This free PANCE study guide walks through the highest-yield content the (Physician Assistant National Certifying Examination) tests, organized by the 14 organ-system content areas and the eight task categories.[1]
It is interactive, not a wall of text: every system has worked clinical scenarios, comparison tables, labeled diagrams, and built-in flashcards — taught to the entry-level standard the exam actually measures.
Read it system by system, then round out your prep with our practice questions and flashcards. The exam has 300 questions in five 60-question blocks and a passing of 350.[1]
PANCE Exam Snapshot
| Detail | PANCE |
|---|---|
| Questions | 300 multiple-choice — 5 blocks of 60 |
| Test time | 5 hours (60 min per block) + ~45 min of breaks |
| Format | Computer-based at a Pearson VUE testing center |
| Passing score | Scaled score of 350 (scale 200–800) — not a percentage |
| Registration fee | $550 (dated anchor — verify on nccpa.net) |
| Eligibility | Graduate of an ARC-PA–accredited PA program |
| Attempts | Up to 6 attempts within 6 years of PA-program completion |
| Credential earned | Physician Assistant — Certified (PA-C) |
Cardiovascular is the single largest organ-system content area at about 11% (~33 items), followed by Pulmonary (9%), with GI/Nutrition and Musculoskeletal next at 8% each. Because the top few systems carry a large share of the exam, weight your study there first — but every system appears, so do not skip the smaller ones.[1]
- 14 organ-system areas (Cardiovascular largest, 11%)
- Pulmonary, GI/Nutrition, Musculoskeletal next
- “WHAT system / disease is being tested”
- 8 task categories (Dx & pharmacotherapeutics heaviest)
- History/PE, labs, Dx, prevention, Rx, intervention, basic science, professional practice
- “WHAT the question asks you to DO”
The percentages above are blueprint shares of the 300 scored items; exact weights are periodically revised by the NCCPA, so verify the current numbers on the official blueprint.[1] A small number of unscored pretest items may also be mixed in and do not affect your score.
How the PANCE Is Built (Two Axes)
The PANCE is built from the NCCPA Content Blueprint, which scores every question on two axes at once.[1] Axis A is the medical content area — 14 organ systems. Axis B is the task category — the eight clinical things a question can ask you to do (including professional practice).
A single stem might be “Cardiovascular” (Axis A) and “Pharmaceutical Therapeutics” (Axis B). Studying by the blueprint is the most efficient path because it tells you exactly where the points are.
The PANCE uses scaled scoring. Your raw number of correct answers is converted to a scaled score on the 200–800 range, where 350 is passing. Scaling equates difficulty across exam versions, so a 350 is not “350 correct” — the raw correct needed varies by form, and there is no penalty for guessing.[2]
This guide groups the 14 organ-system content areas into eight study modules for efficient learning — all 14 areas are covered (plus the professional-practice task category), just organized into related clusters (for example, GI, renal, and genitourinary together).[1]
Cardiovascular System
Cardiovascular is the largest organ-system content area — about 11% (~33 items).[1] It is the highest-yield system on the exam, so master ischemia, heart failure, hypertension, arrhythmias, and valves.
Acute Coronary Syndrome & Ischemia
Acute coronary syndrome spans .[3] An elevated separates an infarct (STEMI or NSTEMI) from unstable angina, in which troponin is normal.
On the ECG, ST-segment elevation in two or more contiguous leads (or a new left bundle branch block) defines a — a transmural occlusion needing emergent reperfusion (primary PCI preferred, fibrinolysis if PCI is unavailable in time). An shows ST depression or T inversion without ST elevation and is managed medically with early angiography — never fibrinolytics.
