Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of NREMT EMT cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the NREMT content domains and written to the EMT (basic life support) scope, so you study exactly what the EMT certification exam tests.[1]
Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide. Want extra insurance for exam day? Capital Prep’s NREMT premium study materials come with an NREMT exam pass guarantee: your money back if you don’t pass, plus up to $104 toward your retake fee — and Career Employer students get a special discount.
NREMT Flashcard Study Modes
Four modes work the same 222 cards from different angles. Flip is for quiet review of a front and its back, Match times you pairing terms with definitions, Type makes you produce the term from its description, and Quiz turns the cards into multiple choice. In Type, a definition of a rising blood pressure, slowing pulse, and irregular respirations pattern should pull Cushing’s triad out of you unprompted.

Why Flashcards Work for the NREMT
Patient Treatment & Transport is the heaviest domain at 56 cards, and it covers what you actually do for a patient and how you move them. Fronts like Flail chest, Venturi mask, and Emergency move sit beside scoring and management cards such as APGAR score and Burn care (EMT), so treatment choices and the reasoning behind them get drilled together.
Primary Assessment brings 42 cards built around the findings that decide priority in the first seconds of contact. Airway and breathing signs including Stridor, Agonal breathing, and Tripod position are here, along with positioning and resuscitation cards like Recovery position and AED pad placement, plus the General impression you form before touching anyone.
Operations runs 41 cards on the system you work inside rather than the patient in front of you. You get scene and disaster structure from Hazmat zones, Staging area, and Re-triage, legal and documentation material through HIPAA and Honoring a DNR, and command vocabulary from the card that asks What is an MCI?
Secondary Assessment holds 32 cards on the detailed history and exam. The OPQRST breakdown is split across separate fronts such as Onset (OPQRST) and Radiation (OPQRST), the altered mental status mnemonic appears as AEIOU-TIPS, and trauma checks show up as Distal CMS check and Distracting injury.
EMT Scope & Foundations covers 28 cards on role limits, certification, and fixed numbers, including EMR scope, Standing orders, Adult CPR depth, and prompts like What is the NCCP? Scene Size-Up & Safety closes the deck with 23 cards on what happens before care, among them Hand hygiene, Index of suspicion, and Scene size-up — order.
That matters on the EMT exam, where facts like CPR parameters, normal vital signs, the rule of nines, and the EMT medication list must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.
NREMT Flashcards by Topic
The cards are organized by the NREMT content domains. Weight your study toward the heaviest one — Primary Assessment is the largest domain at 39–43%, nearly half the exam:[1]
| NREMT content domain | Weight |
|---|---|
| Primary Assessment | 39–43% |
| Patient Treatment & Transport | 20–24% |
| Scene Size-Up & Safety | 15–19% |
| Operations | 10–14% |
| Secondary Assessment | 5–9% |
How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards
- Start with the biggest block. Patient Treatment & Transport carries 56 cards, more than any other domain, so early passes there move your overall recall on the deck fastest.
- Type-drill the fixed numbers. Cards such as Adult CPR rate and Adult CPR depth have exact answers, and typing them stops the vague half-memory that multiple choice lets you hide behind.
- Use Match for assessment findings. Pairing short signs like Stridor, Cyanosis, and Wheezing against their definitions under a clock builds the quick recognition Primary Assessment keeps asking for.
- Move to the practice test once Quiz stops surprising you. When a full Quiz run across Operations and Secondary Assessment feels routine, scenario questions are the better next pressure test.
- Keep a rotating cadence. Work one domain per sitting, then reshuffle finished domains into a mixed Flip pass so Scene Size-Up & Safety and EMT Scope & Foundations never go stale.
NREMT Flashcards FAQ
Hundreds of free NREMT EMT flashcards, organized across the five content domains tested on the redesigned EMT cognitive exam — scene size-up, primary assessment, secondary assessment, treatment and transport, and operations — plus a deck on EMT scope and the medication list. They're free to use with no account required.
Yes. Flashcards use active recall — retrieving an answer from memory — which research shows is one of the most effective ways to make information stick, especially in short sessions spread over several days. That matters for facts like CPR parameters, normal vitals, the rule of nines, and the EMT scope of practice.
Every EMT domain in the April 2025 outline: Primary Assessment (the largest at 39–43%), Patient Treatment & Transport (20–24%), Scene Size-Up & Safety (15–19%), Operations (10–14%), and Secondary Assessment (5–9%) — plus a deck on the EMT scope of practice and the medications an EMT gives or assists.
