Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of PANCE cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the NCCPA organ-system content areas and written to the PA-C certification level, so you study exactly what the PANCE tests.[1] Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide.
PANCE Flashcard Study Modes
Flip mode is for first passes, turning each front over until the recall feels automatic. Match is a timed game that pairs terms with definitions under pressure. Type shows the definition and asks you to produce the term, so a card like CHA₂DS₂-VASc has to come from memory. Quiz turns the same 282 cards into multiple choice for mixed review.
Why Flashcards Work for the PANCE
The Cardiovascular System domain is the heaviest here at 37 cards, drilling markers, criteria, and distinctions such as BNP, Beck’s triad, and HFrEF vs HFpEF. Gastrointestinal System and Nutrition follows with 23 cards on presentations and regimens, including Acute pancreatitis and H. pylori treatment. Endocrine System adds 20 cards on crises and cutoffs, with DKA, Thyroid storm, and Prediabetes A1c.
Three 19-card domains sit next. Musculoskeletal System covers joint and fracture recognition through cards like Septic arthritis and Scaphoid fracture. Pulmonary System pairs scoring tools with emergencies, including CURB-65 and Tension pneumothorax. Reproductive System spans obstetric and gynecologic red flags such as Preeclampsia and Ovarian torsion.
Neurologic System brings 18 cards on localization and warning signs, including Cushing’s triad and Delirium vs dementia. Psychiatry and Behavioral Science also runs 18 cards, mixing mnemonics and management with SIGECAPS and Opioid overdose. Infectious Diseases adds 17 cards on organisms and treatment, such as Lyme disease and C. difficile colitis.
Four 16-card domains handle pattern recognition and lab reasoning. Dermatologic System uses ABCDEs of melanoma and Erythema migrans. Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat includes Centor criteria and Retinal detachment. Hematologic System works through Anemia by MCV and PT/INR. Renal System covers Hyperkalemia ECG and Nephrotic syndrome.
Professional Practice rounds out the 16-card group with the rules and evidence side of practice, including EMTALA and Levels of evidence. Genitourinary System closes the deck with 12 cards on urologic complaints and time-sensitive calls, such as Testicular torsion and Most common kidney stone.
That matters on the PANCE, where facts like Beck’s triad, the STEMI vs NSTEMI split, the diabetes thresholds, and the sepsis bundle must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.
PANCE Flashcards by Topic
The cards are organized by the NCCPA organ-system content areas. Weight your study toward the heaviest ones — Cardiovascular (the largest at ~11%) and Pulmonary (~9%) together are about a fifth of the exam — but review every system, since all 14 are tested:[1]
| NCCPA organ-system content area | Approx. weight |
|---|---|
| Cardiovascular | ~11% |
| Pulmonary | ~9% |
| Gastrointestinal & Nutrition | ~8% |
| Musculoskeletal | ~8% |
| Infectious Diseases | ~7% |
| Neurologic | ~7% |
| Psychiatry / Behavioral Science | ~7% |
| Reproductive | ~7% |
| EENT (Eyes, Ears, Nose, Throat) | ~6% |
| Endocrine | ~6% |
| Renal | ~5% |
| Hematologic | ~5% |
| Genitourinary | ~4% |
| Dermatologic | ~4% |
Professional Practice is a separate task category (~6%), not an organ-system area, so its cards are studied alongside the eight clinical task categories rather than in the organ-system table above.
How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards
- Start with cardiology. At 37 cards, Cardiovascular System is the largest block in the deck, so early repetitions there pay off across chest pain, arrhythmia, and heart failure questions.
- Type-drill the discriminators. Cards like HFrEF vs HFpEF and Delirium vs dementia reward exact recall, and typing the term forces you to commit rather than recognize.
- Use Match for scores and criteria. Tools such as CURB-65, Centor criteria, and Wells criteria stick faster when you pair them against definitions under time pressure.
- Switch when Quiz stops surprising you. Once multiple choice across all 282 cards feels routine, move to the practice test for vignette-length reasoning and the study guide for gaps.
- Rotate rather than cram. Work one heavy domain plus one 16-card domain per sitting, then Flip through yesterday’s misses before starting anything new.
PANCE Flashcards FAQ
Hundreds of free PANCE flashcards, organized across the 14 NCCPA organ-system content areas tested on the Physician Assistant National Certifying Examination — from cardiovascular and pulmonary through professional practice. They're free with no account required.
Yes. Flashcards use active recall — retrieving an answer from memory — which research shows is one of the most effective ways to make information stick, especially in short sessions spread over several days. That matters for facts like Beck's triad, the diabetes thresholds, and the sepsis bundle.
Every NCCPA organ-system area: Cardiovascular (the largest at ~11%), Pulmonary, GI and Nutrition, Musculoskeletal, EENT, Reproductive, Endocrine, Neurology, Psychiatry, Genitourinary, Renal, Dermatology, Hematology, and Infectious Diseases — plus the eight task categories, including Professional Practice.
Yes. Every card is written to the entry-level physician assistant standard the PANCE actually tests — clinical recognition, the best next step, and first-line management across the organ systems — not to a specialist or residency level.
Mix the modes: flip to learn, type to test recall, match for speed, and quiz to check yourself. Spend the most time on Cardiovascular (~11%) and Pulmonary (~9%) — together they are about a fifth of the exam — and review every system, since all 14 appear.