- Ischemic chest pain at rest / crescendo
- ECG: ST depression or T-wave changes (or normal)
- Troponin: NORMAL (no necrosis yet)
- Manage: antiplatelets, anticoagulation, risk-stratify
- Subendocardial (partial) occlusion
- ECG: ST depression / T inversion, NO ST elevation
- Troponin: ELEVATED
- Manage: medical therapy → early angiography (not lytics)
- Full-thickness (transmural) occlusion
- ECG: ST elevation ≥1 mm in ≥2 contiguous leads / new LBBB
- Troponin: ELEVATED
- Manage: EMERGENT reperfusion — PCI (or fibrinolysis)
Heart Failure & Hypertension
Distinguish (ejection fraction ≤40%) from HFpEF (preserved EF). HFrEF gets guideline-directed therapy: an ACE inhibitor/ARB or ARNI, a beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor — the pillars shown to reduce mortality. For hypertension, the ACC/AHA stages are elevated (120–129/<80), stage 1 (130–139 or 80–89), and stage 2 (≥140 or ≥90); first-line drugs are a thiazide, an ACE inhibitor/ARB, or a calcium channel blocker.[3]
| Category | Systolic | Diastolic |
|---|---|---|
| Normal | < 120 mmHg | and < 80 mmHg |
| Elevated | 120–129 mmHg | and < 80 mmHg |
| Stage 1 hypertension | 130–139 mmHg | or 80–89 mmHg |
| Stage 2 hypertension | ≥ 140 mmHg | or ≥ 90 mmHg |
| Hypertensive crisis | > 180 mmHg | and/or > 120 mmHg |
Arrhythmias & Valvular Disease
In atrial fibrillation, manage rate or rhythm and use the score to decide on anticoagulation (a DOAC or warfarin to an INR of 2–3).[4] Know the classic murmurs: aortic stenosis (crescendo–decrescendo systolic murmur radiating to the carotids, with syncope, angina, and dyspnea), mitral regurgitation (holosystolic murmur to the axilla), and mitral stenosis (diastolic rumble). An irregularly irregular pulse with no discrete P waves is atrial fibrillation.
Checkpoint · Cardiovascular System
Question 1 of 10
A 24-year-old college soccer player collapses suddenly during a match and has no pulse. He was previously asymptomatic, but an autopsy of a relative who died young showed asymmetric thickening of the interventricular septum. Which condition is the most likely cause of his collapse?
Pulmonary System
Pulmonary is the second-largest area — about 9% (~27 items).[1] Obstructive disease and the big three infections/emergencies (pneumonia, TB, pulmonary embolism) carry most of the points.
Asthma & COPD
Both asthma and are obstructive — a reduced below 0.70 — but asthma is reversible (FEV₁ improves ≥12% and ≥200 mL after a bronchodilator) while COPD obstruction is fixed.[5] Asthma is stepwise-managed with inhaled corticosteroids plus short- and long-acting beta-agonists; COPD adds long-acting bronchodilators (LAMA/LABA), smoking cessation, and vaccination. A silent chest with a rising CO₂ in a fatiguing asthmatic is a sign of impending respiratory failure.
Pneumonia, TB & Pulmonary Embolism
For community-acquired pneumonia, use to decide disposition (outpatient vs admission vs ICU). For suspected pulmonary embolism, apply the : a low pretest probability plus a negative D-dimer rules it out, while a higher probability goes straight to CT pulmonary angiography. Tuberculosis classically causes apical disease with night sweats and weight loss and is treated with the four-drug RIPE regimen.
| Feature | Asthma | COPD |
|---|---|---|
| Onset | Often childhood, episodic | Usually older adult, progressive |
| Reversibility | Reversible (≥12% & ≥200 mL ↑ FEV₁) | Largely irreversible |
| Main risk factor | Atopy / allergens / triggers | Cigarette smoking |
| Spirometry | FEV₁/FVC < 0.70 (improves post-bronchodilator) | Post-bronchodilator FEV₁/FVC < 0.70 (fixed) |
Checkpoint · Pulmonary System
Question 1 of 10
A 70-year-old man with a 50-pack-year smoking history presents with three weeks of productive cough, fever, and right-sided chest pain. A chest radiograph shows a right lower lobe infiltrate, and on examination there is dullness to percussion, increased tactile fremitus, and bronchial breath sounds over the area. Which pathophysiologic change best explains the increased tactile fremitus and bronchial breath sounds in this region?
