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Your FREE PANRE Flashcards 2026 – 250+ Cards

Realistic, NCCPA-aligned PANRE flashcards — flip, match, type, and quiz yourself, all at the practicing PA-C level (PANRE and PANRE-LA).

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Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of PANRE cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the NCCPA organ-system content areas and written to the practicing PA-C certification level, so you refresh exactly what the PANRE tests.[1] Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide.

PANRE Flashcard Study Modes

Flip mode moves you card by card for plain study. Match turns term-to-definition recall into a timed game. Type shows the definition and asks you to produce the term, so you have to generate Beck’s triad from its description instead of just recognizing it. Quiz builds multiple-choice questions from the same cards when you want a test-like rhythm.

Free PANRE flashcards from Career Employer — active recall for the NCCPA Physician Assistant National Recertifying Examination

Why Flashcards Work for the PANRE

Cardiovascular System is the largest domain at 37 cards, drilling lab markers, syndrome definitions, and risk tools through fronts like BNP, Unstable angina, and CHA₂DS₂-VASc. Gastrointestinal System and/or Nutrition follows with 23 cards on presentation and management patterns, including Appendicitis, Celiac disease, and H. pylori treatment. Professional Practice adds 21 cards on the non-clinical rules you still get tested on, such as HIPAA, EMTALA, and PANRE-LA.

Endocrine System holds 20 cards built around emergencies and diagnostic cutoffs, with DKA, Thyroid storm, and Prediabetes A1c among the fronts. Pulmonary System has 19 cards that lean on scoring systems and acute findings like CURB-65, Wells criteria, and Tension pneumothorax. Musculoskeletal System also carries 19 cards on joint and injury patterns, including Septic arthritis, Scaphoid fracture, and Pseudogout (CPPD).

Reproductive System contributes 19 cards spanning obstetric and gynecologic red flags such as Preeclampsia, Placenta previa, and Ovarian torsion. Psychiatry/Behavioral Science has 18 cards on diagnostic criteria and mnemonics, with SIGECAPS, Panic disorder, and Opioid overdose. Neurologic System matches that with 18 cards on localization and time-sensitive findings, including Cushing’s triad, Myasthenia gravis, and Delirium vs dementia.

Infectious Diseases covers 17 cards on definitions and treatment, from Septic shock to Lyme disease and C. difficile colitis. Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat has 16 cards mixing common complaints with sight-threatening problems, such as Centor criteria, Otitis externa, and Retinal detachment. Dermatologic System brings another 16, including Erythema migrans, Impetigo, and ABCDEs of melanoma.

Hematologic System closes out the 16-card group with coagulation and anemia workup fronts like PT/INR, Anemia by MCV, and Sickle cell crisis. Renal System, also 16 cards, drills AKI categories, Hyperkalemia ECG, and Nephrotic syndrome. Genitourinary System is the smallest at 12 cards, covering Testicular torsion, Pyelonephritis, and Most common kidney stone.

That fits a busy practicing PA preparing for recert, where facts like Beck’s triad, the STEMI vs NSTEMI split, the diabetes thresholds, and the sepsis bundle must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.

PANRE Flashcards by Topic

The cards are organized by the NCCPA organ-system content areas. Weight your study toward the heaviest ones — Cardiovascular (the largest at ~13%), Pulmonary (~10%), and GI (~10%) together are about a third of the exam — but review every system, since all 14 are tested:[1]

PANRE organ systems and approximate NCCPA blueprint weighting
NCCPA organ-system content areaApprox. weight
Cardiovascular~13%
Pulmonary~10%
Gastrointestinal & Nutrition~10%
Musculoskeletal~8%
EENT (Eyes, Ears, Nose, Throat)~8%
Endocrine~8%
Psychiatry / Behavioral Science~7%
Infectious Diseases~7%
Dermatologic~5%
Genitourinary~5%
Neurologic~5%
Reproductive~5%
Hematologic~4%
Renal~4%

Professional Practice is a separate task area (ethics, consent, HIPAA, scope), not an organ-system area, so its cards are studied alongside the eight clinical task areas rather than in the organ-system table above. Weights are approximate — verify the current PANRE blueprint on nccpa.net.

How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards

  • Start with Cardiovascular System. At 37 cards it is the biggest block in the deck, and its markers and scoring tools resurface inside the pulmonary, renal, and hematologic cards.
  • Type-drill the calculations and criteria. Fronts like CHA₂DS₂-VASc and CURB-65 reward exact recall, and typing them exposes the components you skip when you only flip.
  • Use Match for look-alike pairs. Timed matching is well suited to the contrast cards, such as HFrEF vs HFpEF, Delirium vs dementia, and Nephrotic syndrome against Nephritic syndrome.
  • Move to the practice test once Quiz stops surprising you. When multiple-choice rounds in a domain feel routine, switch to full-length questions and use the study guide for the gaps they reveal.
  • Work two or three domains per sitting. With 287 cards across fifteen domains, a rotation that revisits Professional Practice and Genitourinary System regularly keeps the smaller blocks from going stale.