Yes — 100% free, all four study modes, no paywall.
PANCE flashcard bank
All 282 cards, by topic
A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.
Cardiovascular System (37)
- Beck's triad
Show answerHide answer
Hypotension + jugular venous distension + muffled heart sounds = cardiac tamponade.
- STEMI
Show answerHide answer
ST elevation at least 1 mm in at least 2 contiguous leads (or new LBBB); transmural occlusion → emergent reperfusion (primary PCI).
- NSTEMI
Show answerHide answer
Elevated troponin with ST depression/T inversion but no ST elevation; partial occlusion → medical therapy + early angiography (no lytics).
- Unstable angina
Show answerHide answer
Ischemic chest pain at rest/crescendo with a NORMAL troponin (no necrosis yet).
- Troponin
Show answerHide answer
Cardiac biomarker of myocyte injury; elevated separates MI (STEMI/NSTEMI) from unstable angina.
- STEMI treatment
Show answerHide answer
Emergent reperfusion — primary PCI preferred; fibrinolysis if PCI unavailable within the time window.
- Most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes
Show answerHide answer
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (asymmetric septal hypertrophy).
- Aortic dissection clue
Show answerHide answer
Tearing chest pain radiating to the back + unequal arm blood pressures; widened mediastinum on CXR.
- HFrEF four pillars
Show answerHide answer
ACE inhibitor/ARB or ARNI, beta-blocker, mineralocorticoid antagonist (MRA), and an SGLT2 inhibitor.
- HFrEF vs HFpEF
Show answerHide answer
HFrEF = ejection fraction up to 40% (systolic); HFpEF = preserved EF (diastolic dysfunction).
- Left-sided heart failure signs
Show answerHide answer
Pulmonary congestion: dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, crackles.
- Right-sided heart failure signs
Show answerHide answer
Systemic congestion: peripheral edema, JVD, hepatomegaly, ascites.
- BNP
Show answerHide answer
Natriuretic peptide elevated in heart failure; helps distinguish cardiac from pulmonary dyspnea.
- Stage 1 hypertension (ACC/AHA)
Show answerHide answer
Systolic 130–139 mmHg or diastolic 80–89 mmHg.
- Stage 2 hypertension (ACC/AHA)
Show answerHide answer
Systolic at least 140 mmHg or diastolic at least 90 mmHg.
- First-line antihypertensives
Show answerHide answer
Thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor/ARB, or calcium channel blocker.
- Atrial fibrillation ECG
Show answerHide answer
Irregularly irregular rhythm with NO discrete P waves.
- CHA₂DS₂-VASc
Show answerHide answer
Stroke-risk score in non-valvular AFib guiding anticoagulation (CHF, HTN, Age, DM, Stroke, Vascular, Age 65–74, Sex).
- Warfarin monitoring
Show answerHide answer
PT/INR; target INR 2–3 for most indications including AFib.
- Aortic stenosis murmur
Show answerHide answer
Crescendo–decrescendo systolic murmur radiating to the carotids; triad of syncope, angina, dyspnea.
- Mitral regurgitation murmur
Show answerHide answer
Holosystolic murmur best at the apex, radiating to the axilla.
- Mitral stenosis murmur
Show answerHide answer
Mid-diastolic rumble with an opening snap; often from rheumatic heart disease.
- Acute pericarditis
Show answerHide answer
Pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting forward; diffuse ST elevation + PR depression; friction rub.
- Cardiac tamponade physiology
Show answerHide answer
Pericardial fluid → impaired filling; pulsus paradoxus, Beck's triad, electrical alternans.
- Wolff-Parkinson-White
Show answerHide answer
Accessory pathway → short PR, delta wave, wide QRS; risk of tachyarrhythmias.
- Stable angina treatment
Show answerHide answer
Sublingual nitroglycerin for symptoms; beta-blocker and risk-factor control to prevent.
- Deep vein thrombosis
Show answerHide answer
Unilateral leg swelling/pain; diagnose with compression ultrasound; anticoagulate.
- Peripheral arterial disease
Show answerHide answer
Intermittent claudication, ↓ ankle-brachial index (ABI < 0.9), diminished pulses.
- Cardiogenic shock
Show answerHide answer
Pump failure (often post-MI): ↓ cardiac output, ↑ preload, ↑ SVR, cold/clammy.
- Hypovolemic shock
Show answerHide answer
Volume loss (hemorrhage/dehydration): ↓ preload, ↑ SVR, cold; treat the cause + fluids.
- Distributive shock
Show answerHide answer
Sepsis/anaphylaxis/neurogenic: vasodilation, ↓ SVR, warm early; norepinephrine for sepsis.
- Obstructive shock
Show answerHide answer
Tamponade, tension pneumothorax, or massive PE block flow; relieve the obstruction.
- Anaphylaxis treatment
Show answerHide answer
Intramuscular epinephrine FIRST, then airway, fluids, antihistamines, and steroids.
- Ventricular fibrillation
Show answerHide answer
Pulseless, chaotic rhythm — immediate defibrillation + CPR.
- Third-degree (complete) heart block
Show answerHide answer
AV dissociation (P waves and QRS independent); needs a pacemaker.
- Pulmonary hypertension
Show answerHide answer
Elevated pulmonary pressures → right heart strain; loud P2, dyspnea on exertion.