GI, Nutrition, Renal & Genitourinary
This module groups three official content areas: GI & Nutrition (~8%, ~24 items), Renal (~5%, ~15 items), and Genitourinary (~4%, ~12 items).[1] Together they are the abdominal and excretory systems — a large, frequently tested block.
GI: PUD, GERD, IBD & the Acute Abdomen
Peptic ulcer disease is most often from H. pylori or NSAIDs; test and treat H. pylori and stop NSAIDs. GERD responds to lifestyle change and a proton-pump inhibitor; alarm features (dysphagia, weight loss, bleeding, anemia) prompt endoscopy.
In inflammatory bowel disease, Crohn disease is transmural with skip lesions anywhere from mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis is continuous mucosal inflammation limited to the colon with bloody diarrhea. The acute abdomen high-yield set: appendicitis (periumbilical pain migrating to McBurney point), cholecystitis (RUQ pain, positive Murphy sign), diverticulitis (LLQ pain), and pancreatitis (epigastric pain to the back, elevated lipase).
Renal: AKI, CKD & Electrolytes
Classify acute kidney injury as prerenal (hypoperfusion), intrinsic (acute tubular necrosis), or postrenal (obstruction).[7] Chronic kidney disease is a GFR below 60 for at least three months; control blood pressure and glucose and use an ACE inhibitor or ARB to slow progression. Master : peaked T waves on ECG → give IV calcium first to stabilize the myocardium, then insulin with glucose (and a beta-agonist) to shift potassium intracellularly, and finally remove it (diuresis, binders, or dialysis).
Genitourinary: Stones, UTI & the Urgent Scrotum
Nephrolithiasis causes severe, colicky flank pain radiating to the groin with hematuria; non-contrast CT is the imaging test of choice. A simple UTI (dysuria, frequency) is treated with nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole; flank pain and fever signal pyelonephritis. The can’t-miss emergency is testicular torsion — sudden, severe testicular pain with a high-riding testis and an absent cremasteric reflex, requiring immediate surgery (within ~6 hours to save the testis), not a delaying ultrasound when the diagnosis is clear.
| Diagnosis | Classic location | Key clue |
|---|---|---|
| Appendicitis | Periumbilical → RLQ (McBurney) | Migrating pain, rebound, low-grade fever |
| Cholecystitis | Right upper quadrant | Positive Murphy sign, post-fatty meal |
| Diverticulitis | Left lower quadrant | Older adult, fever, CT shows inflamed diverticula |
| Pancreatitis | Epigastric → back | Elevated lipase; gallstones or alcohol |
| Testicular torsion | Scrotum (urologic emergency) | Absent cremasteric reflex; surgery within ~6 h |
Checkpoint · GI, Nutrition, Renal & Genitourinary
Question 1 of 10
A 48-year-old man reports a burning retrosternal sensation that occurs after large meals and when lying flat at night, along with an occasional sour taste in his mouth. He has no dysphagia, weight loss, or anemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Musculoskeletal & Dermatology
This module pairs Musculoskeletal (~8%, ~24 items) with Dermatologic (~4%, ~12 items).[1] MSK is one of the larger systems; dermatology is smaller but very pattern-based and scoreable.
Fractures, Arthritis & Joint Disease
Use the to decide which ankle, knee, and foot injuries need an X-ray. In children, grade growth-plate fractures with the .
Distinguish the arthritides: osteoarthritis is non-inflammatory wear with morning stiffness under 30 minutes and Heberden/ Bouchard nodes; rheumatoid arthritis is a symmetric inflammatory polyarthritis with morning stiffness over an hour and positive RF/anti-CCP; gout is acute monoarthritis (classically the first MTP joint) with negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals. Recognize low-back red flags (cauda equina: saddle anesthesia, bowel/bladder dysfunction) that demand urgent imaging.
