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FREE PANRE Study Guide 2026: The Complete Recertification Walkthrough

The highest-yield clinical content the PANRE recertification exam tests — an interactive study guide with built-in flashcards, organized by the 14 NCCPA organ systems and the eight task areas (PANRE and PANRE-LA).

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This free PANRE study guide walks through the highest-yield clinical content the (Physician Assistant National Recertifying Examination) tests, organized by the 14 organ-system content areas and the eight task areas.[1]

It is interactive, not a wall of text: every system has worked clinical scenarios, comparison tables, labeled diagrams, and built-in flashcards — taught to the practicing standard the recertification exam actually measures. It prepares you for either recert path — the standard or the longitudinal assessment.

Read it system by system, then round out your prep with our practice questions and flashcards. The standard PANRE has 240 scored questions delivered in one day and a passing of about 379.[2] Taking the initial exam instead? See our PANCE study guide.

PANRE Exam Snapshot

PANRE at a glance (2026)
DetailStandard PANRE
Scored questions240 multiple-choice, delivered in one day (≈4 blocks of 60)
Test timeAbout 4 hours of testing plus optional breaks
FormatComputer-based at a Pearson VUE testing center
Passing scoreScaled score of ~379 (scale 200–800) — not a percentage
Longitudinal optionPANRE-LA — ~25 questions per quarter, taken online over the cycle
Who takes itCertified PAs recertifying within the certification cycle
ContentGeneral medicine — same blueprint axes as the PANCE
Credential maintainedPhysician Assistant — Certified (PA-C)

Cardiovascular is the single largest organ-system content area at about 13%, followed by Pulmonary and GI/Nutrition (about 10% each), with Musculoskeletal next. Because the top few systems carry a large share of the exam, weight your review there first — but every system appears, so do not skip the smaller ones.[1] (Weights are approximate blueprint shares; verify the current numbers on the official PANRE blueprint.)

PANRE weighting by NCCPA organ-system content area (approximate share)
Cardiovascular13% · largest
Pulmonary10%
GI System & Nutrition10%
Musculoskeletal · EENT · Endocrine8% · each
Psychiatry · Infectious Diseases7% · each
Derm · GU · Neuro · Reproductive5% · each
Hematologic · Renal4% · each

The percentages above are approximate blueprint shares of the scored items; exact weights are periodically revised by the NCCPA, so verify the current numbers on the official PANRE blueprint.[1] A small number of unscored pretest items may also be mixed in and do not affect your score.

How the PANRE Is Built (Two Axes)

The PANRE is built from the NCCPA Content Blueprint, which scores every question on two axes at once.[1] Axis A is the medical content area — 14 organ systems.

Axis B is the task area— the eight clinical things a question can ask you to do (including professional practice). A single stem might be “Cardiovascular” (Axis A) and “Pharmaceutical Therapeutics” (Axis B). Studying by the blueprint is the most efficient path because it tells you exactly where the points are.

The PANRE uses scaled scoring. Your raw number of correct answers is converted to a scaled score on the 200–800 range, where about 379 is passing. Scaling equates difficulty across exam versions, so the passing score is not a fixed number of correct answers — the raw correct needed varies by form, and there is no penalty for guessing.[2]

This guide groups the 14 organ-system content areas into eight study modules for efficient review — all 14 areas are covered (plus the professional-practice task area), just organized into related clusters (for example, GI, renal, and genitourinary together).[1]

Cardiovascular System

Cardiovascular is the largest organ-system content area — about 13%.[1] It is the highest-yield system on the exam, so master ischemia, heart failure, hypertension, arrhythmias, and valves.

Acute Coronary Syndrome & Ischemia

Acute coronary syndrome spans .[3] An elevated separates an infarct (STEMI or NSTEMI) from unstable angina, in which troponin is normal.

On the ECG, ST-segment elevation in two or more contiguous leads (or a new left bundle branch block) defines a — a transmural occlusion needing emergent reperfusion (primary PCI preferred, fibrinolysis if PCI is unavailable in time). An shows ST depression or T inversion without ST elevation and is managed medically with early angiography — never fibrinolytics.