- Statin indication
Show answerHide answer
Lower LDL in clinical ASCVD, LDL at least 190, diabetes 40–75, or elevated 10-year risk.
Dermatologic System (16)
- ABCDEs of melanoma
Show answerHide answer
Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter > 6 mm, Evolution.
- Melanoma prognosis
Show answerHide answer
Breslow depth (thickness of invasion) is the most important prognostic factor.
- Basal cell carcinoma
Show answerHide answer
Pearly papule with telangiectasias; most common skin cancer; rarely metastasizes.
- Squamous cell carcinoma
Show answerHide answer
Scaly, ulcerated lesion on sun-damaged skin; can arise from actinic keratosis.
- Psoriasis
Show answerHide answer
Well-demarcated silvery scaly plaques on extensor surfaces; Auspitz sign.
- Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
Show answerHide answer
Pruritic, flexural rash; part of the atopic triad with asthma and allergic rhinitis.
- Cellulitis
Show answerHide answer
Warm, tender, spreading erythema of skin/subcutaneous tissue; usually strep or staph.
- Stevens-Johnson syndrome / TEN
Show answerHide answer
Drug-induced mucocutaneous emergency with skin sloughing; stop the offending drug.
- Tinea (dermatophyte)
Show answerHide answer
Annular scaly patch with central clearing; KOH prep shows hyphae; topical antifungals.
- Impetigo
Show answerHide answer
Honey-colored crusted lesions, common in children; topical or oral antibiotics.
- Acne pathophysiology
Show answerHide answer
Follicular plugging, Cutibacterium acnes, sebum, and inflammation.
- Seborrheic keratosis
Show answerHide answer
Benign, waxy, 'stuck-on' pigmented papule in older adults.
- Erythema migrans
Show answerHide answer
Expanding target-shaped rash of early Lyme disease.
- Contact dermatitis
Show answerHide answer
Localized eczematous reaction to an allergen (e.g., poison ivy) or irritant.
- Urticaria (hives)
Show answerHide answer
Transient, pruritic wheals from histamine release; treat with antihistamines.
- Pressure injury staging
Show answerHide answer
Stage 1 non-blanchable erythema → Stage 4 full-thickness with exposed bone/tendon.
Endocrine System (20)
- Diabetes A1c threshold
Show answerHide answer
Hemoglobin A1c at least 6.5% diagnoses diabetes.
- Diabetes fasting glucose threshold
Show answerHide answer
Fasting plasma glucose at least 126 mg/dL on two occasions.
- Prediabetes A1c
Show answerHide answer
Hemoglobin A1c 5.7–6.4%.
- Type 1 vs type 2 diabetes
Show answerHide answer
Type 1 = autoimmune insulin deficiency (insulin required); type 2 = insulin resistance (metformin first-line).
- First-line type 2 diabetes drug
Show answerHide answer
Metformin (plus lifestyle change).
- DKA
Show answerHide answer
Type 1; hyperglycemia + ketosis + anion-gap metabolic acidosis; treat with IV fluids, insulin, K⁺ repletion.
- HHS
Show answerHide answer
Type 2; profound hyperglycemia (> 600 mg/dL) + high osmolality + minimal ketosis; altered mental status.
- Thyroid screening test
Show answerHide answer
TSH — high TSH = hypothyroidism; low TSH = hyperthyroidism.
- Hypothyroidism treatment
Show answerHide answer
Levothyroxine; symptoms include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation.
- Graves disease
Show answerHide answer
Most common hyperthyroidism; TSH-receptor antibodies; exophthalmos, goiter, pretibial myxedema.
- Adrenal insufficiency (Addison)
Show answerHide answer
Fatigue, hypotension, hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia; low cortisol.
- Cushing syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Cortisol excess: central obesity, moon facies, striae, hyperglycemia, hypertension.
- Hyperparathyroidism
Show answerHide answer
High PTH + high calcium; 'stones, bones, groans, psychiatric overtones'.
- Hypocalcemia signs
Show answerHide answer
Chvostek (facial tap) and Trousseau (cuff-induced spasm) signs; perioral numbness.
- Pheochromocytoma
Show answerHide answer
Catecholamine-secreting tumor: episodic headache, palpitations, sweating, hypertension.
- Diabetic neuropathy
Show answerHide answer
Stocking-glove distal sensory loss; tight glucose control slows progression.
- SIADH
Show answerHide answer
Excess ADH → euvolemic hyponatremia with concentrated urine.
- Diabetes insipidus
Show answerHide answer
ADH deficiency (central) or resistance (nephrogenic) → polyuria, dilute urine.
- Hypothyroidism in pregnancy
Show answerHide answer
Increase levothyroxine; untreated risks fetal neurodevelopment.
- Thyroid storm
Show answerHide answer
Life-threatening hyperthyroidism: fever, tachyarrhythmia, agitation — emergency.
Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat (16)
- Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Show answerHide answer
Painful red eye, fixed mid-dilated pupil, halos, hard globe, nausea — emergency, lower IOP immediately.
- Otitis media
Show answerHide answer
Bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; first-line amoxicillin.
- Otitis externa
Show answerHide answer
Pain on tragus traction ('swimmer's ear'); topical antibiotic drops.
- Bacterial vs viral conjunctivitis
Show answerHide answer
Bacterial = purulent discharge; viral = watery, often with URI; allergic = itchy/bilateral.