Yes. Every card is written to the basic life support (BLS) scope the EMT exam actually tests — assessment, airway and oxygen, CPR/AED, bleeding control, splinting, and a limited drug list — and clearly separates EMT skills from AEMT/Paramedic-only ones like IV access, supraglottic airways, and manual defibrillation.
Mix the modes: flip to learn, type to test recall, match for speed, and quiz to check yourself. Spend the most time on Primary Assessment (39–43%) — nearly half the exam — and master the assessment sequence and high-yield numbers like the CPR parameters and normal vital signs.
Yes — 100% free, all four study modes, no paywall.
NREMT flashcard bank
All 222 cards, by topic
A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.
EMT Scope & Foundations (28)
- Adult CPR rate
Show answerHide answer
100–120 compressions per minute.
- Adult CPR depth
Show answerHide answer
At least 2 inches (5 cm); allow full chest recoil.
- EMT scope of practice
Show answerHide answer
Basic life support: full assessment, OPA/NPA & BVM, oxygen, CPR/AED, bleeding control & splinting, and a limited drug set — NO IV access, advanced airways, or IV drugs.
- EMT vs AEMT vs Paramedic
Show answerHide answer
EMT = BLS (no IV, no advanced airway); AEMT adds IV/IO, fluids, supraglottic airways & more meds; Paramedic adds intubation, cardiac monitoring/manual defib & most IV drugs.
- Can an EMT start an IV?
Show answerHide answer
No. IV/IO access begins at the AEMT level. EMTs provide basic life support only.
- Can an EMT use a supraglottic airway?
Show answerHide answer
No — supraglottic (blind-insertion) airways are AEMT-level. EMTs use OPA/NPA and a bag-valve-mask.
- Four national EMS levels
Show answerHide answer
EMR → EMT → AEMT → Paramedic (National EMS Scope of Practice Model).
- What does BLS stand for?
Show answerHide answer
Basic Life Support — non-invasive emergency care: airway, oxygen, CPR/AED, bleeding control, splinting, and assisting select medications.
- Medications an EMT GIVES
Show answerHide answer
Oxygen, oral glucose, aspirin, naloxone, and activated charcoal (per protocol).
- Medications an EMT ASSISTS
Show answerHide answer
The patient's own prescribed nitroglycerin, metered-dose inhaler, and epinephrine auto-injector.
- NREMT exam format (EMT)
Show answerHide answer
Computer-adaptive test (CAT), 70–120 items, up to 2 hours, pass/fail (no numeric score).
- NREMT EMT passing score
Show answerHide answer
There is no numeric passing score; the CAT decides pass/fail at ~95% confidence vs an entry-level competency standard.
- NREMT EMT exam fee
Show answerHide answer
About $104 per attempt (verify current pricing at nremt.org).
- NREMT EMT certification length
Show answerHide answer
2 years; recertify via the National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) CE model + a state license, or retake the exam.
- Largest NREMT EMT domain
Show answerHide answer
Primary Assessment (39–43% of the exam).
- Smallest NREMT EMT domain
Show answerHide answer
Secondary Assessment (5–9% of the exam).
- Medical direction (online vs offline)
Show answerHide answer
Offline = written protocols/standing orders; online = real-time orders from a physician by radio or phone.
- Quality improvement vs medical direction
Show answerHide answer
Medical direction authorizes/oversees care; QI/CQA reviews care after the fact to improve the system.
- EMR scope
Show answerHide answer
Emergency Medical Responder — CPR, AED, bleeding control, manual airway, and oxygen; the level below EMT.
- Paramedic-only skills
Show answerHide answer
Endotracheal intubation, cardiac monitoring/12-lead, manual defibrillation/cardioversion, and most IV medications.
- Can an EMT interpret a cardiac rhythm?
Show answerHide answer
No — cardiac rhythm interpretation is a Paramedic skill. EMTs apply the AED, which interprets the rhythm for them.
- Can an EMT manually defibrillate?
Show answerHide answer
No — manual defibrillation is Paramedic-level. EMTs use an automated external defibrillator (AED).
- NREMT retake wait
Show answerHide answer
At least 15 days between attempts; 3 attempts per authorization, then a 24-hour remedial refresher is required.
- Who administers the NREMT exam?
Show answerHide answer
Pearson VUE, at test centers (and online proctoring).