High-Yield Dermatology
Apply the (Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter > 6 mm, Evolution) to flag melanoma, whose prognosis hinges on Breslow depth — biopsy early. Know basal cell carcinoma (pearly papule with telangiectasias, the most common skin cancer) and squamous cell carcinoma (scaly, ulcerated, on sun-damaged skin). Recognize common rashes: psoriasis (silvery plaques on extensor surfaces), eczema (flexural, pruritic), cellulitis (warm, spreading erythema), and the dermatologic emergency Stevens-Johnson syndrome / TEN (mucosal involvement and skin sloughing, often drug-induced).
| Feature | Osteoarthritis | Rheumatoid arthritis |
|---|---|---|
| Nature | Non-inflammatory (wear) | Autoimmune inflammatory |
| Morning stiffness | < 30 minutes | > 1 hour |
| Joint pattern | Asymmetric; DIP/PIP (Heberden/Bouchard) | Symmetric; MCP/PIP, spares DIP |
| Labs | Usually normal | Positive RF / anti-CCP, ↑ ESR/CRP |
Checkpoint · Musculoskeletal & Dermatology
Question 1 of 10
A 58-year-old man presents with the sudden onset of excruciating pain, redness, and swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint that woke him from sleep. Arthrocentesis of the joint is performed. Which finding on synovial fluid analysis under polarized light microscopy best confirms the diagnosis?
EENT & Endocrine
This module pairs Eyes, Ears, Nose & Throat (~6%, ~18 items) with Endocrine (~6%, ~18 items).[1] Both reward knowing a handful of can’t-miss diagnoses and the labs that confirm them.
Eyes, Ears, Nose & Throat
High-yield EENT: otitis media (bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; amoxicillin) vs otitis externa (pain on tragus traction; topical drops); conjunctivitis (viral, bacterial, or allergic). The can’t-miss eye emergency is acute angle-closure glaucoma — a painful red eye with a fixed mid-dilated pupil, halos, nausea, and a hard globe, needing immediate pressure-lowering treatment. For sore throat, use the to decide on testing for group A strep.
Diabetes, Thyroid & Adrenal
Diagnose diabetes with a fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL, a 2-hour OGTT ≥200, a random glucose ≥200 with symptoms, or a ≥6.5%.[8] Type 1 is autoimmune insulin deficiency (lifelong insulin); type 2 is insulin resistance (metformin first-line). Know the two hyperglycemic emergencies — (type 1, ketosis, acidosis) and HHS (type 2, profound hyperglycemia, minimal ketosis).
For thyroid disease, TSH is the screening test: a high TSH means hypothyroidism (treat with levothyroxine), a low TSH means hyperthyroidism (Graves disease is the classic cause). Recognize adrenal insufficiency (fatigue, hypotension, hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia).
| Test | Diabetes | Prediabetes |
|---|---|---|
| Fasting plasma glucose | ≥ 126 mg/dL | 100–125 mg/dL |
| 2-hour OGTT | ≥ 200 mg/dL | 140–199 mg/dL |
| Hemoglobin A1c | ≥ 6.5% | 5.7–6.4% |
| Random glucose | ≥ 200 mg/dL + symptoms | — |
Checkpoint · EENT & Endocrine
Question 1 of 10
A 50-year-old reports recurrent transient episodes of complete vision loss in one eye, each lasting a few minutes and resolving fully, described as a curtain coming down and then lifting. He has carotid bruits. Which term best describes these transient monocular episodes that may precede a central retinal artery occlusion?
Neurology & Psychiatry
This module pairs Neurologic (~7%, ~21 items) with Psychiatry/Behavioral Science (~7%, ~21 items).[1] Both are larger systems and heavily tested.