Taking the initial certification exam instead of recertifying? Use our PANCE flashcards.

PANRE Flashcards FAQ

Hundreds of free PANRE flashcards, organized across the 14 NCCPA organ-system content areas tested on the Physician Assistant National Recertifying Examination — from cardiovascular and pulmonary through professional practice. They're free with no account required.

PANRE flashcard bank

All 287 cards, by topic

A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.

Cardiovascular System (37)

Beck's triad
Show answer

Hypotension + jugular venous distension + muffled heart sounds = cardiac tamponade.

STEMI
Show answer

ST elevation at least 1 mm in at least 2 contiguous leads (or new LBBB); transmural occlusion → emergent reperfusion (primary PCI).

NSTEMI
Show answer

Elevated troponin with ST depression/T inversion but no ST elevation; partial occlusion → medical therapy + early angiography (no lytics).

Unstable angina
Show answer

Ischemic chest pain at rest/crescendo with a NORMAL troponin (no necrosis yet).

Troponin
Show answer

Cardiac biomarker of myocyte injury; elevated separates MI (STEMI/NSTEMI) from unstable angina.

STEMI treatment
Show answer

Emergent reperfusion — primary PCI preferred; fibrinolysis if PCI unavailable within the time window.

Most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes
Show answer

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (asymmetric septal hypertrophy).

Aortic dissection clue
Show answer

Tearing chest pain radiating to the back + unequal arm blood pressures; widened mediastinum on CXR.

HFrEF four pillars
Show answer

ACE inhibitor/ARB or ARNI, beta-blocker, mineralocorticoid antagonist (MRA), and an SGLT2 inhibitor.

HFrEF vs HFpEF
Show answer

HFrEF = ejection fraction up to 40% (systolic); HFpEF = preserved EF (diastolic dysfunction).

Left-sided heart failure signs
Show answer

Pulmonary congestion: dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, crackles.

Right-sided heart failure signs
Show answer

Systemic congestion: peripheral edema, JVD, hepatomegaly, ascites.

BNP
Show answer

Natriuretic peptide elevated in heart failure; helps distinguish cardiac from pulmonary dyspnea.

Stage 1 hypertension (ACC/AHA)
Show answer

Systolic 130–139 mmHg or diastolic 80–89 mmHg.

Stage 2 hypertension (ACC/AHA)
Show answer

Systolic at least 140 mmHg or diastolic at least 90 mmHg.

First-line antihypertensives
Show answer

Thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor/ARB, or calcium channel blocker.

Atrial fibrillation ECG
Show answer

Irregularly irregular rhythm with NO discrete P waves.

CHA₂DS₂-VASc
Show answer

Stroke-risk score in non-valvular AFib guiding anticoagulation (CHF, HTN, Age, DM, Stroke, Vascular, Age 65–74, Sex).

Warfarin monitoring
Show answer

PT/INR; target INR 2–3 for most indications including AFib.

Aortic stenosis murmur
Show answer

Crescendo–decrescendo systolic murmur radiating to the carotids; triad of syncope, angina, dyspnea.

Mitral regurgitation murmur
Show answer

Holosystolic murmur best at the apex, radiating to the axilla.

Mitral stenosis murmur
Show answer

Mid-diastolic rumble with an opening snap; often from rheumatic heart disease.

Acute pericarditis
Show answer

Pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting forward; diffuse ST elevation + PR depression; friction rub.

Cardiac tamponade physiology
Show answer

Pericardial fluid → impaired filling; pulsus paradoxus, Beck's triad, electrical alternans.

Wolff-Parkinson-White
Show answer

Accessory pathway → short PR, delta wave, wide QRS; risk of tachyarrhythmias.

Stable angina treatment
Show answer

Sublingual nitroglycerin for symptoms; beta-blocker and risk-factor control to prevent.

Deep vein thrombosis
Show answer

Unilateral leg swelling/pain; diagnose with compression ultrasound; anticoagulate.

Peripheral arterial disease
Show answer

Intermittent claudication, ↓ ankle-brachial index (ABI < 0.9), diminished pulses.

Cardiogenic shock
Show answer

Pump failure (often post-MI): ↓ cardiac output, ↑ preload, ↑ SVR, cold/clammy.

Hypovolemic shock
Show answer

Volume loss (hemorrhage/dehydration): ↓ preload, ↑ SVR, cold; treat the cause + fluids.

Distributive shock
Show answer

Sepsis/anaphylaxis/neurogenic: vasodilation, ↓ SVR, warm early; norepinephrine for sepsis.

Obstructive shock
Show answer

Tamponade, tension pneumothorax, or massive PE block flow; relieve the obstruction.

Anaphylaxis treatment
Show answer

Intramuscular epinephrine FIRST, then airway, fluids, antihistamines, and steroids.

Ventricular fibrillation
Show answer

Pulseless, chaotic rhythm — immediate defibrillation + CPR.