- What is the NCCP?
Show answerHide answer
National Continued Competency Program — the CE model for recertifying (national, local, and individual components).
- Standing orders
Show answerHide answer
Written protocols that let you perform certain interventions without contacting a physician first (offline medical direction).
- Therapeutic communication
Show answerHide answer
Building trust and gathering information through active listening, eye contact, honesty, and a calm, respectful approach.
- Critical incident stress
Show answerHide answer
The emotional toll of disturbing calls; managed with peer support, EAPs, and healthy coping — a wellness topic on the exam.
Scene Size-Up & Safety (23)
- First priority on any scene
Show answerHide answer
Scene safety / your own safety — you can't help if you become a patient.
- What is the scene size-up?
Show answerHide answer
Before reaching the patient: standard precautions (BSI), scene safety, MOI or nature of illness, number of patients, and call for resources.
- What is BSI / standard precautions?
Show answerHide answer
Body Substance Isolation — gloves on every patient, plus eye protection, gown, and mask for splash, suctioning, or airborne risk.
- Mechanism of injury (MOI)
Show answerHide answer
The forces that caused a trauma patient's injuries (fall height, vehicle speed/damage, penetrating object).
- Nature of illness (NOI)
Show answerHide answer
The general type of a medical patient's problem (e.g., chest pain, dyspnea, altered mental status).
- Signs of a significant MOI
Show answerHide answer
Fall over 20 ft (or 3 times the patient's height), ejection, death of another occupant, high-speed crash, rollover, penetrating trauma to head/chest/abdomen.
- What to do at an unsafe scene
Show answerHide answer
Do not enter. Stage at a safe distance and request the appropriate resources (law enforcement, fire, utilities) to make it safe.
- When to call for more resources
Show answerHide answer
EARLY — during the size-up, before committing to one patient (extra units, ALS, fire/rescue, air medical).
- How to recognize an MCI
Show answerHide answer
When the number of patients exceeds the resources on scene; declare it, start ICS, and begin START triage.
- Standard precautions — when to apply
Show answerHide answer
Before patient contact, as part of the scene size-up.
- Personal protective equipment for airborne illness
Show answerHide answer
Add a mask (and consider eye protection); follow local infection-control protocol.
- Index of suspicion
Show answerHide answer
The anticipation of possible injuries based on the mechanism — drives a rapid trauma assessment even without obvious findings.
- Cold zone (scene)
Show answerHide answer
The safe area where EMS stages, treats, and command operates.
- Danger zone at a vehicle crash
Show answerHide answer
Stay clear of traffic, fuel/fire, electrical hazards, and unstable vehicles; use a safe approach and PPE.
- Violent/crime scene rule
Show answerHide answer
Stage until law enforcement secures the scene; preserve evidence when you can without compromising care.
- Number of patients exceeds resources
Show answerHide answer
Recognize an MCI — request more units, start ICS, and begin triage.
- PPE for arterial bleeding
Show answerHide answer
Gloves plus eye protection and a gown — splash is likely.
- Hand hygiene
Show answerHide answer
Wash or use sanitizer after every patient contact, even when gloves were worn.
- Trauma vs medical call
Show answerHide answer
Use the MOI for trauma, the nature of illness for medical — it shapes your assessment approach.
- Warm zone (hazmat)
Show answerHide answer
The decontamination corridor between the hot and cold zones — limited operations with PPE.
- Hot zone (hazmat)
Show answerHide answer
The contaminated area of immediate danger — entry only with proper training and PPE; EMTs do not enter.
- Resource: rehab sector
Show answerHide answer
Where responders rest, rehydrate, and are medically monitored at a prolonged or hazardous incident.
- Scene size-up — order
Show answerHide answer
Standard precautions → scene safety → MOI/NOI → number of patients → call for resources.
Primary Assessment (42)
- What is the primary assessment?
Show answerHide answer
The rapid first check that finds and treats immediate life threats: general impression + AVPU, then XABC (massive bleeding, Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
- What does AVPU stand for?
Show answerHide answer
Alert, responds to Verbal stimulus, responds to Painful stimulus, Unresponsive.
- What does XABC stand for?
Show answerHide answer
eXsanguinating (massive) hemorrhage, Airway, Breathing, Circulation — the order of the primary assessment for a bleeding patient.
- General impression
Show answerHide answer
The immediate sick-vs-not-sick judgment from appearance, work of breathing, and skin color, formed as you approach.