Stroke, Seizures & Headache
In a sudden focal deficit, get an immediate non-contrast head CT to separate an (no blood on CT; thrombolysis within the window, possibly thrombectomy) from a hemorrhagic stroke (blood on CT; thrombolytics are contraindicated).[9] Use FAST (Face, Arm, Speech, Time) for recognition.
For headache, screen for red flags — thunderclap (subarachnoid hemorrhage), fever with neck stiffness (meningitis), and a new headache over age 50 with jaw claudication (giant cell arteritis). For suspected bacterial meningitis, do not delay empiric antibiotics for the lumbar puncture.
Mood, Anxiety & Psychosis
Major depressive disorder needs five or more symptoms (the group) for two weeks, with depressed mood or anhedonia required; first-line treatment is an SSRI plus psychotherapy.[10] Always screen for a manic history, which would make it bipolar disorder (treated with mood stabilizers, not an SSRI alone).
Recognize the anxiety disorders (GAD, panic disorder), schizophrenia (≥6 months of psychosis with positive and negative symptoms), and the danger signs — serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, clonus, agitation), and substance withdrawal (alcohol withdrawal/delirium tremens is potentially fatal). Suicide-risk assessment is high-yield throughout.
Checkpoint · Neurology & Psychiatry
Question 1 of 10
A 68-year-old man arrives 90 minutes after the abrupt onset of left-sided weakness and facial droop. A noncontrast head CT shows no hemorrhage, his blood glucose is normal, and he meets all eligibility criteria. Which intervention offers the greatest benefit when delivered within this time window?
Reproductive, Hematology & Infectious Disease
This module groups Reproductive (~7%, ~21 items), Hematologic (~5%, ~15 items), and Infectious Diseases (~7%, ~21 items).[1] Together they are a large, very testable block spanning women’s health, blood disorders, and infection.
Reproductive & Women’s Health
Know routine prenatal care and the can’t-miss emergencies: ectopic pregnancy (first-trimester pain and bleeding with a positive β-hCG and an empty uterus on ultrasound) and (new hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks; severe features or eclampsia need magnesium sulfate and delivery). Recognize common STIs (chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, HPV), contraception options, and menstrual disorders (PCOS, abnormal uterine bleeding). Cervical cancer screening follows USPSTF (start at 21).
Anemias & Coagulation
Classify anemia first by : microcytic (<80; iron deficiency, thalassemia), normocytic (80–100; acute blood loss, hemolysis), and macrocytic (>100; B₁₂ or folate deficiency).[12] Iron deficiency shows a low ferritin; B₁₂ deficiency adds neurologic signs that folate deficiency lacks.
On coagulation, the PT/INR follows the extrinsic pathway (warfarin) and the aPTT follows the intrinsic pathway (heparin). Know sickle cell crises and the leukemias/lymphomas at a recognition level.
- Iron deficiency (most common — ↓ ferritin)
- Thalassemia
- Anemia of chronic disease (can be normo-)
- Sideroblastic / lead
- Acute blood loss
- Hemolysis (↑ retic, ↑ LDH, ↓ haptoglobin)
- Anemia of chronic disease
- Early iron deficiency
- B₁₂ deficiency (neuro signs)
- Folate deficiency (no neuro signs)
- Alcohol / liver disease
- Hypothyroidism, drugs
Sepsis, HIV & Immunization
is organ dysfunction from a dysregulated response to infection; the bundle is cultures before antibiotics, prompt broad-spectrum antibiotics, fluids, and lactate, with norepinephrine as the first-line vasopressor for septic shock.[6] Know HIV screening and the AIDS- defining illnesses, the common vaccine schedule (CDC), and empiric antibiotic selection by site and likely organism. Influenza and COVID-19 round out the high-yield respiratory infections.
| Test | Pathway | Monitors / clue |
|---|---|---|
| PT / INR | Extrinsic | Warfarin therapy (target INR 2–3 for most indications) |
| aPTT | Intrinsic | Unfractionated heparin therapy |
| Platelet count | Primary hemostasis | Low in ITP, TTP, HIT, DIC |
| Both PT & aPTT prolonged | Common pathway / DIC | Liver disease, DIC, severe warfarin effect |
Checkpoint · Reproductive, Hematology & Infectious Disease
Question 1 of 10
A 28-year-old woman is counseled before starting single-dose methotrexate for an unruptured tubal ectopic pregnancy. Which dietary instruction should she be given to avoid reducing the drug's effectiveness?