Heart Failure & Hypertension

Distinguish (ejection fraction ≤40%) from HFpEF (preserved EF). HFrEF gets guideline-directed therapy: an ACE inhibitor/ARB or ARNI, a beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor — the four pillars shown to reduce mortality (a high-yield recert update). For hypertension, the ACC/AHA stages are elevated (120–129/<80), stage 1 (130–139 or 80–89), and stage 2 (≥140 or ≥90); first-line drugs are a thiazide, an ACE inhibitor/ARB, or a calcium channel blocker.[3]

Blood-pressure categories (ACC/AHA)
CategorySystolicDiastolic
Normal< 120 mmHgand < 80 mmHg
Elevated120–129 mmHgand < 80 mmHg
Stage 1 hypertension130–139 mmHgor 80–89 mmHg
Stage 2 hypertension≥ 140 mmHgor ≥ 90 mmHg
Hypertensive crisis> 180 mmHgand/or > 120 mmHg

Arrhythmias & Valvular Disease

In atrial fibrillation, manage rate or rhythm and use the score to decide on anticoagulation (a DOAC is preferred over warfarin for most non-valvular AF).[4] Know the classic murmurs: aortic stenosis (crescendo–decrescendo systolic murmur radiating to the carotids, with syncope, angina, and dyspnea), mitral regurgitation (holosystolic murmur to the axilla), and mitral stenosis (diastolic rumble). An irregularly irregular pulse with no discrete P waves is atrial fibrillation.

Checkpoint · Cardiovascular System

Question 1 of 10

A 72-year-old man with newly diagnosed nonvalvular atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4. He is hemodynamically stable with a heart rate of 88 beats per minute. Beyond rate control, what is the most appropriate next step?

Pulmonary System

Pulmonary is a top-tier area — about 10%.[1] Obstructive disease and the big three infections/emergencies (pneumonia, TB, pulmonary embolism) carry most of the points.

Asthma & COPD

Both asthma and are obstructive — a reduced below 0.70 — but asthma is reversible (FEV₁ improves ≥12% and ≥200 mL after a bronchodilator) while COPD obstruction is fixed.[5] Asthma is stepwise-managed with inhaled corticosteroids plus short- and long-acting beta-agonists; COPD adds long-acting bronchodilators (LAMA/LABA), smoking cessation, and vaccination. A silent chest with a rising CO₂ in a fatiguing asthmatic is a sign of impending respiratory failure.

Pneumonia, TB & Pulmonary Embolism

For community-acquired pneumonia, use to decide disposition (outpatient vs admission vs ICU). For suspected pulmonary embolism, apply the : a low pretest probability plus a negative D-dimer rules it out, while a higher probability goes straight to CT pulmonary angiography. Tuberculosis classically causes apical disease with night sweats and weight loss and is treated with the four-drug RIPE regimen.

Asthma vs COPD
FeatureAsthmaCOPD
OnsetOften childhood, episodicUsually older adult, progressive
ReversibilityReversible (≥12% & ≥200 mL ↑ FEV₁)Largely irreversible
Main risk factorAtopy / allergens / triggersCigarette smoking
SpirometryFEV₁/FVC < 0.70 (improves post-bronchodilator)Post-bronchodilator FEV₁/FVC < 0.70 (fixed)

Checkpoint · Pulmonary System

Question 1 of 10

A 67-year-old man with a 50 pack-year smoking history reports chronic productive cough and dyspnea on exertion. Spirometry shows a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62. Which finding establishes the diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

GI, Nutrition, Renal & Genitourinary

This module groups three official content areas: GI & Nutrition (~10%), Renal (~4%), and Genitourinary (~5%).[1] Together they are the abdominal and excretory systems — a large, frequently tested block.

GI: PUD, GERD, IBD & the Acute Abdomen

Peptic ulcer disease is most often from H. pylori or NSAIDs; test and treat H. pylori and stop NSAIDs. GERD responds to lifestyle change and a proton-pump inhibitor; alarm features (dysphagia, weight loss, bleeding, anemia) prompt endoscopy.

In inflammatory bowel disease, Crohn disease is transmural with skip lesions anywhere from mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis is continuous mucosal inflammation limited to the colon with bloody diarrhea. The acute abdomen high-yield set: appendicitis (periumbilical pain migrating to McBurney point), cholecystitis (RUQ pain, positive Murphy sign), diverticulitis (LLQ pain), and pancreatitis (epigastric pain to the back, elevated lipase).