- Signs of inadequate breathing
Show answerHide answer
Rate <8 or >24, shallow/irregular effort, poor chest rise, accessory-muscle use, tripod position, cyanosis, 1–2 word sentences, altered mentation.
- Treatment for inadequate breathing
Show answerHide answer
Assist ventilation with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and oxygen — not just a mask.
- Adult BVM ventilation rate
Show answerHide answer
About once every 5–6 seconds (~10–12/min); do not over-ventilate.
- Opening the airway (medical patient)
Show answerHide answer
Head-tilt/chin-lift.
- Opening the airway (suspected spinal injury)
Show answerHide answer
Jaw-thrust maneuver.
- Maximum suction time per attempt
Show answerHide answer
About 15 seconds (less in infants/children).
- When to use an OPA
Show answerHide answer
Unresponsive patient with NO gag reflex.
- When to use an NPA
Show answerHide answer
Decreased LOC with an intact gag reflex; avoid with a suspected basilar skull fracture.
- How to size an OPA
Show answerHide answer
From the corner of the mouth to the earlobe (or angle of the jaw).
- How to size an NPA
Show answerHide answer
From the nostril to the earlobe.
- Bleeding control order
Show answerHide answer
Direct pressure → tourniquet (extremity, high & tight, note the time) → wound packing/hemostatic gauze (junctional).
- Do you loosen a tourniquet in the field?
Show answerHide answer
No. Once applied for hemorrhage control, leave it on and transport.
- Earliest sign of compensated shock
Show answerHide answer
Tachycardia with anxiety/restlessness and pale, cool, clammy skin — before the blood pressure falls.
- Narrowing pulse pressure
Show answerHide answer
The systolic and diastolic values move closer together — an early warning sign of compensated shock.
- Late (decompensated) shock signs
Show answerHide answer
Falling blood pressure and altered mental status — ominous, late findings.
- Shock treatment (BLS)
Show answerHide answer
Control bleeding, high-flow oxygen, keep warm and supine, and transport rapidly.
- First step for adult cardiac arrest
Show answerHide answer
High-quality CPR + apply the AED as soon as it arrives.
- Adult CPR compression-to-ventilation ratio (1 rescuer)
Show answerHide answer
30:2.
- How often to switch CPR compressors
Show answerHide answer
About every 2 minutes (or every 5 cycles) to prevent fatigue.
- AED on a shockable rhythm
Show answerHide answer
Clear the patient, deliver the shock, then resume compressions immediately.
- Normal capillary refill time
Show answerHide answer
Under 2 seconds.
- High-priority (load-and-go) findings
Show answerHide answer
Poor general impression, unmanageable airway, inadequate breathing, uncontrolled bleeding/shock, altered mental status, severe pain.
- Why treat life threats during the primary assessment?
Show answerHide answer
Because an airway, breathing, or circulation problem can kill the patient before you ever reach the secondary exam — treat it the moment you find it.
- Agonal breathing
Show answerHide answer
Slow, gasping, ineffective breaths in/around cardiac arrest — treat as NOT breathing; begin CPR.
- Tripod position
Show answerHide answer
Sitting upright, leaning forward on the arms to ease breathing — a sign of respiratory distress.
- Accessory muscle use
Show answerHide answer
Using neck/chest/abdominal muscles to breathe — a sign of increased work of breathing.
- Cyanosis
Show answerHide answer
A bluish skin/mucous-membrane color from poor oxygenation — a late, serious sign.
- Stridor
Show answerHide answer
A high-pitched sound on inhalation signaling upper-airway obstruction (croup, epiglottitis, anaphylaxis, foreign body).
- Wheezing
Show answerHide answer
A whistling sound from narrowed lower airways (asthma, COPD).
- Pulse check location (adult)
Show answerHide answer
Carotid (or femoral) — take 10 seconds or less to check for a pulse in a possibly pulseless patient.
- Pulse check location (infant)
Show answerHide answer
Brachial artery.
- Skin signs to assess
Show answerHide answer
Color, temperature, moisture (and capillary refill in children).
- Over-ventilation danger
Show answerHide answer
Raises intrathoracic pressure, lowers cardiac output, and causes gastric distension and aspiration.
- Recovery position
Show answerHide answer
Lateral recumbent position for an unresponsive, breathing patient with no trauma — helps keep the airway clear.
