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Your FREE ASCP PBT Flashcards 2026 – 200+ Cards

Realistic, ASCP-aligned PBT flashcards — flip, match, type, and quiz yourself, all at the Phlebotomy Technician level.

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Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of ASCP PBT cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the ASCP BOC Phlebotomy Technician content areas, so you study exactly what the PBT exam tests.[1] Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide.

ASCP PBT Flashcard Study Modes

Most flashcard sites give you one thing: a card to flip. Ours has four modes so you can both learn the material and prove you know it — the difference between recognizing an answer and recalling it under pressure.

  • Flip (Study) — the classic card. Flip term ↔ definition, shuffle the deck, and mark each card “Got it” or “Still learning.”
  • Match (Game) — a timed game: pair each term to its definition as fast as you can. Great for cementing tube colors, additives, and the order of draw.
  • Type (Recall) — read the definition and type the term. Typing forces true active recall instead of passive recognition.
  • Quiz (Test) — multiple-choice questions generated from the cards, so you can self-test exactly like exam day.
Free ASCP PBT flashcards from Career Employer — active recall for the ASCP Phlebotomy Technician exam

Why Flashcards Work for the ASCP PBT Exam

Flashcards aren’t busywork — they’re built on active recall: pulling an answer out of memory strengthens it far more than re-reading notes. Pair that with spacing — short sessions across several days rather than one cram — and you retain more in less time.

That matters on the PBT, where facts like the order of draw, the tube colors and additives, the needle gauges, and the venipuncture steps must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.

ASCP PBT Flashcards by Topic

The cards are organized by the ASCP BOC content areas. Weight your study toward the heaviest one — Specimen Collection is 45–50% of the exam:[1]

ASCP PBT content areas and their weight
ASCP PBT content areaWeight
Specimen Collection45–50%
Specimen Handling, Transport & Processing15–20%
Laboratory Operations15–20%
Circulatory System5–10%
Waived & Point-of-Care Testing5–10%
Non-Blood Specimens5–10%

How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards

  • Start early, review daily. Begin flashcards as you cover each content area, not the week before — a few minutes a day beats one marathon session.
  • Use Type and Quiz, not just Flip. Recognizing the right answer is easy; recalling and choosing it is the real test.
  • Drill the order of draw and tube additives hardest. They are the densest, most-tested PBT content — make them automatic.
  • Mirror the exam weighting. Spend the most time on Specimen Collection — at 45–50% it carries the most points.
  • Lock in the high-yield traps. The reversed capillary order, the 9:1 citrate fill, and hemolysis effects are repeatable points.
  • Then prove it. When the cards feel easy, confirm with our practice questions — aim for 80%+ before exam day.

ASCP PBT Flashcards FAQ

Hundreds of free ASCP PBT flashcards, organized across the six ASCP Board of Certification content areas tested on the Phlebotomy Technician exam — from the order of draw and tube additives through venipuncture and skin-puncture technique, specimen handling, point-of-care testing, non-blood specimens, and laboratory operations. They're free to use with no account required.

ASCP PBT flashcard bank

All 248 cards, by topic

A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.

Circulatory System (34)

Three layers of a blood vessel wall (tunics)
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Tunica intima (inner endothelial lining), tunica media (middle muscle layer that controls diameter), tunica externa/adventitia (outer anchoring connective tissue).

Function of the tunica media
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The middle muscular/elastic layer that controls vessel diameter and blood flow (vasoconstriction/vasodilation).

Direction arteries carry blood
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AWAY from the heart, under high pressure, with thick muscular walls (no valves).

Direction veins carry blood
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BACK to the heart, at low pressure, with one-way valves — the routine venipuncture target.

Which artery is the exception that carries deoxygenated blood?
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The pulmonary artery — it carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs.

Where does gas/nutrient exchange actually occur?
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In the capillaries — vessels one cell thick where oxygen, nutrients, and waste diffuse between blood and tissue.

Most muscular heart chamber and why
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The left ventricle — it pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta against the highest (systemic) pressure.

Path of blood through the heart (simplified)
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Body → right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta → body.

What does 'systole' mean?
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The contraction phase of the heart when blood is pumped out of the ventricles.

What does 'diastole' mean?
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The relaxation phase of the heart when the chambers fill with blood.

Which artery supplies the heart muscle (myocardium)?
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The coronary arteries (which branch off the aorta).

Three formed elements of blood
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Red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets (thrombocytes).