- Centor criteria
Show answerHide answer
Group A strep score: exudate, tender anterior nodes, fever, no cough, plus age.
- Strep throat treatment
Show answerHide answer
Penicillin or amoxicillin to prevent rheumatic fever (cephalosporin/macrolide if allergic).
- Epistaxis (anterior)
Show answerHide answer
Most common at Kiesselbach plexus; direct pressure first-line.
- Acute bacterial sinusitis
Show answerHide answer
Symptoms > 10 days or worsening after improvement; most resolve without antibiotics.
- Peritonsillar abscess
Show answerHide answer
Severe sore throat, muffled 'hot potato' voice, uvular deviation; needs drainage.
- Central retinal artery occlusion
Show answerHide answer
Sudden painless monocular vision loss; 'cherry-red spot' — emergency.
- Retinal detachment
Show answerHide answer
Flashes, floaters, and a 'curtain' over vision; urgent ophthalmology referral.
- Open-angle glaucoma
Show answerHide answer
Painless, gradual peripheral vision loss with ↑ cup-to-disc ratio; chronic.
- Cataract
Show answerHide answer
Painless, gradual clouding of the lens → blurred vision and glare.
- Hordeolum (stye)
Show answerHide answer
Acute, tender, localized eyelid abscess; warm compresses.
- Vertigo (peripheral, BPPV)
Show answerHide answer
Brief positional vertigo from otolith displacement; Dix-Hallpike test, Epley maneuver.
- Macular degeneration
Show answerHide answer
Central vision loss in older adults; dry (drusen) and wet (neovascular) forms.
Gastrointestinal System and Nutrition (23)
- Peptic ulcer disease causes
Show answerHide answer
H. pylori and NSAIDs are the two most common causes.
- H. pylori treatment
Show answerHide answer
Triple/quadruple therapy: PPI + antibiotics (e.g., clarithromycin + amoxicillin).
- GERD treatment
Show answerHide answer
Lifestyle change + proton-pump inhibitor; alarm features (dysphagia, weight loss, bleeding) → endoscopy.
- Crohn disease
Show answerHide answer
Transmural inflammation, skip lesions, mouth-to-anus; fistulas; non-bloody diarrhea common.
- Ulcerative colitis
Show answerHide answer
Continuous mucosal inflammation limited to the colon; bloody diarrhea; ↑ colon cancer risk.
- Appendicitis
Show answerHide answer
Periumbilical pain migrating to McBurney point (RLQ), rebound tenderness, low-grade fever.
- Acute cholecystitis
Show answerHide answer
RUQ pain after fatty meals, positive Murphy sign; gallstones; ultrasound first.
- Diverticulitis
Show answerHide answer
LLQ pain and fever in older adults; CT shows inflamed diverticula.
- Acute pancreatitis
Show answerHide answer
Epigastric pain radiating to the back; elevated lipase; gallstones or alcohol.
- Pancreatitis causes (mnemonic)
Show answerHide answer
'GET SMASHED' — Gallstones and Ethanol are the two most common.
- Cirrhosis complications
Show answerHide answer
Portal hypertension → varices, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, hepatorenal syndrome.
- Hepatitis B serology (HBsAg)
Show answerHide answer
Surface antigen positive = active infection (acute or chronic).
- Hepatitis A transmission
Show answerHide answer
Fecal–oral; self-limited; prevented by vaccine.
- Celiac disease
Show answerHide answer
Gluten-triggered autoimmune enteropathy; anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies; villous atrophy.
- Colorectal cancer screening
Show answerHide answer
Begin at age 45 (average risk) — colonoscopy or stool-based testing (USPSTF).
- Upper vs lower GI bleed
Show answerHide answer
Upper = melena/hematemesis (above ligament of Treitz); lower = hematochezia.
- Small bowel obstruction
Show answerHide answer
Crampy pain, vomiting, distension, 'tinkling' or absent bowel sounds; air-fluid levels on X-ray.
- Acute mesenteric ischemia
Show answerHide answer
Pain out of proportion to exam in an older patient with vascular disease — surgical emergency.
- Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency
Show answerHide answer
Macrocytic anemia + neurologic signs (subacute combined degeneration).
- Diverticulosis vs diverticulitis
Show answerHide answer
Diverticulosis = asymptomatic outpouchings (painless bleeding); diverticulitis = inflamed/infected.
- Cholangitis (Charcot triad)
Show answerHide answer
Fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain from biliary obstruction + infection.
- Hemorrhoids vs anal fissure
Show answerHide answer
Hemorrhoids = painless bright-red bleeding; fissure = painful bleeding with defecation.
- Hernia (incarcerated vs strangulated)
Show answerHide answer
Incarcerated = irreducible; strangulated = ischemic (tender, systemic signs) — surgery.
Genitourinary System (12)
- Testicular torsion
Show answerHide answer
Sudden severe testicular pain, high-riding testis, ABSENT cremasteric reflex — surgery within ~6 h.
- Nephrolithiasis
Show answerHide answer
Colicky flank pain radiating to the groin + hematuria; non-contrast CT is the test of choice.
- Most common kidney stone
Show answerHide answer
Calcium oxalate.
- Uncomplicated UTI treatment
Show answerHide answer
Nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (per local resistance).
- Pyelonephritis
Show answerHide answer
Flank pain, fever, costovertebral angle tenderness with UTI symptoms.
- Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Show answerHide answer
Older men with obstructive urinary symptoms; alpha-blockers and 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors.
- Prostate cancer screening
Show answerHide answer
Shared decision-making on PSA testing (USPSTF) ages 55–69.
- Epididymitis
Show answerHide answer
Gradual testicular pain, positive Prehn sign (pain relief with elevation); often STI in young men.
- Erectile dysfunction first-line
Show answerHide answer
PDE-5 inhibitors (e.g., sildenafil); avoid with nitrates.
- Bladder cancer clue
Show answerHide answer
Painless gross hematuria in an older smoker.
- Varicocele
Show answerHide answer
'Bag of worms' scrotal mass, usually left-sided; can affect fertility.
- Acute urinary retention
Show answerHide answer
Inability to void with a distended bladder; immediate catheterization.
Hematologic System (16)
- Anemia by MCV
Show answerHide answer
Microcytic (< 80), normocytic (80–100), macrocytic (> 100).
- Iron deficiency anemia
Show answerHide answer
Microcytic, low ferritin; most common anemia worldwide.
- Anemia of chronic disease
Show answerHide answer
Normocytic (or microcytic); low iron with NORMAL/high ferritin.
- Macrocytic anemia causes
Show answerHide answer
Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency (neuro signs) and folate deficiency (no neuro signs).
- B₁₂ vs folate deficiency
Show answerHide answer
B₁₂ deficiency has neurologic signs; folate deficiency does not.
- Reticulocyte count use
Show answerHide answer
High = blood loss/hemolysis (good marrow response); low = hypoproliferative anemia.
- Hemolysis labs
Show answerHide answer
↑ reticulocytes, ↑ LDH, ↑ indirect bilirubin, ↓ haptoglobin.
- Sickle cell crisis
Show answerHide answer
Vaso-occlusive pain; treat with hydration, oxygen, and analgesia; hydroxyurea prevents.
- PT/INR
Show answerHide answer
Tests the extrinsic pathway; monitors warfarin.
- aPTT
Show answerHide answer
Tests the intrinsic pathway; monitors unfractionated heparin.
- ITP
Show answerHide answer
Isolated thrombocytopenia (low platelets) with normal coagulation; immune platelet destruction.
- Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Show answerHide answer
Platelets drop at least 50% with paradoxical clotting; stop heparin, start a non-heparin anticoagulant.
- DIC
Show answerHide answer
Widespread clotting + bleeding; ↓ platelets, ↑ PT/aPTT, ↓ fibrinogen, ↑ D-dimer.
- Acute leukemia clue
Show answerHide answer
Rapid onset of fatigue, infections, and bleeding with blasts on smear.
- Hodgkin lymphoma
Show answerHide answer
Reed-Sternberg cells; often a contiguous nodal spread; good prognosis.
- Von Willebrand disease
Show answerHide answer
Most common inherited bleeding disorder; mucocutaneous bleeding, prolonged bleeding time.
Infectious Diseases (17)
- Sepsis
Show answerHide answer
Life-threatening organ dysfunction from a dysregulated response to infection.
- Septic shock
Show answerHide answer
Sepsis with persistent hypotension requiring vasopressors + elevated lactate.
- Sepsis bundle priorities
Show answerHide answer
Cultures before antibiotics, early broad-spectrum antibiotics, fluids, and lactate measurement.
- First-line septic-shock vasopressor
Show answerHide answer
Norepinephrine, to maintain MAP at least 65 mmHg.
- HIV screening
Show answerHide answer
4th-generation antigen/antibody combination immunoassay; confirm with differentiation assay.
- AIDS definition
Show answerHide answer
HIV with CD4 count < 200 cells/µL or an AIDS-defining illness.
- Influenza treatment
Show answerHide answer
Oseltamivir, most effective within 48 hours of symptom onset.
- Meningitis empiric treatment
Show answerHide answer
Do not delay empiric antibiotics for the LP; add steroids in suspected bacterial meningitis.
- CSF in bacterial meningitis
Show answerHide answer
High neutrophils, high protein, LOW glucose, high opening pressure.
- Tuberculosis treatment (RIPE)
Show answerHide answer
Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol.
- Lyme disease
Show answerHide answer
Erythema migrans (early); doxycycline; can progress to carditis and arthritis.
- Cellulitis vs abscess
Show answerHide answer
Cellulitis = diffuse spreading infection (antibiotics); abscess = walled-off collection (drain).
- Most common community-acquired pneumonia organism
Show answerHide answer
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
- Infective endocarditis
Show answerHide answer
Fever + new murmur; Duke criteria; blood cultures + echocardiography.
- C. difficile colitis
Show answerHide answer
Antibiotic-associated watery diarrhea; treat with oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin.
- Adult immunization (influenza)
Show answerHide answer
Annual influenza vaccine recommended for everyone at least 6 months (CDC).
- Pertussis
Show answerHide answer
Paroxysmal cough with inspiratory 'whoop'; treat with a macrolide.
Musculoskeletal System (19)
- Ottawa ankle rules
Show answerHide answer
Decision rule that identifies which ankle/foot injuries actually need an X-ray.
- Salter-Harris classification
Show answerHide answer
Grades pediatric growth-plate (physeal) fractures, types I–V.
- Osteoarthritis
Show answerHide answer
Non-inflammatory wear; morning stiffness < 30 min; Heberden (DIP) and Bouchard (PIP) nodes.