- Child/infant CPR ratio (2 rescuers)
Show answerHide answer
15:2.
- AED pad placement
Show answerHide answer
Upper-right chest and lower-left side; use pediatric pads/dose attenuator for young children if available.
- Do not delay CPR for…
Show answerHide answer
Pulse-checks, AED set-up beyond pad placement, or moving the patient — push hard and fast, minimize pauses.
- Return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)
Show answerHide answer
A palpable pulse returns after arrest; support breathing and perfusion and transport.
Secondary Assessment (32)
- What does SAMPLE stand for?
Show answerHide answer
Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Pertinent past history, Last oral intake, Events leading up.
- What does OPQRST stand for?
Show answerHide answer
Onset, Provocation/Palliation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Time — used to investigate pain.
- What does DCAP-BTLS stand for?
Show answerHide answer
Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations, Swelling — what to look/feel for in a physical exam.
- Normal adult heart rate
Show answerHide answer
60–100 beats per minute at rest.
- Normal adult respiratory rate
Show answerHide answer
12–20 breaths per minute at rest.
- Normal adult oxygen saturation
Show answerHide answer
94–100% on room air.
- Normal adult systolic BP
Show answerHide answer
Roughly 90–140 mmHg.
- Normal infant heart rate
Show answerHide answer
About 100–160 beats per minute.
- Normal infant respiratory rate
Show answerHide answer
About 30–60 breaths per minute.
- Reassessment interval — unstable patient
Show answerHide answer
Every 5 minutes.
- Reassessment interval — stable patient
Show answerHide answer
Every 15 minutes.
- Focused vs rapid physical exam
Show answerHide answer
Focused = the area of an isolated complaint (stable patient); rapid head-to-toe = significant mechanism, altered mentation, or critical illness.
- What is more important — one vital set or the trend?
Show answerHide answer
The TREND across repeated sets — it reveals a patient improving or deteriorating before any single number looks alarming.
- Distal CMS check
Show answerHide answer
Circulation, Motor, and Sensation distal to an injury — checked before AND after splinting.
- Getting a history from an unresponsive patient
Show answerHide answer
From family, bystanders, the medications on scene, and medical-alert jewelry.
- Components of a full vital set
Show answerHide answer
Pulse, respirations, blood pressure, skin signs, pupils, and oxygen saturation.
- Pupil assessment (PERRL)
Show answerHide answer
Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light — unequal/fixed pupils can indicate a serious brain problem.
- Onset (OPQRST)
Show answerHide answer
What the patient was doing when the symptom started, and whether it began suddenly or gradually.
- Provocation/Palliation (OPQRST)
Show answerHide answer
What makes the symptom better or worse.
- Quality (OPQRST)
Show answerHide answer
How the patient describes the symptom (e.g., crushing, sharp, dull, tearing).
- Radiation (OPQRST)
Show answerHide answer
Whether and where the pain travels (e.g., chest pain to the arm or jaw).
- Severity (OPQRST)
Show answerHide answer
The patient's rating of the symptom, often on a 0–10 scale.
- Baseline vital signs
Show answerHide answer
The first set of vitals — the reference point you compare every later set against.
- Orthostatic (postural) vitals
Show answerHide answer
Checking for a BP drop / HR rise from lying to standing — a clue to hypovolemia.
- Capnography (EtCO₂) normal range
Show answerHide answer
About 35–45 mmHg; used in some systems to confirm ventilation.
- AEIOU-TIPS
Show answerHide answer
A differential for altered mental status: Alcohol, Epilepsy, Insulin, Overdose, Uremia, Trauma, Infection, Psychiatric, Stroke.
- Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
Show answerHide answer
Scores Eye (4), Verbal (5), and Motor (6) responses, 3 to 15; a score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury.
- Distracting injury
Show answerHide answer
A painful injury that can mask another (e.g., spinal) injury — a reason to maintain spinal precautions.
- Pertinent negative
Show answerHide answer
A relevant symptom the patient denies (e.g., 'no chest pain') — documented because it helps rule things out.
- Chief complaint
Show answerHide answer
The main reason, in the patient's own words, that EMS was called.
- Lung sounds — where to listen
Show answerHide answer
Compare both sides (apices, mid, and bases) for equal, clear breath sounds.
- Detailed physical exam
Show answerHide answer
A more thorough head-to-toe exam done en route on a stable patient after the secondary assessment.