Third-degree (complete) heart block
Show answer

AV dissociation (P waves and QRS independent); needs a pacemaker.

Pulmonary hypertension
Show answer

Elevated pulmonary pressures → right heart strain; loud P2, dyspnea on exertion.

Statin indication
Show answer

Lower LDL in clinical ASCVD, LDL at least 190, diabetes 40–75, or elevated 10-year risk.

Pulmonary System (19)

Asthma vs COPD reversibility
Show answer

Asthma reverses (FEV₁ ↑ at least 12% and at least 200 mL post-bronchodilator); COPD obstruction is fixed.

Obstructive pattern on spirometry
Show answer

FEV₁/FVC ratio < 0.70.

COPD risk factor
Show answer

Cigarette smoking.

Asthma stepwise therapy
Show answer

Inhaled corticosteroids are the controller backbone; add LABA as needed.

CURB-65
Show answer

Pneumonia severity: Confusion, Urea, Respiratory rate, Blood pressure, age at least 65.

Pulmonary embolism workup
Show answer

Low Wells + negative D-dimer rules out; high Wells → CT pulmonary angiography.

Wells criteria
Show answer

Pretest probability score for pulmonary embolism (and DVT).

Tension pneumothorax
Show answer

Hypotension, absent breath sounds, tracheal deviation away — immediate needle decompression.

Spontaneous pneumothorax
Show answer

Tall, thin young smokers; sudden pleuritic pain and dyspnea.

Tuberculosis presentation
Show answer

Apical disease, chronic cough, night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis.

ARDS
Show answer

Acute bilateral infiltrates + hypoxemia not from heart failure; low-tidal-volume ventilation.

Pleural effusion (Light's criteria)
Show answer

Distinguishes exudate from transudate using protein and LDH ratios.

Obstructive sleep apnea
Show answer

Snoring, daytime sleepiness, witnessed apneas; diagnose with polysomnography.

Lung cancer (small cell)
Show answer

Central, aggressive, strongly smoking-related; paraneoplastic syndromes (SIADH).

Croup
Show answer

Barking cough and inspiratory stridor in young children; 'steeple sign' on X-ray.

Bronchiolitis
Show answer

RSV in infants; wheezing and respiratory distress; supportive care.

Sarcoidosis
Show answer

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy + noncaseating granulomas; often in young Black adults.

Right lower lobe pneumonia mimic
Show answer

Can present as RUQ/abdominal pain — consider CXR with abdominal complaints.

Foreign body aspiration
Show answer

Sudden choking, unilateral wheeze; often right mainstem in adults.

Gastrointestinal System and/or Nutrition (23)

Peptic ulcer disease causes
Show answer

H. pylori and NSAIDs are the two most common causes.

H. pylori treatment
Show answer

Triple/quadruple therapy: PPI + antibiotics (e.g., clarithromycin + amoxicillin).

GERD treatment
Show answer

Lifestyle change + proton-pump inhibitor; alarm features (dysphagia, weight loss, bleeding) → endoscopy.

Crohn disease
Show answer

Transmural inflammation, skip lesions, mouth-to-anus; fistulas; non-bloody diarrhea common.

Ulcerative colitis
Show answer

Continuous mucosal inflammation limited to the colon; bloody diarrhea; ↑ colon cancer risk.

Appendicitis
Show answer

Periumbilical pain migrating to McBurney point (RLQ), rebound tenderness, low-grade fever.

Acute cholecystitis
Show answer

RUQ pain after fatty meals, positive Murphy sign; gallstones; ultrasound first.

Diverticulitis
Show answer

LLQ pain and fever in older adults; CT shows inflamed diverticula.

Acute pancreatitis
Show answer

Epigastric pain radiating to the back; elevated lipase; gallstones or alcohol.

Pancreatitis causes (mnemonic)
Show answer

'GET SMASHED' — Gallstones and Ethanol are the two most common.

Cirrhosis complications
Show answer

Portal hypertension → varices, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, hepatorenal syndrome.

Hepatitis B serology (HBsAg)
Show answer

Surface antigen positive = active infection (acute or chronic).

Hepatitis A transmission
Show answer

Fecal–oral; self-limited; prevented by vaccine.

Celiac disease
Show answer

Gluten-triggered autoimmune enteropathy; anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies; villous atrophy.

Colorectal cancer screening
Show answer

Begin at age 45 (average risk) — colonoscopy or stool-based testing (USPSTF).

Upper vs lower GI bleed
Show answer

Upper = melena/hematemesis (above ligament of Treitz); lower = hematochezia.

Small bowel obstruction
Show answer

Crampy pain, vomiting, distension, 'tinkling' or absent bowel sounds; air-fluid levels on X-ray.

Acute mesenteric ischemia
Show answer

Pain out of proportion to exam in an older patient with vascular disease — surgical emergency.

Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency
Show answer

Macrocytic anemia + neurologic signs (subacute combined degeneration).