- Rheumatoid arthritis
Show answerHide answer
Symmetric inflammatory polyarthritis; stiffness > 1 h; positive RF/anti-CCP; spares DIP.
- Gout
Show answerHide answer
Acute monoarthritis (classically first MTP); NEGATIVELY birefringent needle-shaped crystals.
- Pseudogout (CPPD)
Show answerHide answer
POSITIVELY birefringent rhomboid crystals; often the knee.
- Septic arthritis
Show answerHide answer
Hot, swollen, painful joint with fever; arthrocentesis (WBC often > 50,000) — emergency.
- Cauda equina syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Saddle anesthesia + bowel/bladder dysfunction + bilateral leg weakness — surgical emergency.
- Low back pain red flags
Show answerHide answer
Fever, weight loss, cancer history, neuro deficit, bowel/bladder changes → imaging.
- Compartment syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Pain out of proportion + pain on passive stretch; the 6 P's — emergency fasciotomy.
- Scaphoid fracture
Show answerHide answer
Snuffbox tenderness after fall on outstretched hand; risk of avascular necrosis.
- Anterior shoulder dislocation
Show answerHide answer
Most common dislocation; arm abducted/externally rotated; check axillary nerve.
- Osteoporosis screening
Show answerHide answer
DEXA scan in women at least 65; T-score up to −2.5 defines osteoporosis.
- Carpal tunnel syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Median nerve compression; numbness in thumb–middle fingers; positive Phalen/Tinel.
- ACL tear
Show answerHide answer
'Pop' with pivoting injury, effusion, positive Lachman test.
- Rotator cuff tear
Show answerHide answer
Shoulder pain and weakness with abduction; supraspinatus most common.
- Gout treatment (acute)
Show answerHide answer
NSAIDs, colchicine, or steroids acutely; urate-lowering therapy (allopurinol) later.
- Osteomyelitis
Show answerHide answer
Bone infection; MRI is most sensitive; often S. aureus; prolonged antibiotics.
- De Quervain tenosynovitis
Show answerHide answer
Radial wrist pain; positive Finkelstein test.
Neurologic System (18)
- FAST stroke
Show answerHide answer
Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call emergency services.
- Ischemic vs hemorrhagic stroke
Show answerHide answer
Non-contrast CT first: no blood = ischemic (thrombolysis window); blood = hemorrhagic (no lytics).
- Ischemic stroke treatment
Show answerHide answer
IV thrombolysis within the window; mechanical thrombectomy for large-vessel occlusion.
- TIA
Show answerHide answer
Transient focal deficit without infarction; warns of impending stroke — urgent workup.
- Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Show answerHide answer
'Worst headache of my life' (thunderclap); CT then LP (xanthochromia).
- Bacterial meningitis triad
Show answerHide answer
Fever, neck stiffness (nuchal rigidity), and altered mental status.
- Seizure first-line (status epilepticus)
Show answerHide answer
IV benzodiazepine (lorazepam), then a longer-acting agent.
- Parkinson disease
Show answerHide answer
Resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, postural instability; dopamine deficiency.
- Multiple sclerosis
Show answerHide answer
Demyelination 'disseminated in time and space'; MRI plaques; optic neuritis common.
- Guillain-Barré syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Ascending symmetric weakness after infection; albuminocytologic dissociation in CSF.
- Bell palsy
Show answerHide answer
Acute unilateral facial paralysis INCLUDING the forehead (lower motor neuron).
- Migraine vs tension headache
Show answerHide answer
Migraine = unilateral, throbbing, photophobia, nausea; tension = bilateral, band-like, dull.
- Giant cell (temporal) arteritis
Show answerHide answer
New headache > 50, jaw claudication, ↑ ESR; steroids immediately to prevent blindness.
- Myasthenia gravis
Show answerHide answer
Fatigable weakness worse with use; ptosis, diplopia; anti-AChR antibodies.
- Delirium vs dementia
Show answerHide answer
Delirium = acute, fluctuating, reversible; dementia = chronic, progressive decline.
- Cushing's triad
Show answerHide answer
Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations — sign of rising intracranial pressure.
- Concussion management
Show answerHide answer
Cognitive/physical rest then graded return; watch for worsening (intracranial bleed).
- Trigeminal neuralgia
Show answerHide answer
Brief, severe, shock-like unilateral facial pain; carbamazepine first-line.
Psychiatry and Behavioral Science (18)
- Major depressive disorder
Show answerHide answer
at least 5 of 9 symptoms at least 2 weeks; depressed mood or anhedonia required.
- SIGECAPS
Show answerHide answer
Depression symptoms: Sleep, Interest, Guilt, Energy, Concentration, Appetite, Psychomotor, Suicidality.
- Depression first-line treatment
Show answerHide answer
SSRI plus psychotherapy.
- Bipolar I disorder
Show answerHide answer
At least one manic episode; treat with mood stabilizers (lithium, valproate) — not an SSRI alone.
- Generalized anxiety disorder
Show answerHide answer
Excessive worry most days at least 6 months; SSRI/SNRI and CBT.
- Panic disorder
Show answerHide answer
Recurrent unexpected panic attacks + fear of future attacks.
- Schizophrenia
Show answerHide answer
at least 6 months of psychosis; positive (hallucinations/delusions) and negative symptoms.