Patient Treatment & Transport (56)
- Nasal cannula flow & oxygen %
Show answerHide answer
1–6 L/min, about 24–44% oxygen — for mild hypoxia in a talking patient.
- Non-rebreather mask flow & oxygen %
Show answerHide answer
10–15 L/min, up to about 90% oxygen — for significant hypoxia, patient still breathing adequately.
- Bag-valve-mask oxygen %
Show answerHide answer
Up to ~100% with a reservoir at 15 L/min — for inadequate or absent breathing.
- Oxygen target SpO₂
Show answerHide answer
At least 94%; titrate the device to the need.
- Suspected heart attack (ACS) — EMT care
Show answerHide answer
Rest, oxygen only if hypoxic, aspirin 162–324 mg chewed (no allergy/bleed), and assist the patient's own nitroglycerin.
- Aspirin dose for ACS
Show answerHide answer
162–324 mg chewed, if no allergy and no active bleeding.
- When to hold nitroglycerin
Show answerHide answer
Low systolic BP, a recent PDE-5 inhibitor (e.g., sildenafil), or per local protocol.
- Hypoglycemia signs
Show answerHide answer
Rapid-onset altered mental status, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tremor, slurred speech, sometimes seizures.
- EMT treatment for conscious hypoglycemia
Show answerHide answer
Oral glucose between the cheek and gum — only if the patient is awake and can swallow.
- Can an EMT give IV dextrose?
Show answerHide answer
No — IV dextrose is AEMT-level. EMTs give oral glucose only.
- Stroke screen (3 signs)
Show answerHide answer
Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale: facial droop, arm drift, abnormal speech.
- Most important info to relay for a stroke
Show answerHide answer
The last-known-well time — it determines hospital treatment options.
- Anaphylaxis first-line treatment
Show answerHide answer
Intramuscular epinephrine into the lateral thigh (EMT assists the patient's auto-injector / per protocol).
- Opioid overdose — EMT priority
Show answerHide answer
Support ventilation FIRST (BVM + oxygen), then give naloxone and titrate to adequate breathing.
- Asthma/COPD wheezing — EMT action
Show answerHide answer
Coach and assist the patient's own metered-dose inhaler (albuterol); give oxygen.
- Seizure care
Show answerHide answer
Protect from injury, do not restrain or put anything in the mouth, then protect the airway afterward.
- Conscious choking adult
Show answerHide answer
Abdominal thrusts until relieved or the patient becomes unresponsive (then begin CPR).
- Rule of nines (adult)
Show answerHide answer
Head 9%, each arm 9%, each leg 18%, anterior trunk 18%, posterior trunk 18%, genitals 1%.
- Burn care (EMT)
Show answerHide answer
Stop the burning, remove jewelry/non-adhered clothing, cover with a dry sterile dressing, keep warm — never ice, ointments, or pop blisters.
- Airway burn warning signs
Show answerHide answer
Singed nasal hair, soot in the mouth, hoarseness, or stridor — anticipate airway swelling.
- Open (sucking) chest wound
Show answerHide answer
Seal with an occlusive (vented) dressing; burp it if a tension pneumothorax develops.
- Tension pneumothorax signs
Show answerHide answer
Severe dyspnea, absent breath sounds on one side, distended neck veins, hypotension, late tracheal deviation.
- Impaled object
Show answerHide answer
Stabilize it in place — do NOT remove it (unless it blocks the airway or chest compressions).
- Evisceration (exposed organs)
Show answerHide answer
Cover with a moist sterile dressing; never push organs back in.
- Splinting principle
Show answerHide answer
Immobilize the joint above and below the injury; check distal CMS before and after.
- Spinal motion restriction
Show answerHide answer
Applied selectively by criteria (e.g., NEXUS), not automatically on every trauma patient.
- Late-pregnancy transport position
Show answerHide answer
Tilted onto the LEFT side to avoid supine hypotensive syndrome.
- Painless bright-red 3rd-trimester bleeding
Show answerHide answer
Suspect placenta previa — no vaginal exam, treat for shock, position left side, transport.
- Newborn care order
Show answerHide answer
Warm, dry, position, stimulate — then assess the heart rate.
- Newborn HR below 100
Show answerHide answer
Begin positive-pressure ventilation (BVM) — heart rate is the key newborn sign.
- Pediatric bradycardia usually means…
Show answerHide answer
Hypoxia — open the airway and oxygenate/ventilate.