Diverticulosis vs diverticulitis
Show answer

Diverticulosis = asymptomatic outpouchings (painless bleeding); diverticulitis = inflamed/infected.

Cholangitis (Charcot triad)
Show answer

Fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain from biliary obstruction + infection.

Hemorrhoids vs anal fissure
Show answer

Hemorrhoids = painless bright-red bleeding; fissure = painful bleeding with defecation.

Hernia (incarcerated vs strangulated)
Show answer

Incarcerated = irreducible; strangulated = ischemic (tender, systemic signs) — surgery.

Endocrine System (20)

Diabetes A1c threshold
Show answer

Hemoglobin A1c at least 6.5% diagnoses diabetes.

Diabetes fasting glucose threshold
Show answer

Fasting plasma glucose at least 126 mg/dL on two occasions.

Prediabetes A1c
Show answer

Hemoglobin A1c 5.7–6.4%.

Type 1 vs type 2 diabetes
Show answer

Type 1 = autoimmune insulin deficiency (insulin required); type 2 = insulin resistance (metformin first-line).

First-line type 2 diabetes drug
Show answer

Metformin (plus lifestyle change).

DKA
Show answer

Type 1; hyperglycemia + ketosis + anion-gap metabolic acidosis; treat with IV fluids, insulin, K⁺ repletion.

HHS
Show answer

Type 2; profound hyperglycemia (> 600 mg/dL) + high osmolality + minimal ketosis; altered mental status.

Thyroid screening test
Show answer

TSH — high TSH = hypothyroidism; low TSH = hyperthyroidism.

Hypothyroidism treatment
Show answer

Levothyroxine; symptoms include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation.

Graves disease
Show answer

Most common hyperthyroidism; TSH-receptor antibodies; exophthalmos, goiter, pretibial myxedema.

Adrenal insufficiency (Addison)
Show answer

Fatigue, hypotension, hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia; low cortisol.

Cushing syndrome
Show answer

Cortisol excess: central obesity, moon facies, striae, hyperglycemia, hypertension.

Hyperparathyroidism
Show answer

High PTH + high calcium; 'stones, bones, groans, psychiatric overtones'.

Hypocalcemia signs
Show answer

Chvostek (facial tap) and Trousseau (cuff-induced spasm) signs; perioral numbness.

Pheochromocytoma
Show answer

Catecholamine-secreting tumor: episodic headache, palpitations, sweating, hypertension.

Diabetic neuropathy
Show answer

Stocking-glove distal sensory loss; tight glucose control slows progression.

SIADH
Show answer

Excess ADH → euvolemic hyponatremia with concentrated urine.

Diabetes insipidus
Show answer

ADH deficiency (central) or resistance (nephrogenic) → polyuria, dilute urine.

Hypothyroidism in pregnancy
Show answer

Increase levothyroxine; untreated risks fetal neurodevelopment.

Thyroid storm
Show answer

Life-threatening hyperthyroidism: fever, tachyarrhythmia, agitation — emergency.

Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat (16)

Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Show answer

Painful red eye, fixed mid-dilated pupil, halos, hard globe, nausea — emergency, lower IOP immediately.

Otitis media
Show answer

Bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; first-line amoxicillin.

Otitis externa
Show answer

Pain on tragus traction ('swimmer's ear'); topical antibiotic drops.

Bacterial vs viral conjunctivitis
Show answer

Bacterial = purulent discharge; viral = watery, often with URI; allergic = itchy/bilateral.

Centor criteria
Show answer

Group A strep score: exudate, tender anterior nodes, fever, no cough, plus age.

Strep throat treatment
Show answer

Penicillin or amoxicillin to prevent rheumatic fever (cephalosporin/macrolide if allergic).

Epistaxis (anterior)
Show answer

Most common at Kiesselbach plexus; direct pressure first-line.

Acute bacterial sinusitis
Show answer

Symptoms > 10 days or worsening after improvement; most resolve without antibiotics.

Peritonsillar abscess
Show answer

Severe sore throat, muffled 'hot potato' voice, uvular deviation; needs drainage.

Central retinal artery occlusion
Show answer

Sudden painless monocular vision loss; 'cherry-red spot' — emergency.

Retinal detachment
Show answer

Flashes, floaters, and a 'curtain' over vision; urgent ophthalmology referral.

Open-angle glaucoma
Show answer

Painless, gradual peripheral vision loss with ↑ cup-to-disc ratio; chronic.

Cataract
Show answer

Painless, gradual clouding of the lens → blurred vision and glare.

Hordeolum (stye)
Show answer

Acute, tender, localized eyelid abscess; warm compresses.

Vertigo (peripheral, BPPV)
Show answer

Brief positional vertigo from otolith displacement; Dix-Hallpike test, Epley maneuver.

Macular degeneration
Show answer

Central vision loss in older adults; dry (drusen) and wet (neovascular) forms.

Musculoskeletal System (19)

Ottawa ankle rules
Show answer

Decision rule that identifies which ankle/foot injuries actually need an X-ray.