- Serotonin syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Autonomic instability, hyperreflexia/clonus, agitation; from serotonergic drug excess.
- Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Fever, 'lead-pipe' rigidity, altered mental status, autonomic instability; from antipsychotics.
- Alcohol withdrawal / DTs
Show answerHide answer
Tremor, autonomic hyperactivity, seizures, delirium tremens; benzodiazepines.
- Opioid overdose
Show answerHide answer
Respiratory depression + pinpoint pupils; reverse with naloxone.
- PTSD
Show answerHide answer
Re-experiencing, avoidance, hyperarousal, and negative cognition after trauma > 1 month.
- Anorexia nervosa
Show answerHide answer
Restriction with low body weight and intense fear of weight gain; medical complications.
- ADHD
Show answerHide answer
Inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity; stimulants first-line.
- OCD
Show answerHide answer
Intrusive obsessions and compulsions; SSRI (often higher dose) and CBT/ERP.
- Suicide risk factors (SAD PERSONS)
Show answerHide answer
Older age, male, prior attempt, substance use, and a specific plan raise risk.
- Substance use screening
Show answerHide answer
Use validated tools (e.g., CAGE for alcohol) and offer brief intervention.
- Lithium toxicity
Show answerHide answer
Tremor, confusion, ataxia; narrow therapeutic index — monitor levels and renal function.
Pulmonary System (19)
- Asthma vs COPD reversibility
Show answerHide answer
Asthma reverses (FEV₁ ↑ at least 12% and at least 200 mL post-bronchodilator); COPD obstruction is fixed.
- Obstructive pattern on spirometry
Show answerHide answer
FEV₁/FVC ratio < 0.70.
- COPD risk factor
Show answerHide answer
Cigarette smoking.
- Asthma stepwise therapy
Show answerHide answer
Inhaled corticosteroids are the controller backbone; add LABA as needed.
- CURB-65
Show answerHide answer
Pneumonia severity: Confusion, Urea, Respiratory rate, Blood pressure, age at least 65.
- Pulmonary embolism workup
Show answerHide answer
Low Wells + negative D-dimer rules out; high Wells → CT pulmonary angiography.
- Wells criteria
Show answerHide answer
Pretest probability score for pulmonary embolism (and DVT).
- Tension pneumothorax
Show answerHide answer
Hypotension, absent breath sounds, tracheal deviation away — immediate needle decompression.
- Spontaneous pneumothorax
Show answerHide answer
Tall, thin young smokers; sudden pleuritic pain and dyspnea.
- Tuberculosis presentation
Show answerHide answer
Apical disease, chronic cough, night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis.
- ARDS
Show answerHide answer
Acute bilateral infiltrates + hypoxemia not from heart failure; low-tidal-volume ventilation.
- Pleural effusion (Light's criteria)
Show answerHide answer
Distinguishes exudate from transudate using protein and LDH ratios.
- Obstructive sleep apnea
Show answerHide answer
Snoring, daytime sleepiness, witnessed apneas; diagnose with polysomnography.
- Lung cancer (small cell)
Show answerHide answer
Central, aggressive, strongly smoking-related; paraneoplastic syndromes (SIADH).
- Croup
Show answerHide answer
Barking cough and inspiratory stridor in young children; 'steeple sign' on X-ray.
- Bronchiolitis
Show answerHide answer
RSV in infants; wheezing and respiratory distress; supportive care.
- Sarcoidosis
Show answerHide answer
Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy + noncaseating granulomas; often in young Black adults.
- Right lower lobe pneumonia mimic
Show answerHide answer
Can present as RUQ/abdominal pain — consider CXR with abdominal complaints.
- Foreign body aspiration
Show answerHide answer
Sudden choking, unilateral wheeze; often right mainstem in adults.
Renal System (16)
- AKI categories
Show answerHide answer
Prerenal (hypoperfusion), intrinsic (acute tubular necrosis), and postrenal (obstruction).
- Prerenal AKI clue
Show answerHide answer
BUN:creatinine ratio > 20:1; responds to volume.
- Chronic kidney disease
Show answerHide answer
GFR < 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 for at least 3 months; slow progression with ACEi/ARB.
- Hyperkalemia first step
Show answerHide answer
IV calcium (gluconate/chloride) to stabilize the myocardium.
- Hyperkalemia ECG
Show answerHide answer
Peaked T waves → widened QRS → sine wave; can cause fatal arrhythmia.
- Hyperkalemia shift therapy
Show answerHide answer
Insulin with glucose (and a beta-agonist) shift K⁺ into cells.
- Hyponatremia approach
Show answerHide answer
Assess volume status; correct slowly to avoid osmotic demyelination.
- Nephrotic syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Proteinuria > 3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia.
- Nephritic syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Hematuria, RBC casts, hypertension, mild proteinuria; glomerular inflammation.
- Acute tubular necrosis
Show answerHide answer
Most common intrinsic AKI; 'muddy brown' granular casts; from ischemia or toxins.
- Metabolic acidosis (anion gap)
Show answerHide answer
MUDPILES causes (e.g., DKA, lactic acidosis, toxins).
- Indications for emergent dialysis (AEIOU)
Show answerHide answer
Acidosis, Electrolytes (K⁺), Intoxication, Overload, Uremia.