Professional Practice & the Task Categories
Professional Practice (6%, ~18 items) is itself the eighth task category — it covers how PAs practice — and this module also frames the exam’s second axis, the eight task categories that determine what every question asks you to do.[1]
The Eight Task Categories
Beyond which organ system a question is about, each item also tests a clinical task: formulating the most likely diagnosis, history taking and physical exam, clinical intervention, pharmaceutical therapeutics, health maintenance and prevention, using diagnostic and lab studies, applying basic scientific concepts, and professional practice.[1] Diagnosis and pharmacotherapeutics carry the most items, so train yourself to read each stem for the verb — is it asking for the diagnosis, the next test, the best treatment, or the mechanism?
- 1
Step 1
Read the last line first — identify the task: diagnosis, next diagnostic test, best treatment, prevention, or mechanism.
- 2
Step 2
Build the patient picture: age, risk factors, the key history and exam finding, and the most discriminating vital sign or lab.
- 3
Step 3
Form the leading diagnosis and a short differential before looking at the options — anchor on the classic pattern.
- 4
Step 4
Match the answer to the task: the most-likely diagnosis, the single best next step, or the first-line drug — not a reasonable-but-not-best option.
- 5
Step 5
Eliminate distractors: rule out the can't-miss emergency first, then choose by guideline (USPSTF, ACC/AHA, ADA, CDC).
Ethics, Consent & Prevention
Professional-practice content includes (a patient with capacity voluntarily agreeing after hearing risks, benefits, and alternatives), confidentiality and HIPAA, the PA scope of practice and team-based care, evidence-based medicine, and patient safety. The health- maintenance task area leans on the graded recommendations — know the major screenings (colorectal, breast, cervical, lung, AAA), the adult and childhood immunization schedules, and counseling for tobacco, alcohol, and obesity.[11]
Checkpoint · Professional Practice & the Task Categories
Question 1 of 10
A patient who reads only at a third-grade level is handed a dense, jargon-filled consent form before a colonoscopy. To make the consent process valid, what should the PA do?
How to Use This Study Guide
Work through the guide one system at a time. After each one, check it off in the contents to raise your exam-readiness score, then drill the same content in our free practice questions and flashcards — active recall and timed practice are what move knowledge into exam-day performance.
- Weight your time by the blueprint. Cardiovascular (~11%) and Pulmonary (~9%) are the two biggest systems — start there, then GI and Musculoskeletal.
- Learn the discriminators. For each disease, memorize the single feature that separates it from its look-alike (troponin for MI vs angina, MCV for anemia type, reversibility for asthma vs COPD).
- Read for the task, not just the topic. The same disease can be asked four ways — diagnosis, next test, treatment, or mechanism. Identify the verb in the stem.
- Know the can’t-miss emergencies cold. Testicular torsion, aortic dissection, cauda equina, SJS/TEN, angle-closure glaucoma, ectopic pregnancy, and bacterial meningitis recur across systems.
- Pace by block. Five blocks of 60 questions in 60 minutes each — about a minute per question, and you cannot return to a block once you submit it.
- Then prove it. When a system feels solid, confirm with our practice questions — build a comfortable margin before exam day.
Common clinical concepts PANCE candidates study and get asked — each answered briefly and backed by an official source (NCCPA, AHA/ACC, NIH, CDC, USPSTF, ADA, or NCI). Tap any card to test yourself.
PANCE Concept Questions
PANCE Glossary
Key PANCE terms in one place. Hover any dotted term throughout the guide for its definition; the full list is below.