Salter-Harris classification
Show answer

Grades pediatric growth-plate (physeal) fractures, types I–V.

Osteoarthritis
Show answer

Non-inflammatory wear; morning stiffness < 30 min; Heberden (DIP) and Bouchard (PIP) nodes.

Rheumatoid arthritis
Show answer

Symmetric inflammatory polyarthritis; stiffness > 1 h; positive RF/anti-CCP; spares DIP.

Gout
Show answer

Acute monoarthritis (classically first MTP); NEGATIVELY birefringent needle-shaped crystals.

Pseudogout (CPPD)
Show answer

POSITIVELY birefringent rhomboid crystals; often the knee.

Septic arthritis
Show answer

Hot, swollen, painful joint with fever; arthrocentesis (WBC often > 50,000) — emergency.

Cauda equina syndrome
Show answer

Saddle anesthesia + bowel/bladder dysfunction + bilateral leg weakness — surgical emergency.

Low back pain red flags
Show answer

Fever, weight loss, cancer history, neuro deficit, bowel/bladder changes → imaging.

Compartment syndrome
Show answer

Pain out of proportion + pain on passive stretch; the 6 P's — emergency fasciotomy.

Scaphoid fracture
Show answer

Snuffbox tenderness after fall on outstretched hand; risk of avascular necrosis.

Anterior shoulder dislocation
Show answer

Most common dislocation; arm abducted/externally rotated; check axillary nerve.

Osteoporosis screening
Show answer

DEXA scan in women at least 65; T-score up to −2.5 defines osteoporosis.

Carpal tunnel syndrome
Show answer

Median nerve compression; numbness in thumb–middle fingers; positive Phalen/Tinel.

ACL tear
Show answer

'Pop' with pivoting injury, effusion, positive Lachman test.

Rotator cuff tear
Show answer

Shoulder pain and weakness with abduction; supraspinatus most common.

Gout treatment (acute)
Show answer

NSAIDs, colchicine, or steroids acutely; urate-lowering therapy (allopurinol) later.

Osteomyelitis
Show answer

Bone infection; MRI is most sensitive; often S. aureus; prolonged antibiotics.

De Quervain tenosynovitis
Show answer

Radial wrist pain; positive Finkelstein test.

Psychiatry/Behavioral Science (18)

Major depressive disorder
Show answer

at least 5 of 9 symptoms at least 2 weeks; depressed mood or anhedonia required.

SIGECAPS
Show answer

Depression symptoms: Sleep, Interest, Guilt, Energy, Concentration, Appetite, Psychomotor, Suicidality.

Depression first-line treatment
Show answer

SSRI plus psychotherapy.

Bipolar I disorder
Show answer

At least one manic episode; treat with mood stabilizers (lithium, valproate) — not an SSRI alone.

Generalized anxiety disorder
Show answer

Excessive worry most days at least 6 months; SSRI/SNRI and CBT.

Panic disorder
Show answer

Recurrent unexpected panic attacks + fear of future attacks.

Schizophrenia
Show answer

at least 6 months of psychosis; positive (hallucinations/delusions) and negative symptoms.

Serotonin syndrome
Show answer

Autonomic instability, hyperreflexia/clonus, agitation; from serotonergic drug excess.

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Show answer

Fever, 'lead-pipe' rigidity, altered mental status, autonomic instability; from antipsychotics.

Alcohol withdrawal / DTs
Show answer

Tremor, autonomic hyperactivity, seizures, delirium tremens; benzodiazepines.

Opioid overdose
Show answer

Respiratory depression + pinpoint pupils; reverse with naloxone.

PTSD
Show answer

Re-experiencing, avoidance, hyperarousal, and negative cognition after trauma > 1 month.

Anorexia nervosa
Show answer

Restriction with low body weight and intense fear of weight gain; medical complications.

ADHD
Show answer

Inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity; stimulants first-line.

OCD
Show answer

Intrusive obsessions and compulsions; SSRI (often higher dose) and CBT/ERP.

Suicide risk factors (SAD PERSONS)
Show answer

Older age, male, prior attempt, substance use, and a specific plan raise risk.

Substance use screening
Show answer

Use validated tools (e.g., CAGE for alcohol) and offer brief intervention.

Lithium toxicity
Show answer

Tremor, confusion, ataxia; narrow therapeutic index — monitor levels and renal function.

Infectious Diseases (17)

Sepsis
Show answer

Life-threatening organ dysfunction from a dysregulated response to infection.

Septic shock
Show answer

Sepsis with persistent hypotension requiring vasopressors + elevated lactate.

Sepsis bundle priorities
Show answer

Cultures before antibiotics, early broad-spectrum antibiotics, fluids, and lactate measurement.

First-line septic-shock vasopressor
Show answer

Norepinephrine, to maintain MAP at least 65 mmHg.

HIV screening
Show answer

4th-generation antigen/antibody combination immunoassay; confirm with differentiation assay.

