence DNA from just over 400 human skeletons located in ancient archaeological sites in Europe and Greenland. The next step involved comparing the genomes and matching them up against other readily available genomes from modern populations, which led to a surprising discovery. The team realized that the effects of Scandinavian maritime expansion during the Viking Age was twofold. First, mixed ancestries were present along coastal areas, likely due to the raiding and settlements of Viking tribes. Moreover, it proves that genetic DNA from Scandinavia moved along the most common trade and raiding routes of the time. 3. Using the newfound knowledge of Viking travels and additional genetic DNA, the team was able to trace back the origins of two different sets of skeletal remains found in Denmark and England, respectively. Not only did the remains belong to two Viking warriors, but research proved that they were actually second-degree relatives. The first set of remains found in Denmark likely belonged to a fifty-year-old man who had sustained multiple injuries from raids throughout his long life. The second set, found in England, belonged to a younger man in his early twenties, who archaeologists believe met his death in a violent manner. Although the exact familial ties between the pair is impossible to know with certainty, the DNA proves that they could have been half-siblings, grandfather and grandson, or uncle and nephew. 4. While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past. Whether it can shed light on mass migrations or provide a more personal look into select individuals, genetic evidence will remain a source of interest and study for researchers. Coupled with archaeology, geneticists hope to use ancient DNA when studying the history of complex civilizations that have left behind little evidence. If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next. Which of the following sentences is most representative of a summary sentence for this passage?
     • These findings are changing what we know about this time period and even offering up more information regarding genetic diversity.
     • When a genomicist team from the University of Copenhagen set out to research ancient DNA, they expected to discover more information about the origins of Scandinavian populations.
     • If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next.
     • While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past.

     Correct answer: While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past.

     This statement is the most representative of a summary sentence for this passage because it touches upon the major aspects of the passage. First off, it shows that the discovery of the two warriors’ remains was unexpected. It also shows that it is a larger example of the potential use of ancient DNA. The fact that the answer states, “how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past” also refers back to the information gathered regarding ancient Scandinavian populations and their travels. If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next. This is incorrect. It is not the most representative of a summary sentence for this passage. Rather, it is a way to close the passage without a thought about the future capabilities of ancient DNA. This option leaves out the information regarding the findings and the material collected by the research team. When a genomicist team from the University of Copenhagen set out to research ancient DNA, they expected to discover more information about the origins of Scandinavian populations. This is incorrect. It is not the most representative of a summary sentence for this passage, but rather, an introduction to the passage. It shows the initial thoughts and plans of the research team, and does not include any of the information regarding their findings. These findings are shifting what we know about this time period and even offering up more information regarding genetic diversity. This is incorrect. Although it comes quite close to being the most representative of a summary sentence for this passage, it is still not the most representative for this passage. First off, it does not contain any specific details regarding the findings or the time period. The correct option contains this information. Also, it is important to note that the discovery of the skeletal remains and the other information learned from ancient DNA are both important to the summary sentence, and this option only includes the latter.

175. Considering that the road was already quite narrow, the sign stating that the road would continue to narrow gave her a strong feeling of trepidation. Which of the following defines “trepidation” in the sentence above?
     • Apprehension
     • Confusion
     • Eagerness
     • Ambivalence

     Correct answer: Apprehension

     Apprehension is correct. It indicates fear and anxiety, which makes sense given a narrow road that is expected to become even narrower. Ambivalence is incorrect. This indicates having both positive and negative feelings simultaneously. Given the sentence, however, only negative emotions would be appropriate. Eagerness is incorrect. This is a positive emotion when we anticipate something good, whereas the sentence indicates something unpleasant. Confusion is incorrect. While this is generally a negative emotion, it indicates uncertainty. The sentence doesn’t support this, since the speaker is clear that the road is narrow and will be narrower.

176. When you get home, you read a note from your roommate. It says, “I forgot to tell you that I’m working the nightshift this week! I’ll be gone by the time you get home from class. Before I come home for breakfast at 8:00 AM, I’m going to the gym to work out.” When should you expect your roommate to come home?
     • After breakfast at 8:00 AM.
     • After you get back from class.
     • After she finishes working out at the gym.
     • Before she works out at the gym.

     Correct answer: After she finishes working out at the gym.

     After she finishes working out at the gym. This is correct. The narrator writes, “Before I come home for breakfast at 8:00 AM, I’m going to the gym to work out”. This implies that she will be home after she finishes working out at the gym. After breakfast at 8:00 AM. This is incorrect. The narrator says, “Before I come home for breakfast at 8:00 AM”, meaning that she should be back by this time. After you get back from class. This is incorrect. The narrator says, “I’ll be gone by the time you get home from class…”, meaning that she will have left for her shift, which is unrelated to when she will be back home. Before she works out at the gym. This is incorrect. She will work out before coming home for breakfast at 8:00 AM since she says, “Before I come home for breakfast at 8:00 AM, I’m going to the gym to work out.”

177. Which of the following statements is accurate based on the map?
     • The restrooms are closer to the lake than they are to the campgrounds.
     • The southernmost part of the map shows the parking facility.
     • All campgrounds are south of the lake.
     • Highway 6 is located west of the river.

     Correct answer: The restrooms are closer to the lake than they are to the campgrounds.

     The restrooms are closer to the lake than they are to the campgrounds is the correct answer. This is correct because the map clearly shows that the restrooms are directly next to Chester Lake and that they are not directly next to either of the campgrounds. All campgrounds are south of the lake. This is incorrect because one campground is located north of the lake. Highway 6 is located west of the river. This is incorrect because it is located southeast of the river. The southernmost part of the map shows the parking facility. This is incorrect because none of the parking facilities are in the southernmost part of the map.

178. Business culture (source) When traveling abroad for business, learning the local business etiquette is more important than learning the language, as most international deals are conducted in English. In Japan, for example, receiving someone’s business card with both hands, taking some time to admire it before carefully placing it in your cardholder shows your respect for your business counterpart. In many countries, meetings are often carried out during a meal. In these occasions, the host usually pays and, as a guest, offering to pay would cause great offence. However, in Mexico, your host may interpret your suggestion to discuss business at a restaurant as a romantic proposal. What is the main idea of the passage?
     • Learning the language of your host can enhance your business skills.
     • Appropriate table manners are necessary for successful business.
     • It is a Japanese custom to start interactions by exchanging business cards.
     • Adapting to local business customs avoids embarrassing situations.

     Correct answer: Adapting to local business customs avoids embarrassing situations.

     Adapting to local business customs avoids embarrassing situations is correct. This is correct because the paragraph describes some misunderstandings that might occur during international business transactions when the guest is unaware of the local customs. Learning the language of your host can enhance your business skills is incorrect because the passage states that “learning the local business etiquette is more important than learning the language”. Appropriate table manners are necessary for successful business is incorrect because carrying out business deals during meals is only one example of international business situations. It is not the main idea of the passage. It is a Japanese custom to start interactions by exchanging business cards is incorrect because exchanging business cards is only one example of international business situations. It is not the main idea of the passage.

179. After going back and forth on our choice for months, my fiance and I finally decided on a destination for our honeymoon. Even though we had initially chosen Bali, I kept thinking about the awful sun poisoning I had gotten years ago! Beach destinations just were not as appealing to me anymore, so I suggested an Alaskan cruise instead. We simply cannot wait for some colder temperatures! Which event came first in the sequence?
     • The narrator thought about their sun poisoning experience.
     • The couple chose Bali as their honeymoon destination.
     • The narrator suggested that they go to Alaska.
     • The couple changed their minds about their honeymoon destination.

     Correct answer: The couple chose Bali as their honeymoon destination.

     The couple chose Bali as their honeymoon destination. This is correct, as is marked by the phrase, “we had initially chosen Bali”. This shows that this is the first thing that was done. The narrator thought about their sun poisoning experience. This is incorrect since it is not the first thing that happened in the sequence of events, because it comes after the phrase, “Even though we had initially chosen Bali”. So, the narrator was thinking about this experience after the first event in the sequence. The narrator suggested that they go to Alaska. This is incorrect since it does not happen first, but rather, is one of the later events. It happens after the couple had chosen Bali and, based on the introductory sentence, went back and forth on their decision. The couple changed their minds about their honeymoon destination. This is incorrect. Even though this is in the first sentence, the second sentence’s signal word precedes this event. The next sentence contains the phrase “even though we had initially chosen Bali”, which indicates that that event came first.

180. Medical jargon (source) The unexpected outbreak of a new viral illness in 2020 meant that guidance on prevention and treatment had to rely on developing scientific evidence. In the U.S., keeping up with the latest updates was challenging for many, especially for people who speak little or no English, and those with limited education or cognitive abilities. Generally speaking, in fact, most people would find the language of the healthcare industry difficult to understand. The consequences of misunderstanding medical advice and guidelines can be severe, causing confusion over the message conveyed and leading to misinformation. What is the main idea of the passage?
     • The result of miscommunication can be serious.
     • Understanding medical language can be complex.
     • Learning another language can be difficult.
     • Preventive regulations change too quickly to be followed.

     Correct answer: Understanding medical language can be complex.

     Understanding medical language can be complex is correct. This is correct because the paragraph suggests that anyone can struggle to understand medical terminology (“language of the healthcare industry”, or medical jargon), not only people with limited education, language, or cognitive skills. The result of miscommunication can be serious is incorrect. Although this statement is accurate, it is merely an example of why understanding medical language can be complex. It is not the main idea of the passage, but does serve as a supporting detail. Preventive regulations change too quickly to be followed is incorrect because this information is not in the passage. The passage mentions a problem in understanding the message, not the speed at which medical jargon is updated. Learning another language can be difficult is incorrect because the paragraph is more concerned with learning medical jargon than learning another language.

181. From: Human Resources Team Date: October 7th Subject: Company Walk-A-Thon As you all know, our company-wide Walk-A-Thon is just two weeks away. This event is an annual fundraiser that raises money and awareness for pediatric cancer. All of the proceeds from the event go directly to the Pediatric Cancer Ward of our local hospital, and they greatly appreciate our yearly support. While most of the preparation work for the event is well underway, we have noticed that not all employees have signed up for the event. In order to make this event a success, we are hoping that each and every employee will participate in the Walk-A-Thon. If you cannot participate, we do hope you will consider donating a small amount or sponsoring another employee. If this is not possible, please consider finding or contacting a potential business sponsor who would be interested in creating prizes for the guests of the Walk-A-Thon. We strongly believe that fellowship events are just as important as work-related events, and we hope that you will make an effort to participate this time around. Please let us know if you have already signed up for the event, in which case you should not have received this memo. We appreciate your patience as we are still sorting through the sign-ups from all employees and their families. If we haven’t gotten to your submitted registration form yet, then please disregard this memo. What does the Walk-A-Thon raise money for?
     • A national fundraiser for pediatric cancer
     • The Pediatric Cancer Ward for a nearby hospital
     • Future fellowship events for the company
     • Sponsors who support the company

     Correct answer: The Pediatric Cancer Ward for a nearby hospital

     The Pediatric Cancer Ward for a nearby hospital. This is correct. The statement, “All of the proceeds from the event go directly to the Pediatric Cancer Ward of our local hospital, and they greatly appreciate our yearly support,” proves this to be correct. A national fundraiser for pediatric cancer. This is incorrect. Although the memo mentions that the event raises awareness and money for pediatric cancer, it does not do so through a national fundraiser. The statement, “All of the proceeds from the event go directly to the Pediatric Cancer Ward of our local hospital, and they greatly appreciate our yearly support,” proves that the money is directly raised for the Pediatric Cancer Ward of a nearby hospital. Sponsors who support the company. This is incorrect. The statement, “All of the proceeds from the event go directly to the Pediatric Cancer Ward of our local hospital, and they greatly appreciate our yearly support,” clearly suggests that the money goes to a Pediatric Cancer Ward of a local hospital. The information about sponsors indicates where some of the money comes from, not where it goes. Future fellowship events for the company. This is incorrect. The statement, “All of the proceeds from the event go directly to the Pediatric Cancer Ward of our local hospital, and they greatly appreciate our yearly support,” clearly suggests that the money goes to the Pediatric Cancer Ward of a local hospital. The information regarding fellowship events is only for the recipients to know that these types of events are important.

182. To: All Employees From: Public Relations Team Date: January 8th Subject: Healthy Habits Campaign Do the winter months put you in a slump? Do you find that you engage in more unhealthy habits after the holiday season? Well, you are not alone. Studies show that unhealthy habits are expanded upon in the winter, ranging from unhealthy eating habits to lack of exercise. So, in an effort to combat these unhealthy habits during the winter months, the Public Relations Team is excited to announce a new health initiative for our company. Joining us in this adventure is one of the healthiest decisions you can make this season! Along with local medical professionals, we have developed an employee health program that is sure to kickstart your journey to healthy habits. Each department will have access to a pedometer and one free one-on-one consultation with a dietician at the start of the program. Of course, the initiative is in no way obligatory, but it would be a great way to start the new year! How will it work? For the next three months, we will be inputting the number of steps walked each day, along with our minutes of screen time. The department with both the highest amount of steps and lowest number of screen time minutes will win a prize. Taking part in this initiative will surely help you feel happier and healthier! Please keep in mind that all details will always be kept anonymous, and your personal details will never be shared with a third party or anyone else in the company. Only you will have access to the information in this initiative. Please refer to one of the Public Relations Team members for any additional questions. Which of the following is not part of the health program mentioned in the memo?
     • Daily check-ins with a dietician
     • Monitoring one’s screen time
     • A prize for the winners
     • Keeping track of steps with a pedometer

     Correct answer: Daily check-ins with a dietician

     Daily check-ins with a dietician. This is correct because it is not included in the health program, as mentioned in the memo. The memo states, “Each department will have access to a pedometer and one free one-on-one consultation with a dietician at the start of the program”; so, the consultation with the dietician is only a one time opportunity. Monitoring one’s screen time. This is incorrect since it is included in the program. The statement, “For the next three months, we will be inputting the number of steps walked each day, along with our minutes of screen time,” shows that they will be monitoring screen time. Keeping track of steps with a pedometer. This is incorrect since it is included in the program. The statement, “For the next three months, we will be inputting the number of steps walked each day, along with our minutes of screen time,” proves this to be correct. Additionally, the memo also mentions that “each department will have access to a pedometer”. A prize for the winners. This is incorrect since it is included in the program. The statement, “The department with both the highest amount of steps and lowest number of screen time minutes will win a prize,” confirms that there will be a prize for the winners.

183. A flavored soda shop sells exactly seven different types of flavored soda: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. Choose five different types of flavored sodas to buy using the following guidelines: If type 2 is chosen, then type 7 cannot be chosen. If type 1 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen. If type 6 is chosen, then type 2 must be chosen. Which of the following combinations of flavored sodas corresponds with the directions?
     • 6,1,7,4,2
     • 1,5,4,2,3
     • 6,2,3,5,4
     • 3,5,4,6,1

     Correct answer: 6,2,3,5,4

     6,2,3,5,4 is correct. The third guideline, i.e. If type 6 is chosen, then type 2 must be chosen, has been followed since both numbers are present. Since 2 is present, the first guideline must also be followed, and it has been, since 7 is not in the combination. Type 3 is present without type 1, which follows the second guideline. Additionally, types 5 and 4 can be in the combination as well. 6,1,7,4,2 is incorrect. This breaks the first guideline, i.e. If type 2 is chosen, then type 7 cannot be chosen. This is because both 2 and 7 are in the combination. 1,5,4,2,3 is incorrect. This breaks the second guideline, i.e. If type 1 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen. 3,5,4,6,1 is incorrect because it does not follow a few guidelines. First off, it breaks the second guideline, i.e. If type 1 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen, because both 1 and 3 are present. Additionally, it breaks the third guideline, i.e. If type 6 is chosen, then type 2 must be chosen, because 6 is present without 2.

184. Recently, a group of 100 professionals aged 25-30 took part in a study that examined the correlation between hours of sleep and cognitive scores. Participants were asked to keep track of the number of hours they slept each night for a total of 7 nights. Each morning, an hour after participants woke up, they were asked to complete a brief cognitive function test online. Based on these results, researchers believe that one’s sleeping hours do have an impact on one’s cognitive scores. It is clear that the more hours one slept, the better the test performance was, but only up until the 9-hour mark. In fact, those who slept an average of 9 hours each night performed the best on the cognitive test, attaining just over 90 points. Interestingly, the trend began to decrease with participants who slept more than 9 hours each night, since they performed worse on the tests. With this trend, participants reported lower scores for each additional hour of sleep. In order to continue studying this correlation, researchers will create a similar experiment for older and younger age groups. Which of the following best describes the results of the study?
     • When participants slept more hours through the night, their cognitive scores improved.
     • Before decreasing after a peak of 9 hours of sleep, cognitive scores improved with an increase in sleep hours.
     • In general, the cognitive scores of those who slept fewer than 9 hours each night were similar.
     • After a certain point, those who slept more performed similarly to those who slept fewer than 7 hours.

     Correct answer: Before decreasing after a peak of 9 hours of sleep, cognitive scores improved with an increase in sleep hours.

     Before decreasing after a peak of 9 hours of sleep, cognitive scores improved with an increase in sleep hours is the correct answer. This is correct because the graph clearly shows that when the participants got more than 9 hours of sleep, their cognitive scores declined, even though scores improved with each additional hour until the 9-hour mark. When participants slept more hours through the night, their cognitive scores improved. This is incorrect because it is not an accurate conclusion based on the entirety of the results. After a certain point, those who slept more performed similarly to those who slept fewer than 7 hours. This is incorrect because it is inaccurate in the context of the given information. Although those who received more than 9 hours of sleep performed worse than those who received 9 hours, their cognitive scores were not similar to those who received fewer than 7 hours of sleep. In general, the cognitive scores of those who slept fewer than 9 hours each night were similar. This is incorrect because the graph clearly shows that cognitive scores increased until the 9-hour mark; that is, they were not similar.

185. To: All Sales Associates From: Robert Raymond Date: June 19, 2021 Re: New Sales Initiatives Based on yesterday’s staff meeting, you should all be familiar with the low sales figures from this last quarter. While we were expecting a higher turnout based on last year’s figures and our own projections, the decrease in sales is not all that surprising, given the current economic climate. Fortunately, consumer satisfaction remains unchanged. In any case, it is our goal to combat this problem quickly and effectively. We hope to see an increased consumer demand for our products by the beginning of the next quarter. As such, our marketing team has drafted a new set of sales initiatives and guidelines for your review. We are also in the process of preparing a detailed webinar that will clearly detail the proposed action. We request that you kindly review the attached documents within the next 48 hours in order to be fully prepared for the sales call on Wednesday morning. We strongly believe that your individual skills and determination, coupled with the marketing team’s creative efforts, will result in a more impressive quarter this time around. All the information is located in your employee portal, but please reach out to me if you have any trouble accessing the information. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the given information?
     • All employees and staff will meet to discuss the new sales initiatives in the coming days.
     • Consumers of this company are likely experiencing the effects of an economic recession.
     • Sales employees will probably not have to employ new procedures for these initiatives.
     • The information attached to the memo will not be discussed during the call on Wednesday.

     Correct answer: Consumers of this company are likely experiencing the effects of an economic recession.

     In the memo, the writer states that the results are “not all that surprising, given the current economic climate”, while also mentioning that last year’s figures were different. Additionally, the writer adds that “consumer satisfaction remains unchanged”. So, it would be correct to infer that these consumers are not spending like they were last year because of the current economic climate. All employees and staff will meet to discuss the new sales initiatives in the coming days. This is incorrect. The memo is addressed only to sales associates and the writer mentions only a “sales call on Wednesday morning”. Sales employees will probably not have to employ new procedures for these initiatives. This is incorrect. Although nothing explicitly states this, the passage contains information that would lead us to infer the opposite: there is a webinar that has been scheduled to go over new guidelines, and a “new set of sales initiatives”. This suggests that there are new rules and procedures to be followed. The information attached to the memo will not be discussed during the call on Wednesday. This is incorrect. The memo states, “We request that you kindly review the attached documents within the next 48 hours in order to be fully prepared for the sales call on Wednesday morning.” This implies that the sales call will at least include some information that is present on the attached documents. Note that the writer is urging the respondents to prepare for the call using the documents, implying that the information will be discussed on the call.

186. After a long and difficult journey filled with traffic and car troubles, we finally reached our final destination of New Mexico. What started out as a fun road trip between friends quickly escalated into a tiring misadventure filled with unexpected difficulties that put everyone on edge. Next time, I am sure that we will think twice about traveling by car and book a flight! Which event came last in the sequence?
     • The group experienced car troubles.
     • People in the group were on edge.
     • The group arrived in New Mexico.
     • The group decided to book a flight.

     Correct answer: The group arrived in New Mexico.

     The group arrived in New Mexico. This is correct as is signaled by the word, “finally”. Even the word “after” in the beginning of the sentence points to how this event happened after something. The group experienced car troubles. This is incorrect since it is something that happened before the final event, and supposedly throughout the trip as well. The fact that this comes after the word “after” signals that something else happened after this event. People in the group were on edge. This is incorrect. This event comes after the beginning phrase, “what started out as…”, which signals that it came in the beginning of the trip. The group decided to book a flight. This is incorrect. Even though it comes at the end of the paragraph, it is not something that actually occurred. Rather, the narrator imagines that this will happen in the future.

187. Themed Cookbooks: Less High-Tech than Electronic Recipe Libraries, but Still Amazing In many ways, technology makes our lives easier, and we tend to gravitate to the shiny new things that promise increased convenience. Recipe collections are no exception. In past decades, people, usually women, wrote down each step and each ingredient of each recipe and then collected the recipes together in a box or a notebook, and now here we are with electronic recipe collections. With an electronic recipe collection, you can start an account on a site like the New York Times and have access to hundreds of recipes, all without writing down a thing. You can save the ones that appeal to you in a virtual “recipe box”. You can categorize them and search for them, which is useful once your collection grows. You can add notes on the recipes and read notes left by others, if they’ve been made public. On some sites, you can also add recipes from other sites. In an hour of browsing, you can add more recipes than our grandmothers could have written down in a week. Despite this convenience, there’s a middle path between laboriously hand-written recipes and electronic recipe libraries that should not be overlooked, and that is the cookbook, specifically, themed cookbooks. Cookbooks may be themed to match certain dietary preferences, needs, or cooking techniques and devices — you can find cookbooks for vegetarians, for diabetics, and for air fryers, for example. However, cookbooks are often also themed towards interests that aren’t directly tied to cooking. These might correspond to television shows, books, video games, and other creative works. These are more than recipe books; they are beautiful tributes to cherished fictional worlds. They allow an immersive, imaginative experience for fans and the chance to try unique recipes designed to evoke these fictional worlds. These books are about more than recipes. They feature beautiful art, photography, and often stories linking the recipes to the creative work to which they’re themed. If you are part of a fictional world’s fandom, do yourself a favor and see if there is a corresponding cookbook. If you know anyone who loves a fictional world, a themed cookbook is one of the best gifts you could get them. Which of the following statements from the passages expresses a fact?
     • These are more than recipe books; they are beautiful tributes to cherished fictional worlds.
     • If you are part of a fictional world’s fandom, do yourself a favor and see if there is a corresponding cookbook.
     • They feature beautiful art, photography, and often stories linking the recipes to the creative work to which they’re themed.
     • Cookbooks may be themed to certain dietary preferences, needs, or cooking techniques and devices — you can find cookbooks for vegetarians, for diabetics, and for air fryers, for example.

     Correct answer: Cookbooks may be themed to certain dietary preferences, needs, or cooking techniques and devices — you can find cookbooks for vegetarians, for diabetics, and for air fryers, for example.

     This statement is factually verifiable and hence a fact. One would only need to locate examples of the items listed in the sentence in order to verify this statement. These are more than recipe books; they are beautiful tributes to cherished fictional worlds. This is incorrect since it does not contain only objective facts. Additionally, the word “beautiful” indicates that the statement is an opinion. They feature beautiful art, photography, and often stories linking the recipes to the creative work to which they’re themed. This is incorrect since it does not contain only objective facts. It also contains an opinion, as indicated by the word “beautiful”. Whether something is beautiful cannot be objectively measured or verified. Different people may have different opinions on it. If you are part of a fictional world’s fandom, do yourself a favor and see if there is a corresponding cookbook. This is incorrect. It does not represent a fact, but rather, the author’s judgement.

188. To: All Employees From: Public Relations Team Date: January 8th Subject: Healthy Habits Campaign Do the winter months put you in a slump? Do you find that you engage in more unhealthy habits after the holiday season? Well, you are not alone. Studies show that unhealthy habits are expanded upon in the winter, ranging from unhealthy eating habits to lack of exercise. So, in an effort to combat these unhealthy habits during the winter months, the Public Relations Team is excited to announce a new health initiative for our company. Joining us in this adventure is one of the healthiest decisions you can make this season! Along with local medical professionals, we have developed an employee health program that is sure to kickstart your journey to healthy habits. Each department will have access to a pedometer and one free one-on-one consultation with a dietician at the start of the program. Of course, the initiative is in no way obligatory, but it would be a great way to start the new year! How will it work? For the next three months, we will be inputting the number of steps walked each day, along with our minutes of screen time. The department with both the highest amount of steps and lowest number of screen time minutes will win a prize. Taking part in this initiative will surely help you feel happier and healthier! Please keep in mind that all details will always be kept anonymous, and your personal details will never be shared with a third party or anyone else in the company. Only you will have access to the information in this initiative. Please refer to one of the Public Relations Team members for any additional questions. What is the main purpose of the memo?
     • To inform employees about the privacy policy of the initiative
     • To entertain employees with camaraderie
     • To persuade employees to take part in the health initiative
     • To inform employees about the dangers of unhealthy habits

     Correct answer: To persuade employees to take part in the health initiative

     To persuade employees to take part in the health initiative. The nature of the memo is persuasive in nature, especially with statements like, “Joining us in this adventure is one of the healthiest decisions you can make this season,” and, “Taking part in this initiative will surely help you feel happier and healthier”. All of the information supports the idea that healthy habits are the best, and that employees should take part in the initiative. To inform employees about the dangers of unhealthy habits. This is incorrect. Although the memo contains a statement about unhealthy habits, this is only used as a supporting detail in the text. The statement, “Studies show that unhealthy habits are expanded upon in the winter, ranging from unhealthy eating habits to lack of exercise” is not the main idea of this memo. Instead, this idea serves as a way to persuade employees to take part in the health initiative. To entertain employees with camaraderie. This is incorrect. The memo certainly contains some supporting details that state how the initiative will be fun, such as, “Taking part in this initiative will surely help you feel happier and healthier”. However, this is not the main idea of the memo. Instead, this idea serves as a way to persuade employees to take part in the health initiative. To inform employees about the privacy policy of the initiative. This is incorrect because it is used as a supporting detail to make employees feel better about making the decision to join the health initiative. Statements like, “Only you will have access to the information in this initiative,” work towards persuading employees to take part in the health initiative.

189. Passage 1 (4 Paragraphs) Expanding a Viking Family Tree with DNA : 1. When a genomicist team from the University of Copenhagen set out to research ancient DNA, they expected to discover more information about the origins of Scandinavian populations. What they did not expect to find, however, was a familial tie between two warriors from the Viking Age, buried around 500 miles away from each other. This unexpected element not only provided a fascinating look into the ancient Viking population, but it also debunked some common ideas related to the general time period of the Viking Age, spanning from around 750 to 1100 CE. These findings are changing what we know about this time period and even offering up more information regarding genetic diversity. 2. In the research project’s early stages, Ashot Margaryan, the lead genomicist on the project, and his team set off to sample and sequence DNA from just over 400 human skeletons located in ancient archaeological sites in Europe and Greenland. The next step involved comparing the genomes and matching them up against other readily available genomes from modern populations, which led to a surprising discovery. The team realized that the effects of Scandinavian maritime expansion during the Viking Age was twofold. First, mixed ancestries were present along coastal areas, likely due to the raiding and settlements of Viking tribes. Moreover, it proves that genetic DNA from Scandinavia moved along the most common trade and raiding routes of the time. 3. Using the newfound knowledge of Viking travels and additional genetic DNA, the team was able to trace back the origins of two different sets of skeletal remains found in Denmark and England, respectively. Not only did the remains belong to two Viking warriors, but research proved that they were actually second-degree relatives. The first set of remains found in Denmark likely belonged to a fifty-year-old man who had sustained multiple injuries from raids throughout his long life. The second set, found in England, belonged to a younger man in his early twenties, who archaeologists believe met his death in a violent manner. Although the exact familial ties between the pair is impossible to know with certainty, the DNA proves that they could have been half-siblings, grandfather and grandson, or uncle and nephew. 4. While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past. Whether it can shed light on mass migrations or provide a more personal look into select individuals, genetic evidence will remain a source of interest and study for researchers. Coupled with archaeology, geneticists hope to use ancient DNA when studying the history of complex civilizations that have left behind little evidence. If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 4?
     • Ancient DNA and archaeology can dispel myths about even the most studied eras of the past.
     • DNA is especially helpful when studying mass migrations and civilizations that we know little about.
     • Unexpected elements in the research phase of a project can shed new light on unknown circumstances.
     • Using ancient DNA and archaeological tools is beneficial when acquiring new knowledge of certain historical time periods.

     Correct answer: Using ancient DNA and archaeological tools is beneficial when acquiring new knowledge of certain historical time periods.

     This is the best summary for paragraph 4. The paragraph presents that ancient DNA is helpful when reconstructing the past. It also mentions archaeological tools and the fact that researchers hope to use them when uncovering more information about past civilizations (or in the case of the answer option, “certain historical time periods”). It contains all of the main information given in the paragraph in a succinct and clear manner. DNA is especially helpful when studying mass migrations and civilizations that we know little about. This is incorrect. Although this statement contains elements included in the paragraph, including DNA, mass migrations, and civilizations that left behind little evidence, it is not entirely based on the paragraph. The author does not state that genetic DNA is more helpful in cases of mass migrations. Instead, the author only states that it can be helpful in the particular circumstances described in the passage. Unexpected elements in the research phase of a project can shed new light on unknown circumstances. This is incorrect. It is true that the “unexpected twist in the research phase” was present, but this is not true for all research phases of a project. The unexpected element in and of itself did not necessarily shed new light on the unknown circumstance; ancient DNA was the tool that was used. So, this option is not entirely factual, nor is it the main idea of the paragraph. Ancient DNA and archaeology can dispel myths about even the most studied eras of the past. This is incorrect. First off, the paragraph does not discuss “myths” associated with “the most studied” eras of the past. Rather, the main idea of the paragraph is that ancient DNA and archaeology can help shed new light on eras that “have left behind little evidence”. Therefore, this is not the best answer.

190. Where are the majority of the campgrounds located?
     • South of the lake
     • East of the lake
     • North of the lake
     • Along Highway 6

     Correct answer: South of the lake

     South of the lake is correct. The map clearly shows that two of the campgrounds are located south of the lake, whereas only one is located north of the lake. North of the lake is incorrect. This is because two of the campgrounds are located south of the lake, whereas only one is located north of the lake. Along Highway 6 is incorrect. This is because two of the campgrounds are located south of the lake, whereas only one is located north of the lake. Campgrounds are not located along Highway 6. East of the lake is incorrect. This is because two of the campgrounds are located south of the lake, whereas only one is located north of the lake. Campgrounds are not located east of the lake.

191. After listening to the instructor’s convoluted answer, she was even more confused. Which of the following is the closest meaning to “convoluted” in the sentence above?
     • Contradictory
     • Ignorant
     • Unnecessarily complex
     • Enlightened

     Correct answer: Unnecessarily complex

     South of the lake is correct. The map clearly shows that two of the campgrounds are located south of the lake, whereas only one is located north of the lake. North of the lake is incorrect. This is because two of the campgrounds are located south of the lake, whereas only one is located north of the lake. Along Highway 6 is incorrect. This is because two of the campgrounds are located south of the lake, whereas only one is located north of the lake. Campgrounds are not located along Highway 6. East of the lake is incorrect. This is because two of the campgrounds are located south of the lake, whereas only one is located north of the lake. Campgrounds are not located east of the lake.

192. Yoga: More Accessible Than You Might Think One common misconception about yoga is that you need to be flexible to even try it. This misconception stems from a limited view of something unfamiliar. If you don’t practice yoga, your ideas of it may come from images carefully constructed for public view on social media. These images, often shared by companies or “influencers,” show lithe, seasoned yogis in acrobatic poses. Their faces are serene, their hair and makeup flawless, their outfits expensive and perfectly coordinated. If you visit a yoga studio, though, you’ll see practitioners of all ages, shapes, sizes, and ability levels. There will be plenty of sweat, frizzy hair, mismatched outfits, and people falling out of poses (a natural part of learning!). Yoga studios also offer a variety of props to help students access poses safely while they build the necessary flexibility to practice without the prop. Common props include blocks and straps. Yoga blocks are rectangular and generally made of some form of foam or wood. Many practitioners feel that wood blocks provide a greater sense of stability. However, they can be less comfortable when placed under the back in reclining poses. Yoga straps are long, sturdy, and generally made of cotton. They often have a form of buckle at the end which practitioners can use to create a loop. Straps can help you with many things, such as reaching your toes in a seated forward fold. With a couple blocks and a strap, yoga students can safely access poses they might have thought impossible. Instead of stressing or straining (and hence risking injury), people can safely work into a pose, gradually developing more flexibility. Aside from using props in the yoga studio, everyone should have some for their home practice as well. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses a fact?
     • Their faces are serene, their hair and makeup flawless, their outfits expensive and perfectly coordinated.
     • However, they can be less comfortable when placed under the back in reclining poses.
     • Straps can help you with many things, such as reaching your toes in a seated forward fold.
     • Aside from using props in the yoga studio, everyone should have some for their home practice as well.

     Correct answer: Straps can help you with many things, such as reaching your toes in a seated forward fold.

     Straps can help you with many things, such as reaching your toes in a seated forward fold is the correct answer. This statement can be proven by obtaining and looking at a yoga strap. It also uses words like “can” and “such as” to qualify the statement. Qualified statements are easier to prove because they are open to exceptions and limitations. Their faces are serene, their hair and makeup flawless, their outfits expensive and perfectly coordinated. This is incorrect since it represents an opinion, a subjective viewpoint. Someone else might have a different reaction, and see the faces as something other than serene or find flaws in the hair and the makeup. However, they can be less comfortable when placed under the back in reclining poses. This is incorrect since it is an opinion. Something like comfort level is a subjective notion. Aside from using props in the yoga studio, everyone should have some for their home practice as well. This is incorrect since it represents an opinion, as we can infer from the word “should”.

193. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. Start with the word MAGICALLY. Remove one of the double consonants. Change the M to an N. Remove the last letter. Switch the first and last letters. Change the I to an E. Change the C to an R. Switch the fifth and seventh letters. What is the new word?
     • LANTERN
     • LAGER
     • NECTARY
     • LAGENAR

     Correct answer: LAGENAR

     LAGENAR is the correct answer. Let’s examine this step by step: MAGICALLY Step 1: Remove one of the double consonants. MAGICALY Step 2: Change the M to an N. NAGICALY Step 3: Remove the last letter. NAGICAL Step 4: Switch the first and last letters. LAGICAN Step 5: Change the I to an E. LAGECAN Step 6: Change the C to an R. LAGERAN Step 7: Switch the fifth and seventh letters. LAGENAR is the resulting word.

194. A cupcake shop sells exactly seven different types of cupcakes: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. Choose five different types of cupcakes to buy using the following guidelines: If type 1 is chosen, then type 5 cannot be chosen. If type 3 is chosen, then type 7 must be chosen. If type 6 is chosen, then type 1 must be chosen. Which of the following combinations of cupcakes corresponds with the directions?
     • 6,1,4,7,2
     • 1,6,2,5,3
     • 5,2,7,3,1
     • 3,7,6,2,4

     Correct answer: 6,1,4,7,2

     6,1,4,7,2 is correct. This follows the first guideline, i.e. If type 1 is chosen, then type 5 cannot be chosen, as well as the last guideline, i.e. If type 6 is chosen, then type 1 must be chosen. You might have wondered about the inclusion of type 7, but keep in mind that the second guideline only says that type 7 must be chosen if 3 is chosen. It doesn’t say that if 7 is chosen, 3 must be chosen. So, it’s fine that type 3 is not in this string. Types 2 and 4 do not pertain to any rules, so they can be included. 1,6,2,5,3 is incorrect. This answer choice does not follow the second guideline, i.e. If type 3 is chosen, then type 7 must be chosen. It also does not follow the first guideline, i.e. If type 1 is chosen, then type 5 cannot be chosen. 3,7,6,2,4 is incorrect. This answer choice does not follow the last guideline, i.e. If type 6 is chosen, then type 1 must be chosen. 5,2,7,3,1 is incorrect. This answer choice does not follow the first guideline, i.e. If type 1 is chosen, then type 5 cannot be chosen.

195. Themed Cookbooks: Less High-Tech than Electronic Recipe Libraries, but Still Amazing In many ways, technology makes our lives easier, and we tend to gravitate to the shiny new things that promise increased convenience. Recipe collections are no exception. In past decades, people, usually women, wrote down each step and each ingredient of each recipe and then collected the recipes together in a box or a notebook, and now here we are with electronic recipe collections. With an electronic recipe collection, you can start an account on a site like the New York Times and have access to hundreds of recipes, all without writing down a thing. You can save the ones that appeal to you in a virtual “recipe box”. You can categorize them and search for them, which is useful once your collection grows. You can add notes on the recipes and read notes left by others, if they’ve been made public. On some sites, you can also add recipes from other sites. In an hour of browsing, you can add more recipes than our grandmothers could have written down in a week. Despite this convenience, there’s a middle path between laboriously hand-written recipes and electronic recipe libraries that should not be overlooked, and that is the cookbook, specifically, themed cookbooks. Cookbooks may be themed to match certain dietary preferences, needs, or cooking techniques and devices — you can find cookbooks for vegetarians, for diabetics, and for air fryers, for example. However, cookbooks are often also themed towards interests that aren’t directly tied to cooking. These might correspond to television shows, books, video games, and other creative works. These are more than recipe books; they are beautiful tributes to cherished fictional worlds. They allow an immersive, imaginative experience for fans and the chance to try unique recipes designed to evoke these fictional worlds. These books are about more than recipes. They feature beautiful art, photography, and often stories linking the recipes to the creative work to which they’re themed. If you are part of a fictional world’s fandom, do yourself a favor and see if there is a corresponding cookbook. If you know anyone who loves a fictional world, a themed cookbook is one of the best gifts you could get them. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses the author’s opinion?
     • With an electronic recipe collection, you can start an account on a site like the New York Times and have access to hundreds of recipes, all without writing down a thing.
     • You can add notes on the recipes and read notes left by others, if they’ve been made public.
     • On some sites, you can also add recipes from other sites.
     • If you know anyone who loves a fictional world, a themed cookbook is one of the best gifts for them.

     Correct answer: If you know anyone who loves a fictional world, a themed cookbook is one of the best gifts for them.

     This statement represents the author’s point of view (opinion). While the author is trying to convince readers to accept the same view, it is not something that can be factually proven. Someone who loves a fictional world may have no interest in cooking or a themed cookbook. With an electronic recipe collection, you can start an account on a site like the New York Times and have access to hundreds of recipes, all without writing down a thing. This is incorrect. It does not represent the author’s opinion because it can be objectively verified. The availability of this service can be verified on a site like the New York Times and the recipes can be counted and found to be in the hundreds. You can add notes on the recipes and read notes left by others, if they’ve been made public. This is incorrect. It does not represent the author’s opinion because it can be verified by going through the given website to see if it offers this feature. On some sites, you can also add recipes from other sites. This is incorrect since it does not represent the author’s opinion. The statement is a fact and can be proven by browsing websites that offer this feature.

196. Iago: In Shakespeare’s Othello, Iago devotes himself to obtaining revenge on Othello for wounding his sense of pride. Iago has two complaints: one involves a rumor that Othello has had an affair with Iago’s wife Emilia; the other is a promotion that Iago believes he should have received. Iago admits that he doesn’t know if the rumor is even true; however, that his ambition was thwarted is true. Cassio was promoted to lieutenant while Iago was made to settle with the position of ensign. Although he is bitterly angry at Othello for promoting Cassio ahead of him, a key part of his plan for vengeance involves keeping his emotions from reaching the surface, at least in front of others. Accordingly, he plays the conscientious soldier, always ready when needed, always trustworthy, and always honorable. His deception is effective. Nearly everyone in the play believes him to be what he seems, right up until it is too late to stop the horrible events he has set into motion. What is the meaning of the word “conscientious” as used in the paragraph?
     • Dutiful
     • Conscious
     • Aggressive
     • Vengeful

     Correct answer: Dutiful

     Dutiful is correct. The context clues help us see that the word conscientious should mean something similar to trustworthy and honorable. Aggressive is incorrect. While a soldier might be aggressive, the context clues help us see that the word conscientious must mean something similar to trustworthy and honorable. Vengeful is incorrect. Iago actually is vengeful, but the passage makes it clear that part of his plan is to seem different than what he is. Therefore, the word conscientious needs to mean something positive. Conscious is incorrect. The word conscientious is the adjective form of conscience, and sometimes the word conscious is mixed up with conscience. Conscious means aware, which would not work with the sentence or paragraph.

197. Othello’s Tragic Fall : Othello, by William Shakespeare, is a tragedy. A tragedy is meant to affect a cathartic release of emotions. A catharsis is a sort of purging, an opportunity to experience an extreme emotion without a real-life cause. In a tragedy, the main character falls from a lofty height. It is this great fall that is meant to inspire sadness and pity. It also serves as a cautionary tale that no one is immune from destruction brought on by bad decisions or harmful personality traits allowed to run unchecked. In the case of Othello, the titular character is the general of the Venetian army, a position of great power. It is clear that the Venetians count on him to handle their military exploits and protect their interests. Othello is a successful soldier and also wins the love of Desdemona, the daughter of a Senator and a woman who is sought after and praised by all. However, his fall is caused by jealousy. Although Iago is the instrument of his fall, Othello would not have been susceptible to Iago’s machinations had his own jealousy and insecurity not made him weak. By the end of the play, Othello has betrayed all those most dear to him and lost everything, even his life. In a short span of time, he has fallen from a dramatic height. As everything unfolds at the end, the onlookers are stunned (those still alive, at any rate). Like the audience, they cannot help an emotional reaction to this devastating and bloody tragedy. What is the meaning of the word “susceptible” as used in the paragraph?
     • Neutral to
     • Resistant to
     • Prone to
     • Suspicious of

     Correct answer: Prone to

     Prone to is correct. To be susceptible to something is to be open to it, likely to be affected by it. This works with the context of the paragraph, which explains that Othello’s jealousy made him more open to manipulation. Resistant to is incorrect. It means the opposite of susceptible. From the context given in the paragraph, we can see that Othello does not resist Iago. Neutral to is incorrect. This would mean Othello had no reaction to Iago’s tactics, but the passage makes clear that he does react by acting on his jealousy. Suspicious of is incorrect. We can see from the context that Othello is not suspicious of Iago. Rather, he is affected by Iago’s machinations, just as Iago had planned.

198. Gish Gallop : Have you ever been in a debate or argument with someone who blasted off a series of points which may have been loosely related, false, half-truths, or weakly developed? Even if you knew these points were weak, you may have felt overwhelmed by the realization of how much time and emotional energy it would take to refute each one individually. If you’ve experienced this, you’ve been the victim of a Gish gallop, an argumentative technique that attempts to substitute a veneer of substance for actual substance by overwhelming an opponent with a series of dubious arguments. The goal is to make it seem like the Gish galloper’s position is supported by overwhelming evidence, and this might be convincing to people who do not have enough familiarity with the issue to recognize poorly developed or fallacious arguments. However, the Gish gallop is an intellectually dishonest tactic. It takes time to research and debate any argument in depth. The Gish gallop is the opposite of depth. It is pure superficiality and it attempts to evade meaningful debate. What is the meaning of the word “dubious” as used in the paragraph?
     • Convincing
     • Questionable
     • Derogative
     • Deliberate

     Correct answer: Questionable

     Questionable is correct. It explains the meaning of dubious. Both adjectives can be used to describe the points generally made in a Gish gallop, which the paragraph notes are often weak, if not outright false. Derogative is incorrect. It does not express the meaning of dubious. Dubious means questionable, so it expresses doubt, uncertainty. Derogative is entirely negative; it expresses a deliberate meanness. Deliberate is incorrect. In general, a Gish gallop is likely done deliberately, or on purpose. But, dubious, the word used in the passage to describe the arguments, does not have this meaning. Convincing is incorrect. This is the opposite of what dubious means.

199. Griffith Observatory : The Griffith Observatory in Los Angeles is one of the best places for spectacular views, both celestial and terrestrial. From the grounds outside the observatory, you can easily see the Hollywood sign overlooking Los Angeles, and Los Angeles itself, with all its skyscrapers and thickly intersecting streets. The smog may somewhat obfuscate your view on a bad day, but the prominent position of the observatory should still make for an excellent look over the city. If you’re looking upwards, the observatory offers the public use of powerful telescopes from which you’ll be able to see far above even the thickest smog. Observers can note such features of our solar system as comets, our moon, and the planets. The observatory offers educational features to help you locate and understand the wonders beyond our planet. Whatever the level of your interest in astronomy, Griffith Observatory should be high on your to-do list when you’re in Los Angeles. What is the meaning of the word “obfuscate” as used in the paragraph?
     • To obscure
     • To thicken
     • To objectify
     • To clear

     Correct answer: To obscure

     To obscure is correct. This fits with the context of the paragraph. The smog can obfuscate or hinder views of the city. We know that smog is noticeable and can interfere with clear vision. To objectify is incorrect. This means to present something as an object. It does not align with the meaning of the paragraph or the sentence. To thicken is incorrect. Smog can make the air appear thick in a way, but the word obfuscate itself does not necessarily mean to thicken, just to reduce clarity. To clear is incorrect. This is the opposite of obfuscate.

200. Denotation : A word’s denotation is its dictionary definition. It is the objective definition of what a word means. However, words can have multiple denotations and even different parts of speech. The word “spring”, for example, despite being a word most people would consider simple, has over forty denotations and exists as both a noun and a verb. That being the case, if you are working with an unfamiliar word, how can you know if you have the right denotation? It’s important to keep in mind that the context for which you need the word should filter out illogical denotations. Therefore, when you look up a new word, read not only the definitions, but the sample sentences. You’ll see the word in action, as it were; you’ll be able to see an example of the word in context. For a word with multiple denotations, this will help you choose the write denotation to use in your own writing. Choosing the wrong denotation and using the word improperly will create confusion for your readers. However, sometimes a writer may want multiple denotations. In this case, a word would be chosen because more than one denotation is appropriate, essentially allowing the writer to pack more meaning into fewer words. We can see this in the poem “Cross” by Langston Hughes. The speaker regrets his anger against his deceased parents, a wealthy white man and a poor black woman. He wonders where he himself will die, “Being neither white nor black?” (12). Instead of considering himself both black and white, he considers himself neither. The poem reveals his struggles to establish his identity in a society in which he feels unrecognized and unmoored. Considering this, the poem’s title “Cross” can be seen to have at least three relevant denotations: “cross” as in angry, “cross” as in a mix or mixture, and “cross” as in a burden (an allusion to Jesus’s cross in the Bible). The title and the poem itself are brief, but effective use of denotation allows Hughes to fold significant meaning into one word; this meaning then infuses the poem itself with greater significance and emotion. Which of the following is the best definition of “allusion” as used in the passage?
     • Illusion
     • Synonym
     • Historical reference
     • Indirect reference

     Correct answer: Indirect reference

     Indirect reference is correct. To allude is to refer to something without directly stating it, or to refer to something related to it. Historical reference is incorrect. An allusion may be a historical reference, but it does not have to be historical definitionaly. Synonym is incorrect. A synonym is a word that has the same denotation as another word. While a successful allusion is also based on a correspondence, it isn’t as close a correspondence. An allusion is indirect. Also, the words have different uses. Illusion is incorrect. This does not provide a definition of allusion, although the words are similar in spelling and are often confused with one another.

201. Defining Poetry : We often define poetry by rhyme and meter, but poetry is more than that. In fact, poetry does not even have to have rhyme or meter. Of course, many poems do have these features, but there are variations that do not. One of them is blank verse, which has meter but does not have rhyme. Another is free verse, which, as the name suggests, is not bound by any formulaic constraints of rhyme, meter, or any other type of pattern. This more open form of poetry is more likely to be found in modern poetry that often eschews the well-established forms more common in previous decades and centuries. If not by rhyme and meter, how are we to define poetry? While there may not be a universally agreed-upon answer, poetry can be defined by its compact, emotionally evocative use of language and by its freedom from the conventions that govern prose. Poets aim to use language in a way that condenses more meaning and emotional experience into words than we typically see with prose. This might mean making use of words that embody multiple relevant denotations, carefully choosing words for their connotations, and employing rich, original figurative language. None of this is unique to poetry, but poetry tends to make greater use of these features than prose. Poetry may also experiment in ways not found in prose, which is where we get the idea of “poetic license,” or the idea that writing conventions typically obeyed in prose are not restrictive upon poetry. Which of the following is the best definition of “eschew” as used in the passage?
     • Welcome
     • Consider
     • Avoid
     • Condemn

     Correct answer: Avoid

     Avoid is correct. We can see from the context of the passage that the more open forms of poetry are in contrast to poetry with “well-established forms”. This would indicate that the more open forms avoid, or eschew, the more formulaic forms. Condemn is incorrect. Condemn is a harsh word indicating negative judgement. Eschew does mean avoid, but it doesn’t necessarily mean that one harshly judges that which one avoids. A poet might choose to compose in one form of verse without necessarily disliking or condemning others. Welcome is incorrect. Its meaning is opposite to that of eschew. Consider is incorrect. Consider indicates that one is still evaluating something; one is still deciding. Eschew means that one has already decided to avoid something.

202. Because she paid attention, took notes, and looked up unfamiliar words, she was able to discern the speaker’s meaning. Which of the following words has the same meaning as discern, as it is used in this sentence?
     • Determine
     • Describe
     • Ignore
     • Obfuscate

     Correct answer: Determine

     Determine is correct. It means to draw a conclusion. The sentence states things that could reasonably help someone figure something out (such as paying attention, taking notes, and looking up unfamiliar words). Like the word determine, when you discern something, you perceive or recognize meaning — you figure the thing out. Ignore is incorrect. It is not close to the meaning of discern. The context clues show us things that a person would do to figure out a meaning, not ignore it. Describe is incorrect. It is not close to the meaning of discern. Once someone has discerned the meaning of something, they would probably be able to describe it, but the discerning would need to come first as an initial step. Obfuscate is incorrect. It means to cloud the meaning of something or to confuse, which is the opposite of what you do when discerning something.

203. Hopefully we’ll get some rain soon; we need a respite from this hot and dry weather. Which of the following is the closest meaning to “respite” in the sentence above?
     • Deliberation
     • Amplification
     • Restitution
     • Rest

     Correct answer: Rest

     Rest is correct. Respite means a break or relief from something, so rest is close in meaning. From the sentence, we can infer that the hot and dry weather is undesirable. The speaker hopes for some rain, which would be different from the hot and dry weather and would bring relief. Restitution is incorrect. It means to make amends or compensate someone for a loss. Amplification is incorrect. It means to make something louder, more prominent, or to expand on it. Deliberation is incorrect. It means to weigh the pros and cons of something, to consider something in order to make a decision.

204. An Environmental Vacation : The state of Maine is home to famous state parks and sought-after beaches, making it a popular vacation destination. Recently, however, this northeastern state has made headlines for a mysterious black element, similar to soot, found on some of its beaches. Visitors alerted authorities after realizing that their feet had been covered with the ash-like substance, which was almost impossible to remove. What was initially believed to have been oil deposits mixed with sand was proven to be something else entirely and even more concerning. Thanks to a collaboration between a team of oceanographers and the Department of Environmental Protection, the black ash was confirmed to be tiny carcasses of millions of insects identified as Coelopa frigida, a fly that is rich in pigment and tends to feed on algae. While it is not clear how the insects ended up on the beaches or why the disastrous phenomenon occurred, experts believe that it is likely an isolated incident. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the given information?
     • Something in the coastal waters proved to be deadly for the Coelopa frigida.
     • The quality of algae in the waters near Maine has decreased over the years.
     • The remains of Coelopa frigida are not always easily identifiable.
     • This is likely an example of a recurring problem with the Coelopa frigida population.

     Correct answer: The remains of Coelopa frigida are not always easily identifiable.

     Based on the information in the passage, we know that the identification process of the “mysterious black element” was not easy, and that it took “a team of oceanographers and the Department of Environmental Protection” to uncover the results. Since the remains were similar to “soot” or “black ash”, we can correctly infer that the remains of the Coelopa frigida are not always easily identifiable. This is likely an example of a recurring problem with the Coelopa frigida population. This is incorrect. Although this answer option contains the key word, ‘Coelopa frigida’, it would be wrong to infer that the problem with its population is recurring. The end of the passage states, “experts believe that it is likely an isolated incident”, providing further evidence that this is incorrect. The quality of algae in the waters near Maine has decreased over the years. This is incorrect. The passage only states that the Coelopa frigida “tends to feed on algae”. However, it would be wrong to assume that the quality of this specific algae has decreased, or that it was the cause of the incident. Something in the coastal waters proved to be deadly for the Coelopa frigida. This is incorrect. Although this may seem like the best answer since the Coelopa frigida were found dead on the shores of Maine, the passage does not provide evidence that something in the coastal waters proved to be deadly for them. Since the passage states that the species is a “fly rich in pigment that tends to feed on algae”, there are technically other possibilities that could have contributed to its demise on the shores of Maine.

205. Give Me…Four? : The spectacled salamander, also known as the salamandrina terdigitata, is a European species of salamanders found in both central and southern regions of Italy. Unlike all of the other European salamander species, it has four fingers instead of five on its hind legs. Another interesting feature of the species is that it does not secrete substances that are as toxic as those of other salamanders, even though its dark coloring would suggest otherwise. Typically, the presence of these salamanders denotes a healthy environmental status in the surrounding area. As such, they are most often found in lush forests with a high humidity rate and clear streams. The climate and other elements help the species stay cool without having to enter the water. In fact, only females enter water in order to lay their eggs in the early summer months. After a few months, these eggs hatch, which triggers the metamorphosis stage that leads to adulthood. Once the metamorphosis stage has completed, male spectacled salamanders spend their time on land and avoid the water. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the given information?
     • Darker-toned salamanders tend to produce matter that is more poisonous than other types.
     • Other European salamander species usually have five fingers on their hind legs.
     • The metamorphosis stage must be prompted by a change in temperature.
     • Male spectacled salamanders cannot survive in the water.

     Correct answer: Darker-toned salamanders tend to produce matter that is more poisonous than other types.

     The passage states, “Another interesting feature lies in the fact that it does not secrete substances that are as toxic as those of other salamanders, even though its dark coloring would suggest otherwise.” This tells us that the spectacled salamander is not as dangerous as other salamanders when it comes to its toxic secretions. Based on the last half of the answer, we can infer that darker salamanders produce matter that is more poisonous than that of the spectacled salamander. Other European salamander species usually have five fingers on their hind legs. This is incorrect, even though it may initially seem like the correct answer. The text states, “Unlike all of the other European salamander species, it has four fingers instead of five on its hind legs,” which tells us that all of the other European salamander species have five fingers. This answer option, on the other hand, states that other European salamander species (excluding the spectacled salamander) usually have five fingers on their hind legs, while in truth, they always do, based on the information in the passage. Male spectacled salamanders cannot survive in the water. This is incorrect. Although the passage notes that “male spectacled salamanders spend their time on land and avoid water” and that “only females enter water in order to lay their eggs in the early summer months”, nothing in the passage leads us to infer that males cannot survive in the water. The metamorphosis stage must be prompted by a change in temperature. This is incorrect, although it may have seemed like a promising response. The text states, “In fact, only females enter water in order to lay their eggs in the early summer months. After a few months, these eggs hatch, which triggers the metamorphosis stage that leads to adulthood.” First off, the metamorphosis is technically triggered by the hatching of eggs. You might think that the hatching of eggs would take place in cooler climates since the process takes a few months; however, the passage does not tell us that the climate necessarily changes during the hatching period. Consequently, there is no information in the passage that would allow us to correctly infer this.

206. Passage 1 (4 Paragraphs) Expanding a Viking Family Tree with DNA : 1. When a genomicist team from the University of Copenhagen set out to research ancient DNA, they expected to discover more information about the origins of Scandinavian populations. What they did not expect to find, however, was a familial tie between two warriors from the Viking Age, buried around 500 miles away from each other. This unexpected element not only provided a fascinating look into the ancient Viking population, but it also debunked some common ideas related to the general time period of the Viking Age, spanning from around 750 to 1100 CE. These findings are changing what we know about this time period and even offering up more information regarding genetic diversity. 2. In the research project’s early stages, Ashot Margaryan, the lead genomicist on the project, and his team set off to sample and sequence DNA from just over 400 human skeletons located in ancient archaeological sites in Europe and Greenland. The next step involved comparing the genomes and matching them up against other readily available genomes from modern populations, which led to a surprising discovery. The team realized that the effects of Scandinavian maritime expansion during the Viking Age was twofold. First, mixed ancestries were present along coastal areas, likely due to the raiding and settlements of Viking tribes. Moreover, it proves that genetic DNA from Scandinavia moved along the most common trade and raiding routes of the time. 3. Using the newfound knowledge of Viking travels and additional genetic DNA, the team was able to trace back the origins of two different sets of skeletal remains found in Denmark and England, respectively. Not only did the remains belong to two Viking warriors, but research proved that they were actually second-degree relatives. The first set of remains found in Denmark likely belonged to a fifty-year-old man who had sustained multiple injuries from raids throughout his long life. The second set, found in England, belonged to a younger man in his early twenties, who archaeologists believe met his death in a violent manner. Although the exact familial ties between the pair is impossible to know with certainty, the DNA proves that they could have been half-siblings, grandfather and grandson, or uncle and nephew. 4. While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past. Whether it can shed light on mass migrations or provide a more personal look into select individuals, genetic evidence will remain a source of interest and study for researchers. Coupled with archaeology, geneticists hope to use ancient DNA when studying the history of complex civilizations that have left behind little evidence. If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
     • Although two distinct sets of remains were found in different countries, they belonged to two relatives during the Viking Age.
     • Genetic DNA, coupled with historical information, shed new light on the familial connection between two skeletal remains.
     • Despite the fact that the two skeletal remains belonged to men of the same family, they were not buried in close proximity.
     • Genetic DNA can provide more insights into familial connections, but is not specific enough to ascertain exact familial ties.

     Correct answer: Genetic DNA, coupled with historical information, shed new light on the familial connection between two skeletal remains.

     This is correct because it provides a precise summary of paragraph 3. This includes all of the necessary information present in the paragraph, including the familial discovery of the two skeletal remains and how it came to be (i.e. through “newfound knowledge of Viking travels and additional genetic DNA”). Despite the fact that the two skeletal remains belonged to men of the same family, they were not buried in close proximity. This is incorrect. Although the statement is true and forms an important part of paragraph 3, it is not the best summary for all of the information present in the paragraph. The main idea of the paragraph is that the connection was uncovered using genetic DNA and historical information. So, this is only a partial summary and not the overarching idea of the paragraph. Genetic DNA can provide more insights into familial connections, but is not specific enough to ascertain exact familial ties. This is incorrect. The text states, “Although the exact familial tie between the pair is impossible to know with certainty, the DNA proves that they could have been half-siblings, grandfather and grandson, or uncle and nephew”. However, this is not the main idea of the paragraph. Additionally, we cannot logically conclude that all genetic DNA is not specific enough to prove exact familial ties based on this information alone. Although two distinct sets of remains were found in different countries, they belonged to two relatives during the Viking Age. This is incorrect because it omits important information regarding how the connection was established and understood. An earlier part of the paragraph shows how the team was able to trace back the origins using “newfound knowledge of Viking travels and additional genetic DNA”. Thus, this option is not the best summary.

207. The dog park is located to which side of the river?
     • South
     • East
     • North
     • West

     Correct answer: East

     East is the correct answer. The map clearly shows that the dog park is located on the right side of the river, meaning that it is on the east of the river. North is incorrect. This is because the dog park is located on the right side of the river, meaning that it is on the east of the river. South is incorrect. This is because the dog park is located on the right side of the river, meaning that it is on the east of the river. West is incorrect. This is because the dog park is located on the right side of the river, meaning that it is on the east of the rive

208. As I glanced at my oven, I noticed that my loaf of bread was rising exponentially. It had only been twenty minutes since I had placed it in the oven, and the bread had already risen over the pan and the dough was everywhere! I thought back to why this was happening, and then I realized that I had mistakenly doubled the quantity of yeast in the initial stages of following the recipe! Now, I will never make that mistake again. Which event came first in the sequence?
     • The narrator put the bread in the oven.
     • The narrator put twice as much yeast in the bread.
     • The narrator looked at the oven.
     • The dough started rising.

     Correct answer: The narrator put twice as much yeast in the bread.

     The narrator put twice as much yeast in the bread. This is correct and the signal phrase that proves this to be correct is “in the initial stages of following the recipe”. Since that was the first thing done in the sequence, this is the correct answer. The narrator put the bread in the oven. This is incorrect. The narrator says that “It had only been twenty minutes since placing it in the oven”, which would suggest that this event happened early on. However, the signal word “initial” in the phrase, “..in the initial stages of following the recipe,” shows that something else came first, i.e. doubling the quantity of yeast. The narrator looked at the oven. This is incorrect as this event occurs last. The statements, “It had only been twenty minutes since placing it in the oven” and “I had mistakenly doubled the quantity of yeast in the initial stages…,” prove that at least two things came before this event. The dough started rising. This is incorrect. Although you may think that this happened first based on the fact that “the bread had already risen over the pan”, the signal phrase, “I had mistakenly doubled the quantity of yeast…in the initial stages,” shows that the dough rising could not have happened first.

209. A friend calls and tells you, “I’ve been stuck in traffic on the highway for the past hour. There must have been an accident, so I need to take a detour. So, I haven’t been able to go home and grab a shower. I know I’m late, but I’ll be over as soon as I’ve done that!” When should you expect your friend to arrive?
     • Right after he takes a shower.
     • After taking the detour.
     • Immediately after hanging up.
     • Before taking the detour.

     Correct answer: Right after he takes a shower.

     Right after he takes a shower. This is correct. The phrase, “I’ll be over as soon as I’ve done that” indicates that he will go home to take a shower and then go to your house. Immediately after hanging up. This is incorrect as it would suggest that he is going directly to your place, which is not the case. He is first going to his place to take a shower, and will arrive at your place after that. Before taking the detour. This is incorrect. He is telling you this before he takes the detour, as suggested by the phrase, “…so I need to take a detour”. After taking the detour. This is incorrect. The statement, “…I’ll be over as soon as I’ve done that!” refers to your friend going home and taking a shower, which will happen after taking the detour.

210. At the meeting, the committee plans to laud the supervisor for his exemplary leadership. Which of the following is the closest meaning to “laud” in the sentence above?
     • Praise
     • Question
     • Condemn
     • Criticize

     Correct answer: Praise

     Praise is correct. It is close in meaning to laud. The key word in this sentence is exemplary, which is an adjective describing something that sets an example for others. This lets us see that whatever the supervisor has done would be viewed as good, such that the committee wants to encourage other people to follow his example by lauding, or praising, him. Criticize is incorrect. This would mean that what the supervisor has done is bad or inadequate in some way, which isn’t logical given that his leadership is exemplary. Condemn is incorrect. It means to judge something as bad or wrong. This is illogical given that the supervisor’s leadership is considered exemplary, which means others should do as he does. Question is incorrect. It means to ask someone about something. Often, this carries the connotation that the person being questioned has done something of concern. This is illogical given that the supervisor’s behavior is exemplary. That the committee plans to laud him indicates his behavior does not need to be questioned.

211. Spinal Movement Four types of movement occur in the spine. Flexion is the forward folding of the spine. In opposition to this, extension is backbending. Axial rotation is a twisting motion and, finally, lateral flexion is side stretching. Unfortunately, with our modern sedentary lifestyle, we often don’t get enough of any type of movement. We sit for hours at keyboards and in cars, our shoulders hunching over and our spines becoming stiff. When we’re done with work for the day, we’re exhausted, and we plop down on the couch for even more sedentary time. This can contribute to back pain and a loss of mobility, especially as we age over time. A sedentary lifestyle is relaxing. However, it’s important to have balance, and it may be necessary to make a deliberate effort to create this balance so as to keep our spines mobile and healthy. During your work day, make time for breaks for brief walks and stretching sessions. If you work from home, this will be easier because it feels awkward at work if your colleagues watch you take laps around the office. Additionally, at home it’s easier to stretch your spine. A bolster (a long, narrow, and firm pillow) is great for this. You can lie down with the bolster placed vertically in line with your spine. With your head and back supported, you’ll experience gentle, supported extension (the backward bending motion of the spine). This posture is relaxing and bolsters are quite comfortable. Regular time in this or in a similar position will help counteract the flexion we experience while sitting, thus bringing more balance to the spine. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses an opinion?
     • Four types of movement occur in the spine.
     • If you work from home, this will be easier because it feels awkward at work if your colleagues watch you take laps around the office.
     • Axial rotation is a twisting motion, and finally, lateral flexion is side stretching.
     • This can contribute to back pain and a loss of mobility, especially over time as we age.

     Correct answer: If you work from home, this will be easier because it feels awkward at work if your colleagues watch you take laps around the office.

     This statement expresses a feeling, and a feeling cannot be factually established as correct or incorrect; it is simply someone’s emotional reaction. Other people might have different feelings. In this case, some people may not mind if their colleagues watch them walk around the office. Four types of movement occur in the spine. This is incorrect since it is not an opinion. It is a statement that can be factually verified, so people cannot agree or disagree on it. Axial rotation is a twisting motion, and finally, lateral flexion is side stretching. This is incorrect since it is not an opinion. It is a statement that can be factually verified, so people cannot agree or disagree on it. This can contribute to back pain and a loss of mobility, especially over time as we age. This is incorrect. It can be factually verified, so it is a fact. Note that the statement says “this can contribute to back pain and a loss of mobility”. This means that the statement is factually true, even if not everyone experiences back pain and a loss of mobility.

212. Passage 1 (4 Paragraphs) Expanding a Viking Family Tree with DNA : 1. When a genomicist team from the University of Copenhagen set out to research ancient DNA, they expected to discover more information about the origins of Scandinavian populations. What they did not expect to find, however, was a familial tie between two warriors from the Viking Age, buried around 500 miles away from each other. This unexpected element not only provided a fascinating look into the ancient Viking population, but it also debunked some common ideas related to the general time period of the Viking Age, spanning from around 750 to 1100 CE. These findings are changing what we know about this time period and even offering up more information regarding genetic diversity. 2. In the research project’s early stages, Ashot Margaryan, the lead genomicist on the project, and his team set off to sample and sequence DNA from just over 400 human skeletons located in ancient archaeological sites in Europe and Greenland. The next step involved comparing the genomes and matching them up against other readily available genomes from modern populations, which led to a surprising discovery. The team realized that the effects of Scandinavian maritime expansion during the Viking Age was twofold. First, mixed ancestries were present along coastal areas, likely due to the raiding and settlements of Viking tribes. Moreover, it proves that genetic DNA from Scandinavia moved along the most common trade and raiding routes of the time. 3. Using the newfound knowledge of Viking travels and additional genetic DNA, the team was able to trace back the origins of two different sets of skeletal remains found in Denmark and England, respectively. Not only did the remains belong to two Viking warriors, but research proved that they were actually second-degree relatives. The first set of remains found in Denmark likely belonged to a fifty-year-old man who had sustained multiple injuries from raids throughout his long life. The second set, found in England, belonged to a younger man in his early twenties, who archaeologists believe met his death in a violent manner. Although the exact familial ties between the pair is impossible to know with certainty, the DNA proves that they could have been half-siblings, grandfather and grandson, or uncle and nephew. 4. While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past. Whether it can shed light on mass migrations or provide a more personal look into select individuals, genetic evidence will remain a source of interest and study for researchers. Coupled with archaeology, geneticists hope to use ancient DNA when studying the history of complex civilizations that have left behind little evidence. If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 2?
     • Research showed that the effects of Scandinavian maritime travel had more of an impact on the present than previously imagined.
     • Viking warriors travelled frequently along common trade routes, specifically along the coastal regions.
     • After comparing genomes, the results provided new, additional information regarding Scandinavian travel during the Viking Age.
     • The research team analyzed 400 skeletons in modern-day Europe and Greenland.

     Correct answer: After comparing genomes, the results provided new, additional information regarding Scandinavian travel during the Viking Age.

     The answer provides information regarding the research and effectively summarizes the fact that new, additional information was learned. This information includes the fact that “the effects of Scandinavian maritime expansion during the Viking Age was twofold”, the presence of “mixed ancestries”, and the fact that genetic DNA “moved along the most common trade and raiding routes”. The research team analyzed 400 skeletons in modern-day Europe and Greenland. This is incorrect because it is not a comprehensive summary statement. Rather, it expresses one of the supporting details of the paragraph. Research showed that the effects of Scandinavian maritime travel had more of an impact on the present than previously imagined. This is incorrect. Although this option mentions the effects of Scandinavian maritime travel and the research behind it, paragraph 2 does not discuss the effects on the present. Instead, it focuses solely on the past. Viking warriors travelled frequently along common trade routes, specifically along the coastal regions. This is incorrect. Although this information is factually true according to paragraph 2, it does not provide an overarching summary for the paragraph. It may have seemed like a good option because it contains both facets of the research discovery, i.e. the presence of “mixed ancestries” along coastal areas and the movement of “genetic DNA from Scandinavia” along the most common trade and raiding routes, but it does not include that scientists came to this conclusion by comparing genomes.

213. Global warming (source) The Earth is kept warm by greenhouse gases, but their imbalance can lead to our planet becoming warmer. The average temperature of our planet has fluctuated over time; but in the last century, temperatures have increased dramatically. There can be many reasons for this, and many researchers believe that it is the result of natural causes, such as variations in the sun’s activity, and volcanic eruptions. Others, however, support the idea that an excessive amount of greenhouse gases is the cause for the rise in temperature. Scientists argue that carbon dioxide emissions from cars and factories have contributed to the global warming effects of greenhouse gases. What is the main idea of the passage?
     • The temperature of our planet has changed throughout history.
     • Greenhouse gases are the cause of global warming.
     • Experts in the field disagree on the cause of global warming.
     • Carbon dioxide is one of the greenhouse gases.

     Correct answer: Experts in the field disagree on the cause of global warming.

     Experts in the field disagree on the cause of global warming is correct. This is correct because the paragraph explains both views regarding the causes of global warming: natural causes and human causes. The temperature of our planet has changed throughout history. This is incorrect. Although this information is accurate, it is not the main idea of the passage. It is merely a supporting detail about global warming. Greenhouse gases are the cause of global warming. This is incorrect because it implies that greenhouse gases are the only cause of global warming. However, other factors, such as volcanic eruptions and the sun’s activity, can also contribute to global warming. Carbon dioxide is one of the greenhouse gases. This is incorrect because while it is an important piece of background information about greenhouse gases contributing to global warming, it is not the main idea.