Renal: AKI, CKD & Electrolytes

Classify acute kidney injury as prerenal (hypoperfusion), intrinsic (acute tubular necrosis), or postrenal (obstruction).[7] AKI is defined by a creatinine rise of ≥0.3 mg/dL in 48 hours (or ≥1.5× baseline).

Chronic kidney disease is a GFR below 60 for at least three months; control blood pressure and glucose and use an ACE inhibitor or ARB to slow progression. Master : peaked T waves on ECG → give IV calcium first to stabilize the myocardium, then insulin with glucose (and a beta-agonist) to shift potassium intracellularly, and finally remove it (diuresis, binders, or dialysis).

Genitourinary: Stones, UTI & the Urgent Scrotum

Nephrolithiasis causes severe, colicky flank pain radiating to the groin with hematuria; non-contrast CT is the imaging test of choice. A simple UTI (dysuria, frequency) is treated with nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole; flank pain and fever signal pyelonephritis. The can’t-miss emergency is testicular torsion — sudden, severe testicular pain with a high-riding testis and an absent cremasteric reflex, requiring immediate surgery (within ~6 hours to save the testis), not a delaying ultrasound when the diagnosis is clear.

Acute abdomen — pattern recognition
DiagnosisClassic locationKey clue
AppendicitisPeriumbilical → RLQ (McBurney)Migrating pain, rebound, low-grade fever
CholecystitisRight upper quadrantPositive Murphy sign, post-fatty meal
DiverticulitisLeft lower quadrantOlder adult, fever, CT shows inflamed diverticula
PancreatitisEpigastric → backElevated lipase; gallstones or alcohol
Testicular torsionScrotum (urologic emergency)Absent cremasteric reflex; surgery within ~6 h

Checkpoint · GI, Nutrition, Renal & Genitourinary

Question 1 of 10

A 48-year-old man reports a burning retrosternal sensation that worsens after meals and when lying flat, occurring three to four times per week for two months. He has no dysphagia, weight loss, or anemia. Which intervention is the most appropriate first-line treatment for his symptoms?

Musculoskeletal & Dermatology

This module pairs Musculoskeletal (~8%) with Dermatologic (~5%).[1] MSK is one of the larger systems; dermatology is smaller but very pattern-based and scoreable.

Fractures, Arthritis & Joint Disease

Use the to decide which ankle, knee, and foot injuries need an X-ray. In children, grade growth-plate fractures with the .

Distinguish the arthritides: osteoarthritis is non-inflammatory wear with morning stiffness under 30 minutes and Heberden/ Bouchard nodes; rheumatoid arthritis is a symmetric inflammatory polyarthritis with morning stiffness over an hour and positive RF/anti-CCP; gout is acute monoarthritis (classically the first MTP joint) with negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals. Recognize low-back red flags (cauda equina: saddle anesthesia, bowel/bladder dysfunction) that demand urgent imaging.

High-Yield Dermatology

Apply the (Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter > 6 mm, Evolution) to flag melanoma, whose prognosis hinges on Breslow depth — biopsy early. Know basal cell carcinoma (pearly papule with telangiectasias, the most common skin cancer) and squamous cell carcinoma (scaly, ulcerated, on sun-damaged skin). Recognize common rashes: psoriasis (silvery plaques on extensor surfaces), eczema (flexural, pruritic), cellulitis (warm, spreading erythema), and the dermatologic emergency Stevens-Johnson syndrome / TEN (mucosal involvement and skin sloughing, often drug-induced).

Osteoarthritis vs rheumatoid arthritis
FeatureOsteoarthritisRheumatoid arthritis
NatureNon-inflammatory (wear)Autoimmune inflammatory
Morning stiffness< 30 minutes> 1 hour
Joint patternAsymmetric; DIP/PIP (Heberden/Bouchard)Symmetric; MCP/PIP, spares DIP
LabsUsually normalPositive RF / anti-CCP, ↑ ESR/CRP

Checkpoint · Musculoskeletal & Dermatology

Question 1 of 10

A 46-year-old woman has had eight weeks of pain and swelling in the wrists and the joints at the base of her fingers, with stiffness each morning that lasts more than an hour before loosening up. She reports fatigue but no rash or fever. Which set of findings best fits an inflammatory arthritis such as rheumatoid arthritis?

EENT & Endocrine

This module pairs Eyes, Ears, Nose & Throat (~8%) with Endocrine (~8%).[1] Both reward knowing a handful of can’t-miss diagnoses and the labs that confirm them.