AIDS definition
Show answer

HIV with CD4 count < 200 cells/µL or an AIDS-defining illness.

Influenza treatment
Show answer

Oseltamivir, most effective within 48 hours of symptom onset.

Meningitis empiric treatment
Show answer

Do not delay empiric antibiotics for the LP; add steroids in suspected bacterial meningitis.

CSF in bacterial meningitis
Show answer

High neutrophils, high protein, LOW glucose, high opening pressure.

Tuberculosis treatment (RIPE)
Show answer

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol.

Lyme disease
Show answer

Erythema migrans (early); doxycycline; can progress to carditis and arthritis.

Cellulitis vs abscess
Show answer

Cellulitis = diffuse spreading infection (antibiotics); abscess = walled-off collection (drain).

Most common community-acquired pneumonia organism
Show answer

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Infective endocarditis
Show answer

Fever + new murmur; Duke criteria; blood cultures + echocardiography.

C. difficile colitis
Show answer

Antibiotic-associated watery diarrhea; treat with oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin.

Adult immunization (influenza)
Show answer

Annual influenza vaccine recommended for everyone at least 6 months (CDC).

Pertussis
Show answer

Paroxysmal cough with inspiratory 'whoop'; treat with a macrolide.

Dermatologic System (16)

ABCDEs of melanoma
Show answer

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter > 6 mm, Evolution.

Melanoma prognosis
Show answer

Breslow depth (thickness of invasion) is the most important prognostic factor.

Basal cell carcinoma
Show answer

Pearly papule with telangiectasias; most common skin cancer; rarely metastasizes.

Squamous cell carcinoma
Show answer

Scaly, ulcerated lesion on sun-damaged skin; can arise from actinic keratosis.

Psoriasis
Show answer

Well-demarcated silvery scaly plaques on extensor surfaces; Auspitz sign.

Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
Show answer

Pruritic, flexural rash; part of the atopic triad with asthma and allergic rhinitis.

Cellulitis
Show answer

Warm, tender, spreading erythema of skin/subcutaneous tissue; usually strep or staph.

Stevens-Johnson syndrome / TEN
Show answer

Drug-induced mucocutaneous emergency with skin sloughing; stop the offending drug.

Tinea (dermatophyte)
Show answer

Annular scaly patch with central clearing; KOH prep shows hyphae; topical antifungals.

Impetigo
Show answer

Honey-colored crusted lesions, common in children; topical or oral antibiotics.

Acne pathophysiology
Show answer

Follicular plugging, Cutibacterium acnes, sebum, and inflammation.

Seborrheic keratosis
Show answer

Benign, waxy, 'stuck-on' pigmented papule in older adults.

Erythema migrans
Show answer

Expanding target-shaped rash of early Lyme disease.

Contact dermatitis
Show answer

Localized eczematous reaction to an allergen (e.g., poison ivy) or irritant.

Urticaria (hives)
Show answer

Transient, pruritic wheals from histamine release; treat with antihistamines.

Pressure injury staging
Show answer

Stage 1 non-blanchable erythema → Stage 4 full-thickness with exposed bone/tendon.

Genitourinary System (12)

Testicular torsion
Show answer

Sudden severe testicular pain, high-riding testis, ABSENT cremasteric reflex — surgery within ~6 h.

Nephrolithiasis
Show answer

Colicky flank pain radiating to the groin + hematuria; non-contrast CT is the test of choice.

Most common kidney stone
Show answer

Calcium oxalate.

Uncomplicated UTI treatment
Show answer

Nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (per local resistance).

Pyelonephritis
Show answer

Flank pain, fever, costovertebral angle tenderness with UTI symptoms.

Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Show answer

Older men with obstructive urinary symptoms; alpha-blockers and 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors.

Prostate cancer screening
Show answer

Shared decision-making on PSA testing (USPSTF) ages 55–69.

Epididymitis
Show answer

Gradual testicular pain, positive Prehn sign (pain relief with elevation); often STI in young men.

Erectile dysfunction first-line
Show answer

PDE-5 inhibitors (e.g., sildenafil); avoid with nitrates.

Bladder cancer clue
Show answer

Painless gross hematuria in an older smoker.

Varicocele
Show answer

'Bag of worms' scrotal mass, usually left-sided; can affect fertility.

Acute urinary retention
Show answer

Inability to void with a distended bladder; immediate catheterization.

Neurologic System (18)

FAST stroke
Show answer

Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call emergency services.

Ischemic vs hemorrhagic stroke
Show answer

Non-contrast CT first: no blood = ischemic (thrombolysis window); blood = hemorrhagic (no lytics).

Ischemic stroke treatment
Show answer

IV thrombolysis within the window; mechanical thrombectomy for large-vessel occlusion.

TIA
Show answer

Transient focal deficit without infarction; warns of impending stroke — urgent workup.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage
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'Worst headache of my life' (thunderclap); CT then LP (xanthochromia).

Bacterial meningitis triad
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Fever, neck stiffness (nuchal rigidity), and altered mental status.