214. Spinal Movement Four types of movement occur in the spine. Flexion is the forward folding of the spine. In opposition to this, extension is backbending. Axial rotation is a twisting motion and, finally, lateral flexion is side stretching. Unfortunately, with our modern sedentary lifestyle, we often don’t get enough of any type of movement. We sit for hours at keyboards and in cars, our shoulders hunching over and our spines becoming stiff. When we’re done with work for the day, we’re exhausted, and we plop down on the couch for even more sedentary time. This can contribute to back pain and a loss of mobility, especially as we age over time. A sedentary lifestyle is relaxing. However, it’s important to have balance, and it may be necessary to make a deliberate effort to create this balance so as to keep our spines mobile and healthy. During your work day, make time for breaks for brief walks and stretching sessions. If you work from home, this will be easier because it feels awkward at work if your colleagues watch you take laps around the office. Additionally, at home it’s easier to stretch your spine. A bolster (a long, narrow, and firm pillow) is great for this. You can lie down with the bolster placed vertically in line with your spine. With your head and back supported, you’ll experience gentle, supported extension (the backward bending motion of the spine). This posture is relaxing and bolsters are quite comfortable. Regular time in this or in a similar position will help counteract the flexion we experience while sitting, thus bringing more balance to the spine. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses a fact?
     • This posture is relaxing and bolsters are quite comfortable.
     • Flexion is forward folding of the spine.
     • Additionally, at home it’s easier to stretch your spine.
     • A sedentary lifestyle is relaxing.

     Correct answer: Flexion is forward folding of the spine.

     This statement presents the factual definition of “flexion.” It is an established definition. A sedentary lifestyle is relaxing. This is incorrect since it is an opinion. Other people might hold different opinions on the topic, e.g. a sedentary lifestyle is boring or frustrating. Additionally, at home it’s easier to stretch your spine. This is incorrect since it is an opinion and cannot be factually verified. This posture is relaxing and bolsters are quite comfortable. This is incorrect since it is an opinion. Opinions cannot be factually proven, even if they are popular and held by many people.

215. Olympic runners (source): Depending on the type of track running, Olympic runners have different dietary requirements. Sprinters, for example, run for short lengths and need short, sharp bursts of energy. In contrast, long-distance or marathon runners need slow-releasing nutrients that provide energy for a longer period of time. For this reason, they require a similar amount of calories as swimmers. During training sessions close to their race, marathon runners follow a high-carb diet. They eat a very high percentage of carbohydrates three days before the race, but an average portion the night before. On the other hand, carb-loading the day before the event could compromise their performance, leaving the runners feeling bloated and lethargic. What is the main idea of the passage?
     • High-carb diets can negatively affect a runner’s abilities.
     • Different types of runners burn energy in different ways.
     • Runners eat more carbohydrates during training.
     • Swimmers need a high-carb diet before their performance.

     Correct answer: Different types of runners burn energy in different ways.

     Different types of runners burn energy in different ways is correct because it provides a reason as to why Olympic runners “have different dietary requirements”, which is supported by details throughout the paragraph such as “Sprinters, for example, run for short lengths and need short, sharp bursts of energy. In contrast, long-distance or marathon runners need slow-releasing nutrients that provide energy for a longer period of time.” Runners eat more carbohydrates during training is incorrect. Although this statement is factually correct, it is not the main point of the passage because it is a detail that supports the fact that different types of runners burn energy in different ways. High-carb diets can negatively affect a runner’s abilities. This is incorrect. Although this statement may be factually correct for some types of runners, it is an irrelevant detail because it does not contribute to the main idea. Swimmers need a high-carb diet before their performance. This is incorrect. Although swimmers are mentioned in the passage, they are not the subject of the passage. This passage is about runners and the detail about swimmers is an irrelevant supporting detail.

216. Yoga: More Accessible Than You Might Think One common misconception about yoga is that you need to be flexible to even try it. This misconception stems from a limited view of something unfamiliar. If you don’t practice yoga, your ideas of it may come from images carefully constructed for public view on social media. These images, often shared by companies or “influencers,” show lithe, seasoned yogis in acrobatic poses. Their faces are serene, their hair and makeup flawless, their outfits expensive and perfectly coordinated. If you visit a yoga studio, though, you’ll see practitioners of all ages, shapes, sizes, and ability levels. There will be plenty of sweat, frizzy hair, mismatched outfits, and people falling out of poses (a natural part of learning!). Yoga studios also offer a variety of props to help students access poses safely while they build the necessary flexibility to practice without the prop. Common props include blocks and straps. Yoga blocks are rectangular and generally made of some form of foam or wood. Many practitioners feel that wood blocks provide a greater sense of stability. However, they can be less comfortable when placed under the back in reclining poses. Yoga straps are long, sturdy, and generally made of cotton. They often have a form of buckle at the end which practitioners can use to create a loop. Straps can help you with many things, such as reaching your toes in a seated forward fold. With a couple blocks and a strap, yoga students can safely access poses they might have thought impossible. Instead of stressing or straining (and hence risking injury), people can safely work into a pose, gradually developing more flexibility. Aside from using props in the yoga studio, everyone should have some for their home practice as well. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses an opinion?
     • They often have a form of buckle at the end which practitioners can use to create a loop.
     • Yoga blocks are rectangular and generally made of some form of foam or wood.
     • Many practitioners feel that wood blocks provide a greater sense of stability.
     • Common props include blocks and straps.

     Correct answer: Many practitioners feel that wood blocks provide a greater sense of stability.

     This statement offers a common opinion. The feeling of stability is subjective for each individual. Some people may feel more stable with blocks of a different material. Common props include blocks and straps. This is incorrect since it is not an opinion but a fact about common props. Because of the word “common”, not every studio needs to offer blocks and straps for this to be true. Yoga blocks are rectangular and generally made from some form of foam or wood. This is incorrect since it is not an opinion people may hold. Rather, it is a factual observation about yoga blocks. They often have a form of buckle at the end which practitioners can use to create a loop. This is incorrect since it is not an opinion but a fact about a common yoga prop. Because of the word “often”, the statement is true even if not all yoga straps have a form of buckle at one end.

217. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. Start with the word CONSCIOUS. Remove the first S that appears in the word. Change the first C to an X. Change the second C to an O. Add an N to the beginning of the word. Remove the letter in the exact middle of the word. Switch the second and third letters. Remove the third consonant. What is the new word?
     • NEXUS
     • XOANON
     • NOXIOUS
     • XENON

     Correct answer: NOXIOUS

     NOXIOUS is the correct answer. Let’s examine this step by step: CONSCIOUS Step 1: Remove the first S that appears in the word. CONCIOUS Step 2: Change the first C to an X. XONCIOUS Step 3: Change the second C to an O. XONOIOUS Step 4:Add an N to the beginning of the word. NXONOIOUS Step 5: Remove the letter in the exact middle of the word. Since there are 9 letters in this string now, the second O appears in the exact middle and will be removed. NXONIOUS Step 6: Switch the second and third letters. NOXNIOUS Step 7: Remove the third consonant. Since O is a vowel, the third consonant in the string is the second N that appears. So, that will be removed. NOXIOUS is the resulting word.

218. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. Start with the word HOLIDAY. Change the A to an E. Move the Y to the beginning of the word. Change the H to the letter that precedes it in the alphabet. Add an N to the beginning of the word. Remove the second letter of the word. Remove the third to last letter of the word. Move the first letter to the end of the word. What is the new word?
     • YANDY
     • OLDEN
     • GOLDEN
     • DAILY

     Correct answer: GOLDEN

     GOLDEN is the correct answer. Let’s examine this step by step: HOLIDAY Step 1: Change the A to an E. HOLIDEY Step 2: Move the Y to the beginning of the word. YHOLIDE Step 3: Change the H to the letter that precedes it in the alphabet. YGOLIDE Step 4: Add an N to the beginning of the word. NYGOLIDE Step 5: Remove the second letter of the word. NGOLIDE Step 6: Remove the third to last letter of the word. NGOLDE Step 7: Move the first letter to the end of the word. GOLDEN is the resulting word.

219. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. Start with the word PERMEABLE. Remove the first E from the beginning of the word. Remove the A. Add a U after the E in the middle of the word. Move the U after the first letter. Switch the first and fourth letters. Remove the P. Change the third letter to an M. What is the new word?
     • PRUNE
     • MUMBLE
     • BUBBLE
     • MARBLE

     Correct answer: MUMBLE

     MUMBLE is the correct answer. Let’s examine this step by step: PERMEABLE Step 1: Remove the first E from the beginning of the word. PRMEABLE Step 2: Remove the A. PRMEBLE Step 3: Change the middle E to a U. PRMUBLE Step 4: Move the U after the first letter. PURMBLE Step 5: Switch the first and fourth letters. MURPBLE Step 6: Remove the P. MURBLE Step 7: Change the third letter to an M. MUMBLE is the resulting word.

220. To: All Staff in the West Offices From: Building Manager Date: September 9th Subject: Elevator Maintenance After frequent reports of elevator malfunctions in the West Offices, they have been closed for maintenance. Upon an initial check, the engineering team has found concerning problems in the electrical wires of all elevators located in these offices. Thus, we are requesting that all employees who work in this office use the stairs for all movement in and out of their offices. However, if you are an employee with personal mobility issues when it comes to stairs, we would encourage you to follow the company’s remote work procedures for the next two weeks in order to avoid injury or discomfort. This construction will also affect parking for our employees. Since the underground parking lots were directly connected to the elevators in the West Offices, they will be closed. The company will reimburse all employees who need to park elsewhere in the city. For reference, the nearest parking lot to the West Offices is located on Smith Avenue and 36th Street. In order to receive your daily stipend for parking, please submit your parking receipts to your direct manager. Although this construction has caused some mild inconveniences, we are confident that the West Office elevators will be back up and running in just a few weeks. We will keep you updated on the progress and if the predicted timeline shifts. Please reach out to your direct managers for any questions and concerns during this time. According to the memo, which employees can work from home for the next two weeks?
     • Employees who have mobility issues
     • Employees who work in the West Offices
     • No one can work from home for the next two weeks
     • Employees who cannot find parking

     Correct answer: Employees who have mobility issues

     Employees who have mobility issues. This is correct. The statement, “However, if you are an employee with personal mobility issues when it comes to stairs, we would encourage you to follow the company’s remote work procedures for the next two weeks in order to avoid injury or discomfort”, proves that employees who have mobility issues can work from home for the next two weeks. Employees who cannot find parking. This is incorrect. The memo states, “Since the underground parking lots were directly connected to the elevators in the West Offices, they will be closed. The company will reimburse all employees who need to park elsewhere in the city”. However, this does not mean that these employees can work from home. The remote work option is only available for employees who have personal mobility issues. Employees who work in the West Offices. This is incorrect. The memo states, “We are requesting that all employees who work in this office use the stairs for all movement in and out of their offices”. The remote work option is only available for employees who have personal mobility issues. No one can work from home for the next two weeks. This is incorrect. The memo states, “We are requesting that all employees who work in this office use the stairs for all movement in and out of their offices”. The remote work option is only available for employees who have personal mobility issues.

221. To: All Staff in the West Offices From: Building Manager Date: September 9th Subject: Elevator Maintenance After frequent reports of elevator malfunctions in the West Offices, they have been closed for maintenance. Upon an initial check, the engineering team has found concerning problems in the electrical wires of all elevators located in these offices. Thus, we are requesting that all employees who work in this office use the stairs for all movement in and out of their offices. However, if you are an employee with personal mobility issues when it comes to stairs, we would encourage you to follow the company’s remote work procedures for the next two weeks in order to avoid injury or discomfort. This construction will also affect parking for our employees. Since the underground parking lots were directly connected to the elevators in the West Offices, they will be closed. The company will reimburse all employees who need to park elsewhere in the city. For reference, the nearest parking lot to the West Offices is located on Smith Avenue and 36th Street. In order to receive your daily stipend for parking, please submit your parking receipts to your direct manager. Although this construction has caused some mild inconveniences, we are confident that the West Office elevators will be back up and running in just a few weeks. We will keep you updated on the progress and if the predicted timeline shifts. Please reach out to your direct managers for any questions and concerns during this time.What is the main purpose of the memo?
     • To persuade employees in the West Office not to use the elevators for two weeks.
     • To inform employees in the West Office of the elevator maintenance.
     • To inform employees in the West Office of the remote work possibility.
     • To inform employees in the West Office of the additional parking options.

     Correct answer: To inform employees in the West Office of the elevator maintenance.

     To inform employees in the West Office of the elevator maintenance. This is correct. The memo is informative in nature and details the problems and potential solutions for the elevator maintenance. Although there are other details pertaining to the parking and remote work options, they are not the main purpose of the memo. To inform employees in the West Office of the additional parking options. This is incorrect. Although the memo talks about this, it is not the main idea of the memo. Instead, the main idea is to inform the employees of the elevator maintenance that will be going on. To inform employees in the West Office of the remote work possibility. This is incorrect. This is a supporting detail that applies only to some employees (those experiencing mobility issues), but it is not the main idea of the memo. Instead, the main idea is to inform the employees of the elevator maintenance that will be going on. To persuade employees in the West Office not to use the elevators for two weeks. This is incorrect. The memo is informative in nature and does not persuade the employees to do anything. Instead, it states that they cannot use the elevators, as expressed in the following in the statement: “Thus, we are requesting that all employees who work in this office use the stairs for all movement in and out of their offices.”

222. From: Human Resources Team Date: October 7th Subject: Company Walk-A-Thon As you all know, our company-wide Walk-A-Thon is just two weeks away. This event is an annual fundraiser that raises money and awareness for pediatric cancer. All of the proceeds from the event go directly to the Pediatric Cancer Ward of our local hospital, and they greatly appreciate our yearly support. While most of the preparation work for the event is well underway, we have noticed that not all employees have signed up for the event. In order to make this event a success, we are hoping that each and every employee will participate in the Walk-A-Thon. If you cannot participate, we do hope you will consider donating a small amount or sponsoring another employee. If this is not possible, please consider finding or contacting a potential business sponsor who would be interested in creating prizes for the guests of the Walk-A-Thon. We strongly believe that fellowship events are just as important as work-related events, and we hope that you will make an effort to participate this time around. Please let us know if you have already signed up for the event, in which case you should not have received this memo. We appreciate your patience as we are still sorting through the sign-ups from all employees and their families. If we haven’t gotten to your submitted registration form yet, then please disregard this memo. Which of the following individuals are most likely the recipients of this memo?
     • Sponsors of the event who are not part of the company
     • All employees who work for the company
     • Employees who have already signed up for the event.
     • Employees who have not signed up for the event yet.

     Correct answer: Employees who have not signed up for the event yet.

     Employees who have not signed up for the event yet. This is correct. The biggest clue that the employees who haven’t signed up yet are the recipients is in the last paragraph, specifically the sentence, “Please let us know if you have already signed up for the event, in which case you should not have received this memo.” Employees who have already signed up for the event. This is incorrect. The biggest clue that these are not the intended recipients is the statement, “Please let us know if you have already signed up for the event, in which case you should not have received this memo”. All employees who work for the company. This is incorrect. The biggest clue that these are not the intended recipients is the statement, “Please let us know if you have already signed up for the event, in which case you should not have received this memo.” This shows it is not meant for all employees, just those who haven’t yet signed up for the event. Sponsors of the event who are not part of the company. This is incorrect. The memo includes information about sponsors in the statement, “If this is not possible, please consider finding or contacting a potential business sponsor who would be interested in creating prizes for the guests of the Walk-A-Thon”. However, the writer does not speak directly to these sponsors. It is clear that the recipients are part of the company.

223. Planning a wedding is time-consuming and exhausting. Although it originally felt like the wrong decision, we ultimately decided to postpone our wedding until next year so that all of our relatives could be there. When we first found out that our extended family members wouldn’t be able to join us from overseas, we immediately started evaluating our options and then thinking of backup plans. Which event came last in the sequence?
     • They ended up postponing their wedding for a year.
     • They began to go through their available options.
     • They started coming up with alternative solutions.
     • They realized that their extended families would not be in attendance.

     Correct answer: They ended up postponing their wedding for a year.

     They ended up postponing their wedding for a year. This is correct since this last event in the sequence is signaled by the word “ultimately”. The word “although” also shows that even though it felt wrong at first, they ultimately did it. They realized that their extended families would not be in attendance. This is incorrect. This event occurred early on in the sequence, and is signaled by the word “first”. They started coming up with alternative solutions. This is incorrect. Although this is not the first thing to happen (since it is the second half of a sentence that starts with “when we…”), it is not the last either. They began to go through their available options. This is incorrect. Although this is not the first thing to happen (since it is the second half of a sentence that starts with “when we…”), it is not the last either.

224. Which of the following is the northernmost feature on the map?
     • Campgrounds
     • Highway 35
     • Parking
     • Highway 3

     Correct answer: Highway 35

     Highway 35 is correct. The map clearly shows that the area on the northernmost part (or on the top) of the map is Highway 35. Highway 3. This is incorrect because Highway 3 is under Highway 35, which is the northernmost part of the map. Parking. This is incorrect because parking locations are located in the west, south, and central areas of the map. Campgrounds. This is incorrect because the campgrounds are located in the west and south areas of the map.

225. Chaos in Translation 1. Although it can seem quite technical, translating texts into different languages is a delicate art. Not only does it require a solid understanding of languages, but it also calls for an artistic voice that can truly make the words seem natural to native speakers. When it is done well, readers do not even realize that they are reading a text that has been translated from another language. When it is done badly, however, chaos ensues. One of the most emblematic examples of a translation mishap occurred at the dawn of the twentieth century, when an American diplomat received an incorrectly translated copy of a popular book about aliens. As you might imagine, the mistake ignited both fear and disbelief regarding a concept that was already so foreign to begin with. 2. It all started with Giovanni Virginio Schiaparelli, an Italian astronomer and astrophysicist, in the late 1800s. In addition to studying astronomy at renowned universities, Schiaparelli was the lead director of a famous observatory in Milan, where he was able to observe stars and planets with a telescope. When he first viewed Mars this way in 1877, he quickly made a hand drawn picture of what he had seen on a piece of paper. Using this reference, he believed that the chromatic differences and the “grooves” that he had seen on the surface of Mars meant that continents and seas existed on the planet. Even more interesting was the fact that “channels”, bodies of water that join two larger areas of water, seemed to connect the various seas. Of course, Schiaparelli had written the original works and explanations in his native language of Italian. He immediately received national success for his findings, and his works were quickly translated into English. 3. Once the information made its way into the United States, it attracted the attention of a wealthy American named Percival Lowell, who had previously abandoned his career as a foreign diplomat to invest his time and interests in astronomy. He, too, had observed Mars with a telescope, but was shocked when he read Schiaparelli’s description of the planet. Although he was familiar with the grooves and ridges described in Schiaparelli’s work, he was shocked to read about the “canals” — artificial man-made structures — that connected large bodies of water on Mars. Not only did this prove that life exists on Mars, but it suggested that these life forms could construct immense structures in a short period of time! Understanding that Schiaparelli had been a distinguished astronomer and a credible source, Lowell decided that the shocking discovery must be made accessible to the public. 4. What he did not realize at the time, however, was that the translation was incorrect, and Schiaparelli had never intended to say that man-made structures existed on Mars. In any case, on August 27, 1911, the front page of the New York Times contained a startling headline: “Martians Build Two Immense Canals in Two Years”. This gave rise to incorrect assumptions about intelligent life on Mars. For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in, while others remained skeptical. Luckily, the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography. Despite this, conspiracy theories about “martians” and their strength persisted for decades to come. Later, scientists and other astronomers came to the conclusion that the channels were simply optical illusions, and future high-resolution snapshots from visiting spacecrafts would only confirm that the man-made “canals” were only a result of a language mishap. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author’s opinion on the astronomical photographs used to correct the New York Times headline?
     • The author believes that the most important purpose they served involved dispelling conspiracy theories.
     • The author is grateful that the photographs dispelled the myth of canals and channels on Mars.
     • The author believes that they should have been included in the initial publication.
     • The author believes that they served a very important purpose in alleviating the public’s fears.

     Correct answer: The author believes that they served a very important purpose in alleviating the public’s fears.

     The passage states, “Luckily, the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography,” after asserting that, “For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in, while others remained skeptical.” It is clear that the photos set the record straight and played a part in alleviating peoples’ fears of an unknown lifeform. The author is grateful that the snapshots dispelled the myth of canals and channels on Mars. This is incorrect. The author connects the information regarding the myth of man-made canals to the “future high-resolution snapshots from visiting spacecrafts”, not the astronomical photography mentioned in the question. The author believes that they should have been included in the initial publication. This is incorrect. Although it is true that if the photos had been included in the initial publication, the mishap likely would not have occured, the author does not allude to this in the passage. The author believes that the most important purpose they served involved dispelling conspiracy theories. This is incorrect, even though it may have seemed like a good option. The author states, “Luckily, the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography. Despite this, conspiracy theories about “martians” and their strength persisted for decades to come”. We cannot connect the information regarding the astronomical photography to the conspiracy theories, since the conspiracy theories existed even after the photos set the record straight.

226. Chaos in Translation 1. Although it can seem quite technical, translating texts into different languages is a delicate art. Not only does it require a solid understanding of languages, but it also calls for an artistic voice that can truly make the words seem natural to native speakers. When it is done well, readers do not even realize that they are reading a text that has been translated from another language. When it is done badly, however, chaos ensues. One of the most emblematic examples of a translation mishap occurred at the dawn of the twentieth century, when an American diplomat received an incorrectly translated copy of a popular book about aliens. As you might imagine, the mistake ignited both fear and disbelief regarding a concept that was already so foreign to begin with. 2. It all started with Giovanni Virginio Schiaparelli, an Italian astronomer and astrophysicist, in the late 1800s. In addition to studying astronomy at renowned universities, Schiaparelli was the lead director of a famous observatory in Milan, where he was able to observe stars and planets with a telescope. When he first viewed Mars this way in 1877, he quickly made a hand drawn picture of what he had seen on a piece of paper. Using this reference, he believed that the chromatic differences and the “grooves” that he had seen on the surface of Mars meant that continents and seas existed on the planet. Even more interesting was the fact that “channels”, bodies of water that join two larger areas of water, seemed to connect the various seas. Of course, Schiaparelli had written the original works and explanations in his native language of Italian. He immediately received national success for his findings, and his works were quickly translated into English. 3. Once the information made its way into the United States, it attracted the attention of a wealthy American named Percival Lowell, who had previously abandoned his career as a foreign diplomat to invest his time and interests in astronomy. He, too, had observed Mars with a telescope, but was shocked when he read Schiaparelli’s description of the planet. Although he was familiar with the grooves and ridges described in Schiaparelli’s work, he was shocked to read about the “canals” — artificial man-made structures — that connected large bodies of water on Mars. Not only did this prove that life exists on Mars, but it suggested that these life forms could construct immense structures in a short period of time! Understanding that Schiaparelli had been a distinguished astronomer and a credible source, Lowell decided that the shocking discovery must be made accessible to the public. 4. What he did not realize at the time, however, was that the translation was incorrect, and Schiaparelli had never intended to say that man-made structures existed on Mars. In any case, on August 27, 1911, the front page of the New York Times contained a startling headline: “Martians Build Two Immense Canals in Two Years”. This gave rise to incorrect assumptions about intelligent life on Mars. For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in, while others remained skeptical. Luckily, the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography. Despite this, conspiracy theories about “martians” and their strength persisted for decades to come. Later, scientists and other astronomers came to the conclusion that the channels were simply optical illusions, and future high-resolution snapshots from visiting spacecrafts would only confirm that the man-made “canals” were only a result of a language mishap. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the passage as a whole?
     • At the time, communication between scholars was not easy or immediate, which contributed to the possibility of confusion and error.
     • Had Lowell never been interested in Schiaparelli's work, the misinterpretation would have never occurred.
     • Translation is not as easy as one would imagine, especially since specific terms can vary from one language to another.
     • Even though the ideas were revolutionary for the time, they were later considered to be inaccurate and irrelevant in the history of astronomy.

     Correct answer: At the time, communication between scholars was not easy or immediate, which contributed to the possibility of confusion and error.

     Although this is never explicitly mentioned in the text, it is inferred based on the fact that a New York Times article published information that misinterpreted originally published information from the scholar Giovanni Virginio Schiaparelli. This misinterpretation of information caused confusion among the public. Translation is not as easy as one would imagine, especially since specific terms can vary from one language to another. This is incorrect. Even though the introductory paragraph includes some information about translation and how it is “a delicate art”, nothing in the passage necessarily shows that people don’t think translation is difficult. Moreover, the passage does not make note of variations from one language to the next; it only highlights the incorrect information and a misinterpretation. Even though the ideas were revolutionary for the time, they were later considered to be inaccurate and irrelevant in the history of astronomy. This is incorrect, even though the passage states, “Later, scientists and other astronomers came to the conclusion that the channels were simply optical illusions, and future high-resolution snapshots from visiting spacecrafts would only confirm that the man-made ‘canals’ were only a result of a language mishap”. These statements do not mean that the ideas were “irrelevant” to the history of astronomy since they still offered up information regarding the geographical terrain and colors of Mars. Had Lowell never been interested in Schiaparelli’s work, the misinterpretation would have never occurred. This is incorrect. The passage does not imply or state that Lowell was the person who translated Schiaparelli’s original work, so the misinterpretation could have occurred in another English-speaking country, or at a different time. The passage also does not imply that only Lowell was interested in Schiaparelli’s work. Therefore, it is possible that someone else would have received the incorrectly translated information.

227. The Future of Tattoos 1. Tattoos are one of the oldest art forms still in existence known to man. Archaeological records suggest that tattoos have existed as early as the Neolithic period, and they still remain a popular choice today when it comes to body art. Of course, tattoos have made great strides since their earliest moments, and are currently available in countless forms, ranging from temporary choices to designs in invisible ink. Could they get any more modern? Experts believe so, and new advancements in technology suggest that the future of tattoos could make life easier and more efficient for us when combined with smart, wearable devices. 2. Wearable devices have become increasingly popular within the past decade, and can be incorporated into pieces of clothing or kept directly on the skin. Currently, perhaps the most popular example of a wearable device is the ubiquitous smart watch, which is known for automatically tracking one’s steps or calories, among other things. Now, technology experts from University College London (UCL) are working on wearable devices in the form of “smart”, temporary tattoos that could be placed directly on the skin. Although the idea is still in the testing phase, it would empoy technology from organic light-emitting diodes (OLEDs) on temporary tattoo paper that would later be transferred onto human skin. Even though it uses OLED technology, the transfer process is extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos and is projected to be barely detectable at just 2.3 micrometers. 3. Now, you might be wondering why someone would opt for a temporary tattoo over a simple wearable device. The answer is twofold: efficiency and comfort. Not only would the temporary tattoo replace potentially bulky watches or devices, but it would also be able to do more than just act as a pedometer and calorie counter. For example, imagine that you are walking along the fruits and vegetables aisle in a grocery store, and are interested in understanding how ripe the products were before making a purchase. In theory, the tattoo would be able to detect information regarding the fruit’s freshness and inform you of the necessary information before your purchase. The tattoo’s technological ink could help spot dehydration levels in professional athletes, or quickly warn doctors of a drastic change in a patient’s statistics. It even has the potential to contribute to more intense treatments, such as chemotherapy. Skeptics should keep these advantages in mind before immediately writing off this idea as too “strange” or “invasive”. 4. Although researchers are still in the early stages of understanding tattoos as electronics, the technology team at UCL has already developed a few prototypes and has begun testing electrodes on people’s skin. Some notable advantages of using OLEDs include its ability to adhere to flexible surfaces while in movement besides being quite cost-effective in the long-run. However, the design team still needs to work out solutions to the potential degradation of the OLED tattoo when it comes into contact with wind and pollution. Based on past testing, researchers have found that because of the nature of the ink, foreign substances can contribute to its erosion quicker than expected. The combination of tattoos and wearable technology is a prime example of how this age-old art can adapt to the ebbs and flows of society while staying relevant in our lives. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from paragraph 2?
     • Smart tattoos would be difficult to remove.
     • There is enough demand for wearable technology for it to continue being popular for decades to come.
     • It will be difficult to create a new wearable device that is more popular than the smart watch.
     • Complex technology can be used for seemingly simpler types of wearable products.

     Correct answer: Complex technology can be used for seemingly simpler types of wearable products.

     In paragraph 2, the author provides information on the specific type of OLED technology used on temporary tattoo paper. The statement, “Even though it uses OLED technology, the transfer process is extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos and is projected to be barely detectable at just 2.3 micrometers” leads us to correctly infer that OLED technology is complex (specifically since the phrase ‘even though’ is used). Smart tattoos would be difficult to remove. This is incorrect. First off, the paragraph states that they are “temporary”. Information later in the paragraph suggests that the transfer process is similar to a traditional temporary tattoo. So, we cannot correctly infer that it would be difficult to remove. There is enough demand for wearable technology for it to continue being popular for decades to come. This is incorrect. You might think that this answer makes sense, given the fact that the paragraph discusses plans for an even newer type of wearable device. However, nothing can be inferred regarding the length of time it will continue to remain popular. All that we can know about the popularity regards the “past decade”. The author includes an example about smart watches and how they are “ubiquitous”, but this does not reveal anything about the overall demand in the industry. It will be difficult to create a new wearable device that is more popular than the smart watch. This is incorrect. Paragraph 2 simply states that currently, the most popular example is probably the smart watch, since it is ubiquitous. However, it does not mention anything about its future popularity. The paragraph states, “Even though it uses OLED technology, the transfer process is extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos and is projected to be barely detectable at just 2.3 micrometers”, which actually shows that the tattoo idea is quite simple, leading one to think that it may even be easier to create a wearable device that is more popular than the smart watch.

228. The Future of Tattoos 1. Tattoos are one of the oldest art forms still in existence known to man. Archaeological records suggest that tattoos have existed as early as the Neolithic period, and they still remain a popular choice today when it comes to body art. Of course, tattoos have made great strides since their earliest moments, and are currently available in countless forms, ranging from temporary choices to designs in invisible ink. Could they get any more modern? Experts believe so, and new advancements in technology suggest that the future of tattoos could make life easier and more efficient for us when combined with smart, wearable devices. 2. Wearable devices have become increasingly popular within the past decade, and can be incorporated into pieces of clothing or kept directly on the skin. Currently, perhaps the most popular example of a wearable device is the ubiquitous smart watch, which is known for automatically tracking one’s steps or calories, among other things. Now, technology experts from University College London (UCL) are working on wearable devices in the form of “smart”, temporary tattoos that could be placed directly on the skin. Although the idea is still in the testing phase, it would empoy technology from organic light-emitting diodes (OLEDs) on temporary tattoo paper that would later be transferred onto human skin. Even though it uses OLED technology, the transfer process is extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos and is projected to be barely detectable at just 2.3 micrometers. 3. Now, you might be wondering why someone would opt for a temporary tattoo over a simple wearable device. The answer is twofold: efficiency and comfort. Not only would the temporary tattoo replace potentially bulky watches or devices, but it would also be able to do more than just act as a pedometer and calorie counter. For example, imagine that you are walking along the fruits and vegetables aisle in a grocery store, and are interested in understanding how ripe the products were before making a purchase. In theory, the tattoo would be able to detect information regarding the fruit’s freshness and inform you of the necessary information before your purchase. The tattoo’s technological ink could help spot dehydration levels in professional athletes, or quickly warn doctors of a drastic change in a patient’s statistics. It even has the potential to contribute to more intense treatments, such as chemotherapy. Skeptics should keep these advantages in mind before immediately writing off this idea as too “strange” or “invasive”. 4. Although researchers are still in the early stages of understanding tattoos as electronics, the technology team at UCL has already developed a few prototypes and has begun testing electrodes on people’s skin. Some notable advantages of using OLEDs include its ability to adhere to flexible surfaces while in movement besides being quite cost-effective in the long-run. However, the design team still needs to work out solutions to the potential degradation of the OLED tattoo when it comes into contact with wind and pollution. Based on past testing, researchers have found that because of the nature of the ink, foreign substances can contribute to its erosion quicker than expected. The combination of tattoos and wearable technology is a prime example of how this age-old art can adapt to the ebbs and flows of society while staying relevant in our lives. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from paragraph 4?
     • Most members of the research team have devoted their careers to understanding tattoo technology.
     • The final smart tattoo product will be cheaper than most wearable devices on the market.
     • The research team must enhance the OLED ink’s delicate nature before its launch.
     • The launch of the smart tattoo will probably not take place in areas with windy climates and frequent rainfall.

     Correct answer: The research team must enhance the OLED ink’s delicate nature before its launch.

     The information in paragraph 4 leads us to believe that the OLED ink is delicate and unable to withstand certain elements. The statement, “However, the design team still needs to work out solutions to the potential degradation of the OLED tattoo when it comes into contact with wind and pollution” proves this to be correct. The launch of the smart tattoo will probably not take place in areas with windy climates and frequent rainfall. This is incorrect. Although the statement, “However, the design team still needs to work out solutions to the potential degradation of the OLED tattoo when it comes into contact with wind and pollution” shows that the OLED ink cannot withstand certain elements at this time, it suggests that it is still a work in progress. So, we cannot infer that the launch will not take place in certain areas based on this information alone. The final smart tattoo product will be cheaper than most wearable devices on the market. This is incorrect. The paragraph mentions the cost-effectiveness of the OLED ink in the long-run, but we cannot use this information to speculate the low cost of the final product. So, this paragraph makes note of the cost-effectiveness of the materials, not necessarily the product itself. Consequently, it offers no information regarding the final price. Most members of the research team have devoted their careers to understanding tattoo technology. This is incorrect. The paragraph mentions that, “Although researchers are still in the early stages of understanding tattoos as electronics…”, proving that this is a new idea for the researchers.

229. The Future of Tattoos 1. Tattoos are one of the oldest art forms still in existence known to man. Archaeological records suggest that tattoos have existed as early as the Neolithic period, and they still remain a popular choice today when it comes to body art. Of course, tattoos have made great strides since their earliest moments, and are currently available in countless forms, ranging from temporary choices to designs in invisible ink. Could they get any more modern? Experts believe so, and new advancements in technology suggest that the future of tattoos could make life easier and more efficient for us when combined with smart, wearable devices. 2. Wearable devices have become increasingly popular within the past decade, and can be incorporated into pieces of clothing or kept directly on the skin. Currently, perhaps the most popular example of a wearable device is the ubiquitous smart watch, which is known for automatically tracking one’s steps or calories, among other things. Now, technology experts from University College London (UCL) are working on wearable devices in the form of “smart”, temporary tattoos that could be placed directly on the skin. Although the idea is still in the testing phase, it would empoy technology from organic light-emitting diodes (OLEDs) on temporary tattoo paper that would later be transferred onto human skin. Even though it uses OLED technology, the transfer process is extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos and is projected to be barely detectable at just 2.3 micrometers. 3. Now, you might be wondering why someone would opt for a temporary tattoo over a simple wearable device. The answer is twofold: efficiency and comfort. Not only would the temporary tattoo replace potentially bulky watches or devices, but it would also be able to do more than just act as a pedometer and calorie counter. For example, imagine that you are walking along the fruits and vegetables aisle in a grocery store, and are interested in understanding how ripe the products were before making a purchase. In theory, the tattoo would be able to detect information regarding the fruit’s freshness and inform you of the necessary information before your purchase. The tattoo’s technological ink could help spot dehydration levels in professional athletes, or quickly warn doctors of a drastic change in a patient’s statistics. It even has the potential to contribute to more intense treatments, such as chemotherapy. Skeptics should keep these advantages in mind before immediately writing off this idea as too “strange” or “invasive”. 4. Although researchers are still in the early stages of understanding tattoos as electronics, the technology team at UCL has already developed a few prototypes and has begun testing electrodes on people’s skin. Some notable advantages of using OLEDs include its ability to adhere to flexible surfaces while in movement besides being quite cost-effective in the long-run. However, the design team still needs to work out solutions to the potential degradation of the OLED tattoo when it comes into contact with wind and pollution. Based on past testing, researchers have found that because of the nature of the ink, foreign substances can contribute to its erosion quicker than expected. The combination of tattoos and wearable technology is a prime example of how this age-old art can adapt to the ebbs and flows of society while staying relevant in our lives. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author’s opinion regarding tattoos connected to wearable devices?
     • The author believes that people should be open to the idea, since it could positively change our lives.
     • The author posits that even if the idea is successful, traditional wearable devices will still be popular.
     • Although the author is skeptical, they believe that people should be open to the idea and keep its advantages in mind.
     • Of all the possible uses of tattoos connected to wearable devices, the author believes that the potential to improve health services is the most noteworthy.

     Correct answer: The author believes that people should be open to the idea, since it could positively change our lives.

     This information is mostly included in paragraph 3 and is quite clear in the last sentence, which states, “Skeptics should keep these advantages in mind before immediately writing off this idea as too ‘strange’ or ‘invasive’”. The advantages are listed earlier in the paragraph, and show how the idea could positively impact our lives. The author also starts the paragraph by assuming that people may be skeptical and offers a detailed answer. Although the author is skeptical, they believe that people should be open to the idea and keep its advantages in mind. This is incorrect. Nothing in the passage would allow one to correctly infer that the author is skeptical. If anything, paragraph 3 would suggest the opposite, especially with the final sentence, which states, “Skeptics should keep these advantages in mind before immediately writing off this idea as too ‘strange’ or ‘invasive’”. The author posits that even if the idea is successful, traditional wearable devices will still be popular. This is incorrect. The author suggests that the idea should be successful, but does not speculate as to what will happen to traditional wearable devices in that case. If anything, paragraph 3 shows that the author may think negatively of traditional wearable devices, since they are described as “bulky”. Of all the possible uses of tattoos connected to wearable devices, the author believes that the potential to improve health services is the most noteworthy. This is incorrect. Although it is true that the author makes specific note of health-related services in paragraph 3, there is nothing that would lead the reader to correctly infer that they are the most noteworthy. The author also describes assistance in a grocery store and help for professional athletes.

230. The Future of Tattoos 1. Tattoos are one of the oldest art forms still in existence known to man. Archaeological records suggest that tattoos have existed as early as the Neolithic period, and they still remain a popular choice today when it comes to body art. Of course, tattoos have made great strides since their earliest moments, and are currently available in countless forms, ranging from temporary choices to designs in invisible ink. Could they get any more modern? Experts believe so, and new advancements in technology suggest that the future of tattoos could make life easier and more efficient for us when combined with smart, wearable devices. 2. Wearable devices have become increasingly popular within the past decade, and can be incorporated into pieces of clothing or kept directly on the skin. Currently, perhaps the most popular example of a wearable device is the ubiquitous smart watch, which is known for automatically tracking one’s steps or calories, among other things. Now, technology experts from University College London (UCL) are working on wearable devices in the form of “smart”, temporary tattoos that could be placed directly on the skin. Although the idea is still in the testing phase, it would empoy technology from organic light-emitting diodes (OLEDs) on temporary tattoo paper that would later be transferred onto human skin. Even though it uses OLED technology, the transfer process is extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos and is projected to be barely detectable at just 2.3 micrometers. 3. Now, you might be wondering why someone would opt for a temporary tattoo over a simple wearable device. The answer is twofold: efficiency and comfort. Not only would the temporary tattoo replace potentially bulky watches or devices, but it would also be able to do more than just act as a pedometer and calorie counter. For example, imagine that you are walking along the fruits and vegetables aisle in a grocery store, and are interested in understanding how ripe the products were before making a purchase. In theory, the tattoo would be able to detect information regarding the fruit’s freshness and inform you of the necessary information before your purchase. The tattoo’s technological ink could help spot dehydration levels in professional athletes, or quickly warn doctors of a drastic change in a patient’s statistics. It even has the potential to contribute to more intense treatments, such as chemotherapy. Skeptics should keep these advantages in mind before immediately writing off this idea as too “strange” or “invasive”. 4. Although researchers are still in the early stages of understanding tattoos as electronics, the technology team at UCL has already developed a few prototypes and has begun testing electrodes on people’s skin. Some notable advantages of using OLEDs include its ability to adhere to flexible surfaces while in movement besides being quite cost-effective in the long-run. However, the design team still needs to work out solutions to the potential degradation of the OLED tattoo when it comes into contact with wind and pollution. Based on past testing, researchers have found that because of the nature of the ink, foreign substances can contribute to its erosion quicker than expected. The combination of tattoos and wearable technology is a prime example of how this age-old art can adapt to the ebbs and flows of society while staying relevant in our lives. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the passage as a whole?
     • Once smart temporary tattoos are introduced to the market, there will likely be demand for a permanent version.
     • As time goes on, tattoos will likely lose their artistic purpose and be used solely for technological purposes.
     • As we advance as a society, the more likely it is that technology and seemingly simple tools will adapt to our needs.
     • Many people are hesitant to adapt to technological change, especially when it involves tattoos.

     Correct answer: As we advance as a society, the more likely it is that technology and seemingly simple tools will adapt to our needs.

     The entire passage makes note of how tattoos have come a long way since their creation in the Neolithic period, and suggests that “the age-old art can adapt to the ebbs and flows of society”. So, it would be correct to infer that the more society advances, the more likely it is that simple tools will adapt to our lives.

231. Looking at a map, 1 inch is equal to 35 miles. If two state parks are 4.5 inches apart on the map, how many miles apart are the state parks in reality?
     • 157.5 miles
     • 39.5 miles
     • 315 miles
     • 70 miles

     Correct answer: 157.5 miles

     Step 1: Set Up a Proportion First, we can see our conversion rate which states that: 1 inch = 35 miles We will set up our first ratio. (1 in)/( 35 mi) Now we can set up the proportion using the information we have. We know two cities are 3.8 inches apart but we do not know the miles. (1 in)/(35 mi) = (4.5 in)/(x mi) Step 2: Cross Multiply & Solve Since we have our proportion set up we can cross multiply by multiplying one numerator by the denominator on the opposite side. (1 in)/(35 mi) = (4.5 in)/(x mi) Which becomes: (1 in)(x mi) = (4.5 in)(35 mi) Which turns into: x = [(4.5 in) (35 mi)] / (1 in) This means that our final answer is: x = 157.5 mi The state parks are 157.5 miles apart.

232. 37 mm is equal to _______ cm
     • [3.7]
     • [370]
     • [0.37]
     • [0.037]

     Correct answer: [3.7]

     Below is a chart of the metric prefixes most commonly used from smallest (milli) to largest (kilo). MILLI (m) CENTI (c) DECI (d) UNITS (meter, liter, or gram) DEKA (da) HECTO (h) KILO (k)The Rules: For every step you move to the right, you divide your number by that power of ten. Example: Moving from UNITS to KILO is three spaces, so we would divide by ten three separate times, which is the same as just dividing by 1,000. For every step you move to the left, you multiply your number by that power of ten. Example: Moving from DECI to MILLI is two spaces, so we would multiply our number by ten two separate times, which is the same as multiplying by 100. Step 1: Determine HOW You Are Moving In this case, we are moving from MILLI to CENTI which is ONE step to the RIGHT. Since we are moving from a smaller unit to a larger unit, we are going to divide. Also, because we are moving only ONE step to the right, we will only divide by 10. Step 2: Set Up Your Problem and Solve All we do here is set up the problem we created from step one and solve it. 37 mm $\div 10$ cm/mm = 3.7 cm [3.7]

233. 7 gallons is equal to how many liters?
     • 0.54
     • 112
     • 21
     • 26.6

     Correct answer: 26.6

     Below is a chart of the metric prefixes most commonly used from smallest (milli) to largest (kilo). MILLI CENTI DECI UNITS (meter, liter, or gram) DEKA HECTO KILO Liquid Measure Conversion Chart → $\div 8$ → $\div 2$ → $\div 2$ → $\div 4$ Ounces Cups Pints Quarts Gallons $\times 8$ ← $\times 2$ ← $\times 2$ ← $\times 4$ Step 1: Determine the Conversion You Will Use This is your essential first step. If you know the conversion rate involved in the problem, in this case gallons to liters, use that. If not, and you only remember something different, convert one or more of the measurements into the units you do remember. For this problem, we are going to use the gallons and liters conversion rate. 1 gallon = 3.8 liters Step 2: Set Up a Proportion We will set up a proportion comparing our units. (1 gallon)/(3.8 liters) = (7 gallons)/(x liters) We made sure that both numerators contained gallons, and both denominators contained liters. This kept units the same. Step 3: Cross Multiply and Solve When we cross multiply, we multiply one numerator by the opposite denominator. Therefore: (1 gallon)/(3.8 liters) = (7 gallons)/(x liters) Becomes: $(1 \times x) = (3.8 \times 7 )$ Notice we were able to drop the units. When we simplify by actually doing the multiplication, we get: 1x = 26.6 Since 1x is really equal to just x, our final answer is: x = 26.6 Therefore 7 gallons is equal to 26.6 liters. 26.6

234. 112 ounces is equal to how many pounds?
     • 5 pounds
     • 1,792 pounds
     • 48 pounds
     • 7 pounds

     Correct answer: 7 pounds

     Remember your conversions using the table below. All units are presented from smallest (ounces) to largest (tons). Weight Measure Conversion Chart → $\div 16$ → $\div 2,000$ Ounces Pounds Tons ← $\times 16$ ← $\times 2,000$ Step 1: Determine How You Are Moving In this case, we are moving from ounces to pounds. According to the chart, we are moving one step to the right. Since we are moving from a smaller sized unit (ounces) to a larger sized unit (pounds), we will be dividing by 16 because: 16 ounces = 1 pound Step 2: Solve Since we have determined we are moving only one step to the right, we will just divide the number of ounces we have by sixteen. $112 \div 16 = 7$ Therefore 112 ounces is equal to 7 pounds. 7 pounds

235. 4 gallons is equal to how many liters?
     • 8
     • 12
     • 1.052
     • 15.2

     Correct answer: 15.2

     Metric Conversions Below is a chart of the metric prefixes most commonly used from smallest (milli) to largest (kilo). MILLI CENTI DECI UNITS (meter, liter, or gram) DEKA HECTO KILO Liquid Measure Conversion Chart → $\div 8$ → $\div 2$ → $\div 2$ → $\div 4$ Ounces Cups Pints Quarts Gallons $\times 8$ ← $\times 2$ ← $\times 2$ ← $\times 4$ Step 1: Determine the Conversion You Will Use This is your essential first step. If you know the conversion rate involved in the problem, in this case gallons to liters, use that. If not, and you only remember something different, convert one or more of the measurements into the units you do remember. For this problem, we are going to use the gallons and liters conversion rate. 1 gallon = 3.8 liters Step 2: Set Up a Proportion We will set up a proportion comparing our units. (1 gallon)/(3.8 liters) = (4 gallons)/(x liters) We made sure that both numerators contained gallons, and both denominators contained liters. This kept units the same. Step 3: Cross Multiply and Solve When we cross multiply, we multiply one numerator by the opposite denominator. Therefore: (1 gallon)/(3.8 liters) = (4 gallons)/(x liters) Becomes: $(1 \times x) = (3.8 \times 4)$ Notice we were able to drop the units. When we simplify by actually doing the multiplication, we get: 1x = 15.2 Since 1x is really equal to just x, our final answer is: x = 15.2 Therefore 4 gallons is equal to 15.2 liters. 15.2

236. 48 ounces is equal to ______ cups.
     • [6]
     • [18]
     • [3]
     • [24]

     Correct answer: [6]

     Remember Your Conversions Using the Table Below. All units are presented from smallest (ounces) to largest (gallons) Liquid Measure Conversion Chart Liquid Measure Conversion Chart → $\div 8$ →$\div 2$→ $\div 2$→ $\div 4$ Ounces (Oz) Cups (c) Pints (pt) Quarts (qt) Gallons (gal) ← $\times 8$ ←$\times 2$ ← $\times 2$ ← $\times 4$ Step 1: Determine How You Are Moving In this case, we are moving from ounces to cups. According to the chart, we are moving one step to the right. Since we are moving from a smaller sized unit (ounces) to a larger sized unit (cups), we will be dividing by 8 since: 8 oz = 1 cup Step 2: Solve Since we have determined we are moving only one step to the right, we will just divide the number of ounces we have by eight. 48 oz $\div 8$ oz/cup = 6 cups Therefore 48 ounces is equal to 6 cups.

237. 80 ounces is equal to how many pounds?
     • 32 pounds
     • 400 pounds
     • 160 pounds
     • 5 pounds

     Correct answer: 5 pounds

     Remember your conversions using the table below. All units are presented from smallest (ounces) to largest (tons). Weight Measure Conversion Chart → $\div 16$ → $\div 2,000$ Ounces Pounds Tons ← $\times 16$ ← $\times 2,000$ Step 1: Determine How You Are Moving In this case, we are moving from ounces to pounds. According to the chart, we are moving one step to the right. Since we are moving from a smaller sized unit (ounces) to a larger sized unit (pounds), we will be dividing by 16 because: 16 ounces = 1 pound Step 2: Solve Since we have determined we are moving only one step to the right, we will just divide the number of ounces we have by sixteen. $80 \div 16 = 5$ Therefore 80 ounces is equal to 5 pounds. 5 pounds

238. 104 ounces is equal to ______ cups.
     • [26]
     • [52]
     • [16]
     • [13]

     Correct answer: [13]

     Remember Your Conversions Using the Table Below. All units are presented from smallest (ounces) to largest (gallons) Liquid Measure Conversion Chart Liquid Measure Conversion Chart → $\div 8$ →$\div 2$→ $\div 2$→ $\div 4$ Ounces (Oz) Cups (c) Pints (pt) Quarts (qt) Gallons (gal) ← $\times 8$ ←$\times 2$ ← $\times 2$ ← $\times 4$ Step 1: Determine How You Are Moving In this case, we are moving from ounces to cups. According to the chart, we are moving one step to the right. Since we are moving from a smaller sized unit (ounces) to a larger sized unit (cups), we will be dividing by 8 since: 8 oz = 1 cup Step 2: Solve Since we have determined we are moving only one step to the right, we will just divide the number of ounces we have by eight. 104 oz $\div 8$ oz/cup = 13 cups Therefore 104 ounces is equal to 13 cups.

239. 7 km is equal to how many miles? Round your answer to the nearest hundredth.
     • 5.74
     • 3.24
     • 4.35
     • 7.6

     Correct answer: 4.35

     Metric Prefixes Chart MILLI CENTI DECI UNITS DEKA HECTO KILO (meter, liter, or gram) Distance Conversion Chart → $\div 12$ → $\div 3 \div 5,280$ feet to miles Inches Feet Yards Miles ← $\times 12$ ← $\times 3 \times 5,280$ feet to miles Step 1: Determine the Conversion You Will Use This is your essential first step. If you know the conversion rate involved in the problem, in this case kilometers to miles, use that. If not, and you only remember something different, convert one or more of the measurements into the units you do remember. For this problem, we are going to use the miles and kilometers conversion rate. 1 mile = 1.6093 kilometers Step 2: Set Up a Proportion We will set up a proportion comparing our units. (1 mile)/(1.6093 kilometers) = (x miles)/(7 kilometers) We made sure that both numerators contained miles, and both denominators contained kilometers. This kept units the same. Step 3: Cross Multiply and Solve When we cross multiply, we multiply one numerator by the opposite denominator. Therefore: (1 mile)/(1.6093 kilometers) = (x miles)/(7 kilometers) Becomes: $(1 \times 7) = (1.6093 \times x)$ Notice we were able to drop the units. Now when we simplify by actually doing the multiplication, we get: 7 = 1.6093x Since we are trying to solve for 1x, we must divide both sides by 1.6093. 7 / 1.6093 = 1.6093x / 1.6093 This comes out to: 4.3497 = x Our question asks us to round to the nearest hundredth, where the second 4 is located. The answer is 4.35 miles. [4.35]

240. Convert $12^{\circ}\text{C}$ into $^{\circ}\text{F}$.
     • [44.6 °F]
     • [53.6 °F]
     • [20.6 °F]
     • [61.6 °F]

     Correct answer: [53.6 °F]

     Step 1: Determine Which Formula to Use Since we are given Celsius and are solving for Fahrenheit we will use the following formula: $({}^{\circ}\text{C} \times 1.8) + 32 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ This formula shows that we got degrees Celsius and we are solving for degrees Fahrenheit. Step 2: Substitute In Our Temperature We are going to use the formula from Step 1, but insert the temperature we were given from our problem, in this case, $12^{\circ}\text{C}$. $(12^{\circ}\text{C} \times 1.8) + 32 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ Step 3: Solve Using Order of Operations In going through PEMDAS, the order of operations, we first do what happens within the parentheses which is: $(12^{\circ}\text{C} \times 1.8)$ So this is what happens: $(12^{\circ}\text{C} \times 1.8) + 32 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ This becomes: $21.6 + 32 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ We could drop the parentheses since we completed whatever was inside of them. Now we can solve the problem. $21.6 + 32 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ This becomes: $53.6 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ [$53.6^{\circ}\text{F}$]

241. Looking at a map, 1 inch is equal to 50 miles. If two cities are 3.8 inches apart on the map, how many miles apart are the cities in reality?
     • 100 miles
     • 190 miles
     • 53.8 miles
     • 46.2 miles

     Correct answer: 190 miles

     Step 1: Set Up a Proportion First, we can see our conversion rate which states that: 1 inch = 50 miles We will set up our first ratio. (1 in)/(50 mi) Now we can set up the proportion using the information we have. We know two cities are 3.8 inches apart but we do not know the miles. (1 in)/(50 mi) = (3.8 in)/(x mi) Step 2: Cross Multiply & Solve Since we have our proportion set up we can cross multiply by multiplying one numerator by the denominator on the opposite side. (1 in)/(50 mi) = (3.8 in)/(x mi) Which becomes: (1 in)(x mi) = (3.8 in)(50 mi) Which turns into: x = [(3.8 in) (50 mi)] / (1 in) This means that our final answer is: x = 190 mi The cities are 190 miles apart.

242. Convert $41^{\circ}\text{C}$ into $^{\circ}\text{F}$.
     • [105.8 °F]
     • [9.8 °F]
     • [73.8 °F]
     • [49.8 °F]

     Correct answer: [105.8 °F]

     Step 1: Determine Which Formula to Use Since we are given Celsius and are solving for Fahrenheit we will use the following formula: $({}^{\circ}\text{C} \times 1.8) + 32 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ This formula shows that we got degrees Celsius and we are solving for degrees Fahrenheit. Step 2: Substitute In Our Temperature We are going to use the formula from Step 1, but insert the temperature we were given from our problem, in this case, $41^{\circ}\text{C}$. $(41^{\circ}\text{C} \times 1.8) + 32 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ Step 3: Solve Using Order of Operations In going through PEMDAS, the order of operations, we first do what happens within the parentheses which is: $(41^{\circ}\text{C} \times 1.8)$ So this is what happens: $(41^{\circ}\text{C} \times 1.8) + 32 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ This becomes: $73.8 + 32 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ We could drop the parentheses since we completed whatever was inside of them. Now we can solve the problem. $73.8 + 32 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ This becomes: $105.8 = {}^{\circ}\text{F}$ [$105.8^{\circ}\text{F}$]

243. 75 mm is equal to _______ cm
     • [7.5]
     • [0.075]
     • [0.75]
     • [7,500]

     Correct answer: [7.5]

     Below is a chart of the metric prefixes most commonly used from smallest (milli) to largest (kilo). MILLI (m) CENTI (c) DECI (d) UNITS (meter, liter, or gram) DEKA (da) HECTO (h) KILO (k) The Rules: For every step you move to the right, you divide your number by that power of ten. Example: Moving from UNITS to KILO is three spaces, so we would divide by ten three separate times, which is the same as just dividing by 1,000. For every step you move to the left, you multiply your number by that power of ten. Example: Moving from DECI to MILLI is two spaces, so we would multiply our number by ten two separate times, which is the same as multiplying by 100. Step 1: Determine HOW You Are Moving In this case, we are moving from MILLI to CENTI which is ONE step to the RIGHT. Since we are moving from a smaller unit to a larger unit, we are going to divide. Also, because we are moving only ONE step to the right, we will only divide by 10. Step 2: Set Up Your Problem and Solve All we do here is set up the problem we created from step one and solve it. 75 mm $\div 10$ cm/mm = 7.5 cm [7.5]

244. A balloon has the shape of a sphere when it is fully blown up. The radius of the balloon is 1.2 feet when it is fully blown up. How much air is blown into the balloon when it is full? $V = \frac{4}{3} \times \pi \times r^{3}$ Use 3.14 for $\pi$ and 1.33 for $\frac{4}{3}$.
     • 5.01144 $\text{ft}^{2}$
     • 49.41079382 $\text{ft}^{3}$
     • 7.2164736 $\text{ft}^{3}$
     • 15.7359216 $\text{ft}^{2}$

     Correct answer: 7.2164736 $\text{ft}^{3}$

     Step 1: Substitute the Numbers Into the Equation In this case, we were given the formula for the volume of the problem. Volume $= (4/3) \times \pi \times r^{3}$ The problem has also given us the radius, the value to use for $\pi$, and the value for $4/3$ which we can substitute in as shown below. $1.33 \times 3.14 \times (1.2\,\text{ft})^{3}$ Step 2: Solve Using the Order of Operations Now we can solve for the volume given the formula. $1.33 \times 3.14 \times (1.2\,\text{ft})^{3}$ Using the order of operations, we must cube the 1.2 first. Remember $(1.2\,\text{ft})^{3}$ really means $1.2\,\text{ft} \times 1.2\,\text{ft} \times 1.2\,\text{ft} = 1.728\,\text{ft}^{3}$ Now we can just multiply all three numbers together. $1.33 \times 3.14 \times 1.728\,\text{ft}^{3} = 7.2164736\,\text{ft}^{3}$ Remember, our units are feet cubed $(\text{ft}^{3})$ since there were three dimensions involved. The volume of air in the balloon is $7.2164736\,\text{ft}^{3}$.

245. 11 km is equal to how many miles? Round your answer to the nearest hundredth.
     • 7.32
     • 17.70
     • 6.84
     • 5.50

     Correct answer: 6.84

     Metric Prefixes Chart MILLI CENTI DECI UNITS DEKA HECTO KILO (meter, liter, or gram) Distance Conversion Chart → $\div 12$ → $\div 3 \div 5,280$ feet to miles Inches Feet Yards Miles ← $\times 12$ ← $\times 3 \times 5,280$ feet to miles Step 1: Determine the Conversion You Will Use This is your essential first step. If you know the conversion rate involved in the problem, in this case kilometers to miles, use that. If not, and you only remember something different, convert one or more of the measurements into the units you do remember. For this problem, we are going to use the miles and kilometers conversion rate. 1 mile = 1.6093 kilometers Step 2: Set Up a Proportion We will set up a proportion comparing our units. (1 mile)/(1.6093 kilometers) = (x miles)/(11 kilometers) We made sure that both numerators contained miles, and both denominators contained kilometers. This kept units the same. Step 3: Cross Multiply and Solve When we cross multiply, we multiply one numerator by the opposite denominator. Therefore: (1 mile)/(1.6093 kilometers) = (x miles)/(11 kilometers) Becomes: $(1 \times 11) = (1.6093 \times x)$ Notice we were able to drop the units. Now when we simplify by actually doing the multiplication, we get: 11 = 1.6093x Since we are trying to solve for 1x, we must divide both sides by 1.6093. 11 / 1.6093 = 1.6093x / 1.6093 This comes out to: 6.8353 = x Our question does ask us to round to the nearest hundredth, where the first 3 is located. The correct answer is 6.84 miles. [6.84]

246. 198 inches is equal to ___ feet.
     • 12.375
     • 66
     • 16.5
     • 5.5

     Correct answer: 16.5

     Remember your conversions using the table below. All units are presented from smallest (inches) to largest (miles). Distance Conversion Chart → $\div 12$ → $\div 3 ( \div 5,280 feet to miles)$ Inches Feet Yards Miles ← $\times 12$ ← $\times 3 ( \times 5,280 feet to miles)$ Step 1: Determine How You Are Moving In this case, we are moving from inches to feet. According to the chart, we are moving one step to the right. Since we are moving from a smaller sized unit (inches) to a larger sized unit (feet), we will be dividing by 12 because: 12 inches = 1 foot Step 2: Solve Since we have determined we are moving only one step to the right, we will just divide the number of inches we have by twelve. $198 \div 12 = 16.5$ Therefore 198 inches is equal to 16.5 feet.16.5

247. 12 kg is equal to how many pounds?
     • 6
     • 18.8
     • 26.4
     • 5.45

     Correct answer: 26.4

     Metric Prefixes Chart MILLI CENTI DECI UNITS (meter, liter, or gram) DEKA HECTO KILO Weight Measure Conversion Chart → $\div 16$ → $\div 2,000$ Ounces Pounds Tons ← $\times 16$ ← $\times 2,000$ Step 1: Determine the Conversion You Will Use This is your essential first step. If you know the conversion rate involved in the problem, in this case kilograms to pounds, use that. If not, and you only remember something different, convert one or more of the measurements into the units you do remember. For this problem, we are going to use the kilogram and pounds conversion rate. 1 kilogram = 2.2 pounds Step 2: Set Up a Proportion We will set up a proportion comparing our units. (1 kilogram)/(2.2 pounds) = (12 kilograms)/(x pounds) We made sure that both numerators contained kilograms, and both denominators contained pounds. This kept units the same. Step 3: Cross Multiply and Solve When we cross multiply, we multiply one numerator by the opposite denominator. Therefore: (1 kilogram)/(2.2 pounds) = (12 kilograms)/(x pounds) Becomes: $(1 \times x) = (2.2 \times 12)$ Notice we were able to drop the units. When we simplify by actually doing the multiplication, we get: 1x = 26.4 Since 1x is really equal to just x, our final answer is: x = 26.4 Therefore 12 kilograms is equal to 26.4 pounds.

248. What is the surface area of a cylinder with a radius of 6 cm and a height of 14 cm? Use 3.14 for $\pi$.
     • 640.56 $\text{cm}^{2}$
     • 345.8 $\text{cm}^{2}$
     • 753.6 $\text{cm}^{2}$
     • 178.72 $\text{cm}^{2}$

     Correct answer: 753.6 $\text{cm}^{2}$

     Step 1: Break Your Shape Down Into Its Net When we break down a cylinder into its net, we have two circles (the top and bottom of the cylinder) and a rectangle. The rectangle would be like the label of a soda can. Step 2: Determine How to Find the Area of Each Part of the Net Let’s first find the area of the top and the bottom of the cylinder. Since these two shapes are exactly the same, they have the same area. Here’s how we find the area of a circle. $a = \pi r^{2}$ The problem has told us to use 3.14 for $\pi$. Now let’s fill in what we have so far. $(3.14)r^{2}$ We can plug it into the equation. $(3.14)r^{2} = (3.14)(6\,\text{cm})^{2}$ Now we can solve for the area of the circle following the order of operations. First – we solve the exponents $(3.14)(6\,\text{cm})^{2} = (3.14)(6\,\text{cm} \times 6\,\text{cm}) = (3.14)(36\,\text{cm}^{2})$ Now we solve: $(3.14)(36\,\text{cm}^{2}) = 113.04\,\text{cm}^{2}$ The area of each circle is $113.04\,\text{cm}^{2}$. Now we find the area of the rectangle. To find the area of a rectangle, we need to know the length and width since: $\text{length} \times \text{width} = \text{area}$ If we think about the width of this rectangle, that would be the height from the top of the cylinder to the bottom, in this case, 14 cm. $\text{length} \times 14\,\text{cm} = \text{area}$ Now we need to know the length. Since the length wraps around the outside of the circle, that means the length of the rectangle is actually the circumference of the circle. Remember to find the circumference by using: $C = 2\pi r$ Once again we are using 3.14 for $\pi$, and the problem told us the radius is 6 cm. So our circumference (length of the rectangle) is: $(2)(3.14)(6\,\text{cm})$ Which is equal to: $(2)(3.14)(6\,\text{cm}) = 37.68\,\text{cm}$ Now we know the length of the rectangle is 37.68 cm with a width (height) of 14 cm. So the area of the rectangle can be found by: $37.68\,\text{cm} \times 14\,\text{cm} = \text{area}$ Which is equal to: $527.52\,\text{cm}^{2}$ Step 3: Add Up the Areas of Each Part of the Net We have found the area of each circle and the rectangle, so now we have to add their individual areas. Circle area + Rectangle area + Circle area = Surface area Now let’s plug it in. $113.04\,\text{cm}^{2} + 527.52\,\text{cm}^{2} + 113.04\,\text{cm}^{2} = 753.6\,\text{cm}^{2}$ The surface area of the cylinder is $753.6\,\text{cm}^{2}$

249. 156 inches is equal to ___ feet.
     • 468
     • 13
     • 4.33
     • 53

     Correct answer: 13

     Remember your conversions using the table below. All units are presented from smallest (inches) to largest (miles). Distance Conversion Chart → $\div 12$ → $\div 3 ( \div 5,280 feet to miles)$ Inches Feet Yards Miles ← $\times 12$ ← $\times 3 ( \times 5,280 feet to miles)$ Step 1: Determine How You Are Moving In this case, we are moving from inches to feet. According to the chart, we are moving one step to the right. Since we are moving from a smaller sized unit (inches) to a larger sized unit (feet), we will be dividing by 12 because: 12 inches = 1 foot Step 2: Solve Since we have determined we are moving only one step to the right, we will just divide the number of inches we have by twelve. $156 \div 12 = 13$ Therefore 156 inches is equal to 13 feet. 13

250. What is the surface area of a cylinder with a radius of 9 in and a height of 12 in? Use 3.14 for $\pi$.
     • 1186.92 $\text{in}^{2}$
     • 932.58 $\text{in}^{2}$
     • 652.68 $\text{in}^{2}$
     • 805.41 $\text{in}^{2}$

     Correct answer: 1186.92 $\text{in}^{2}$

     Step 1: Break Your Shape Down Into Its Net When we break down a cylinder into its net, we have two circles (the top and bottom of the cylinder) and a rectangle. The rectangle would be like the label of a soda can. Step 2: Determine How to Find the Area of Each Part of the Net Let’s first find the area of the top and the bottom of the cylinder. Since these two shapes are exactly the same, they have the same area. Here’s how we find the area of a circle. $a = \pi r^{2}$ The problem has told us to use 3.14 for $\pi$. Now let’s fill in what we have so far. $(3.14)r^{2}$ We can plug it into the equation. $(3.14)r^{2} = (3.14)(9\,\text{in})^{2}$ Now we can solve for the area of the circle following the order of operations. First – we solve the exponents $(3.14)(9\,\text{in})^{2} = (3.14)(9\,\text{in} \times 9\,\text{in}) = (3.14)(81\,\text{in}^{2})$ Now we solve: $(3.14)(81\,\text{in}^{2}) = 254.34\,\text{in}^{2}$ The area of each circle is $254.34\,\text{in}^{2}$. Now we find the area of the rectangle. To find the area of a rectangle, we need to know the length and width since: $\text{length} \times \text{width} = \text{area}$ If we think about the width of this rectangle, that would be the height from the top of the cylinder to the bottom, in this case12 in. $\text{length} \times 12\,\text{in} = \text{area}$ Now we need to know the length. Since the length wraps around the outside of the circle, that means the length of the rectangle is actually the circumference of the circle. Remember to find circumference using: $C = 2\pi r$ Once again we are using 3.14 for pi, and the problem told us the radius is 9 in. So our circumference (length of the rectangle) is: $(2)(3.14)(9\,\text{in})$ Which is equal to: $(2)(3.14)(9\,\text{in}) = 56.52\,\text{in}$ Now we know the length of the rectangle is 56.52 in with a width (height) of 12 in. So the area of the rectangle can be found by: $56.52\,\text{in} \times 12\,\text{in} = \text{area}$ Which is equal to: $678.24\,\text{in}^{2}$ Step 3: Add Up the Areas of Each Part of the Net We have found the area of each circle and the rectangle, so now we have to add their individual areas. Circle area + rectangle area + circle area = surface area Now let’s plug it in. $254.34\,\text{in}^{2} + 678.24\,\text{in}^{2} + 254.34\,\text{in}^{2} = 1,186.92\,\text{in}^{2}$ The surface area of the cylinder is $1,186.952\,\text{in}^{2}$

251. A basketball has a radius of 4.8 inches. How much air can be pumped into the basketball when it is full? $V = \frac{4}{3} \times \pi \times r^{3}$ Use 3.14 for $\pi$ and 1.33 for $\frac{4}{3}$.
     • 197.6431753 $\text{in}^{3}$
     • 56.52 $\text{in}^{2}$
     • 461.8543104 $\text{in}^{3}$
     • 118.3152 $\text{in}^{2}$

     Correct answer: 461.8543104 $\text{in}^{3}$

     Step 1: Substitute the Numbers Into the Equation In this case, we got the formula for the volume from the problem. Volume $= (4/3) \times \pi \times r^{3}$ The problem has also given us the radius, the value to use for $\pi$, and the value for $(4/3)$ which we can substitute in as shown below. $1.33 \times 3.14 \times (4.8\,\text{in})^{3}$ Step 2: Solve Using the Order of Operations Now we can solve for the volume given the formula. $1.33 \times 3.14 \times (4.8\,\text{in})^{3}$ Using the order of operations, we must cube the 4.8 first. Remember $(4.8\,\text{in})^{3}$ really means $4.8\,\text{in} \times 4.8\,\text{in} \times 4.8\,\text{in} = 110.592\,\text{in}^{3}$ Now we can just multiply all three numbers together. $1.33 \times 3.14 \times 110.592\,\text{in}^{3} = 461.8543104\,\text{in}^{3}$ Remember, our units are inches cubed $(\text{in}^{3})$ since there were three dimensions involved. The volume of air that can be pumped into the basketball is $461.8543104\,\text{in}^{3}$.

252. 9 kg is equal to how many pounds?
     • 18
     • 19.8
     • 4.09
     • 12.5

     Correct answer: 19.8

     Metric Prefixes Chart MILLI CENTI DECI UNITS (meter, liter, or gram) DEKA HECTO KILO Weight Measure Conversion Chart → $\div 16$ → $\div 2,000$ Ounces Pounds Tons ← $\times 16$ ← $\times 2,000$ Step 1: Determine the Conversion You Will Use This is your essential first step. If you know the conversion rate involved in the problem, in this case kilograms to pounds, use that. If not, and you only remember something different, convert one or more of the measurements into the units you do remember. For this problem, we are going to use the kilogram and pounds conversion rate. 1 kilogram = 2.2 pounds Step 2: Set Up a Proportion We will set up a proportion comparing our units. (1 kilogram)/(2.2 pounds) = (9 kilograms)/(x pounds) We made sure that both numerators contained kilograms, and both denominators contained pounds. This kept units the same. Step 3: Cross Multiply and Solve When we cross multiply, we multiply one numerator by the opposite denominator. Therefore: (1 kilogram)/(2.2 pounds) = (9 kilograms)/(x pounds) Becomes: $(1 \times x) = (2.2 \times 9)$ Notice we were able to drop the units. When we simplify by actually doing the multiplication, we get: 1x = 19.8 Since 1x is really equal to just x, our final answer is: x = 19.8 Therefore 9 kilograms is equal to 19.8 pounds.