Eyes, Ears, Nose & Throat

High-yield EENT: otitis media (bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; amoxicillin) vs otitis externa (pain on tragus traction; topical drops); conjunctivitis (viral, bacterial, or allergic). The can’t-miss eye emergency is acute angle-closure glaucoma — a painful red eye with a fixed mid-dilated pupil, halos, nausea, and a hard globe, needing immediate pressure-lowering treatment. For sore throat, use the to decide on testing for group A strep.

Diabetes, Thyroid & Adrenal

Diagnose diabetes with a fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL, a 2-hour OGTT ≥200, a random glucose ≥200 with symptoms, or a ≥6.5%.[8] Type 1 is autoimmune insulin deficiency (lifelong insulin); type 2 is insulin resistance (metformin first-line, with an SGLT2 inhibitor or GLP-1 agonist added for cardiovascular or renal benefit).

Know the two hyperglycemic emergencies — (type 1, ketosis, acidosis) and HHS (type 2, profound hyperglycemia, minimal ketosis). For thyroid disease, TSH is the screening test: a high TSH means hypothyroidism (treat with levothyroxine), a low TSH means hyperthyroidism (Graves disease is the classic cause).

Recognize adrenal insufficiency (fatigue, hypotension, hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia).

Diagnostic thresholds for diabetes (ADA)
TestDiabetesPrediabetes
Fasting plasma glucose≥ 126 mg/dL100–125 mg/dL
2-hour OGTT≥ 200 mg/dL140–199 mg/dL
Hemoglobin A1c≥ 6.5%5.7–6.4%
Random glucose≥ 200 mg/dL + symptoms

Checkpoint · EENT & Endocrine

Question 1 of 10

A 3-year-old has had ear pain and fever for two days. On otoscopy the tympanic membrane is bulging and erythematous with loss of the normal landmarks, and pneumatic insufflation shows markedly reduced movement. Which combination of findings is required to diagnose acute otitis media?

Neurology & Psychiatry

This module pairs Neurologic (~5%) with Psychiatry/Behavioral Science (~7%).[1] Both are heavily tested and full of can’t-miss diagnoses.

Stroke, Seizures & Headache

In a sudden focal deficit, get an immediate non-contrast head CT to separate an (no blood on CT; thrombolysis within the window, possibly thrombectomy) from a hemorrhagic stroke (blood on CT; thrombolytics are contraindicated).[9] Use FAST (Face, Arm, Speech, Time) for recognition.

For headache, screen for red flags — thunderclap (subarachnoid hemorrhage), fever with neck stiffness (meningitis), and a new headache over age 50 with jaw claudication (giant cell arteritis). For suspected bacterial meningitis, do not delay empiric antibiotics for the lumbar puncture.

Mood, Anxiety & Psychosis

Major depressive disorder needs five or more symptoms (the group) for two weeks, with depressed mood or anhedonia required; first-line treatment is an SSRI plus psychotherapy.[10] Always screen for a manic history, which would make it bipolar disorder (treated with mood stabilizers, not an SSRI alone).

Recognize the anxiety disorders (GAD, panic disorder), schizophrenia (≥6 months of psychosis with positive and negative symptoms), and the danger signs — serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, clonus, agitation), and substance withdrawal (alcohol withdrawal/delirium tremens is potentially fatal). Suicide-risk assessment is high-yield throughout.

Checkpoint · Neurology & Psychiatry

Question 1 of 10

A 58-year-old man with poorly controlled hypertension presents 90 minutes after the abrupt onset of right-arm weakness and slurred speech. His blood pressure is 168/92 mmHg, blood glucose is normal, and a noncontrast head CT shows no hemorrhage. Which factor would most strongly exclude him from receiving intravenous thrombolytic therapy?

Reproductive, Hematology & Infectious Disease

This module groups Reproductive (~5%), Hematologic (~4%), and Infectious Diseases (~7%).[1] Together they are a large, very testable block spanning women’s health, blood disorders, and infection.

Reproductive & Women’s Health

Know routine prenatal care and the can’t-miss emergencies: ectopic pregnancy (first-trimester pain and bleeding with a positive β-hCG and an empty uterus on ultrasound) and (new hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks; severe features or eclampsia need magnesium sulfate and delivery). Recognize common STIs (chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, HPV), contraception options, and menstrual disorders (PCOS, abnormal uterine bleeding). Cervical cancer screening follows USPSTF (start at 21).