Seizure first-line (status epilepticus)
Show answer

IV benzodiazepine (lorazepam), then a longer-acting agent.

Parkinson disease
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Resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, postural instability; dopamine deficiency.

Multiple sclerosis
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Demyelination 'disseminated in time and space'; MRI plaques; optic neuritis common.

Guillain-Barré syndrome
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Ascending symmetric weakness after infection; albuminocytologic dissociation in CSF.

Bell palsy
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Acute unilateral facial paralysis INCLUDING the forehead (lower motor neuron).

Migraine vs tension headache
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Migraine = unilateral, throbbing, photophobia, nausea; tension = bilateral, band-like, dull.

Giant cell (temporal) arteritis
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New headache > 50, jaw claudication, ↑ ESR; steroids immediately to prevent blindness.

Myasthenia gravis
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Fatigable weakness worse with use; ptosis, diplopia; anti-AChR antibodies.

Delirium vs dementia
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Delirium = acute, fluctuating, reversible; dementia = chronic, progressive decline.

Cushing's triad
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Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations — sign of rising intracranial pressure.

Concussion management
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Cognitive/physical rest then graded return; watch for worsening (intracranial bleed).

Trigeminal neuralgia
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Brief, severe, shock-like unilateral facial pain; carbamazepine first-line.

Reproductive System (19)

Ectopic pregnancy
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First-trimester pain/bleeding + positive β-hCG + empty uterus on ultrasound — emergency.

Preeclampsia
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New hypertension + proteinuria after 20 weeks; severe features need magnesium and delivery.

Eclampsia
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Preeclampsia plus seizures; magnesium sulfate and delivery.

Magnesium toxicity sign
Show answer

Loss of deep tendon reflexes (then respiratory depression); reverse with calcium gluconate.

Cervical cancer screening
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Begin at age 21; cytology q3y (21–29); cytology/HPV q3–5y (30–65) per USPSTF.

Chlamydia/gonorrhea treatment
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Treat both (ceftriaxone + doxycycline) due to co-infection; report and treat partners.

Syphilis stages
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Primary (painless chancre), secondary (rash incl. palms/soles), tertiary; treat with penicillin.

PCOS
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Oligomenorrhea, hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries; insulin resistance; lifestyle + OCPs/metformin.

Placenta previa
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Painless third-trimester vaginal bleeding; no digital exam — ultrasound.

Placental abruption
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Painful third-trimester bleeding with a rigid, tender uterus.

Pelvic inflammatory disease
Show answer

Lower abdominal pain + cervical motion tenderness; risk of infertility; treat empirically.

Menopause
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12 months of amenorrhea; ↑ FSH; hot flashes; consider risks before hormone therapy.

Gestational diabetes screening
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Oral glucose tolerance test at 24–28 weeks.

Breast cancer screening
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Mammography; USPSTF recommends starting at age 40 (biennial through 74).

Endometrial cancer clue
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Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding — evaluate with endometrial biopsy.

Ovarian torsion
Show answer

Sudden severe unilateral pelvic pain with an adnexal mass — surgical emergency.

Mastitis
Show answer

Painful, erythematous breast in a lactating woman; continue breastfeeding + antibiotics.

Postpartum hemorrhage
Show answer

Most common cause is uterine atony; massage, uterotonics (oxytocin).

Bacterial vaginosis
Show answer

Thin gray discharge, clue cells, positive whiff test; treat with metronidazole.

Hematologic System (16)

Anemia by MCV
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Microcytic (< 80), normocytic (80–100), macrocytic (> 100).

Iron deficiency anemia
Show answer

Microcytic, low ferritin; most common anemia worldwide.

Anemia of chronic disease
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Normocytic (or microcytic); low iron with NORMAL/high ferritin.

Macrocytic anemia causes
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Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency (neuro signs) and folate deficiency (no neuro signs).

B₁₂ vs folate deficiency
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B₁₂ deficiency has neurologic signs; folate deficiency does not.

Reticulocyte count use
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High = blood loss/hemolysis (good marrow response); low = hypoproliferative anemia.

Hemolysis labs
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↑ reticulocytes, ↑ LDH, ↑ indirect bilirubin, ↓ haptoglobin.

Sickle cell crisis
Show answer

Vaso-occlusive pain; treat with hydration, oxygen, and analgesia; hydroxyurea prevents.

PT/INR
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Tests the extrinsic pathway; monitors warfarin.

aPTT
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Tests the intrinsic pathway; monitors unfractionated heparin.

ITP
Show answer

Isolated thrombocytopenia (low platelets) with normal coagulation; immune platelet destruction.

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Show answer

Platelets drop at least 50% with paradoxical clotting; stop heparin, start a non-heparin anticoagulant.

DIC
Show answer

Widespread clotting + bleeding; ↓ platelets, ↑ PT/aPTT, ↓ fibrinogen, ↑ D-dimer.