253. Favorite dessert | Frequency: Apple Pie 21, Banana Split 18, Fried Twinkie 20, Gooey Butter Cake 14, Chess Pie 11, Hummingbird Cake 25.What is the total number of people asked?
     • 100
     • 25
     • 110
     • 109

     Correct answer: 109

     Step 1: Interpret the Table This table shows the number of people who like a specific dessert. For example, someone was asked, “What is your favorite dessert?” (the left side) and the number of people who responded to each dessert is on the right side of the table. For example: 21 people responded that their favorite dessert is apple pie. Step 2: Find the Number of People Asked Now that we have understood the table and what it is presenting, we can find the total number of people asked. Since we understand the right side of the table shows how many people responded to each type of dessert, we will add the number of responses (frequency) together. 21 + 18 + 20 + 14 + 11 + 25 Which is equal to: 109

254. "The sport that the respondent prefers | Frequency: American Football 8, Baseball 5, Ice Hockey 2, Basketball 4, Golf 6, Socker 6, Tennis 3. What is the total number of people surveyed?"
     • 31
     • 8
     • 34
     • 18

     Correct answer: 34

     Step 1: Interpret the Table This table shows the number of people who prefer a specific sport. For example, someone was asked, “What is your favorite sport?” (the left side) and the number of people who responded to each sport is on the right side of the table. For example: Six people responded that they like golf. Step 2: Find the Number of People Asked Now that we have understood the table and what it is presenting, we can find the total number of people asked. Since we understand the right side of the table shows how many people responded to each sport, we will add the number of responses (frequency) together. 8 + 5 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 6 + 3 Which is equal to: 34

255. Find the median of the following numbers: 98.6, 11.8, 78.1, 25.3, and 65.4.
     • 78.1
     • 11.8
     • 65.4
     • 98.6

     Correct answer: 65.4

     The median of a collection of numbers is the middle number when the collection is ordered in ascending or descending order. When the collection has an even number of values, then the median is the average of the two numbers in the middle. Step 1: Arrange the collection in ascending order. The numbers given to us are: 98.6, 11.8, 78.1, 25.3, 65.4 Arranged in ascending order: 11.8, 25.3, 65.4, 78.1, 98.6 Step 2: Find the median of the collection. First, we have: 11.8, 25.3, 65.4, 78.1, 98.6 Striking off the second numbers on both sides: 11.8, 25.3, 65.4, 78.1, 98.6 Hence, the median of this collection is 65.4.

256. What is the median of the following numbers? 905.8, 125.6, 366.4, 489.7, 527.1
     • 125.6
     • 489.7
     • 527.1
     • 366.4

     Correct answer: 489.7

     The median of a collection of numbers is the middle number when the collection is ordered in ascending or descending order. When the collection has an even number of values, then the median is the average of the two numbers in the middle. Step 1: Arrange the collection in ascending order. The numbers given to us are: 905.8, 125.6, 366.4, 489.7, 527.1 Arranged in ascending order: 125.6, 366.4, 489.7, 527.1, 905.8 Step 2: Find the median of the collection. First, we have: 125.6, 366.4, 489.7, 527.1, 905.8 Striking off the second numbers on both sides: 125.6, 366.4, 489.7, 527.1, 905.8 Hence, the median of this collection is 489.7.

257. The cost of concert tickets across 5 theatres in the US is given below. What is the average cost of a concert ticket in the US? $197, $250, $320, $218, $305
     • $185
     • $250
     • $258
     • $296

     Correct answer: $258

     The mean value of a collection of numbers is the sum of all the numbers in the collection divided by the total numbers in the collection. It is mathematically written as: Mean = (Sum of all numbers in the collection / Total numbers in the collection) Step 1: Calculate the sum of all the numbers in the collection. In this question, the prices of concert tickets across 5 theatres in the US are given. The sum of all numbers in the collection can be calculated as follows: 197+250+320+218+305 = $1,290 There are 5 numbers in the collection. Step 2: Calculate the mean for the collection. The average price of a movie ticket can now be found as: Mean = ($1,290 / 5) = $258 The average cost of a concert ticket in the US is $258.

258. The temperature in Miami was recorded for a week and is given below. What was the average temperature in Miami that week? $34.6^{\circ}\text{C}$, $28.9^{\circ}\text{C}$, $29.2^{\circ}\text{C}$, $31.8^{\circ}\text{C}$, $35.0^{\circ}\text{C}$, $32.7^{\circ}\text{C}$, $33.1^{\circ}\text{C}$
     • 33.32 °C
     • 32.62 °C
     • 32.19 °C
     • 33.46 °C

     Correct answer: 32.19 °C

     The mean value of a collection of numbers is the sum of all the numbers in the collection divided by the total numbers in the collection. It is mathematically written as: Mean = (Sum of all numbers in the collection / Total numbers in the collection) Step 1: Calculate the sum of all the numbers in the collection. In this question, the temperature in Miami for a week is given. The sum of all numbers in the collection can be calculated as follows: 34.6+28.9+29.2+31.8+35+32.7+33.1 = $225.3^{\circ}\text{C}$ There are 7 numbers in the collection. Step 2: Calculate the mean for the collection. The average temperature for the week can now be found as: Mean = ($225.3^{\circ}\text{C}$ / 7) = $32.18^{\circ}\text{C}$

259. Pete went on a trip and recorded how the air temperature rose as the car moved south. Determine the independent and dependent variables.
     • Distance – independent, air temperature – dependent
     • Car speed – independent, distance – dependent
     • Air temperature – independent, car speed – dependent
     • Air temperature – independent, distance – dependent

     Correct answer: Distance – independent, air temperature – dependent

     Dependent Variable – a variable, usually y, whose value depends on another event of an occurrence. It is affected by changing the independent variable. Usually, it is something that cannot be controlled. Independent Variable – its value does not depend on that of another value. It is the variable the is changed. Usually, it is something that can be controlled. Step 1: Interpret the Situation & Determine the Variables In this situation, the further the car moves to the south, the higher the air temperature becomes. What Pete cannot control is the air temperature, but he can control the distance that the car is moving south.The distance is what Pete can change – so it’s the independent variable.The air temperature is what changes as a result of the independent variable (the higher temperature is the result of the longer distance) – so it’s the dependent variable. Distance – independent, air temperature – dependent

260. An engineer checks how strong cement becomes by adding different amounts of filler. Determine the independent and dependent variables.
     • Cement strength – independent, time – dependent
     • Time – independent, amount of filler – dependent
     • Amount of filler – independent, cement strength – dependent
     • Cement strength – independent, amount of filler – dependent

     Correct answer: Amount of filler – independent, cement strength – dependent

     Dependent Variable – a variable, usually y, whose value depends on another event of an occurrence. It is affected by changing the independent variable. Usually, it is something that cannot be controlled. Independent Variable – its value does not depend on that of another value. It is the variable the is changed. Usually, it is something that can be controlled. Step 1: Interpret the Situation & Determine the Variables In this situation, cement changes its properties depending on the amount of filler added. What the engineer cannot control is the cement strength, but he can control the amount of filler. The amount of filler is what the engineer can change – so it’s the independent variable. The cement strength is what changes as a result of the independent variable (the strength is the result of adding a specific amount of filler) – so it’s the dependent variable. Amount of filler – independent, cement strength – dependent

261. Which of the following combinations has the largest area on the pie chart? The most popular car colors: Blue 26%, Black 24%, Grey 23%, Red 12%, White 10%, Green 5%.
     • Red & Black
     • Black, White & Green
     • White & Grey
     • Blue, Green & White

     Correct answer: Blue, Green & White

     Step 1: Interpret & Read the Graph This pie chart shows the percentage of the most favorite car colors. Each option has a percentage underneath it. Step 2: Test Out Each Option In order to determine which option is correct, we do have to look at each option and determine how much each is worth. Option: White & Grey According to the pie chart, white has a percentage of 10 and grey has 23. Therefore the total is: White & Grey: 10% + 23% = 33% Option: Blue, Green & White According to the pie chart, blue has a percentage of 26, green has a percentage of 5 and white has a percentage of 10. Therefore the total is: Blue, Green & White: 26% + 5% + 10% = 41% Option: Red & Black According to the pie chart, red has a percentage of 12, and black has a percentage of 24. Therefore the total is: Red & Black: 12% + 24% = 36% Option: Black, White & Green According to the pie chart, black has a percentage of 24, white has a percentage of 10 and green has a percentage of 5. Therefore the total is: Black, White & Green: 24% + 10% + 5%= 39% Step 3: Determine Which Option has the Most When looking at all the options, we see that the option for Blue, Green & White has the highest percentage.

262. Mrs. Dufree wanted to know how much her students had studied for the science test. She also wanted to know if the girls or the boys studied more.
     • Pie Chart
     • Bar Graph
     • Line Graph
     • Double Bar Graph

     Correct answer: Double Bar Graph

     Step 1: Determine What Needs to be Shown In this situation, Mrs. Dufree wants to know how much time her students spent studying for the science test. She also wants to know if the boys or the girls studied more. Step 2: Choose the Best Graph Since we are tracking information for 1 event and comparing the difference between 2 populations (boys and girls), a double bar graph is specifically used to show information for one event and also to compare 2 different populations.

263. Find the median of the following numbers: 25, 78, 93, 51, and 46.
     • 51
     • 78
     • 25
     • 46

     Correct answer: 51

     The median of a collection of numbers is the middle number when the collection is ordered in ascending or descending order. When the collection has an even number of values, then the median is the average of the two numbers in the middle. Step 1: Arrange the collection in ascending order. The numbers given to us are: 25, 78, 93, 51, 46 Arranged in ascending order: 25, 46, 51, 78, 93 Step 2: Find the median of the collection. First, we have: 25, 46, 51, 78, 93 Striking off the second numbers on both sides: 25, 46, 51, 78, 93 Hence, the median of this collection is 51.

264. Max’s scores are given here for the last 6 exams. What is his average score? 56, 96, 85, 72, 63, 91
     • 75.00
     • 74.32
     • 78.50
     • 77.17

     Correct answer: 77.17

     The mean value of a collection of numbers is the sum of all the numbers in the collection divided by the total numbers in the collection. It is mathematically written as: Mean = (Sum of all numbers in the collection / Total numbers in the collection) Step 1: Calculate the sum of all the numbers in the collection. In this question, Max’s scores are given for the last 6 exams. The sum of all numbers in the collection can be calculated as follows: 56+96+85+72+63+91 = 463 There are 6 numbers in the collection. Step 2: Calculate the mean for the collection. Max’s average score can now be found as: Mean = (463/6) = 77.17 Max’s average score is 77.17.

265. Coach Espinoza wants to know how many wins and losses his 5 rival teams have had.
     • Double Bar Graph
     • Pie Chart
     • Bar Graph
     • Line Graph

     Correct answer: Double Bar Graph

     Step 1: Determine What Needs to be Shown In this situation, Coach Espinoza wants to know how many games the rival teams have won and how many games the rival teams have lost. Step 2: Choose the Best Graph Since we are tracking information for 5 rival teams and comparing the number of games that each team has won and lost, a double bar graph should be used.

266. What is the circumference of a circle with a diameter of 11 cm? (Use 3.14 for $\pi$)
     • 69.08 cm
     • 28.08 cm
     • 14.14 cm
     • 34.54 cm

     Correct answer: 34.54 cm

     Remember the formula for the circumference of a circle: πd Which stands for: $\pi (pi = 3.14) \times$ diameter Step 1: Substitute Our Numbers Into the Equation So let’s look at our equation: πd The problem has told us to use 3.14 for π and we can see that our diameter is 11 cm. Now our equation looks like this $(3.14) \times (11 cm)$ Step 2: Solve Now that we have substituted in our numbers, we can solve it. Remember, with decimals, we pretend as if the decimals are not there. We do not line up numbers by their decimal point. Since there are a total of 2 numbers to the right of the two decimal points in the problem, there will be 2 numbers that are behind the decimal in the product. Therefore, the decimal point goes between the first number 4 and the 5. 34.54 cm So, the circumference is 34.54 cm.

267. What is the mean of the following numbers: 85, 64, 73, 29, 51, 11?
     • 52.17
     • 62.6
     • 60.34
     • 57.98

     Correct answer: 52.17

     The mean value of a collection of numbers is the sum of all the numbers in the collection divided by the total numbers in the collection. It is mathematically written as: Mean = (Sum of all numbers in the collection / Total numbers in the collection) Step 1: Calculate the sum of all the numbers in the collection. The sum of all numbers in the collection can be calculated as follows: 85 + 64 + 73 + 29 + 51 + 11 = 313 Step 2: Calculate the mean for the collection. The mean can now be found as: Mean = (313/6) = 52.17 The mean of the given numbers is 52.17

268. Betty conducted a survey in her class about how much time students spent preparing for the exam and the score they got. Determine the independent and dependent variables.
     • Score – independent, time – dependent
     • Number of students – independent, score – dependent
     • Number of students – independent, time – dependent
     • Time – independent, score – dependent

     Correct answer: Time – independent, score – dependent

     Dependent Variable – a variable, usually y, whose value depends on another event of an occurrence. It is affected by changing the independent variable. Usually, it is something that cannot be controlled. Independent Variable – its value does not depend on that of another value. It is the variable the is changed. Usually, it is something that can be controlled. Step 1: Interpret the Situation & Determine the Variables In this situation, there is a group of students in which everyone spent a different number of hours preparing and received a different score. What a student cannot control is the score, but he can control how much time to spend on preparing for the exam. The time is what the student can change – so it’s the independent variable.The score he gets on the exam is what changed as a result of the independent variable (the higher score is the result of longer studying) – so it’s the dependent variable. Time – independent, score – dependent

269. Eye color | Frequency: Blue 9, Gray 8, Green 5, Gray-blue 4, Gray-green 3, Brown - black 31. What is the total number of people surveyed?
     • 60
     • 56
     • 29
     • 31

     Correct answer: 60

     Step 1: Interpret the Table This table shows the number of people who have a specific eye color. For example, someone was asked, “What is your eye color?” (the left side) and the number of people who responded to each color is on the right side of the table. For example: Five people responded that they have green eyes. Step 2: Find the Number of People Asked Now that we have understood the table and what it is presenting, we can find the total number of people asked. Since we understand the right side of the table shows how many people responded to each eye color, we will add the number of responses (frequency) together. 9 + 8 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 31 Which is equal to: 60

270. Find the mean of the following numbers: 123, 678, 291, 347.
     • 405.9
     • 359.75
     • 432.1
     • 458.7

     Correct answer: 359.75

     The mean value of a collection of numbers is the sum of all the numbers in the collection divided by the total numbers in the collection. It is mathematically written as: Mean = (Sum of all numbers in the collection / Total numbers in the collection) Step 1: Calculate the sum of all the numbers in the collection. The sum of all numbers in the collection can be calculated as follows: 123 + 678 + 291 + 347 = 1439 Step 2: Calculate the mean for the collection. The mean can now be found as: Mean = (1439/4) = 359.75 The mean of the given numbers is 359.75

271. What is the perimeter and the area of a rectangle with a length of 25 inches and a width of 18 inches?
     • Perimeter = 86 in, area = 450 $\text{in}^{2}$
     • Perimeter = 43 in, area = 450 $\text{in}^{2}$
     • Perimeter = 86 in, area = 43 $\text{in}^{2}$
     • Perimeter = 450 in, area = 86 $\text{in}^{2}$

     Correct answer: Perimeter = 86 in, area = 450 $\text{in}^{2}$

     Remember: The Perimeter is the distance around the outside of the shape. The Area is how much space a shape takes up. Step 1: Write Out Our Equation for the perimeter When we find the perimeter of a polygon, we add up the length of all the sides on the outside of the shape. Since a rectangle has four sides, we will be adding up four numbers. A rectangle has two lengths and two widths, so our equation can be written as: Length + length + width + width = perimeter Or: $(2 \times \text{length}) + (2 \times \text{width}) = \text{perimeter}$ Step 2: Substitute In Our Numbers and Solve Let’s use the equation: Length + length + width + width = perimeter Our rectangle has a length of 25 in and a width of 18 in, therefore we have: 25 in + 25 in + 18 in +18 in = perimeter Which is equal to: 86 cm Step 3: Write Out Our Equation for the area When we find the area of a rectangle, we multiply the length and the width together. Our equation can be written as: $\text{length} \times \text{width} = \text{area}$ Step 4: Substitute Our numbers and solve Our rectangle has a length of 25 in and a width of 18 in, therefore we have: $25\,\text{in} \times 18\,\text{in} = \text{area}$ Which is equal to: $450\,\text{in}^{2}$

272. What is the mean price of orange juice based on the following prices of orange juice across 8 stores? $1.20, $2.50, $2.40, $1.00, $2.99, $1.99, $1.50, $2.00
     • $ 2.50
     • $ 1.50
     • $ 1.95
     • $ 2.10

     Correct answer: $ 1.95

     The mean value of a collection of numbers is the sum of all the numbers in the collection divided by the total numbers in the collection. It is mathematically written as: Mean = (Sum of all numbers in the collection / Total numbers in the collection) Step 1: Calculate the sum of all the numbers in the collection. In this question, the prices of orange juice are given. The sum of all numbers in the collection can be calculated as follows: 1.20+2.50+2.40+1.00+2.99+1.99+1.50+2.00 = $15.58 There are 8 numbers in the collection. Step 2: Calculate the mean for the collection. The average price of orange juice can now be found as: Mean = ($15.58 / 8) = $1.95 The average price of orange juice is $1.95.

273. The day of the week the respondent was born | Frequency: Monday 10, Tuesday 6, Wednesday 7, Thursday 12, Friday 9, Saturday 10, Sunday 8. What is the total number of people asked?
     • 62
     • 60
     • 52
     • 10

     Correct answer: 62

     Step 1: Interpret the Table This table shows the number of people who were born on a specific day of the week. For example, someone was asked, “What day of the week were you born?” (the left side) and the number of people who responded to each week is on the right side of the table. For example: Ten people responded that they were born on Saturday. Step 2: Find the Number of People Asked Now that we have understood the table and what it is presenting, we can find the total number of people asked. Since we understand the right side of the table shows how many people responded to each day of the week, we will add the number of responses (frequency) together. 10 + 6 + 7 + 12 + 9 + 10 + 8 Which is equal to: 62

274. What is the median of the following numbers? 118, 251, 369, 98, 52
     • 118
     • 52
     • 251
     • 98

     Correct answer: 118

     The median of a collection of numbers is the middle number when the collection is ordered in ascending or descending order. When the collection has an even number of values, then the median is the average of the two numbers in the middle. Step 1: Arrange the collection in ascending order. The numbers given to us are: 118, 251, 369, 98, 52 Arranged in ascending order: 52, 98, 118, 251, 369 Step 2: Find the median of the collection. First, we have: 52, 98, 118, 251, 369 Striking off the second numbers on both sides: 52, 98, 118, 251, 369 Hence, the median of this collection is 118.

275. What is the circumference of a circle with a diameter of 27 in? (Use 3.14 for $\pi$)
     • 52.25 in
     • 42.39 in
     • 169.48 in
     • 84.78 in

     Correct answer: 84.78 in

     Remember the formula for the circumference of a circle: πd Which stands for: $\pi (pi = 3.14) \times$ diameter Step 1: Substitute Our Numbers Into the Equation So let’s look at our equation: πd The problem has told us to use 3.14 for π and we can see that our diameter is 27 inches. Now our equation looks like this: $(3.14) \times (27 in)$ Step 2: Solve Now that we have substituted in our numbers, we can solve it. Remember, with decimals, we pretend as if the decimals are not there. We do not line up numbers by their decimal point. Since there are a total of 2 numbers to the right of the two decimal points in the problem, there will be 2 numbers that are behind the decimal in the product. Therefore, the decimal point goes between the number 4 and the number 7. 84.78 in So, the circumference is 84.78 inches.

276. Hana is on a diet and writes down her weight every day. Determine the independent and dependent variables.
     • Weight – independent, diet – dependent
     • Weight – independent, diet duration – dependent
     • Diet – independent, diet duration – dependent
     • Diet duration – independent, weight – dependent

     Correct answer: Diet duration – independent, weight – dependent

     Dependent Variable – a variable, usually y, whose value depends on another event of an occurrence. It is affected by changing the independent variable. Usually, it is something that cannot be controlled. Independent Variable – its value does not depend on that of another value. It is the variable the is changed. Usually, it is something that can be controlled. Step 1: Interpret the Situation & Determine the Variables In this situation, the more time Hana is on diet, the more her weight decreases. What Hana cannot control is the weight, but she can control the duration of the diet. The duration of the diet is what Hana can change – so it’s the independent variable. The weight is what changes as a result of the independent variable (the weight is the result of the diet duration) – so it’s the dependent variable. Diet duration – independent, weight – dependent

277. Which of the following combinations has the largest area on the pie chart? Most popular Fruits : Bananas 43%, Citrus 19%, Apples 17%, Berries 11%, Grapes 10%
     • Grapes & Bananas
     • Apples & Citrus
     • Apples & Berries
     • Grapes, Berries & Citrus

     Correct answer: Grapes & Bananas

     Step 1: Interpret & Read the Graph This pie chart shows the percentage of the most favorite car colors. Each option has the percentage underneath it. Step 2: Test Out Each Option In order to determine which option is correct, we do have to look at each option and determine how much each is worth. Option: Grapes, Berries & Citrus According to the pie chart, grapes have a percentage of 10, berries have a percentage of 11 and citrus have a percentage of 19. Therefore the total is: Grapes, Berries & Citrus: 10% + 11% + 19% = 40% Option: Apples & Berries According to the pie chart, apples have a percentage of 17, and berries have a percentage of 11. Therefore the total is: Apples & Berries: 17% + 11% = 28% Option: Grapes & Bananas According to the pie chart, grapes have a percentage of 10, and bananas have a percentage of 43. Therefore the total is: Grapes & Bananas: 10% + 43% = 53% Option: Apples & Citrus According to the pie chart, apples have a percentage of 17, and citrus has a percentage of 19. Therefore the total is: Apples & Citrus: 17% + 19% = 36% Step 3: Determine Which Option has the Most When looking at all the options, we see that the option for Grapes & Bananas has the highest percentage. Grapes & Bananas

278. What is the perimeter and the area of a rectangle with a length of 12 centimeters and a width of 7 centimeters?
     • Perimeter = 38 cm, area = 19 $\text{cm}^{2}$
     • Perimeter = 19 cm, area = 84 $\text{cm}^{2}$
     • Perimeter = 38 cm, area = 84 $\text{cm}^{2}$
     • Perimeter = 8 cm, area = 38 $\text{cm}^{2}$

     Correct answer: Perimeter = 38 cm, area = 84 $\text{cm}^{2}$

     The Perimeter is the distance around the outside of the shape. The Area is how much space a shape takes up. Step 1: Write Out Our Equation for the perimeter When we find the perimeter of a polygon, we add up the length of all the sides on the outside of the shape. Since a rectangle has four sides, we will be adding up four numbers. A rectangle has two lengths and two widths, so our equation can be written as: Length + length + width + width = perimeter Or: $(2 \times \text{length}) + (2 \times \text{width}) = \text{perimeter}$ Step 2: Substitute In Our Numbers and Solve Let’s use the equation: Length + length + width + width = perimeter Our rectangle has a length of 12 cm and a width of 7 cm, therefore we have: 12 cm +12 cm +7 cm + 7 cm = perimeter Which is equal to: 38 cm Step 3: Write Out Our Equation for the area When we find the area of a rectangle, we multiply the length and the width together. Our equation can be written as: $\text{length} \times \text{width} = \text{area}$ Step 4: Substitute Our numbers and solve Our rectangle has a length of 12 cm and a width of 7 cm, therefore we have: $12\,\text{cm} \times 7\,\text{cm} = \text{area}$ Which is equal to: $84\,\text{cm}^{2}$

279. Veronica spends $2,987 each month. She wants to use a graph to see how her money is spent on rent, utilities, food, entertainment, etc.
     • Double Bar Graph
     • Line Chart
     • Pie Graph
     • Bar Graph

     Correct answer: Pie Graph

280. Justus has 48 hours to spend studying for all of his classes over the weekend. He wants to use a graph to see how his time is spent studying Trigonometry, Spanish, European History, etc. Which type of graph should Justus use?
     • Double Bar Graph
     • Line Graph
     • Pie Graph
     • Bar Graph

     Correct answer: Pie Graph

281. What is the mean of the following numbers: 25, 39, 43, 56, 68?
     • 46.2
     • 43.8
     • 44.1
     • 47.5

     Correct answer: 46.2

     The mean value of a collection of numbers is the sum of all the numbers in the collection divided by the total numbers in the collection. It is mathematically written as: Mean = (Sum of all numbers in the collection / Total numbers in the collection)Step 1: Calculate the sum of all the numbers in the collection. The sum of all numbers in the collection can be calculated as follows: 25 + 39 + 43 + 56 + 68 = 231 Step 2: Calculate the mean for the collection. The mean can now be found as: Mean = (231/5) = 46.2 The mean of the given numbers is 46.2.

282. Find the mean of the following numbers: 251, 387, 405, 569.
     • 403
     • 401
     • 405
     • 402

     Correct answer: 403

     The mean value of a collection of numbers is the sum of all the numbers in the collection divided by the total numbers in the collection. It is mathematically written as: Mean = (Sum of all numbers in the collection / Total numbers in the collection) Step 1: Calculate the sum of all the numbers in the collection. The sum of all numbers in the collection can be calculated as follows: 251 + 387 + 405 + 569 = 1612 Step 2: Calculate the mean for the collection. The mean can now be found as: Mean = (1612/4) = 403 The mean of the given numbers is 403

283. Delhi, India experienced one of the hottest summers in 2021. The temperature over a week in the month of July is recorded in the table below: Day | Temperature ($^{\circ}\text{C}$) Monday 41.52, Tuesday 42.35, Wednesday 43.78, Thursday 40.57, Friday 38.56, Saturday 39.23, Sunday 40.71 What is the mean temperature of this week?
     • 40.96 ℃
     • 39.78 ℃
     • 41.23 ℃
     • 42.67 ℃

     Correct answer: 40.96 ℃

     The mean value of a distribution or a collection of numbers is the sum of all the numbers in the data set divided by the total numbers in the collection. It is mathematically written as: Mean = (Sum of all numbers in the collection / Total numbers in the collection) Step 1: Check the given table for the data. This table shows the temperature for 7 days in $^{\circ}\text{C}$. Therefore, the total numbers in the collection are 7. Step 2: Calculate the sum of all the numbers in the collection. The sum of all numbers in the collection can be calculated as follows: 41.52 + 42.35 + 43.78 + 40.57 + 38.56 + 39.23 + 40.71 = $286.72^{\circ}\text{C}$ Step 3: Calculate the mean for the collection. The mean temperature for the week can now be found as: Mean = ($286.72^{\circ}\text{C}$/7) = $40.96^{\circ}\text{C}$ The mean temperature for the week is $40.96^{\circ}\text{C}$.

284. Given below is a table of recorded temperatures for a week. Date | Temperature ($^{\circ}\text{F}$) 15/05/2019 - 59.5, 16/05/2019 - 66.2, 17/05/2019 - 63.7, 18/05/2019 - 62.5, 19/05/2019 - 64.9, 20/052019 - 65.1, 21/05/2019 - 63.6 Calculate the mean temperature for this week.
     • 60.91 ℉
     • 63.64 ℉
     • 61.42 ℉
     • 67.58 ℉

     Correct answer: 63.64 ℉

     The mean value of a distribution or a collection of numbers is the sum of all the numbers in the data set divided by the total numbers in the collection. It is mathematically written as: Mean = (Sum of all numbers in the collection / Total numbers in the collection) Step 1: Check the given table for the data. This table shows the temperature for 7 days in $^{\circ}\text{F}$. Therefore, the total numbers in the collection are 7. Step 2: Calculate the sum of all the numbers in the collection. The sum of all numbers in the collection can be calculated as follows: 59.5 + 66.2 + 63.7 + 62.5 + 64.9 + 65.1 + 63.6 = $445.5^{\circ}\text{F}$ Step 3: Calculate the mean for the collection. The mean temperature for the week can now be found as: Mean = ($445.5^{\circ}\text{F}$/7) = $63.64^{\circ}\text{F}$ The mean of temperature for the week is $63.64^{\circ}\text{F}$.

285. Solve $1\frac{2}{15} + \frac{5}{9}$
     • $1\frac{31}{45}$
     • $1\frac{7}{24}$
     • $\frac{11}{12}$
     • $1\frac{7}{45}$

     Correct answer: $1\frac{31}{45}$

     Step 1: Convert the mixed number into an improper fraction. 1 2/$15 = (1 \times 15+2)$/15 = 17/15 Therefore 1 2/15 + 5/9 is now 17/15 + 5/9. Step 2: Find the Least Common Multiple of the denominators Since 15 and 9 are the denominators of the fractions, we will find the LCM of 15 and 9. Factors of: 15: 15, 30, 45, 60 9: 9, 18, 27, 36, 45 The least common multiple of 15 and 9 is 45. Step 3: Create equivalent fractions using the LCM as the new denominator Each fraction will now have a denominator of 45. Let’s start with 17/15. Since $15 \times 3 = 45,$ we have to multiply the numerator by the same number. 17/$15 = (17 \times 3)$/$(15 \times 3) = 51$/45 Let’s create an equivalent fraction for 5/9 with 45 as the new denominator. Since $9 \times 5 = 45,$ we will multiply the numerator by the same number. 5/$9 = (5 \times 5)$/$(9 \times 5) = 25$/45 Step 4: Add the fractions together (simplify or convert to a mixed number if necessary) Since our fractions now have the same denominator we can add them together. 51/45 + 25/45 = (51+25)/45 = 76/45 Since our answer is an improper fraction, we can turn it into a mixed number. $76 \div 45 = 1 31$/45

286. What is $\frac{16}{48}$ in its simplest form?
     • $\frac{1}{3}$
     • $\frac{2}{12}$
     • $\frac{1}{4}$
     • $\frac{8}{24}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{1}{3}$

     Step 1: Find a Common Factor of the Numerator and Denominator If we are unable to think of the Greatest Common Factor, we can think of a common factor between the numerator and denominator. Since the numerator and denominator are both even, they share a common factor of 2. Step 2: Divide the Numerator and Denominator by a Common Factor or Greatest Common Factor In order to simplify fractions, we must divide the numerator and denominator by the same number. $(16 \div 2)$/$(48 \div 2) = 8$/$24 16 \div 2 = 8 48 \div 2 = 24$ Step 3: Repeat Steps Until the Greatest Common Factor Between the Numerator and Denominator is 1. Since the numerator and denominator are both even, we can continue simplifying. In looking at 8 and 24, both have a common factor of 8, so we will divide the numerator and denominator by $8. (8 \div 8)$/$(24 \div 8) = 1$/3 Since 1 and 3 have a greatest common factor of 1, this fraction is fully simplified.

287. Hailey bought $2\frac{3}{4}$ pounds of fruit. Of these, $1\frac{2}{3}$ pounds are apples, and the rest are bananas. How many pounds of bananas did she buy?
     • $\frac{2}{3}$
     • $\frac{12}{13}$
     • $1\frac{1}{12}$
     • $\frac{3}{4}$

     Correct answer: $1\frac{1}{12}$

     Step 1: Interpret the problem and set up an equation In this problem we know that there were 1 2/3 pounds of apples and the rest of the fruits were bananas. We know the total weight of all fruits, therefore this problem is a subtraction problem. The Equation will be: 2 3/4 – 1 2/3 Step 2: Convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions. 2 3/$4 = (2 \times 4+3)$/4 = 11/4 1 2/$3 = (1 \times 3+2)$/3 = 5/3 Therefore 2 3/4 – 1 2/3 is now 11/4 – 5/3 . Step 3: Find the Least Common Multiple of the denominators Since 4 and 3 are the denominators of the fractions, we will find the LCM of 4 and 3. Factors of: 4: 4, 8, 12, 16, 20 3: 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 The least common multiple of 4 and 3 is 12. Step 4: Create equivalent fractions using the LCM as the new denominator Each fraction will now have a denominator of 12. Let’s start with 11/4 . Since $4 \times 3 = 12,$ we have to multiply the numerator by the same number. 11/$4 = (11 \times 3)$/$(4 \times 3) = 33$/12 Let’s create an equivalent fraction for 5/3 with 12 as the new denominator. Since $3 \times 4 = 12,$ we will multiply the numerator by the same number. 5/$3 = (5 \times 4)$/$(3 \times 4) = 20$/12 Step 5: Perform the subtraction Since our fractions now have the same denominator we can subtract them. 33/12 – 20/12 = (33-20)/12 = 13/12 Step 6: Since our answer is an improper fraction, we can turn it into a mixed number. $13 \div 12 = 1 1$/12 Hailey bought 1 1/12 pounds of bananas.

288. Write 99% as a decimal.
     • 99
     • 0.09
     • 990
     • 0.99

     Correct answer: 0.99

     Step 1: Divide the Decimal by 100 The only step to turn a percent into a decimal is to divide the percentage by 100. This is the same as moving the decimal point two spaces to the left. Remember, whole numbers always have a decimal point to the right of the ones place. 99% = 99.% Now we can divide by 100 or move the decimal point two spaces to the left. $99 \div 100 = 0.99$

289. What is the fractional equivalent to 12.6%?
     • $\frac{100}{126}$
     • $\frac{63}{500}$
     • $\frac{21}{250}$
     • $\frac{63}{50}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{63}{500}$

     Step 1: Convert the decimal into an improper fraction. 12.6 % = 12 6/$10 = (12 \times 10+6)$/10 = 126/10 % = 63/5 % In this case we also simplified 126/10% since both the numerator and denominator were divisible by 2. Step 2: Divide by 100 In order to turn a percent into a fraction, we must divide the number of percent by 100. This is the same as multiplying the denominator by 100. 63/$5 \% \div 100 \% = 63$/$5 \times 100 = 63$/500 Step 3: Simplify the fraction.The factors of 63 are: 1, 3, 7, 21, 63. Since none of those (except 1) go into 500 evenly, we can’t divide 63 and 500 by the same factor. Therefore, the fraction is fully simplified. 63/500 is the fractional equivalent to 12.6%

290. 165 is 110% of what number?
     • 181.5
     • 150
     • 16.5
     • 1650

     Correct answer: 150

     Step 1: Turn The Percent Into a Decimal We never use percentages in our actual math problems, so we first must turn our percentages into a decimal. To turn a percentage into a decimal, we divide by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal point two spaces to the left. $110\% = 110.\% 110.\% \div 100 = 1.10 110\%$ as a decimal is 1.10. Remember, zeros at the end of a number after a decimal do not add any value, so we can just write it as 1.1. 1.10 = 1.1 Step 2: Divide the Amount by the Decimal Since we are dealing with decimals, we have to remember our decimal multiplication and division rules. When dividing by a number less than one whole, our amount will increase. When multiplying by a number less than one whole, our amount will decrease. We know 165 = 110%, and that we are looking for the value that represents 100%. This means whatever 100% is, will be less than 165. To determine the value that represents 100% we can always use: Given Amount $\div$ Decimal = Amount that represents $100\% 165 \div 1.1 = 150 165$ is 110% of 150.

291. Write 0.8 as a fraction.
     • $\frac{4}{50}$
     • $\frac{4}{5}$
     • $\frac{50}{4}$
     • $\frac{5}{4}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{4}{5}$

     Step 1: Read the Decimal Out Loud A few reminders: a. We read everything to the left of the decimal by itself. b. The decimal says the word “and”. c. We then read everything to the right of the decimal. d. We end it by saying the place value of the last number. Therefore, 0.8 is said as: Eight Tenths Step 2: Write the Fraction You Read Out Loud Zero came before the decimal, so there is no whole number. We also said eight tenths out loud. Eight would be our numerator and ten would be our denominator. 8/10 Let’s check and see if the fraction can be simplified. 8 and 10 have a factor of 2 in common so we can simplify the fraction by dividing both the numerator and denominator by the Greatest Common Factor, 2. 8/$10 \div 2$/$2 = 8 \div 2$/$10 \div 2 = 4$/5 0.8 is 4/5 when written as a fraction.

292. Order from least to greatest: 2.85, $\frac{7}{4}$, 263%, $\frac{24}{10}$
     • 24/10, 7/4, 2.85, 263%
     • 7/4, 24/10, 263%, 2.85
     • 7/4, 263%, 2.85, 24/10
     • 24/10, 2.85, 7/4, 263%

     Correct answer: 7/4, 24/10, 263%, 2.85

     Step 1: Turn All Numbers into Decimals By turning all numbers into decimals, we can easily compare the numbers to one another. Just remember to keep track of each decimal in its original form. Let’s skip over to 7/4 since 2.85 is already a decimal. In order to turn a fraction into a decimal, we divide the numerator by the denominator. We usually only need to go to 3 or 4 decimal places. 7/$4 = 7 \div 4 = 1.75$ Let’s turn 263% into a decimal. Remember, in order to turn a percent into a decimal, we divide the percentage by 100, or move the decimal point two spots to the left. $263\% = 263. \% 263\% \div 100 = 2.63$ Finally, we will convert 24/10 into a decimal. Remember we divide the numerator by the denominator. We usually only need to go to 3 or 4 decimal places. 24/$10 = 24 \div 10 = 2.4$ Step 2: Compare Our Decimals We now can line up our numbers by their decimal points. We can also add in any extra zeros to make it easier to visually compare. 2.85 1.75 2.63 2.40 Now we can compare the numbers. Since 1.75 is the only whole number less than 2, it is the smallest (least). Next we look at the other 3 numbers – 2.85, 2.63, and 2.4. By looking at the largest place value they have in common, the tenths place, we can see that 8 > 6 > 4, so 2.85 > 2.63 > 2.4 Step 3: Order Our Decimals 1.75 < 2.4 < 2.63 < 2.85 Now we have to just rewrite our decimals using how they looked originally. 1.75 = 7/4 2.4 = 24/10 2.63 = 263% 2.85 = 2.85 Therefore: 7/4, 24/10, 263%, 2.85 The order of the numbers from least to greatest is 7/4, 24/10, 263%, 2.85.

293. 42 is what percent of 124?
     • 0.34%
     • 33.9%
     • 52.1%
     • 4%

     Correct answer: 33.9%

     Step 1: Divide the Part (Non-100%) by the Whole (100%) In order to find the percentage, we have to divide the part we have by the total amount. In this case, the non-100% part that we have, 42, will be divided by 100%, which is $124. 42 \div 124 = 0.338709677$ We can round this off to the third place value. Check your answer choices to see if numbers were rounded to a different place value. So let’s underline the third place value: 0.338709677 We look to the right and see a 7. Since a 7 is 5 or more, that means the underlined digit goes up by one so the 8 becomes a 9. 0.339 Every other number to the right of the 8 would turn to 0, and since they would have no value, we can get rid of them. Step 2: Multiply by 100 Now that we have our decimal, we have to turn it into a percent. Remember, we turn a decimal into a percent by multiplying it by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal point two spots to the right. $0.339 \times 100 = 33.9\% 42$ is 33.9% of 124

294. Samatha has $78 more than Adam has. Together they have $183. Adam has about how much money?
     • 100
     • 120
     • 90
     • 260

     Correct answer: 100

     Step 1: Interpret the question In this scenario, the total amount of money Samatha and Adam has is given as well as the amount Samatha has. To find the amount Adam has, we need to subtract the amount Samatha has from the total. Therefore the problem is a subtraction problem: 183 – 78 Step 2: Round our numbers Since the question asks “About how much…” we have to round each of these numbers before we subtract. 183 will be rounded to the nearest tens place. 78 will be rounded to the nearest tens place. Let’s round 183 first. We underline the place value we are rounding to: 183 When we look to the right of the 8, we see a 2, which tells us the underlined digit stays the same. Everything to the right of 8 turns to 0. 180 183 rounds to 180. Now, round 78. We underline the place value we are rounding to: 78 When we look to the right of the 7, we see an 8, which tells us the underlined digit goes up by 1. So, 7 turns into an 8. Everything to the right of 8 turns to 0. 80 78 rounds to 80. Step 3: Solve Line up the numbers by their place values and subtract like normal. 180 – 80 So, Adam has about $100.

295. $3\frac{3}{5} \div \frac{9}{15} =$
     • 11
     • $2\frac{4}{25}$
     • 6
     • $4\frac{1}{75}$

     Correct answer: 6

     Step 1: Convert the mixed number into an improper fraction 3 3/$5 = (3 \times 5+3)$/5 = 18/5 Step 2: Set Up Your Problem Using KCF [Keep – Change – Flip] When we divide fractions we set up our problem: 18/$5 \div 9$/15 Then we follow KCF – Keep – Change – Flip. Keep: The first fraction, 18/5 stays the same. Change: The division sign changes to a multiplication sign Flip: The second fraction flips over to become 15/9 The new problem now reads: 18/$5 \times 15$/9 = Step 3: Cross Simplify [If Applicable] When we look at the fractions to cross simplify, we find that 18 & 9 have a common factor of 9, and 15 & 5 have a common factor of 5. We can now reduce the fraction by $9 \times 5. 18$/$5 \times 15$/$9 = (18 \div 9) \times (15 \div 5)$/$(5 \div 5) \times (9 \div 9) = 2 \times 3$/$1 \times 1$ Step 4: Multiply $2 \times 3$/$1 \times 1 = 6$/1 = 6 Step 5: Simplify [If Possible] We got the whole number that cannot be simplified.

296. Round the following number the nearest hundredth. 32.1647
     • 32.16
     • 32.17
     • 32.165
     • 32.164

     Correct answer: 32.16

     Step 1: Remember Your Rounding Rules Underline the place value you are rounding to. Look to the right of the number you have underlined. If you see a 5-9, the underlined digit goes up by 1. If you see a 0-4, the underlined digit stays the same. Anything to the right of the underlined digit turns to 0. Anything to the left of the underlined digit usually stays the same (unless a 9 was rounded up) Step 2: Underline the place value you are rounding to 32.1647 The number directly to the right of 6 is 4. Since four is between 0-4, 6 stays the same. Step 3: Any numbers to the right of the underlined digit turns to 0 and any digit to the left usually stays the same 32.1600 Any numbers to the right of 6 turns to 0 and any numbers to the left of it stay the same. Since the zeros after the decimal have no value, we can get rid of them. 32.16

297. Solve for x: 4(3x + 2) + 3(x + 1) = 41
     • 2.5
     • 2
     • $\frac{1}{2}$
     • 3.5

     Correct answer: 2

     When solving equations remember to use: Inverse Operations – operations that undo one another. So if subtraction is present, we use addition, etc. What we do to one side we MUST do to the other Our goal is to ISOLATE the variable which means to have JUST one of the variables. Step 1: Distribute In this problem, we are first going to remove the parentheses from the equation. To do this we must multiply the term in front of each parenthesis by each term inside its respective parenthesis. 4(3x + 2) + 3(x + 1) = 41 12x + 8 + 3x + 3 = 41 Step 2: Combine Any Like Terms Now we can rearrange the equation so that we can combine all whole numbers and all terms with the same variable. Also, remember to include the sign IN FRONT of each term. 12x + 8 + 3x + 3 = 41 If we rearrange, it becomes: 12x + 3x + 8 + 3 = 41 This simplifies to: 15x + 11 = 41 Step 3: Solve the Equation When we solve equations, we can start by applying the inverse of the constant term on both sides of the equation. The constant is the term with no variable attached to it. We see that 11 is being added to 15x, the 11 is the constant term because there is no x attached, so we have to undo addition using subtraction. Therefore we are going to subtract 11 from both sides. 15x + 11 – 11 = 41 – 11 Which then becomes: 15x = 30 Now we can solve: Since 15 is being multiplied by x, we have to undo the multiplication using division. Therefore we are going to divide both sides by 15. (15x/15) = (30/15) This simplifies to: 1x = 2 Since 1x and x are the same thing, our final answer is: x = 2

298. 12 – 12x + 5x + 3x
     • $8x$
     • $- 4x + 12$
     • $20x + 12$
     • $- 4 + 12x$

     Correct answer: $- 4x + 12$

     The Rules of Simplifying Expressions: You are only able to combine like terms, which means you can combine the coefficients of terms that have the same variable with the same exponent. Step 1: Group Like Terms We can rearrange the expression where we combine our like terms. We can first sort using colors: 12 – 12x + 5x + 3x The like terms are already grouped together, so there is no need to rearrange the terms. Remember, you MUST include the sign that comes in front of each term. If there is no sign, assume it’s a positive sign. Step 2: Combine Like Terms Combine the x-terms: – 12x + 5x + 3x = – 4x There is only one constant in the expression: + 12 Remember, you MUST include the sign that comes in front of each term. If there is no sign, assume it’s a positive sign. Step 3: Put All Sets of Simplified Terms Together – 4x + 12

299. Write an expression that means “one more than five times a number.”
     • $1x + 5$
     • $1 + 5x$
     • $6x$
     • 1 + 5

     Correct answer: $1 + 5x$

     Step 1: Read the Entire Problem and Highlight Operational Words When we read “one more than five times a number,” we see the following operation words: Times → multiplication More than → addition Also, when we see a sentence that says “a number,” we can assign that number a variable, so let’s use “x.” Step 2: Write It in Order/Check to See if It Works With Order of Operations The prompt starts with “five times a number,” which looks like: $5 \times x$ Which can also be combined to: 5x Then we have “one more than,” which means we need to add 1 to the previous part, so we can write it as: 1 + Especially because in addition, the order does not matter. Now we can combine both parts: 1 + 5x

300. Jackson drove 362 miles in 5 hours. What is his average speed in miles per hour to the nearest whole number?
     • 72
     • 181
     • 75
     • 73

     Correct answer: 72

     Step 1: Interpret the Problem and Set Up a Proportion In this problem we know that Jackson drove 362 miles in 5 hours. We are trying to find his average speed which is recorded in miles per hour. When we set up the proportion, the units must match. Since we are dealing with miles per hour, miles will be in the numerator and hours will be in the denominator. What is missing is the number of miles in 1 hour. So we have: 362 miles $\Rightarrow X$ miles 5 hours $\Rightarrow 1$ hour 362/5 = X/1 Step 2: Solve the Equation The fraction 362/5 really states $362 \div 5,$ and X/1 means $x \div 1 = X$. Then we can rewrite the equation as $362 \div 5 = X X = 72.4$ Step 3: Round Off the Answer to the Nearest Whole The question asked for our final answer to be rounded to the nearest whole number. 72.4 rounds to 72 Jackson’s average speed is 72 miles per hour.

301. Which of the following is the completed proportion for: $5.25:4.5 :: x:6$
     • $5.25:4.5 :: 23.5:6$
     • $5.25:4.5 :: 9.25:6$
     • $5.25:4.5 :: 7:6$
     • $5.25:4.5 :: 9:6$

     Correct answer: $5.25:4.5 :: 7:6$

     Step 1: Set Up Your Proportion Vertically By setting up our problem vertically, the next few steps will be easier to manage. 5.25/4.5 = x/6 Step 2: Use Cross Multiplication We cross multiply by multiplying the denominator of one fraction by the numerator of the other. $(5.25 \times 6) = (x \times 4.5)$ Which simplifies to: 31.5 = 4.5x Step 3: Solve for the variable 4.5x/4.5 = 31.5/$4.5 31.5 \div 4.5 = 7 x = 7$ Therefore the completed proportion is: 5.25:4.5 :: 7:6

302. Solve for x: 4x – 1 > 31
     • $x \le 8$
     • $x < 8$
     • $x \ge 8$
     • $x > 8$

     Correct answer: $x > 8$

     When solving inequalities remember to use: Inverse Operations – operations that undo one another. So if subtraction is present, we use addition, etc. What we do to one side we MUST do to the other Our goal is to ISOLATE the variable which means to have JUST one of the variables. Step 1: Isolate the x-term When we solve inequalities, we can start by applying the inverse of the constant term on both sides of the equation. The constant is the term with no variable attached to it. . We see that 1 is being subtracted from the 4x, the -1 is the constant term because there is no x attached, so we have to undo the subtraction by using addition . Therefore we are going to add 1 to both sides 4x – 1 + 1 > 31 + 1 Which then becomes: 4x > 32 Step 2: Solve the Inequality Now we can solve: Since 3 is being multiplied by x, we have to undo the multiplication by using division. Therefore we are going to divide both sides by 3. (4x/4) > (32/4) This simplifies to: 1x > 8 Since 1x and x are the same thing, our final answer is: x > 8

303. Chicago received 3.4 inches of snow on the 1st of December. If the city received 75 % more snow on the 2nd of December, how much snow did the city receive on the 2nd of December?
     • 2.55 inches
     • 5.95 inches
     • 1.75 inches
     • 3 inches

     Correct answer: 5.95 inches

     Since the city received 75% more snow on the 1st of December than on the 2nd of December, we have to add 75% to 100% to get the snow on December 2nd as a fraction of the snow on 1st December. 100% + 75% = 175% Step 1: December 2nd has 175 % more snow than 1st December. We first have to convert 175% to a decimal. 175% = 175/100 = 1.75 Step 2: We then multiply the amount of snow on 1st December by 1.75 to get the amount of snow on December 2nd. $1.75 \times 3.4 = 5.95$ There were 5.95 inches of snow on 2nd December.

304. Carla went out to dinner with a few friends. The total bill came out to $121.66. If they left a 15% tip, how much money was left for the tip?
     • $139.25
     • $18.25
     • $18.24
     • $103.41

     Correct answer: $18.25

     Step 1: Interpret the problem In this problem, we are calculating the amount of money left for a tip. Because the percentage for the tip is less than 100% we know that the tip amount will be less than the total bill amount, so the answer has to be less than $121.66 When calculating a tip amount, we multiply the percentage of the tip by the total bill amount. Tip Percentage x Total Bill Amount = Tip Amount Step 2: Convert our percent to a decimal We do not use actual percentages when solving math problems so we have to change 15% into a decimal. In order to change a percent into a decimal, we divide the percent by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal two spots to the left. Since there is no decimal in 15, we assume it is to the right of the ones place, so: 15% = 15. % Now we can slide the decimal point two spaces left. 15.% → 0.15 15% as a decimal is 0.15. Step 3: Solve Now that our percent has been turned into a decimal we can multiply: $0.15 \times 121.66 = 18.249$ When a math problem has a final answer that represents a monetary quantity, the final answer must be rounded to the nearest hundredth, unless otherwise directed. 18.249 = $18.25 The amount of money that was left for the tip was $18.25.

305. Convert $4\frac{11}{25}$ into an improper fraction
     • $\frac{44}{25}$
     • $\frac{111}{25}$
     • $\frac{15}{25}$
     • $\frac{100}{11}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{111}{25}$

     Step 1: Multiply the whole number by the denominator We have 4 wholes with 25 pieces in each whole so we multiply these two to find the number of pieces we have in the four wholes. $4 \times 25 = 100$ Step 2: Add the number obtained in the first step to the numerator. We have 11 additional pieces leftover, so we need to add them to the number we got in Step 1. 100 + 11 = 111 Step 3: Place the number obtained in the second step as a numerator and keep the denominator as it is. Now, we found how many twenty-fifths we have in total: 111 twenty-fifths pieces. This is denoted as 111/25. The mixed number 4 11/25 as an improper fraction is 111/25. 4 11/$25 = 4 \times 25+11$/25 = 111/25

306. Order the following fractions from least to greatest: $2\frac{3}{8}$ ; $\frac{2}{7}$ ; $1\frac{2}{3}$ ; $\frac{1}{5}$
     • 2/7 ; 1 2/3 ; 2 3/8 ; 1/5
     • 1/5 ; 2/7 ; 2 3/8 ; 1 2/3
     • 1/5 ; 1 2/3 ; 2/7 ; 2 3/8
     • 1/5 ; 2/7 ; 1 2/3 ; 2 3/8

     Correct answer: 1/5 ; 2/7 ; 1 2/3 ; 2 3/8

     Step 1: Organize and sort our numbers into groups Since these numbers are all positive, we do not need to sort them into positive and negative numbers. We can group the positive numbers by using any whole numbers in front. Fractions Less than 1 Whole: 2/7 and 1/5 We have two fractions less than 1, so we will compare them using common denominators (Step 2). Fractions Between 1 and 2: 1 2/3 Because 1 2/3 is the only fraction less than one whole, this fraction is greater than 2/7 and 1/5, but smaller than 2 3/8. Fractions Greater than 2: 2 3/8 Because 2 3/8 is the only fraction greater than 2, this fraction is the largest. Step 2: Compare fractions using Common Denominators & Equivalent Fractions We are comparing 2/7 and 1/5. Let’s first find the Least Common Multiple of 7 and 5: Multiples of 7: 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, 42 Multiples of 5: 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35 LCM: 35 Now we create equivalent fractions with 35 as the new denominator. First up: 2/7 Since $7 \times 5 = 35,$ we also multiply the numerator by $5 (2 \times 5)$/$(7 \times 5) = 10$/35 Second Up: 1/5 Since $5 \times 7 = 35,$ we also multiply the numerator by $7 (1 \times 7)$/ $(5 \times 7) = 7$/35 Now we can compare: 10/35 is larger than 7/35 therefore 2/7 is larger than 1/5 Step 3: Organize our fractions from least to greatest. 2/7 is larger than 1/5 1 2/3 is larger than 2/7 and 1/5, 2 3/8 is the largest. The order of the fractions from least to greatest is 1/5 ; 2/7 ; 1 2/3 ; 2 3/8

307. Which of the following inequalities best represents the following situation? A number less than seven is greater than 7.
     • $7 - x > 7$
     • $x - 7 > 7$
     • $7 - x < 7$
     • $x - 7 < 7$

     Correct answer: $7 - x > 7$

     Remember the following inequalities: < – less than > – greater than $\le$ – less than or equal to$\ge$ – greater than or equal to Step 1: Read the Scenario and Break It Into Chunks One of the first keywords we can look for when it comes to inequalities is the word “is” which lets us know an inequality is coming. In this case, we see “is greater than” which means the symbol “>” will be involved. Once we see the inequality symbol we can group everything that comes before the keywords such as “a number less than 7” and everything to the right of the inequality “7”. Step 2: Write Your Inequality Piece By Piece If we look to the left of the inequality, >, we see “a number less than 7” “less than” means subtraction. We are looking for a number less than 7: x – 7 When we read “a number” it means we have to use a variable. In this case, x. When translating “less than” we have to also remember the additional rule that the terms to the left and right of the subtraction must switch places: x – 7 -> 7 – x Now we can look to the right of the inequality. In this case, it’s just the number 7 so there’s nothing for us to do. Step 3: Combine All Pieces To the Left of the Inequality; 7 – x, The Inequality; >, To the Right of the Inequality; 7. Therefore our inequality will be: 7 – x > 7

308. Solve for x: x – 14 = 28
     • 42
     • – 2
     • 2
     • 14

     Correct answer: 42

     When solving equations remember To use Inverse Operations – operations that undo one another. So if subtraction is present, we use addition, etc. What you do to one side you MUST do to the other Your goal is to ISOLATE the variable which means all operations around the given variable must be undone so that it stands alone at one side of the equation Step 1: Combine Any Like Terms In this case, all terms have been combined so the problem stays exactly how it is. x – 14 = 28 Step 2: Remove the Constant Term If there is a number in the equation that is not attached to a variable by multiplication, this is called the constant. The constant is removed by performing the inverse operation of addition or subtraction. Using the reverse order of operations, we would get rid of the subtraction (- 14) in this problem by using the inverse operation to subtraction, which is addition. We add 14 to both sides of the equation. x – 14 + 14 = 28 + 14 Now we have: x = 42

309. Solve $2\frac{3}{8} + 3\frac{7}{12}$
     • $5\frac{5}{12}$
     • $6\frac{1}{24}$
     • $5\frac{1}{2}$
     • $5\frac{23}{24}$

     Correct answer: $5\frac{23}{24}$

     Adding two mixed numbers we can add the whole parts and then the fractional parts. 2 3/8 + 3 7/12 = (2 + 3) + (3/8 + 7/12) Step 1: Add the whole parts together 2 + 3 = 5 Step 2: Find the Least Common Multiple of the denominators Since 8 and 12 are the denominators of the fractions, we will find the LCM of 8 and 12. Factors of: 8: 8, 16, 24, 32, 40 12: 12, 24, 36, 48 The least common multiple of 8 and 12 is 24. Step 3: Create equivalent fractions using the LCM as the new denominator Each fraction will now have a denominator of 24. Let’s start with 3/8 . Since $8 \times 3 = 24,$ we have to multiply the numerator by the same number. 3/$8 = (3 \times 3)$/$(8 \times 3) = 9$/24 Let’s create an equivalent fraction for 7/12 with 24 as the new denominator. Since $12 \times 2 = 24,$ we will multiply the numerator by the same number. 7/$12 = (7 \times 2)$/$(12 \times 2) = 14$/24 Step 4: Add the fractions together (simplify or convert to a mixed number if necessary) Since our fractions now have the same denominator we can add them together. 9/24 + 14/24 = (9+14)/24 = 23/24 Step 5: Add the whole parts and the fractional parts. 5 + 23/24 = 5 23/24

310. Solve $1\frac{3}{10}+ 2\frac{5}{8}$
     • $4\frac{3}{40}$
     • $3\frac{3}{16}$
     • $3\frac{4}{9}$
     • $3\frac{37}{40}$

     Correct answer: $3\frac{37}{40}$

     Adding two mixed numbers we can add the whole parts and then the fractional parts. 1 3/10 + 2 5/8 = (1 + 2) + (3/10 + 5/8) Step 1: Add the Whole parts Together 1 + 2 = 3 Step 2: Find the Least Common Multiple of the denominators Since 10 and 8 are the denominators of the fractions, we will find the LCM of 10 and 8. Factors of: 10: 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 8: 8, 16, 24, 32, 40 The least common multiple of 10 and 8 is 40. Step 3: Create equivalent fractions using the LCM as the new denominator Each fraction will now have a denominator of 40. Let’s start with 3/10 . Since $10 \times 4 = 40,$ we have to multiply the numerator by the same number. 3/$10 = (3 \times 4)$/$(10 \times 4) = 12$/40 Let’s create an equivalent fraction for 5/8 with 40 as the new denominator. Since $8 \times 5 = 40,$ we will multiply the numerator by the same number. 5/$8 = (5 \times 5)$/$(8 \times 5) = 25$/40 Step 4: Add the fractions together (simplify or convert to a mixed number if necessary) Since our fractions now have the same denominator we can add them together. 12/40 + 25/40 = (12+25)/40 = 37/40 Step 5: Add the whole parts and the fractional parts. 3 + 37/40 = 3 37/40

311. $2\frac{3}{4} \div 5\frac{1}{6} =$
     • $\frac{33}{62}$
     • $1\frac{29}{33}$
     • $\frac{23}{34}$
     • $11\frac{1}{4}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{33}{62}$

     Step 1: Convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions 2 3/$4 = (2 \times 4+3)$/4 = 11/4 5 1/$6 = (5 \times 6+1)$/6 = 31/6 Step 2: Set Up Your Problem Using KCF [Keep – Change – Flip] When we divide fractions we set up our problem: 11/$4 \div 31$/6 Then we follow KCF – Keep – Change – Flip. Keep: The first fraction, 11/4 stays the same. Change: The division sign changes to a multiplication sign Flip: The second fraction flips over to become 6/31 The new problem now reads: 11/$4 \times 6$/31 = Step 3: Cross Simplify [If Applicable] When we look at the fractions to cross simplify, we find that 4 & 6 have a common factor of 2. We can now reduce the fraction by 2. 11/$4 \times 6$/$31 = 11 \times (6 \div 2)$/$(4 \div 2) \times 31 = 11 \times 3$/$2 \times 31$ Step 4: Multiply $11 \times 3$/$2 \times 31 = 33$/62 Step 5: Simplify [If Possible] The fraction 33/62 cannot be simplified.

312. $4\frac{1}{6} \div 1\frac{7}{8} =$
     • $3\frac{11}{51}$
     • $\frac{9}{20}$
     • $5\frac{1}{20}$
     • $2\frac{2}{9}$

     Correct answer: $2\frac{2}{9}$

     Step 1: Convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions 4 1/$6 = (4 \times 6+1)$/6 = 25/6 1 7/$8 = (1 \times 8+7)$/8 = 15/8 Step 2: Set Up Your Problem Using KCF [Keep – Change -Flip] When we divide fractions we set up our problem: 25/$6 \div 15$/8 Then we follow KCF – Keep – Change – Flip. Keep: The first fraction, 25/6 stays the same. Change: The division sign changes to a multiplication sign Flip: The second fraction flips over to become 8/15 The new problem now reads: 25/$6 \times 8$/15 = Step 3: Cross Simplify [If Applicable] When we look at the fractions to cross simplify, we find that 25 & 15 have a common factor of 5, and 6 & 8 have a common factor of 2. We can now reduce the fraction by $5 \times 2. 25$/$6 \times 8$/$15 = (25 \div 5) \times (8 \div 2)$/$(6 \div 2) \times (15 \div 5) = 5 \times 4$/$3 \times 3$ Step 4: Multiply $5 \times 4$/$3 \times 3 = 20$/9 Step 5: Simplify [If Possible] and convert into a mixed number Convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. 20/$9 = 20 \div 9 = 2 2$/9

313. Sophia bought $\frac{7}{10}$ yards of fabric for a baby dress. Of these, $\frac{1}{4}$ yard is red fabric, and the rest is gray. How many yards of gray fabric did she buy?
     • $\frac{9}{20}$
     • $\frac{3}{5}$
     • $\frac{3}{5}$
     • $\frac{1}{20}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{9}{20}$

     Step 1: Interpret the problem and set up an equation In this problem, we know that Sophia bought 1/4 yard of red fabric and the rest of the fabric was gray. We know the total length of fabric, therefore this problem is a subtraction problem. The equation will be: 7/10 – 1/4 Step 2: Find the Least Common Multiple of the denominators Since 10 and 4 are the denominators of the fractions, we will find the LCM of 10 and 4. Factors of: 10: 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 4: 4, 8, 12, 16, 20 The least common multiple of 10 and 4 is 20. Step 3: Create equivalent fractions using the LCM as the new denominator Each fraction will now have a denominator of 20. Let’s start with 7/10 . Since $10 \times 2 = 20,$ we have to multiply the numerator by the same number. 7/10 – $(7 \times 2)$/$(10 \times 2) = 14$/20 Let’s create an equivalent fraction for 1/4 with 20 as the new denominator. Since $4 \times 5 = 20,$ we will multiply the numerator by the same number. 1/4 – $(1 \times 5)$/$(4 \times 5) = 5$/20 Step 4: Perform the Subtraction Since our fractions now have the same denominator we can subtract them. 14/20 – 5/20 = (14-5)/20 = 9/20 Sophia bought 9/20 yards of gray fabric.

314. What is the fractional equivalent to $5\frac{4}{7}\%$?
     • $\frac{7}{25}$
     • $\frac{27}{350}$
     • $\frac{39}{700}$
     • $\frac{54}{175}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{39}{700}$

     Step 1: Convert the mixed number into an improper fraction 5 4/$7\% = (5 \times 7+4)$/7% = 39/7% Step 2: Divide by 100 In order to turn a percent into a fraction, we must divide the number of percent by 100. This is the same as multiplying the denominator by 100. 39/$7 \% \div 100 \% = 39$/$7 \times 100 = 39$/700 Step 3: Simplify the fraction The factors of 39 are: 1, 3, 13, 39. Since none of those (except 1) go into 700 evenly, we can’t divide 39 and 700 by the same factor. Therefore, the fraction is fully simplified. 39/700 is the fractional equivalent to 5 4/7 %

315. $\frac{5}{12} \div 1\frac{7}{18} =$
     • $2\frac{1}{14}$
     • $\frac{3}{10}$
     • $\frac{15}{34}$
     • $3\frac{1}{3}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{3}{10}$

     Step 1: Convert the mixed number into an improper fraction 1 7/$18 = (1 \times 18+7)$/18 = 25/18 Step 2: Set Up Your Problem Using KCF [Keep – Change – Flip] When we divide fractions we set up our problem: 5/$12 \div 25$/18 Then we follow KCF – Keep – Change – Flip. Keep: The first fraction, 5/12 stays the same. Change: The division sign changes to a multiplication sign Flip: The second fraction flips over to become 18/25 The new problem now reads: 5/$12 \times 18$/25 = Step 3: Cross Simplify [If Applicable] When we look at the fractions to cross simplify, we find that 5 & 25 have a common factor of 5, and 12 & 18 have a common factor of 6. We can now reduce the fraction by $5 \times 6. 5$/$12 \times 18$/$25 = (5 \div 5) \times (18 \div 6)$/$(12 \div 6) \times (25 \div 5) = 1 \times 3$/$2 \times 5$ Step 4: Multiply $1 \times 3$/$2 \times 5 = 3$/10 Step 5: Simplify [If Possible] The fraction 3/10 cannot be simplified.

316. Convert $2\frac{15}{23}$ into an improper Fraction
     • $\frac{46}{15}$
     • $\frac{17}{23}$
     • $\frac{61}{23}$
     • $\frac{15}{23}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{61}{23}$

     Step 1: Multiply the whole number by the denominator We have 2 wholes with 23 pieces in each whole so we multiply these two to find the number of pieces we have in the two wholes. $2 \times 23 = 46$ Step 2: Add the number obtained in the first step to the numerator. We have 15 additional pieces left over, so we need to add them to the number we got in Step 1. 46 + 15 = 61 Step 3: Place the number obtained in the second step as a numerator and keep the denominator as it is. Now, we found how many twenty-thirds pieces we have in total: 61 twenty-thirds pieces. This is denoted as 61/23. The mixed number 2 15/23 as an improper fraction is 61/23. 2 15/$23 = 2 \times 23+15$/23 = 61/23

317. Write 13% as a decimal.
     • 13
     • 0.13
     • 0.0013
     • 1,300

     Correct answer: 0.13

     Step 1: Divide the Decimal by 100 The only step to turn a percent into a decimal is to divide the percentage by 100. This is the same as moving the decimal point two spaces to the left. Remember, whole numbers always have a decimal point to the right of the ones place. 13% = 13.% Now we can divide by 100 or move the decimal point two spaces to the left. $13 \div 100 = 0.13$

318. 56 is 35% of what number?
     • 19.6
     • 36.4
     • 160
     • 246

     Correct answer: 160

     Step 1: Turn The Percent Into a Decimal We never use percentages in our actual math problems, so we first must turn our percentages into a decimal. To turn a percentage into a decimal, we divide by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal point two spaces to the left. $35\% = 35.\% 35.\% \div 100 = 0.35$ Step 2: Divide the Amount by the Decimal Since we are dealing with decimals, we have to remember our decimal multiplication and division rules. When dividing by a number less than one whole, our amount will increase. When multiplying by a number less than one whole, our amount will decrease. We know 56 = 35%, and that we are looking for the value that represents 100%. This means whatever 100% is, will be larger than 56. To determine the value that represents 100% we can always use: Given Amount $\div$ Decimal = Amount that represents $100\% 56 \div 0.35 = 160 56$ is 35% of 160

319. Solve $2\frac{1}{3} + \frac{3}{4}$
     • $1\frac{3}{7}$
     • $2\frac{4}{7}$
     • $3\frac{1}{12}$
     • $1\frac{3}{4}$

     Correct answer: $3\frac{1}{12}$

     Step 1: Convert the mixed number into an improper fraction. 2 1/$3 = (2 \times 3+1)$/3 = 7/3 Therefore 2 1/3 + 3/4 is now 7/3 + 3/4. Step 2: Find the Least Common Multiple of the denominator Since 3 and 4 are the denominators of the fractions, we will find the LCM of 3 and 4. Factors of: 3: 3, 6, 9, 12, 15 4: 4, 8, 12, 16, 20 The least common multiple of 3 and 4 is 12. Step 2: Create equivalent fractions using the LCM as the new denominator Each fraction will now have a denominator of 12. Let’s start with 7/3. Since $3 \times 4 = 12,$ we have to multiply the numerator by the same number. 7/$3 = (7 \times 4)$/$(3 \times 4) = 28$/12 Let’s create an equivalent fraction for 3/4 with 12 as the new denominator. Since $4 \times 3 = 12,$ we will multiply the numerator by the same number. 3/$4 = (3 \times 3)$/$(4 \times 3) = 9$/12 Step 4: Add the fractions together (simplify or convert to a mixed number if necessary) Since our fractions now have the same denominator we can add them together. 28/12 + 9/12 = (28+9)/12 = 37/12 Since our answer is an improper fraction, we can turn it into a mixed number. $37 \div 12 = 3 1$/12

320. A tourist covered 168 miles, and he rode a horse $\frac{5}{6}$ of the way. How many miles did the tourist cover on horseback?
     • 140
     • 28
     • 33
     • 56

     Correct answer: 140

     Step 1: Interpret the problem and set up an equation In this problem, we know that the tourist covered 168 miles and 5/6 of this way he rode a horse. This means that he rode on horseback only a part of the way. We also see the keywords “on horseback” which is a hint that this problem involves multiplication of the fraction ridden on horseback by the total distance. The Equation will be: $168 \times 5$/6 Remember, when multiplying by a fraction less than one whole, your product will decrease (be less than 168) Step 2: Solve the equation In order to multiply, we just need to set up our fractions. $168 \times (5/6)$ Since 168 is a whole number, we can put a denominator of 1 underneath it. $(168/1) \times (5/6)$ Now we can solve: $(168 \times 5)$ / $(1 \times 6)$ Which is equal to: (840/6) Step 3: Simplify if Necessary 840/6 is telling us to do: $840 \div 6$ Which is equal to: 140 The tourist covered 140 miles on horseback

321. What is $\frac{25}{35}$ in its simplest form?
     • $\frac{5}{7}$
     • $\frac{3}{5}$
     • $\frac{12}{20}$
     • $\frac{1}{2}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{5}{7}$

     Step 1: Find a Common Factor of the Numerator and Denominator If we are unable to think of the Greatest Common Factor, we can think of a common factor between the numerator and denominator. Since the numerator and denominator both end in 5, they share a common factor of 5. Step 2: Divide the Numerator and Denominator by a Common Factor or Greatest Common Factor In order to simplify fractions, we must divide the numerator and denominator by the same number. $(25 \div 5)$/$(35 \div 5) = 5$/7 Since 5 and 7 have a greatest common factor of 1, this fraction is fully simplified.

322. A patient was prescribed 120 milligrams of medication by their doctor. Upon further review, their doctor decided to reduce the amount of medication by 35%. How many milligrams of medication are in the new prescription?
     • 85 milligrams
     • 42 milligrams
     • 78 milligrams
     • 162 milligrams

     Correct answer: 78 milligrams

     Step 1: Interpret the problem In this problem, we can see that the patient’s doctor decided to reduce the amount of medication prescribed, so our answer has to be less than 120 milligrams. If he reduced the prescription by 35%, that means that the patient is still receiving 35% of the original dosage of medication. 100% (Full Amount) – 35% (Amount Reduced) = 65% (New Prescription Amount) We are trying to find 65% of 120 milligrams. Using the key words “65% OF 120” means that we are going to be using multiplication in this problem. Step 2: Convert our percent to a decimal. We do not use actual percentages when solving math problems so we have to change 65% into a decimal. In order to change a percent into a decimal, we divide the percent by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal two spots to the left. Since there is no decimal in 65, we assume it is to the right of the ones place, so: 65% = 65. % Now we can slide the decimal point two spaces left. 65.% → 0.65 65% as a decimal is 0.65. Step 3: Solve Now that our percent has been turned into a decimal we can multiply: $0.65 \times 120 = 78$ The new prescription has 78 milligrams of medication

323. Write 4.1 as a fraction.
     • $4\frac{100}{10}$
     • $4\frac{1}{10}$
     • $4\frac{10}{1}$
     • $4\frac{1}{100}$

     Correct answer: $4\frac{1}{10}$

     Step 1: Read the Decimal Out Loud A few reminders: a. We read everything to the left of the decimal by itself. b. The decimal says the word “and”. c. We then read everything to the right of the decimal. d. We end it by saying the place value of the last number. Therefore, 4.1 is said as: Four and One Tenth Step 2: Write the Fraction You Read Out Loud Four came before the decimal, so that’s your whole number, 4. We also said one tenth out loud. One would be our numerator and ten would be our denominator. 1/10 Let’s check and see if the fraction can be simplified. Because the only factor that 1 and 10 have in common is 1, the fraction is completely simplified. Step 3: Combine the Whole Number and the Fraction Just combine 4 and 1/10 4 1/10 4.1 is 4 1/10 when written as a fraction.