Function of red blood cells
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Carry oxygen (via hemoglobin) from the lungs to the tissues.

Function of white blood cells
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Defend the body against infection (immune response).

Function of platelets
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Initiate clotting (hemostasis) by forming a platelet plug at an injury.

Approximate composition of whole blood
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About 55% plasma (liquid) and 45% formed elements (cells).

Difference between plasma and serum
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Plasma (from an anticoagulated tube) still contains fibrinogen; serum (from a clotted tube) has NO fibrinogen or clotting factors.

Which tube produces serum?
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A tube allowed to clot — red (no additive/clot activator) or gold SST (clot activator + gel).

Which tubes produce plasma?
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Anticoagulated tubes — e.g. green (heparin), lavender (EDTA), light blue (citrate).

Preferred vein for venipuncture
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The median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa — large, well-anchored, away from artery and nerve.

Second-choice venipuncture vein
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The cephalic vein (lateral, thumb side of the forearm).

Last-choice venipuncture vein and why
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The basilic vein (medial) — used last because it lies near the brachial artery and median nerve.

Where is the antecubital fossa?
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The inner bend (anterior surface) of the elbow — the primary region for routine venipuncture.

Best way to locate a vein
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Palpation (feel) — a vein you can feel bounce is patent; do not rely on sight alone.

What is hemostasis?
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The body's process of stopping bleeding: vascular spasm, platelet plug, and the coagulation cascade forming fibrin.

Role of fibrinogen in clotting
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It is converted to fibrin, the mesh that stabilizes a clot; it is present in plasma but absent in serum.

Universal red-cell donor / recipient blood types
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Type O is the universal red-cell donor; type AB is the universal recipient.

What does the Rh factor refer to?
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The D antigen on red blood cells — present = Rh-positive, absent = Rh-negative.

What is hematology?
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The study of blood and blood-forming tissues, including cell counts like the CBC.

What does 'lumen' mean?
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The hollow interior channel of a blood vessel through which blood flows.

Sign of an accidental arterial puncture
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Bright-red, pulsing, rapidly filling blood — remove the needle and apply firm pressure.

What are venules and arterioles?
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The smallest veins (venules) and smallest arteries (arterioles) that connect to capillary beds.

Where are heart valves and their job?
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Between chambers and at the great vessels; they keep blood flowing one way and prevent backflow.

What is an erythrocyte vs a leukocyte?
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Erythrocyte = red blood cell (oxygen carrier); leukocyte = white blood cell (immune defense).

Specimen Collection (84)

CLSI order of draw (venous)
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Blood culture → light blue (citrate) → red/gold serum (SST) → green (heparin) → lavender (EDTA) → gray (fluoride/oxalate).

Why blood cultures are drawn first
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To keep the specimen sterile and avoid false-positive contamination from skin flora.

Why EDTA (lavender) is drawn near the end
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EDTA carryover into a later tube falsely raises potassium and lowers calcium, skewing chemistry results.

Light blue tube — additive and tests
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Sodium citrate; coagulation tests (PT/INR, aPTT, D-dimer).

Red / gold (SST) tube — additive and tests
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None or clot activator (± gel); serum chemistry and serology.

Green tube — additive and tests
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Heparin (lithium or sodium); plasma chemistry and stat electrolytes.

Lavender / pink tube — additive and tests
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EDTA; CBC and HbA1c (pink top = blood bank).

Gray tube — additive and tests
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Sodium fluoride + potassium oxalate; glucose and lactate.

Yellow tube — additive and tests
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SPS (blood cultures) or ACD (blood bank / DNA / paternity).

How sodium citrate prevents clotting
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It REVERSIBLY binds (chelates) calcium needed for clotting.

How EDTA prevents clotting
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It IRREVERSIBLY binds (chelates) calcium, preserving cell shape for the CBC.

How heparin prevents clotting
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It potentiates antithrombin, inhibiting thrombin and clot formation.

How sodium fluoride preserves glucose
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It is antiglycolytic — it stops blood cells from consuming glucose.

Required citrate (light blue) fill ratio
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9:1 blood-to-additive; must be filled to the line.

What happens if a citrate tube is underfilled?
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Excess citrate over-binds the lab's calcium reagent, falsely prolonging PT/aPTT (raising INR) — the lab rejects it.

Routine venipuncture needle gauge
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21–23 gauge (21 G is the standard).