Anemias & Coagulation

Classify anemia first by : microcytic (<80; iron deficiency, thalassemia), normocytic (80–100; acute blood loss, hemolysis), and macrocytic (>100; B₁₂ or folate deficiency).[12] Iron deficiency shows a low ferritin; B₁₂ deficiency adds neurologic signs that folate deficiency lacks.

On coagulation, the PT/INR follows the extrinsic pathway (warfarin) and the aPTT follows the intrinsic pathway (heparin). Know sickle cell crises and the leukemias/lymphomas at a recognition level.

Sepsis, HIV & Immunization

is organ dysfunction from a dysregulated response to infection; the bundle is cultures before antibiotics, prompt broad-spectrum antibiotics, fluids, and lactate, with norepinephrine as the first-line vasopressor for septic shock.[6] Know HIV screening and the AIDS- defining illnesses, the current adult vaccine schedule (CDC), and empiric antibiotic selection by site and likely organism. Influenza and COVID-19 round out the high-yield respiratory infections.

Coagulation pathways at a glance
TestPathwayMonitors / clue
PT / INRExtrinsicWarfarin therapy (target INR 2–3 for most indications)
aPTTIntrinsicUnfractionated heparin therapy
Platelet countPrimary hemostasisLow in ITP, TTP, HIT, DIC
Both PT & aPTT prolongedCommon pathway / DICLiver disease, DIC, severe warfarin effect

Checkpoint · Reproductive, Hematology & Infectious Disease

Question 1 of 10

A 25-year-old woman with 7 weeks of amenorrhea presents with right-sided pelvic cramping and spotting. Her initial serum beta-hCG is 1,800 mIU/mL, and transvaginal ultrasound is indeterminate with no definite intrauterine sac. She is hemodynamically stable. Which next step best clarifies whether this is a viable intrauterine pregnancy or an ectopic gestation?

Professional Practice & the Task Areas

Professional Practice is itself the eighth task area — it covers how PAs practice — and this module also frames the exam’s second axis, the eight task areas that determine what every question asks you to do.[1] On the PANRE, recert-relevant topics like legal and ethical duties, informed consent, and HIPAA are emphasized here.

The Eight Task Areas

Beyond which organ system a question is about, each item also tests a clinical task: formulating the most likely diagnosis, history taking and physical exam, clinical intervention, pharmaceutical therapeutics, health maintenance and prevention, using diagnostic and lab studies, applying basic scientific concepts, and professional practice.[1] Diagnosis and pharmacotherapeutics carry the most items, so train yourself to read each stem for the verb — is it asking for the diagnosis, the next test, the best treatment, or the mechanism?

A repeatable way to attack any PANRE clinical vignette
  1. 1

    Step 1

    Read the last line first — identify the task: diagnosis, next diagnostic test, best treatment, prevention, or mechanism.

  2. 2

    Step 2

    Build the patient picture: age, risk factors, the key history and exam finding, and the most discriminating vital sign or lab.

  3. 3

    Step 3

    Form the leading diagnosis and a short differential before looking at the options — anchor on the classic pattern.

  4. 4

    Step 4

    Match the answer to the task: the most-likely diagnosis, the single best next step, or the first-line drug — not a reasonable-but-not-best option.

  5. 5

    Step 5

    Eliminate distractors: rule out the can't-miss emergency first, then choose by current guideline (USPSTF, ACC/AHA, ADA, CDC).

Ethics, Consent, HIPAA & Prevention

Professional-practice content includes (a patient with capacity voluntarily agreeing after hearing risks, benefits, and alternatives), implied consent in a genuine emergency, confidentiality and HIPAA (including the Breach Notification Rule), the PA scope of practice and team-based care, evidence-based medicine, and patient safety. The health-maintenance task area leans on the graded recommendations — know the major screenings (colorectal at age 45, breast, cervical, lung, AAA), the adult immunization schedule, and counseling for tobacco, alcohol, and obesity.[11]

Checkpoint · Professional Practice & the Task Areas

Question 1 of 10

A physician assistant in the emergency department is treating an unconscious patient who arrived alone after a motor vehicle crash and requires immediate surgery to control internal bleeding. No family or surrogate is reachable, and there is no advance directive. Under which principle may the team proceed with the life-saving operation without obtaining the patient's signed consent?