324. 812 is what percent of 885?
     • 1.1%
     • 718.6%
     • 0.92%
     • 91.8%

     Correct answer: 91.8%

     Step 1: Divide the Part (Non-100%) by the Whole (100%) In order to find the percentage, we have to divide the part we have by the total amount. In this case, the non-100% part that we have, 812, will be divided by 100%, which is $885. 812 \div 885 = 0.91751412$ We can round this off to the third-place value. Check your answer choices to see if numbers were rounded to a different place value. So let’s underline the third-place value: 0.91751412 We look to the right and see a 5. Since a 5 is 5 or more, that means the underlined digit goes up by one so the 7 becomes an 8. 0.918 Every other number to the right of the 7 would turn to 0, and since they would have no value, we can get rid of them. Step 2: Multiply by 100 Now that we have our decimal, we have to turn it into a percent. Remember, we turn a decimal into a percent by multiplying it by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal point two spots to the right. $0.918 \times 100 = 91.8\% 812$ is 91.8% of 885

325. Lily covered 193 miles in 3 hours. What is her average speed in miles per hour to the nearest whole number?
     • 65
     • 64.333
     • 64
     • 579

     Correct answer: 64

     Step 1: Interpret the Problem and Set Up a Proportion In this problem we know that Lily covered 193 miles in 3 hours. We are trying to find her average speed which is recorded in miles per hour. When we set up the proportion, the units must match. Since we are dealing with miles per hour, miles will be in the numerator and hours will be in the denominator. What is missing is the number of miles in 1 hour. So we have: 193 miles $\Rightarrow X$ miles, 3 hours $\Rightarrow 1$ hour, 193/3 = X/1 Step 2: Solve the Equation The fraction 193/3 really states $193 \div 3,$ and X/1 means $X \div 1 = X$. Then we can rewrite the equation as $193 \div 3 = X X = 64.3333$ Step 3: Round Off the Answer to the Nearest Whole The question asked for our final answer to be rounded to the nearest whole number. 64.3333 rounds to 64 Lily’s average speed is 64 miles per hour.

326. Ninety-two children and 48 adults are at a party. About how many people attend the party altogether?
     • 130
     • 40
     • 140
     • 150

     Correct answer: 140

     Step 1: Interpret the question In this scenario, we are finding the total number of people attending the party so we must take the sum of the children and adults attending the party. Therefore we have an addition problem: 92 + 48 Step 2: Round our numbers Since the question asks “About how many…” we have to round each of these numbers before we add. 92 will be rounded to the nearest tens place. 48 will be rounded to the nearest tens place. Let’s round 92 first. We underline the place value we are rounding to: 92 When we look to the right of the 9, we see a 2, which tells us the underlined digit stays the same. Everything to the right of 9 turns to 0. 90 92 rounds to 90. Now, round 48. We underline the place value we are rounding to: 48 When we look to the right of the 4, we see an 8, which tells us the underlined digit goes up by 1. So, 4 turns into a 5. Everything to the right of 5 turns to 0. 50 48 rounds to 50. Step 3: Solve Line up the numbers by their place values and add like normal. 90 + 50. So, about 140 people attended the party.

327. Jo does a workout plan where each day she jogs 30% more distance than the previous day. If Jo jogs for 5.2 miles today, how many miles will she jog tomorrow?
     • 3.64 miles
     • 1.3 miles
     • 1.56 miles
     • 6.76 miles

     Correct answer: 6.76 miles

     Step 1: On any particular day, Jo jogs 30% more than the previous day. We have to add 30% to 100% to get the distance Jo covers the next day as a percentage of the distance she covered on the previous day. 100% + 30% = 130% Step 2: We then have to convert this percentage into a decimal. 130% = 130/100 = 1.3 Step 3: The next step is to multiply the decimal by the distance Jo covered today to get the distance Jo will jog tomorrow. $1.3 \times 5.2 = 6.76$ miles Jo will jog a distance of 6.76 miles.

328. Solve for x: 2(x + 1) + 3(x + 5) = 32
     • -45
     • 3
     • 10
     • 5.2

     Correct answer: 3

     When solving equations remember to use: Inverse Operations – operations that undo one another. So if subtraction is present, we use addition, etc. What we do to one side we MUST do to the other Our goal is to ISOLATE the variable which means to have JUST one of the variables. Step 1: Distribute In this problem, we are first going to remove the parentheses from the equation. To do this we must multiply the term in front of each parenthesis by each term inside its respective parenthesis. 2(x + 1) + 3(x + 5) = 32 2x + 2 + 3x + 15 = 32 Step 2: Combine Any Like Terms Now we can rearrange the equation so that we can combine all the whole numbers and all terms with the same variable. Also, remember to include the sign IN FRONT of each term. 2x + 2 + 3x + 15 = 32 If we rearrange, it becomes: 2x + 3x + 2 + 15 = 32 This simplifies to: 5x + 17 = 32 Step 3: Solve the Equation When we solve equations, we can start by applying the inverse of the constant term to both sides of the equation. The constant is the term with no variable attached to it. We see that 17 is being added to 5x, the 17 is the constant term because there is no x attached, so we have to undo addition using subtraction. Therefore we are going to subtract 17 from both sides. 5x + 17 – 17 = 32 – 17 Which then becomes: 5x = 15 Now we can solve: Since 5 is being multiplied by x, we have to undo the multiplication using division. Therefore we are going to divide both sides by 5. (5x/5) = (15/5) This simplifies to: 1x = 3 Since 1x and x are the same thing, our final answer is: x = 3

329. Order the following fractions from least to greatest: $\frac{3}{4}$ ; $\frac{5}{8}$ ; $\frac{1}{2}$.
     • 5/8 ; 3/4 ; 1/2
     • 3/4 ; 1/2 ; 5/8
     • 5/8 ; 1/2 ; 3/4
     • 1/2 ; 5/8 ; 3/4

     Correct answer: 1/2 ; 5/8 ; 3/4

     Step 1: Organize and sort our numbers into groups Since these numbers are all positive, we do not need to sort them into positive and negative numbers. Also, all these fractions are less than 1. Then, we need to compare all three fractions using common denominators. Step 2: Compare fractions using Common Denominators & Equivalent Fractions We are comparing the fractions 3/4 ; 5/8 and 1/2 Let’s first find the Least Common Multiple of 4, 8 and 2: Multiples of 4: 4, 8, 12, 16 Multiples of 8: 8, 16, 24, 32 Multiples of 2: 2, 4, 6, 8 ,10 ,12, 14 LCM: 8 5/8 already has the denominator of 8. For 3/4 we create an equivalent fraction with 8 as the new denominator. Since $4 \times 2 = 8,$ we also multiply the numerator by $2 (3 \times 2)$/$(4 \times 2) = 6$/8 For 1/2 we create an equivalent fraction with 8 as the new denominator. Since $2 \times 4 = 8,$ we also multiply the numerator by $4 (1 \times 4)$/$(2 \times 4) = 4$/8 Now we can compare: 6/8 (which is equivalent to 3/4) is larger than 5/8 5/8 is larger than 4/8 (which is equivalent to 1/2) Step 3: Organize our fractions from least to greatest. 1/2 is the smallest 3/4 is greater than 5/8 The order of the fractions from least to greatest 1/2 ; 5/8 ; 3/4

330. Which of the following is the completed proportion for: $5:8 :: 4:x$
     • $5:8 :: 4:7.5$
     • $5:8 :: 4:2.5$
     • $5:8 :: 4:3.2$
     • $5:8 :: 4:6.4$

     Correct answer: $5:8 :: 4:6.4$

     Step 1: Set Up Your Proportion Vertically By setting up our problem vertically, the next few steps will be easier to manage. 5/8 = 4/x Step 2: Use Cross Multiplication We cross multiply by multiplying the denominator of one fraction by the numerator of the other. $(5 \times x) = (4 \times 8)$ Which simplifies to: 5x = 32 Step 3: Solve for the variable 5x/5 = 32/$5 32 \div 5 = 6.4 x = 6.4$ Therefore the completed proportion is: 5:8 :: 4:6.4

331. Write an expression that means “10 more than four times a number.”
     • $10x$
     • $14x$
     • $4 + 10x$
     • $10 + 4x$

     Correct answer: $10 + 4x$

     Step 1: Read the Entire Problem and Highlight Operational Words When we read “10 more than four times a number,” we see the following operation words: More than → addition Times → multiplication Also, when we see a sentence that says “a number,” we can assign that number a variable, so let’s use “x”. Step 2: Write It in Order/Check to See if It Works With Order of Operations We want “10 more than,” which means we need to add 10 to something, so we can write it as: 10 + Especially because in addition, the order does not matter. In dealing with the last part, “four times a number,” it looks like: $4 \times x$ Which can also be combined to: 4x Now we can combine both parts: 10 + 4x

332. 3x + 6 + 5x – 15
     • $8x + 21$
     • $29x$
     • $- 2x - 9$
     • $8x - 9$

     Correct answer: $8x - 9$

     The Rules of Simplifying Expressions: You are only able to combine like terms, which means you can combine the coefficients of terms that have the same variable with the same exponent. Step 1: Group Like Terms We can rearrange the expression where we combine our like terms. We can first sort using colors: 3x+ 6 + 5x – 15 Now we rearrange to group like terms together: 3x + 5x + 6 – 15 Remember, you MUST include the sign that comes in front of each term. If there is no sign, assume it’s a positive sign. Step 2: Combine Like Terms Combine the x-terms: 3x + 5x = 8x Combine the constants: + 6 – 15 = – 9 Step 3: Put All Sets of Simplified Terms Together 8x – 9

333. Which of the following inequalities best represents the following situation? Three more than a number is greater than 12.
     • $3 + x \le 12$
     • $3 + x \ge 12$
     • $3 + x \le 12$
     • $3 + x > 12$

     Correct answer: $3 + x > 12$

     Remember the following inequalities: < – less than > – greater than $\le$ – less than or equal to $\ge$ – greater than or equal to Step 1: Read the Scenario and Break It Into Chunks One of the first keywords we can look for when it comes to inequalities is the word “is” which lets us know an inequality is coming. In this case, we see “is greater than” which means the symbol “>” will be involved. Once we see the inequality symbol we can group everything that comes before the keywords such as “Three more than a number” and everything to the right of the inequality “12”. Step 2: Write Your Inequality Piece By Piece If we look to the left of the inequality, >, we see “three more than a number” “More than” means addition. We are looking for 3 more than a number: 3 + x When we read “a number” it means we have to use a variable. In this case, x. Now we can look to the right of the inequality. In this case, it’s just the number 12 so there’s nothing for us to do. Step 3: Combine All Pieces To the Left of the Inequality ; 3 + x, The Inequality ; > , To the Right of the Inequality; 12. Therefore our inequality will be: 3 + x > 12

334. Solve for x: 3x + 2 < 29
     • $x < 9$
     • $x > -9$
     • $x < -9$
     • $x > 9$

     Correct answer: $x < 9$

     When solving inequalities remember to use: Inverse Operations – operations that undo one another. So if subtraction is present, we use addition, etc. What we do to one side we MUST do to the other Our goal is to ISOLATE the variable which means to have JUST one of the variables. Step 1: Isolate the x-term When we solve inequalities, we can start by applying the inverse of the constant term on both sides of the equation. The constant is the term with no variable attached to it. We see that 2 is being added to the 3x, the 2 is the constant term because there is no x attached, so we have to undo the addition by using subtraction. Therefore we are going to subtract 2 from both sides. 3x + 2 – 2 < 29 – 2 Which then becomes: 3x < 27 Step 2: Solve the Inequality Now we can solve: Since 3 is being multiplied by x, we have to undo the multiplication by using division. Therefore we are going to divide both sides by 3. (3x/3) < (27/3) This simplifies to: 1x < 9 Since 1x and x are the same thing, our final answer is: x < 9

335. Order from least to greatest: $2\frac{4}{5}$, 0.45, 245%, $\frac{3}{9}$
     • 0.45, 3/9, 245%, 2 4/5
     • 3/9, 0.45, 245%, 2 4/5
     • 0.45, 3/9, 2 4/5, 245%
     • 2 4/5 0.45, 245%, 3/9

     Correct answer: 3/9, 0.45, 245%, 2 4/5

     Step 1: Turn All Numbers into Decimals By turning all numbers into decimals, we can easily compare the numbers to one another. Just remember to keep track of each decimal in its original form. Let’s start with 3/9. In order to turn a fraction into a decimal, we divide the numerator by the denominator. We usually only need to go to 3 or 4 decimal places. 3/$9 = 3 \div 9 = 0.333$… Because 0.333 is a repeating decimal, we can round to 0.333 for our needs. Next let’s skip over to 2 4/5 since 0.45 is already a decimal. We can keep the whole number to the side, and just focus on turning 4/5 into a decimal. 4/$5 = 4 \div 5 = 0.8$ Finally let’s turn 245% into a decimal. Remember, in order to turn a percent into a decimal, we divide the percentage by 100, or move the decimal point two spots to the left. $245\% = 245. \% 245\% \div 100 = 2.45$ Step 2: Compare Our Decimals We now can line up our numbers by their decimal points. We can also add in any extra zeros to make it easier to visually compare. 2.800 0.450 2.450 0.333 Now we can compare the numbers Since 0.45 and 0.333 are the only decimals without a whole number, these two are the smallest (least). We look at the largest place value they have in common, the tenths place. Since 7 in the tenths place is larger than a 6 in the tenths place: 0.45 > 0.333 Step 3: Order Our Decimals 0.333 < 0.45 < 2.45 < 2.8 Now we have to just rewrite our decimals using how they looked originally. 2.8 = 2 4/5 2.45= 245% 0.333 = 3/9 Therefore: 3/9 0.45, 245%, 2 4/5 The order of the numbers from least to greatest is 3/9, 0.45, 245%, 2 4/5

336. Solve for x: x – 8 = 12
     • – 20
     • 4
     • – 8
     • 20

     Correct answer: 20

     When solving equations remember To use Inverse Operations – operations that undo one another. So if subtraction is present, we use addition, etc. What you do to one side you MUST do to the other Your goal is to ISOLATE the variable which means all operations around the given variable must be undone so that it stands alone at one side of the equation Step 1: Combine Any Like Terms In this case, all terms have been combined so the problem stays exactly how it is. x – 8 = 12 Step 1: Remove the Constant Term If there is a number in the equation that is not attached to a variable by multiplication, this is called the constant. The constant is removed by performing the inverse operation of addition or subtraction. Using the reverse order of operations, we would get rid of the subtraction (- 8) in this problem by using the inverse operation to subtraction, which is addition. We add 8 to both sides of the equation. x – 8 + 8 = 12 + 8 Now we have: x = 20

337. Which of the following answer choices was rounded correctly?
     • 5.2857 rounded to the nearest hundredth is 5.286
     • 265.3652 rounded to the nearest thousandth is 265.346
     • 63,872 rounded to the nearest hundred is 64,000
     • 67.291 rounded to the nearest tenth is 67.3

     Correct answer: 67.291 rounded to the nearest tenth is 67.3

     Step 1: Remember Your Rounding Rules Underline the place value you are rounding to. Look to the right of the number you have underlined. If you see a 5-9, the underlined digit goes up by 1. If you see a 0-4, the underlined digit stays the same. Anything to the right of the underlined digit turns to 0. Anything to the left of the underlined digit usually stays the same (unless a 9 was rounded up) Step 2: Check Out Each Answer Choice To Determine Which Was Rounded Correctly Answer Choice A: Answer choice A states that 5.2857 rounded to the nearest hundredth is 5.286. The number was rounded to the thousandth not the hundredth. Therefore this answer choice is not correct. Answer Choice B: Answer choice B states that 265.3652 rounded to the nearest thousandth is 265.346. The final place value is the thousandth, indicating the number was rounded to the correct place. Now we check that the rounding is correct. Underline the Place Value Being Rounded To 265.3652 Look to the right of the underlined digit Since there is a 2 to the right of the underlined digit, the underlined digit of 5 stays the same. Also, any number after 5 turns to zero and any number before it stays the same. Therefore,265.3652 rounds to: 265.3650 Since the zeros after the decimal have no value, we can get rid of them. 265.365 To the nearest whole number 265.3652 rounds to 265.365 not 265.346. Therefore this answer choice is not correct. Answer Choice C: Answer choice C states that 63,872 rounded to the nearest hundred is 64,000. The zeros after the 4 indicates the number was rounded to the nearest thousand not the hundred. Therefore this answer choice is not correct. Answer Choice D Answer choice D states that 67.291 rounded to the nearest tenth is 67.3. The final place value is the tenth, indicating the number was rounded to the correct place. Now we check that the rounding is correct. Underline the Place Value Being Rounded To 67.291 Look to the right of the underlined digit Since there is a 9 to the right of the underlined digit, the underlined digit of 2 goes to 3. Also, any number after 3 turns to zero and any number before it stays the same. Therefore, 67.291 rounds to: 67.300 Since the zeros after the decimal have no value, we can get rid of them. 67.3 This means this answer choice is correct. Therefore the answer is D.

338. Complete the expanded fraction. $\frac{3}{4} = \frac{15}{?}$
     • $\frac{15}{12}$
     • $\frac{15}{16}$
     • $\frac{15}{18}$
     • $\frac{15}{20}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{15}{20}$

     Step 1: Determine the multiplier between the fractions. Equivalent fractions require both the numerator and denominator to be multiplied by the same number. Since we have both numerators we can determine the multiplier by figuring out: $3 \times$ ___ = 15. Since we know that $3 \times 5 = 15,$ we know that the multiplier is 5. Step 2: Multiply the numerator or denominator by the multiplier to find the missing number. Now we can multiply the denominator we have by $5. 4 \times 5 = 20$ This means the missing denominator is 20.

339. Which fraction makes the equation true? $\frac{1}{2} = \frac{8}{?}$
     • $\frac{8}{16}$
     • $\frac{8}{4}$
     • $\frac{8}{2}$
     • $\frac{8}{8}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{8}{16}$

     Step 1: Determine the multiplier between the fractions. Equivalent fractions require both the numerator and denominator to be multiplied by the same number. Since we have both numerators we can determine the multiplier by figuring out: $1 \times$ ___ = 8. Since we know that $1 \times 8 = 8,$ we know that the multiplier is 8. Step 2: Multiply the numerator or denominator by the multiplier to find the missing number. Now we can multiply the denominator we have by $8. 2 \times 8 = 16$ This means that the missing denominator is 16.

340. What is $\frac{15}{50}$ in its simplest form?
     • $\frac{1}{5}$
     • $\frac{10}{30}$
     • $\frac{3}{10}$
     • $\frac{5}{20}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{3}{10}$

     Step 1: Find a Common Factor of the Numerator and Denominator If we are unable to think of the Greatest Common Factor, we can think of a common factor between the numerator and denominator. Since the numerator and denominator both end with either a 0 or a 5, they share a common factor of 5. Step 2: Divide the Numerator and Denominator by a Common Factor or Greatest Common Factor In order to simplify fractions, we must divide the numerator and denominator by the same number. $(15 \div 5)$/$(50 \div 5) = 3$/10 Since 3 and 10 have a greatest common factor of 1, this fraction is fully simplified.

341. What is $\frac{75}{200}$ in its simplest form?
     • $\frac{3}{8}$
     • $\frac{15}{40}$
     • $\frac{1}{3}$
     • $\frac{5}{16}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{3}{8}$

     Step 1: Find a Common Factor of the Numerator and Denominator If we are unable to think of the Greatest Common Factor, we can think of a common factor between the numerator and denominator. Since the numerator and denominator both end in either 0 or 5, they share a common factor of 5. Step 2: Divide the Numerator and Denominator by a Common Factor or Greatest Common Factor In order to simplify fractions, we must divide the numerator and denominator by the same number. $(75 \div 5)$/$(200 \div 5) = 15$/40 Step 3: Repeat Steps Until the Greatest Common Factor Between the Numerator and Denominator is 1. Since the numerator and denominator both end in 0 or 5, we can continue simplifying. Looking at 15 and 40, both have a common factor of 5, so we will divide the numerator and denominator by $5. (15 \div 5)$/$(40 \div 5) = 3$/8 Since 3 and 8 have a greatest common factor of 1, this fraction is fully simplified.

342. Convert $\frac{35}{17}$ into a mixed number.
     • $3\frac{5}{17}$
     • $2\frac{1}{17}$
     • $3\frac{16}{17}$
     • $2\frac{1}{35}$

     Correct answer: $2\frac{1}{17}$

     Step 1: Divide the numerator by the denominator You can use long division or a calculator to solve $35 \div 17$ but focus first on just the whole number in the answer. The denominator 17 goes into 35 a total of 2 whole times leaving a remainder of 1. Step 2: Place the remainder over the denominator of the fraction from the problem In this case, we have 1 part of a seventeenth (the original denominator of the problem), the fraction is 1/17. Step 3: Combine the results from steps 1 and 2 The improper fraction 35/17 as a mixed number is 2 1/17. 35/$17 = 35 \div 17 = 2 1$/17

343. Solve $\frac{1}{6} + \frac{7}{9}$
     • $1\frac{7}{8}$
     • $\frac{7}{54}$
     • $\frac{17}{18}$
     • $\frac{8}{15}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{17}{18}$

     Step 1: Find the Least Common Multiple of the denominators Since 6 and 9 are the denominators of the fractions, we will find the LCM of 6 and 9. Factors of 6: 6, 12, 18, 24, 30 9: 9, 18, 27, 36 The least common multiple of 6 and 9 is 18. Step 2: Create equivalent fractions using the LCM as the new denominator Each fraction will now have a denominator of 18. Let’s start with 1/6 . Since $6 \times 3 = 18,$ we have to multiply the numerator by the same number. 1/$6 = (1 \times 3)$/$(6 \times 3) = 3$/18 Let’s create an equivalent fraction for 7/9 with 18 as the new denominator. Since $9 \times 2 = 18,$ we will multiply the numerator by the same number. 7/$9 = (7 \times 2)$/$(9 \times 2) = 14$/18 Step 3: Add the fractions together (simplify or convert to a mixed number if necessary) Since our fractions now have the same denominator we can add them together. 3/18 + 14/18 = (3+14)/18 = 17/18

344. Solve 23.245 + 61.534
     • 84.588
     • 84.779
     • 38.289
     • 48.779

     Correct answer: 84.779

     Step 1: Line up the numbers by their decimal point. 23.245 + 61.534 is equal to 84.779.

345. 3 + 17 – 19 + 7 – 4
     • 27
     • 38
     • 4
     • 25

     Correct answer: 4

     Step 1: Simplify Using Addition and Subtraction Since the expression only has addition and subtraction, we will do the operations from left to right starting with whichever operation comes first on the left until we arrive at an answer. 3 + 17 -1 9 + 7 – 4 Becomes: 20 – 19 + 7 – 4 We continue to do the operation on the left first. 20 – 19 + 7 – 4 So it becomes: 1 + 7 – 4 We continue to do the operations on the left first. 1 + 7 – 4 It becomes: 8 – 4 Since there is only one operation left, we solve. 8 – 4 = 4

346. $\frac{5}{8} \div 1\frac{3}{32} =$
     • $1\frac{2}{38}$
     • $\frac{175}{256}$
     • $6\frac{2}{3}$
     • $\frac{4}{7}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{4}{7}$

     Step 1: Convert the mixed number into an improper fraction 1 3/$32= (1 \times 32+3)$/32 = 35/32 Step 2: Set Up Your Problem Using KCF [Keep – Change – Flip] When we divide fractions we set up our problem: 5/$8 \div 35$/32 Then we follow KCF – Keep – Change – Flip. Keep: The first fraction, 5/8 stays the same. Change: The division sign changes to a multiplication sign Flip: The second fraction flips over to become 32/35 The new problem now reads: 5/$8 \times 32$/35 = Step 3: Cross Simplify [If Applicable] When we look at the fractions to cross simplify, we find that 5 & 35 have a common factor of 5, and 32 & 8 have a common factor of 8. We can now reduce the fraction by $5 \times 8. 5$/$8 \times 32$/$35 = (5 \div 5) \times (32 \div 8)$/$(8 \div 8) \times (35 \div 5) = 1 \times 4$/$1 \times 7$ Step 4: Multiply $1 \times 4$/$1 \times 7 = 4$/7 Step 5: Simplify [If Possible] The fraction 4/7 cannot be simplified.

347. What is the fractional equivalent to $15\frac{5}{6}\%$?
     • $\frac{6}{95}$
     • $\frac{19}{120}$
     • $\frac{15}{95}$
     • $\frac{15}{19}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{19}{120}$

     Step 1: Convert the mixed number into an improper fraction. 15 5/$6\% = (15 \times 6+5)$/6% = 95/6 Step 2: Divide by 100 In order to turn a percent into a fraction, we must divide the number of percent by 100. This is the same as multiplying the denominator by 100. 95/$6\% \div 100 \% = 95$/6 x 1/100 = 95/600 Step 3: Simplify the fraction Both 95 and 600 are divisible by 5, so we will divide them both by 5. 95/600 = 95/5/600/5 = 19/120 19/120 is the fractional equivalent to 15 5/6%.

348. If an odd and an even integer are multiplied together, which of the following could be the product?
     • 35
     • 9
     • 26
     • 33

     Correct answer: 26

     Step 1: Remember Multiplication Rules for Odd/Even Numbers. Firstly, we can look at the odd and even rules involving multiplication. Odd Number $\times$ Odd Number = Odd Number Even Number $\times$ Even Number = Even Number Odd Number $\times$ Even Number = Even Number Step 2: Interpret the Information. We know that our answer has to be an even integer, which means a whole number ending in a 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8, the only answer choice that could potentially be the answer to this problem would be 26.

349. 212 is what percent of 848?
     • 4%
     • 0.25%
     • 25%
     • 1797.8%

     Correct answer: 25%

     Step 1: Divide the Part (Non-100%) by the Whole (100%) In order to find the percentage, we have to divide the part we have by the total amount. In this case, the non-100% part that we have, 212, will be divided by 100%, which is $848. 212 \div 848 = 0.25$ Since the resulting decimal terminates at the second place value, there is no further work to be done to the decimal. Step 2: Multiply by 100 Now that we have our decimal, we have to turn it into a percent. Remember, we turn a decimal into a percent by multiplying it by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal point two spots to the right. $0.25 \times 100 = 25\% 212$ is 25% of 848.

350. Which fraction makes the equation true? $\frac{3}{?} = \frac{6}{10}$
     • $\frac{3}{7}$
     • $\frac{3}{24}$
     • $\frac{3}{5}$
     • $\frac{3}{20}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{3}{5}$

     Step 1: Determine the multiplier between the fractions. Equivalent fractions require both the numerator and denominator to be multiplied by the same number. Since we have both numerators we can determine the multiplier by figuring out: $3 \times$ ___ = 6. Since we know that $3 \times 2 = 6,$ we know that the multiplier is 2. Step 2: Multiply the numerator or denominator by the multiplier to find the missing number. Now we can multiply the denominator we need by 2. ? $\times 2 = 10$ This means the missing denominator is 5.

351. There are 68 seats on the bus. $\frac{3}{4}$ of them are occupied. How many seats are occupied on this bus?
     • 51
     • 17
     • 21
     • 22

     Correct answer: 51

     Step 1: Interpret the problem and set up an equation In this problem, we know that there are 68 seats on the bus and 3/4 of them are occupied. This means that some of the seats are occupied. We also see the keywords “of them” which is a hint that this problem involves multiplication. The Equation will be: $68 \times 3$/4 Remember, when multiplying by a fraction less than one whole, your product will decrease (be less than 68) Step 2: Solve the Equation In order to multiply, we just need to set up our fractions. $68 \times (3/4)$ Since 68 is a whole number, we can put a denominator of 1 underneath it. $(68/1) \times (3/4)$ Now we can solve: $(68 \times 3)$/$(1 \times 4)$ Which is equal to: (204/4) Step 3: Simplify if Necessary 204/4 is telling us to do: $204 \div 4$ Which is equal to: 51 There were 51 seats occupied on the bus.

352. It takes 8.25 hours to travel 495 miles in your car. What is the average number of miles travelled per hour?
     • 45.5
     • 80
     • 55.7
     • 60

     Correct answer: 60

     Step 1: Interpret the Problem First, we must understand what is happening in this situation. We know how long it takes for the car to travel the given distance. To find the average number of miles travelled per hour, we need to take the ratio of the distance travelled to the time it takes to travel that distance so, we have a division problem. Step 2: Set Up Your Problem We need to divide 495 by $8.25. 495 \div 8.25$ We have to convert the divisor, i.e., 6.3, into a whole number by moving the decimal point 2 units to the right. The divisor becomes 825. We then move the decimal point 2 decimal places to the right in the dividend, i.e.,495 becomes 49500. The new division problem that we have to work out then becomes $49500 \div 850.$ Step 3: Divide Like Normal Since the remainder is 0, the quotient of 60 is our answer. So, the average velocity is 60 miles per hour.

353. A patient was prescribed 40 milligrams of medication by their doctor. Upon further review, their doctor decided to reduce the amount of medication by 40%. How many milligrams of medication are in the new prescription?
     • 40 milligrams
     • 16 milligrams
     • 56 milligrams
     • 24 milligrams

     Correct answer: 24 milligrams

     Step 1: Interpret the problem In this problem, we can see that the patient’s doctor decided to reduce the amount of medication prescribed, so our answer has to be less than 40 milligrams. If he reduced the prescription by 40%, that means that the patient is still receiving 40% of the original dosage of medication. 100% (Full Amount) – 40% (Amount Reduced) = 60% (New Prescription Amount) We are trying to find 60% of 40 milligrams. Using the keywords “60% OF 40” means that we are going to be using multiplication in this problem. Step 2: Convert our percent to a decimal We do not use actual percentages when solving math problems so we have to change 60% into a decimal In order to change a percent into a decimal, we divide the percent by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal two spots to the left. Since there is no decimal in 60, we assume it is to the right of the ones place, so: 60% = 60. % Now we can slide the decimal point two spaces left. 60.% → 0.60 60% as a decimal is 0.60. Remember, zeros at the end of a number after a decimal do not add any value, so we can just write it as 0.6. 0.60 = 0.6 Step 3: Solve Now that our percent has been turned into a decimal we can multiply: $0.6 \times 40 = 24$ The new prescription has 24 milligrams of medication.

354. Solve $28 \times 1.46$
     • 5.204
     • 40.88
     • 19.178
     • 26.54

     Correct answer: 40.88

     Step 1: Set up your problem Remember, with decimals, we pretend as if the decimals are not there. We do not line up numbers by their decimal point. Step 2: Multiply like normal Step 3: Put the decimal place in the right location. Since there are 2 numbers to the right of the decimal point in the problem, there will be 2 numbers that are behind the decimal in the product. Therefore, the decimal point goes between 0 and $8. 40.88 28 \times 1.46$ is equal to 40.88

355. A camp supervisor buys 13 packs of soda with each pack containing 12 cans of soda. How many cans of soda did the camp supervisor buy?
     • 156
     • 122
     • 120
     • 136

     Correct answer: 156

     Step 1: Interpret the Situation In this situation, we have the number of packs of soda that the supervisor buys, which is 13. We also know that one pack of soda has 12 cans in it. We need to find the total number of cans in 13 packs. Therefore, this is a multiplication problem. Step 2: Set Up The Problem We will use the following setup: total of cans of soda = 13 packs x 12 cans in 1 pack Step 3: Solve total of cans of soda = 13 packs x 12 cans in 1 pack 13 x 12 = 156 To get the total number of cans of soda the supervisor buys, we have to multiply the packs of soda (13) by the number of cans in each pack (12). The supervisor buys 156 cans of soda.

356. Convert $5\frac{7}{11}$ into an improper fraction
     • $\frac{55}{7}$
     • $\frac{82}{11}$
     • $\frac{12}{11}$
     • $\frac{62}{11}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{62}{11}$

     Step 1: Multiply the whole number by the denominator We have 5 wholes with 11 pieces in each whole, so we multiply these two to find the number of pieces we have in the five wholes. $5 \times 11 = 55$ Step 2: Add the number obtained in the first step to the numerator. We have 7 additional pieces left over, so we need to add them to the number we got in Step 1. 55 + 7 = 62 Step 3: Place the number obtained in the second step as a numerator and keep the denominator as it is. Now, we found how many eleventh pieces we have in total: 62 elevenths pieces. This is denoted as 62/11. The mixed number 5 7/11 as an improper fraction is 62/11. 5 & 7/$11 = 5 \times 11+7$/11 = 62/11

357. There are 600 students in a school. If 30% of the students speak Spanish, how many Spanish speakers are in the school?
     • 60 people
     • 240 people
     • 180 people
     • 30 people

     Correct answer: 180 people

     Step 1: We have to find the population of Spanish speakers in a school with 600 students, given that 30% of the student body speaks Spanish. This is the same as asking the question, what is 30% of 600? The first step will be to convert the percent into a decimal. 30% = 30/100 = 0.3 Step 2: The next step is to multiply the total number of students by the decimal from the previous step. $0.3 \times 600 = 180$ There are 180 Spanish-speaking students at the school.

358. Order the following fractions from least to greatest: $\frac{7}{12}$ ; $1\frac{2}{9}$ ; $\frac{1}{3}$
     • 1 2/9 ; 7/12 ; 1/3
     • 7/12 ; 1/3 ; 1 2/9
     • 1/3 ; 7/12 ; 1 2/9
     • 1/3 ; 1 2/9 ; 7/12

     Correct answer: 1/3 ; 7/12 ; 1 2/9

     Step 1: Organize and sort our numbers into groups Since these numbers are all positive, we do not need to sort them into positive and negative numbers. We can group the positive numbers by using any whole numbers in front. Fractions Less than 1 Whole: 7/12 and 1/3 We have to compare two fractions less than one (Step 2). Fractions Greater than 1 Whole: 1 2/9 Because 1 2/9 is the only mixed number greater than one whole, it is the greatest. Step 2: Compare fractions using Common Denominators & Equivalent Fractions We are comparing the fractions 7/12 and 1/3 Let’s find the Least Common Multiple of 12 and 3 first: Multiples of 12: 12, 24, 36, 48 Multiples of 3: 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 LCM: 12 7/12 already has the denominator of 12. For 1/3 we create an equivalent fraction with 12 as the new denominator. Since $3 \times 4 = 12,$ we also multiply the numerator by $4 (1 \times 4)$/$(3 \times 4) = 4$/12 Now we can compare: 7/12 is larger than 4/12 therefore 7/12 is larger than 1/3 Step 3: Organize our fractions from least to greatest. 1/3 is smaller than 7/12 1 2/9 was already the greatest The order of the fractions from least to greatest is 1/3 ; 7/12 ; 1 2/9

359. Write 7.409 as a fraction.
     • $7\frac{1000}{409}$
     • $7\frac{409}{100}$
     • $7\frac{1000}{409}$
     • $7\frac{409}{1000}$

     Correct answer: $7\frac{409}{1000}$

     Step 1: Read the Decimal Out Loud A few reminders: a. We read everything to the left of the decimal by itself. b. The decimal says the word “and”. c. We then read everything to the right of the decimal. d. We end it by saying the place value of the last number. Therefore, 7.409 is said as: Seven and Four Hundred Nine Thousandths Step 2: Write the Fraction You Read Out Loud Seven came before the decimal, so that’s your whole number, 7. We also said four hundred nine thousandths out loud. Four hundred nine would be our numerator and one thousand would be our denominator. 409/1000 Let’s check and see if the fraction can be simplified. Because the only factor that 409 and 1000 have in common is 1, the fraction is completely simplified. Step 3: Combine the Whole Number and the Fraction Just combine 7 and 409/1000 7 409/1000 7.409 is 7 409/1000 when written as a fraction.

360. What is $\frac{18}{32}$ in its simplest form?
     • $\frac{3}{5}$
     • $\frac{9}{16}$
     • $\frac{1}{2}$
     • $\frac{1}{3}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{9}{16}$

     Step 1: Find a Common Factor of the Numerator and Denominator If we are unable to think of the Greatest Common Factor, we can think of a common factor between the numerator and denominator. Since the numerator and denominator are both even, they share a common factor of 2. Step 2: Divide the Numerator and Denominator by a Common Factor or Greatest Common Factor In order to simplify fractions, we must divide the numerator and denominator by the same number. $(18 \div 2)$/$(32 \div 2) = 9$/16 Since 9 and 16 have a greatest common factor of 1, this fraction is fully simplified.

361. Write 51% as a decimal.
     • 510
     • 0.051
     • 5.1
     • 0.51

     Correct answer: 0.51

     Step 1: Divide the Decimal by 100 The only step to turn a percent into a decimal is to divide the percentage by 100. This is the same as moving the decimal point two spaces to the left. Remember, whole numbers always have a decimal point to the right of the ones place. 51% = 51.% Now we can divide by 100 or move the decimal point two spaces to the left. $51 \div 100 = 0.51$

362. Order from least to greatest: 208%, $\frac{8}{15}$, 0.23, $1\frac{5}{8}$
     • 0.23, 8/15, 1 5/8, 208%
     • 208%, 0.23, 8/15, 1 5/8
     • 0.23, 208%, 1 5/8, 8/15
     • 8/15, 0.23, 208%, 1 5/8

     Correct answer: 0.23, 8/15, 1 5/8, 208%

     Step 1: Turn All Numbers into Decimals By turning all numbers into decimals, we can easily compare the numbers to one another. Just remember to keep track of each decimal in its original form. Let’s start with 8/15. In order to turn a fraction into a decimal, we divide the numerator by the denominator. We usually only need to go to 3 or 4 decimal places. 8/$15 = 8 \div 15 = 0.5333$… Because 0.5333 is a repeating decimal, we can round to 0.533 for our needs. Next let’s skip over to 1 5/8 since 0.23 is already a decimal. We can keep the whole number to the side, and just focus on turning 5/8 into a decimal. 5/$8 = 5 \div 8 = 0.625$ Finally let’s turn 208% into a decimal. Remember, in order to turn a percent into a decimal, we divide the percentage by 100, or move the decimal point two spots to the left. $208\% = 208. \% 208\% \div 100 = 2.08$ Step 2: Compare Our Decimals We now can line up our numbers by their decimal points. We can also add in any extra zeros to make it easier to visually compare. 2.080 0.533 0.230 1.625 Now we can compare the numbers. Since 0.533 and 0.23 are the only decimals without a whole number, these two are the smallest (least). We look at the largest place value they have in common, the tenths place. Since 5 in the tenths place is larger than a 2 in the tenths place: 0.533 > 0.23 With the last two decimals, we know that 1 whole is less than 2 wholes so: 1.625 < 2.08 Step 3: Order Our Decimals 0.23 < 0.533 < 1.625 < 2.08 Now we have to just rewrite our decimals using how they looked originally. 0.533 = 8/15 1.625 = 1 5/8 2.08 = 208% Therefore: 0.23, 8/15, 1 5/8, 208% The order of the numbers from least to greatest is 0.23, 8/15, 1 5/8, 208%.

363. Solve for x: 6x – 10 + 2x + 22 = 28
     • 7.5
     • 5
     • -1
     • 2

     Correct answer: 2

     When solving equations remember to use: Inverse Operations – operations that undo one another. So if subtraction is present, we use addition, etc. What we do to one side we MUST do to the other Our goal is to ISOLATE the variable which means to have JUST one of the variables. Step 1: Combine Any Like Terms In this problem, we are first going to rearrange the equation so that we can combine all the whole numbers and all terms with the same variable. Also, remember to include the sign IN FRONT of each term. 6x – 10 + 2x + 22 = 28 If we rearrange, it becomes: 6x + 2x – 10 + 22 = 28 This simplifies to: 8x + 12 = 28 Step 2: Solve the Equation When we solve equations, we can start by applying the inverse of the constant term on both sides of the equation. The constant is the term with no variable attached to it. We see that 12 is being added to 8x, the 12 is the constant term because there is no x attached, so we have to undo addition using subtraction. Therefore we are going to subtract 12 from both sides. 8x + 12 – 12 = 28 – 12 Which then becomes: 8x = 16 Now we can solve: Since 8 is being multiplied by x, we have to undo the multiplication using division. Therefore we are going to divide both sides by 8. (8x/8) = (16/8) This simplifies to: 1x = 2 Since 1x and x are the same thing, our final answer is: x = 2

364. 24 is 60% of what number?
     • 40
     • 9.6
     • 60
     • 14.4

     Correct answer: 40

     Step 1: Turn The Percent Into a Decimal We never use percentages in our actual math problems, so we first must turn our percentages into a decimal. To turn a percentage into a decimal, we divide by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal point two spaces to the left. $60\% = 60.\% 60.\% \div 100 = 0.60 60\%$ as a decimal is 0.60. Remember, zeros at the end of a number after a decimal do not add any value, so we can just write it as 0.6. 0.60 = 0.6 Step 2: Divide the Amount by the Decimal Since we are dealing with decimals, we have to remember our decimal multiplication and division rules. When dividing by a number less than one whole, our amount will increase. When multiplying by a number less than one whole, our amount will decrease. We know 24 = 60%, and that we are looking for the value that represents 100%. This means whatever 100% is, will be larger than 24. To determine the value that represents 100% we can always use: Given Amount $\div$ Decimal = Amount that represents $100\% 24 \div 0.6 = 40 24$ is 60% of 40.

365. Solve for x: x + 7 = 14
     • – 7
     • 7
     • 21
     • 2

     Correct answer: 7

     When solving equations remember To use Inverse Operations – operations that undo one another. So if subtraction is present, we use addition, etc. What you do to one side you MUST do to the other Your goal is to ISOLATE the variable which means all operations around the given variable must be undone so that it stands alone at one side of the equation Step 1: Combine Any Like Terms In this case, all terms have been combined so the problem stays exactly how it is. x + 7 = 14 Step 2: Remove the Constant Term If there is a number in the equation that is not attached to a variable by multiplication, this is called the constant. The constant is removed by performing the inverse operation of addition or subtraction. Using the reverse order of operations, we would get rid of the addition (+7) in this problem by using the inverse operation to addition, which is subtraction. We subtract 7 from both sides of the equation. x + 7 – 7 = 14 – 7 Now we have: x = 7

366. Solve 42.35 + 35.28
     • 77.63
     • 7.07
     • 77.67
     • 77.53

     Correct answer: 77.63

     Step 1: Line up the numbers by their decimal point. 42.35 + 35.28 Now all of our place values are lined up. Step 2: Add like normal. Regroup if necessary. 42.35 + 35.28 is equal to 77.63.

367. Solve 85.76 – 23.54
     • 109.3
     • 62.22
     • 62.32
     • 26.22

     Correct answer: 62.22

     Step 1: Line up the numbers by their decimal point. 85.76 – 23.54 Now all of our place values are lined up. Step 2: Subtract like normal. 85.76 – 23.54 is equal to 62.22.

368. Solve $5.3 \times 2.46$
     • 2.28
     • 2.154
     • 7.76
     • 13.038

     Correct answer: 13.038

     Step 1: Set up your problem Remember, with decimals, we pretend as if the decimals are not there. We do not line up numbers by their decimal point. Step 2: Multiply like normal Step 3: Put the decimal place in the right location. Since there are a total of 3 numbers to the right of the two decimal points in the problem, there will be 3 numbers that are behind the decimal in the product. Therefore, the decimal point goes between 3 and $0. 13.038 5.3 \times 2.46$ is equal to 13.038

369. Solve $8.5 \times 6$
     • 14.5
     • 51
     • 1.417
     • 49

     Correct answer: 51

     Step 1: Set up your problem Remember, with decimals, we pretend as if the decimals are not there. We do not line up numbers by their decimal point. Step 2: Multiply like normal Step 3: Put the decimal place in the right location. Since there is only 1 number to the right of the decimal point in the problem, there will be 1 number that is behind the decimal in the product. Therefore, the decimal point goes between 1 and 0. 51.0. Since the 0 is after the decimal point, it can also be dropped since it has no value. $8.5 \times 6$ is equal to 51

370. A hobby store sells the cloth material you need to make blankets and curtains. Each blanket is 8.5 feet long and each curtain is 4 feet long. If you make 6 blankets and 3 curtains, how many feet of cloth material should you purchase from the hobby store?
     • 49.5
     • 63
     • 100
     • 112.5

     Correct answer: 63

     Step 1: Interpret the problem First, we must understand what is happening in this situation. To find how much of the cloth material you should purchase, add the total length of cloth needed to make blankets to the total length needed to make curtains. Step 2: Total length of blankets and curtains Total Length of Blanket To find the total length of cloth needed to make the blankets we can multiply the length of each blanket by the number of blankets. Remember, with decimals, we pretend as if the decimals are not there. We do not line up numbers by their decimal point. 8.5 ✖ 6 Multiply Like Normal Put the Decimal Place in the Right Location Since there is 1 number to the right of the decimal point in the problem, there will be 1 number that is behind the decimal in the product. Therefore, the decimal point goes between 1 and 0. 51.0 Since the 0 is after the decimal point, it can also be dropped since it has no value. So, 51 feet of cloth will be needed to make the blankets. Total Length of Curtains To find the total length of cloth needed to make the curtains we can multiply the length of each curtain by the number of curtains. So, 12 feet of cloth will be needed to make the curtains. Step 3: Calculate how much cloth material you should purchase Add the total lengths of material needed to make the blankets and curtains to find the amount of cloth material you should purchase. 51+ 12=63 So, you should purchase 63 feet of the cloth material.

371. Solve 13.54 + 12.23
     • 27.57
     • 25.77
     • 26.77
     • 1.31

     Correct answer: 25.77

     Step 1: Line up the numbers by their decimal point. 13.54 + 12.23 Now all of our place values are lined up. 13.54 + 12.23 is equal to 25.77.

372. 7 + 9 – 5 + 6 – 4
     • 13
     • 12
     • 18
     • 17

     Correct answer: 13

     Step 1: Simplify Using Addition and Subtraction Since the expression only has addition and subtraction, we will do the operations from left to right, starting with whichever operation comes first on the left until we arrive at an answer. 7 + 9 – 5 + 6 – 4 Becomes: 16 – 5 + 6 – 4 We continue to do the operation on the left first. 16 – 5 + 6 – 4 So it becomes: 11 + 6 – 4 We continue to do the operation that comes first on the left: 11 + 6 – 4 So it becomes: 17 – 4 Since there is only one operation left, we solve. 17 – 4 = 13

373. If two odd integers are multiplied together, which of the following could be the product?
     • 60
     • 26
     • 22
     • 15

     Correct answer: 15

     Step 1: Remember Multiplication Rules for Odd/Even Numbers. Firstly, we can look at the odd and even rules involving multiplication. Odd Number $\times$ Odd Number = Odd Number Even Number $\times$ Even Number = Even Number Odd Number $\times$ Even Number = Even Number Step 2: Interpret the Information. Since we know that our answer has to be an odd integer, which means a whole number ending in a 1, 3, 5, 7, or 9, the only answer choice that could potentially be the answer to this problem would be 15.

374. Convert $3\frac{5}{7}$ into an improper fraction.
     • $\frac{21}{5}$
     • $\frac{21}{7}$
     • $\frac{40}{7}$
     • $\frac{26}{7}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{26}{7}$

     Step 1: Multiply the whole number by the denominator We have 3 wholes with 7 pieces in each whole so we multiply these two to find the number of pieces we have in the three wholes. $3 \times 7 = 21$ Step 2: Add the number obtained in the first step to the numerator. We have 5 additional pieces left over, so we need to add them to the number we got in Step 1. 21+ 5 = 26 Step 3: Place the number obtained in the second step as a numerator and keep the denominator as it is. Now, we found how many seventh pieces we have in total: 26 sevenths pieces. This is denoted as 26/7. The mixed number 3 5/7 as an improper fraction is 26/7. 3 5/$7 = 3 \times 7+5$/7 = 26/7

375. Complete the expanded fraction. $\frac{2}{3} = \frac{?}{12}$
     • $\frac{9}{12}$
     • $\frac{8}{12}$
     • $\frac{7}{12}$
     • $\frac{6}{12}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{8}{12}$

     Step 1: Determine the multiplier between the fractions Equivalent fractions require both the numerator and denominator to be multiplied by the same number. Since we have both denominators we can determine the multiplier by figuring out: $3 \times$ ___ = 12 Since we know that $3 \times 4 = 12,$ we know that the multiplier is 4. Step 2: Multiply the numerator or denominator by the multiplier to find the missing number. Now we can multiply the numerator we have by $4. 2 \times 4 = 8$ This means the missing numerator is 8.

376. Solve $4.2 \times 0.35$
     • 1.47
     • 0.083
     • 3.85
     • 12

     Correct answer: 1.47

     Step 1: Set up your problem Remember, with decimals, we pretend as if the decimals are not there. We do not line up numbers by their decimal point. $4.2 \times 0.35$ Step 2: Multiply like normal Step 3: Put the decimal place in the right location. Since there are a total of 3 numbers to the right of the two decimal points in the problem, there will be 3 numbers that are behind the decimal in the product. Therefore, the decimal point goes between the 1 and the 4. 1.470. Since the 0 is after the decimal point, it can also be dropped since it has no value. $4.2 \times 0.35$ is equal to 1.47.

377. Joanah buys 42 packs of breath mints each containing 18 mints each. How many breath mints did Joanah buy?
     • 747
     • 756
     • 720
     • 784

     Correct answer: 756

     Step 1: Interpret the Situation In this situation, we have the number of packs of breath mints that Joanah buys, 42. We also know that one pack of mints has 18 mints in it. We need to find the total number of mints in 42 packs. Therefore, this is a multiplication problem. Step 2: Set Up The Problem We will use the following setup: total of breath mints = 42 packs x 18 mints in 1 pack Step 3: Solve total of breath mints = 42 packs x 18 mints in 1 pack 42 x 18 = 756 To get the total number of mints Joanah buys, we have to multiply the packs of breath mints (42) by the number of breath mints in each pack (18). Joanah buys 756 breath mints.

378. What is $\frac{12}{24}$ in its simplest form?
     • $\frac{1}{3}$
     • $\frac{6}{12}$
     • $\frac{1}{2}$
     • $\frac{4}{12}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{1}{2}$

     Step 1: Find a Common Factor of the Numerator and Denominator If we are unable to think of the Greatest Common Factor, we can think of a common factor between the numerator and denominator. Since the numerator and denominator are both even, they share a common factor of 2. Step 2: Divide the Numerator and Denominator by a Common Factor or Greatest Common Factor In order to simplify fractions, we must divide the numerator and denominator by the same number. $(12 \div 2)$/$(24 \div 2) = (6/12)$ Step 3: Repeat Steps Until the Greatest Common Factor Between the Numerator and Denominator is 1. Since the numerator and denominator are both even, we can continue simplifying. In looking at 6 and 12, both have a common factor of 6, so we will divide the numerator and denominator by $6. (6 \div 6)$/$(12 \div 6) = 1$/2 Since 1 and 2 have a greatest common factor of 1, this fraction is fully simplified.

379. $\frac{2}{7} \times \frac{5}{6} =$
     • $\frac{5}{21}$
     • $\frac{7}{13}$
     • $\frac{10}{21}$
     • $\frac{12}{35}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{5}{21}$

     Step 1: Cross Simplify [If Applicable] When we look to cross simplify, we find that 2 and 6 have a common factor of 2. We can now reduce the fraction by 2. 2/$7 \times 5$/$6 = (2 \div 2) \times 5$/$7 \times (6 \div 2) = 1 \times 5$/$7 \times 3$ Step 2: Multiply $1 \times 5$/$7 \times 3 = 5$/21 Step 3: Simplify [If Possible] The fraction 5/21 cannot be simplified.

380. Joy, Marcy, Lily, and Ivy ran in a relay race. Marcy ran her leg in the race in 32 seconds. Joy ran her leg in 38.63 seconds, and Lily ran hers in 38.25 seconds. It took Ivy 1.2 times longer to run her leg than it took for Marcy to run hers. What is the average time it took for each person to run each leg of the race?
     • 27.22
     • 36.29
     • 38.4
     • 36.82

     Correct answer: 36.82

     Step 1: Interpret the problem First, we must understand what is happening in this situation. To find the average time it took to run the race we need to find the total time it took all the girls to run the race and divide it by 4 (since there were 4 girls that ran the race). Before finding the total time we must find the time it took Ivy to run her leg of the race. Step 2: The Time it Took Ivy to Run Her Leg of the Race Multiply the time it took Marcy to run her leg of the race by 1.2 to find the time it took Ivy to run her leg of the race. Remember, with decimals, we pretend as if the decimals are not there. We do not line up numbers by their decimal point. Multiply Like Normal $32 \times 1.2$ Put the Decimal Place in the Right Location Since there is 1 number to the right of the decimal point in the problem, there will be 1 number that is behind the decimal in the product. Therefore, the decimal point goes between the 8 and the 4. 38.4 So, it took Ivy 38.4 seconds to run her leg of the race. Step 3: Total Time it Took to Run the Race First, find the total time it takes for all the girls to run the race. We will add the four numbers together to find the total time. Remember, when we add or subtract decimals we must line the numbers up by their decimal point. 32 + 38.63 + 38.25 + 38.4 Add like normal. Step 4: Average Time it Took to Run Each Leg of the Race Now divide the total time by 4 to find the average time. $147.28 \div 4$ Divide Like Normal Since the remainder is 0, the quotient of 36.82 is our answer. So, the average time it took to run each leg of the race was 36.82 seconds.

381. Solve $\frac{5}{8} + \frac{1}{5}$
     • $\frac{6}{13}$
     • $1\frac{7}{33}$
     • $\frac{5}{40}$
     • $\frac{33}{40}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{33}{40}$

     Step 1: Find the Least Common Multiple of the denominators Since 8 and 5 are the denominators of the fractions, we will find the LCM of 8 and 5. Factors of: 8: 8, 16, 24, 32, 40 5: 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40 The least common multiple of 8 and 5 is 40. Step 2: Create equivalent fractions using the LCM as the new denominator Each fraction will now have a denominator of 40. Let’s start with 5/8 . Since $8 \times 5 = 40,$ we have to multiply the numerator by the same number. 5/$8 = (5 \times 5)$/$(8 \times 5) = 25$/40 Let’s create an equivalent fraction for 1/5 with 40 a the new denominator. Since $5 \times 8 = 40,$ we will multiply the numerator by the same number. 1/$5 = (1 \times 8)$/$(5 \times 8) = 8$/40 Step 3: Add the fractions together (simplify or convert to a mixed number if necessary) Since our fractions now have the same denominator we can add them together. 25/40 + 8/40 = (25+8)/40 = 33/40

382. Dr. Harris prescribed 60 milligrams of medication. Upon further review, Dr. Harris decided to reduce the amount of medication by 25%. How many milligrams of medication are in the new prescription?
     • 45 milligrams
     • 60 milligrams
     • 25 milligrams
     • 15 milligrams

     Correct answer: 45 milligrams

     Step 1: Interpret the problem In this problem, we can see that Dr. Harris decided to reduce the amount of medication prescribed, so our answer has to be less than 60 milligrams. If he reduced the prescription by 25%, that means that the patient is still receiving 75% of the original dosage of medication. 100% (Full Amount) – 25% (Amount Reduced) = 75% (New Prescription Amount) We are trying to find 75% of 60 milligrams. Using the keywords “75% OF 60” means that we are going to be using multiplication in this problem. Step 2: Convert our percent to a decimal We do not use actual percentages when solving math problems so we have to change 75% into a decimal. In order to change a percent into a decimal, we divide the percent by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal two spots to the left. Since there is no decimal in 75, we assume it is to the right of the ones place, so: 75% = 75. % Now we can slide the decimal point two spaces left. 75.% → 0.75 75% as a decimal is 0.75. Step 3: Solve Now that our percent has been turned into a decimal we can multiply: $0.75 \times 60 = 45$ The new prescription has 45 milligrams of medication.

383. Write 8.02 as a fraction.
     • $8\frac{2}{1}$
     • $8\frac{1}{500}$
     • $8\frac{1}{50}$
     • $8\frac{1}{5}$

     Correct answer: $8\frac{1}{50}$

     Step 1: Read the Decimal Out Loud A few reminders: a. We read everything to the left of the decimal by itself. b. The decimal says the word “and”. c. We then read everything to the right of the decimal. d. We end it by saying the place value of the last number. Therefore, 8.02 is said as: Eight and Two Hundredths Step 2: Write the Fraction You Read Out Loud Eight came before the decimal, so that’s our whole number, 8. We also said two hundredths out loud. Two would be our numerator and one hundred would be our denominator. 2/100 Let’s check and see if the fraction can be simplified. 2 and 100 have a factor of 2 in common so we can simplify the fraction by dividing both the numerator and denominator by the Greatest Common Factor, 2. 2/$100 \div 2$/$2 = 2 \div 2$/$100 \div 2 = 1$/50 Step 3: Combine the Whole Number and the Fraction Just combine 8 and 1/50 8 1/50 8.02 is 8 1/50 when written as a fraction.

384. What is the fractional equivalent to $3\frac{3}{4}\%$?
     • $\frac{25}{3}$
     • $\frac{15}{80}$
     • $\frac{3}{80}$
     • $\frac{1}{325}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{3}{80}$

     Step 1: Convert the mixed number into an improper fraction. 3 = 3/$4\% = (3 \times 4+3)$/4%= 15/4% Step 2: Divide by 100 In order to turn a percent into a fraction, we must divide the percentage by 100. This is the same as multiplying the denominator by 100. 15/$4\% \div 100\% = 15$/$(4 \times 100) = 15$/400 Step 3: Simplify the fraction. Both 15 and 400 are divisible by 5, so we will divide them both by 5. 15/400 = 15/5/400/5 = 3/80 3/80 is the fractional equivalent to 3 3/4%.

385. Solve for x: 3x + 10 + x – 2 = 20
     • 2
     • 4
     • 7
     • 3

     Correct answer: 3

     When solving equations remember to use: Inverse Operations – operations that undo one another. So if subtraction is present, we use addition, etc. What we do to one side we MUST do to the other Our goal is to ISOLATE the variable which means to have JUST one of the variables. Step 1: Combine Any Like Terms In this problem, we are first going to rearrange the equation so that we can combine all the whole numbers and all terms with the same variable. Also, remember to include the sign IN FRONT of each term. 3x + 10 + x – 2 = 20 If we rearrange, it becomes: 3x + x + 10 – 2 = 20 This simplifies to: 4x + 8 = 20 Step 2: Solve the Equation When we solve equations, we can start by applying the inverse of the constant term on both sides of the equation. The constant is the term with no variable attached to it. We see that eight is being added to 4x, the 8 is the constant term because there is no x attached, so we have to undo addition using subtraction. Therefore we are going to subtract 8 from both sides. 4x + 8 – 8 = 20 – 8 Which then becomes: 4x = 12 Now we can solve: Since 4 is being multiplied by x, we have to undo the multiplication using division. Therefore we are going to divide both sides by 4. (4x/4) = (12/4) This simplifies to: 1x = 3 Since 1x and x are the same thing, our final answer is: x = 3

386. 118 is what percent of 780?
     • 15.1%
     • 0.15%
     • 6.6%
     • 920.4%

     Correct answer: 15.1%

     Step 1: Divide the Part (Non-100%) by the Whole (100%) In order to find the percentage, we have to divide the part we have by the total amount. In this case, the non-100% part that we have, 118, will be divided by 100%, which is $780. 118 \div 780 = 0.15128205$ We can round this off to the third place value. Check your answer choices to see if numbers were rounded to a different place value. So let’s underline the third place value: 0.15128205 We look to the right, and see a 2. Since a 2 is less than 5, that means the underlined digit stays the same. 0.151 Every other number to the right of the 1 would turn to 0, and since they would have no value, we can get rid of them. Step 2: Multiply by 100 Now that we have our decimal, we have to turn it into a percent. Remember, we turn a decimal into a percent by multiplying it by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal point two spots to the right. $0.151 \times 100 = 15.1\% 118$ is 15.1% of 780.

387. Order from least to greatest: $\frac{2}{3}$, 0.71, $3\frac{1}{4}$, 331%
     • 2/3, 0.71, 331%, 3 1/4
     • 0.71, 2/3, 3 1/4, 331%
     • 2/3, 0.71, 3 1/4, 331%
     • 0.71, 2/3, 331%, 3 1/4

     Correct answer: 2/3, 0.71, 3 1/4, 331%

     Step 1: Turn All Numbers into Decimals By turning all numbers into decimals, we can easily compare the numbers to one another. Just remember to keep track of each decimal in its original form. Let’s start with 2/3. In order to turn a fraction into a decimal, we divide the numerator by the denominator. We usually only need to go to 3 or 4 decimal places. 2/$3 = 2 \div 3 = 0.666$… Because 0.666 is a repeating decimal, we can round to 0.667 for our needs. Next let’s skip over to 3 1/4 since 0.71 is already a decimal. We can keep the whole number to the side, and just focus on turning 1/4 into a decimal. 1/$4 = 1 \div 4 = 0.25$ Finally let’s turn 331% into a decimal. Remember, in order to turn a percent into a decimal, we divide the percentage by 100, or move the decimal point two spots to the left. $333\% = 333. \% 333\% \div 100 = 3.33$ Step 2: Compare Our Decimals We now can line up our numbers by their decimal points. We can also add in any extra zeros to make it easier to visually compare. 0.667 0.710 3.250 3.330 Now we can compare the numbers. Since 0.667 and 0.71 are the only decimals without a whole number, these two are the smallest (least). We look at the largest place value they have in common, the tenths place. Since 7 in the tenths place is larger than a 6 in the tenths place: 0.71 > 0.667 Step 3: Order Our Decimals 0.667 < 0.71 < 3.25 < 3.33 Now we have to just rewrite our decimals using how they looked originally. 0.667 = 2/3 3.25 = 3 1/4 3.33 = 333% Therefore: 2/3, 0.71, 3 1/4, 333% The order of the numbers from least to greatest is 2/3, 0.71, 3 1/4, 333%.

388. x + 10 = 13
     • 130
     • 23
     • 3
     • – 3

     Correct answer: 3

     When solving equations remember To use Inverse Operations – operations that undo one another. So if subtraction is present, we use addition, etc. What you do to one side you MUST do to the other Your goal is to ISOLATE the variable which means all operations around the given variable must be undone so that it stands alone at one side of the equation Step 1: Combine Any Like Terms In this case, all terms have been combined so the problem stays exactly how it is. x + 10 = 13 Step 2: Remove the Constant Term If there is a number in the equation that is not attached to a variable by multiplication, this is called the constant. The constant is removed by performing the inverse operation of addition or subtraction. Using the reverse order of operations, we would get rid of the addition (+10) in this problem by using the inverse operation to addition, which is subtraction. We subtract 10 from both sides of the equation. x + 10 – 10 = 13 – 10 Now we have: x = 3

389. Write 48% as a decimal.
     • 48
     • 0.48
     • 0.021
     • 480

     Correct answer: 0.48

     Step 1: Divide the Decimal by 100 The only step to turn a percent into a decimal is to divide the percentage by 100. This is the same as moving the decimal point two spaces to the left. Remember, whole numbers always have a decimal point to the right of the ones place. 48% = 48.% Now we can divide by 100 or move the decimal point two spaces to the left. $48 \div 100 = 0.48$

390. The girl collected 152 mushrooms. $\frac{3}{8}$ of them turned out to be wormy. How many worm-eaten mushrooms did this girl collect?
     • 114
     • 57
     • 40
     • 19

     Correct answer: 57

     Step 1: Interpret the problem and set up an equation. In this problem, we know that 152 mushrooms were collected and 3/8 of them were wormy. This means that some of the mushrooms were wormy. We also see the keywords “of them” which is a hint that this problem involves multiplication. The Equation will be: $152 \times 3$/8 Remember, when multiplying by a fraction less than one whole, your product will decrease (be less than 152) Step 2: Solve the Equation In order to multiply, we just need to set up our fractions. $152 \times 3$/8 Since 152 is a whole number, we can put a denominator of 1 underneath it. $(152/1) \times (3/8)$ Now we can solve: $(152 \times 3)$/$(1 \times 8)$ Which is equal to: 456/8 Step 3: Simplify if Necessary 456/8 is telling us to do: $456 \div 8$ Which is equal to: 57 The girl collected 57 worm-eaten mushrooms

391. 60 is 40% of what number?
     • 100
     • 24
     • 36
     • 150

     Correct answer: 150

     Step 1: Turn The Percent Into a Decimal We never use percentages in our actual math problems, so we first must turn our percentages into a decimal. To turn a percentage into a decimal, we divide by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal point two spaces to the left. $40\% = 40.\% 40.\% \div 100 = 0.40 40\%$ as a decimal is 0.40. Remember, zeros at the end of a number after a decimal do not add any value, so we can just write it as 0.4. 0.40 = 0.4 Step 2: Divide the Amount by the Decimal Since we are dealing with decimals, we have to remember our decimal multiplication and division rules. When dividing by a number less than one whole, our amount will increase. When multiplying by a number less than one whole, our amount will decrease. We know 60 = 40%, and that we are looking for the value that represents 100%. This means whatever 100% is, will be larger than 60.To determine the value that represents 100% we can always use: Given Amount $\div$ Decimal = Amount that represents $100\% 60 \div 0.4 = 150 60$ is 40% of 150.

392. Order the following fractions from least to greatest: $1\frac{5}{8}$ ; $1\frac{6}{7}$ ; $\frac{2}{5}$
     • 1 6/7 ; 1 5/8 ; 2/5
     • 2/5 ; 1 6/7 ; 1 5/8
     • 2/5 ; 1 5/8 ; 1 6/7
     • 1 5/8 ; 1 6/7 ; 2/5

     Correct answer: 2/5 ; 1 5/8 ; 1 6/7

     Step 1: Organize and sort our numbers into groups Since these numbers are all positive, we do not need to sort into positive and negative numbers. We can group the positive numbers by using any whole numbers in front. Fractions Less than 1 Whole: 2/5 Because 2/5 is the only fraction less than one whole, this fraction is the smallest. Fractions Greater than 1 Whole: 1 5/8 ; 1 6/7 With two mixed numbers with a 1 in front, we have to compare the fractional pieces (Step 2). Step 2: Compare fractions using Common Denominators & Equivalent Fractions We are comparing the fractional pieces of 1 5/8 and 1 6/7 Let’s first find the Least Common Multiple of 8 and 7: Multiples of 8: 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48, 56 Multiples of 7: 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, 42, 56 LCM: 56 Now we create equivalent fractions with 56 as the new denominator. First up: 1 5/8 Since $8 \times 7 = 56,$ we also multiply the numerator by $7 (5 \times 7)$/$(8 \times 7) = 35$/56 Second Up: 1 6/7 Since $7 \times 8 = 56,$ we also multiply the numerator by $8 (6 \times 8)$/$(7 \times 8) = 48$/56 Now we can compare: 48/56 is larger than 35/56 therefore 6/7 is larger than 5/8 Step 3: Organize our fractions from least to greatest. 2/5 was already the smallest 1 5/8 is smaller than 1 6/7 The order of the fractions from least to greatest is 2/5 ; 1 5/8 ; 1 6/7

393. A remote farming community has a population of 260 people. If 25% of the people in the village are seniors, how many seniors live in this community?
     • 1040 people
     • 26 people
     • 195 people
     • 65 people

     Correct answer: 65 people

     Step 1: We have to find the number of seniors in this farming community of 260 people, given that seniors are 25% of the population. This is the same as asking the question, what is 25% of 260? The first step will be to convert the percent into a decimal. 25% = 25/100 = 0.25 Step 2: The next step is to multiply the total population of the town by the decimal from the previous step. $0.25 \times 260 = 65$ There are 65 seniors in the remote farming community.

394. If two even integers are multiplied together, which of the following could be the product?
     • 103
     • 2,012
     • 41
     • 65

     Correct answer: 2,012

     Step 1: Remember Multiplication Rules for Odd/Even Numbers. Firstly, we can look at the odd and even rules involving multiplication. Odd Number $\times$ Odd Number = Odd Number Even Number $\times$ Even Number = Even Number Odd Number $\times$ Even Number = Even Number Step 2: Interpret the Information. We know that our answer has to be an even integer, which means a whole number ending in a 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8, the only answer choice that could potentially be the answer to this problem would be 2,012.

395. If two even integers and one odd integer are multiplied together, which of the following could be the product?
     • 100
     • 3
     • 21
     • 9

     Correct answer: 100

     Step 1: Remember Multiplication Rules for Odd/Even Numbers. Firstly we can look at the odd and even rules involving multiplication. Odd Number $\times$ Odd Number = Odd Number Even Number $\times$ Even Number = Even Number Odd Number $\times$ Even Number = Even Number Step 2: Try an Example Problem Or Interpret The Situation. The situation above says we are multiplying two even integers and one odd integer. Let’s take this step by step. Even Integer $\times$ Even Integer = Even Integer (New Product) Since two even integers multiplied together got us another even integer, we can multiply this new even integer by the remaining odd integer. Even Integer $(New Product) \times$ Odd Integer = Even Integer Step 3: Interpret the Information Since we know that our answer has to be an even integer, which means a whole number ending in a 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8, the only answer choice that could potentially be the answer to this problem would be 100.

396. $5 \times 8 \div 4 \times 2 \div 5$
     • 20
     • 25
     • 4
     • 1

     Correct answer: 4

     Step 1: Simplify Using Multiplication and Division. Since the expression only has division and multiplication, we will do the operations from left to right starting with whichever operation comes first on the left until we arrive at an answer. $5 x 8 \div 4 x 2 \div 5$ Becomes: $40 \div 4 x 2 \div 5$ We continue to do the operation on the left first such that: $40 \div 4 x 2 \div 5$ So, it becomes: $10 x 2 \div 5$ We continue to do the operation on the left first such that : $10 x 2 \div 5$ Then it becomes: $20 \div 5$ Since there is only one operation left, we solve. $20 \div 5 = 4$

397. $5 \times 9 \div 3 \div 3 \times 7$
     • 35
     • 405
     • 315
     • $\frac{15}{21}$

     Correct answer: 35

     Step 1: Simplify Using Multiplication and Division Since the expression only has division and multiplication, we will do the operations from left to right starting with whichever operation comes first on the left until we arrive at an answer. $5 x 9 \div 3 \div 3 x 7$ It becomes: $45 \div 3 \div 3 x 7$ Then: $45 \div 3 \div 3 x 7$ Then it becomes: $15 \div 3 x 7$ We continue with the operation on the left. $15 \div 3 x 7$ It becomes: 5 x 7 Since there is only one operation left, we just solve. 5 x 7 = 35

398. A poultry farmer buys 15 crates of one-day-old chicks. Each crate contains 26 chicks. How many chicks did the farmer buy?
     • 160
     • 274
     • 390
     • 260

     Correct answer: 390

     Step 1: Interpret the Situation In this situation, we have the number of crates of one-day-old chicks that the poultry farmer buys, 15. We also know that one crate of chicks has 26 chicks in it. We need to find the total number of chicks in 15 crates. Therefore, this is a multiplication problem. Step 2: Set Up The Problem We will use the following setup: total number of chicks = 26 chicks in 1 crate x 15 crates Step 3: Solve total number of chicks = 26 chicks in 1 crate x 15 crates 26 x 15 = 390 To get the total number of chicks the farmer buys, we have to multiply the number of chickens in a pack (26) by the number of crates (15) the farmer buys. The farmer buys 390 chicks.