- PANCE
- The Physician Assistant National Certifying Examination — the 300-question entry-level exam from the NCCPA that a graduate of an ARC-PA-accredited program must pass to become a certified physician assistant (PA-C).
- NCCPA
- The National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants — the body that develops and administers the PANCE and grants the PA-C credential.
- PA-C
- Physician Assistant — Certified; the credential earned by passing the PANCE and maintained through ongoing certification.
- scaled score
- A score on the PANCE 200–800 scale that equates difficulty across exam forms; the passing standard is a scaled score of 350, which is not a fixed percent-correct.
- troponin
- A cardiac biomarker released when heart muscle is injured; an elevated troponin distinguishes a myocardial infarction (STEMI or NSTEMI) from unstable angina, in which it is normal.
- STEMI
- ST-elevation myocardial infarction — a full-thickness (transmural) coronary occlusion with ST-segment elevation on ECG, requiring emergent reperfusion (primary PCI or fibrinolysis).
- NSTEMI
- Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction — a partial coronary occlusion with an elevated troponin but no ST elevation, managed medically with early angiography rather than fibrinolytics.
- CHA₂DS₂-VASc
- A score estimating annual stroke risk in non-valvular atrial fibrillation, used to decide who needs anticoagulation.
- heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
- HFrEF — heart failure with an ejection fraction ≤40%, treated with guideline-directed therapy (ACE inhibitor/ARB or ARNI, beta-blocker, mineralocorticoid antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor).
- FEV₁/FVC ratio
- The fraction of the forced vital capacity exhaled in the first second; a value below 0.70 defines an obstructive ventilatory pattern (asthma or COPD).
- COPD
- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease — persistent, largely irreversible airflow limitation (post-bronchodilator FEV₁/FVC < 0.70) strongly linked to smoking.
- CURB-65
- A pneumonia severity score (Confusion, Urea, Respiratory rate, Blood pressure, age ≥65) that guides outpatient vs inpatient vs ICU disposition.
- Wells criteria
- A clinical prediction rule that estimates the pretest probability of pulmonary embolism (or DVT), used with D-dimer and CT pulmonary angiography.
- anion gap
- The difference between measured serum cations and anions; a high anion gap metabolic acidosis (e.g., in DKA or lactic acidosis) is a key diagnostic clue.
- hyperkalemia
- A high serum potassium; peaked T waves on ECG signal cardiac risk, and IV calcium is given first to stabilize the myocardium, then insulin with glucose to shift potassium intracellularly.
- Salter-Harris classification
- A grading system (types I–V) for pediatric fractures involving the growth plate (physis), important because growth-plate injury can affect future bone growth.
- Ottawa rules
- Validated decision rules (ankle, knee, foot) that identify which injured patients actually need an X-ray, reducing unnecessary imaging.
- ABCDE rule
- A screen for melanoma — Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter > 6 mm, and Evolution — prompting biopsy of a suspicious pigmented lesion.
- Centor criteria
- A score (exudate, tender nodes, fever, no cough, plus age) estimating the likelihood of group A streptococcal pharyngitis to guide testing and treatment.
- diabetic ketoacidosis
- DKA — a hyperglycemic emergency mainly in type 1 diabetes with ketosis and anion-gap acidosis; treated with IV fluids, insulin, and potassium repletion.
- hemoglobin A1c
- A measure of average blood glucose over ~3 months; an A1c of 6.5% or higher is one diagnostic threshold for diabetes (ADA).
- ischemic stroke
- A stroke from vessel occlusion (about 87% of strokes); eligible patients receive IV thrombolysis within the time window and possibly thrombectomy — after hemorrhage is excluded by CT.
- SIGECAPS
- A mnemonic for the symptoms of major depression — Sleep, Interest, Guilt, Energy, Concentration, Appetite, Psychomotor, Suicidality — with depressed mood or anhedonia required.