How to Use This Study Guide

Work through the guide one system at a time. After each one, check it off in the contents to raise your exam-readiness score, then drill the same content in our free practice questions and flashcards — active recall and timed practice are what move knowledge into exam-day performance, even for an experienced PA.

  • Weight your time by the blueprint. Cardiovascular (~13%), Pulmonary (~10%), and GI (~10%) are the three biggest systems — start there, then Musculoskeletal, EENT, and Endocrine.
  • Refresh the guideline updates. Recert rewards what has changed: the HFrEF four pillars, colorectal screening at 45, DOACs over warfarin, and current diabetes therapy. Verify any value you are unsure of against the current guideline.
  • Read for the task, not just the topic. The same disease can be asked four ways — diagnosis, next test, treatment, or mechanism. Identify the verb in the stem.
  • Know the can’t-miss emergencies cold. Testicular torsion, aortic dissection, cauda equina, SJS/TEN, angle-closure glaucoma, ectopic pregnancy, and bacterial meningitis recur across systems.
  • Pick your path. If you prefer spaced review over one big sitting, consider the PANRE-LA; either way, this clinical content is what is assessed.
  • Then prove it. When a system feels solid, confirm with our practice questions — build a comfortable margin before exam day.

Common clinical concepts PANRE candidates review and get asked — each answered briefly and backed by an official source (NCCPA, AHA/ACC, NIH, CDC, USPSTF, ADA, or NCI). Tap any card to test yourself.

PANRE Concept Questions

PANRE Glossary

Key PANRE terms in one place. Hover any dotted term throughout the guide for its definition; the full list is below.

PANRE
The Physician Assistant National Recertifying Examination — the NCCPA exam a certified PA takes to maintain certification during the 10-year cycle; the standard PANRE has 240 scored questions of general medical content.
PANRE-LA
PANRE Longitudinal Assessment — an alternative to sitting the standard PANRE in which the PA answers a small set of questions online each quarter over the certification cycle, with immediate rationale and open-resource access.
NCCPA
The National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants — the body that develops and administers the PANCE and PANRE and grants and maintains the PA-C credential.
PA-C
Physician Assistant — Certified; the credential earned by passing the PANCE and maintained over time by recertifying (PANRE or PANRE-LA) and logging continuing medical education.
scaled score
A score on the PANRE 200–800 scale that equates difficulty across exam forms; passing is a scaled score of approximately 379, which is not a fixed percent-correct (verify the current standard on nccpa.net).
troponin
A cardiac biomarker released when heart muscle is injured; an elevated troponin distinguishes a myocardial infarction (STEMI or NSTEMI) from unstable angina, in which it is normal.
STEMI
ST-elevation myocardial infarction — a full-thickness (transmural) coronary occlusion with ST-segment elevation on ECG, requiring emergent reperfusion (primary PCI or fibrinolysis).
NSTEMI
Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction — a partial coronary occlusion with an elevated troponin but no ST elevation, managed medically with early angiography rather than fibrinolytics.
CHA₂DS₂-VASc
A score estimating annual stroke risk in non-valvular atrial fibrillation, used to decide who needs anticoagulation.
heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
HFrEF — heart failure with an ejection fraction ≤40%, treated with guideline-directed therapy (ACE inhibitor/ARB or ARNI, beta-blocker, mineralocorticoid antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor).
FEV₁/FVC ratio
The fraction of the forced vital capacity exhaled in the first second; a value below 0.70 defines an obstructive ventilatory pattern (asthma or COPD).
COPD
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease — persistent, largely irreversible airflow limitation (post-bronchodilator FEV₁/FVC < 0.70) strongly linked to smoking.
CURB-65
A pneumonia severity score (Confusion, Urea, Respiratory rate, Blood pressure, age ≥65) that guides outpatient vs inpatient vs ICU disposition.
Wells criteria
A clinical prediction rule that estimates the pretest probability of pulmonary embolism (or DVT), used with D-dimer and CT pulmonary angiography.
anion gap
The difference between measured serum cations and anions; a high anion gap metabolic acidosis (e.g., in DKA or lactic acidosis) is a key diagnostic clue.
hyperkalemia
A high serum potassium; peaked T waves on ECG signal cardiac risk, and IV calcium is given first to stabilize the myocardium, then insulin with glucose to shift potassium intracellularly.
Salter-Harris classification
A grading system (types I–V) for pediatric fractures involving the growth plate (physis), important because growth-plate injury can affect future bone growth.
Ottawa rules
Validated decision rules (ankle, knee, foot) that identify which injured patients actually need an X-ray, reducing unnecessary imaging.
ABCDE rule
A screen for melanoma — Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter > 6 mm, and Evolution — prompting biopsy of a suspicious pigmented lesion.
Centor criteria
A score (exudate, tender nodes, fever, no cough, plus age) estimating the likelihood of group A streptococcal pharyngitis to guide testing and treatment.
diabetic ketoacidosis
DKA — a hyperglycemic emergency mainly in type 1 diabetes with ketosis and anion-gap acidosis; treated with IV fluids, insulin, and potassium repletion.
hemoglobin A1c
A measure of average blood glucose over ~3 months; an A1c of 6.5% or higher is one diagnostic threshold for diabetes (ADA).
ischemic stroke
A stroke from vessel occlusion (about 87% of strokes); eligible patients receive IV thrombolysis within the time window and possibly thrombectomy — after hemorrhage is excluded by CT.
SIGECAPS
A mnemonic for the symptoms of major depression — Sleep, Interest, Guilt, Energy, Concentration, Appetite, Psychomotor, Suicidality — with depressed mood or anhedonia required.
mean corpuscular volume
MCV — the average red-cell size, the first fork in classifying anemia as microcytic (<80), normocytic (80–100), or macrocytic (>100).
preeclampsia
New hypertension with proteinuria (or end-organ signs) after 20 weeks of pregnancy; severe features or eclampsia (seizures) require magnesium sulfate and delivery.
sepsis
Life-threatening organ dysfunction from a dysregulated host response to infection; early antibiotics, cultures before antibiotics, fluids, and lactate measurement are the bundle priorities.
informed consent
The process by which a patient with capacity voluntarily agrees to a procedure after being told its risks, benefits, and alternatives — a core professional-practice concept on the PANRE.
USPSTF
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, whose graded recommendations (screening, counseling, preventive medication) are the standard for the PANRE's health-maintenance task area.