- Diabetic nephropathy
Show answerHide answer
Leading cause of CKD/ESRD; screen with urine albumin; ACEi/ARB protective.
- Contrast-induced nephropathy
Show answerHide answer
AKI 48–72 h after iodinated contrast; hydrate and minimize contrast in at-risk patients.
- Hypertensive emergency
Show answerHide answer
Severe BP elevation WITH end-organ damage; lower BP in a controlled, gradual way.
- Rhabdomyolysis
Show answerHide answer
Muscle breakdown → ↑ CK, myoglobinuria, AKI, hyperkalemia; aggressive IV fluids.
Reproductive System (19)
- Ectopic pregnancy
Show answerHide answer
First-trimester pain/bleeding + positive β-hCG + empty uterus on ultrasound — emergency.
- Preeclampsia
Show answerHide answer
New hypertension + proteinuria after 20 weeks; severe features need magnesium and delivery.
- Eclampsia
Show answerHide answer
Preeclampsia plus seizures; magnesium sulfate and delivery.
- Magnesium toxicity sign
Show answerHide answer
Loss of deep tendon reflexes (then respiratory depression); reverse with calcium gluconate.
- Cervical cancer screening
Show answerHide answer
Begin at age 21; cytology q3y (21–29); cytology/HPV q3–5y (30–65) per USPSTF.
- Chlamydia/gonorrhea treatment
Show answerHide answer
Treat both (ceftriaxone + doxycycline) due to co-infection; report and treat partners.
- Syphilis stages
Show answerHide answer
Primary (painless chancre), secondary (rash incl. palms/soles), tertiary; treat with penicillin.
- PCOS
Show answerHide answer
Oligomenorrhea, hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries; insulin resistance; lifestyle + OCPs/metformin.
- Placenta previa
Show answerHide answer
Painless third-trimester vaginal bleeding; no digital exam — ultrasound.
- Placental abruption
Show answerHide answer
Painful third-trimester bleeding with a rigid, tender uterus.
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
Show answerHide answer
Lower abdominal pain + cervical motion tenderness; risk of infertility; treat empirically.
- Menopause
Show answerHide answer
12 months of amenorrhea; ↑ FSH; hot flashes; consider risks before hormone therapy.
- Gestational diabetes screening
Show answerHide answer
Oral glucose tolerance test at 24–28 weeks.
- Breast cancer screening
Show answerHide answer
Mammography; USPSTF recommends starting at age 40 (biennial through 74).
- Endometrial cancer clue
Show answerHide answer
Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding — evaluate with endometrial biopsy.
- Ovarian torsion
Show answerHide answer
Sudden severe unilateral pelvic pain with an adnexal mass — surgical emergency.
- Mastitis
Show answerHide answer
Painful, erythematous breast in a lactating woman; continue breastfeeding + antibiotics.
- Postpartum hemorrhage
Show answerHide answer
Most common cause is uterine atony; massage, uterotonics (oxytocin).
- Bacterial vaginosis
Show answerHide answer
Thin gray discharge, clue cells, positive whiff test; treat with metronidazole.
Professional Practice (16)
- Informed consent
Show answerHide answer
Capacity + disclosure of risks/benefits/alternatives + voluntariness, documented before a procedure.
- Decision-making capacity
Show answerHide answer
Ability to understand, appreciate, reason, and communicate a choice — task-specific.
- HIPAA
Show answerHide answer
Protects patient health information; disclose only the minimum necessary with authorization.
- Medical ethics principles
Show answerHide answer
Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice.
- USPSTF
Show answerHide answer
Issues graded preventive-service recommendations (screening, counseling, prevention).
- Sensitivity vs specificity
Show answerHide answer
Sensitivity = true positives (rules out, SnNout); specificity = true negatives (rules in, SpPin).
- Positive predictive value
Show answerHide answer
Probability that a positive test is a true positive; rises with disease prevalence.
- Number needed to treat (NNT)
Show answerHide answer
1 / absolute risk reduction — patients treated to prevent one bad outcome.
- Levels of evidence
Show answerHide answer
Systematic reviews/RCTs rank highest; expert opinion/case reports lowest.
- Sentinel event
Show answerHide answer
Unexpected occurrence causing death or serious harm — triggers root-cause analysis.
- PA scope of practice
Show answerHide answer
PAs practice in a team-based model; scope is set by state law and practice agreement.
- Negligence (malpractice) elements
Show answerHide answer
Duty, breach (deviation from standard), causation, and damages.
- EMTALA
Show answerHide answer
Requires a medical screening exam and stabilization of emergencies regardless of ability to pay.
- Advance directive
Show answerHide answer
Documents a patient's wishes (living will) or surrogate (healthcare proxy) for future care.
- Tobacco cessation counseling (5 A's)
Show answerHide answer
Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange — the USPSTF-recommended framework.
- Reportable conditions
Show answerHide answer
Certain infectious diseases must be reported to public-health authorities (CDC/state).
References
- 1.National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants (NCCPA). “PANCE Content Blueprint.” NCCPA. ↑
- 2.American Heart Association / American College of Cardiology. “About Heart Attacks (ACS).” heart.org. ↑
- 3.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). “About Sepsis.” CDC.gov. ↑
- 4.American Diabetes Association (ADA). “Standards of Care — Diagnosis.” diabetes.org. ↑
Career Employer
Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.
All PostsCareer Employer’s Editorial Process
Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.