- mean corpuscular volume
- MCV — the average red-cell size, the first fork in classifying anemia as microcytic (<80), normocytic (80–100), or macrocytic (>100).
- preeclampsia
- New hypertension with proteinuria (or end-organ signs) after 20 weeks of pregnancy; severe features or eclampsia (seizures) require magnesium sulfate and delivery.
- sepsis
- Life-threatening organ dysfunction from a dysregulated host response to infection; early antibiotics, cultures before antibiotics, fluids, and lactate measurement are the bundle priorities.
- informed consent
- The process by which a patient with capacity voluntarily agrees to a procedure after being told its risks, benefits, and alternatives — a core professional-practice concept on the PANCE.
- USPSTF
- The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, whose graded recommendations (screening, counseling, preventive medication) are the standard for the PANCE's health-maintenance task area.
PANCE Study Guide FAQ
The PANCE has 300 multiple-choice questions delivered in five blocks of 60 questions, with 60 minutes allotted per block — about 5 hours of testing time plus roughly 45 minutes of breaks. The questions are spread across 14 organ-system content areas and eight task categories per the NCCPA blueprint.
The PANCE is reported on a scaled score range of 200 to 800, and the passing standard is a scaled score of 350. Because scaling equates difficulty across exam forms, a 350 is not a fixed percent-correct — the number of correct answers needed varies slightly by version. There is no penalty for guessing.
Two axes. Axis A is medical content — 14 organ-system areas led by Cardiovascular (about 11%), then Pulmonary (9%), with GI/Nutrition and Musculoskeletal next. Axis B is eight task categories describing what each question asks you to do, with diagnosis and pharmaceutical therapeutics carrying the most weight.
You must graduate (or be on track to graduate) from a physician assistant program accredited by the ARC-PA (Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant). The NCCPA verifies graduation before releasing scores, and candidates must attest to the NCCPA Code of Conduct.
The PANCE registration fee is $550 (a dated anchor — verify on nccpa.net, as fees change). This covers one exam attempt at a Pearson VUE testing center; a retake requires re-registering and paying the fee again.
You get up to six attempts to pass the PANCE within six years of completing your PA program — whichever comes first. After six failed attempts or the six-year limit, eligibility ends and you must complete an unaccredited or accredited PA program again to requalify. There is a waiting period between attempts set by the NCCPA.
The NCCPA reports a high first-time pass rate — historically around 93–95% for first-time takers from accredited programs in its PA Program reports — while repeat-taker rates are substantially lower. Treat any single figure as approximate and verify the current year's report on nccpa.net; the takeaway is to prepare thoroughly for the first attempt.
Each form is statistically equated to a common difficulty, then reported on the 200 to 800 scale where 350 passes. You receive a pass/fail result with a scaled score, and a failing report includes performance feedback by content area to guide a retake. Unscored pretest items may be mixed in and do not affect your score.
The PANCE is the initial certifying exam you take after PA school to become a PA-C. The PANRE (Physician Assistant National Recertifying Exam) is the periodic recertification exam taken later to maintain certification. This guide covers the initial PANCE.
Yes — the full guide, the glossary, the concept questions, the practice questions, and the flashcards are 100% free with no account required.
References
- 1.National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants (NCCPA). “PANCE Content Blueprint.” NCCPA. ↑
- 2.National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants (NCCPA). “PANCE — Eligibility, Format & Scoring.” NCCPA. ↑
- 3.American Heart Association / American College of Cardiology. “About Heart Attacks (ACS).” heart.org. ↑
- 4.American Heart Association. “Atrial Fibrillation.” heart.org. ↑
- 5.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). “About COPD.” cdc.gov. ↑
- 6.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). “About Sepsis.” cdc.gov. ↑
- 7.National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases (NIDDK). “Kidney Disease.” niddk.nih.gov. ↑
- 8.American Diabetes Association (ADA). “Standards of Care — Diagnosis.” diabetes.org. ↑
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