399. Dissolved oxygen (DO) is an important indicator of water quality, and oxygen levels that are too high or too low can harm aquatic ecosystems. A biologist noticed that fish were dying in a local lake and was concerned that the DO levels were too low to support aquatic life due to extremely high temperatures that summer. To measure the DO levels, she brought back several lake water samples to her laboratory to measure the DO concentration as a function of temperature. To do this, she heated several samples of lake water to various temperatures and then measured the DO concentration in each sample. Some samples were kept at the outdoors temperature.
     • Dissolved oxygen concentration
     • The season
     • Temperature
     • Volume of water

     Correct answer: Dissolved oxygen concentration

     Answer: Dissolved oxygen concentration The dependent variable is the variable whose change is being manipulated as the independent variable is changed. Thus, the dependent variable is dependent on changes in the independent variable. In this case, the temperature is modified to determine how it influences the DO concentration. Since the DO concentration is what is actually being measured, it is the dependent variable.

400. A group of students was studying the effects of drinking 8 oz. of milk at 9 p.m. on the amount of sleep they got. Which is the dependent variable?
     • The amount of sleep
     • The time they woke up
     • The bedtime
     • The amount of milk

     Correct answer: The amount of sleep

     Answer: The amount of sleep. In an experiment, the dependent variable is the variable whose response is being measured. The independent variable is changed between control and experimental groups to determine how it affects the dependent variable. Thus, the variable being measured in the scenario above is the amount of sleep after drinking milk.

401. When going to the grocery store, you need to purchase some vegetables, which are sold by weight. Which of the following units would the weight of the vegetables be expressed in?
     • Pascals
     • Kilograms
     • Newtons
     • Coulombs

     Correct answer: Kilograms

     Answer: Kilograms A kilogram is the SI unit of mass. Since vegetables are sold by weight, this would be the most appropriate unit of measurement. Newtons are used to measure forces, Coulombs measure electrical charges, and Pascals measure pressure.

402. Which of the following is not an SI base unit?
     • Kilogram
     • Meter
     • Second
     • Liter

     Correct answer: Liter

     Answer: Liter Although the liter is a metric unit, it is not a base unit. Base units are the units from which all other units are derived. There are seven base units: There are only 7 SI base units, which are fundamental and cannot be broken down any further. They are: Length – meter (m) Time – second (s) Amount of substance - mole (mole) Electric current – ampere (A) Temperature – kelvin (K) Luminous intensity – candela (cd) Mass – kilogram (kg) The SI base unit for length is the meter, and the cubic meter (m3) is the unit used to measure volume. Liters are also used to measure volume, which is derived from length of the base unit (1 L = 1 m3).

403. Which of the following units is derived from SI base units?
     • Dram
     • Pound
     • Mile
     • Kilometer

     Correct answer: Kilometer

     Answer: Kilometer A kilometer is equal to 1,000 meters, which is the SI base unit for length. The pound and mile are based on the Imperial System of measurements, and are used to measure weight and distance, respectively. A dram is equal to $\frac{1}{8}$ of a fluid ounce.

404. In an experiment, a reaction requires 0.006 kg of KCl, but the scale used to measure the mass only reports masses in grams (g). Which of the following values would the scale read if the exact mass of KCl was measured?
     • 60 g
     • 6 g
     • 0.6 g
     • 600 g

     Correct answer: 6 g

     Answer: 6 g Although the kilogram is the SI base unit of mass, most laboratory balances measure masses in grams. This is because it’s very uncommon (and expensive) to use kilogram-scale masses. Since 1 kg is equal to 1,000 g, to convert 0.006 kg to g, just multiply the number of kilograms by 1,000.

405. Which of the following prefixes would likely be the most appropriate for measuring the weight of a 2,500 g kitten?
     • Pico
     • Kilo
     • Giga
     • Nano

     Correct answer: Kilo

     Answer: Kilo The purpose of scientific notations and prefixes is to avoid writing extremely long numbers. So, the correct answer to this question would be whichever option resulted in the smallest number of zeros. In kilograms, the mass of the kitten is 2.5 kg. If it was written as gigagrams, it would be 0.0000025 gigagrams, and in nanograms, it is 2,500,000,000,000 ng. In picograms, it would be 2,500,000,000,000,000. As you can see, kg results in the fewest digits, so it is the most appropriate prefix to use here.

406. Which of the following would be the best choice to measure 0.0015 grams of a chemical reagent?
     • Graduated cylinder
     • Analytical balance
     • Metric ruler
     • Triple beam balance

     Correct answer: Analytical balance

     Answer: Analytical balance Analytical balances are the most common way to measure the mass of substances in a chemical laboratory. They are useful for measuring sub-milligram (0.001 g) masses. A triple-beam balance is not as accurate as an analytical balance and is only capable of measuring masses with an error of 0.05 g. A graduated cylinder is used to measure the volume of liquids, which is measured in mL, not in grams. A metric ruler is used to measure the length of objects, which is measured in units derived from the meter.

407. A book weighs 2.2 kg. How much does it weigh in grams?
     • 0.22 g
     • 2,200 g
     • 220 g
     • 22 g

     Correct answer: 2,200 g

     Answer: 2,200 g The prefix kilo- means 103 (or 1,000), which means there are 1,000 grams in a kilogram. To convert to grams, just multiply 2.2 by 1,000 to obtain 2,200 g.

408. Which of the following is the correct formula to measure volume?
     • Volume = 2(height + width) – length
     • Volume = length2 x height + width
     • Volume = length3 x width2 x height
     • Volume = length x width x height

     Correct answer: Volume = length x width x height

     Answer: Volume = length x width x height The volume of an object tells how much space it occupies. Since space is comprised of three dimensions (length, width, and height), volume must also be comprised of three spatial measurements.

409. The International Space Station orbits earth at a distance of 408 km. Sunlight reflects off it and travels to Earth at a speed of 299,792 km/s. How long does it take the light to reach the Earth?
     • 0.0014 s
     • 1.22 x 108 s
     • 734 s
     • 14 s

     Correct answer: 0.0014 s

     Answer: 0.0014 s To find the number of seconds the light takes to travel to Earth, just divide the distance by the speed. 408 km / 299,792 km/s = 0.0014 s

410. A well-controlled experiment was conducted where researchers noted that a new antibiotic eliminated a bacterial sinus infection. Which of the following can be inferred from this result?
     • The medication killed the bacteria responsible for the sinus infection.
     • The medication alters the patient’s DNA to help them fight off an infection.
     • The medication helped eliminate the patient’s allergies.
     • The medication acted as an antihistamine to cure the patient’s runny nose.

     Correct answer: The medication killed the bacteria responsible for the sinus infection.

     Answer: The medication killed the bacteria responsible for the sinus infection. The most likely explanation for the elimination of the sinus infection is that the medicine killed the bacteria. Antibiotics are drugs that kill or halt the growth of bacteria, so this is the most likely explanation for the elimination of the sinus infection since the antibiotics do not have an influence on a person’s allergies or DNA.

411. Which of the following describes a ‘control variable’ in an experiment?
     • The variable that changes
     • The variable that is held constant
     • The dependent variable
     • The variable that is discarded

     Correct answer: The variable that is held constant

     Answer: The variable that is held constant Control variables are unchanged during an experiment so that a scientist can determine how other variables change relative to it. It is important to have control variables because they help ensure that experimental results occur because of changes in other variables.

412. Which of the following is true about control variables?
     • The control variable is the only piece of data that is important during an experiment.
     • Control variables are kept constant to help understand the relationship of other variables.
     • Control variables are used to minimize the relative error of measurements.
     • The control variable is the only variable measured in an experiment.

     Correct answer: Control variables are kept constant to help understand the relationship of other variables.

     Answer: Control variables are kept constant to help understand the relationship of other variables. Control variables are constants in an experiment that help make comparisons to other pieces of data. By having one or more control variable, the effect of other variables can be determined in an experiment.

413. Which is the most appropriate unit to measure the weight of groceries in a store?
     • Nanograms
     • Micrograms
     • Tons
     • Kilograms

     Correct answer: Kilograms

     Answer: Kilograms While describing various physical quantities, it is best to use appropriate units of measure. Using other units of measure to describe a quantity gives either very small or very large number value. It becomes difficult to estimate the magnitude of the quantity, if inappropriate units are used. The appropriate scale for the measurement of the weight of groceries would the kilogram. This is because the weight of most groceries is a “medium range” weight, so that it would be difficult to determine its weight while reading on a smaller scale like the micro- or nanograms. Tons are used to measure extremely heavy things, such as elephants.

414. Which of the following are likely the causes of diabetes type 2?
     • Insulin resistance, difficulty breathing
     • Lack of exercise, unhealthy food choices, obesity
     • Weakened heart, insulin resistance
     • Too much exercise, fruit-based diet

     Correct answer: Lack of exercise, unhealthy food choices, obesity

     Answer: Lack of exercise, unhealthy food choices, obesity Type 2 diabetes has several causes, but genetics and lifestyle are the most important ones. A combination of these two things can result in insulin resistance. This is when your body doesn’t use insulin as well as it should or it actually resists the effects of insulin in the body. Insulin resistance is the most common cause of type 2 diabetes. Type 2 diabetes can be hereditary. Lifestyle choices that affect the development of type 2 diabetes include: Lack of exercise: Physical activity, among other benefits, helps to prevent Type 2 diabetes. Unhealthy meal planning choices: A diet consisting of mainly high-fat foods and lacking in fiber increases the chances of a person developing Type 2 diabetes. Overweight/Obesity: Being overweight makes it more likely that you’ll become insulin resistant. Some of the answer choices contain not causes but symptoms of the disease. Signs and symptoms of type 2 diabetes often develop slowly. In fact, you can have type 2 diabetes for years and not know it. Some of them include: increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, blurred vision, unwanted weight loss, insulin resistance.

415. Which of the following is a hypothesis?
     • One liter of water was added to a reaction.
     • When I added fertilizer to my plants, they grew more quickly.
     • Five different breeds of dogs are at the dog park.
     • If a student gets more sleep, they will get a higher test score.

     Correct answer: If a student gets more sleep, they will get a higher test score.

     Answer: If a student gets more sleep, they will get a higher test score. A hypothesis is an explanation for observed phenomena. The other options are merely observations from which hypotheses could be constructed.

416. A hypothesis must be which of the following?
     • Accurate
     • Correct
     • Precise
     • Testable

     Correct answer: Testable

     Answer: Testable. A hypothesis is a starting point for further studies of a phenomenon. In order to conduct these studies, the hypothesis must be testable, meaning it must be possible to build evidence for or against the hypothesis to determine if it is valid.

417. A biologist hypothesized that zebras and horses evolved from the same common ancestor 4 million years ago. Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports this hypothesis?
     • Horses and zebras have similar appearances
     • The genome of zebras and horses are very similar to the common ancestor
     • Horses and zebras in similar climates
     • Horses and zebras gallop at the same speeds

     Correct answer: The genome of zebras and horses are very similar to the common ancestor

     Answer: The genome of zebras and horses are very similar to the common ancestor. While related species often share physical characteristics, it is not the strongest piece of evidence we have for their relationship. DNA analysis can be used to determine the point at which common species diverged from one another. Thus, if a zebra and horse share similar DNA, it can be concluded they both evolved from a similar common ancestor.

418. $\ce{H2O2}$ is a strong oxidizer that is used to degrade a variety of compounds. Ultraviolet-visible (UV-Vis) spectroscopy is a measurement technique that correlates the amount of UV light a substance absorbs with its concentration. The above is background information, and the information below is the abstract of a scientific paper. Identify the hypothesis. Pharmaceuticals have been detected in wastewaters worldwide and have the potential to harm both aquatic and human life. Traditional water treatment technologies are unable to remove these compounds from water, so various methods have been developed to degrade these compounds, including oxidation. In this paper, $\ce{H2O2}$ is proposed to oxidatively degrade the anti-inflammatory drug, naproxen when it is dissolved in water. UV-Vis spectroscopy is used to measure the concentration of naproxen in water after samples are treated with hydrogen peroxide ($\ce{H2O2}$). Experiments were conducted to test the influence of $\ce{H2O2}$ concentration, reaction time, and temperature on the degradation of naproxen. The results showed that 98% of naproxen could be degraded by 0.25 M $\ce{H2O2}$ within 2 hours at 30 oC. Thus, we can conclude that hydrogen peroxide can be used to degrade naproxen in wastewaters. What is the the hypothesis proposed in the experiment above?
     • In this paper, $\ce{H2O2}$ is proposed to oxidatively degrade the anti-inflammatory drug, naproxen when it is dissolved in water.
     • Experiments were conducted to test the influence of $\ce{H2O2}$ concentration, reaction time, and temperature on the degradation of naproxen.
     • Thus, we can conclude that hydrogen peroxide can be used to degrade naproxen in wastewaters.
     • UV-Vis spectroscopy is used to measure the concentration of naproxen in water after samples are treated with hydrogen peroxide ($\ce{H2O2}$).

     Correct answer: In this paper, $\ce{H2O2}$ is proposed to oxidatively degrade the anti-inflammatory drug, naproxen when it is dissolved in water.

     Answer: In this paper, $\ce{H2O2}$ is proposed to oxidatively degrade the anti-inflammatory drug, naproxen when it is dissolved in water. A hypothesis is a proposed explanation based on prior knowledge that can be tested. In this case, it is proposed that $\ce{H2O2}$ can be used to oxidatively degrade naproxen, based on the fact that pharmaceuticals can be degraded by oxidation. Thus, the authors conducted experiments to test whether or not hydrogen peroxide could degrade naproxen. They reached the conclusion that, if appropriate experimental conditions are used, $\ce{H2O2}$ can degrade naproxen.

419. Dissolved oxygen (DO) is an important indicator of water quality, and oxygen levels that are too high or too low can harm aquatic ecosystems. A biologist noticed that fish were dying in a local lake and was concerned that the DO levels were too low to support aquatic life due to extremely high temperatures that summer. To measure the DO levels, she brought back several lake water samples to her laboratory to measure the DO concentration as a function of temperature. To do this, she heated several samples of lake water to various temperatures and then measured the DO concentration in each sample. Some samples were kept at the outdoors temperature. Which of the following is the independent variable?
     • Dissolved oxygen concentration
     • Temperature
     • Location of the lake
     • Volume of water

     Correct answer: Temperature

     Answer: Temperature. The independent variable is the variable that is controlled during an experiment to see how it influences the dependent variable. In this case, the temperature of the water was changed to see how it influenced the DO concentration.

420. A biologist hypothesized that high humidity environments increased the growth rate of certain bacteria. Which of the following observations refutes this hypothesis?
     • When placed in a dessicator, a petri dish had a decreased bacterial growth rate.
     • A greenhouse was found to have more bacteria compared with an outdoor garden.
     • When placed next to a pond, a petri dish had an increased growth rate.
     • Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Mojave Desert compared with the Everglades.

     Correct answer: Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Mojave Desert compared with the Everglades.

     Answer: Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Mojave Desert compared with the Everglades. Deserts have low humidities, while the Everglades is a swamp in Florida, which is known for having high humidities. Therefore, a higher bacterial growth rate in the Mojave Desert compared with the Everglades would refute the hypothesis. In the other examples, the environment with higher humidities had the higher bacterial growth rate.

421. Which of the following options is a valid conclusion about the data below?
     • There is no correlation between gender and antidepressant use.
     • Older people suffer from depression more than young people.
     • Gender is a significant factor that determines whether or not a person takes antidepressants.
     • Women suffer from depression more than men.

     Correct answer: Gender is a significant factor that determines whether or not a person takes antidepressants.

     Answer: Gender is a significant factor that determines whether or not a person takes antidepressants. In all age groups, men were shown to take fewer antidepressants than women. While this may seem to make women suffer from depression more than men true, without additional information, we cannot speculate if this is true. For instance, men may suffer equally from depression, but may fail to seek treatment as often as women. While antidepressant use increases with age, it then begins to decrease at age 60.

422. A chemist successfully synthesized an antimicrobial compound and showed that it effectively killed bacteria. The chemist then repeated this experiment two more times. What was the most likely reason for conducting this experiment three times?
     • To kill the maximum amount of bacteria
     • To synthesize as much compound as possible
     • To minimize researcher bias
     • To demonstrate the reproducibility of the results

     Correct answer: To demonstrate the reproducibility of the results

     Answer: To demonstrate the reproducibility of the results. For scientific results to be useful to other scientists, they must be reproducible. This means that if another scientist followed your procedure exactly, they would obtain the same results that you did. Reproducible studies return the same value during every repeated experiment, which helps give researchers confidence in their results.

423. A class of students wanted to assess the effects of coffee on test scores. What would be an appropriate control?
     • Drinking coffee during the test
     • Drinking water during the test.
     • Not drinking coffee during the test
     • Drinking coffee immediately after the test

     Correct answer: Not drinking coffee during the test

     Answer: Not drinking coffee during the test. Experimental controls are used to reduce effects other than from the independent variable. By not drinking coffee during the test, the independent variable (the amount of coffee) would be zero.

424. Japan’s population has been declining in recent years. For this decline, which of the following must be true?
     • Immigration + Deaths = Emigration + Births
     • Deaths + Births > Immigration + Emigration
     • Emigration + Deaths > Immigration + Births
     • Births > Deaths

     Correct answer: Emigration + Deaths > Immigration + Births

     Answer: Emigration + Deaths > Immigration + Births. There are only two routes for citizen to leave a country: emigration (people leaving a country) and death. For a population to decline, the sum of emigration and death must be greater than the sum of immigration (people moving into a country) and births.

425. Dissolved oxygen (DO) is an important indicator of water quality, and oxygen levels that are too high or too low can harm aquatic ecosystems. A biologist noticed that fish were dying in a local lake and was concerned that the DO levels were too low to support aquatic life due to extremely high temperatures that summer. To measure the DO levels, she brought back several lake water samples to her laboratory to measure the DO concentration as a function of temperature. To do this, she heated several samples of lake water to various temperatures and then measured the DO concentration in each sample. Some samples were kept at the outdoors temperature. Why were some samples kept outdoors?
     • To calibrate the thermometer
     • To act as a control group
     • To minimize researcher bias
     • To allow a maximum amount of oxygen to dissolve before measurement

     Correct answer: To act as a control group

     Answer: To act as a control group. A control group acts as a baseline in an experiment to which comparisons can be made. By not heating some samples, the amount of dissolved oxygen at higher temperatures can be compared to this group.

426. A chemist needs to add 5 µL of a reagent to a reaction solution. Which of the following is the best tool to accomplish this?
     • A volumetric flask
     • A micropipette
     • A volumetric pipette
     • A 1-mL pipette

     Correct answer: A micropipette

     Answer: A micropipette In chemistry, it is important to select the most appropriate glassware and measurement devices. This means selecting a device that is capable of accurately measuring and dispensing the desired amount of reagent. In the choices above, none of the other choices would allow the chemist to accurately measure 5 µL. A micropipette is used to measure extremely small volumes of liquids, typically on the microliter scale, hence the name!

427. Which of the following is the approximate change in medical school enrollment between the years 1858 and 1861?
     • An increase of 20
     • No students were enrolled in the medical school during this period.
     • A decrease of 10
     • A decrease of 200

     Correct answer: A decrease of 10

     Answer: A decrease of 10 The medical school is represented by the red line, so your answer should be based on this. The x-axis represents the year, and each line represents one year. The y-axis represents the number of students enrolled in each college, and each line represents 10 students. In 1858, there were approximately 30 students enrolled in the medical school, but this number dropped to 20 in 1861. This represents a decrease of 10 students over this period.

428. Based on this table, which of the following statements is true?
     • Homicide causes more deaths among 35 to 44-year-old adults than heart disease in the same age group.
     • Summed for all age groups, malignant neoplasms are the number one cause of death.
     • Most deaths between ages 10-14 occur due to heart disease.
     • The number of unintentional injuries among 1 to 4-year-old children is greater than the number of unintentional injuries among 5 to 9-year-old young children.

     Correct answer: The number of unintentional injuries among 1 to 4-year-old children is greater than the number of unintentional injuries among 5 to 9-year-old young children.

     Answer: The number of unintentional injuries among 1 to 4-year-old children is greater than the number of unintentional injuries among 5 to 9-year-old young children. The following table represents the 10 leading causes of death by age group in the US for 2016. The columns represent the different age groups and the rows start with the most common cause of death, leading to the least common one. The number of unintentional injuries among children aged 1-4 is 1,261 and for children between 5-9 years is 789 cases. Therefore the number of unintentional injuries among 1 to 4-year-old children is greater than the number of unintentional injuries among 5 to 9-year-old young children.

429. Why is it important to keep most variables constant between experimental and control groups?
     • Keeping most variables constant allows the effects of a single variable to be determined more accurately.
     • Keeping variables constant minimizes research costs.
     • Minimizing changes between groups helps increase the likelihood of proving the hypothesis was correct.
     • Keeping variables the same increases the number of experiments that can be performed so that more data can be gathered.

     Correct answer: Keeping most variables constant allows the effects of a single variable to be determined more accurately.

     Answer: Keeping most variables constant allows the effects of a single variable to be determined more accurately. During an experiment, data between the control and experimental groups is compared to determine if there is a change in the dependent variable(s). This is done by keeping all variables except one (the independent variable) identical between the two groups.

430. A study draws the conclusion that obesity is a significant cause of Type 2 diabetes. Which of the following experimental parameters would not build confidence that such a cause and effect relationship is likely true?
     • The inclusion of proper controls
     • Taking in mind all obtained results
     • A large number of data points
     • Use of a small sample size

     Correct answer: Use of a small sample size

     Answer: Use of a small sample size When conducting an experiment, you need to specify the sample groups you will be studying. The groups need to be a practical size so that it is manageable, but you also need enough participants that would allow the results to be statistically meaningful. A small sample size may not yield results that would build confidence in the relationship between the two variables since not enough people were studied. Other important tenets of strong experimental design include the use of controls to prevent outside factors from influencing the outcomes (data) as well as considering all of the results that are generated from the experiment.

431. When studying the effects of sunlight on a person’s mood, scientists asked one group of patients to remain outside for one hour and a control group to remain inside all day. At the end of the experiment, 75% of the group that had received sunlight had a better mood. What can be concluded from these results?
     • People who stayed indoors had a worse mood.
     • Sunlight had no effect on the subjects' moods.
     • Sunlight improved the subjects' moods.
     • There is not enough data to draw a sound conclusion.

     Correct answer: There is not enough data to draw a sound conclusion.

     Answer: There is not enough data to draw a sound conclusion. This is an example of a poorly-constructed experiment since it relies on self-reporting. The scientists were not present to ensure that the patients actually stayed outdoors for one hour or that the control group stayed inside all day. The scientists also did not account for other possible variables that could affect their patients’ moods.

432. Which of the following is an example of empirical data?
     • Remembering you have an appointment at 5 pm
     • Hearing that it is 52 degrees outside
     • Counting the number of eggs in the refrigerator
     • Drinking 2 liters of water

     Correct answer: Counting the number of eggs in the refrigerator

     Answer: Counting the number of eggs in the refrigerator Empirical data is based on observation and measurements. The only option where a quantity is being measured is when the number of eggs has been counted. Although the other options include numbers, no values were measured by an observer in the option.

433. Why are control groups used in experiments?
     • To help scientists quickly perform experiments
     • To increase the amount of data collected
     • To ensure the accuracy of measurements
     • To minimize the effect of variables

     Correct answer: To minimize the effect of variables

     Answer: To minimize the effect of variables A control group is used to ensure that the number of variables that influences a data set is minimized. This is done by comparing measured data to the control group, which has many fixed variables.

434. Which of the following is necessary to reach a sound conclusion?
     • Experimental data is collected from a complex experiment
     • The data shows the effect of a dependent variable
     • The data must be reported to three decimal places
     • The collected data must be accurate and free from bias

     Correct answer: The collected data must be accurate and free from bias

     Answer: The collected data must be accurate and free from bias A sound conclusion is reached when the data collected is valid (free from errors and bias). Either of these (errors and/or bias) can result in unusable data, since the validity cannot be determined. When this happens, conclusions cannot be drawn and experiments often have to be redesigned and performed again. Not all experiments need to be complex in order to reach a sound conclusion. Also, experiments are testing the effect of an independent variable on the dependent variable.

435. Which of the following would an electron microscope be used to measure?
     • Aquatic samples
     • Insect samples
     • 20-nm polymer films
     • The strength of chemical bonds

     Correct answer: 20-nm polymer films

     Answer: 20-nm polymer films Electron microscopes are powerful tools for obtaining images of incredibly small objects that cannot be observed by regular optical microscopes. Electron microscopes are capable of imaging samples that are only several nanometers in size, such as thin polymer films. Biologists sometimes examine insects, but they generally do this with optical microscopes since the insects are so large. Aquatic samples cannot be used in an electron microscope because the technique is performed in a vacuum.

436. Which of the following statements is false?
     • Double-blind experiments have two control variables.
     • The research subjects in single-blind experiments are unaware of the treatment they receive.
     • Double-blind experiments help eliminate researcher bias.
     • Single-blind experiments help reduce patient bias.

     Correct answer: Double-blind experiments have two control variables.

     Answer: Double-blind experiments have two control variables. The goal of a double-blind experiment is to reduce or eliminate biases from both the researcher and their subjects. This is done by keeping which treatments patients receive a secret from both the researcher and the subject. Since the patients don’t know what type of treatment they received, the researcher can determine if the placebo effect affects their results.

437. When two plants, A and B, were planted together in a field outdoors, plant A produced vegetables, and plant B produced flowers which attracted pollinators. It was noted that when they were grown apart from each other, plant A did not produce vegetables, but plant B still produced flowers. Which of the following is the most likely reason plant A did not produce vegetables when planted away from plant B?
     • The insects that pollinated plant B also pollinated plant A
     • Plant B secreted a hormone that promoted the growth of plant A
     • Plant B shielded plant A from the sun
     • Plant B repelled harmful insects from plant A

     Correct answer: The insects that pollinated plant B also pollinated plant A

     Answer: nano, micro, milli, deci, kilo These prefixes are used to communicate the scale of measurements to other scientists. The nano prefix is used to indicate 10-9 micro is 10-6, milli is 10-3, deci is 10-1, and kilo is 103. Remember: the more negative the exponent is, the smaller the number.

438. Correctly order the following prefixes from smallest to largest: milli, kilo, deci, micro, nano.
     • Deci, micro, nano, milli, kilo
     • Nano, micro, milli, deci, kilo
     • Nano, milli, kilo, deci, micro
     • Milli, nano, kilo, deci, micro

     Correct answer: Nano, micro, milli, deci, kilo

     Answer: nano, micro, milli, deci, kilo These prefixes are used to communicate the scale of measurements to other scientists. The nano prefix is used to indicate 10-9 micro is 10-6, milli is 10-3, deci is 10-1, and kilo is 103. Remember: the more negative the exponent is, the smaller the number.

439. Which tool is best suited to measure the length of a bedroom?
     • Tape measure
     • Ruler
     • Surveyor’s wheel
     • Calipers

     Correct answer: Tape measure

     Answer: Tape measure A tape measure can be used to efficiently measure the length of most bedrooms. The ruler is too small to be efficiently used to measure something as large as a bedroom. Similarly, calipers are used to measure the size of objects that can easily fit in your hand. A surveyor’s wheel is used to measure things the size of entire yards.

440. Which would be the approximate mass of a car?
     • 18 kg
     • 180,000 kg
     • 1,800 kg
     • 180 kg

     Correct answer: 1,800 kg

     Answer: 1,800 kg It’s good to have a relative idea of the scale of various objects. The average mass of a human is around 60 kg. The average mass of a car is 1,800 kg, and the average mass of a laptop is 2.5 kg.

441. During a study, scientists noted that people with more self-esteem tend to not be depressed and vice versa. Which of the following types of relationships did they observe?
     • Spontaneous
     • Random
     • A correlation
     • A cause-and-effect relationship

     Correct answer: A correlation

     Answer: A correlation Correlation is a statistical measure that indicates the extent to which two or more variables change together. A positive correlation indicates that the variables are increasing or decreasing together (in parallel). A negative correlation indicates that as one variable increases the other decreases. Spontaneous events are based on some conditions becoming true, but not based on any timing criterion. To determine the cause of something, ask why it happened. To determine the effect of a cause, ask what happened. Cause and effect relationships show a clear connection between the “what happened” and the “why it happened.” In statistics, a random effects model is a statistical model where the model parameters are random variables.

442. A chemist was performing a spectroscopy experiment on a fluorescent dye to examine the influence of concentration on absorbance. To accomplish this, the chemist created a stock solution of a certain concentration of dye using 10 mL of water ($\ce{H2O}$). Then, a serial dilution was performed by taking 1 mL of the stock solution and diluting it with 9 mL of water for a total solution volume of 10 mL. 1 mL was taken from Solution 2 and diluted with 9 mL water to create Solution 3. The serial dilution was performed through Solution 5, as shown in the diagram below. If the dye concentration in Solution 5 was 0.5 g/mL, what was the concentration of the dye in Solution 2?
     • 5,000 g/mL
     • 5 gmL
     • 50 g/mL
     • 500 g/mL

     Correct answer: 500 g/mL

     Answer: 500 g/mL A serial dilution is a method used to dilute the concentration of substances. A stock solution is created at a known concentration, and then a certain volume is extracted and diluted with a solvent. Then, the same volume of the next solution is extracted and diluted with the same volume of solvent. The process is continued until the desired number of samples is created. They are useful for creating very dilute solutions, where it would be very difficult to weigh out the amount of reagent. In this scenario, the concentration of the original stock solution is not provided. You are told that the concentration of Solution #5 is 0.5g/ml. Since we are told that each dilution is 1mL of the solution mixed with 9mL of the solvent, you can work backwards. Each time the solution is diluted, the concentration is reduced by 10 fold (divided by 10). We know this because 1mL of the previous solution is diluted by 9mL of water, resulting in a 10mL solution each time. Therefore, with each dilution, you would divide the amount of the solute by 10. Since we are working in the opposite direction, we are going to multiply the concentration as we move backwards. 0.5g/mL * 10 = 5g/mL (Solution 4) 5g/mL * 10 = 50g/mL (Solution 3) 50g/mL * 10 = 500g/mL (Solution 2)

443. Which of the following statements is true about understanding magnitude when describing relationships?
     • The scale of a graph does not describe a relation between used units
     • A nanometer is larger than a centimeter, and a centimeter is smaller than a kilometer
     • The magnitude of the number represents the strength of the correlation
     • An order of magnitude is a factor of 5

     Correct answer: The magnitude of the number represents the strength of the correlation

     Answer: The magnitude of the number represents the strength of the correlation Correlation coefficient: A measure of the magnitude and direction of the relationship (the correlation) between two variables. The closer the correlation coefficient is to +1 or -1, the stronger the relationship. The units of length in the SI system, from smallest to largest, are as follows: nanometer, millimeters, centimeter, meter, kilometer. Therefore, the centimeter is smaller than a kilometer, but the nanometer is not larger than a centimeter. The scale of a graph is what you mark on the axes. It’s the relation between the units you’re using, and their representation on the graph i.e., the distance between marks. An order of magnitude is a factor of ten. A quantity growing by four orders of magnitude implies it has grown by a factor of 10,000 or 1$0^{4}$.

444. Choose the best conclusion based upon the following information: Hypothesis: caffeinated beverages reduce the amount of sleep individuals receive. Experimental design: Measure regular amount of sleep. Administer 8 oz. of caffeinated (green tea and coffee) and non-caffeinated beverages (milk and water). Measure amount of sleep after.
     • No conclusion can be drawn
     • Caffeinated beverages reduce the amount of sleep individuals receive
     • Non-caffeinated beverages have no effect on sleep
     • To improve sleep, an individual should drink water

     Correct answer: Caffeinated beverages reduce the amount of sleep individuals receive

     Answer: Caffeinated beverages reduce the amount of sleep individals receive. Both of the caffeinated beverages decreased the amount of sleep that test subjects received. Non-caffeinated beverages have no effect on sleep cannot be true because milk increased the number of hours of sleep. To improve sleep, an individual should drink water is not a correct conclusion because it is not supported by the data indicating that water had no effect on sleep.

445. Which of the following is not an example of empirical data?
     • Hearing that it snowed a lot last night
     • Reading the temperature on a thermometer
     • Weighing yourself
     • Having your doctor measure your blood pressure

     Correct answer: Hearing that it snowed a lot last night

     Answer: Hearing that it snowed a lot last night Empirical data is based on observations and measurements. Since there was no direct measurement or observation of the snow, this is not an empirical piece of data. When a thermometer is read, a temperature is measured. Similarly, when you weigh yourself, you are measuring your weight.

446. Which of the following is the most plausible sequence of events?
     • Poaching more rhinos; more export rhino horn goods; more goods with a lower economic value; economy boost
     • Walk in the woods; stung by bee; given morphine; early death
     • Extensive car use; air pollution; less people with asthma; less healthcare expenses
     • Born into musical family; grows up around music; starts learning guitar; plays concert

     Correct answer: Born into musical family; grows up around music; starts learning guitar; plays concert

     Answer: Born into musical family; grows up around music; starts learning guitar; plays concert. Children who are born into families that prioritize a specific activity are typically more inclined to be exposed to that activity at a young age and after years of practice, they excel at that activity. Ozone can make it more difficult for you to breathe deeply. Airborne particles, found in haze, smoke and airborne dust, present serious air quality problems. People with asthma are at greater risk from breathing in small particles. Usually, bee stings don’t cause a serious reaction. However, if you’re allergic to bee stings or have had several bee stings, you may experience a severe reaction such as poisoning. Bee poisoning requires immediate medical attention.Taking an antihistamine such as diphenhydramine (Benadryl) or a nonsedating one such as loratadine (Claritin) will help with itching and swelling. Illegal wildlife trade is also often unsustainable, harming wild populations of animals and plants and pushing endangered species toward extinction. Endangered animals and plants are often the target of wildlife crime because of their rarity and increased economic value. The bans are implemented largely through the Convention on the International Trade in Endangered Species of Fauna and Flora (CITES) and supplemented through EU and US trade measures.

447. Which of the following is the correct order of structures from simple to most complex?
     • Neurons, mitochondria, nerve tissues, brain
     • Mitochondria, neurons, nerve tissues, brain
     • Brain, neurons, mitochondria, nerve tissues
     • Mitochondria, nerve tissues, neurons, brain

     Correct answer: Mitochondria, neurons, nerve tissues, brain

     Answer: Mitochondria, neurons, nerve tissues, brain Neurons are the basic cells that make up the nervous system. Since the mitochondria is an organelle that you would find inside a neuron, it is going to be the simplest structure in the list. Multiple neurons are needed to form nervous tissue, which in turn makes up the brain. Below is a diagram illustrating the hierarchy of the structure of the human body:

448. A scientist collected the following set of data to examine the effects of exercise on patients’ heart rates. Patients were tasked with running 1 mile everyday for three days in the presence of the scientists. They were required to run the entire mile and were not allowed to walk. At the end of each mile run, the scientists measured the heart rates of the patients. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this data?
     • Running increased the heart rates of the patients
     • Patients that ran the mile faster had higher heart rates
     • The patients became fitter with each mile run
     • The patients ran Mile 3 faster than Mile 1

     Correct answer: Running increased the heart rates of the patients

     Answer: Running increased the heart rates of the patients From the data, it is clear that the heart rate of patients after running was much higher than their resting heart rates. There is no information provided about the pace at which the patients ran the miles. While it is certainly possible, and even likely, that running the miles increased the patients’ fitness levels, there is no data provided above to support this claim.

449. During which year did the number of dracunculiasis cases first fall below the number of poliomyelitis cases?
     • 2012
     • 2013
     • 2005
     • 2017

     Correct answer: 2013

     Answer: 2013 The number of dracunculiasis cases is represented by the orange line, while the number of poliomyelitis cases is given by the blue line. The x-axis is the year the cases were measured, and the y-axis is the number of cases. In 2013, the orange line falls below the blue line, which means that the number of dracunculiasis cases is less than the number of poliomyelitis cases.

450. Which of the following is true about SI Units?
     • SI Units are the standard measurement system in science.
     • SI Units are derived from the Imperial System.
     • The SI base units can be broken down into other units.
     • There are 8 SI base units.

     Correct answer: SI Units are the standard measurement system in science.

     Answer: SI units are the standard measurement system in science. SI Units are a common way to communicate measurements to other scientists around the world. This way, everyone uses the same system of measurement instead of having to convert between many different systems from around the world. There are only 7 SI base units, which are fundamental and cannot be broken down any further. They are: Length – meter (m) Time - second (s) Amount of substance – mole (mole) Electric current – ampere (A) Temperature – kelvin (K) Luminous intensity – candela (cd) Mass – kilogram (kg). The Imperial System is an older form of measurement that only three countries still use.

451. Review the data in this table, and then choose the statement that draws the best conclusion?
     • Hours spent sleeping and score on the test correlate negatively with one another
     • There is no correlation between sleep time and test score
     • Hours spent sleeping and score on the test correlate with one another
     • Amount of time spent sleeping is the cause of what test score was received

     Correct answer: Hours spent sleeping and score on the test correlate with one another

     Answer: Hours spent sleeping and score on the test correlate with one another. Correlation is a statistical measure that indicates the extent to which two or more variables change together. A positive correlation indicates that the variables are increasing or decreasing together (in parallel). A negative correlation indicates that as one variable increases the other decreases. In this example, time spent sleeping correlated positively with the obtained test score. In statistics, when the value of one event, or variable, increases or decreases as a result of other events, it is said there is causation. This is not the best conclusion for our example, since, for example, people who have slept 8 and 8.2 hours have the same test score.

452. Dandelions → Snail → Frog → Bird → Fox. Using the food chain above, which of the following terms best describes the trophic level of frogs?
     • Secondary consumer
     • Primary consumer
     • Producer
     • Tertiary consumer

     Correct answer: Secondary consumer

     Answer: Secondary consumer Secondary consumers are organisms that eat primary consumers for energy. Primary consumers are always herbivores, or organisms that only eat autotrophic plants. However, secondary consumers can either be carnivores (only eat meat) or omnivores (eat both meat and plants). Plants are called producers. This is because they produce their own food. They do this by using light energy from the Sun, carbon dioxide from the air and water from the soil to produce food – in the form of glucose/sugar.

453. To determine if tap water was making people sick, scientists asked one group of people to drink tap water for a week and another group to drink only bottled water. The results showed that the group that drank the tap water were sick after a week. What can be concluded from this experiment?
     • The tap water caused the sickness.
     • There is not enough information to draw a sound conclusion.
     • The bottled water has curative properties.
     • Tap water is bad for you.

     Correct answer: There is not enough information to draw a sound conclusion.

     Answer: There is not enough information to draw a sound conclusion Although it seems likely that the tap water is causing an illness of some sort, there is not enough data linking the water to the sickness. For example, there could be another environmental factor making the people sick that wasn’t accounted for in the study. Additionally, the scientists did not record or control any other aspect of the patients’ diets, so another factor could have caused the sickness.

454. Which of the following statements correctly describes “sublimation”?
     • The transition of a substance from solid to gas without passing through the liquid state
     • A transition between two gases
     • The transition of a liquid to solid
     • A transition between two types of liquid

     Correct answer: The transition of a substance from solid to gas without passing through the liquid state

     Answer: The transition of a substance from solid to gas without passing through the liquid state. Sublimation is the phase change that occurs when a substance goes directly from a solid to a gas. When sublimation occurs, the substance does not go through the liquid phase. Energy is required for a solid to sublime into a gas. In nature, the heat produced by sunlight is usually the energy source.

455. Correctly identify X in the reaction below: $^{210}_{84}\text{Po}$ → X + $^{4}_{2}\text{He}$
     • $^{206}_{82}\text{Pb}$
     • $^{218}_{84}\text{At}$
     • $^{214}_{86}\text{Pb}$
     • $^{214}_{86}\text{He}$

     Correct answer: $^{206}_{82}\text{Pb}$

     Answer: $^{206}_{82}\text{Pb}$ The type of radioactive decay shown in the reaction above is alpha decay where a nucleus emits an alpha particle (a Helium nucleus). The alpha particle is composed of 2 neutrons and 2 protons. The numerator in front of the Po indicates the mass number of the isotope, which is the sum of the protons and neutrons of the atom. The denominator is the number of neutrons in the isotope. To obtain the identity of the missing isotope X, just subtract the mass number and number of protons from the original atom. Since the number of protons is 82, the identity of the atom is lead (Pb) since Pb has an atomic number of 82.

456. Which of the following substances will not dissolve in water?
     • $\ce{NH4NO3}$
     • $\ce{Mg(OH)2}$
     • $\ce{NaCl}$
     • $\ce{C2H5OH}$

     Correct answer: $\ce{Mg(OH)2}$

     Answer: $\ce{Mg(OH)2}$ Hydroxides are generally insoluble. $\ce{Mg(OH)2}$ is insoluble in water. This means it will not dissolve into solution by breaking apart into magnesium ions and hydroxide ions. This is most likely due to the fact that Magnesium (Mg) is a stronger attractor of the OH- ions in comparison to the Hydrogen atoms in water. Ionic compounds, such as sodium chloride ($\ce{NaCl}$), are highly soluble in water. Because water molecules are polar, they interact with the sodium and chloride ions. This is because polar molecules have atoms with partial positive and negative charges, so they are able to interact with the positively and negatively charged sodium and chloride ions. Water also dissolves non-ionic substances. For example, $\ce{C2H5OH}$ (ethanol) is very soluble in $\ce{H2O}$. This is because $\ce{C2H5OH}$ has a polar OH bond. When an ionic substance (salt) dissolves in water, it is broken up into individual cations and anions which are surrounded by water molecules. For example, when $\ce{NH4}$ $\ce{NO3}$ is dissolved in water, it breaks up into separate ions.

457. Which of the following traits are inherited from parents to offspring?
     • Scars
     • Tattoos
     • Bruises
     • Eye color

     Correct answer: Eye color

     Eye color is the correct answer. Eye color is an inheritable trait in the offspring. This means it is a characteristic you have that is a result of the genetic combination of your biological mother and biological father. These traits are dictated by the genes in your unique DNA sequence. Some of the other inheritable traits are hair color and texture, freckles, skin color, etc. Scars are acquired during their life after the offspring is born. They are the result of physical trauma or harm, not your genetics. Bruises are the result of physical injury, not something that is dictated by genetics. Tattoos are also non-inheritable. They are physical marking someone chose to put onto their skin.

458. Predict the missing product of the following reaction: $\ce{Zn + 2AgNO3 -> 2Ag + ?}$
     • Zinc nitrite
     • Zinc nitrate
     • Zinc oxide
     • Silver nitrate

     Correct answer: Zinc nitrate

     Answer: Zinc nitrate The reaction above is an example of a single replacement reaction, where one metal ion replaces another in an ionic compound. The starting compounds are zinc (Zn) and silver nitrate ($\ce{AgNO3}$). Zn replaces Ag in $\ce{AgNO3}$ to form $\ce{Zn(NO3)2}$. Although similar, zinc nitrite has the formula $\ce{Zn(NO2)2}$.

459. Atomic mass does not include ________ in its calculation. The atomic number of an element is the number of ___________.
     • Electrons; protons
     • Neutrons; protons
     • Protons; neutrons
     • Electrons; neutrons

     Correct answer: Electrons; protons

     Answer: electrons; protons The atomic mass of an element is the average sum of the protons and neutrons in a group of those atoms. However, electrons are so much smaller (have so much less mass) than protons and neutrons that they don’t factor into the calculation. So, the atomic mass is the sum of the masses of protons and neutrons. The number of protons in the nucleus is the defining property of an element, and is referred to as the atomic number.

460. Which of these functions is NOT carried out by proteins?
     • Insulating internal organs in the body
     • Forming catalyst molecules
     • Protection of the body from foreign substances
     • Muscle movement

     Correct answer: Insulating internal organs in the body

     Insulating internal organs in the body is the correct answer. Insulation of the internal organs in the body is done by fats. Fats form a layer around the internal organs and provide protection to them. Proteins like actin and myosin play an important role in muscle contraction and relaxation that in turn help in muscle movement. Complex proteins, such as antibodies, protect the body from foreign pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, or allergens. Proteins form enzymes that act as catalyst molecules in biochemical reactions.

461. Enzymes are biological catalysts that ___________.
     • Bind to the products
     • Are necessary to convert substrate into products
     • Use up the substrate molecules in the reaction
     • Increase the rate of any given reaction

     Correct answer: Increase the rate of any given reaction

     Increase the rate of any given reaction is the correct answer. Enzymes act as biological catalysts and increase the rate of a reaction by reducing the activation energy needed to begin a reaction. Enzymes do not use substrate molecules (the starting molecules). They help increase the rate of a reaction. Enzymes are not necessary for the conversion of substrates into products. They just increase the rate of reaction and speed up the formation of the products. Enzymes do not bind to the products. They bind to the substrates to reduce the activation energy and catalyze the reaction.

462. Which of these statements best reflects the role of genes?
     • Genes code for enzymes only.
     • Genes codes for functional molecules like RNA only.
     • Genes code for enzymatic proteins, non-enzymatic proteins, and RNA.
     • Genes code for non-enzymatic proteins only.

     Correct answer: Genes code for enzymatic proteins, non-enzymatic proteins, and RNA.

     Genes code for enzymatic proteins, non-enzymatic proteins, and RNA is the correct answer. Genes code to synthesize specific proteins, including enzymes, and RNA.A gene can code any protein. A specific gene is responsible for coding a particular protein. For example, globin is the gene that produces a protein called hemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood.

463. Which of these units code for a protein?
     • Chromosome
     • Nucleotide
     • Nitrogenous base
     • Gene

     Correct answer: Gene

     Gene is the correct answer. A Gene is a DNA sequence that codes for a specific protein. Chromosomes are formed of multiple genes. Nitrogenous bases do not code for proteins. They are a part of the nucleotides. Three nucleotides form a codon that codes for an amino acid. A single nucleotide does not code for protein.

464. Which of the following statements best describes the function of mRNA?
     • mRNA transfers accurate amino acids into ribosomes for protein synthesis
     • mRNA carries a transcript that aids in transcription
     • mRNA stores the primary genetic information
     • mRNA carries the coding sequence that directs translation

     Correct answer: mRNA carries the coding sequence that directs translation

     mRNA carries the coding sequence that directs translation is the correct answer. An mRNA strand carries a transcript, the coding sequence that directs protein synthesis or translation. The transfer of amino acids into ribosomes is carried out by tRNA. mRNA does not carry a transcript. In transcription, mRNA is formed. DNA stores the primary genetic information that directs mRNA synthesis.

465. rRNA is responsible for which of the following functions?
     • rRNA transfers the DNA code to the mRNA strand for protein synthesis
     • rRNA translates amino acids into proteins by binding to mRNA, tRNA, and accessory proteins
     • rRNA attaches mRNA to tRNA to transfer the codon on tRNA
     • rRNA transfers amino acid to tRNA for protein synthesis

     Correct answer: rRNA translates amino acids into proteins by binding to mRNA, tRNA, and accessory proteins

     rRNA translates amino acids into proteins by binding to mRNA, tRNA, and accessory proteins is the correct answer. The rRNA subunit moves along the length of an mRNA strand and binds to the tRNA and accessory proteins that translate amino acids to proteins. The genetic code from DNA is copied to an mRNA strand without any aid from rRNA. The amino acid transfer to ribosomes takes place because of tRNA and not rRNA. rRNA attaches to both mRNA and tRNA during protein synthesis.

466. Which of the following correctly defines genotype?
     • Genotype is a specific combination of alleles found in an individual.
     • Genotype is when one allele suppresses the activity of another allele in an organism.
     • Genotype is a variation of a gene found in the individual.
     • Genotype is the expression of the alleles, those observed in the form of traits in an organism.

     Correct answer: Genotype is a specific combination of alleles found in an individual.

     Genotype is a specific combination of alleles found in an individual is the correct answer. A genotype is a specific combination of alleles found in a given organism that determines a particular trait. The expression of alleles in the form of physical traits is called the phenotype of the organism. The genotype determines the phenotype. The phenotype is the observable characteristic. A variation of a gene is called an allele. The suppression of the recessive allele is possible only when there is a dominant allele present. It contributes to the law of dominance, which states that an offspring will always display the dominant trait in the phenotype by suppressing the recessive trait.

467. The presence of two varying alleles of a gene is called a ____________ individual.
     • Heterozygous
     • Mutated
     • Homozygous
     • Recombinant

     Correct answer: Heterozygous

     Heterozygous is the correct answer. If two different or varying alleles are present at a locus of the chromosome, it is considered a heterozygous genotype. Genotypes contain two or more alleles. We represent each allele with a letter. If the allele is dominant, it is represented with a capital letter. For example, we could represent the trait for eye color using the letter e. In this instance, we would then use E to represent the presence of a dominant allele. Dominant alleles are variations of a gene that will always be expressed if present. For instance, if you inherit one allele for brown eyes and one allele for blue eyes, you will end up with whichever allele is dominant. In this case, brown eyes are dominant so anyone with at least one allele for brown eyes will have brown eyes. If it is recessive, it is represented with a lowercase letter. So, in this case, we would use e to represent the presence of a recessive allele. Recessive alleles are forms of the gene that will not be expressed in the presence of a dominant allele. Recessive traits are only expressed when you receive two alleles for the same recessive trait. For example, if you receive two alleles for blue eyes (one from each parent), then you will have blue eyes. We represent heterozygous individuals using a capital letter and a lowercase letter to show the individual has one of each trait. In this case, a person who is heterozygous for brown eyes would have the genotype Ee. Homozygous means the presence of the same alleles. In this case, an individual who is homozygous would be represented by two of the same letter. If they are homozygous dominant, their genotype will be EE and they will have brown eyes. If they are homozygous recessive, their genotype will be ee and they will have blue eyes. Recombinant means the joining of a DNA fragment to another DNA molecule to form a different one. Mutated genes are genes that have had their genetic code changed due to certain factors.

468. An atom has 5 protons, 2 neutrons, and 5 electrons. Which of the following is the atom’s mass number?
     • 12
     • 5
     • 7
     • 10

     Correct answer: 7

     Answer: 7 To calculate the atomic mass of a single atom of an element, add up the mass of protons and neutrons. In this case, you should add 5 and 2, which equals to 7. Electrons are so small, they are not factored into the atomic mass.

469. The number of ________ is the same across a period but increases when moving down a group?
     • Anions
     • Electron shells
     • Isotopes
     • Cations

     Correct answer: Electron shells

     Answer: Electron shells As you move from left to right across the periodic table (period), the atomic number increases. As you move from top to bottom (group), the number of filled electron shells increases.

470. Which of the following characteristics applies to the bonds holding together nonpolar covalent molecules?
     • They can be formed only between two identical atoms
     • They occur when two atoms share a pair of electrons with each other
     • They occur when two atoms share a pair of metal ions with each other
     • They can be formed only between two different atoms

     Correct answer: They occur when two atoms share a pair of electrons with each other

     Answer: They occur when two atoms share a pair of electrons with each other Nonpolar covalent bonds are a chemical bond that exists between two atoms. This bond is formed when electrons are equally shared between two atoms. These bonds can be either formed between two identical atoms or between different atoms. (This is the opposite of polar molecules, which do not share electrons equally and therefore contain atoms with partial positive and negative charges.) An example of a nonpolar covalent bond is the bond between two hydrogen atoms because they equally share the electrons. Another example of a nonpolar covalent bond is the bond between two chlorine atoms because they also equally share the electrons. Nonpolar covalent bonds are very strong bonds requiring a large amount of energy to break the bond.

471. Which of the following statements about osmosis is true?
     • Osmotic pressure is the main cause plant cell death
     • Osmosis is the diffusion of salt
     • Osmosis involves a selectively permeable membrane
     • Osmosis involves the movement of water from regions of high solute concentration to regions of low solute concentration.

     Correct answer: Osmosis involves a selectively permeable membrane

     Answer: Osmosis involves a selectively permeable membrane Osmosis is the spontaneous movement of water molecules through a selectively permeable membrane. The water moves along a concentration gradient, which means that it moves from areas of higher water concentration to areas of lower water concentration. (When considering solutes – the substance dissolved in the water – the water moves from a region of low solute concentration to a region of high solute concentration.) The water moves across the membrane until there are equal concentrations of water and solute on each side. Osmosis is a vital process in biological systems, since biological membranes are semipermeable. This means that these membranes do not generally allow large or polar molecules to cross (e.g. ions, proteins, polysaccharides, etc.). They will allow (are permeable to) non-polar, hydrophobic molecules such as lipids, as well as small molecules like oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen. Water molecules move across a selectively permeable membrane that transports the water through proteins called aquaporins. Osmotic pressure is the main cause of support in many plants. The osmotic entry of water raises the turgor pressure exerted against the cell wall, until it equals the osmotic pressure, creating a steady state. Therefore, it does not play a role in plant cell death.

472. Which of the following components can be found in a phase graph?
     • A “critical point”where the substance is indistinguishable between solid and gaseous states
     • A “triple point” where three slightly different types of solid coexist
     • Pressure and time as its axes
     • Temperature and pressure as its axes

     Correct answer: Temperature and pressure as its axes

     Answer: Temperature and pressure as its axes The phase diagram is a graphical representation of the physical states of a substance under varying conditions of temperature and pressure. A typical phase diagram has pressure on the y-axis and temperature on the x-axis. They contain a triple point – the point on a phase diagram at which the three states of matter: gas, liquid, and solid coexist; and a critical point – the point on a phase diagram at which you cannot tell the difference between the liquid and gaseous states of the substance.

473. The amount of movement within a substance:
     • Depends on the state of matter of the substance
     • Is a characteristic only of liquids
     • Is a characteristic only of solids
     • Is a characteristic only of gases

     Correct answer: Depends on the state of matter of the substance

     Answer: Depends on the state of matter of the substance All matter is made up of particles called atoms (which then make up molecules). Atoms and molecules are always in motion, bumping into each other or vibrating back and forth. Heat, a form of energy, is created from the motion of these particles. The particles in solids are tightly packed and can only vibrate. The particles in liquids also vibrate but are able to move around by rolling over each other and sliding around. In gases, the particles move freely with rapid, random motion.

474. How many moles of $\ce{O2}$ will be produced when the reaction below is properly balanced? $\ce{H2O2 -> H2O + O2}$
     • 1 mole
     • 2 moles
     • 3 moles
     • 4 moles

     Correct answer: 1 mole

     Answer: 1 mole The properly balanced equation above will be $\ce{2H2O2 -> 2H2O + O2}$. In chemical reactions, the coefficients (numbers in front of reactants and products) equal the number of moles of that chemical species. Since there is no number in front of $\ce{O2}$, a coefficient of 1 is implied, which means there is 1 mole of $\ce{O2}$ produced in this reaction.

475. Which of the following is an example of a redox reaction?
     • Combustion
     • Acid-base neutralization
     • Single replacement reaction
     • Synthesis

     Correct answer: Combustion

     Answer: Combustion A redox reaction is one that involves the transfer of electrons between two species. The substance that gives away electrons is said to be oxidized. The substance that receives the electrons is said to be reduced. During combustion, elemental oxygen ($\ce{O2}$) reacts with a compound to form products that contain oxygen. This requires oxygen to transition from a neutral oxidation state (0) to an oxidation state of -2. (The oxygen has been reduced.) In the other reaction choices, the oxidation states of atoms do not necessarily change.

476. Which of the following statements is true?
     • A single-blind experiment helps reduce researcher bias.
     • A double-blind experiment is always more accurate than a single-blind experiment.
     • A single-blind experiment eliminates all unknown variables.
     • A double-blind experiment controls all variables.

     Correct answer: A double-blind experiment is always more accurate than a single-blind experiment.

     Answer: A double-blind experiment is always more accurate than a single-blind experiment. A double-blind experiment is an experiment where both the researcher and subject are unaware of the treatment that a test subject receives. This is different from a single-blind experiment, where only the subject is unaware. Double-blind experiments help to prevent unconscious researcher bias, which means the results will be more accurate, as there is no opportunity for those running the experiment to unconsciously influence or manipulate anything to achieve the desired results. While it is true that a double-blind experiment is used to reduce researcher bias and increase overall accuracy, this does not necessarily mean that results are always 100% accurate. This is because there can be other unknown or unaccounted variables that influence the results, called lurking variables. However, the results of double-blind experiments will always be regarded as more accurate than those achieved with a single-blind experiment. Important note: Not all experiments can be double-blind based on the nature of the study.

477. Which of the following correctly describes a conclusion?
     • An evidence-based judgment
     • A list of experiments you conducted
     • The methods used to conduct an experiment
     • The data set obtained during an experiment

     Correct answer: An evidence-based judgment

     Answer: An evidence-based judgment A conclusion is obtained after a scientist analyzes all of his or her data after conducting an experiment. It is a statement of whether the evidence collected during the experiment supports or disagrees with the original hypothesis. Conclusions are always listed at the end of a scientific report and summarize the major findings of an experimental study.

478. Steps involved in natural selection include: 1. Differing survival rates when faced with environmental challenges. 2. Preservation of genetic traits of best-adapted offspring. 3. Overproduction of offspring that have different variations in genetic traits. Which of the following is the sequence in which these steps take place?
     • 3,1,2
     • 1,3,2
     • 2,1,3
     • 1,2,3

     Correct answer: 3,1,2

     Answer: 3, 1, 2 Natural selection is the process by which organisms that are better suited to their environment are able to survive and produce more offspring. As a result of natural selection, the proportion of organisms within a species that have favorable adaptations to a given environment will increase with each generation. Organisms (within populations) have differences in appearance and behavior on an individual basis. These differences, or variations, can include characteristics such as body shape or size, skin or hair color, physical markings or structures, or behaviors such as methods of obtaining food. Organisms, within a species, that possess physical and behavioral traits that allow them to be more successful in obtaining resources will be more likely to survive and reproduce. When organisms are faced with environmental changes, we often see a shift in what is considered a “favorable” trait within the species. This then has an effect on the overall population of organisms in terms of their physical and behavioral characteristics. These “best adapted” traits will be passed onto the next generations given that individuals with these traits will be more likely to survive and continue reproducing.

479. A nurse has to give a patient a tablet drug. Which of the following are the best units to use when writing in the chart how much of the drug was delivered?
     • L of drug/kg of patient’s body weight
     • Cm of drug/kg of patient’s body weight
     • mL of drug/mg of patient’s body weight
     • Mg of drug/kg of patient’s body weight

     Correct answer: Mg of drug/kg of patient’s body weight

     Answer: mg of drug/kg of patient’s body weight The dose is the amount of drug taken at any one time. This can be expressed as the weight of the drug (e.g. 250 mg), volume of drug solution (e.g. 10 mL, 2 drops), the number of dosage forms (e.g. 1 capsule, 1 suppository) or some other quantity (e.g. 2 puffs). Since the question mentions that the drug is in tablet form, we know that the best way to measure the drgu would be by mass (mg). It is best to consider the weight of the patient, for which the most appropriate unit are kilograms

480. Proper design of an experiment must maximize _______ and minimize ________.
     • Experimental variables; bias
     • Bias; accuracy and precision
     • Accuracy and precision; bias
     • Data; error

     Correct answer: Accuracy and precision; bias

     Answer: accuracy and precision; bias A. proper experiment will be designed in such a way that any biases are minimized through appropriate experimental controls. Designing an experiment in such a way ensures that the accuracy and precision are maximized.

481. Movement of molecules in a substance depends on _______ energy.
     • X-ray
     • Heat
     • UV
     • Gamma ray

     Correct answer: Heat

     Answer: heat All matter is made of particles called atoms (which make up molecules). These atoms and molecules are always in motion – bumping into each other or vibrating back and forth. Heat is a form of energy that is created through the movement of atoms and molecules. The amount of movement of molecules in a substance increases as it gains heat and decreases as it loses heat. At higher temperatures, particles have more energy. Some of this energy can be transmitted to other particles that are at a lower temperature. There are many types of electromagnetic waves. From lowest energy to highest energy there are radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, x-rays and gamma rays (see diagram below). They do not affect the movement of particles in substances.

482. Which of the following carry the genetic code for all the functioning and characteristics of a cell?
     • Fats
     • Proteins
     • Nucleic acids
     • Monosaccharide

     Correct answer: Nucleic acids

     Nucleic acids is the correct answer. Nucleic acids include DNA and RNA which contain all the genetic code required for cell functioning and characteristics. Monosaccharides are simple sugars made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. They provide energy for metabolic processes. Proteins are polymers of amino acids that act as building blocks of the body and aid in growth and development. Fats are compounds made of fatty acids with different functions, such as insulation and protection of internal organs of the body.

483. Which of the following statements is true about covalent bonds?
     • Covalent bonds form from the sharing of electrons between atoms
     • Sigma bonds are the weakest covalent bonds
     • The covalent bond between H-Cl is nonpolar
     • Covalent bonds aren’t affected by the electronegativity of the atoms

     Correct answer: Covalent bonds form from the sharing of electrons between atoms

     Answer: Covalent bonds form from the sharing of electrons between atoms. A covalent bond is a chemical bond that is formed when two atoms share electrons in their outermost shells. These shared electrons are called shared pairs. Sigma bonds are the strongest covalent bonds and are due to head-on overlapping of orbitals on two different atoms. A single bond is usually a sigma bond. Covalent bonds are also affected by the electronegativity of the connected atoms, which determines the polarity of the bond. Two atoms with equal electronegativity will make nonpolar covalent bonds such as H–H. A molecule that does not share electrons “equally,” such as $\ce{H2}$, creates a polar bond. A polar bond is characterized by one of the atoms in the molecule having a stronger “pull” on the shared electrons. This results in some atoms in the molecules having a slightly negative charge and others having a slightly positive charge. In the case of water, the oxygen atom end sup with a slight negative charge because it pulls the shared electrons with Hydrogen closer to itself. This results in the hydrogen atoms having a slightly positive charge do to the imbalance.

484. Which of these is an example of a monosaccharide?
     • Glucose
     • Starch
     • Cellulose
     • Glycogen

     Correct answer: Glucose

     Glucose is the correct answer. Glucose is a monosaccharide. It is a simple hexose sugar used as an energy source by cells. Starch is an example of a polysaccharide and is largely found in rice, bread, and other grains. Cellulose is an example of a polysaccharide present in plants. Glycogen is a polysaccharide made up of glucose monomers and is found in muscle cells, acting as energy storage.

485. Which of the following compounds contains ionic bonds?
     • $\ce{C6H6}$
     • $\ce{CH4}$
     • $\ce{O2}$
     • $\ce{NaBr}$

     Correct answer: $\ce{NaBr}$

     Answer: $\ce{NaBr}$ Ionic bonds form when elements from opposite sides of the periodic table form an ionic compound. In the question above, Na is a metal from the left side of the periodic table, and Br is a nonmetal from the right side of the periodic table. Covalent bonds are formed when nonmetals (including H) form a compound. Carbon (C), hydrogen (H), and (O) are all examples of nonmetals, so all of the other options are examples of covalent compounds.

486. Which type of chemical reaction is demonstrated by the reaction below? $\ce{Ba(NO3)2 + Na2SO4 -> BaSO4 + 2NaNO3}$
     • Acid-base reaction
     • Double replacement
     • Single replacement reaction
     • Decomposition

     Correct answer: Double replacement

     Answer: Double replacement In a double replacement reaction, two metal ions ($\ce{Ba^2+}$ and $\ce{Na+}$) switch places with each other in two ionic compounds. A similar reaction is the single replacement reaction, where two metal ions are swapped in only a single ionic compound. In a decomposition reaction, a single compound is broken down into several other smaller compounds. In an acid-base reaction, a proton ($\ce{H+}$) is transferred from one molecule to another, which has not occurred in the reaction above.

487. Which of these nitrogenous bases are present in RNA?
     • Guanine and uracil
     • Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine
     • Adenine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine
     • Thymine and cytosine

     Correct answer: Adenine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine

     Adenine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine is the correct answer. RNA has adenine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine as nitrogenous bases. Unlike DNA, thymine gets replaced by uracil in RNA. RNA contains four types of nitrogenous bases, but it does not contain thymine in its structure. RNA does not contain thymine. It contains adenine, uracil, guanine, and cytosine. RNA contains adenine and cytosine along with guanine and uracil.

488. Which of the following correct states the role of DNA?
     • Transcription of genetic information into RNA
     • Protein synthesis
     • It does not have any influence on hereditary and metabolic processes.
     • It does not involve mutations.

     Correct answer: Transcription of genetic information into RNA

     Transcription of genetic information into RNA is the correct answer. DNA undergoes a transcription process by which the genetic information is copied into a new molecule of RNA, mostly mRNA. DNA plays an essential role in controlling hereditary and metabolic processes. DNA undergoes mutations during cell division in exposure to mutagens, radiation, or infections. DNA is not involved directly in protein synthesis. After transcription, mRNA carries out protein synthesis by the process of translation.

489. Which of these are the nitrogenous bases present in DNA?
     • Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine
     • Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil
     • Adenine and thymine
     • Guanine and cytosine

     Correct answer: Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine

     Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine is the correct answer. DNA consists of four main nitrogenous bases – adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine. RNA consists of four nitrogenous bases – adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil. Thymine is replaced by uracil. DNA consists of four different nitrogenous bases, not only adenine and thymine. DNA consists of four different nitrogenous bases, not only guanine and cytosine.

490. Isotopes are __________.
     • Versions of one element with a different number of neutrons
     • Versions of one element with a different number of protons
     • Types of valence shells
     • Special orbitals in metal elements

     Correct answer: Versions of one element with a different number of neutrons

     Answer: versions of one element with a different number of neutrons Isotopes are variants of an element where the number of neutrons are different from a normal atom of that particular element. All isotopes of an element will have the same number of protons (changing the number of protons would change the element), but will have different numbers of neutrons in each isotope. For example, Carbon-14 is an isotope of Carbon. A “normal” carbon atom would have 6 protons and 6 neutrons. Carbon-14 has 6 protons and eight neutrons.

491. Which of the following statements correctly describes the inheritance of traits in humans?
     • Both the parents produce different haploid gametes via meiosis that fertilize to form a diploid zygote.
     • Only one parent produces diploid gamete, while the other contributes to the phenotypic traits of the offspring.
     • Both the parents produce similar diploid gametes via meiosis that fertilize to form a diploid zygote.
     • Both the parents mitotically produce haploid gametes that fertilize to produce a diploid zygote.

     Correct answer: Both the parents produce different haploid gametes via meiosis that fertilize to form a diploid zygote.

     Both the parents produce different haploid gametes via meiosis that fertilize to form a diploid zygote is the correct answer. The sperm cell from the father and the egg cell from the mother both contain genetic information or specific alleles from both parents. During the process of fertilization, both the gametes fuse to form a diploid zygote. This way, both the parents contribute equally to the genotype (genetic makeup) of the offspring. Both the parents are diploid (2n) who produce haploid (1n) gametes through meiosis. They do not produce diploid gametes. The male parent produces sperm cells while the female produces egg cells. In humans, gametogenesis occurs through meiosis and not mitosis. In humans, both the parents contribute to the genotype of the offspring and not just one. The combination of both the gametes determines the traits in the offspring.

492. In a redox reaction, oxidation is the _______ of electrons and reduction is the _______ of electrons.
     • Loss, gain
     • Loss, loss
     • Gain, loss
     • Gain, gain

     Correct answer: Loss, gain

     Answer: loss, gain In a redox reaction, oxidation is the loss of electrons, and reduction is the gain of electrons. A good way to remember this is OIL RIG: Oxidation Is Loss Reduction Is Gain

493. Which of the following can be classified as an intensive property?
     • Volume
     • Entropy
     • Density
     • Mass

     Correct answer: Density

     Answer: Density An intensive property is any characteristic of matter that does not depend on the amount of the substance present. Examples of intensive properties are density and color. This is because no matter how much or little you have of a substance, the color and the density of that substance are the same. If you have one ounce of orange juice or three gallons of orange juice, it will still be the color orange and will have the same density. An extensive property is any characteristic of matter that depends on the amount of matter being measured. Examples of extensive properties are mass and volume. If you have one ounce of orange juice, the mass and volume of the orange juice would be different than if you had three gallons of orange juice. Entropy refers to the degree of disorder within a system (how random and unpredictable something is). It is measured by the amount of energy unavailable in a closed thermodynamic system. Entropy can change depending on the size of the system and the amount of matter within it which makes it an extensive property.

494. Which of these statements is true about pH?
     • Higher pH values indicate a higher [H+]
     • Blood has an acidic pH
     • A pH of 6 is more acidic than a pH of 8
     • Adding an acid to a solution will increase the pH

     Correct answer: A pH of 6 is more acidic than a pH of 8

     Answer: A pH of 6 is more acidic than a pH of 8 Lower pH values indicate a more acidic solution, thus 6 is more acidic than 8. This occurs because acids increase [H+] of a solution, which lowers the pH of a solution. Thus, higher pH values would have a lower [H+]. Blood has a pH between 7.35 and 7.45, so it is slightly basic.

495. Which of the following is a unique property of water?
     • Its low surface tension
     • Its exceptional low heat of vapourization
     • Its volume decreases when freezing
     • When freezing, water molecules can form hydrogen bonds more easily

     Correct answer: When freezing, water molecules can form hydrogen bonds more easily

     Answer: When freezing, water molecules can form hydrogen bonds more easily Besides mercury, water has the highest surface tension for all liquids. Water’s high surface tension is due to the hydrogen bonding in water molecules. When freezing, molecules within water begin to move around more slowly, making it easier for them to form hydrogen bonds with each other and eventually arrange themselves into an open crystalline, hexagonal structure. Because of this open structure as the water molecules are being held further apart, the volume of water (now ice) increases about 9%. This is why ice floats on liquid water. Water also has an exceptionally high heat of vaporization. Vaporization occurs when a liquid changes to a gas.

496. Which of the following is an example of a macromolecule that acts as a catalyst in biochemical reactions?
     • Glucose
     • Amylase
     • Triglyceride
     • Leucine

     Correct answer: Amylase

     Amylase is the correct answer. Amylase is an enzyme that acts as a catalyst in the biochemical reaction of digestion. NurseHub Hint: Most enzymes end in “-ase”. Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide and is a carbohydrate. It does not catalyze any reaction. Leucine is an amino acid and does not act as a catalyst. Triglyceride is a lipid molecule formed of three fatty acid chains attached to a glycerol molecule. It does not act as a catalyst.

497. Which of these is the start codon?
     • UAA
     • UAG
     • UGA
     • AUG

     Correct answer: AUG

     AUG is the correct answer. AUG is the start codon which also codes for methionine amino acid. UAA, UAG, and UGA are stop codons. They stop the process of protein synthesis (translation).

498. Which of these is NOT a role of chromosomes?
     • It inhibits the cell processes.
     • It determines the sex of an individual.
     • It determines height and color.
     • It contains information for cell formation.

     Correct answer: It inhibits the cell processes.

     It inhibits the cell processes is the correct answer. Chromosomes carry genetic information in the form of DNA. They involve the control of cell processes by the synthesis of specific proteins required for different cell processes. Chromosomes determine the gender of an individual by means of the sex chromosomes of the parents. Chromosomes are also involved in cell formation during cell division; each one uncoils at the centromere and results in the formation of two cells. Chromosomes carry genetic material which determines the height and color traits in the offspring.

499. Which of the hereditary units is responsible for carrying genetic information from parents to offspring?
     • DNA
     • Proteins
     • RNA
     • Amino acids

     Correct answer: DNA

     DNA is the correct answer. DNA present in the genes is the unit of heredity that transfers genetic information from the parents to the offspring. Proteins coordinate all bodily functions, including repair and metabolism. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. RNA is involved in the synthesis of the proteins that it encodes.

500. The presence of genes contributes to the entire cell functioning and unique character traits. How are these genes inherited?
     • The genes are always inherited from sperm cells during fertilization.
     • The two alleles in a particular gene pair are inherited, one from the mother and one from the father, during fertilization.
     • All the genes are inherited from the egg cell during fertilization.
     • Genes are inherited when DNA moves from one cell to the other.

     Correct answer: The two alleles in a particular gene pair are inherited, one from the mother and one from the father, during fertilization.