- Heat stroke (vs heat exhaustion)
Show answerHide answer
Hot skin and altered mental status — a true emergency needing rapid active cooling and transport.
- Hypothermia handling
Show answerHide answer
Handle gently (rough movement can trigger V-fib), remove wet clothing, rewarm, and give warm oxygen.
- Activated charcoal
Show answerHide answer
Given only per medical direction for certain ingested poisons; not for caustics, hydrocarbons, or an unprotected airway.
- Carbon monoxide and SpO₂
Show answerHide answer
CO falsely reads a normal SpO₂ — give high-flow oxygen and remove the patient from the source.
- Behavioral emergency restraints
Show answerHide answer
Use only when necessary, monitored, and per protocol — never prone (positional asphyxia risk).
- Simple face mask oxygen
Show answerHide answer
6–10 L/min, about 40–60% oxygen — moderate hypoxia.
- Venturi mask
Show answerHide answer
Delivers a precise oxygen concentration — useful for COPD patients.
- Flail chest
Show answerHide answer
Two or more adjacent ribs broken in two or more places, causing paradoxical chest-wall motion — support ventilation.
- Cushing's triad
Show answerHide answer
Hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations — a late sign of rising intracranial pressure.
- Traction splint use
Show answerHide answer
For an isolated mid-shaft femur fracture (not for joint, lower-leg, or open pelvic injuries).
- Pelvic fracture care
Show answerHide answer
Major hemorrhage risk — use a pelvic binder, handle gently, and treat for shock.
- Compartment syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Pain out of proportion, pallor, and paresthesia in a limb — do not elevate or ice; transport.
- Eye injury with impaled object
Show answerHide answer
Stabilize the object, cover both eyes (to limit movement), and transport.
- Chemical burn to the eye
Show answerHide answer
Irrigate continuously with water/saline from the inner to outer eye, and transport.
- Nosebleed (epistaxis) care
Show answerHide answer
Have the patient sit, lean forward, and pinch the soft part of the nose.
- Dehydration/heat exhaustion
Show answerHide answer
Move to a cool place, rest, give fluids if alert and able to swallow, and monitor — can progress to heat stroke.
- Frostbite handling
Show answerHide answer
Do not rub the area or let it refreeze; protect and transport for controlled rewarming.
- Sepsis recognition
Show answerHide answer
Suspected infection plus poor perfusion (fever or low temp, fast HR, fast RR, altered mentation) — oxygen, fluids per ALS, rapid transport.
- Preeclampsia/eclampsia
Show answerHide answer
New high BP after 20 weeks with headache/visual changes; eclampsia adds seizures — calm, left-side, transport.
- Prolapsed umbilical cord
Show answerHide answer
Place mother knee-chest (or hips-up), relieve cord pressure with a gloved hand, give oxygen, and transport rapidly.
- APGAR score
Show answerHide answer
Newborn assessment at 1 and 5 minutes: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration — each 0–2 (max 10).
- Opioid toxidrome
Show answerHide answer
Pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and a decreased level of consciousness.
- Excited delirium
Show answerHide answer
Severe agitation with hyperthermia — high risk of sudden death; minimize struggle, monitor, and get ALS.
- Spinal immobilization criteria (NEXUS)
Show answerHide answer
No midline tenderness, no focal deficit, normal alertness, no intoxication, no distracting injury → SMR not required.
- Emergency move
Show answerHide answer
Used only for immediate danger, to reach a critical patient, or to access another patient — otherwise use proper body mechanics.
Operations (41)
- What is START triage?
Show answerHide answer
Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment — sorts MCI patients by respirations, perfusion, and mental status.
- First step of START triage
Show answerHide answer
Ask everyone who can walk to move to one area — they are Green (Minor).
- START categories
Show answerHide answer
Black (deceased/expectant), Red (immediate), Yellow (delayed), Green (minor).
- START 'Immediate' (Red) criteria
Show answerHide answer
Breathing >30/min, no radial pulse (or cap refill >2 s), OR cannot follow commands.
- Pediatric triage method
Show answerHide answer
JumpSTART.
- What is an MCI?
Show answerHide answer
A mass-casualty incident — one whose needs exceed the resources on scene.
- What is ICS?
Show answerHide answer
The Incident Command System — the standardized NIMS structure for organizing personnel and resources at an incident.
- Hazmat zones
Show answerHide answer
Hot (contamination), Warm (decontamination corridor), Cold (safe staging/command).