PANRE Study Guide FAQ

The standard PANRE has 240 scored multiple-choice questions delivered in one day, typically in four 60-question blocks at a Pearson VUE testing center. The PANRE-LA longitudinal alternative instead delivers a smaller set of questions online each quarter across the certification cycle. Both assess the same general medical content per the NCCPA blueprint.

References

  1. 1.National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants (NCCPA). “PANRE Content Blueprint.” NCCPA.
  2. 2.National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants (NCCPA). “Maintaining Certification — PANRE & PANRE-LA.” NCCPA.
  3. 3.American Heart Association / American College of Cardiology. “About Heart Attacks (ACS).” heart.org.
  4. 4.American Heart Association. “Atrial Fibrillation.” heart.org.
  5. 5.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). “About COPD.” cdc.gov.
  6. 6.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). “About Sepsis.” cdc.gov.
  7. 7.National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases (NIDDK). “Kidney Disease.” niddk.nih.gov.
  8. 8.American Diabetes Association (ADA). “Standards of Care — Diagnosis.” diabetes.org.
  9. 9.National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke (NINDS). “Stroke.” ninds.nih.gov.
  10. 10.National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH). “Depression.” nimh.nih.gov.
  11. 11.U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF). “Recommendation Topics (Screening).” uspreventiveservicestaskforce.org.
  12. 12.National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI). “Anemia.” nhlbi.nih.gov.
  13. 101.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). “Strep Throat (Group A Strep).” cdc.gov, accessed 20 June 2026.
  14. 102.National Cancer Institute (NCI). “Melanoma Treatment (PDQ).” cancer.gov, accessed 20 June 2026.
  15. 103.American Diabetes Association (ADA). “DKA (Ketoacidosis) & Ketones.” diabetes.org, accessed 20 June 2026.
  16. 104.U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF). “Cervical Cancer: Screening.” uspreventiveservicestaskforce.org, accessed 20 June 2026.
  17. 105.U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF). “Colorectal Cancer: Screening.” uspreventiveservicestaskforce.org, accessed 20 June 2026.
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