     The two alleles in a particular gene pair are inherited, one from the mother and one from the father, during fertilization is the correct answer. The two alleles (versions) of a particular gene pair are inherited, one from the mother and one from the father, during fertilization. Though DNA contains all the genes that are responsible for various inheritance patterns, DNA does not pass from one cell to the other. Rather, each new individual produced via sexual reproduction has a combination of DNA from both of its parents. The genes are inherited from both the parents and not just the egg cell. Sperm cells fertilize the egg cell, contributing to the mixture of genes. The genes are inherited from both the parents and not just the sperm cells.

501. What are alleles?
     • Alleles are an alternate form of a gene.
     • Alleles are heterozygous gene forms.
     • Alleles are linked genes.
     • Alleles are crossed-over chromosomes.

     Correct answer: Alleles are an alternate form of a gene.

     Alleles are an alternate form of a gene is the correct answer. Alleles are an alternate or variant form of a gene present in an individual. For example, you inherit one allele of the gene for hair color from your biological father and another from your biological mother. One allele may be for dark hair and the other may be for light hair. Therefore, you have two alleles for each gene, and the combination of those alleles determines which physical trait (phenotype) is expressed. Linked genes are those genes that are nearby on the same chromosome, not different versions of the same gene. The cross-over chromosomes are not alleles. Alleles are alternate forms of genes, which are found on chromosomes. Pairs of alleles can be either heterozygous (two different forms of the alleles) or homozygous (two of the same forms of alleles). A single allele can be neither heterozygous nor homozygous since it is only one form of the gene.

502. Which of these acts as the first source of energy in the human body?
     • Carbohydrates
     • Proteins
     • Fats
     • Nucleic acids

     Correct answer: Carbohydrates

     Carbohydrates is the correct answer. Carbohydrates act as the main (and quick) source of energy in the human body. Proteins and fats can be used as energy sources if carbohydrates are not available in the body. Nucleic acids do not act as the main source of energy. They form the DNA and act as information-carrying molecules in the body. Fats can be used to produce energy in the body when carbohydrates are not available. They act as a second source of energy. Proteins are used after fats and thus, act as the last source of energy in the human body among carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.

503. The same single-replacement reaction is run in two different beakers. The beakers are labeled as Beaker A and B and are heated to 75oC and 100oC, respectively. If the reactions are run for 15 minutes each, which of the following results would you expect to observe?
     • Beaker B produces more product than Beaker A
     • The two beakers produce the same amount of product
     • No products are produced in either beaker
     • Beaker A produces more product than Beaker B

     Correct answer: Beaker B produces more product than Beaker A

     Answer: Beaker B produces more product than Beaker A. As the temperature of a reaction increases, the reaction rate increases as well. This is due to an increased number of collisions that occur between molecules during a reaction. Since Beaker B is at a higher temperature, it should produce more product than Beaker A since the reaction times are equal.

504. $\ce{Br2}$ is classified as which of the following?
     • Ion
     • Atom
     • Molecule
     • Compound

     Correct answer: Molecule

     Answer: Molecule $\ce{Br2}$ is classified as a molecule because it is composed of two atoms of the element, Br. Molecules are substances that are composed of two or more atoms. Compounds are substances that are composed of two or more different types of atoms ($\ce{H2O}$ is an example since it contains both H and O). An element is a substance whose atoms all have the same number of protons (same chemical identity), and $\ce{Br2}$ is the elemental form of bromine. An ion is a charged atom or molecule and will contain a (+) or (-).

505. Which of the following correctly describes the function of codons?
     • Codons encode the amino acid that translates into protein.
     • Codons aid in mRNA synthesis.
     • Codons help in the assembly of the final protein structure.
     • Codons recruit tRNA to form proteins.

     Correct answer: Codons encode the amino acid that translates into protein.

     Codons encode the amino acid that translates into protein is the correct answer. Codons contain the blueprint for protein synthesis. They encode the amino acids that translate into protein. Codons do not recruit any tRNA for translation. Codons are not responsible for the synthesis of the mRNA process. The final structure of a protein is due to its modification and processing. Codons do not direct the modification process for proteins.

506. Which of the following statements is true about hydrogen bonds?
     • They don’t affect the properties of water in any way
     • They form between a partial positively charged region on one molecule and the partial negatively charged region on another molecule
     • They are considered strong attractive forces
     • They result from the attraction between ions that have no charge

     Correct answer: They form between a partial positively charged region on one molecule and the partial negatively charged region on another molecule

     Answer: They form between a partial positively charged region on one molecule and the partial negatively charged region on another molecule Hydrogen bonding occurs between molecules when at least one contains a hydrogen atom and both molecules have a small electric charge because the molecule is polar. Polar molecules, such as water, result from one atom having a stronger pull on the shared electrons, which causes the atoms to have slight negative or positive charges. The slight positive charge of the hydrogen atoms allow them to form hydrogen bonds with the atoms in other polar molecules with slightly negative charges. Although hydrogen bonds are considered a weak attractive force, they are the strongest weak bonds (also known as “Vander Waal’s forces”) by far. As a result, hydrogen bonding is weaker than both ionic and covalent bonds. Water is strongly affected by hydrogen bonding. Because the hydrogen bonds attract water molecules to one another, water is more tightly packed in liquid form than in solid form, where the molecules are held further apart in a lattice.

507. Which of the following definitions is correct?
     • Liquids have a constant volume but not a constant shape.
     • Solids have neither a constant volume nor a constant shape.
     • Solids lack a constant volume but have a constant shape.
     • Gases have a constant volume and constant shape.

     Correct answer: Liquids have a constant volume but not a constant shape.

     Answer: Liquids have a constant volume but not a constant shape. Liquids can occupy whatever shape their container has, so they do not have a fixed shape. Because the particles in liquids are very close together (barely further apart than in solids) liquids do not easily compress, so their volume is fixed. A gas is a substance with no definite volume and no definite shape. Solids and liquids have volumes that do not change easily. A solid has a definite shape and volume. There are two kinds of solids—crystalline and amorphous.

508. Which of these is responsible for determining the sex of an individual?
     • tRNA
     • Proteins
     • mRNA
     • Chromosomes

     Correct answer: Chromosomes

     Chromosomes is the correct answer. Chromosomes carry characteristic traits and genetic information in the form of DNA, which is responsible for determining the sex of an individual. Proteins are involved in different cell processes, and they do not carry any genetic information. mRNA and tRNA are involved in the synthesis of specific proteins.

509. Which of the following is not true about the lymphatic system?
     • The lymphatic system transports both white blood cells and red blood cells.
     • The lymphatic system facilitates the filtering of fluid at the lymph nodes.
     • The lymphatic system includes the spleen, thymus, and tonsils.
     • The lymphatic system transports a fluid called lymph throughout the body.

     Correct answer: The lymphatic system transports both white blood cells and red blood cells.

     Answer: The lymphatic system transports both white blood cells and red blood cells. The lymphatic system is part of both the vascular and immune systems, containing a network of vessels that carries lymph. Lymph is a fluid containing lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell) that drains from other tissues during a filtration process. Lymphatic tissues including lymph nodes, the spleen, and the tonsils are lymphatic tissues that filter lymph and trap foreign particles as they travel through the lymphatic system. The thymus is also an important lymphatic organ as it produces lymphocytes. Although the lymphatic system is closely related to the circulatory system it does not transport red blood cells.

510. Which of the following describes the function of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum?
     • Intracellular digestion of damaged structures, macromolecules, and bacteria
     • Conversion of nutrients to ATP
     • Facilitates movement of substance in and out of the cell
     • Synthesis and transport of proteins

     Correct answer: Synthesis and transport of proteins

     Answer: Synthesis and transport of proteins The Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum is studded with ribosomes and, as such, assists in the synthesis and transport of proteins. ATP production is a function of the mitochondria while intracellular digestion is performed by lysosomes. Entry and exit of substances is facilitated by the cell membrane.

511. In the digestive system, the function of the ____________ is to ______________.
     • Liver; secrete insulin for glucose uptake
     • Gall bladder; secrete lipase for fat emulsification
     • Pancreas; secrete bile for starch digestion
     • Stomach; secrete pepsinogen for protein digestion

     Correct answer: Stomach; secrete pepsinogen for protein digestion

     Answer: stomach; secrete pepsinogen for protein digestion The stomach secretes the enzyme pepsinogen, which is a precursor to the enzyme pepsin. Pepsin is an enzyme used for digesting protein. The liver does not secrete insulin; insulin is used for glucose uptake but it is secreted by the pancreas. The gallbladder is a small organ associated with the liver. The gallbladder does not secrete any substance, but is used to store bile that the liver produces. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon; it does not secrete bile. Furthermore, bile is not used for protein digestion-it is used for fat emulsification.

512. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is primarily responsible for stimulating activities that would increase alertness during periods of stress and anxiety. Which of the following activities is not a sympathetic response?
     • Increase in blood pressure
     • Sweating
     • Increase in salivation
     • Dilation of the pupils

     Correct answer: Increase in salivation

     Answer: Increase in salivation Sympathetic responses are fight-or-flight responses which include an increase in blood pressure, dilation of the pupils, and sweating. Salivation, on the other hand, is part of the rest-and-digest responses/activities which is under the control of the parasympathetic division of autonomic nervous system.

513. The primary function of _____________ is _____________________.
     • Amylase; fat breakdown in the stomach
     • Bile; fat emulsification in the small intestine
     • Saliva; protein breakdown in the mouth
     • Chyme; carbohydrate breakdown in the mouth

     Correct answer: Bile; fat emulsification in the small intestine

     Answer: bile; fat emulsification in the small intestine Bile is secreted by the liver and sent to the gallbladder for storage. The primary function of bile is to facilitate the breakdown and emulsification of fat, which occurs in the small intestine. Chyme is a mixture of partially broken-down food and digestive juices that moves from the stomach to the small intestine. It is not able to breakdown any nutrients. Saliva is found in the mouth and contains salivary enzymes, specifically amylases and lipases, that break down carbohydrates and fats. However, protein enzymes are not present in saliva. Amylase is found in digestive enzymes in the mouth and stomach; however, the purpose of amylase is to break down carbohydrates, not fats.

514. Which of the following lists the blood vessels in the order of blood flow from the left ventricle back to the heart at the right atrium?
     • Aorta, arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, venules, vena cava
     • Arterioles, arteries, aorta, vena cava, veins, venules, capillaries
     • Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava
     • Vena cava, veins, venules, capillaries, arterioles, arteries, aorta

     Correct answer: Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava

     Answer: Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava When blood is pumped out from the heart, the left ventricle ejects blood to the body through the aorta (the body’s largest artery), and then through the branching of arteries. As blood travels throughout the body, it travels through various arteries. The arteries get smaller, becoming arterioles, as they get closer to the tissues. At the tissues, oxygen and nutrients are exchanged through capillary beds, Capillaries act as transition vessels between the arteries and veins. Once the oxygen and nutrients are unloaded to the tissue, the remaining blood enters the venous circulation and travels back to the heart. Smaller veins closer to the capillary beds are called venules, becoming larger veins as they get closer to the heart. The largest vein, the vena cava, dumps blood directly back into the heart at the right atrium.

515. Voluntarily holding your breath will eventually result in:
     • An innate reflex to start breathing due to increased carbon dioxide levels
     • Brain damage or death to due to lack of oxygen
     • An innate reflex to start breathing due to low oxygen levels
     • Temporary unconsciousness and risk of stroke

     Correct answer: An innate reflex to start breathing due to increased carbon dioxide levels

     Answer: an innate reflex to start breathing due to increased carbon dioxide levels. When someone holds their breath, two things are happening: there is a lack of oxygen being taken in and delivered to the body’s tissues, and there is a buildup of carbon dioxide that is not being exhaled as it normally would. Since the chemoreceptors in the body can’t detect the lack of something (i.e oxygen), they instead detect the unsafe increase in something: carbon dioxide. These sensors then override the voluntary breath-holding and force an exhalation to rid the body of carbon dioxide and stimulate oxygen intake.While a temporary lack of oxygen does occur, it will not cause brain damage because breathing will occur before that happens. Breathing will re-start due to an innate reflex, but it is due to increased carbon dioxide levels, not low oxygen levels. Unconsciousness and stroke are unlikely to occur as breathing will re-start due to the reflex to rid the body of carbon dioxide.

516. Which of the following statements is correct?
     • Gonads, similar to other organs, produce cells that have the full number of chromosomes.
     • The female gonads are the uterus and the ovaries.
     • The male gonads are the testes and the penis.
     • Gonads produce sperm in males and ova in females.

     Correct answer: Gonads produce sperm in males and ova in females.

     Answer: Gonads produce sperm in males and ova in females. Gonads are the primary organs in the male and female reproductive systems. They are the production sites for gametes (sperm and egg cells). Gonads in males are the testes, while the gonads in females are the ovaries. Gonads produce sperm in males and ova in females, both of which have half the number of chromosomes in contrast to other cells of the human body. This is because gametes are produced through meiosis, which facilitates the cells dividing twice, resulting in half the number of chromosomes as other cells in the body.

517. Function of male and female reproductive system is regulated by hormones. Which of the following is not correct?
     • The Corpus luteum secretes progesterone.
     • Testosterone promotes development of male secondary sexual characteristics.
     • The pituitary gland is located in the brain and it secretes follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
     • The Cowper’s glands produce testosterone.

     Correct answer: The Cowper’s glands produce testosterone.

     Answer: The Cowper’s glands produce testosterone. The Cowper’s glands are found on the lateral side of the male urethra and secrete mucus that lubricates the urethra. Testosterone is produced by the testes. The Pituitary gland is located in the brain and it secretes follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). The Corpus luteum is the temporary endocrine organ formed after ovulation and functions in the secretion of progesterone.

518. Which of the following anatomical structures prevents food from entering the respiratory system?
     • Pharynx
     • Pleura
     • Larynx
     • Epiglottis

     Correct answer: Epiglottis

     Answer: Epiglottis The epiglottis is a cartilage flap located at the top of the larynx that is responsible for closing during swallowing. This flap covers the opening to the trachea so that food does not enter the lower respiratory airways. The pharynx is a shared cavity behind the nose and moth that leads to the esophagus and trachea. The pleura are a double layered membrane that line the lungs. The larynx is located just inferior to the pharynx and is commonly referred to as the “voice box”.

519. A lung with a low level of compliance could be best described as _____________.
     • A lung with normal function
     • A stiff lung requiring extra work to accomplish normal breathing
     • A highly elastic lung allowing breathing occur with reduced work
     • A lung with a high elasticity but with damaged alveoli.

     Correct answer: A stiff lung requiring extra work to accomplish normal breathing

     Answer: a stiff lung requiring extra work to accomplish normal breathing. Lung compliance is the property of the lung that allows it to stretch and recoil. Both appropriate stretch and recoil are necessary for proper lung function, thus compliance that is too high or too low can negatively affect function. In a lung with low compliance, or a stiff lung, extra work will be required to overcome the stiffness of the lung and breathe sufficient air in. A stiff lung will not operate normally as sufficient air will not be able to be taken in without extra effort to overcome the resistance of the lung. The low compliance of the lung indicates that it’s elastic properties are reduced, thus it will not be highly elastic. A lung with low compliance will not have high elasticity; instead it will be stiff. There may be damaged alveoli but this may not always be the case.

520. Which of the following terms correctly describes the movement of air in and out of the lungs?
     • Ventilation
     • Respiration
     • Oxidation
     • Diffusion

     Correct answer: Ventilation

     Answer: Ventilation Ventilation is the physical movement of air in and out of the lungs. Respiration is the use of oxygen by a cell or organism to make energy. Oxidation refers to a chemical process in which a molecule loses electrons. Diffusion is the passive movement of a substance from high concentration to low concentration.

521. Which of the following functions in producing sperm?
     • Vas deferens
     • Urethra
     • Seminiferous tubules
     • Fallopian tube

     Correct answer: Seminiferous tubules

     Answer: Seminiferous tubules. Seminiferous tubules are the tightly coiled tubules within the testes (male gonads) where sperm production occurs. From the testes, sperm travels via the vas deferens and urethra. In females, from the gonads, gametes travel via the fallopian tubes.

522. Which of the following is true about thermoregulation?
     • The production of eccrine sweat glands decreases in high temperatures
     • Production of sweat by the eccrine glands facilitates cooling of the body
     • Increase in blood flow in the skin reduces heat loss from the body
     • Reduction of blood flow through the skin promotes heat loss

     Correct answer: Production of sweat by the eccrine glands facilitates cooling of the body

     Answer: Production of sweat by the eccrine glands facilitates cooling of the body During high temperatures, production of sweat from the eccrine glands increases, which facilitates evaporative cooling of the body. Reduction of blood flow through the skin via cutaneous vasoconstriction (constriction of blood vessels) reduces heat loss, while increase in blood flow in the skin via cutaneous vasodilation (dilation of blood vessels) promotes heat loss and cools the body.

523. Which of the following structures is not correctly matched with its function?
     • Vagina/ copulatory organ of female
     • Cervix/ implantation site of a zygote
     • Penis/ external sexual organ of male
     • Vas deferens/ sperm duct to penis

     Correct answer: Cervix/ implantation site of a zygote

     Answer: Cervix/ implantation site of a zygote The implantation site of a fertilized egg, or zygote, is the uterus. The cervix is a neck of tissue that connects the vagina to the uterus. The Vas deferens is the sperm channel from the epididymis to the penis. The penis is the external sexual organ of male. The vagina is the copulatory organ of female. The sperm enters the female’s body in the vagina and moves through the cervix to reach the uterus, then finally the fallopian tubes.

524. Which of the following statements is not true about accessory structures in the skin?
     • Hair is produced from epithelial tissue that dips down into the dermis to form hair follicles.
     • Sebaceous glands secrete oily substance that prevents drying out of hair and skin.
     • Eccrine sweat glands are only concentrated in particular parts of the body, such as the armpits and genital region.
     • Ceruminous glands produce waxy lubricant secretion that protects the ears.

     Correct answer: Eccrine sweat glands are only concentrated in particular parts of the body, such as the armpits and genital region.

     Answer: Eccrine sweat glands are only concentrated in particular parts of the body, such as the armpits and genital region. The type of sweat gland that is only concentrated in particular parts of the body, such as the armpits and genital region are apocrine sweat glands. Eccrine sweat glands, which secrete perspiration necessary for evaporative cooling, are found throughout the skin of most regions of the body.

525. Which of the following is true of the function sebaceous glands?
     • Sebaceous glands produce substance that is responsible for the color of the skin
     • Sebaceous glands produce secretion that when released, has an odor with a possible pheromone function in humans
     • Sebaceous glands are found in the hypodermis and secrete substance that protects the ears from foreign bodies
     • Sebaceous glands supply the hair shafts and skin with oily secretions

     Correct answer: Sebaceous glands supply the hair shafts and skin with oily secretions

     Answer: Sebaceous glands supply the hair shafts and skin with oily secretions Sebaceous glands supply the hair shafts and skin with oily secretions. The glands that produce secretion that has an odor with a possible pheromone function in humans are the apocrine sweat glands. Color of the skin is due to melanin produced by specialized cells in the epidermis. The glands that are found in the hypodermis and secrete substance that protects the ears from foreign bodies are the ceruminous glands.

526. Which of the following is the largest organ of the human body?
     • Pancreas
     • Skin
     • Kidney
     • Lung

     Correct answer: Skin

     Answer: Skin Skin is the largest single organ of the body that is mainly responsible for covering and protection of internal structures.

527. Which of the following processes reduces heat loss and warms the body via integumental thermoregulation?
     • Cutaneous vasodilation
     • Tensing of the arrector pili muscles
     • Cutaneous vasoconstriction
     • Sweating

     Correct answer: Cutaneous vasoconstriction

     Answer: Cutaneous vasoconstriction Cutaneous vasoconstriction (constriction of blood vessels) reduces heat loss and warms the body. Cutaneous vasodilation (dilation of the blood vessels) cools the body by allowing heat to be released through skin. Production of sweat facilitates vasodilation and cooling of the body. Contraction of arrector pili muscle facilitates vasoconstriction.

528. Which of the following is true of insulin and glucagon?
     • Insulin and glucagon have opposite effects on blood glucose but work together to maintain homeostasis.
     • Insulin and glucagon are both secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.
     • Insulin and glucagon have opposite effects on blood calcium levels but work together to maintain homeostasis.
     • Insulin and glucagon both raise blood glucose when it falls too low.
     • Insulin and glucagon are produced only during digestion and are inactive while fasting.

     Correct answer: Insulin and glucagon have opposite effects on blood glucose but work together to maintain homeostasis.

     Insulin (from pancreatic beta cells) lowers blood glucose and glucagon (from alpha cells) raises it — opposite actions that together keep blood glucose within a narrow range. They act on glucose, not calcium (that is calcitonin/PTH), are pancreatic not pituitary, and operate continuously including during fasting.

529. The response elicited by signals coming from endocrine glands is characterized by which of the following?
     • Slow initiation, short duration of response
     • Quick initiation, prolonged duration of response
     • Quick initiation, short duration of response
     • Slow initiation, prolonged duration of response

     Correct answer: Slow initiation, prolonged duration of response

     Answer: Slow initiation, prolonged duration of response Responses stimulated by the endocrine system take a longer time to initiate and last for a longer period of time. In contrast, responses to stimulation by the nervous system are quicker to initiate and are shorter in duration.

530. The folds that make up the shape of the villi and microvilli:
     • Facilitate absorption due to an increased surface area.
     • Help push food along the intestinal tract.
     • Create a barrier to block absorption of fats.
     • Increase enzyme secretions due to greater surface area.

     Correct answer: Facilitate absorption due to an increased surface area.

     Answer: Facilitate absorption due to an increased surface area. The function of villi and microvilli is to increase surface area of the small intestine, where the majority of nutrient absorption occurs. Villi and microvilli do not help push food along the intestinal tract, nor do they block fat absorption. Villi and microvilli do not secrete enzymes.

531. Which of the following describes the contraction of the smooth muscle in order to move food down the esophagus to the stomach?
     • Peristalsis
     • Deglutition
     • Pharyngeal constriction
     • Mastication

     Correct answer: Peristalsis

     Answer: Peristalsis Peristalsis is the contraction of smooth muscle that lines the esophageal walls. The smooth muscle has a circular layer as well as a longitudinal layer of muscle that allows a “wringing” action of the smooth muscle to push food down the esophagus. Mastication refers to the chewing actions carried out by the mouth that mechanically breaks down food. Deglutition is the process of swallowing, where food is pushed from the mouth to the esophagus through the pharynx. Pharyngeal constriction refers to the muscular action of the throat that allows food to be pushed towards the esophagus.

532. Which of the following steps of protein synthesis occurs in the nucleus?
     • Replication
     • Transcription to mRNA
     • Translation to amino acid
     • Elongation

     Correct answer: Transcription to mRNA

     Answer: Transcription to mRNA Protein synthesis is comprised of two main steps, transcription of DNA to mRNA and translation of mRNA codons to amino acids. In the nucleus, the mRNA transcribes the genetic instruction from the DNA. mRNA then diffuses to the cytoplasm through the nuclear pores. Translation to amino acid and elongation to a particular protein molecule occur in the cytoplasm, particularly in the ribosomes.

533. Which of the following is the name of the imaginary vertical plane that equally divides the body into left and right?
     • Coronal
     • Sagittal
     • Horizontal
     • Transverse

     Correct answer: Sagittal

     Answer: Sagittal The sagittal plane is also a vertical plane but it equally divides the body into left and right. The Coronal plane is an imaginary vertical plane that divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior). The horizontal, or transverse, plane is an imaginary plane at right angle with coronal and sagittal planes and it divides the body into superior and inferior.

534. Which of the following refers to the process of nerve stimulation wherein the action potential is generated through several stimulations released in rapid succession by a single source?
     • Continuous conduction
     • Saltatory conduction
     • Spatial summation
     • Temporal summation

     Correct answer: Temporal summation

     Answer: Temporal summation The propagation of action potential can either occur via saltatory or continuous conduction. Saltatory conduction is the jumping of action potential from node to node along a myelinated axon while continuous conduction is the transmission of signal along unmyelinated axon. In the diagrambelow, you can see how myelin assists in saltatory conduction (right), which is much faster than continuous conduction (left). Summation is the process of adding up of graded potentials in order to generate an action potential. In spatial summation, the stimuli is from several sources at the same time while in temporal summation the stimuli is from several stimulations released in rapid succession by a single source.

535. Which of the following parts of neurons is correctly paired with its function?
     • Cell body/ releases neurotransmitters
     • Axon / sends stimulus to axon terminal
     • Axon terminal / receives stimulus from cell body
     • Dendrites/ site of metabolic activities

     Correct answer: Axon / sends stimulus to axon terminal

     Answer: axon / sends stimulus to axon terminal The basic parts of a neuron are the axon, dendrites, and cell body. The cell body contains the organelles where metabolic activities of the cell occur. Nerve signals from another neuron is received by the dendrites which then transmit the signal to the cell body. The axon carries the signal away from the cell body and transmits it to another neuron through the axon terminal. The axon terminal releases neurotransmitters which mediate nerve signaling.

536. In order for the heart to contract, an action potential must be generated at the sinoatrial node. If this signal fails to reach the Purkinje fibers, what will be the result?
     • The Purkinje fibers will act as pacemaker cells but fire at a slower rate
     • The systolic period will be elongated
     • The diastolic period will be shortened
     • The ventricles will not contract and blood will pool within the heart

     Correct answer: The Purkinje fibers will act as pacemaker cells but fire at a slower rate

     Answer: The Purkinje fibers will act as pacemaker cells but fire at a slower rate Just like skeletal and smooth muscle, cardiac muscle must have an electrical signal, or action potential, in order to contract. This means that the heart can contract on its own without the brain telling it to contract. This is possible due to the sinoatrial (SA) node, which can spontaneously initiate an action potential. This action potential is initiated in the right atrium where the SA node is located and disperses throughout the heart allowing muscle contraction to occur. Purkinje fibers are networks of fibers that are involved in relaying the electrical signal to the ventricles. If an electrical discharge does not reach the Purkinje fibers, they will take over as pacemaker cells to allow the continued contraction of the ventricles. However, the Purkinje fibers are only able to fire between 20-40 beats per minute, while the SA node is capable of firing 60-100 beats per minute. Note: If the Purkinje fibers were not able to fire, then the ventricles would not contract at all.

537. Which of the following correctly pairs an action with the nervous system that controls it?
     • Chewing/ autonomic
     • Breathing/ somatic
     • Heart contraction/ somatic
     • Digestion/ autonomic

     Correct answer: Digestion/ autonomic

     Answer: digestion/ autonomic The somatic nervous system controls voluntary actions while autonomic nervous system controls involuntary actions. Digestion, breathing, and heart contractions are all autonomic/ involuntary processes. Chewing is a voluntary/ somatic process.

538. Which of the following substances is produced by the lung for the purpose of reducing surface tension?
     • Surfactant
     • Carbon dioxide
     • Oxidase
     • Sodium bicarbonate

     Correct answer: Surfactant

     Answer: Surfactant The primary purpose of surfactant is to prevent lung collapse. The secondary purpose is to reduce surface tension. Additionally, the compliance of the lung is increased, meaning it can inflate more easily. Sodium bicarbonate is a chemical buffer that reduces acidity to maintain the proper acid-base balance. Oxidase is an enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of a hydrogen to an oxygen molecule. Carbon dioxide is the gas byproduct that forms as a result of metabolism and is exhaled through the lungs.

539. Which of the following processes correctly describe the formation of new cells in order to replace worn-out and damaged cells during injury?
     • Exocytosis
     • Mitosis
     • Meiosis
     • Endocytosis

     Correct answer: Mitosis

     Answer: Mitosis Mitosis and meiosis are two types of cell division. Mitosis is a process where a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells. The major purpose of mitosis is to replace worn-out and damaged cells. Meiosis is a process where a single cell divides twice to produce four cells containing half the original amount of genetic information. The purpose of meiosis is to create sex cells – sperm in males, eggs in females. Exocytosis is the cellular process of transporting substances out of the cell. Endocytosis is the cellular process of taking substance into the cell.

540. Which of the following is not a function of pulmonary surfactant?
     • Decrease in lung compliance
     • Prevention of lung collapse
     • Reduction of surface tension
     • Increase in lung compliance

     Correct answer: Decrease in lung compliance

     Answer: Decrease in lung compliance The purpose of surfactant is to prevent lung collapse and to reduce surface tension. Additionally, it increases the compliance of the lung, meaning it can inflate more easily. A decrease in lung compliance would make it more difficult to inflate the lungs. This is the opposite effect of surfactant.

541. Which of the following is not located on the anterior region of the human body?
     • Vertebral column
     • Clavicle
     • Mandible
     • Sternum

     Correct answer: Vertebral column

     Answer: Vertebral column The vertebral column is located posteriorly (at the back). The mandible, sternum, and clavicle are all located anteriorly (front).

542. ______________ is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the alveolar membrane.
     • Exocytosis
     • Osmosis
     • Active transport
     • Diffusion

     Correct answer: Diffusion

     Answer: Diffusion Diffusion is the passive movement of a substance from high concentration to low concentration. During inhalation, oxygen in the alveoli has to make its way into the blood, and this occurs via diffusion. A high oxygen concentration in the alveoli drives the movement of oxygen into the pulmonary capillaries where oxygen content is low. Conversely, carbon dioxide is also exchanged this way, but is unloaded, or moved from the blood to the alveoli for exhalation. Osmosis is a type of diffusion, however it involves the movement of water across a membrane. This happens when particles or substances are not able to pass through a membrane. This is not what happens at the alveoli, as the movement of gas molecules is necessary. Exocytosis is a type of vesicular transport which involves the release of a substance from inside a cell to outside a cell as the vesicle is dissolved. Active transport is a type of membrane transport that requires ATP, usually because a substance needs to move against its concentration gradient, rather than along with the gradient.

543. Which of the types of tissue is responsible for providing the matrix that supports and connects other tissues of the body?
     • Muscle tissue
     • Connective tissue
     • Epithelial tissue
     • Nerve tissue

     Correct answer: Connective tissue

     Answer: Connective tissue Connective tissue is responsible for providing the matrix that supports and connects other tissues of the the body. Nerve tissue is responsible for transmitting nerve impulse. Epithelial tissue functions as lining and covering of body surfaces and cavities. Muscle tissue functions in facilitating voluntary and involuntary movements.

544. Which of the following conditions would exhibit an increase in lung compliance?
     • Bronchitis
     • Asthma
     • Lung cancer
     • Emphysema

     Correct answer: Emphysema

     Answer: Emphysema Lung compliance is the property of the lung that allows it to stretch and recoil. Both appropriate stretch and recoil are necessary for proper lung function, thus compliance that is too high or too low can negatively affect function. Emphysema increases lung compliance due to the damaged lung tissue. In this condition, the lung will be able to inflate, but the recoil is delayed, thus exhalation is impaired. Asthma and bronchitis may be associated with some increase in lung compliance however this is less likely with these conditions. These conditions typically demonstrate reduced lung function due to inflammation or airway obstructions as opposed to damaged alveoli. Lung cancer usually causes a decrease in lung compliance due to the presence of more fibrotic tissue, which makes the lung stiffer and harder to inflate.

545. Which of the following correctly describes the flow of blood through the heart’s primary chambers?
     • Right atrium, left atrium, aorta, and vena cava
     • Right ventricle, left ventricle, aorta, and vena cava
     • Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle
     • Right ventricle, right atrium, vena cava, and aorta

     Correct answer: Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle

     Answer: right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle The heart is composed of four primary chambers: two atria and two ventricles. The right side of the heart, which includes the right atrium and the right ventricle receive blood from the body and send it to the lungs to pick up oxygen. The oxygenated blood returns to the heart at the left side, specifically the left atrium, and then the left ventricle. The left ventricle then ejects the now oxygenated blood to the body. The atria act as collection chambers, while the ventricles are the primary pumps of the heart.

546. Which of the following lists the heart’s primary valves in the order in which blood passes through them?
     • Tricuspid, aortic semilunar valve, bicuspid, pulmonary semilunar valve
     • Tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar valve, bicuspid, aortic semilunar valve
     • Tricuspid, bicuspid, aortic semilunar valve, pulmonary semilunar valve
     • Bicuspid, tricuspid, aortic semilunar valve, pulmonary semilunar valve

     Correct answer: Tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar valve, bicuspid, aortic semilunar valve

     Answer: tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar valve, bicuspid, aortic semilunar valve When the blood returns to the heart from the body, it is collected by the vena cava, which then delivers blood directly to the right atrium. Blood passes through the tricuspid valve as it moves from the right atrium to the right ventricle, and is then ejected into the lungs, passing through the pulmonary semilunar valve. Once the blood has been oxygenated, it returns to the heart at the left atrium. When the blood moves from the left atrium to the left ventricle, it passes through the bicuspid valve. The left ventricle will eject blood through the aortic semilunar valve, then send it through the systemic circuit.

547. Which of the following describes the role of acetylcholine in muscle contraction?
     • Acetylcholine binds to the membrane receptor and inhibits the stimulation and contraction of muscle fiber.
     • Acetylcholine binds to the membrane receptor in the sarcolemma and facilitates opening of the sodium channels.
     • Binding of acetylcholine results in the repolarization of the sarcolemma.
     • Acetylcholine binds to the sarcolemma to open calcium channels.

     Correct answer: Acetylcholine binds to the membrane receptor in the sarcolemma and facilitates opening of the sodium channels.

     Answer: Acetylcholine binds to the membrane receptor in the sarcolemma and facilitates opening of the sodium channels. Stimulation of the motor neuron results in the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (Ach) to the synapse, or neuromuscular junction. Ach then binds to the membrane receptor and opens sodium channels which results in the depolarization of the sarcolemma. Depolarization of the sarcolemma opens calcium channels which facilitates the contraction of the muscle fiber.

548. Dopamine is one of the neurotransmitters in the nervous system. What happens when dopamine is released into the nerve synapse?
     • Firing of an action potential by the presynaptic cell
     • Excitation and contraction of the presynaptic cell
     • Binding of dopamine to the membrane receptor of the postsynaptic cell
     • Dopamine will enter the cytoplasm of the postsynaptic cell

     Correct answer: Binding of dopamine to the membrane receptor of the postsynaptic cell

     Answer: Binding of dopamine to the membrane receptor of the postsynaptic cell. In response to a nerve stimulus, the presynaptic cell releases dopamine which diffuses to the synaptic cleft and binds to the membrane receptor of the postsynaptic cell. The postsynaptic cell will then convert the chemical stimuli to an electrical signal generating an action potential that will be transmitted to an effector.

549. Which of the following types of muscles are involuntary?
     • Cardiac and visceral
     • Skeletal only
     • Cardiac and skeletal
     • Skeletal and visceral

     Correct answer: Cardiac and visceral

     Answer: cardiac and visceral Cardiac and visceral muscles are both involuntary, while skeletal muscles operate under voluntary control. An involuntary muscle is a muscle that contracts without conscious control (like the heart). A voluntary muscle contracts when we consciously tell it to contract (like your biceps).

550. Which of the following functional types of nerves is correctly paired with the impulse it carries?
     • Afferent/ motor nerves
     • Efferent/ sensory nerves
     • Afferent/ carry stimulus towards the central nervous system
     • Efferent / carry stimulus away from the peripheral nervous system

     Correct answer: Afferent/ carry stimulus towards the central nervous system

     Answer: afferent/ carry stimulus towards the central nervous system. Afferent nerves carry sensory impulses or stimulus toward the central nervous system. Efferent nerves carry motor stimulus away from the central nervous system.

551. Which of the following glands are not found in both males and females?
     • Cowper’s gland
     • Pituitary gland
     • Adrenal glands
     • Parathyroid glands

     Correct answer: Cowper’s gland

     Answer: Cowper’s gland The Cowper’s glands are found on the lateral side of the male urethra, which secrete mucus that lubricates the urethra. The Pituitary, adrenal and parathyroid glands are present in both male and females. They secrete FSH/ LH, aldosterone/testosterone, and PTH, respectively.

552. Which of the following is the process by which gametes divide and produce half the number of chromosomes found in a somatic cell?
     • Fertilization
     • Zygote
     • Meiosis
     • Gametes

     Correct answer: Meiosis

     Answer: Meiosis Meiosis is the process by which gametes divide and produce half the number of chromosomes found in a somatic cell (a body cell). During meiosis, the cells divide twice instead of once. This results in the daughter cells (the gametes) having half of the chromosomes you would find in a somatic cell, which only undergoes one division during mitosis. The second division is necessary for gametes, since when an egg is fertilized, the chromosomes from each gamete are combined to form a zygote. Gametes are the male and female sex cell which contain half set of chromosomes. Fertilization is the process of union of male and female gametes which result to a fertilized egg, or zygote, which contains a full set of chromosomes.

553. Which of the following organs functions as both the implantation site of a fertilized ovum and the pathway for sperm to reach the uterine tubes?
     • Cervix
     • Uterus
     • Vagina
     • Fallopian tube

     Correct answer: Uterus

     Answer: Uterus The uterus functions as both the implantation site of a fertilized ovum and as the pathway for sperm to reach the uterine tubes. The fallopian tubes serve as the passageway for an ovum from the ovaries and is the site of fertilization. The vagina is the female copulatory organ that also serves as the outlet for menstrual flow and the passageway for childbirth. The cervix is the inferior narrow portion of the uterus where sperm capacitation occurs prior to fertilization.

554. Which of the following is not a part of the male reproductive system?
     • Urethra
     • Bulbourethral glands
     • Epididymis
     • Bladder

     Correct answer: Bladder

     Answer: Bladder The bladder serves as a temporary reservoir for urine and is part of the urinary system. The urethra serves as a passageway for sperm in males. The Bulbourethral glands (or Cowper’s glands) secrete mucus that lubricates the urethra. The epididymis is where sperm are stored until male arousal.

555. Which of the following glands is correctly paired with its secretion?
     • Apocrine sweat glands/ secretion that, when released, has an odor with a possible pheromone function in humans
     • Ceruminous glands/ oil that moisturizes hair and skin
     • Sebaceous glands/ production of sweat necessary for evaporative cooling
     • Eccrine glands/ sticky barrier that prevents foreign bodies and insects from entering the ears

     Correct answer: Apocrine sweat glands/ secretion that, when released, has an odor with a possible pheromone function in humans

     Answer: Apocrine sweat glands/ secretion that, when released, has an odor with a possible pheromone function in humans Ceruminous glands function in producing a sticky barrier that prevents foreign bodies and insects from entering the ears. Sebaceous glands produce oil that moisturizes the hair and skin. Eccrine glands produce sweat necessary for evaporative cooling.

556. The condition ________________ can often lead to ________________ due to buildup and blockage of coronary arteries, preventing blood flow to the myocardium.
     • Atherosclerosis; stroke
     • Arteriosclerosis; stroke
     • Atherosclerosis; myocardial infarction
     • Arteriosclerosis; myocardial infarction

     Correct answer: Atherosclerosis; myocardial infarction

     Answer: atherosclerosis; myocardial infarction Atherosclerosis is the buildup of plaque inside the arteries. If the plaque buildup is severe, a blockage can result, preventing blood flow to the associated heart tissue. This is a myocardial infarction, or heart attack. This can also occur if a plaque ruptures, travels through the vessels, and becomes lodged in a coronary artery. Arteriosclerosis is the hardening and narrowing of the blood vessels and though blood flow can be restricted, this is not the cause of buildup or blockage. A stroke can occur if a blood vessel in the brain becomes blocked by an embolism (embolism is the word we use for any material that blocks a blood vessel).

557. Which of the following is the middle, vascular layer of the skin?
     • Epidermis
     • Dermis
     • Hypodermis
     • Subcutaneous layer

     Correct answer: Dermis

     Answer: Dermis The Dermis is the thickest, middle, and vascular (containing blood vessels) layer which supplies nutrients and oxygen to the epidermis. The Epidermis is the most external and avascular (a lack of blood vessels) layer of the skin. The Hypodermis, also known as the subcutaneous layer, is the deepest layer of the skin.

558. Blood pressure is recorded as two numbers, for example 110/70. The top number (110) represents ___________ blood pressure which is ____________________________.
     • Systole; the pressure in the blood vessels while the heart is filling
     • Diastole; the pressure in the blood vessels while the heart is ejecting blood
     • Systole; the pressure in the blood vessels while the heart is ejecting blood
     • Diastole; the pressure in the blood vessels while the heart is filling

     Correct answer: Systole; the pressure in the blood vessels while the heart is ejecting blood

     Answer: Systole; the pressure in the blood vessels while the heart is ejecting blood One cardiac cycle consists of one period of diastole, and one period of systole. During diastole, the heart relaxes allowing the chambers to fill with blood. During systole, a large portion of that blood is pumped out of the ventricle. During periods of rest, diastole is usually longer than systole to allow more time for filling.In a blood pressure recording the top number represents systole, while the bottom number represents diastole.

559. In which layer of the skin are the subcutaneous fat stores found?
     • Hypodermis
     • Dermis
     • Epidermis
     • Sebaceous

     Correct answer: Hypodermis

     Answer: Hypodermis The hypodermis, also known as the subcutaneous layer, is the deepest layer of the skin and contains fat stores. The epidermis is the most external and avascular layer of the skin. The Dermis is the middle layer which supplies nutrients and oxygen to the epidermis. Sebaceous is not a layer of the skin, but instead refers to the sebaceous glands, which are small glands in the skin that secrete a lubricating oily matter ( called sebum) into the hair follicles to lubricate the skin and hair.

560. The ______________ is an extension off of the large intestine that is often referred to as a vestigial organ.
     • Gall bladder
     • Cecum
     • Spleen
     • Appendix

     Correct answer: Appendix

     Answer: appendix The appendix is a small finger-like extension off of the large intestine that has no definite function. It has been theorized to have some influence on gut bacteria, however this has not been widely confirmed. Thus the appendix is often referred to as a vestigial organ, having no known function. The gall bladder has a defined function, which is to store bile made by the liver. The cecum is the part of the large intestine in which the appendix is attached. The spleen is an immune organ that acts as a filter for blood.

561. Which layers of the skin are affected by a third-degree burn?
     • The epidermis, dermis, and some muscle and bone
     • The epidermis and all of the dermis
     • The epidermis and part of the dermis
     • Only the epidermis

     Correct answer: The epidermis and all of the dermis

     Answer: The epidermis and all of the dermis First-degree burns affect only the epidermis. Second-degree burns affect the epidermis and part of the dermis. Third-degree burns affect the epidermis and the entire dermis. Fourth-degree burns affect the epidermis, the entire dermis, as well as the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons.

562. Melatonin is the hormone that regulates sleep-and-wake rhythm. Which of the following endocrine glands is responsible for producing melatonin?
     • Hypothalamus
     • Pituitary
     • Pineal
     • Adrenal

     Correct answer: Pineal

     Answer: Pineal Melatonin, the hormone that regulates sleep-and-wake rhythm, is produced by the cells in pineal gland. Both the hypothalamus and pituitary glands coordinate the function of other endocrine glands by producing stimulatory and inhibitory hormones. Adrenal glands produce the hormones cortisol and aldosterone.

563. In the digestive system, bile is manufactured by the ______________ and stored in the ______________.
     • Liver; gallbladder
     • Gallbladder; liver
     • Stomach; gallbladder
     • Gallbladder; stomach

     Correct answer: Liver; gallbladder

     Answer: liver; gallbladder The liver makes bile and sends it to the gallbladder for storage until it is needed for fat digestion.

564. Which of the following endocrine glands has an exocrine function that aids in regulating levels of glucose in the blood?
     • Hypothalamus
     • Pancreas
     • Pineal
     • Adrenal

     Correct answer: Pancreas

     Answer: Pancreas The Pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland. As an exocrine gland, it produces bicarbonate and the enzymes necessary for the digestion of foods in the small intestine. As an endocrine gland, it produces the hormones insulin and glucagon, which regulate the level of glucose in the blood. The Hypothalamus, pineal, and adrenal glands are all endocrine glands that produce releasing and inhibiting hormones, melatonin, and cortisol and aldosterone, respectively.

565. The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the _________________.
     • Small intestine
     • Large intestine
     • Pancreas
     • Liver

     Correct answer: Small intestine

     Answer: small intestine The small intestine is the site of the majority of nutrient absorption. The folds in the lining along with the length of the small intestine allows ample time for nutrients to travel through the small intestine to allow maximum absorption. The large intestine facilitates the absorption of water and some electrolytes, but typically protein has already been absorbed by the time it reaches the large intestine. The liver has several functions, with a few functions related to digestion such as bile secretion, but there is no absorption occurring by the liver. The pancreas secretes many digestive enzymes and hormones, but it does not absorb nutrients in the digestive tract.

566. The function of the pyloric sphincter is to ______________.
     • Control the entry of food into the duodenum
     • Prevent reflux of digestive juices into the esophagus
     • Produce chyme
     • Release stomach enzymes

     Correct answer: Control the entry of food into the duodenum

     Answer: control the entry of food into the duodenum The pyloric sphincter is located at the distal portion of the stomach, allowing food to pass from the stomach into the small intestine, specifically the duodenum, which is the proximal segment of the small intestine. The pyloric sphincter does not release stomach enzymes or produce chyme. Also, because of the location of the pyloric sphincter, it can not prevent the reflux of digestive juices into the esophagus.

567. Which of the following organ systems is correctly paired with its function?
     • Cardiovascular / obtaining nutrients necessary for growth, energy, and normal body processes
     • Gastrointestinal / waste elimination
     • Integumentary / protection
     • Endocrine / regulation of homeostasis through hormone signaling

     Correct answer: Endocrine / regulation of homeostasis through hormone signaling

     Answer: Endocrine/ regulation of homeostasis through hormone signaling The Endocrine system is responsible for regulating homeostasis through hormone signaling. The Gastrointestinal system is responsible for obtaining nutrients through the breakdown and absorption of food. The Cardiovascular system is responsible for transport of substance to all tissues of the body. The Integumentary system is responsible for providing the first layer of protection from outside pathogens.

568. Which of the following correctly describes anatomical position?
     • Seated, arms at sides, palms facing posteriorly
     • Upright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly
     • Supine, arms at sides, palms facing posteriorly
     • Upright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly

     Correct answer: Upright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly

     Answer: Upright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly. Anatomical position is described as standing erect, arms at sides, face and palms are facing anteriorly (facing to the front).

569. One of the primary functions of blood is to deliver oxygen-rich blood to the body’s tissues. This is accomplished by ________________, which contain the oxygen-carrying protein called ___________________.
     • Leukocytes; myoglobin
     • Erythrocytes; hemoglobin
     • Platelets; hemoglobin
     • Plasma; albumin

     Correct answer: Erythrocytes; hemoglobin

     Answer: erythrocytes; hemoglobin Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, (“eryth” meaning red, and “cyte” meaning cell) are the cells found in blood that bind and deliver oxygen. They are able to carry oxygen because of a protein they contain called hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is an iron-based protein and is actually what gives blood its red pigment. Platelets are small cells that are also found in blood but have a different job. Their role is to form blood clots and stop excessive bleeding by flocking together when there is an injury to the blood vessel. They do not contain hemoglobin. Leukocytes are also found in blood, but these are a group of white blood cells that have various specific functions relating to immune function. Leukocytes do not contain myoglobin, which is an oxygen-carrying protein found in muscle, not blood. Plasma makes up the watery component of blood and serves to help transport various substances throughout the body. The protein albumin is found in plasma and binds substances such as hormones and electrolytes. While this is an important function, oxygen binding and transport is not a function of plasma or albumin.

570. Which of the following statements regarding digestion is false?
     • The hormone glucagon is secreted from the pancreas and stimulates mechanical digestion.
     • The pancreas secretes the hormone insulin to regulate blood sugar levels.
     • The presence of fiber in the esophagus promotes peristalsis.
     • Villi and microvilli increase surface area for absorption.

     Correct answer: The hormone glucagon is secreted from the pancreas and stimulates mechanical digestion.

     Answer: The hormone glucagon is secreted from the pancreas and stimulates mechanical digestion. Glucagon is a hormone that is released from the pancreas and helps regulate blood sugar by breaking down stored carbohydrate and releasing glucose into the bloodstream when blood glucose levels are low. Glucagon does not stimulate mechanical digestion. It is true that the pancreas secretes insulin, which is a hormone used to regulate blood sugar by promoting the uptake of sugar into cells. Villi and microvilli are folds or convolutions in the intestinal membrane that help to increase surface area so more absorption can occur. When an adequate amount of fiber, or any significant bolus of food, is present in the esophagus, peristalsis will occur to move the food towards the stomach.

571. In the respiratory system, the majority of gas exchange takes place ___________________.
     • In the alveoli
     • In the bronchioles
     • In the trachea
     • In the bronchi

     Correct answer: In the alveoli

     Answer: in the alveoli When inhaling, air is taken in through the mouth and nose, and then through the larynx and pharynx. These passageways warm the air and prepare it for gas exchange. The air continues on through the trachea, commonly referred to as the “windpipe”. The trachea then splits into a right and left bronchi, with each side dividing further into smaller bronchioles. While some bronchioles may directly be involved in gas exchange, the majority of them are part of the conducting airway, which simply moves air through the respiratory system to get them to the alveoli where most of the gas exchange occurs.

572. Which of the following describes the volume of air associated with a normal breath?
     • Residual volume
     • Tidal volume
     • Inspiratory reserve volume
     • Total lung capacity

     Correct answer: Tidal volume

     Answer: Tidal volume Tidal volume represents a normal volume of air that is inhaled and exhaled during relaxed breathing. This value is usually around 500 mL. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) represents the total amount of air that the lungs can hold at a given time. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) represents the amount of air that can be inhaled, or inspired, in excess of the normal amount of inhaled air (tidal volume). Residual Volume (RV) represents the amount of air remaining in the lungs after forced exhalation. This volume always remains in the lungs in order to prevent lung collapse.

573. Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia (HED) is a rare disorder characterized by partial or complete absence of sweat glands. Which of the following would occur if sweat glands are absent or its function is inhibited?
     • Excessive production of secretion that has odor and with possible pheromone function
     • Excessive production of protective oils
     • Reduction in synthesis of melanin
     • Loss of ability to regulate body temperature

     Correct answer: Loss of ability to regulate body temperature

     Answer: Loss of ability to regulate body temperature The main purpose of sweat production is to facilitate the cooling of the body. If sweat glands are absent or their function is inhibited, the body will lose its ability to thermoregulate (control its temperature). Production of protective oils is a function of sebaceous glands, while synthesis of melanin is a function of specialized cells in the epidermis.

574. HIV is a virus that destroys the body’s defense against diseases by inserting itself into the host’s DNA. In which part of the infected host cell will HIV virus be found?
     • Peroxisomes
     • Lysosomes
     • Nucleus
     • Ribosomes

     Correct answer: Nucleus

     Answer: Tidal volume Tidal volume represents a normal volume of air that is inhaled and exhaled during relaxed breathing. This value is usually around 500 mL. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) represents the total amount of air that the lungs can hold at a given time. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) represents the amount of air that can be inhaled, or inspired, in excess of the normal amount of inhaled air (tidal volume). Residual Volume (RV) represents the amount of air remaining in the lungs after forced exhalation. This volume always remains in the lungs in order to prevent lung collapse.

575. Which of the following parts of the brain is responsible for posture, balance and movement coordination?
     • Cerebrum
     • Cerebellum
     • Temporal lobe
     • Occipital lobe

     Correct answer: Cerebellum

     Answer: Cerebellum The cerebellum is the part of the brain responsible for balance and equilibrium. The cerebrum refers to a large portion of the brain that includes the cortices and lobes in the diagram below. The cerebrum is responsible for sensory and motor controls, as well as cognitive functions. The temporal lobe is part of the cerebrum and is responsible for interpretation of hearing impulses The occipital lobe is part of the cerebrum and is for interpretation of visual impulses.

576. Skeletal muscle contraction is stimulated by the release of which neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?
     • Dopamine
     • Norepinephrine
     • Epinephrine
     • Acetylcholine

     Correct answer: Acetylcholine

     Answer: Acetylcholine Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that stimulates muscle contraction. Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine are catecholamines that mediate sympathetic response. Catecholamines are hormones made by the adrenal glands, which are located on top of the kidneys. The adrenal glands send catecholamines into your blood when you’re physically or emotionally stressed.

577. If villi in the small intestine were to become damaged, which of the following would likely occur?
     • A reduced ability to breakdown fat due to the inability of villi to secrete bile.
     • Segmentation of the stomach would be negatively affected leading to reduced digestion.
     • Malnutrition would result due to a decreased ability to absorb nutrients.
     • Gastric reflux disease would result due to the increased production of stomach acid.

     Correct answer: Malnutrition would result due to a decreased ability to absorb nutrients.

     Answer: Malnutrition would result due to a decreased ability to absorb nutrients. The function of villi and microvilli is to increase surface area of the small intestine, where the majority of nutrient absorption occurs. If these are damaged, it could interfere with the ability of the small intestine to absorb nutrients, potentially leading to malnutrition. Gastric reflux would not be caused by damage to villi, as this will be occurring in the small intestine, whereas gastric reflux is related to regurgitation of stomach acid into the esophagus. Since the villi and microvilli are located in the small intestine, stomach segmentation would not be affected. Villi do not secrete bile, therefore there would be no effect on bile secretion or fat breakdown.

578. Which of the following statements is true about protein digestion?
     • The majority of protein absorption occurs in the large intestine.
     • The majority of mechanical protein digestion occurs in the stomach.
     • Chemical digestion of protein initially occurs in the mouth.
     • Absorption of protein occurs primarily in the small intestine.

     Correct answer: Absorption of protein occurs primarily in the small intestine.

     Answer: Absorption of protein occurs primarily in the small intestine. The absorption of protein, as well as all other nutrients, occurs primarily in the small intestine. The large intestine facilitates the absorption of water and some electrolytes, but typically protein has already been absorbed by the time it reaches the large intestine. Chemical digestion of protein does not begin until protein reaches the stomach where protease enzymes are available. Mechanical digestion of proteins occurs in the mouth through chewing, while the majority of chemical digestion of proteins occurs in the stomach.

579. Which of the following best describes the mechanical process of normal breathing during expiration?
     • The diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, while the intercostal muscles contract and move the ribs upward.
     • The diaphragm contracts and moves upward, while the intercostal muscles relax and contract upward.
     • The diaphragm relaxes and moves downward, while the intercostal muscles relax and move the ribs downward.
     • The diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, while the intercostal muscles relax and move the ribs downward.

     Correct answer: The diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, while the intercostal muscles relax and move the ribs downward.

     Answer: The diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, while the intercostal muscles relax and move the ribs downward. During exhalation, two primary components drive the mechanical process- the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles. During inhalation, the lungs fill with air with the help of the intercostal muscles moving up and outward to expand the chest cavity. The diaphragm contracts and pushes downward to make room for the expanded lungs. During expiration, the opposite movements occur in order to help push air out of the lungs. Thus during exhalation, the diaphragm moves up and the intercostal muscles move the ribs downward.

580. Which of the following is not a function of the integumentary system?
     • Facilitate absorption of lipid-soluble materials including fat-soluble vitamins
     • Function in immunity as part of the adaptive immune system
     • Provide a large surface area for excretion of metabolic wastes
     • Facilitate thermoregulation by constantly allowing water to leave through the epidermis

     Correct answer: Function in immunity as part of the adaptive immune system

     Answer: function in immunity as part of adaptive immune system. The integumentary system functions in immunity as part of the innate immune system. The innate immune system is the “general” immune system that targets anything identified as “foreign.” The adaptive immune system is made up of highly specialized cells that target specific pathogens.

581. Which of the following hormones is responsible for increasing calcium levels in the blood by stimulating bone resorption?
     • Parathyroid hormone
     • Insulin
     • Luteinizing hormone
     • Thyroid hormone

     Correct answer: Parathyroid hormone

     Answer: Parathyroid hormone The Parathyroid hormone is responsible for increasing calcium levels in the blood by stimulating bone resorption. Bone resorption is the process by which osteoclasts break down the tissue in bones and release the minerals, resulting in a transfer of calcium from bone tissue to the blood. The Thyroid hormone (T3 and T4) regulate basal metabolism. The Luteinizing hormone stimulates ovulation and production of testosterone.Insulin decreases the level of glucose in the blood by stimulating cellular uptake.

582. Which of the following is true about hormones?
     • Excessive production of cortisol in the adrenal glands can lead to low levels of sodium in the blood.
     • Lack or insufficiency of insulin produced by the pancreas can lead to diabetes.
     • Overproduction of growth hormone can lead to dwarfism.
     • Failure of the pituitary gland to produce thyroid-stimulating hormone can result in hyperthyroidism.

     Correct answer: Lack or insufficiency of insulin produced by the pancreas can lead to diabetes.

     Answer: Lack or insufficiency of insulin produced by the pancreas can lead to diabetes. Insufficient production of insulin can lead to diabetes. Failure of the pituitary gland to produce thyroid-stimulating hormone can result to hypothyroidism (not enough). Overproduction of growth hormone can lead to gigantism. Aldosterone is the hormone responsible for regulating sodium levels in the blood.

583. Gastric reflux occurs as a result of an improper closing of the ________________.
     • Upper esophageal sphincter
     • Pyloric sphincter
     • Epiglottis
     • Lower esophageal sphincter

     Correct answer: Lower esophageal sphincter

     Answer: lower esophageal sphincter The lower esophageal sphincter is located at the bottom end of the esophagus where food will move from the esophagus to the stomach. When this muscular sphincter does not close properly, acidic contents from the stomach can leak back up into the esophagus causing gastric reflux. The pyloric sphincter is located at the distal portion of the stomach, allowing food to pass from the stomach into the small intestine. While there may be some instances of improper closing of this sphincter, this is not the cause of gastric reflux. The epiglottis is the flap of cartilage that covers the trachea when swallowing food. This prevents food from entering the lungs. The upper esophageal sphincter is located at the top of the esophagus, between the pharynx and the esophagus. Improper closing would not cause gastric reflux.

584. Which of the following organs is correctly paired with the hormone it produces?
     • Adrenal gland/ vasopressin
     • Anterior pituitary gland/ oxytocin
     • Mammary gland/ prolactin
     • Ovaries/ estrogen

     Correct answer: Ovaries/ estrogen

     Answer: Ovaries/ estrogen Estrogen, secreted by the ovaries, functions in the development of female secondary sex characteristics. Prolactin is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and it stimulates milk production in the mammary gland. Vasopressin and oxytocin are both produced by the hypothalamus and then secreted into the bloodstream through the posterior pituitary gland. Vasopressin regulates the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules while oxytocin stimulates uterine contraction and milk ejection.

585. Which of the following structures is the female gonads?
     • Vagina
     • Cervix
     • Uterus
     • Ovaries

     Correct answer: Ovaries

     Answer: Ovaries The ovaries are the female gonads that produce the sex cells (ova or eggs) as well as the hormone estrogen. The uterus functions as the implantation site of a fertilized ovum and serves as the pathway for sperm to reach the fallopian tubes. The cervix is the narrow entrance to the uterus. The vagina is the female copulatory organ that also serves as the outlet for menstrual flow and the passageway for childbirth.

586. Which of the following conditions occurs when a blood vessel in the brain becomes blocked?
     • Migraine
     • Stroke
     • Aneurysm
     • Myocardial infarction

     Correct answer: Stroke

     Answer: Stroke A stroke can result if a blood vessel in the brain becomes blocked, either by a clot or other type of embolism. When this occurs, blood flow to the affected area of the brain is stopped, and that area of the brain loses function, sometimes permanently. A myocardial infarction (heart attack) also occurs as a result of a blocked vessel, however this occurs in the heart, not the brain. An aneurysm is the enlargement and weakening of a blood vessel, and is susceptible to rupture. While this can occur in the brain, causing a hemorrhagic stroke, it is not due to a blockage in the blood vessel. Migraines are painful headaches that can last for several hours to days. The causes of migraines are not fully understood, but there are several environmental and physiological factors that may contribute to their onset. While migraines can be severely painful, they are not associated with blocked blood vessels in the brain.

587. Osteoblasts are specialized cells that secrete the protein collagen and other substances necessary for bone formation. Which of the following organelles is more likely to be predominant in osteoblasts?
     • Ribosomes
     • Lysosomes
     • Mitochondria
     • Nucleus

     Correct answer: Ribosomes

     Answer: Stroke A stroke can result if a blood vessel in the brain becomes blocked, either by a clot or other type of embolism. When this occurs, blood flow to the affected area of the brain is stopped, and that area of the brain loses function, sometimes permanently. A myocardial infarction (heart attack) also occurs as a result of a blocked vessel, however this occurs in the heart, not the brain. An aneurysm is the enlargement and weakening of a blood vessel, and is susceptible to rupture. While this can occur in the brain, causing a hemorrhagic stroke, it is not due to a blockage in the blood vessel. Migraines are painful headaches that can last for several hours to days. The causes of migraines are not fully understood, but there are several environmental and physiological factors that may contribute to their onset. While migraines can be severely painful, they are not associated with blocked blood vessels in the brain.

588. Which of the following comparisons between arteries and veins is true?
     • Veins have valves, and arteries do not.
     • Veins have thick, muscular walls, while arteries have thin, more compliant walls.
     • Veins have a smaller diameter than arteries.
     • Veins carry freshly oxygenated blood from tissue back to the heart, while arteries carry oxygen-depleted blood away from the heart.

     Correct answer: Veins have valves, and arteries do not.

     Answer: Veins have valves, and arteries do not. Due to the lower pressure in the venous system and the fact that most blood is trying to return back to the heart against the force of gravity, veins have valves that prevent blood from moving backwards. Veins do not contain thick, muscular walls like arteries do. If venous walls were thick like arterial walls, there would be more resistance for blood flowing into veins. Since blood in the venous side is already under a lower pressure, this would create a problem for blood to return to the heart. Arteries have thick muscular walls due to the higher pressure of blood flow in the arterial side of circulation. Veins carry blood that is leaving tissue after it has unloaded oxygen, therefore they carry oxygen-depleted blood, along with metabolic waste back towards the heart. Venous blood carries oxygen-deficient blood back to the heart. Arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to tissues where oxygen can be delivered and used for cellular respiration. Due to the higher pressure in which arterial blood must flow, arteries have thicker walls and smaller lumen, or diameter, as compared to veins. Veins are often considered to be capacitance vessels as they carry a larger volume of blood, and have thinner walls, and greater wall compliance to accommodate the higher volume of blood.

589. Which of the following is responsible for producing progesterone in preparation for pregnancy?
     • Pituitary gland
     • Uterus
     • Corpus luteum
     • Cervix

     Correct answer: Corpus luteum

     Answer: Corpus luteum The corpus luteum is the temporary endocrine organ formed after ovulation, which secretes progesterone in preparation for a possible pregnancy. The pituitary gland secretes follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). The uterus is the site of implantation.

590. Which of the following accessory structures is not correctly paired with its function?
     • Apocrine glands / sweat production
     • Hair follicle / hair production
     • Ceruminous glands / earwax production
     • Arrector pili / odor production

     Correct answer: Arrector pili / odor production

     Answer: Arrector pili / odor production Arrector pili is a bundle of smooth muscle responsible for the appearance of “goose bumps,” particularly during cold temperatures in order to trap a layer of warm air in the surface of the skin.

591. Which of the following proteins makes up the hair and nails?
     • Keratin
     • Collagen
     • Elastin
     • Vinculin

     Correct answer: Keratin

     Answer: Keratin Hair and nails are made of dead epidermal cells that are rich in keratin. Collagen and elastin are the main structural proteins found in the dermis of the skin. Vinculin is a protein that functions in cellular adhesion.

592. Which of the following structures divide and multiply in cases of injury or disease?
     • Cell bodies
     • Dendrites
     • Glial cells
     • Axons

     Correct answer: Glial cells

     Answer: Glial cells The axon, dendrite, and cell body are all parts of a neuron which is primarily responsible for transmission of information/ impulses to and from various organs of the body. In cases of injury and disease, neurons do not undergo cell division and so they die. Glial cells perform support functions for neurons. In cases of injury or disease, glial cells undergo cell division and multiplication in order to occupy the spaces formerly occupied by a dead neuron.

593. Which of the following is the basic contractile unit of the skeletal muscle?
     • Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
     • Sarcolemma
     • Sarcomere
     • Z-disc

     Correct answer: Sarcomere

     Answer: Sarcomere The sarcomere is the basic contractile unit of the skeletal muscle made of thin and thick filaments. The sarcolemma is the cell membrane of the muscle fiber while sarcoplasmic reticulum is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium for muscle contraction. The Z-disc is the boundary of each sarcomere.

594. Gas exchange between the blood and alveoli would be enhanced by ______________, but impeded by __________________.
     • Decreased membrane thickness; increased alveolar surface area
     • Decreased respiratory rate; increased tidal volume
     • Increased alveolar surface area; increased membrane thickness
     • Increased tidal volume; decreased membrane thickness

     Correct answer: Increased alveolar surface area; increased membrane thickness

     Answer: increased alveolar surface area; increased membrane thickness Gas exchange in the lung can be explained by Fick’s Law of Diffusion, which is represented by the following equation: Diffusion = k * SA * ( P2 – P1) ⁄ T where k represents the diffusion coefficient for the specific gas, SA represents the surface area of the tissue, P2- P1 represents the difference in the gas concentration on one side of the membrane compared to the other side, and T represents the thickness of the tissue. Thus, any increases in gas coefficient, surface area, or difference in pressure will enhance gas exchange, while any increase in tissue thickness will impede gas exchange.

595. A decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood would result in __________________.
     • Increased blood viscosity
     • Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
     • Decreased blood pressure
     • Increased oxygen-carrying capacity

     Correct answer: Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity

     Answer: decreased oxygen-carrying capacity The function of hemoglobin is to bind oxygen molecules in order to transport oxygen in the blood. If hemoglobin levels are decreased, this would directly result in a limited ability to carry and deliver oxygen. Blood viscosity may increase if the number of red blood cells increases. However, if hemoglobin is decreased, blood viscosity would likely not change. Blood pressure may also increase if the number of red blood cells was increased. However, decreased hemoglobin would not affect blood pressure.

596. Which of the following parts of the male reproductive system is not correctly paired with its function?
     • Scrotum/ pouch of skin that encloses and supports the testes
     • Penis/ passageway for semen and urine
     • Epididymis/ secretes mucus that lubricates the urethra
     • Testes/ production of male gametes

     Correct answer: Epididymis/ secretes mucus that lubricates the urethra

     Answer: Epididymis/ secretes mucus that lubricates the urethra The testes are the site for production of male gametes while the epididymis is where the maturation of male gametes (sperm) takes place. The sperm are transported to and stored in the epididymis, where they mature, and then travel to the vas deferens upon arousal. The Scrotum is the pouch of skin that encloses and supports the testes and penis serves as passageway for semen and urine. The Bulbourethral or Cowper’s glands secrete mucus that lubricates the urethra.

597. Overproduction of thyroid hormone due to a malfunction of the negative feedback loop would result in which of the following conditions?
     • Hypercalcemia
     • Hyperthyroidism
     • Gigantism
     • Cushing syndrome

     Correct answer: Hyperthyroidism

     Answer: Hyperthyroidism Positive feedback occurs to increase the output of a hormone in the body: the result of a reaction is amplified to make it occur more quickly. Negative feedback occurs to reduce the change or output to bring the system back to a stable state. Malfunction of the negative feedback loop would keep the body from regulating the production of thyroid hormone, which would result in excessive thyroid production, referred to as hyperthyroidism. Cushing syndrome is a result of excessive production of cortisol. Gigantism is a result of excessive growth hormone. Hypercalcemia is the overproduction of parathyroid hormone.

598. What is the role of the myelin sheath in the nervous system?
     • Store ions for action potential propagation
     • Produce neurotransmitters
     • Transport organelles and macromolecules
     • Insulate axons

     Correct answer: Insulate axons

     Answer: Insulate axons The myelin sheath is a multilayered protein and lipid covering that electrically insulates the axon of a neuron and increases the speed of nerve impulse transmission.

599. The term _________________ refers to the contraction of smooth muscle in the digestive system that moves food along the GI tract.
     • Peristalsis
     • Segmentation
     • Vasoconstriction
     • Retroperistalsis

     Correct answer: Peristalsis

     Answer: peristalsis Peristalsis is the contraction of smooth muscle that lines the esophageal walls. The smooth muscle has a circular layer as well as a longitudinal layer of muscle that allows a “wringing” action of the smooth muscle to push food down the esophagus. Vasoconstriction refers to the constriction of blood vessels and is not directly related to digestive function. Segmentation is the muscular contraction of the smooth muscle layers of the stomach that moves food around to ensure its interaction with digestive juices. Retroperistalsis is the countermovement to peristalsis where the smooth muscle contracts pushing esophageal contents back towards the mouth. This usually occurs just prior to vomiting.

600. Which of the following terms is alternatively called the “voice box”?
     • Uvula
     • Trachea
     • Larynx
     • Pharynx

     Correct answer: Larynx

     Answer: Larynx The larynx is located just inferior to the pharynx and is commonly referred to as the “voice box”. The pharynx is a shared cavity behind the nose and mouth that leads to the esophagus and trachea. The trachea, commonly called the “windpipe”, is the large airway that receives air from the pharynx and larynx and delivers it to the lower respiratory structures. The uvula is the soft tissue hanging in the back of the throat. When swallowing, the uvula helps prevent food from entering the nasal cavity.

601. Which of the following does not describe the dermis?
     • A vascular layer of the skin
     • The thickest layer of the skin
     • The layer of the skin where cells containing the pigment melanin are found
     • The layer of the skin that contains the network of capillaries necessary for thermoregulation

     Correct answer: The layer of the skin where cells containing the pigment melanin are found

     Answer: The layer of the skin where cells containing the pigment melanin are found The dermis is the thickest layer of the skin. It is highly vascular (has many blood vessels), as it has to supply oxygen and nutrients to the epidermis, which is avascular (lacking blood vessels). The dermis also contains the network of capillaries necessary for thermoregulation. The layer of the skin where cells containing the pigment melanin are found is the epidermis.

602. White blood cells contain many _________ because they need to dispose of harmful intruders such as bacteria and viruses. Which of the following options correctly completes the statement above?
     • Lysosomes
     • Mitochondria
     • Golgi
     • Ribosomes

     Correct answer: Lysosomes

     Answer: lysosomes White blood cells contain a larger number of lysosomes because they need to dispose of harmful intruders such as bacteria and viruses. Lysosomes are responsible for digesting and removing waste from a cell. This means they can digest bacteria and viruses that are engulfed by white blood cells in order to protect the body. Mitochondria are the organelles responsible for generating energy-rich molecules for the cell.The Golgi apparatus collects small molecules and combines them to make more complex molecules within the cell. Then it packages up the complex molecules to either store or to send out of the cell.Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis. mRNA is translated into proteins by the ribosomes.

603. Which of the following lists the respiratory passageways in order from largest diameter to smallest diameter?
     • Trachea, bronchioles, bronchi
     • Bronchi, trachea, bronchioles
     • Bronchioles, bronchi, trachea
     • Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

     Correct answer: Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

     Answer: Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles The trachea is the largest airway of the lower respiratory system and is composed of a single tube. It splits into two smaller tubes, a left and right bronchi. These bronchi further split into small bronchioles.

604. Which of the following incorrectly describes neurons?
     • Motor neurons cause muscle contractions.
     • Sensory neurons carry afferent impulses.
     • Sensory neurons carry information away from the brain.
     • Motor neurons carry efferent impulses.

     Correct answer: Sensory neurons carry information away from the brain.

     Answer: Sensory neurons carry information away from the brain. Sensory neurons carry afferent impulses or stimuli toward the brain and spinal cord. Motor neurons carry efferent information away from the brain which causes muscle contractions.