- Which hazmat zone do EMTs work in?
Show answerHide answer
The cold zone — never enter the hot zone without proper training and PPE.
- Driving 'due regard'
Show answerHide answer
Operating the ambulance safely for others even with lights/sirens; slow at intersections (most crashes) and wear seatbelts.
- Expressed consent
Show answerHide answer
Permission to treat given by an informed, competent adult.
- Implied consent
Show answerHide answer
The legal assumption that an unconscious/incapacitated patient would consent to life-saving care.
- Consent for a minor
Show answerHide answer
From a parent or legal guardian; implied consent covers a true emergency when none is reachable.
- Refusal of care
Show answerHide answer
A competent adult may refuse, even life-saving care — ensure it is informed and document thoroughly.
- What is abandonment?
Show answerHide answer
Ending care without transferring the patient to a provider of equal or higher training.
- What is duty to act?
Show answerHide answer
An on-duty provider's legal obligation to respond and provide care within their scope.
- Negligence (4 elements)
Show answerHide answer
Duty, breach of duty, damages, and causation (the breach caused the harm).
- Purpose of the patient care report (PCR)
Show answerHide answer
A legal record that supports continuity of care; must be accurate, objective, and complete.
- HIPAA
Show answerHide answer
Protects patient health-information privacy — share only with those involved in care or as the law requires.
- Honoring a DNR
Show answerHide answer
Follow a valid Do Not Resuscitate order/advance directive; when in doubt or invalid, begin resuscitation.
- Mandatory reporting
Show answerHide answer
Report suspected child/elder abuse and other conditions specified by state law.
- Air-medical transport
Show answerHide answer
Consider for critical, time-sensitive patients with a prolonged ground transport.
- Closed-loop communication
Show answerHide answer
Repeating back an order or hand-off to confirm it was heard correctly.
- Stages of the grief response
Show answerHide answer
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance (Kübler-Ross) — may appear in patients and families.
- Phases of extrication
Show answerHide answer
Gain access, assess/stabilize, disentangle, and remove — patient care drives the process.
- Triage tag purpose
Show answerHide answer
Quickly communicates a patient's priority category to other responders at an MCI.
- Re-triage
Show answerHide answer
Patients are reassessed as conditions change — a Yellow can become a Red.
- Greatest good for the greatest number
Show answerHide answer
The guiding principle of MCI triage — resources go where they save the most lives.
- Decontamination before transport
Show answerHide answer
Hazmat patients are decontaminated in the warm zone before they are loaded for transport.
- Battery vs assault
Show answerHide answer
Battery = unlawful touching (treating without consent); assault = creating fear of harmful contact.
- False imprisonment
Show answerHide answer
Unlawfully restraining or transporting a competent patient against their will.
- Good Samaritan laws
Show answerHide answer
May protect off-duty providers acting in good faith within their training — they don't cover gross negligence.
- Scope vs standard of care
Show answerHide answer
Scope = what your level/state allows; standard of care = what a similarly trained provider would do in the same situation.
- Hand-off report (SBAR)
Show answerHide answer
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation — a structured patient hand-off to the receiving staff.
- Continuity of care
Show answerHide answer
Passing complete, accurate information to the next provider so care isn't interrupted — the goal of a hand-off and PCR.
- EMS quality improvement
Show answerHide answer
Reviewing run reports and outcomes to find and fix gaps — improves the whole system over time.
- Mutual aid
Show answerHide answer
Help requested from neighboring agencies when an incident exceeds local resources.
- Staging area
Show answerHide answer
A safe location where incoming units wait for assignment at a large incident.
- Span of control (ICS)
Show answerHide answer
One supervisor manages about 3–7 people (ideally 5) to keep an incident manageable.
- Defensive driving — intersections
Show answerHide answer
Most ambulance crashes happen at intersections — slow, clear each lane, and proceed only when safe.
- Documentation errors
Show answerHide answer
Correct an error with a single line through it, initial it, and write the correction — never erase or obscure.
References
- 1.NREMT. “EMT Candidate Handbook — About the Examination (Cognitive Exam).” NREMT.org. ↑
- 2.NHTSA, Office of EMS. “National EMS Scope of Practice Model.” ems.gov. ↑
- 3.American Heart Association. “CPR & Emergency Cardiovascular Care Guidelines.” cpr.heart.org. ↑

Career Employer
Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.
All PostsCareer Employer’s Editorial Process
Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.