Acute leukemia clue
Show answer

Rapid onset of fatigue, infections, and bleeding with blasts on smear.

Hodgkin lymphoma
Show answer

Reed-Sternberg cells; often a contiguous nodal spread; good prognosis.

Von Willebrand disease
Show answer

Most common inherited bleeding disorder; mucocutaneous bleeding, prolonged bleeding time.

Renal System (16)

AKI categories
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Prerenal (hypoperfusion), intrinsic (acute tubular necrosis), and postrenal (obstruction).

Prerenal AKI clue
Show answer

BUN:creatinine ratio > 20:1; responds to volume.

Chronic kidney disease
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GFR < 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 for at least 3 months; slow progression with ACEi/ARB.

Hyperkalemia first step
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IV calcium (gluconate/chloride) to stabilize the myocardium.

Hyperkalemia ECG
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Peaked T waves → widened QRS → sine wave; can cause fatal arrhythmia.

Hyperkalemia shift therapy
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Insulin with glucose (and a beta-agonist) shift K⁺ into cells.

Hyponatremia approach
Show answer

Assess volume status; correct slowly to avoid osmotic demyelination.

Nephrotic syndrome
Show answer

Proteinuria > 3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia.

Nephritic syndrome
Show answer

Hematuria, RBC casts, hypertension, mild proteinuria; glomerular inflammation.

Acute tubular necrosis
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Most common intrinsic AKI; 'muddy brown' granular casts; from ischemia or toxins.

Metabolic acidosis (anion gap)
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MUDPILES causes (e.g., DKA, lactic acidosis, toxins).

Indications for emergent dialysis (AEIOU)
Show answer

Acidosis, Electrolytes (K⁺), Intoxication, Overload, Uremia.

Diabetic nephropathy
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Leading cause of CKD/ESRD; screen with urine albumin; ACEi/ARB protective.

Contrast-induced nephropathy
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AKI 48–72 h after iodinated contrast; hydrate and minimize contrast in at-risk patients.

Hypertensive emergency
Show answer

Severe BP elevation WITH end-organ damage; lower BP in a controlled, gradual way.

Rhabdomyolysis
Show answer

Muscle breakdown → ↑ CK, myoglobinuria, AKI, hyperkalemia; aggressive IV fluids.

Professional Practice (21)

Informed consent
Show answer

Capacity + disclosure of risks/benefits/alternatives + voluntariness, documented before a procedure.

Decision-making capacity
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Ability to understand, appreciate, reason, and communicate a choice — task-specific.

HIPAA
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Protects patient health information; disclose only the minimum necessary with authorization.

Medical ethics principles
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Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice.

USPSTF
Show answer

Issues graded preventive-service recommendations (screening, counseling, prevention).

Sensitivity vs specificity
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Sensitivity = true positives (rules out, SnNout); specificity = true negatives (rules in, SpPin).

Positive predictive value
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Probability that a positive test is a true positive; rises with disease prevalence.

Number needed to treat (NNT)
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1 / absolute risk reduction — patients treated to prevent one bad outcome.

Levels of evidence
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Systematic reviews/RCTs rank highest; expert opinion/case reports lowest.

Sentinel event
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Unexpected occurrence causing death or serious harm — triggers root-cause analysis.

PA scope of practice
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PAs practice in a team-based model; scope is set by state law and practice agreement.

Negligence (malpractice) elements
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Duty, breach (deviation from standard), causation, and damages.

EMTALA
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Requires a medical screening exam and stabilization of emergencies regardless of ability to pay.

Advance directive
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Documents a patient's wishes (living will) or surrogate (healthcare proxy) for future care.

Tobacco cessation counseling (5 A's)
Show answer

Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange — the USPSTF-recommended framework.

Reportable conditions
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Certain infectious diseases must be reported to public-health authorities (CDC/state).

PANRE-LA
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PANRE Longitudinal Assessment — recertify by answering ~25 questions online each quarter over the cycle, with immediate rationale and open resources, instead of one standard PANRE exam.

PANRE passing score
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A scaled score of about 379 on a 200–800 scale; not a fixed percent-correct (verify the current standard on nccpa.net).

HIPAA Breach Notification Rule
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After a breach of unsecured protected health information, a covered entity must notify the affected individuals and the Secretary of Health and Human Services.

Implied consent
Show answer

In a true emergency, when a patient cannot consent and no surrogate is available, the law presumes a reasonable person would consent to life- or limb-saving treatment.

Colorectal cancer screening start age
Show answer

Age 45 for average-risk adults (USPSTF) — a high-yield recert update lowered from 50.

References

  1. 1.National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants (NCCPA). “PANRE Content Blueprint.” NCCPA. ↑
  2. 2.American Heart Association / American College of Cardiology. “About Heart Attacks (ACS).” heart.org. ↑
  3. 3.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). “About Sepsis.” CDC.gov. ↑
  4. 4.American Diabetes Association (ADA). “Standards of Care — Diagnosis.” diabetes.org. ↑
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