605. Of the following organs, which has both endocrine and digestive functions?
     • Gallbladder
     • Duodenum
     • Pancreas
     • Colon

     Correct answer: Pancreas

     Answer: Pancreas The pancreas has both endocrine and digestive functions because it secretes the hormones insulin and glucagon, as well as various digestive proteases, amylases and lipases. The duodenum is a part of the small intestine and does not secrete any hormones or have any endocrine function. The colon is a part of the large intestine and does not secrete any hormones or have any endocrine function. The gallbladder is connected to the liver and does not secrete any hormones or have any endocrine function.

606. Which of the following is not true about reproductive hormones?
     • LH (luteinizing hormone) stimulates ovulation and production of testosterone.
     • FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is produced by the anterior pituitary gland.
     • LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland.
     • FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) stimulates maturation of sperm and ovum.

     Correct answer: LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland.

     Answer: LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH ( luteinizing hormone), which primarily regulate function of male and female reproductive systems, are both produced in a synchronized manner by the anterior pituitary gland. FSH is primarily involved in the maturation of sperm and ovum (follicles) and LH stimulates ovulation and production of testosterone.

607. Which of the following is not true about thermoregulation?
     • Cutaneous vasoconstriction warms the body by restricting blood flow in the skin.
     • Cutaneous vasodilation cools the body by allowing heat to be released through skin.
     • Sweating facilitates cutaneous vasodilation.
     • Contraction of arrector pili muscles facilitates vasodilation.

     Correct answer: Contraction of arrector pili muscles facilitates vasodilation.

     Answer: Contraction of arrector pili muscle facilitates vasodilation. Contraction of arrector pili muscle facilitates cutaneous vasoconstriction (constriction of the blood vessels), while relaxation facilitates vasodilation (dilation of the blood vessels). Cutaneous vasodilation cools the body by allowing heat to be released through skin, while cutaneous vasoconstriction warms the body by restricting blood flow in the skin. Production of sweat by the eccrine glands facilitates cooling of the body.

608. Which blood vessel delivers blood directly into the right atrium?
     • Aorta
     • Vena cava
     • Brachial artery
     • Coronary artery

     Correct answer: Vena cava

     Answer: Vena cava The largest vein, the vena cava, dumps blood directly back into the heart at the right atrium. When blood is pumped out from the heart, the left ventricle ejects blood to the body through the aorta (the body’s largest artery), and then through the branching of arteries. As blood travels throughout the body, it travels through various arteries. The arteries get smaller, becoming arterioles, as they get closer to the tissues. At the tissues, oxygen and nutrients are exchanged through capillary beds. Capillaries act as transition vessels between the arteries and veins. Once the oxygen and nutrients are unloaded to the tissue, the remaining blood enters the venous circulation and travels back to the heart. Smaller veins closer to the capillary beds are called venules, becoming larger veins as they get closer to the heart. The largest vein, the vena cava, dumps blood directly back into the heart at the right atrium.

609. Which of the following is happening during a contraction of the diaphragm?
     • Forced expiration
     • An increase in alveolar pressure
     • A decrease in alveolar pressure
     • A decrease in the volume of the thoracic cavity

     Correct answer: A decrease in alveolar pressure

     Answer: A decrease in alveolar pressure When the diaphragm is contracting, it is moving downward and allowing the lungs to inflate. During inhalation, alveolar pressure is decreased because the expansion of the lungs increases the surface area or number of alveoli available for gas exchange, thus reducing the pressure at the alveoli. Since air is being inhaled, the volume of air in the thoracic cavity is increased, not decreased. Alveolar pressure increases during exhalation, because the lungs are slightly collapsing, reducing the surface area of the alveoli. Forced expiration is not occurring during diaphragm contraction, because this indicates inhalation.

610. The ______________ is a double layered membrane that lines the lungs.
     • Pleura
     • Alveolus
     • Pleural cavity
     • Pericardium

     Correct answer: Pleura

     Answer: pleura The pleura of the lungs is composed of two layers of tissue that separate the lungs from the thoracic cavity. There as an inner visceral pleura which lines all of the folds of the lungs, and an outer parietal pleura. A pleural cavity exists between the two layers of the pleura. The pericardium is the lining of the heart. An alveolus is a single air sac that makes up the alveoli, where the majority of gas exchange occurs in the lung.

611. Which of the following types of tissues functions in the covering, lining, and protection of surfaces and body cavities?
     • Connective tissue
     • Epithelial tissue
     • Muscle tissue
     • Nerve tissue

     Correct answer: Epithelial tissue

     Answer: Epithelial tissue Epithelial tissue functions as the lining and covering of body surfaces and cavities. Muscle tissue functions in facilitating voluntary and involuntary movements. Connective tissue is responsible for the support and protection of tissues and organs. Nerve tissue is responsible for transmitting nerve impulses.

612. Which of the following is the result of deficient production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone?
     • The parathyroid gland will be stimulated to overproduce parathyroid hormone
     • The thyroid gland will produce an insufficient amount of thyroid hormones
     • The pituitary gland will produce excessive amounts of thyroid-stimulating hormone
     • There will be insufficient production of growth hormone

     Correct answer: The thyroid gland will produce an insufficient amount of thyroid hormones

     Answer: The thyroid gland will produce an insufficient amount of thyroid hormones. The Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) stimulates the pituitary gland to release TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), which in turn stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete the thyroid hormones, T3 and T4. Deficient production of TRH will result in an insufficient production of thyroid hormones in the thyroid.

613. Which of the following structures is correctly paired with its function?
     • Colon- formation of chyme
     • Small intestine- formation of feces
     • Stomach- absorption of nutrients
     • Mouth- mechanical digestion

     Correct answer: Mouth- mechanical digestion

     Answer: Mouth-mechanical digestion. Mechanical digestion (i.e. chewing) and chemical breakdown begins in the mouth. The stomach is responsible for chemical digestion. As food contents enter the stomach, it mixes with digestive enzymes and hydrochloric acid to break down food. The muscular contractions, or segmentation, that the stomach muscles produce helps to move the food around and ensure it thoroughly mixes with the chemicals to produce chyme. Nutrient absorption does not occur until the food particles are small enough for absorption and this happens in the small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, and ileum). Water is also reabsorbed in the small intestine. The colon is a segment of the large intestine which is responsible for the formation of feces. Reabsorption of water and some electrolytes also occurs here.

614. Diastole is the term that describes _________, while systole represents_____________.
     • Contraction and filling; relaxing and ejection
     • Contraction and ejection; relaxing and filling
     • Receiving of the electrical impulse from the SA node; ventricular contraction
     • Relaxing and filling; contraction and ejection

     Correct answer: Relaxing and filling; contraction and ejection

     Answer: relaxing and filling; contraction and ejection One cardiac cycle consists of one period of diastole, and one period of systole. During diastole, the heart relaxes allowing the chambers to fill with blood. During systole, a large portion of that blood is pumped out of the ventricle. During periods of rest, diastole is usually longer than systole to allow more time for filling. Before any contraction or systolic phase can occur, there must be an electrical signal coming from the SA node. However, this is not referred to as diastole.

615. Which of the following structures is correctly paired with its description?
     • Prostate gland/ secretion of fluid that contributes to sperm motility and viability
     • Urethra/ temporarily store the sperm
     • Seminal vesicle/ transports sperm from epididymis to urethra
     • Vas deferens/ transports urine in both male and female and semen in male

     Correct answer: Prostate gland/ secretion of fluid that contributes to sperm motility and viability

     Answer: Prostate gland/ secretion of fluid that contributes to sperm motility and viability The prostate gland secretes fluid that contributes to sperm motility and viability. The seminal vesicle secretes an alkaline, viscous fluid that contains fructose, prostaglandins, and clotting proteins. The Vas deferens transports sperm from the epididymis to the urethra. The urethra then transports both urine and semen (in males).

616. Which of the following structures is responsible for the transport of female gametes?
     • Urethra
     • Vas deferens
     • Cervix
     • Fallopian tube

     Correct answer: Fallopian tube

     Answer: Fallopian tube The fallopian tubes transport female gametes from ovaries to the uterus. The cervix is the narrow entrance to the uterus, which assists in the transport of sperm during fertilization, but it is not involved in transporting female gametes. The Vas deferens functions in the transport of male gametes. The urethra is involved in the transport of male gametes, but not of female gametes.

617. Which of the following is not part of the small intestine?
     • Duodenum
     • Jejunum
     • Ileum
     • Colon

     Correct answer: Colon

     Answer: Colon The small intestine is composed of three main parts: the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. The colon makes up the majority of the large intestine.

618. The primary function of the ________________ is to deliver blood to the brain.
     • Carotid artery
     • Brachial artery
     • Aorta
     • Subclavian artery

     Correct answer: Carotid artery

     Answer: carotid artery The carotid artery is located on the lateral aspect of the neck area and is actually a pair of arteries. Thus we have a right and a left carotid artery. The left carotid artery branches directly off of the aorta, while the right carotid artery branches off of the brachiocephalic artery (this split creates the right carotid artery and the right subclavian artery). Each of the carotid arteries eventually split into an external and internal carotid, which supply blood to different regions of the head and brain. This split is the location of the carotid sinus, a widening of the artery that contains receptors that detect blood pressure changes. While the aorta is an extremely important artery, it is not specific to supplying blood to the brain, but to the entire body. The brachial artery is found in the upper arm. The subclavian arteries (right and left) account for 2 of the 3 primary branches extending from the aorta. The subclavian arteries give rise to the arteries in the upper extremities.

619. The respiratory system is composed of organs that facilitate gas exchange between the blood and the external environment. Which of the following describes the group of organs that function during gas exchange?
     • Organelle
     • Organ System
     • Tissue
     • Organ

     Correct answer: Organ System

     Answer: Organ system Tissues are a collection of specialized cells that perform a specific functions (e.g. protection, support, nerve conduction and movement). A group of tissues that has a specialized function is referred to as an organ. A group of organs that work together to perform several related functions is an organ system.

620. Which of following glands in the skin is not correctly paired with its secretion?
     • Apocrine sweat glands/ odoriferous perspiration
     • Sebaceous glands / oil
     • Ceruminous glands/ sebum
     • Eccrine glands / perspiration necessary for evaporative cooling

     Correct answer: Ceruminous glands/ sebum

     Answer: Ceruminous glands/ sebum Ceruminous glands produce cerumen/ ear wax. Apocrine sweat glands produce odoriferous perspiration while eccrine glands secrete perspiration necessary for evaporative cooling. Sebaceous glands secrete oil or sebum.

621. Which of the following parts and divisions of the nervous system is correctly paired?
     • Autonomic division/ central nervous system
     • Spinal cord/ peripheral nervous system
     • Autonomic division/ peripheral nervous system
     • Brain/ peripheral nervous system

     Correct answer: Autonomic division/ peripheral nervous system

     Answer: autonomic division/ peripheral nervous system The 2 major divisions of the nervous system are the central and peripheral divisions. The central nervous system is comprised of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system is made up of the somatic and autonomic divisions.

622. Which of the following is true?
     • The female gametes are called ova and contain full set of chromosomes.
     • The female gametes are called ovaries and contain half of a set of chromosomes.
     • The male gametes are called eggs and contain full set of chromosomes.
     • The male gametes are called sperm and contain half of a set of chromosomes.

     Correct answer: The male gametes are called sperm and contain half of a set of chromosomes.

     Answer: The male gametes are called sperm and contain a half set of chromosomes. The ova, or eggs, are the female gametes and contain half of a set of chromosomes, while sperm are the male gametes which also contain half of a set of chromosomes. Ovaries are the female reproductive organs, which produce the female gametes. In males, the reproductive organs responsible for producing gametes are the testes.

623. Which of the following does not describe the epidermis?
     • The layer of the skin that produces cells containing keratin
     • An avascular layer of the skin
     • The deepest layer of the skin
     • The most external layer of the skin

     Correct answer: The deepest layer of the skin

     Answer: The deepest layer of the skin The epidermis is the most external layer of the skin. It is avascular (which means that it lacks blood vessels) and is responsible for producing cells containing keratin. The deepest layer of the skin is the hypodermis.

624. Which of the following describes cellular respiration?
     • It is an oxidative anabolic activity
     • It is a reductive anabolic activity
     • It is an oxidative catabolic activity
     • It is a reductive catabolic activity

     Correct answer: It is an oxidative catabolic activity

     Answer: It is an oxidative catabolic activity An anabolic reaction is a reaction that uses energy to build molecules the organism needs. A catabolic reaction breaks down complex molecules into smaller molecules to create energy for the organism to use. Oxidation is when an element loses one or more electrons to oxygen. Reduction is when an element gains one or more electrons. Cellular respiration is the process in which a cell takes in oxygen and uses it to break down glucose to create energy in the form of ATP. In the final stage of cellular respiration (called the electron transport chain), oxygen accepts electrons and picks up protons to form water. So, because elements lose electrons to oxygen and it is a reaction in which energy is created, cellular respiration is both an oxidative and catabolic activity.

625. The patient’s MRI revealed a massive subdural hemorrhage. Which of the following defines the prefix “sub-” as used in the word subdural in the sentence above?
     • Under
     • More
     • Beyond
     • Above

     Correct answer: Under

     Under is the correct answer. A subdural hemorrhage occurs below the membrane that covers the brain (dura). Above is incorrect because it is the antonym of under. Beyond is incorrect because it doesn’t make sense in the context of the sentence. More is incorrect because it doesn’t make sense in the context of the sentence.

626. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “micro-”?
     • Large
     • Small
     • Smell
     • See

     Correct answer: Small

     Small is correct. A microscope is used to view small things and a microorganism is a very small organism. Large is incorrect because it is the opposite of “micro-”. “Macro-” means large. See is incorrect because it doesn’t mean “small”. “Scope” is a root word meaning “see”. Smell is incorrect because it doesn’t mean “small”. “Olfact-” is a a prefix meaning “smell”

627. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “auto-”?
     • Self
     • Move
     • Go
     • Together

     Correct answer: Self

     Self is correct. “Automobile” literally means “self-moving”. An autograph is “self-writing”. Something that’s automatic works by itself. Move is incorrect because that is the meaning of “mobile”. Go is incorrect. “-Ceed” and “-cede” mean to go forward as in “proceed” or go back as in “recede”. Together is incorrect. “Sym-” is one prefix that means “together”, as in “sympathy” which literally means “to feel together” or a “symphony” which plays together.

628. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “poly-”?
     • More
     • Some
     • Most
     • Many

     Correct answer: Many

     Many is correct. A “polyglot” speaks many languages, and a “polygon” has many sides. Some is incorrect. It is close to an antonym for the definition of “poly-” More is incorrect. “Hyper-” means “more” as in “hyperactive” which means “more active”. Most is incorrect. “Super-” means “most” like “superlative” which means “most desirable”

629. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “inter-”?
     • Among
     • Within
     • Between
     • Inside

     Correct answer: Between

     Between is correct because “inter-” means “between” such as in the word “internal”. Inside is incorrect because it is an antonym of “inter-” Interstate highways run between states, while “intrastate” highways run inside or within a state. Among is incorrect because it doesn’t make sense when you try to put it in the definition of a word with the prefix “inter-” Within is incorrect for the same reason as “inside”.

630. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “pre-”?
     • First
     • Before
     • During
     • After

     Correct answer: Before

     Before is correct. A prefix is added “before” the root word, and a pretest is given “before” the real test. First is incorrect. “Arch-” means “first” as in “archangel” and “archetype”. After is incorrect because it is an antonym of “pre-”. “Post-” is the prefix for “after” During is incorrect as there is no prefix with this meaning.

631. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “super-”?
     • Many
     • Below
     • Under
     • Above

     Correct answer: Above

     Above is correct. Supersonic literally means “above/beyond the speed of sound (sonic)”. Under is incorrect. “Sub-” is the prefix for “under”. A submarine goes “under” the water. Less than is incorrect. “Hypo-” is the prefix for “below” as in the subconscious is below consciousness. Many is incorrect. “Multi-” is the prefix for “many” as in “multicolored”, “having many colors”.

632. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-genesis”?
     • Made of
     • The production of
     • To cause to be
     • In addition

     Correct answer: The production of

     The production of is correct. This is because “-genesis” means “the production of,” as in the word “osteogenesis.” The root word “osteo” means “bone,” so osteogenesis is the production of bone. In addition is incorrect. This is because there isn’t a suffix that carries the meaning “in addition.” To cause to be is incorrect. This is because it is the meaning of the suffixes “-ize” or “-ise.” Made of is incorrect. This is because there isn’t a suffix that carries the meaning “made of.”

633. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-phobe”?
     • One who loves
     • One who fears
     • Filled with love
     • To fear greatly

     Correct answer: One who fears

     One who fears is correct. This is because the suffix “-phobe” means “one who fears.” For example, “arachnophobe” means “one who fears spiders.” Arachnids are spiders. To fear greatly is incorrect. This is because “phobe” refers to a person (noun), while “to fear” is a verb. Filled with love is incorrect. This is because it is the opposite of fear. One who loves is incorrect. This is because the suffix “-phile”, not “-phobe,” means “one who loves,” as in “bibliophile” (one who loves books) or “audiophile” (one who loves music). The root word “biblio” means “books” and “audio” means “sound.”

634. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-ic”?
     • Characteristic of
     • Belonging to
     • State or quality of
     • One who

     Correct answer: Characteristic of

     Characteristic of is correct. This is because the suffix “-ic” means “characteristic of.” For example, “artistic” means “characteristic of art.” Belonging to is incorrect. This is because “belonging to art” does not make sense. State of being is incorrect. This is because it doesn’t fit. “The state of being art” is not the definition of “artistic.” One who is incorrect. This is because it doesn’t align with the root word. “One who art” doesn’t make sense.

635. A patient was diagnosed with tachycardia because his heart rate was more than 100 beats per minute. Which of the following defines the suffix “-cardia” as used in the word tachycardia in the sentence above?
     • Head
     • Brain
     • Heart
     • Lungs

     Correct answer: Heart

     Heart is correct. This is because “-cardia” means “heart.” The sentence offers context clues like “heart rate” and “100 beats” to indicate that “-cardia” means “heart.” Head is incorrect. This is because it doesn’t make sense in this context. Brain is incorrect. This is because it isn’t aligned with the meaning of the sentence. Lungs is incorrect. This is because it isn’t aligned with the given sentence.

636. I am looking for a good filter to purify our drinking water. Which of the following defines the suffix “-ify” as used in the word purify in the sentence above?
     • To indicate
     • To use
     • To make
     • To pour

     Correct answer: To make

     To make is correct. This is because the context clues “good filter” and “drinking water” indicate that “purify” means “to make pure.” To use is incorrect. This is because “purify” does not mean “to use pure.” To pour is incorrect. This is because “purify” does not mean “to pour.” To indicate is incorrect. This is because “purify” does not mean “to indicate pure.”

637. A low lymphocyte, or white blood cell, count often causes damage to the autoimmune system. Which of the following defines the suffix “-cyte” as used in the word lymphocyte in the sentence above?
     • Atom
     • Contagious
     • Cell
     • Surface

     Correct answer: Cell

     Cell is correct. This is because “-cyte” means “cell.” The context clue “white blood cell” indicates that a “lymphocyte” is literally a “lymph cell.” Surface is incorrect. This is because “-cyte” does not mean “surface.” A “lymph surface” doesn’t make sense. Contagious is incorrect. This is because “-cyte” does not mean “contagious.” A “lymph contagious” doesn’t make sense. Atom is incorrect. This is because “-cyte” does not mean “atom.” A “lymph atom” doesn’t make sense.

638. My mother has suffered from hypoglycemia (low blood sugar level) since she was very young. Which of the following defines the suffix “-emia” as used in the word hypoglycemia in the sentence above?
     • Presence in the blood
     • Level of sugar
     • Lowest level of
     • Presence in the nervous system

     Correct answer: Presence in the blood

     Presence in the blood is correct. This is because “-emia” means “presence in the blood.” The context clue “low blood sugar level” defines “hypoglycemia.” Level of sugar is incorrect. This is because “-emia” doesn’t mean “level of sugar.” Presence in the nervous system is incorrect. This is because “-emia” doesn’t mean presence in the nervous system. Lowest level of is incorrect. This is because “-emia” doesn’t mean “lowest level of”.

639. Based on an examination of the word parts, which of the following means “the process of examining the colon”?
     • Colectomy
     • Colonoscopy
     • Colitis
     • Semicolon

     Correct answer: Colonoscopy

     Colonoscopy is correct. This is because “scope” means “to see” and “-y” means “process or act of.” Colitis is incorrect. This is because “itis” means “inflammation of”. Semicolon is incorrect. This is because a semicolon is a punctuation mark. Colectomy is incorrect. This is because “ectomy” means “to remove.”

640. Using your knowledge of word parts, which of the following means “bone disease”?
     • Osteoporosis
     • Halitosis
     • Ossify
     • Fossilize

     Correct answer: Osteoporosis

     Osteoporosis is correct. This is because “osteo” means “bone” and “osis” means “disease.” Halitosis is incorrect. This is because “halitosis” means “bad breath.” Ossify is incorrect. This is because “ossify” means “petrified.” Fossilize is incorrect. This is because “-ize” means to make, so “fossilize” means “to make a fossil.”

641. Using your knowledge of word parts, which of the following means “characterized by low heat levels”?
     • Hyperthermic
     • Hypothermic
     • Hypotension
     • Hypertension

     Correct answer: Hypothermic

     “ Hypothermic “ is correct. This is because “hypo” means “low”, “therm” means “heat”, and “-ic” means “characterized by”. Hyperthermic is incorrect. This is because “hyper” means “high”, “therm” means “heat”, and “-ic” means “characterized by”. Hypertension is incorrect. This is because “hyper” means “high” and “tension” means “blood pressure”. Hypotension is incorrect. This is because “hypo” means “low” and “tension” means “blood pressure”.

642. Using your knowledge of word parts, which of the following means “one who studies the heart”?
     • Cardiologist
     • Cartographer
     • Cardiogram
     • Cardiology

     Correct answer: Cardiologist

     Cardiologist is correct. This is because “cardio-” means “heart”, “ology” means “study of” and “-ist” means “one who”. Cardiology is incorrect. This is because “cardiology” is the study of the heart. Cardiogram is incorrect. This is because “-gram” means “to report”, so a “cardiogram” is literally “a heart report.” Cartographer is incorrect. This is because “cart-” means “map”, “graph” means “to write”, and “-er” means “one who”

643. Using your knowledge of word parts, which of the following means “characterized by diseased behaviors toward society”?
     • Psychopathic
     • Sociopathic
     • Sociopathology
     • Psychopathology

     Correct answer: Sociopathic

     Sociopathic is correct. This is because “socio-” means “society”, “path” means “diseased”, and “ic” means “relating to”. Psychopathic is incorrect. This is because “psych-” means “mind”, “path” means “diseased”, and “ic” means “relating to”. Sociopathology is incorrect. This is because “socio-” means “society”, “path” means “diseased”, and “ology” means “study of”. Psychopathology is incorrect. This is because “psych” means “mind”, “path” means “diseased”, and “ology” means “study of”.

644. My father suffered from hypertension all of his adult life until he had a fatal heart attack at 48. Based on your analysis of word parts, what is the meaning of the word “hypertension” in the sentence?
     • High blood pressure
     • Low blood sugar level
     • Low blood pressure
     • High blood sugar level

     Correct answer: High blood pressure

     High blood pressure is correct. This is because “hyper” means “more” and “tension” is “blood pressure”. High blood sugar level is incorrect. This is because “glycemia” is “the presence of glucose in the blood.” Low blood sugar level is incorrect. This is because “hypo” means “less” and “glycemia” is “the presence of glucose in the blood”. Low blood pressure is incorrect. This is because “hypo” means “less” and “tension” refers to “blood pressure”.

645. I have trouble hearing the television, so next week I have an appointment with an audiologist. Based on your analysis of word parts, what is the meaning of the word “audiologist” in the sentence?
     • One who fears sound
     • The science/study of sound
     • One who loves sound
     • One who studies sound

     Correct answer: One who studies sound

     One who studies sound is correct. This is because “audio” means “sound”, “ology” means “study of”, and “ist” means ”one who.” One who loves sound is incorrect. This is because “audio” means “sound” and “phile” means “one who loves.” The science/study of sound is incorrect. This is because “audiology” is “the study of sound.” One who fears sound is incorrect. This is because “audio” means “sound,” and “phobe” means “one who fears”

646. Good periodontal care is essential to healthy gums. Based on your analysis of word parts, what is the meaning of the word “periodontal” in the sentence?
     • Relating to the area above the teeth
     • Relating to the area under the teeth
     • Relating to the area next to the teeth
     • Relating to the area around the teeth

     Correct answer: Relating to the area around the teeth

     Relating to the area around the teeth is correct. This is because “peri” means around and “don/den” means “teeth.” Relating to the area under the teeth is incorrect. This is because “sub” means “under.” Relating to the area above the teeth is incorrect. This is because “super” means “above.” Relating to the area next to the teeth is incorrect. This is because “ad” means “next to.”

647. Claire thought she could get away with her deceptive antics, but little did she know, Gina would seek retribution. Which of the following best defines the word retribution based on its use in the sentence?
     • Legal action
     • Friendship
     • Revenge
     • Advice

     Correct answer: Revenge

     This is correct because the context clue deceptive antics implies that Claire’s actions toward Gina were negative, which may lead someone to seek revenge. Friendship is incorrect because deceptive antics would likely not lead someone to seek friendship with another person. Advice is incorrect because deceptive antics would not be a reason for Gina to seek advice from Claire. Instead, it would be a reason for her not to seek advice from Claire. Legal action is incorrect because there is no context that implies any legal action being taken.

648. The administration encouraged teachers to provide students with tasks that challenged their cognitive skills rather than simple tasks of repetition. Which of the following is an antonym for the word cognitive as it is used in the sentence?
     • Vocal
     • Critical thinking
     • Memorization
     • Physical

     Correct answer: Memorization

     This is correct because “cognitive” refers to intellectual activity and reasoning, which is not emphasized or exercised through memorization. Vocal is incorrect. This is because vocal means those skills using one’s voice, and the text does not discuss this specifically. Critical thinking is incorrect. This is because cognitive means intellectual reasoning, so this would be a synonym. Physical is incorrect. This is because physical refers to the movement of the body, which is not discussed in the text.

649. Moriah was privy to the surprise party and knew she couldn’t let the cat out of the bag to Heather. Which of the following is an antonym for the word privy as it is used in the sentence?
     • Knowing
     • Included
     • Surprised
     • Unaware

     Correct answer: Unaware

     Unaware is correct. This is because “privy” means to be included in or share a secret, so unaware would be an antonym. The sentence informs us that Moriah is in fact aware of the secret. Knowing is incorrect because “privy” means to be part of a secret. Therefore, this would be a synonym. Included is incorrect because “privy” means to be part of the secret, which would make included a synonym. Surprised is incorrect because Moriah knew about the party since she couldn’t let Heather find out.

650. The elaborate architecture of the cathedral inspired architects of later generations to incorporate even more detail into their designs. Which of the following is an antonym for the word elaborate as it is used in the sentence?
     • Colorful
     • Complex
     • Bright
     • Simple

     Correct answer: Simple

     This is correct because “elaborate” means detailed, and the text states that future architects were inspired to incorporate even more detail. Therefore, simple would be an antonym. Bright is incorrect. This is because it refers to the light intensity of the architecture, but the text does not mention this. Complex is incorrect. This is because complex means complicated or detailed, which would be a synonym for “elaborate”. Colorful is incorrect. This is because it means having a full range of colors. However, the text does not acknowledge the colors used in the construction.

651. Angela found it extremely morbid that Daisy had written her husband’s obituary years before he passed away. Which of the following is an antonym for the word morbid as it is used in the sentence?
     • Pleasant
     • Encouraging
     • Disturbing
     • Gruesome

     Correct answer: Pleasant

     This is correct because “morbid” means horrific, which is the opposite of pleasant. Disturbing is incorrect because it refers to feelings of worry or concern, which would be synonymous with morbid. Gruesome is incorrect because it means inspiring horror or repulsion, making it a synonym. Encouraging is incorrect because it means giving hope or promise, which would not be applicable given the context of the sentence.

652. Though the Blues viewed the Bruins as formidable opponents because of their previous battles, they developed a game plan to ensure they wouldn’t lose again. Which of the following is an antonym for the word formidable as it is used in the sentence?
     • Skilled
     • Impressive
     • Unworthy
     • Weak

     Correct answer: Weak

     This is because “formidable” means causing fear or discouraging attack, which would make the Bruins strong or intimidating opponents. Therefore, weak is the antonym. Unworthy is incorrect. This is because unworthy means undeserving, and there is nothing to suggest that the Bruins deserved (opposite meaning) to win. Skilled is incorrect. This is because skilled means having acquired mastery of a technique or trade, and that would be true because the Blues lost to them previously. Impressive is incorrect. This is because it means exerting attention or admiration, which the Bruins would have done if they beat the Blues in previous battles.

653. Too much screen time can be detrimental to children’s development, so parents may want to consider limiting the exposure to electronics throughout the day. Which of the following is an antonym for the word detrimental as it is used in the sentence?
     • Harmful
     • Unhealthy
     • Toxic
     • Beneficial

     Correct answer: Beneficial

     This is correct because the sentence suggests parents should consider limiting screen time, which implies that it may not have a positive impact. Therefore, beneficial would be an antonym to “detrimental”. Unhealthy is incorrect because it means not conducive to one’s health, and that would also be a reason for limiting screen time, making it a synonym. Harmful is incorrect because it means damaging, so it would be a synonym for detrimental. Toxic is incorrect because it means extremely harsh or harmful, which would call for limited screen time, making it a synonym instead.

654. George attempted to gain leverage in his race for mayor by discussing the improvements he planned to bring to town. Which of the following is a synonym for the word leverage as it is used in the sentence?
     • Weight
     • Negativity
     • Time
     • Momentum

     Correct answer: Momentum

     This is correct because “leverage” refers to power or force, which would be needed in order to win an election. Therefore, this is a synonym. Time is incorrect. This is because continuing discussions would not gain George more time. Negativity is incorrect. This is because a candidate for mayor would not desire a gain of negativity or criticism. Weight is incorrect. This is because weight refers to the mass of an object, which would not affect a mayoral election.

655. Since he didn’t have much of a backbone, Bryan was susceptible to peer pressure. Which of the following best defines the word susceptible based on its use in the sentence?
     • Resistant to a force or influence
     • Shielded or protected from
     • Subject to a force of influence
     • To be aware of

     Correct answer: Subject to a force of influence

     Bryan “not having a backbone” would make it difficult for him to resist peer pressure. Therefore, subject to a force of influence would be the best definition. Resistant to a force or influence is incorrect. This is because Bryan’s lack of a backbone implies that he is not resistant to influence. To be aware of is incorrect. This is because having a backbone refers to someone’s ability to stand up to a force, not their awareness of the force. Shielded or protected from is incorrect. This is because lack of backbone would open one up to peer pressure rather than protecting from it.

656. My doctor prescribed an antibiotic to fight my infection. Which of the following defines the prefix “anti-“ as used in the word antibiotic in the sentence above?
     • For
     • With
     • After
     • Against

     Correct answer: Against

     Against is the correct answer because the context clue “fight” indicates that “anti-” means “against”. With is incorrect because it is an antonym (opposite) of anti-. After is incorrect because it does not fit the sentence. For is incorrect because it is an antonym of anti-.

657. After surgery, the patient was fed by intravenous tubes. Which of the following defines the prefix “intra-” as used in the word intravenous in the sentence above?
     • Within
     • Between
     • Over
     • Outside

     Correct answer: Within

     Within is correct. Intravenous (IV) feeding takes place within a vein. Over is incorrect. Intravenous tubes do not go over the veins. Outside is incorrect because it is an antonym of “intra-”. Between is incorrect. “Inter” not “intra-” is the prefix for between, so it is an antonym, too.

658. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-algia”?
     • Having to do with pain
     • A person who treats pain
     • Spreading rapidly
     • Having to do with plants

     Correct answer: Having to do with pain

     Having to do with pain is correct. “-algia” means “having to do with pain.” For example, “fibromyalgia” means “having to do with muscle pain.” Having to do with plants is incorrect. The suffix “-algia” just looks like the word “algae” so it’s incorrect. Spreading rapidly is incorrect. There is no suffix with this meaning. Rather there is a prefix with this meaning. A person who treats pain is incorrect. This meaning is usually indicated by “-ist,” “-ar/-er/-or,” “-ant,” or ”-ian.”

659. The outstanding ER staff put forth extraordinary efforts during the disease outbreak. Which of the following defines the prefix “extra-” as used in the word extraordinary in the sentence above?
     • Under
     • Beyond
     • Less than
     • In place of

     Correct answer: Beyond

     Beyond is correct. The context clue “outstanding” indicates “beyond” is the correct answer because “extraordinary” is beyond ordinary. Less than is incorrect because it is an antonym of extra-. Under is incorrect because it is an antonym of extra-. In place of is incorrect because it does not fit the sentence.

660. In which of the following does the suffix create a word that has a different meaning than the root word?
     • Phalanges
     • Intestinal
     • Examined
     • Ovaries

     Correct answer: Intestinal

     Intestinal is correct. This is because “-al” changes intestines (noun) to intestinal (adjective), which means “relating to the intestines.” Phalanges is incorrect. This is because the “-s” makes “phalange” plural. Examined is incorrect. This is because the “-ed” makes “exam” past tense. Ovaries is incorrect. This is because the “-es” makes “ovary” plural. (Change the “y” to an “i”).

661. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-ize”?
     • Condition of
     • To act on
     • To make or cause to be
     • State of being

     Correct answer: To make or cause to be

     To make or cause to be is correct. The suffix “-ize” means “to make or cause to be.” For example, “sterilize” means “to make sterile.” State of being is incorrect. There are numerous suffixes that mean “state of being.” However, “-ize” isn’t one of them. To act on is incorrect. There are numerous suffixes that mean “to act on”. However, “-ize” isn’t one of them. The condition of is incorrect. “The condition of” is usually indicated by “-ion” or “-ity.”

662. Health professionals work together with clear communication to avoid the misdiagnosis of illnesses. Which of the following defines the prefix “mis-” as used in the word misdiagnosis in the sentence above?
     • Wrong
     • After
     • Against
     • Supporting

     Correct answer: Wrong

     Wrong is correct. The sentence indicates that a misdiagnosis is something to avoid, so a “misdiagnosis” is a “wrong diagnosis”. Against is incorrect. “Against” has a similar connotation, but the word doesn’t mean “against diagnosis”. Supporting is incorrect because it is almost an antonym of mis-. After is incorrect because it doesn’t fit the context of the sentence.

663. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-less”?
     • Feeling of
     • Without
     • Characterized by
     • Full of

     Correct answer: Without

     Without is correct. This is because the suffix “-less” means “without.” For example, “symptomless” means “without symptoms.” Full of is incorrect. This is because it is the opposite of “-less.” Feeling of is incorrect. This is because it doesn’t fit. Using the example above, “feeling of symptoms” does not make sense. Characterized by is incorrect. This is because it doesn’t fit. Using a different example, “careless” doesn’t mean “characterized by care.” It’s quite the opposite actually.

664. Nana was your quintessential grandma who absolutely adored her grandchildren as you might expect from most grandparents. Which of the following best defines the word quintessential based on its use in the sentence?
     • Typical of a certain kind
     • Commonly accepted
     • Rotten to the core
     • Lousy or undependable

     Correct answer: Typical of a certain kind

     This is correct because the sentence later states that you might expect this behavior from grandparents, so typical of a certain kind would be the correct answer. Commonly accepted is incorrect. This is because there is no context that dictates whether or not the behavior is accepted. Rotten to the core is incorrect. This is because the statement that Nana adores her grandchildren contradicts that she might be rotten to the core. Lousy or undependable is incorrect. This is because the fact that Nana adores her grandchildren can lead us to infer that she would actually be a good, dependable grandmother to them.

665. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-itis”?
     • Causing to be
     • Among others
     • Inflammation of
     • Infection of

     Correct answer: Inflammation of

     Inflammation of is the correct answer. The suffix “-itis” means “inflammation of.” For example, “sinusitis” means “an inflammation of the sinus/sinuses,” and “dermatitis” means “an inflammation of the skin (derm).” Infection of is incorrect. This is because although it sounds good and seems reasonable, it is not the meaning of “-itis.” Sinusitis is the inflammation of the sinus/sinuses not the infection of the sinus/sinuses. Although that inflammation may be caused by an infection, it could be caused by something else as well. Causing to be is incorrect. This is because it makes no sense when you try to “plug it in.” “Causing to be a sinus” just doesn’t make sense. Among others is incorrect. This is because there are no suffixes meaning “among others.”

666. Based on an examination of the word parts, which of the following means “one who studies very small life forms”?
     • Biographer
     • Microbiologist
     • Biologist
     • Microbiology

     Correct answer: Microbiologist

     Microbiologist is correct. This is because “micro” means “small”, “bio” means “life”, “ology” means “study of”, and “ist” means “one who”. Biologist is incorrect. This is because a biologist studies all kinds of life. Microbiology is incorrect. This is because microbiology is the study of life. Biographer is incorrect. This is because a biographer writes someone else’s life story (“bio” means “life”, “graph” means “to write”, and “er” means “one who”).

667. A very capricious teenager, Louie rarely took the time to weigh the consequences of his actions. Which of the following best defines the word capricious based on its use in the sentence?
     • Impulsive
     • Careful
     • Energetic
     • Thoughtful

     Correct answer: Impulsive

     This is correct because “impulsive” means acting momentarily or immediately, which would accurately apply to someone not thinking through the consequences of actions. Careful is incorrect because the sentence states that Louie does not think through the consequences of his actions, suggesting that he is the opposite of careful. Thoughtful is incorrect because the sentence states Louie chooses not to think through his choices. Energetic is incorrect because there is no context referring to Louie’s energy level.

668. The patient opted for the noninvasive laser surgery, which does not involve incisions, to remove her gallstones. Which of the following defines the prefix “non-” as used in the word noninvasive in the sentence above?
     • Not
     • Against
     • Less than
     • More than

     Correct answer: Not

     Not is correct. “Noninvasive” literally means “not invading”, as indicated by the context clue “does not involve incisions”. Against is incorrect. It is somewhat similar but not the same as “not”. Less than is incorrect. “Sub-” and “hypo-” are two common prefixes meaning “less than”, but “non-” does not. More than is incorrect. “Super-” and “hyper-” are two common prefixes meaning “more than”, but “non-” does not.

669. After winning a state championship, the team reacted effusively, jumping up and down and crying tears of happiness together. Which of the following best defines the word effusively based on its use in the sentence?
     • Demonstrating great exhaustion
     • In a form of chaos
     • Showing no emotion
     • With great joy

     Correct answer: With great joy

     The context that the team “cried tears of happiness together” allows us to infer that their reaction was joyful. Showing no emotion is incorrect because jumping up and down and crying are both actions that show emotion. In a form of chaos is incorrect because there is no context to support that the event may have been chaotic. Demonstrating great exhaustion is incorrect because the team jumping up and down implies that the reaction was not a tired one.

670. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-ectomy”?
     • The removal of
     • The science or study of
     • The condition of
     • To repair

     Correct answer: The removal of

     The removal of is correct. The suffix “-ectomy” means “the removal of.” For example, “tonsillectomy” means “the surgical removal of tonsil(s).” The science or study of is incorrect. The suffix “-ology” means “the science or study of.” The condition of is incorrect. “The condition of” is usually indicated by “-ion” or “-ity.” To repair is incorrect. The suffix “plasty” means “to surgically repair.”

671. All through grade school, the girls were adversaries, but when they reached high school, they shockingly became best friends. Which of the following best defines the word adversaries based on its use in the sentence?
     • Friends
     • Enemies
     • Teammates
     • Classmates

     Correct answer: Enemies

     This is correct because the sentence states that it was shocking for the girls to become friends, which allows us to infer that they began as adversaries or enemies. Classmates is incorrect. This is because the mention of grade and high schools implies that the girls were always classmates. Friends is incorrect. This is because if they began as friends, they would not need to become friends later on, nor would it be shocking. Teammates is incorrect. This is because there is only context supporting a school setting, and none supports the idea that they were or were not involved in a team.

672. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-ologist”?
     • One who studies
     • The study or science of
     • A place to
     • The principles of

     Correct answer: One who studies

     One who studies is correct. This is because the suffix “-ologist” means “one who (-ist) studies (-ology).” For example, “neurologist” means “one who studies the nervous system (neuro),” and “psychologist” means “one who studies the mind or spirit (psych).” A place to is incorrect. This is because it is the meaning of the suffix “-tory.” For example, a dormitory (a place to sleep). The study or science of is incorrect. This is because it is the definition of “-ology” as in sociology (the study of societies and social behaviors) or psychology (the science of mind). The principles of is incorrect. This is because there isn’t a suffix that means “the principles of.”

673. Based on an examination of the word parts, which of the following means “characteristic of a diseased mind”?
     • Psychopathic
     • Sociopathic
     • Psychopathology
     • Psychotropic

     Correct answer: Psychopathic

     Psychopathic is correct. This is because “psych” means mind, “path” means disease and “ic” means characteristic of. Psychotropic is incorrect. This is because “psychotropic” means “relating to drugs that affect one’s mental state.” Sociopathic is incorrect. This is because “sociopathic” means “the condition of being socially diseased.” Psychopathology is incorrect. This is because “psychopathology” is “the study of diseased minds.”

674. The new multifunction equipment, with a large variety of purposes, is amazingly innovative. Which of the following defines the prefix “multi-” as used in the word multifunction in the sentence above?
     • Some
     • New
     • Many
     • Only

     Correct answer: Many

     Many is correct. The context clue “a large variety” indicates that “multi-” means “many”. Some is incorrect. It is similar to a degree but does not convey the meaning of “a large variety”. New is incorrect. It would apply to innovative, but not “multi-”. “Only” is incorrect because it is an antonym.

675. Based on an examination of the word parts, which of the following means “the state of being infected”?
     • Infectious
     • Infection
     • Disinfectant
     • Disinfecting

     Correct answer: Infection

     Infection is correct. This is because the suffix “-ion” means “the state/condition of.” Infectious is incorrect. This is because the suffix “-ious” means “having.” Disinfectant is incorrect. This is because the suffix “-ant” means “thing that” and the prefix means “not.” Disinfecting is incorrect. This is because the suffix “-ing” means “the act of” and the prefix means “not.”

676. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-ate”?
     • Relating to
     • Characteristic of
     • To cause to be
     • To consume

     Correct answer: To cause to be

     To cause to be is correct. This is because it is the meaning of the suffix “-ate.” For example, “impregnate” means “to cause to be pregnant.” Characteristic of is incorrect. This is because “characteristic of” is the definition of an adjective suffix like “-al,” while “-ate” is a verb suffix. To consume is incorrect. This is because it is a verb, not the meaning of the suffix “-ate.” Relating to is incorrect. This is because “relating to” is the definition of an adjective suffix like “-ary.” For example, “customary” means “relating to customs,” and “honorary” means “relating to honor.”

677. Though they hated to cancel, the bank had to rescind their loan offer after discovering the fraudulent activity. Which of the following best defines the word rescind based on its use in the sentence?
     • To recalculate
     • To negotiate
     • To provide in abundance
     • To take away

     Correct answer: To take away

     This is correct because the sentence states that the bank canceled the loan, which would be equivalent to taking it away. To provide in abundance is incorrect because fraudulent activity would not entice a bank to provide someone with even more money. To negotiate is incorrect because the beginning of the sentence alludes to the bank canceling the loan, not finding a middle ground. To recalculate is incorrect because the beginning of the sentence suggests that the bank will cancel the loan rather than providing it in a different figure than originally discussed.

678. When preparing for the county band competition, Mr. Kesterson ran us through the gamut of pieces, with everything from classical to hard rock. Which of the following best defines the word gamut based on its use in the sentence?
     • A spectrum
     • A select portion
     • A small selection
     • A physical test

     Correct answer: A spectrum

     This is correct because the text mentions Mr. Kesterson using everything from a range of classical to hard rock—two very different musical genres. A physical test is incorrect. This is because the context of the sentence discusses a band contest, which would not require a physical test. A small selection is incorrect. This is because the text states that Mr. Kesterson used everything, implying the selection of pieces was large. A select portion is incorrect. This is because the sentence says that Mr. Kesterson used everything from a range of classical to hard rock, meaning he did not limit the pieces to a select group.

679. The new director of the university museum is a famous author and anthropologist, focusing on the whole human experience. Which of the following defines the prefix “anthrop-” as used in the word anthropologist in the sentence above?
     • Mankind
     • Ancient history
     • Scientist
     • Personalities

     Correct answer: Mankind

     Mankind is correct. The context clue “human” indicates that “mankind” is the correct answer. Personalities is incorrect. Although every human has a personality, that is not what an anthropologist studies (a psychologist does). Scientist is incorrect. A scientist is “one who (-ist) studies (-ology) knowledge (“sci”). Ancient history is incorrect because an anthropologist studies the recent, as well as the ancient, history of mankind.

680. A good, strong disinfectant is vital to stopping the spread of infections. Which of the following defines the prefix “dis-” as used in the word disinfectant in the sentence above?
     • Clean
     • For
     • Not
     • Away

     Correct answer: Not

     Not is correct. The context clue “stopping the spread of infections” indicates that “dis-” means “not”. For is incorrect because it does not make sense within the context of the sentence. Away is incorrect. Although a disinfectant will take germs away, it is not the meaning of “dis-”. Clean is incorrect because it does not define “dis-” although it is the purpose of a disinfectant.

681. The scientist cut the worm into three sections: the anterior, the midsection and the posterior. Which of the following defines the prefix “mid-” as used in the word midsection in the sentence above?
     • After
     • Under
     • Between
     • Before

     Correct answer: Between

     Between is the correct answer. In the sentence, “midsection” is between “anterior” and “posterior”, so “between” is correct. Before is incorrect. “Ante-” (anterior) not “mid-” means “before”. Under is incorrect because it does not fit the context of the sentence. Post- is incorrect. “Post-” (posterior) means “after” so it is not correct.

682. You’ll stay here until you’re old to pay for all the untruths you told. Which of the following publications would most likely contain this sentence?
     • Business memo
     • Stage play
     • Poetry anthology
     • Novel

     Correct answer: Poetry anthology

     Poetry anthology is correct. Instead of paragraphs, poems are written in stanzas, groups of lines that contain a central idea. Business memo is incorrect. Business memos convey needed information (and thus need to be straightforward) and must include a To line, a From line, a Date line, a Subject line, and the actual body of the message. Stage play is incorrect. In stage plays, characters’ names are centered and capitalized. Act and Scene headings are also centered, and the text includes stage directions. Novel is incorrect. A novel is written in prose, includes fictional or semi-fictional subject matter, and, for the most part, is dedicated to narrating individual experiences of characters.

683. The head of those two departments ______________ with pneumonia last night. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?
     • Have been hospitalized
     • Was hospitalized
     • Were hospitalized
     • Has been hospitalized

     Correct answer: Was hospitalized

     was hospitalized is correct because the subject of the sentence is “head” (singular) not “departments” (plural) which is part of a prepositional phrase. Ignore prepositional phrases that act as modifiers when determining proper subject-verb agreement. were hospitalized is incorrect. This is because the verb “were” is plural and the subject is singular. have been hospitalized is incorrect because “have” is plural, and it is in the present perfect tense, which makes no sense with “last night”. has been hospitalized is incorrect because it is in the present perfect tense.

684. The country singer and the banker, who have three children in common, allegedly got married at the beginning of June in a private ceremony in Belize. Which of the following publications would most likely contain this sentence?
     • Scientific journal
     • Stage play
     • Pop culture magazine
     • Novel

     Correct answer: Pop culture magazine

     Pop culture magazine is correct. This type of magazine features scandalous or juicy stories about the personal lives of celebrities. Scientific journal is incorrect. Scientific writing must be clear, concise, accurate, and objective. A journal article may include original research, re-analyses of research, reviews of literature in a specific area, proposals of new but untested theories, or opinion pieces. Novel is incorrect. A novel is written in prose, includes fictional or semi-fictional subject matter, and, for the most part, is dedicated to narrating individual experiences of characters. Stage play is incorrect. In stage plays, characters’ names are centered and capitalized. Act and Scene headings are also centered, and the text includes stage directions.

685. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
     • Trying to make things right, Joe apologized to his cousins.
     • Joe apologized to his cousins for acting out trying to make things right.
     • Joe apologized to his cousins trying to make things right.
     • Trying to make things right, Joe apologized to his cousins acting out.

     Correct answer: Trying to make things right, Joe apologized to his cousins.

     Trying to make things right, Joe apologized to his cousins. This is correct because “trying to make things right” modifies “Joe” and is placed appropriately to do so. Joe apologized to his cousins trying to make things right. is incorrect. This is because “trying to make things right” does not apply to the “cousins” since “Joe” is the one apologizing. Joe apologized to his cousins for acting out trying to make things right. is incorrect. This is because “trying to make things right” is not meant to modify “acting out”. Trying to make things right, Joe apologized to his cousins acting out. is incorrect. This is because “acting out” is not meant to modify “cousins”.

686. Which of the following steps in the writing process comes before drafting?
     • Citing sources
     • Revising
     • Brainstorming
     • Proofreading1

     Correct answer: Brainstorming

     Brainstorming is the correct answer.It is correct because brainstorming comes before drafting in the process. The writing process is as follows:Brainstorming/Plan/Outline The thinking we do before we begin a piece of writing, which can include creating a plan or outline for your piece of writing Draft/Write Our first attempt at writing or our first version of our piece of writing Revise/Proofread Read your draft and make organizational, wording, or grammatical changes to our piece of writing to make it stronger Cite Sources Giving credit to sources that we used within our piece of writing Publish Putting our finished piece out for everyone to see Proofreading is incorrect because it comes after brainstorming. Revising is incorrect because it comes after brainstorming. Citing sources is incorrect because it comes after brainstorming.

687. Erin sat in the airport coffee shop solemnly sipping earl grey tea. She took a moment to double-check her boarding pass — outbound from Philly, inbound to Dallas. The wedding had been worth the trip, of course, but Erin was dejected to return home where her only friends were from work. She was reminiscing about the past weekend when a woman asked her to sit down. Erin nodded, offering a fleeting, polite smile. They made some small talk; the acquaintance, Jenny, was flying home to Dallas too. Jenny had grown up there, but most of her good friends had relocated after school. The two exchanged pleasantries before parting ways. A half hour later, Erin had found her seat at 26B, and was waiting for take-off. She heard her name and looked up, confused. There was Jenny, standing in the aisle, grinning and displaying her ticket — ‘26A.’ Erin returned an enthusiastic smile. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?
     • Autobiography
     • Fictional story
     • Science fiction
     • Romance

     Correct answer: Fictional story

     Fictional story is correct because the text carries readers through the events surrounding a fictional character, Erin. Science fiction is incorrect. This is because the story does not focus on futuristic scientific advances, such as time travel. Autobiography is incorrect. This is because in autobiographies, people speak about the events of their lives, in first person, and this passage does not contain any of that information or point of view. Romance is incorrect. This is because romance involves a focus on a relationship or love between two people, which is not discussed in this passage.

688. It’s no secret that I do most of the work around here. Compared to Branden, I mean. Look at just what I got done today: I washed the dishes, cleaned my room, and organized the playroom. What did Branden do? NOTHING! Absolutely nothing. I’m pretty sure he was just sitting in front of his PlayStation all day. Is that really the type of behavior you want to reward? I don’t think so. For whom is this passage probably being written?
     • Coaches
     • Professors
     • Archaeologists
     • Parents

     Correct answer: Parents

     Parents is correct because the context of the passage discusses rewarding behavior and the duties completed around a household, which allows us to infer that it is coming from the perspective of a child. Archaeologists is incorrect because the text makes no mention of sites or artifacts to be examined. Coaches is incorrect because the text does not refer to any club or organization which a coach might be needed in. Professors is incorrect because the text discusses household chores, which would not be relevant for a professor.

689. The Carter Bowen Arena, previously known as Central Arena, is a sports and entertainment arena in Tampa, Florida. Its construction started in 1998, and it cost $213 million. It was designed by a team that included George Heinlein, Cristian Petschen, and other renowned architects. For its inauguration, it hosted a concert by Cuban-American singer Gloria Stefan. What is the author’s tone in this passage?
     • Worried
     • Informal
     • Loving
     • Objective

     Correct answer: Objective

     An objective tone is factual and uninfluenced by emotion or personal prejudice, thus allowing readers to form their own opinions. Informal is incorrect. An informal tone is personal, casual, and spontaneous. It uses contractions, phrasal verbs, and colloquialisms. Loving is incorrect. A loving tone is affectionate and shows intense and deep feelings. Worried is incorrect. A worried tone communicates feelings of anxiousness about something that’s unknown.

690. Which of the following sentences would most likely act as a supporting detail?
     • Though monkeys and humans are believed to be connected through evolution, their diets are quite different.
     • Monkeys primarily eat fruits, nuts, and seeds.
     • Unlike monkeys, humans have the capability to cook their food before eating it.
     • Without a doubt, the diets of humans and monkeys differ substantially.

     Correct answer: Monkeys primarily eat fruits, nuts, and seeds.

     This is correct because it gives specific information concerning what monkeys eat. Though monkeys and humans are believed to be connected through evolution, their diets are quite different. This is incorrect because it would most likely be used as a topic or closing sentence. Unlike monkeys, humans have the capability to cook their food before eating it. This is incorrect because it would be best as a transition sentence since it compares the form in which humans and monkeys eat their food. Without a doubt, the diets of humans and monkeys differ substantially. This is incorrect because it would most likely be used as a closing sentence to reiterate the main idea.

691. In the sport of golf, various clubs assist players in performing their best. Most often, players start from the tee using a driver. This club provides power to hit the ball longer distances with less loft than other clubs. Seriously, it shoots like a rocket! If the tee is considerably closer to the green, some golfers may consider using a wood instead. This type of club also has more of a low hit with little loft, but it can be used at shorter distances. As they work their way through the fairway and closer to the green, an iron is typically the club of choice. Irons range from three to nine, with each number representing a different loft capability. When the ball sets a short distance off of the green, a wedge might be the best option. This club can be especially helpful to work out of a sandpit or add significant loft over a short distance. Finally, once a golfer enters the green, the club selected would be a putter, which is used for closer, low-speed hits that require no loft. All golfers must continuously practice in order to learn which clubs work best for them from certain distances. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?
     • When the ball sets a short distance off of the green, a wedge might be the best option.
     • Seriously, it shoots like a rocket!
     • All golfers must continuously practice in order to learn which clubs work best for them from certain distances.
     • This club can be especially helpful to work out of a sandpit or add significant loft over a short distance.

     Correct answer: Seriously, it shoots like a rocket!

     Seriously, it shoots like a rocket! is correct because the tone is informal while the rest of the paragraph has a formal tone using content-specific vocabulary. The other three are incorrect because the tone of these sentences remains formal to be consistent with the rest of the paragraph.

692. All employees at Memorial Hospital _____________________ in their field annually. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?
     • Has to recertify
     • Could have to recertify
     • Was to recertify
     • Have to recertify

     Correct answer: Have to recertify

     have to recertify is correct because the subject (employees) and the verb (have) are both plural. has to recertify is incorrect. This is because the subject is plural and the verb (has) is singular. was to recertify is incorrect because the subject is plural and the verb (was) is singular. could have to recertify is incorrect because it implies a possibility rather than a requirement.

693. The board of directors __________________ Dr. Smith’s resignation. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?
     • Had been demanding
     • Were demanding
     • Are demanding
     • Is demanding

     Correct answer: Is demanding

     is demanding is correct because the subject (board) and the verb (is demanding) are both singular. are demanding is incorrect. This is because the subject is singular, and the verb (are demanding) is plural. were demanding is incorrect because the subject is singular, and the verb (were demanding) is plural. have been demanding is incorrect because the subject is singular, and the verb (have been demanding) is plural.

694. From the porch of Isabela’s cigar shop, the strain from the past month was a distant memory. The air was already hot, even here in the shade. A breeze awakened the dewy beads of moisture appearing on Elena’s face. She watched the wind animate Spanish moss dangling over the narrow street and brushed a wisp of hair away from her eyes. She raised a tiny porcelain teacup of Cuban coffee to her lips, and closed her eyes to inhale its bittersweet aroma. The taste was deep and rich, softened by a caramel smooth finish from the brown sugar Isabela had mixed with the fresh grounds. No one was out on the St. Augustine streets yet this morning. When Elena placed the cup back down on the saucer beside her, the only sound was the delicate clink amidst birds’ chirping. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?
     • Children’s literature
     • Fictional descriptive
     • Scholarly article
     • Poetry

     Correct answer: Fictional descriptive

     Fictional descriptive is correct because the writing uses imagery to explain the events surrounding a fictional character, Elena. Children’s literature is incorrect because the content and vocabulary of the text are not appropriate for younger ages. Poetry is incorrect because poetry is typically formatted in lines or stanzas rather than full paragraphs as seen in this text. Scholarly article is incorrect because the text does not review any experiments or research.

695. ‘Smokin’ Joe Frazier (1944-2011) was an American boxer from 1965 to 1981. As an amateur, he was awarded the gold medal at the 1964 Summer Olympics, then rose in the ranks during the late ‘60s. In 1971, Frazier beat Muhammad Ali by unanimous decision in what was heralded as the ‘Fight of the Century.’ He held onto his title as undisputed heavyweight champion until 1973. Frazier’s only losses (four total) were to to Muhammad Ali and George Foreman. The Ring Magazine and the Boxing Writers Association of America named him Fighter of the Year numerous times. In 1990, Frazier was inducted into the International Boxing Hall of Fame. After retiring, ‘Smokin’ Joe went on to train boxers from his gym in Philadelphia. After making his mark on the world of boxing, Joe Frazier died of liver cancer in November 2011. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?
     • Autobiography
     • Biography
     • Mystery
     • Fictional description

     Correct answer: Biography

     Biography is correct because the text is written in third person and recalls events of another person’s life. Fictional description is incorrect. This is because the text provides facts from a real person’s life, but fiction describes events about made-up characters. Mystery is incorrect because there is no unknown mystery or crime to be solved. Autobiography is incorrect. This is because autobiographies are written by a person about themselves, which is not what this text does.

696. The American Psychological Association includes opioid use disorder in the DSM-V. The American Society of Addiction Medicine considers it “a brain disorder that can range in severity from mild to severe.” Those suffering from addiction “use substances or engage in behaviors that become compulsive and often continue despite harmful consequences.” Opioid use disorder is a complex and variable problem that warrants complex and individualized solutions. “Biological, psychological, and social” factors impact “the development of, and recovery from” addiction. Opioid use disorder constitutes a fast-growing mental health crisis. Which of the following sentences uses ideas and language that fit the passage?
     • It’s dangerous to quit cold turkey, and you’d better look for a professional to lend a hand.
     • Psychiatric clinicians, including nurse practitioners, should expect and prepare for continuing increases in patients or clients suffering from opioid use disorder.
     • Impediments to therapy include lack of insurance coverage for treatment, difficulty finding a provider, and patients’ unwillingness to begin therapy.
     • The American Psychological Association (APA) is a scientific and professional organization that represents psychology in the United States of America and has over 122,000 members.

     Correct answer: Psychiatric clinicians, including nurse practitioners, should expect and prepare for continuing increases in patients or clients suffering from opioid use disorder.

     The passage’s topic is the increasing number of patients suffering from opioid use disorder. Since it is an article from a scientific journal, the language used is formal. It’s dangerous to quit cold turkey, and you’d better look for a professional to lend a hand. This is incorrect because the language used is informal and does not fit with the tone of the text. Impediments to therapy include lack of insurance coverage for treatment, difficulty finding a provider, and patients’ unwillingness to begin therapy. This is incorrect because, even though it uses formal language, it focuses on obstacles to treatment, which is not the main topic of the passage. The American Psychological Association (APA) is a scientific and professional organization that represents psychology in the United States of America and has over 122,000 members. This is incorrect because it explains what the American Psychological Association and its members do, which is not the topic of the passage.

697. Beneath glaring lights, stands filled at the Pomeroy Pirates’ home field. It was time. Dad wasn’t there. Natasha gulped water and decided it was less pressure anyway. She approached the mound, ball in hand. The first three batters struck out on eleven pitches. In the next inning, three got on-base, and one scored off an RBI. By the sixth, the Pirates were up 3-1 with two outs and two runners on. Natasha stared down the Mustangs’ star hitter with the resolve of a bird of prey. She targeted the catcher’s mitt and let it fly – strike, ball, strike, ball. Natasha took a deep breath, swung another windmill, and launched her pitch- strike! Which of the following sentences uses ideas and language that fit the passage?
     • In addition to her elated fellow players, Natasha observed that her progenitor was also painting the town red.
     • Teammates rushing over, she leaped and shouted to the erupting cheers.
     • Knowing her grandmother would be proud, Natasha proceeded to enchant the silent audience with her melodious singing voice in a rendition of "Rolling in the Deep" by Adele.
     • She tossed and turned, but the narrow and soft bed didn't allow her to find a comfortable position.

     Correct answer: Teammates rushing over, she leaped and shouted to the erupting cheers.

     This sentence narrates what happened after Natasha launched her pitch-strike and uses language that fits with the general tone of the passage. In addition to her elated fellow players, Natasha observed that her progenitor was also painting the town red. This is incorrect because it is written in a combination of formal and informal language that does not fit with the general tone of the passage. Knowing her grandmother would be proud, Natasha proceeded to enchant the silent audience with her melodious singing voice in a rendition of “Rolling in the Deep” by Adele. This is incorrect because its topic and language do not fit with the passage. She tossed and turned, but the narrow and soft bed didn’t allow her to find a comfortable position. This is incorrect because its topic does not fit with the passage.

698. Many survivors find it incredibly difficult to share their stories because of the traumatic events that they faced. Most were young at the time of the Holocaust and were forced to become adults far sooner than they should have had to. Families were separated, some never to see one another again. Over the years, more survivors have been willing to open up, sharing their experiences with younger generations. Through this passing of historical accounts, it is the hope of survivors that no other people will have to experience such hate and brutality as they did. For whom is this passage probably being written?
     • Spouses
     • Historians
     • Critics
     • Chefs

     Correct answer: Historians

     Historians is correct because the main purpose of the passage is to discuss a historical event. Chefs is incorrect because none of the information presented is connected to the culinary arts. Critics is incorrect because critics review pieces of work, and this text recounts an event in history. Spouses is incorrect because the text does not address the topic of marriage.

699. The scientific method guides researchers through experiments and studies as they work to answer some of the most difficult questions. To begin, researchers must formulate a question, or figure out what information they want to learn. In order to determine this, they often must make observations about the world around them and take into account previous work done surrounding the topic that they are curious about. Once they have formulated a question, they make an educated guess, or a hypothesis, about what they predict could be the answer. This brings them to the experiment or study, which they conduct to gather data, allowing them to determine whether or not their hypothesis is correct. By following this process, researchers are able to learn and share their findings with others to prompt further exploration.For whom is this passage probably being written?
     • College students
     • A congregation
     • Athletes
     • Explorers

     Correct answer: College students

     College students is correct because the scientific method could be discussed within a college science course. A congregation is incorrect because the text does not discuss a religion or worship. Athletes is incorrect because the topic of the passage would not be relevant to sporting events. Explorers is incorrect because none of the content mentions traveling through various regions, or other forms of exploration.

700. The herbaceous perennial plant has extensive and creeping rhizomes, and its stems can grow up to 3 ft. Its leaves are dark green, and its flowers measure up to 1 in across. It is possible that the plant originated as a hybrid between two other species, Hypericum maculatum and Hypericum attenuatum. What is the author’s tone in this passage?
     • Bitter
     • Disgruntled
     • Formal
     • Cheerful

     Correct answer: Formal

     The tone is formal, as it focuses on being thorough and direct, yet respectful. It uses full words rather than contractions and emphasizes facts and grammatical correctness. A formal writing tone is common in academic or professional contexts. Cheerful is incorrect. A cheerful tone is jovial, happy, and in good spirits. Disgruntled is incorrect. A disgruntled tone expresses anger, especially when the writer is angered by something unjust or unworthy. Bitter is incorrect. A bitter tone expresses resentment and shows strong animosity or rancor.

701. Going to El Montecito, the city’s new and exclusive brunch spot, has been a waste of my time and money. I am livid they expected me to pay for that omelet. It was frozen! Who in their right mind would freeze an omelet? And the nerve of that server! She said that it’s normal that food cools a bit on its way from the kitchen, as if I’m a poor man who can’t make the difference between “cool” and frozen solid! What is the author’s tone in this passage?
     • Jovial
     • Objective
     • Compassionate
     • Indignant

     Correct answer: Indignant

     An indignant tone expresses anger, especially when the writer is angered by something unjust or unworthy. Compassionate is incorrect. A compassionate tone expresses sympathetic pity and concern for the sufferings or misfortunes of others. Objective is incorrect. An objective tone is factual and uninfluenced by emotion or personal prejudice, thus allowing readers to form their own opinions. Jovial is incorrect. A jovial tone is cheerful, happy, and in good spirits.

702. Which of the following steps in the writing process comes before writing?
     • Brainstorming
     • Revising
     • Citing sources
     • Drafting

     Correct answer: Brainstorming

     Brainstorming is the correct answer. It is correct because it is the first step in the writing process. The writing process is as follows: Brainstorming/Plan/Outline The thinking we do before we begin a piece of writing, which can include creating a plan or outline for your piece of writing Draft/Write Our first attempt at writing or our first version of our piece of writing Revise/Proofread Read your draft and make organizational, wording, or grammatical changes to our piece of writing to make it stronger Cite Sources Giving credit to sources that we used within our piece of writing Publish Putting our finished piece out for everyone to see Drafting is incorrect because it comes after outlining. Revising is incorrect because it comes after outlining. Citing sources is incorrect because it happens after outlining.

703. Which of the following steps in the writing process comes before citing sources?
     • Outlining
     • Proofreading
     • Drafting
     • Brainstorming

     Correct answer: Proofreading

     Proofreading is the correct answer. It is correct because we proofread before finalizing our citations. The writing process is as follows: Brainstorming/Plan/Outline The thinking we do before we begin a piece of writing, which can include creating a plan or outline for your piece of writing Draft/Write Our first attempt at writing or our first version of our piece of writing Revise/Proofread Read your draft and make organizational, wording, or grammatical changes to our piece of writing to make it stronger Cite Sources Giving credit to sources that we used within our piece of writing Publish Putting our finished piece out for everyone to see Brainstorming is incorrect because it is the first step in the writing process. Outlining is incorrect because it comes before proofreading. Drafting is incorrect because it comes before proofreading.

704. Which of the following would most likely act as a topic sentence?
     • According to the Center for Disease Control, drinking and driving kills thousands of people every year.
     • While many people view drinking as a fun pastime, it can be incredibly dangerous.
     • Contrary to popular belief, it only takes a few drinks to become impaired by alcohol.
     • In every state, drinking and driving is illegal.

     Correct answer: While many people view drinking as a fun pastime, it can be incredibly dangerous.

     This is correct because it introduces the main idea of the paragraph by challenging a common viewpoint. According to the Center for Disease Control, drinking and driving kills thousands of people every year. This is incorrect because it gives specific information regarding the main idea, which would ideally make it a supporting detail. Contrary to popular belief, it only takes a few drinks to become impaired by alcohol. This is incorrect because it gives specific information in order to support the main idea. In every state, drinking and driving is illegal. This is incorrect because it specifies a fact that supports the idea that drinking can be dangerous.

705. Which of the following would most likely act as a concluding sentence?
     • A recent study surveyed 1,000 people to determine whether summer or winter is the preferred season.
     • In their comments, a few participants mentioned enjoying cold temperatures while disliking snow, rain, or hail that can accompany them.
     • All participants were chosen at random and lived in various regions of the country.
     • Overall, a majority of people surveyed preferred summer over winter.

     Correct answer: Overall, a majority of people surveyed preferred summer over winter.

     This is correct because it uses the keyword “overall” and summarizes the findings of a study. In their comments, a few participants mentioned enjoying cold temperatures while disliking snow, rain, or hail that can accompany them. This is incorrect because it provides specific details about the study. A recent study surveyed 1,000 people to determine whether summer or winter is the preferred season. This is incorrect because it introduces the topic. All participants were chosen at random and live in various regions of the country. This is incorrect because it gives more information about the people involved in the survey.

706. Which of the following would most likely act as a transition sentence?
     • Many other neighborhoods in the area have begun allowing solar panels, and this prompted the discussion on Thursday night.
     • Furthermore, the HOA suggested that the installation of solar panels could potentially eliminate electric costs for the neighborhood.
     • Solar panels are used to convert sunlight into energy for running electricity.
     • At a monthly meeting, The Home Owner’s Association of a Glendale neighborhood discussed the idea of allowing residents to install solar panels.

     Correct answer: Furthermore, the HOA suggested that the installation of solar panels could potentially eliminate electric costs for the neighborhood.

     This is correct because the use of the keyword “furthermore” indicates that a transition is being made to further discuss a benefit of solar panels. At a monthly meeting, The Home Owner’s Association of a Glendale neighborhood discussed the idea of allowing residents to install solar panels. This is incorrect because it would best fit as a topic sentence, given that it introduces the main idea. Solar panels are used to convert sunlight into energy for running electricity. This is incorrect because it provides specific details about the topic.Many other neighborhoods in the area have begun allowing solar panels, and this prompted the discussion on Thursday night. This is incorrect because it provides specific details about the topic.

707. Any business with the desire to survive long-term focuses highly on customer service. When consumers purchase a product, they put their trust in the company supplying it. One negative customer service experience could break that trust, causing a company to lose at least one customer. Plus, that customer could potentially turn into multiple customers lost because of a bad review online or discussion with friends. However, if proper employee training is conducted, a business will be able to count on its customer service team to seamlessly solve any issues that may arise for any clientele. It’s really not a big deal, but companies could try it. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?
     • It’s really not a big deal, but companies could try it.
     • Plus, that customer could potentially turn into multiple customers lost because of a bad review online or discussion with friends.
     • When consumers purchase a product, they put trust in the company supplying it.
     • Any business with the desire to survive long-term focuses highly on customer service.

     Correct answer: It’s really not a big deal, but companies could try it.

     It’s really not a big deal, but companies could try it is correct because it contradicts the main idea in the paragraph, which originally emphasizes how crucial customer service is, by suggesting that it’s not important. The other three choices are incorrect because these sentences directly support the main idea that customer service is important.

708. Many people in America might make the argument that dogs are man’s best friend. In countless towns and cities, one would struggle to take a trip out of the house without spotting one of these furry friends along the way. To many, dogs serve as the most loyal companions. Whether you’re feeling happy, sad, upset, or disappointed, a dog will always love you. They don’t judge us based on our appearance, and if we make mistakes, they continue to excitedly stand by us. On top of that, dogs are almost always up for an adventure, willing to join their humans for a walk, car ride, or hike at the drop of a hat. What would life be like without our four-legged besties? Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?
     • They don’t judge us based on our appearance, and if we make mistakes, they continue to excitedly stand by us.
     • In countless towns and cities, one would struggle to take a trip out of the house without spotting one of these furry friends along the way.
     • What would life be like without our four-legged besties?
     • To many, dogs serve as the most loyal companions.

     Correct answer: What would life be like without our four-legged besties?

     What would life be like without our four-legged besties? is correct because the use of the slang besties does not match the formality of the other vocabulary used in the paragraph. The three other choices are all incorrect because the topic and tone are consistent with the rest of the paragraph.

709. There is a desperate need for more childcare providers in the area. Unfortunately, due to the recent pandemic, multiple local childcare facilities were forced to close their doors, leaving households lost and struggling to find care for their children during the workday. While the remaining childcare center in the area was able to make space for additional kids and staff members, it couldn’t take everyone. Some parents have been forced to work from home because we were unable to find anywhere for their child to go. Juggling work and parenting simultaneously is an incredible feat to accomplish and is one that cannot be maintained by many. The addition of a new childcare center would provide a much-needed resource for the parents and families in the community. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?
     • The addition of a new childcare center would provide a much-needed resource for the parents and families in the community.
     • Some parents have been forced to work from home because we were unable to find anywhere for their child to go.
     • Juggling work and parenting simultaneously is an incredible feat to accomplish and is one that cannot be maintained by many.
     • Unfortunately, due to the recent pandemic, multiple local childcare facilities were forced to close their doors, leaving households lost and struggling to find care for their children during the workday.

     Correct answer: Some parents have been forced to work from home because we were unable to find anywhere for their child to go.

     Some parents have been forced to work from home because we were unable to find anywhere for their child to go is correct because it is in the first-person point of view, but the rest of the paragraph is in the third person point of view. The other three choices are incorrect because the point of view and topic align with the rest of the paragraph.

710. ____________________ want to order pizza for lunch. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?
     • The rest of the nursing staff or Natalie
     • Natalie or the rest of the nursing staff
     • Natalie and the rest of the nursing staff
     • The rest of the nursing staff and Natalie

     Correct answer: Natalie and the rest of the nursing staff

     Natalie and the rest of the nursing staff is correct because both Natalie and the other staff members want pizza. Natalie or the rest of the nursing staff is incorrect. This is because “or” indicates one or the other, which would be singular. However, the verb “want” is in the plural form. The rest of the nursing staff or Natalie is incorrect for the same reason given above. In addition, the compound subject is backwards. The rest of the nursing staff and Natalie is incorrect because the compound subject is backwards.

711. The school, located atop one of the highest and most beautiful mountains of the area, witnessed snowy and long winters. During the cold days, all pupils, including myself, carried a couple of hot baked potatoes in our pockets and into the freezing classrooms. This way, we could keep ourselves warm in the morning and then have a delicious and ready-to-eat snack at noon. Modern heating has its advantages, but I have yet to find something that tastes as good and comforting as those potatoes did.What is the author’s tone in this passage?
     • Objective
     • Nostalgic
     • Indignant
     • Regretful

     Correct answer: Nostalgic

     A nostalgic tone expresses a sentimental yearning for a return to or of some past period or irrecoverable condition. Indignant is incorrect. An indignant tone expresses anger, especially when the writer is angered by something unjust or unworthy. Regretful is incorrect. A regretful tone expresses a feeling of sadness, repentance, or disappointment over an occurrence or something that one has done or failed to do. Objective is incorrect. An objective tone is factual and uninfluenced by emotion or personal prejudice, thus allowing readers to form their own opinions.

712. Freight train with your mile of cars Collecting eclectic graffiti like scars Ghosts of innumerable nameless places Seen but looked past by thousands of faces. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?
     • Letter
     • Book review
     • Fictional story
     • Poetry

     Correct answer: Poetry

     Poetry is correct. This is because the writing is formatted in stanzas, complete sentences are not used, and rhyming is incorporated at the end of each line. Fictional story is incorrect because there are no characters or plot presented in the writing. Book review is incorrect because a book title and opinion about a book are not provided within the text. Letter is incorrect because the text lacks a greeting, signature, and message.

713. Summer is the hottest season of the year, and it’s important to know how to prepare properly when venturing outside in the heat. First and foremost, make sure you apply plenty of sunscreen. Any area of your skin that is exposed to the sun should have sunscreen. This includes your face even if you are wearing a hat or sunglasses. Additionally, drink plenty of water. Whether you’re inside or outside, always have water with you to drink. You could even make it a goal to drink so much every hour. Staying hydrated is key to good health and helps you avoid getting overheated. Last but not least, eat or snack frequently. When it’s hot out, it can be easy to lose your appetite or become so engulfed in your activities that you go longer between meals. It is a good idea to have a small snack, like a granola bar, with you at all times. Your body still needs nutrients, even in the heat! Make sure your family is prepared before spending the day outside this summer. For whom is this passage probably being written?
     • Business owners
     • Teachers
     • Parents
     • Engineers

     Correct answer: Parents

     Parents is correct because the passage informs us about the importance of preparation for summer heat, and the final sentence specifically refers to families. Business owners is incorrect.This is because the passage does not address any business topics. Engineers is incorrect.This is because the passage directs families on how to be prepared for summer heat, which is not specific to engineers. Teachers is incorrect. This is because the final sentence mentions families, and a teacher would not be the best applicant for the mentioned scenario.

714. That team of doctors ___________ for their amazing diagnostic talents. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?
     • Is infamous
     • Are infamous
     • Is renowned
     • Are renowned

     Correct answer: Is renowned

     is renowned is correct because “team” is the subject, not “doctors,” (“doctors is part of a prepositional phrase only modifies the subject “team). Ignore prepositional phrases that act as modifiers when determining proper subject-verb agreement. are renowned is incorrect. This is because the verb “are” is plural and the subject is singular. are infamous is incorrect for the same reason given above. In addition, “infamous” is an antonym (opposite in meaning) of “renowned”. Although both words imply fame, renowned is positive fame, and infamous is negative fame. is infamous is incorrect because it has the opposite meaning.

715. Which of the following is the first step of the writing process?
     • Writing
     • Publishing
     • Proofreading
     • Brainstorming

     Correct answer: Brainstorming

     Brainstorming is the correct answer. It is correct because thoughts must be put on paper before we can organize them into a written piece of work. The writing process is as follows: Brainstorming/Plan/Outline The thinking we do before we begin a piece of writing, which can include creating a plan or outline for your piece of writing Draft/Write Our first attempt at writing or our first version of our piece of writing Revise/Proofread Read your draft and make organizational, wording, or grammatical changes to our piece of writing to make it stronger Cite Sources Giving credit to sources that we used within our piece of writing Publish Putting our finished piece out for everyone to see. Proofreading is incorrect because it is one of the last steps in the process. Publishing is incorrect because it is the final step of the writing process. Writing is incorrect because the actual writing comes after we have thoroughly planned and organized.

716. In order to keep horses as domesticated animals, proper care and training are necessities from the beginning. A newborn horse, or foal, will often be hesitant to interact with humans. However, it is crucial to gently attempt this interaction starting in the first few days of life and continuing on a daily basis to familiarize the horse with humans. This helps make further training for specific skills, such as racing or working cattle, much easier because trust has been established. You should probably feed your horse. Depending on the available resources, horses may eat grass, hay, grain, oats, vegetables, or even a mixture of these through feed from a store. Though it is time-consuming, caring for and training a horse early on can have significant benefits for both the horse and owner. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?
     • You should probably feed your horse.
     • In order to keep horses as domesticated animals, proper care and training are necessities from the beginning.
     • Though it is time-consuming, caring for and training a horse early on can have significant benefits for both the horse and owner.
     • A newborn horse, or foal, will often be hesitant to interact with humans.

     Correct answer: You should probably feed your horse.

     You should probably feed your horse is correct because the tone and language is informal, but the rest of the paragraph represents a formal, technical language. Though it is time-consuming, caring for and training a horse early on can have significant benefits for both the horse and owner. is incorrect. This is because the vocabulary and tone remain professional and technical along with the rest of the paragraph. In order to keep horses as domesticated animals, proper care and training are necessities from the beginning. is incorrect. This is because the vocabulary and tone remain professional and technical along with the rest of the paragraph. A newborn horse, or foal, will often be hesitant to interact with humans. is incorrect. This is because the vocabulary and tone remain professional and technical along with the rest of the paragraph.

717. That night, when Mia was quietly driving back home on an empty road, her eye caught the glimpse of what she thought could be a medium-sized dog, so she started pressing the brake pedal. While the car slowed down, she turned the full beam lights off to avoid scaring the animal. An animal that, now that she was closer, resembled a small doe. To her surprise, the doe made a sound that resulted in a cute baby deer appearing on the road and diligently crossing it with its mother, leaving Mia with an overwhelming feeling of awe at nature’s beauty. What is the author’s tone in this passage?
     • Sentimental
     • Objective
     • Bitter
     • Satirical

     Correct answer: Sentimental

     The tone is sentimental, as it expresses tender emotions and shows the protagonist’s feelings. Satirical is incorrect. A satirical tone ridicules or attacks by means of irony or caustic wit. Objective is incorrect. An objective tone is factual and uninfluenced by emotion or personal prejudice, thus allowing readers to form their own opinions. Bitter is incorrect. A bitter tone expresses resentment and shows strong animosity or rancor.

718. Recent efforts to replicate the experiment’s results have proved unsuccessful (Martin et al., 2017; Karpov, 2019). Which of the following publications would most likely contain this sentence?
     • Scientific journal
     • Flyer
     • Novel
     • Gossip magazine

     Correct answer: Scientific journal

     Scientific journal is correct. Scientific writing must be clear, concise, accurate, and objective. A journal article may include original research, re-analyses of research, reviews of literature in a specific area, proposals of new but untested theories, or opinion pieces. Novel is incorrect. A novel is written in prose, includes fictional or semi-fictional subject matter, and, for the most part, is dedicated to narrating individual experiences of characters.Flyer is incorrect. A flyer is a form of paper advertisement intended for wide distribution and typically posted or distributed in a public place. Gossip magazine is incorrect. Gossip magazines feature scandalous or juicy stories about the personal lives of celebrities.

719. Good morning, Bluejays! Today is Thursday, September 26, 2019. For lunch, you will have a choice of beef tacos, chicken salad, or cheese pizza. Remember, you can always bring extra money for ala-carte treats, too! During study hall time this morning, the photography club should meet in the library with Mrs. Kampwerth, and the scholar bowl team should report to Mr. Reinkensmeyer’s classroom. Photo club members, don’t forget to bring your entries with you for the fall contest! Next Friday will be the last day to bring yearbook order forms to the office. Of course, we will have some extras available when hard copies come in, but we cannot guarantee that we will have an extra copy for anyone. If you would like one, please ensure that you deliver your order form to the office by next Friday! For whom is this passage probably being written?
     • Tourists
     • Political candidates
     • Scientists
     • Elementary students

     Correct answer: Elementary students

     Elementary students is correct because the passage provides information regarding food, meetings, and deadlines for the day and week, and it addresses specific teachers and classrooms. Tourists is incorrect because tourists would not need to know the events of a local school. Political candidates is incorrect because the school topics discussed would not be relevant for them. Politics is not mentioned in the passage. Scientists is incorrect because no scientific topic is discussed and nothing related to science is mentioned in the passage.

720. That was how it felt when Jack gazed up from the shadowy forest floor at the full splash of the Milky way, dripping down between treetops. He didn’t know the stars could be this luminous or the sky this velvety black. But if it was just Oregon or just one region suddenly without electricity, cell service, and functioning gas pumps, then where was the National Guard, coming with their military vehicles to save the day? Jack had been making his way along I-5, far enough from the road to evade lawless travelers, but still close enough to hear traffic. There was none. There was only mist, moss, green glow, the fragrance of Douglas firs, scampering wildlife, and wandering thoughts. During these solitary days in the woods, navigating and telling time by the sun, Jack had never felt more alive or free. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?
     • Self-help manual
     • Horror fiction
     • Biography
     • Fictional description

     Correct answer: Fictional description

     Fictional description is correct because the text uses imagery to explain the events surrounding a fictional character, Jack. Biography is incorrect because the text does not provide specific details and facts about the life of a real person. Horror fiction is incorrect because the passage does not focus on details intended to scare the reader. Self-help manual is incorrect because the text does not provide specific advice for improving an area of one’s life.

721. MOLLY: Have you seen my new white boots? I thought I’d left them here.STEVIE: Yeah, I think your sister is wearing them. Which of the following publications would most likely contain these sentences?
     • Business memo
     • Stage play
     • Scientific journal
     • Poetry anthology

     Correct answer: Stage play

     Stage play is correct. In stage plays, characters’ names are centered and capitalized. Scientific journal is incorrect. Scientific writing must be clear, concise, accurate, and objective. A journal article may include original research, re-analyses of research, reviews of literature in a specific area, proposals of new but untested theories, or opinion pieces. Poetry anthology is incorrect. Instead of paragraphs, poems are written in stanzas, groups of lines that contain a central idea. Business memo is incorrect. Business memos convey needed information (and thus need to be straightforward) and must include a To line, a From line, a Date line, a Subject line, and the actual body of the message.

722. Hummus is a simple, flavorful, and nourishing Middle-Eastern chickpea dip. To make it, you need boiled chickpeas, vegetable oil, tahini, water, a garlic clove, lemon juice, and cumin powder. Mix all the ingredients except the oil and blend them using a blender until they are well integrated. Add the oil and keep blending for another few minutes until creamy. Drizzle with olive oil, sweet paprika, and sesame seeds and serve with bread or vegetables. What is the author’s tone in this passage?
     • Objective
     • Optimistic
     • Regretful
     • Informal

     Correct answer: Objective

     An objective tone is factual and uninfluenced by emotion or personal prejudice, thus allowing readers to form their own opinions. Optimistic is incorrect. An optimistic tone is positive and shows a belief in positive outcomes. Regretful is incorrect. A regretful tone expresses a feeling of sadness, repentance, or disappointment over an occurrence or something that one has done or failed to do. Informal is incorrect. An informal tone is personal, casual, and spontaneous. It uses contractions, phrasal verbs, and colloquialisms.

723. Which of the following is the last step of the writing process?
     • Drafting
     • Outlining
     • Publishing
     • Citing sources

     Correct answer: Publishing

     Publishing is the correct answer. It is correct because an author’s final step is to publish the final version of his, her, or their writing. The writing process is as follows: Brainstorming/Plan/Outline The thinking we do before we begin a piece of writing, which can include creating a plan or outline for your piece of writing Draft/Write Our first attempt at writing or our first version of our piece of writing Revise/Proofread Read your draft and make organizational, wording, or grammatical changes to our piece of writing to make it stronger Cite Sources Giving credit to sources that we used within our piece of writing Publish Putting our finished piece out for everyone to see. Outlining is incorrect because outlining happens before the piece is written. Citing sources is incorrect because once the initial writing is finished, we cite sources to indicate where the information came from. Drafting is incorrect because it happens prior to writing the piece.

724. Surpassing the timberline had rid them of the mosquitos. As the two hikers drew closer to the silver dollar lake in the distance, a cabin and a campsite came into view. It was another half hour before they were upon it. There was nobody around the collapsed tent-poles; sleeping bags, clothes, and cooking supplies were strewn everywhere. At 12,000 feet, mountain lions make appearances and storms move in without warning. The pair exchanged concerned looks, approaching the cabin by the lakebed for help. A man with an unkempt grey beard answered the door, opening it just enough to peer at the strangers. The couple described the scene and asked to use the mountain man’s phone. Intense, ice-blue eyes pointed out at them, unblinking and expressionless as he gruffly turned them away. They rushed down the mountain to their car where there was reception, and called the park service from a cell phone instead. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?
     • Speech
     • Textbook entry
     • Mystery
     • Personal journal entry

     Correct answer: Mystery

     This is correct because the text induces an uncertain, eerie feeling as the travelers approach and interact with the mountain man, causing them to flee for help. Mystery stories often leave questions unanswered. Speech is incorrect because the passage is not written in first person, nor does it address an audience. Textbook entry is incorrect because the passage tells a fictional story rather than presenting factual information about a topic. Personal journal entry is incorrect because the passage is written in third person, and there is no date to mark the entry.

725. The Common Core State Standards have been implemented in numerous states across our nation. These standards provide Kindergarten through twelfth-grade teachers with specific goals to guide learning in mathematics and English language arts classrooms. At the end of each academic year, students should have reached mastery for each standard of both mathematics and English language arts in their respective grade level. Throughout the year, teachers provide students with instructional materials and experiences that best support all students in reaching mastery of the standards. This may look different for every student because teachers often differentiate instructional opportunities and curriculum to meet the needs of each specific student in the classroom. The Common Core State Standards have set expectations for both teachers and students to achieve their highest potential in science and social studies. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?
     • The Common Core State Standards have been implemented in numerous states across our nation.
     • The Common Core State Standards have set expectations for both teachers and students to achieve their highest potential in science and social studies.
     • This may look different for every student because teachers often differentiate instructional opportunities and curriculum to meet the needs of each specific student in the classroom.
     • These standards provide Kindergarten through twelfth-grade teachers with specific goals to guide learning in mathematics and English language arts classrooms.

     Correct answer: The Common Core State Standards have set expectations for both teachers and students to achieve their highest potential in science and social studies.

     The Common Core State Standards have set expectations for both teachers and students to achieve their highest potential in science and social studies is correct because its information is not consistent with the topic and body of the paragraph. Earlier sentences discuss standards in language arts and mathematics classrooms, but the closing sentence lists science and social studies, which do not apply here. The other three choices are incorrect because the information and formality in these sentences stay consistent with the topic and discussion.

726. Marla had intended for things to turn out differently. Never in a million years had she imagined that her friendship with Clark would evolve into the bond they share today, but it was undeniable. They were made for one another, sharing the most genuine, passionate love either one of them had ever experienced. But how would she tell Darek? How would she go about breaking her family apart? Could she break her family apart? For whom is this passage probably being written?
     • Community leaders
     • Adults
     • Historians
     • Children

     Correct answer: Adults

     Adults is correct because the content of the passage is more appropriate for an adult audience. Community leaders is incorrect because the passage does not discuss community issues that leaders would likely need to be informed on. Historians is incorrect because historians study the past, and the passage does not address any historical figure or event. Children is incorrect because the content of the passage is not appropriate reading for children.

727. In neurosurgical brain injury management, dehydration is a common goal. But, the target levels of dehydration in such protocols remain unclear. The Lund protocol recommendation of neutral to moderately negative fluid balance has at times been associated with reduced mortality. Otherwise, there does not appear to be any strong empirical evidence to support inducing dehydration to decrease cerebral edema or other complications from severe traumatic brain injury. Researchers urge trauma centers to focus on TBI patient fluid balance at neutral, as higher fluid balance has its own risks, such as leaky capillaries leading to pulmonary edema. Treatment should also include fluid replacement after mannitol and vasopressor therapy. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?
     • Scholarly article
     • Fantasy
     • Play
     • Memoir

     Correct answer: Scholarly article

     Scholarly article is correct because the passage shares the findings of a study and researchers’ suggestions moving forward. Play is incorrect. This is because plays are formatted to show each character’s lines separately to be read through, and this passage does not do that. Fantasy is incorrect. This is because the passage presents evidence of facts, but fantasy involves people or events that are generally impossible. Memoir is incorrect. This is because a memoir involves the author recalling a specific time period in his or her life, and this text does not focus on such information.

728. The nurses and assistants ______________ a “meet and greet” for all of the new EMTs. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?
     • Was hosting
     • Are hosting
     • Is hosting
     • Has been hosting

     Correct answer: Are hosting

     are hosting is correct because the verb “are” is plural and the tense is present progressive. was hosting is incorrect. This is because the verb “was” is singular and the tense is past progressive.is hosting is incorrect because the verb “is” is singular and the subject is plural. has been hosting is incorrect because the verb “has” is singular.

729. The head of Pediatrics ________ four children of her own. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?
     • Will have
     • Have
     • Has
     • Has had

     Correct answer: Has

     has is correct because the subject is “head” (singular) not Pediatrics, and it is in the present tense. will have is incorrect because it is in the future tense and there is nothing to suggest this prediction can accurately be made. have is incorrect because it is a plural verb and the subject is singular. has had is incorrect because it is past perfect tense, which indicates an action that began in the past and ended before another past action. This is an ongoing action and, as such, should be in the present tense.

730. Fearing for his life, Raymond ran as fast as he could in a useless effort to get away from the furious dragon. Which of the following publications would most likely contain this sentence?
     • Poetry anthology
     • Business memo
     • Novel
     • Flyer

     Correct answer: Novel

     Novel is correct. A novel is written in prose, includes fictional or semi-fictional subject matter, and, for the most part, is dedicated to narrating individual experiences of characters. Poetry anthology is incorrect. Instead of paragraphs, poems are written in stanzas, groups of lines that contain a central idea. Business memo is incorrect. Business memos convey needed information (and thus need to be straightforward) and must include a To line, a From line, a Date line, a Subject line, and the actual body of the message. Flyer is incorrect. A flyer is a form of paper advertisement intended for wide distribution and typically posted or distributed in a public place.

731. Volleyball is an incredibly complex sport with many rules and regulations that are important for players and coaches to know before stepping onto a court for competition, but knowing the court and rotation positions is key. First and foremost, the court is divided in half by a net. On either side, there are six rotation zones, one for each player on the team. Players start in one of the six zones, known as their base position depending on their placement in the lineup, and they cannot cross a player in a neighboring zone until the ball is served into play. If ya do cross, ya lose a point for your team. Every time the receiving team wins the serve back, their players rotate clockwise to the next zone, which restricts a player from playing from the same zone the entire game. Players and coaches must know their team’s rotation positions each and every play in order to be successful in volleyball. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?
     • If ya do cross, ya lose a point for your team.
     • Players start in one of the six zones, known as their base position depending on their placement in the lineup, and they cannot cross a player in a neighboring zone until the ball is served into play.
     • Players and coaches must know their team’s rotation positions each and every play in order to be successful in volleyball.
     • Every time the receiving team wins the serve back, their players rotate clockwise to the next zone, which restricts a player from playing from the same zone the entire game.

     Correct answer: If ya do cross, ya lose a point for your team.

     If ya do cross, ya lose a point for your team is correct because the tone and language is informal like it might be in a casual conversation with a friend, but the rest of the paragraph represents a formal, technical language. The other three choices are incorrect because the vocabulary and tone of these sentences remain formal as with the entirety of the paragraph.

732. The ___________ in my biology class is on the volleyball team. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Red-headed, sophomore girl
     • Red-headed sophomore girl
     • Red-headed sophomore, girl
     • Red-headed, sophomore, girl

     Correct answer: Red-headed sophomore girl

     red-headed sophomore girl is correct because cumulative adjectives should not have a comma between them. red-headed, sophomore, girl is incorrect because both commas should be eliminated.red-headed sophomore, girl is incorrect because no comma is needed between the adjective sophomore and noun girl. red-headed, sophomore girl is incorrect because the comma separating red-headed and sophomore is not necessary since they are cumulative adjectives.

733. The ________________________ squinted to read the note. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Librarian; who wasn’t wearing her glasses,
     • Librarian, who wasn’t wearing her glasses,
     • Librarian who wasn’t wearing her glasses
     • Librarian: who wasn’t wearing her glasses,

     Correct answer: Librarian, who wasn’t wearing her glasses,

     librarian, who wasn’t wearing her glasses, is correct. The information inside of the commas is nonessential to the meaning of the sentence. It is simply extra information for the reader. librarian who wasn’t wearing her glasses is incorrect because it causes a run-on sentence and is grammatically incorrect. librarian: who wasn’t wearing her glasses, is incorrect because a colon is used to elaborate, but the rest of the sentence is essential information and does not make sense as a simple elaboration. librarian; who wasn’t wearing her glasses, is incorrect because we use the semicolon when the connection between two independent clauses is clear. The librarian is not an independent clause because it lacks a verb.

734. Which of the following sentences is punctuated correctly?
     • Dr. Davis shared with his staff “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting”.
     • Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting,”
     • Dr. Davis shared with his staff “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting.”
     • Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting.”

     Correct answer: Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting.”

     Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting.” is correct. This is because a comma is used to set off the quotation marks, double quotation marks are used, and a period is used to show the end of the sentence and it is placed inside the quotation marks. Dr. Davis shared with his staff “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting.” is incorrect. This is because a comma needs to be used to set off the quotations. Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting,” is incorrect. This is because a period should be used as the end punctuation inside the quotation marks. Dr. Davis shared with his staff “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting”. is incorrect. This is because a comma should be used to set off the quotations and the end punctuation should come inside the quotation marks.

735. Which of the following words is spelled correctly?
     • Acquaintance
     • Significence
     • Differance
     • Maintainence

     Correct answer: Acquaintance

     Acquaintance is correct because it breaks down like this: ac–quaint–ance. (-ance, not -ence) Maintainence is incorrect because it breaks down like this: main–ten–ence. Differance is incorrect because it breaks down like this: dif–fer–ence (remember that the adjective form is different). Significence is incorrect because it breaks down like this: sig–nif–i–cance (remember that the adjective form is significant).

736. _______________ will probably request a close examination of the matter. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Furthermore the board
     • Furthermore, the board
     • Furthermore; the board
     • Furthermore: the board

     Correct answer: Furthermore, the board

     Furthermore, the board is correct. A comma after our introductory word is grammatically correct as it sets off our introductory adverb from the rest of the sentence. Furthermore: the board is incorrect. This answer choice has a colon after our introductory adverb. A colon is meant to set apart two independent clauses, usually in a definition or informative format. Furthermore the board is incorrect. This answer choice does not have any punctuation and, thus, does not differentiate the introductory adverb (furthermore) from the rest of the sentence. Furthermore; the board is incorrect. This answer choice features a semicolon after our introductory adverb. Semicolons are used to separate independent clauses in a sentence as is not the case here.

737. Which of the following demonstrates correct punctuation?
     • The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before “Stevenson, 1999.”
     • The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before (Stevenson, 1999).
     • The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before /Stevenson, 1999.
     • The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before (Stevenson, 1999].

     Correct answer: The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before (Stevenson, 1999).

     The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before (Stevenson, 1999). is correct. We use parentheses to identify information that was located using another source. Since we use parentheses to identify information from another source, (Stevenson, 1999]; “Stevenson, 1999”; /Stevenson, 1999 are all incorrect uses of punctuation.

738. Seeing that the discussion was becoming a sterile ________ decided to wrap things up. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Debate. The host
     • Debate, the host
     • Debate; the host
     • Debate the host

     Correct answer: Debate, the host

     debate, the host is correct because it separates the dependent clause from the independent clause with a comma, creating the correct structure. debate the host is incorrect because it combines the two clauses without any punctuation, which creates a run-on sentence. debate. The host is incorrect because it puts the first dependent clause as its own sentence, creating a sentence fragment or incomplete sentence. debate; the host is incorrect because it places a semicolon in between the two clauses, and semicolons are only used for two independent clauses with no linking or transition word.

739. Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys wrinkled clothes and microscopic food crumbs. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?
     • Within the mess to clean up were scattered, toys wrinkled, clothes and microscopic, food crumbs.
     • Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys, wrinkled clothes, and never-ending food crumbs.
     • Within the, mess to clean up were, scattered toys wrinkled clothes and microscopic food crumbs.
     • Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys wrinkled clothes and microscopic food crumbs.

     Correct answer: Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys, wrinkled clothes, and never-ending food crumbs.

     This is correct because there are commas to separate the three items needing to be cleaned up. Within the mess to clean up were, scattered toys wrinkled clothes and microscopic food crumbs. This is incorrect because no comma is needed between the verb ‘were’ and the adjective ‘scattered’. Within the mess to clean up were scattered, toys wrinkled, clothes and microscopic, food crumbs. This is incorrect because there should be no commas between ‘scattered’ and ‘toys’, or ‘microscopic’ and ‘food’. Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys wrinkled clothes and microscopic food crumbs. This is incorrect because there are no commas to separate the three items being cleaned up.

740. I wonder what time we need to arrive at the airport __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • In the morning
     • In the morning?
     • In the morning!
     • In the morning

     Correct answer: In the morning

     This is correct. Since the sentence makes a general statement about a thought the speaker has, it requires a period at the end. in the morning is incorrect because every sentence must have end punctuation. in the morning? is incorrect because the sentence is not asking a question. in the morning! is incorrect because the speaker is not exclaiming or speaking with any strong emotion.

741. Most businesses keep accurate assessments of their prophet margins and often require attendance at weekly meetings. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?
     • Replace businesses with business’s
     • Replace their with there
     • Replace attendance with attendants
     • Replace prophet with profit

     Correct answer: Replace prophet with profit

     Replace prophet with profit is the correct answer. This is correct because a prophet is someone who foretells the future, whereas profit is financial gain. Replace businesses with business’s. This is incorrect because the suffix -es indicates a plural form, while an apostrophe and -s indicate ownership. Replace attendance with attendants. This is incorrect because attendance is the act of attending, and attendants are people who attend. Replace their with there. This is incorrect because the word their indicates ownership, while the word there refers to a location.

742. The modern pentathlon incorporates five skills considered essential to the late nineteenth-century __________ shooting, swimming, fencing, horsemanship, and cross-country running. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Soldier, which are:
     • Soldier;
     • Soldier, including:
     • Soldier:

     Correct answer: Soldier:

     soldier: is correct. A complete sentence can be expanded to include a list using a colon. In this case, a list of skills is added to clarify what skills are incorporated into the modern pentathlon. soldier, including: is incorrect. A colon must follow an independent clause, meaning that the part in front of the colon must be a complete sentence on its own. However, “including” and “which are” are incomplete ideas that need an object. soldier, which are: is incorrect because a colon must follow an independent clause, meaning that the part in front of the colon must be a complete sentence on its own. However, “including” and “which are” are incomplete ideas that need an object. soldier; is incorrect because a semicolon is used to divide two independent clauses from each other, but the following portion is only a list of nouns. There needs to be an active verb for the following portion to be an independent clause.

743. The antiquated machinery at the old steal mill is a danger to all of the factory’s employees. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?
     • Replace steal with steel
     • Replace machinery with machinary
     • Replace employee with employe
     • Replace factory’s with factories

     Correct answer: Replace steal with steel

     Replace steal with steel is the correct answer. This is correct because steel is a metal, whereas steal refers to the act of taking something without permission. Replace machinery with machinary. This is incorrect because machine ends with an -e, so -ery is the correct suffix. Replace employee with employe. This is incorrect because -ee indicates a person. Replace factory’s with factories. This is incorrect because the suffix -ies indicates a plural form, while an apostrophe and -s indicate ownership.

744. The exhausted firefighters we’re tremendously relieved when the other brigades arrived. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?
     • Replace relieved with releived
     • Replace we’re with were
     • Replace exhausted with exausted
     • Replace firefighters with firefighter’s

     Correct answer: Replace we’re with were

     Replace we’re with were is the correct answer. This is correct because we’re is a contraction of we and are, while were is a verb. Replace relieved with releived. This is incorrect because of the I before E rule. Replace exhausted with exausted. This is incorrect because the h in exhausted is silent. Replace firefighters with firefighter’s. This is incorrect because firefighters is a plural noun, whereas firefighter’s is a possessive noun.

745. May I please speak to the manager __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • On duty
     • On duty!
     • On duty?
     • On duty

     Correct answer: On duty?

     This is correct because the sentence is asking a question. So, a question mark is required at the end. on duty. is incorrect. Since a question is being asked, a period is not the appropriate punctuation. on duty! is incorrect. This is because the speaker is not exclaiming or speaking with any strong emotion. on duty is incorrect. This is because every sentence must have end punctuation.

746. I can’t believe you lied __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • To me
     • To me
     • To me?
     • To me!

     Correct answer: To me!

     This is correct because the speaker is speaking with an emotionally charged voice. So, an exclamation mark is needed to end the sentence. to me? is incorrect because the sentence is not asking a question. to me is incorrect because every sentence must end with punctuation. to me. is incorrect because the speaker is not just making a plain statement.

747. _____________ should be noted that the student has consistently failed to attend class. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Moreover: it
     • Moreover; it
     • Moreover, it
     • Moreover it

     Correct answer: Moreover, it

     Moreover, it is correct. A comma after our introductory word is grammatically correct as it sets off our introductory adverb from the rest of the sentence. Moreover it is incorrect. This answer choice does not have any punctuation and, thus, does not differentiate the introductory adverb (moreover) from the rest of the sentence. Moreover; it is incorrect. This answer choice features a semicolon after our introductory adverb. Semicolons are used to separate independent clauses in a sentence as is not the case here. Moreover: it is incorrect. This answer choice has a colon after our introductory adverb. A colon is meant to set apart two independent clauses, usually in a definition or informative format.

748. __________ taking Arizona State Route 143. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Next: we're
     • Next; we're
     • Next we're
     • Next, we're

     Correct answer: Next, we're

     Next, we’re is correct. A comma after our introductory word is grammatically correct as it sets off our introductory adverb from the rest of the sentence. Next; we’re is incorrect. This answer choice features a semicolon after our introductory adverb. Semicolons are used to separate independent clauses in a sentence as is not the case here. Next we’re is incorrect. This answer choice does not have any punctuation and, thus, does not differentiate the introductory adverb (next) from the rest of the sentence. Next: we’re is incorrect. This answer choice has a colon after our introductory adverb. A colon is meant to set apart two independent clauses, usually in a definition or informative format.

749. Proving his absolute absence of _________ constantly eluded his responsibilities. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Commitment Jonah
     • Commitment; Jonah
     • Commitment. Jonah
     • Commitment, Jonah

     Correct answer: Commitment, Jonah

     commitment, Jonah is correct because it separates the dependent clause from the independent clause with a comma, creating the correct structure. commitment; Jonah is incorrect because it places a semicolon in between the two clauses, and semicolons are only used for two independent clauses with no linking or transition word. commitment Jonah is incorrect because it combines the two clauses without any punctuation, which creates a run-on sentence. commitment. Jonah is incorrect because it puts the first dependent clause as its own sentence, creating a sentence fragment or incomplete sentence.

750. You say you agree with your colleague’s ____________ are sabotaging her research. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Point of view. Yet you
     • Point of view yet you
     • Point of view; yet you
     • Point of view, yet you

     Correct answer: Point of view, yet you

     point of view, yet you is correct because it correctly uses a comma and coordinating conjunction to combine the dependent and independent clause. point of view; yet you is incorrect because it uses a semicolon to combine the clauses, but semicolons are used for combining two independent clauses with no coordinating conjunction, so it does not work here. point of view. Yet you is incorrect because it separates the clauses into a complete and an incomplete sentence. “Yet you are sabotaging her research” is a dependent clause, and cannot be a sentence on its own. point of view yet you is incorrect because it combines the two clauses without any punctuation, which creates a run-on sentence.

751. __________________ was getting on the teacher’s nerves. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Harry. Fidgeting with his pen,
     • Harry: fidgeting with his pen,
     • Harry fidgeting with his pen
     • Harry, fidgeting with his pen,

     Correct answer: Harry, fidgeting with his pen,

     Harry, fidgeting with his pen, is correct. The information inside of the commas is nonessential to the meaning of the sentence. It is simply extra information for the reader. Harry fidgeting with his pen is incorrect because it causes a run-on sentence and is grammatically incorrect. Harry: fidgeting with his pen, is incorrect because a colon is used to elaborate, but the rest of the sentence is essential information and does not make sense as a simple elaboration. Harry. Fidgeting with his pen, is incorrect because the way the period separates this into two sentences does not make sense grammatically as it is incomplete.

752. The interim _________________ assumed leadership after the president’s demise. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Prime minister; Yannick Marceau,
     • Prime minister, Yannick Marceau,
     • Prime minister: Yannick Marceau,
     • Prime minister Yannick Marceau

     Correct answer: Prime minister, Yannick Marceau,

     prime minister, Yannick Marceau, is correct. The information inside of the commas is nonessential to the meaning of the sentence. It is simply extra information for the reader. prime minister; Yannick Marceau, is incorrect because we use the semicolon when the connection between two independent clauses is clear. The interim prime minister is not an independent clause because it lacks a verb. prime minister: Yannick Marceau, is incorrect because a colon is used to elaborate, but the rest of the sentence is essential information and does not make sense as a simple elaboration. prime minister Yannick Marceau is incorrect because it causes a run-on sentence and is grammatically incorrect.

753. The construction worker wore ___________ as he repaired the roadway. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • A bright orange, vest
     • A bright, orange vest
     • A bright orange vest
     • A bright and orange vest

     Correct answer: A bright orange vest

     a bright orange vest is correct because bright and orange are cumulative adjectives and do not need a comma between them. a bright and orange vest is incorrect. This is because the word and does not need to be added in between bright and orange. a bright, orange vest is incorrect. This is because cumulative adjectives do not need to be separated by a comma. a bright orange, vest is incorrect. This is because there should be no comma between the adjective orange and noun vest.

754. Mom spoke with ___________ as she recalled memories of her childhood. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • A quiet gentle voice
     • A quiet, gentle, voice
     • A quiet, gentle voice
     • A quiet and gentle voice

     Correct answer: A quiet, gentle voice

     a quiet, gentle voice is correct because a comma separates the coordinating adjectives. a quiet and gentle voice is incorrect because it is not necessary to add and between the coordinating adjectives quiet and gentle. a quiet, gentle, voice is incorrect because there should not be a comma between the adjective gentle and the noun voice. a quiet gentle voice is incorrect because a comma needs to be placed between the coordinating adjectives quiet and gentle.

755. The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis San Francisco and New York. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?
     • The bus, transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis San Francisco and New York.
     • The bus transports passengers daily, throughout cities like St. Louis San Francisco and New York.
     • The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis, San Francisco, and New York.
     • The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St., Louis San Francisco, and New York.

     Correct answer: The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis, San Francisco, and New York.

     This is correct because there are commas placed to separate the three cities listed. The bus, transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis San Francisco and New York. This is incorrect because there should not be a comma between the noun ‘bus’ and verb ‘transports’. The bus transports passengers daily, throughout cities like St. Louis San Francisco and New York. This is incorrect because a comma is not necessary between the adverb ‘daily’ and the preposition ‘throughout’. The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St., Louis San Francisco, and New York. This is incorrect because St. and Louis are both parts of the name of the same city and therefore should not be separated by a comma.

756. The toddler enjoyed a bath brushed his teeth and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?
     • The toddler enjoyed a bath, brushed his teeth, and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed.
     • The toddler enjoyed a bath, brushed his teeth and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed.
     • The toddler enjoyed a bath, brushed his teeth, and changed, into pajamas before climbing into bed.
     • The toddler enjoyed a bath, brushed his, teeth and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed.

     Correct answer: The toddler enjoyed a bath, brushed his teeth, and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed.

     This is correct because a comma is placed after each activity leading up to the toddler’s bedtime. The toddler enjoyed a bath, brushed his teeth and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed. This is incorrect because a comma is needed between ‘teeth’ and ‘and’. The toddler enjoyed a bath, brushed his teeth, and changed, into pajamas before climbing into bed. This is incorrect because there should not be a comma separating the verb ‘changed’ and the preposition ‘into’. The toddler enjoyed a bath, brushed his, teeth and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed. This is incorrect because a second comma should be placed after ‘teeth’ to separate the last two actions. There should not be a comma between “his” and “teeth”.

757. After needing the dough, allow it to rise while flouring your pans. Don’t forget to allow enough time for cooling. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?
     • Replace needing with kneading
     • Replace rise with raise
     • Replace flouring with flowering
     • Replace cooling with coolling

     Correct answer: Replace needing with kneading

     Replace needing with kneading is the correct answer. This is correct because needing is the act of requiring, while kneading is an action done by squeezing. Replace rise with raise. This is incorrect because rise means “to become higher”, whereas raise means “to increase, augment and/or elevate.” Replace flouring with flowering. This is incorrect because flour is the ingredient used in baking, while a flower is a plant. Replace cooling with coolling. This is incorrect because cooling is an exception to the double the final consonant rule.

758. Which of the following sentences shows the correct use of punctuation marks?
     • “How did you become such a good cook”? Grandma asked Carley at dinner.
     • ‘How did you become such a good cook?” Grandma asked Carley at dinner.
     • “How did you become such a good cook? Grandma asked Carley at dinner.”
     • “How did you become such a good cook?” Grandma asked Carley at dinner.

     Correct answer: “How did you become such a good cook?” Grandma asked Carley at dinner.

     “How did you become such a good cook?” Grandma asked Carley at dinner. is correct. This is because double quotation marks are used correctly and the question mark is inside the quotations. “How did you become such a good cook”? Grandma asked Carley at dinner. is incorrect. This is because the question mark should be placed inside the quotation marks. ‘How did you become such a good cook?” Grandma asked Carley at dinner. is incorrect. This is because the use of the single quotation mark is not correct. “How did you become such a good cook? Grandma asked Carley at dinner.” is incorrect. This is because double quotation marks are needed after the question mark, not at the very end of the sentence.

759. To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil chicken and vegetables. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?
     • To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil chicken, and vegetables.
     • To prepare the entree, the chef mixed, olive, oil chicken and vegetables.
     • To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil, chicken, and vegetables.
     • To prepare the entree, the chef, mixed olive oil chicken and vegetables.

     Correct answer: To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil, chicken, and vegetables.

     Answer: To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil, chicken, and vegetables. This answer is correct because commas must separate the three ingredients being mixed. To prepare the entree, the chef, mixed olive oil chicken and vegetables. This is incorrect because there are no commas to separate the items being listed. To prepare the entree, the chef mixed, olive, oil chicken and vegetables. This is incorrect because there should not be a comma separating the verb ‘mixed’ and the adjective ‘olive’. Additionally, there should not be a comma separating the adjective ‘olive’ and the noun ‘oil’. To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil chicken, and vegetables. This is incorrect because there should be an additional comma placed between the nouns ‘oil’ and ‘chicken’.

760. She baked the ___________ to perfection. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Soft, fluffy biscuits
     • Soft fluffy biscuits
     • Soft fluffy, biscuits
     • Soft and fluffy biscuits

     Correct answer: Soft, fluffy biscuits

     soft, fluffy biscuits is correct because a comma separates the two coordinating adjectives. soft fluffy biscuits is incorrect. This is because a comma is needed to separate the coordinating adjectives. soft fluffy, biscuits is incorrect. This is because the comma between the adjective fluffy and the noun biscuits should be eliminated. soft and fluffy biscuits is incorrect. This is because it is not necessary to add and between the two adjectives. A comma should be in its place.

761. In “History of Turkey,” Porter refuted the notion that such a link exists________. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • :35/47
     • /35-47
     • (35-47)
     • -35-47-

     Correct answer: (35-47)

     (35-47) is correct. We use parentheses to indicate the page numbers in the book where this information may be found. Since we use parentheses to indicate the page numbers of a book to reference, -35-47-; /35-47; :35/47 are all incorrect uses of punctuation.

762. My ______________________ has many tips on finding deals at the grocery store. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Sister a single mother of two
     • Sister: a single mother of two
     • Sister. A single mother of two,
     • Sister, a single mother of two,

     Correct answer: Sister, a single mother of two,

     sister, a single mother of two, is correct. The information inside of the commas is nonessential to the meaning of the sentence. It is simply extra information for the reader. sister: a single mother of two is incorrect because a colon is used to elaborate, but the rest of the sentence is essential information and does not make sense as a simple elaboration. sister. A single mother of two, is incorrect because the way the period separates this into two sentences does not make sense grammatically as it is incomplete. sister a single mother of two is incorrect because it causes a run-on sentence and is grammatically incorrect.

763. Matthew struggled to open the ___________.Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Stiff heavy door
     • Stiff, heavy door
     • Stiff heavy, door
     • Stiff, heavy, door

     Correct answer: Stiff, heavy door

     Stiff, heavy door is correct because a comma separates the two coordinating adjectives. Stiff, heavy, door is incorrect because a comma is not needed between the adjective heavy and noun door. There should only be one comma between stiff and heavy. Stiff heavy, door is incorrect because there should not be a comma between the adjective heavy and noun door. Stiff heavy door is incorrect because a comma should be placed to separate the coordinating adjectives stiff and heavy.

764. The principle of the high school was debating whether to pursue the issue any further. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?
     • Replace debating with debateing
     • Replace principle with principal
     • Replace whether with weather
     • Replace further with farther

     Correct answer: Replace principle with principal

     Replace principle with principal is the correct answer. This is correct because a principle is an idea or rule. In this case, the principal (meaning “the most important”) is a person. Replace debating with debateing. This is incorrect because the final -e rule states, “Drop the final e when adding a suffix that starts with a vowel”. Replace whether with weather. This is incorrect because whether is a conjunction implying some type of choice, while weather has to do with climate and atmospheric conditions. Replace further with farther. This is incorrect because further means “in addition”, whereas farther has to do with distance.

765. __________ will be required to show your ID upon arrival. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Besides you
     • Besides, you
     • Besides; you
     • Besides: you

     Correct answer: Besides, you

     Besides, you is correct. A comma after our introductory word is grammatically correct as it sets off our introductory adverb from the rest of the sentence. Besides; you is incorrect. This answer choice features a semicolon after our introductory adverb. Semicolons are used to separate independent clauses in a sentence as is not the case here. Besides: you is incorrect. This answer choice has a colon after our introductory adverb. A colon is meant to set apart two independent clauses, usually in a definition or informative format. Besides you is incorrect. This answer choice does not have any punctuation and, thus, does not differentiate the introductory adverb (besides) from the rest of the sentence.

766. Some of the measures implemented to eradicate the disease could prove counterproductive ____________. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • (Salgado, 2012)
     • Salgado, 2012
     • -Salgado, 2012-
     • “Salgado, 2012”

     Correct answer: (Salgado, 2012)

     (Salgado, 2012) is correct. We use parentheses to identify information that was located using another source. Since we use parentheses to identify information from another source, Salgado, 2012; -Salgado, 2012-; “Salgado, 2012” are all incorrect uses of punctuation.

767. Despite owning a _________ takes the bus to work every morning. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Car, Michelle
     • Car Michelle
     • Car. Michelle
     • Car; Michelle

     Correct answer: Car, Michelle

     car, Michelle is correct because it separates the dependent clause from the independent clause with a comma, creating the correct structure. car Michelle is incorrect because it combines the two clauses without any punctuation, which creates a run-on sentence. car. Michelle is incorrect because it puts the first dependent clause as its own sentence, creating a sentence fragment or incomplete sentence. car; Michelle is incorrect because it places a semicolon in between the two clauses, and semicolons are only used for two independent clauses with no linking or transition word.

768. ___________ should consider all possible outcomes. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Nevertheless; we
     • Nevertheless we
     • Nevertheless: we
     • Nevertheless, we

     Correct answer: Nevertheless, we

     Nevertheless, we is correct. A comma after an introductory word is grammatically correct as it sets off our introductory adverb from the rest of the sentence. Nevertheless; we is incorrect. This answer choice features a semicolon after our introductory adverb. Semicolons are used to separate independent clauses in a sentence as is not the case here. Nevertheless: we is incorrect. This answer choice has a colon after our introductory adverb. A colon is meant to set apart two independent clauses, usually in a definition or informative format. Nevertheless we is incorrect. This answer choice does not have any punctuation and, thus, does not differentiate the introductory adverb nevertheless from the rest of the sentence.

769. Next week, we are going to visit our family __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • In Wisconsin?
     • In Wisconsin
     • In Wisconsin!
     • In Wisconsin

     Correct answer: In Wisconsin

     This is correct. Since the sentence makes a statement, a period is required at the end. in Wisconsin! is incorrect because the speaker is not speaking with any strong emotion. in Wisconsin is incorrect because every sentence must have end punctuation. in Wisconsin? is incorrect because the sentence does not ask a question.

770. Riding a stationery bicycle is sufficient exercise, although it is not as effective as outside biking. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?
     • Replace sufficient with sufficeint
     • Replace effective with affective
     • Replace biking with bikeing
     • Replace stationery with stationary

     Correct answer: Replace stationery with stationary

     Replace stationery with stationary is the correct answer. This is correct because stationery refers to writing products, and stationary means “without movement”. Replace biking with bikeing. This is incorrect because the final -e rule suggests dropping the final “e” when adding a suffix that begins with a vowel. Replace effective with affective. This is incorrect because effective has to do with results, while affective has to do with emotions/feelings. Replace sufficient with sufficeint. This is incorrect because sufficient is an exception to the i-e rule.

771. Many people experience fatigue bloating and nausea when pregnant. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?
     • Many people experience fatigue, bloating and, nausea when pregnant.
     • Many people experience fatigue, bloating and nausea when pregnant.
     • Many people experience fatigue bloating and nausea when, pregnant.
     • Many people experience fatigue, bloating, and nausea when pregnant.

     Correct answer: Many people experience fatigue, bloating, and nausea when pregnant.

     This is correct because there are commas separating the three symptoms, i.e. ‘fatigue’, ‘bloating’, and ‘nausea’. Many people experience fatigue bloating and nausea when, pregnant. This is incorrect because a comma is not needed between ‘when’ and ‘pregnant’. Many people experience fatigue, bloating and nausea when pregnant. This is incorrect because there should be a comma separating ‘bloating’ and ‘and’. Many people experience fatigue, bloating and, nausea when pregnant. This is incorrect because the comma after ‘and’ is not needed. Instead, the comma should be moved to come right after ‘bloating’.

772. My ___________ became an entrepreneur at just nineteen years old. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Intelligent older brother
     • Intelligent, older, brother
     • Intelligent and older brother
     • Intelligent, older brother

     Correct answer: Intelligent older brother

     intelligent older brother is correct because no comma is needed to separate cumulative adjectives. intelligent, older, brother is incorrect. This is because both commas should be removed. intelligent, older brother is incorrect. This is because cumulative adjectives do not need to be separated by a comma. intelligent and older brother is incorrect. This is because there is no need to add and between the two adjectives.

773. chapters, write is correct because it separates the dependent clause from the independent clause with a comma, creating the correct structure. chapters write is incorrect because it combines the two clauses without any punctuation, which creates a run-on sentence. chapters; write is incorrect because it places a semicolon in between the two clauses, and semicolons are only used for two independent clauses with no linking or transition word. (chapters) write is incorrect because it uses parentheses incorrectly. We use parentheses around nonessential information or abrupt changes in thought.
     • Bar; where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails,
     • Bar. Where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails,
     • Bar: where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails
     • Bar, where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails,

     Correct answer: Bar, where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails,

     bar, where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails, is correct. The information inside of the commas is nonessential to the meaning of the sentence. It is simply extra information for the reader. bar: where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails is incorrect because a colon is used to elaborate, but the rest of the sentence is essential information and does not make sense as a simple elaboration. bar. Where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails, is incorrect because the way the period separates this into two sentences does not make sense grammatically as it is incomplete. bar; where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails, is incorrect because we use the semicolon when the connection between two independent clauses is clear. The bar is not an independent clause because it lacks a verb.

774. I don’t think you get what this _________________ means to me. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Necklace, a family heirloom,
     • Necklace. A family heirloom,
     • Necklace, a family heirloom
     • Necklace: a family heirloom

     Correct answer: Necklace, a family heirloom,

     necklace, a family heirloom, is correct. The information inside of the commas is nonessential to the meaning of the sentence. It is simply extra information for the reader. necklace, a family heirloom is incorrect because it is missing a comma after the word heirloom. We use commas before and after nonessential clauses. necklace: a family heirloom is incorrect because a colon is used to elaborate, but the rest of the sentence is essential information and does not make sense as a simple elaboration. necklace. A family heirloom, is incorrect because the way the period separates this into two sentences does not make sense grammatically as it is incomplete.

775. _________ register with a valid email address. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • First; please
     • First: please
     • First, please
     • First please

     Correct answer: First, please

     First, please is correct. The comma after our introductory word is grammatically correct as it sets off our introductory adverb from the rest of the sentence. First please is incorrect. This answer choice does not have any punctuation and, thus, does not differentiate the introductory adverb first from the rest of the sentence. First: please is incorrect. This answer choice has a colon after our introductory adverb. A colon is meant to set apart two independent clauses, usually in a definition or informative format. First; please is incorrect. This answer choice features a semicolon after our introductory adverb. Semicolons are used to separate independent clauses in a sentence as is not the case here.

776. I’m so excited for the birthday party __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • This weekend!
     • This weekend?
     • This weekend
     • This weekend

     Correct answer: This weekend!

     This is correct because the speaker is speaking with strong emotion. Therefore, an exclamation mark is required. this weekend? is incorrect. This is because the sentence does not ask a question. this weekend. is incorrect. This is because the speaker is not just making a statement. this weekend is incorrect. This is because every sentence needs end punctuation.

777. All hiking participants should bring portable, healthy food for their __________ dried fruits, nuts, or granola bars. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Snacks, including:
     • Snacks like:
     • Snacks:
     • Snacks,

     Correct answer: Snacks:

     snacks: is correct. A colon is used to add a list to a sentence. The part in front of the colon must be an independent clause, meaning that it can stand on its own as a sentence. In this case, a list of types of food participants should bring directly follows the colon. snacks, is incorrect because a comma turns “their snacks” into the first item in a list joined by “or.” As a result, “dried fruits,” “nuts,” and “granola bars” illogically become things that healthy food should be brought for. snacks like: and snacks, including: are both incorrect because a colon needs to follow an independent clause, but “like” and “including” make the preceding portion an incomplete idea.

778. Where do you recommend scheduling a pedicure appointment __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Around here!
     • Around here
     • Around here
     • Around here?

     Correct answer: Around here?

     around here? This is correct. Since the speaker is asking a question, this sentence needs a question mark. around here. is incorrect. This is because the sentence is asking a question and not making a statement. around here is incorrect. This is because every sentence must have end punctuation. around here! is incorrect. This is because the speaker is not yelling or exclaiming.

779. After reading the first three ________ a two-page text summarizing the main points. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • (chapters) write
     • Chapters; write
     • Chapters write
     • Chapters, write

     Correct answer: Chapters, write

     chapters, write is correct because it separates the dependent clause from the independent clause with a comma, creating the correct structure. chapters write is incorrect because it combines the two clauses without any punctuation, which creates a run-on sentence. chapters; write is incorrect because it places a semicolon in between the two clauses, and semicolons are only used for two independent clauses with no linking or transition word. (chapters) write is incorrect because it uses parentheses incorrectly. We use parentheses around nonessential information or abrupt changes in thought.

780. At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence across the road and into a field to explore. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?
     • At the site of an open gate, the dog darted, through the fence, across the road and into a field to explore.
     • At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence across, the road and into a field to explore.
     • At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence across the road, and into a field to explore.
     • At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence, across the road, and into a field to explore.

     Correct answer: At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence, across the road, and into a field to explore.

     This is the correct answer because there are two commas to separate the three prepositional phrases stating where the dog darted. At the site of an open gate, the dog darted, through the fence, across the road and into a field to explore. This is incorrect because there should not be a comma between the verb ‘darted’ and the preposition ‘through’. At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence across, the road and into a field to explore. This is incorrect because a comma is not needed between the preposition ‘across’ and the article ‘the’ since they are both part of the same prepositional phrase. At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence across the road, and into a field to explore.This is incorrect because an additional comma is needed between the words ‘fence’ and ‘across’ to separate the first two prepositional phrases.

781. Thinking nobody was ________ discreetly picked his nose. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?
     • Watching, Charlie
     • Watching. Charlie
     • Watching; Charlie
     • (watching) Charlie

     Correct answer: Watching, Charlie

     watching, Charlie is correct because it separates the dependent clause from the independent clause with a comma, creating the correct structure. (watching) Charlie is incorrect because it uses parentheses incorrectly. We use parentheses around nonessential information or abrupt changes in thought. watching; Charlie is incorrect because it places a semicolon in between the two clauses, and semicolons are only used for two independent clauses with no linking or transition word. watching. Charlie is incorrect because it puts the first dependent clause as its own sentence, creating a sentence fragment or incomplete sentence.

782. Which of the following statements is not true regarding hormones and their target sites?
     • The anterior pituitary gland produces a follicle-stimulating hormone to stimulate the development of follicles in females and the production of sperm in males.
     • Estrogen and progesterone are produced by the ovaries.
     • The Luteinizing hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland to stimulate ovulation and production of testosterone.
     • Testosterone is produced by the testes and adrenal glands.

     Correct answer: The Luteinizing hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland to stimulate ovulation and production of testosterone.

     Answer: The Luteinizing hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland to stimulate ovulation and the production of testosterone. The Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone are both produced by the anterior pituitary gland. The Posterior pituitary gland produces oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

783. Which of the following is the correct order of structures that transport urine from the collecting ducts to the urethra?
     • Collecting ducts, Renal pelvis, Minor calyces, Major calyces, Ureter, Urinary bladder, Urethra
     • Collecting ducts, Minor calyces, Major calyces, Renal pelvis, Urinary bladder, Ureter, Urethra
     • Collecting ducts, Major calyces, Minor Calyces, Renal pelvis, Ureter, Urinary bladder, Urethra
     • Collecting ducts, Minor calyces, Major calyces, Renal pelvis, Ureter, Urinary bladder, Urethra

     Correct answer: Collecting ducts, Minor calyces, Major calyces, Renal pelvis, Ureter, Urinary bladder, Urethra

     Answer: Collecting ducts, Minor calyces, Major calyces, Renal pelvis, Ureter, Urinary bladder, Urethra. From the collecting ducts, urine is transported to the minor calyces, which converge to form major calyces. The major calyces converge to the renal pelvis, then the urine is transported to the ureter, followed by the urinary bladder and is finally excreted via the urethra.

784. The basic function of the renal system includes filtration, secretion, reabsorption, and excretion. Which of the following substances is secreted by the nephrons and can be found in the filtrate that is eventually excreted?
     • Sodium
     • Glucose
     • Creatinine
     • Amino Acids

     Correct answer: Creatinine

     Answer: Creatinine Amino acids, sodium and glucose are normally reabsorbed in the proximal portion of the renal tubules. Creatinine, which is used to assess glomerular filtration, is filtered in the glomerulus and also secreted by the tubules.

785. Certain food sources provide more urea than others. Which of the following foods would provide the most urea that would have to be filtered out of the blood via the kidneys?
     • Grains, such as pasta and rice
     • Proteins, such as meats and eggs
     • Oils, such as olive and vegetable
     • Fruits, such as pears and oranges

     Correct answer: Proteins, such as meats and eggs

     Answer: Proteins, such as meats and eggs Urea is formed at the end of a series of reactions which break down the amino acids in proteins. Therefore, urea is a major waste product of protein. Other types of foods, such as fruits, oils, and grains, are not primarily composed of amino acids, so they would not result in high levels of urea as a waste product after being broken down during digestion.

786. Which of the following is responsible for destroying various unhealthy host cells, including those infected with a virus or bacteria?
     • Natural killer cells
     • Dendritic cells
     • B-cells
     • T-cells

     Correct answer: Natural killer cells

     Answer: Natural killer cells Natural killer cells are responsible for destroying various unhealthy host cells, including those infected with virus or bacteria. Dendritic cells are responsible for initiating immune responses by presenting antigens to T-cells. T-cells and B-cells are cells of the adaptive immune system that directly attack antigens and produce antibodies, respectively.

787. Which of the following causes bone matrix synthesis and calcification?
     • Osteoporosis
     • Osteoblasts
     • Hydroxyapatite
     • Osteoclasts

     Correct answer: Osteoblasts

     Answer: Osteoblasts Osteoblasts are the cells responsible for bone matrix synthesis and calcification, while osteoclasts remove the calcified bone matrix during bone growth and remodeling. Hydroxyapatite is the crystal mineral formed during bone calcification to which collagen and proteoglycans will later be embedded. Osteoporosis is an imbalance in bone remodeling, where bone resorption exceeds bone formation, resulting in porous and fragile bones.

788. A veterinary student is researching the use of the drug Adequan in treating arthritis in cats.
     • An article in a magazine geared towards cat owners
     • An encyclopedia entry about Adequan
     • Observational reports from veterinarians studying cats’ responses to Adequan
     • A veterinary school textbook

     Correct answer: Observational reports from veterinarians studying cats’ responses to Adequan

     Observational reports from veterinarians studying cats’ responses to Adequan. This is correct because data is a primary source. An encyclopedia entry about Adequan. This is incorrect because it is a collection of primary and secondary sources. It is geared towards a more general audience and makes secondary research more approachable. A veterinary school textbook. This is incorrect because it is a collection of primary and secondary sources. It might include information from primary sources, but discusses them as opposed to just presenting them in their original form. An article in a magazine geared towards cat owners. This is incorrect because this is a collection of primary and secondary sources because it might include an interview with a pet owner but also an interpretation of a veterinary article.

789. A college student is writing a paper on “Rappaccini’s Daughter,” by Nathaniel Hawthorne. Which of the following is a primary source that the student could use for this topic?
     • A biography of Nathaniel Hawthorne
     • “Rappaccini’s Daughter,” by Nathaniel Hawthorne
     • A paper on “Rappaccini’s Daughter” written by another student
     • An article on “Rappaccini’s Daughter” in a peer-reviewed journal

     Correct answer: “Rappaccini’s Daughter,” by Nathaniel Hawthorne

     In literature, a primary source would be the actual literary text you are writing on. Therefore, “Rappaccini’s Daughter,” by Nathaniel Hawthorne is the correct answer. A paper on “Rappaccini’s Daughter” written by another student. This is incorrect because a paper written about a primary source would be a secondary source. A biography of Nathaniel Hawthorne. This is incorrect because while this might be useful, it wouldn’t be a primary source. A primary source in the Humanities is something original to the time period or culture being studied. An article on “Rappaccini’s Daughter” in a peer-reviewed journal. This is incorrect because it would be a secondary source. The scholar who wrote the article is analyzing/interpreting a primary source.

790. The adrenal glands, which are primarily responsible for producing the hormones cortisol and aldosterone, are located where?
     • At the back of the thyroid
     • On top of each kidney
     • Anterior to the larynx
     • Sphenoid bone of the skull

     Correct answer: On top of each kidney

     Answer: On top of each kidney The adrenal glands, which are primarily responsible for producing the hormones cortisol and aldosterone, are located on top of each kidney.

791. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is essential in regulating blood pressure. Which of the following hormones involved in RAAS is produced by the kidney?
     • Angiotensin I
     • Aldosterone
     • Renin
     • Angiotensin II

     Correct answer: Renin

     Answer: Renin Renin is produced by the kidney in response to changes in blood pressure. Angiotensin is produced upon the cleaving of angiotensinogen. Aldosterone is produced by the adrenal cortex.

792. Which of the following is a substance that the kidneys remove from the blood during filtration?
     • Salts
     • Red Blood Cells
     • Carbon Dioxide
     • Oxygen

     Correct answer: Salts

     Answer: Salts The kidneys filter waste from the blood, including salts. They do not filter gases out of the blood, nor do they filter out cells.

793. Where are the glomeruli and Bowman’s capsules found?
     • Renal column
     • Renal cortex
     • Renal pelvis
     • Ureter

     Correct answer: Renal cortex

     Answer: Renal Cortex The glomeruli and Bowman’s capsules are part of the nephrons, and are found in the renal cortex. You may use the diagrams below as a visual reference for the structure and location of the glomeruli and Bowman’s capsules.

794. Newborn babies are given several types of vaccines in order to protect them from acquiring diseases. Which of the following is responsible for this immunity process?
     • Innate immune system
     • Active immunity
     • Autoimmune disease
     • Passive immunity

     Correct answer: Active immunity

     Answer: Active immunity Vaccination is an active immunity which involves exposure to a killed or weakened form of the disease in order to trigger production of antibodies. Passive immunity is a temporary protection from diseases brought by introduction of antibodies from another person. The innate immune system is comprised of non-specific barriers and cellular responses that acts immediately following infection. An autoimmune disease refers to a condition wherein immune cells function abnormally and attack molecular components of the body’s own organs.

795. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between compact bone and spongy bone?
     • Spongy bone has more osteons than compact bone
     • Compact bone is located more interior than spongy bone
     • Spongy bone is lighter than compact bone
     • Compact bone has trabeculae that support the bone marrow

     Correct answer: Spongy bone is lighter than compact bone

     Answer: Spongy bone is lighter than compact bone Compact bone is composed of repeating units of osteons and is the strongest form of bone tissue. On the contrary, spongy bone is lighter than compact bone tissue and is always located on the interior of the bone. Rather than osteons, spongy bone is also made of thin columns of trabeculae which cover and protect the bone marrow.

796. Which of the following endocrine glands is not correctly paired with the hormone it produces?
     • Pancreas/ insulin
     • Ovary/ follicle-stimulating hormone
     • Pituitary/ growth hormone
     • Pineal/ melatonin

     Correct answer: Ovary/ follicle-stimulating hormone

     Answer: Ovary/ follicle-stimulating hormone Follicle-stimulating hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland.

797. ________ is not normally found in urine, and its presence may indicate a problem with the kidneys.
     • Urea
     • Bilirubin
     • Albumin
     • Ammonium

     Correct answer: Albumin

     Answer: Albumin Albumin is a plasma protein that is not normally present in the urine under normal conditions. Urea, ammonium, and drug metabolites are metabolic wastes commonly present in the urine. Bilirubin is also a waste product that is normally present in the urine, but at low levels. (High levels of bilirubin indicate disease conditions.)

798. Which of the following is true of the vasculature of kidneys?
     • Blood vessels enter and exit the kidney at the same point as the renal pelvis becomes the ureter, which is the renal hilum.
     • The left renal artery is longer and higher compared to the right renal artery.
     • The right renal vein is longer and higher than the left renal vein.
     • Renal arteries are located more anteriorly than the renal veins.

     Correct answer: Blood vessels enter and exit the kidney at the same point as the renal pelvis becomes the ureter, which is the renal hilum.

     Answer: Blood vessels enter and exit the kidney in the same point as the ureter, which is the renal hilum. The right kidney is slightly lower and more distal to the aorta compared to the left kidney. As such, the right renal artery is longer and often higher than the left renal artery. The right kidney is also more proximal to inferior vena cava, which means the right renal vein is shorter and lower than left renal veins. As shown in the figure below, renal veins are more anterior than renal arteries.

799. One of the primary functions of the kidney is to filter blood in order to remove substances that have no useful function in the body. Which of the following is the correct path of blood from the abdominal aorta to the inferior vena cava (IVC)?
     • Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
     • Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – efferent arteries – glomerulus – afferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
     • Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – interlobar arteries – segmental arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
     • Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – interlobar arteries – interlobular arteries – segmental arteries – arcuate arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava

     Correct answer: Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava

     Answer: abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava. The correct sequence of arteries is segmental, interlobar, arcuate, and interlobular. Blood then enters the glomerulus through the afferent arteries and exits via the efferent arteries (Think: A before E)

800. Which of the following is a nonspecific response to tissue damage characterized by redness, pain, heat, swelling and loss of function in the injured area?
     • Cell-mediated immunity
     • Inflammation
     • Antibody-mediated immunity
     • Passive immunity

     Correct answer: Inflammation

     Answer: Inflammation Inflammation is a nonspecific response to tissue damage characterized by redness, pain, heat, swelling and loss of function in the injured area. Passive immunity occurs when a person is given antibodies rather than his or her own body producing them itself. Cell-mediated immunity involves direct attack of immune cells to destroy antigens (toxic body invaders). Antibody-mediated immunity involves the production of specific proteins, called antibodies, which attack the antigen.

801. ______ is an inflammatory conditions of the joints brought on by the gradual wear-and-tear of cartilage that lines the articular ends of bones.
     • Rheumatoid arthritis
     • Brittle Bone Disease
     • Osteoarthritis
     • Osteoporosis

     Correct answer: Osteoarthritis

     Answer: Osteoarthritis Osteoarthritis is the inflammatory condition of joints due to the wear-and-tear of cartilage that lines the articular ends of bones. Osteoporosis is an imbalance in bone remodeling where bone resorption exceeds bone formation, resulting in porous and fragile bones. Brittle Bone Disease is a congenital disorder of defective or deficient collagen synthesis due to genetic mutations. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammation of joints due to autoimmune destruction of articular cartilage.

802. A college professor wants to research trends in syllabus writing. Which of the following is a primary source that the professor could use to find information on this topic?
     • A list of syllabus writing suggestions on a website for professors
     • A survey on syllabus clarity and helpfulness taken by college students
     • A collection of syllabi from the professor’s colleagues
     • A discussion on syllabus writing in a professional development seminar attended by professors

     Correct answer: A collection of syllabi from the professor’s colleagues

     Since syllabi are being studied, syllabi themselves would be the primary sources. A discussion on syllabus writing in a professional development seminar attended by professors. This is incorrect because it is a discussion about a primary source, which makes it a secondary source. A list of syllabus writing suggestions on a website for professors. This is incorrect. Syllabi themselves are the primary sources here, so anything about syllabi or discussing them would be a step or two removed from the primary source status. A survey on syllabus clarity and helpfulness taken by college students. This is incorrect because it is not a primary source for studying syllabi themselves.

803. An art history student wants to research 20th-century surrealist art. Which of the following is a primary source that the student could use for this topic?
     • A biography of a 20th century surrealist artist
     • A museum description of a work by a 20th century surrealist artist
     • A young adult novel about an art history student
     • Online picture files of 20th-century surrealist art

     Correct answer: Online picture files of 20th-century surrealist art

     Online picture files of 20th-century surrealist art is correct because the art itself is a primary source. It is the thing being studied. A biography of a 20th-century surrealist artist. This is incorrect because it is a secondary source as It is removed from the original. On the other hand, an autobiography is considered a primary source. A museum description of a work by a 20th-century surrealist artist. This is incorrect because the art itself would be a primary source, but anything written about it would not be considered primary. A young adult novel about an art history student. This is incorrect because it is a fictional text, so it wouldn’t be good for research.

804. Which of the following are chemical signals that are secreted by endocrine glands and travel via circulation to their target organs?
     • Neurotransmitters
     • Hormones
     • Cytokines
     • Interleukins

     Correct answer: Hormones

     Answer: Hormones Hormones are chemical signals that are secreted by the endocrine glands and travel via circulation (blood) to the target organs. Neurotransmitters are chemical signals utilized by the nervous system, while interleukins and cytokines are chemical messengers of the immune system.

805. What is the upper expanded region of the ureter called?
     • Renal cortex
     • Renal papilla
     • Renal pelvis
     • Renal pyramids

     Correct answer: Renal pelvis

     Answer: Renal pelvis Renal pyramids are the conical masses that make up the inner region of the kidney, the renal medulla. Each renal pyramid has an apical border called renal papilla. The outermost region of the kidney is the cortex.

806. ___________ is the site of blood filtration in the human body.
     • The lung
     • The heart
     • The small intestine
     • The kidney

     Correct answer: The kidney

     Answer: The kidney The kidneys carry out the process of extracting waste from the blood (filtration). They also balance body fluids and form urine that is later excreted from the body. The lung is the primary organ for the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide), otherwise known as respiration. The heart is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body via the circulatory system. The small intestine is responsible for the absorption of nutrients and minerals from food.

807. Which of the following secretes the antidiuretic hormone?
     • Pineal gland
     • Lungs
     • Pituitary gland
     • Liver

     Correct answer: Pituitary gland

     Answer: Pituitary gland The Antidiuretic hormone is primarily secreted by the posterior pituitary gland in response to a decrease in blood osmolality. Osmolality is a measure of the number of dissolved particles in a fluid. Blood osmolality refers to the amount of dissolved substances such as sodium, potassium, chloride, glucose, etc. in the blood.

808. T-lymphocytes mature and become functional in which of the following organs?
     • Bone marrow
     • Thymus
     • Spleen
     • Lymph nodes

     Correct answer: Thymus

     Answer: Thymus Lymphocytes are produced in the bone marrow, but mature and become functional in two primary lymphoid organs. B-lymphocytes differentiate and mature in the bone marrow, while T-lymphocytes becomes functional in the Thymus.

809. Which of the following is a flat bone?
     • Wrist bone
     • Ankle bone
     • Vertebrae
     • Scapulae

     Correct answer: Scapulae

     Answer: Scapulae Wrist bones and ankle bones are both types of short bones. The scapulae (shoulder blades) are flat bones. Vertebrae are irregular bones.