Butterfly (winged set) needle gauge
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23–25 gauge — for small, fragile, or hand veins.

Rule about needle gauge numbers
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A HIGHER number = a SMALLER bore (counterintuitive).

Which way does the needle bevel face?
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Up (bevel-up) on insertion.

Needle insertion angle
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About 15–30° to the arm.

Maximum tourniquet application time
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No more than 1 minute.

What does a prolonged tourniquet cause?
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Hemoconcentration — falsely elevated proteins, potassium, and cell counts.

Where is the tourniquet applied?
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3–4 inches above the intended puncture site.

Minimum number of patient identifiers
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At least two — typically full name and date of birth.

Identifier you must NEVER use
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The room or bed number (patients move).

When and where are tubes labeled?
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At the bedside, in the patient's presence, immediately after the draw.

Antiseptic for routine venipuncture
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70% isopropyl alcohol — applied in a circular motion and allowed to air-dry.

Antiseptic for blood cultures
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Chlorhexidine (or povidone-iodine), not plain alcohol, because sterility is critical.

Antiseptic for a blood-alcohol draw
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A non-alcohol antiseptic (e.g. povidone-iodine) so the prep can't affect the result.

Sites to avoid for venipuncture
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Mastectomy side, an arm with an IV, hematomas, scarred/burned/edematous skin, and AV fistulas.

Why avoid the mastectomy side?
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Lymphedema and infection risk — draw from the opposite arm.

Why avoid an arm with a running IV?
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IV fluid contaminates and dilutes the sample — use the other arm or draw below the IV.

Reversed (capillary) order of draw
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Blood gas → EDTA (lavender) FIRST → other additives → serum LAST.

Why EDTA is collected first in a skin puncture
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The puncture activates platelets immediately, so the cell count must be collected before clumping skews it.

Infant heel-stick site
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The medial or lateral plantar (side) surface of the heel — never the center or arch (to avoid bone).

Why warm an infant's heel before a heel stick?
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Warming increases blood flow to the site, improving collection.

First drop in a capillary/dermal puncture
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Wipe it away — it contains tissue fluid that can skew results.

Effect of 'milking' (excessive squeezing) a finger/heel
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It hemolyzes the sample and adds tissue fluid — apply only gentle, intermittent pressure.

Equipment system preferred for multi-tube draws
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The evacuated tube system (ETS) — holder, double-ended needle, and self-filling vacuum tubes.

When is a syringe used instead of ETS?
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For fragile or difficult veins where vacuum pressure might collapse the vein.

Discard tube use with a butterfly + citrate tube
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Draw a discard tube first to fill the tubing's dead space so the citrate ratio is correct.

STAT vs routine vs timed orders
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STAT = immediate; routine = standard turnaround; timed = drawn at a specific time (e.g. drug peak/trough, GTT).

Number of inversions for an additive tube
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Gently invert (don't shake) — typically 8–10 times for most additive tubes, 3–4 for citrate.

Glucose tolerance test (GTT) procedure
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Fasting baseline draw, a measured glucose load, then timed draws (e.g. 1- and 2-hour).

Therapeutic drug monitoring — what to record
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The exact time of collection relative to the dose (peak vs trough).

A trough drug level is drawn when?
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Just BEFORE the next dose (lowest concentration).

A peak drug level is drawn when?
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After the dose has distributed (highest concentration), per the drug's timing.

Best action for a fainting-prone patient
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Have them lie down or sit in a reclining chair for the draw.

What is a fasting specimen?
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Drawn after no food or caloric drinks (water allowed), typically 8–12 hours, for tests like fasting glucose.

Is a lipid panel still fasting?
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Current guidance makes non-fasting the routine default; a fast is reserved for very high triglycerides or a lipid workup.

What is the basal state?
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Early morning, rested, fasting — the condition that gives the most reproducible results.

Which analytes have diurnal variation?
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Cortisol and serum iron (both peak in the morning) — draw at the time the test specifies.

Three types of consent
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Informed (understands procedure), expressed (explicit verbal/written), implied (inferred — e.g. arm extended).

Consent for a minor
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Requires a parent's or legal guardian's permission.

What if a patient refuses a draw?
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Do not force it — document the refusal and notify the nurse or provider.

Anchoring the vein
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Pull the skin taut below the site to stabilize the vein before insertion.

When is the safety device activated?
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Immediately when the needle leaves the arm — before disposal.

Why never recap a used needle by hand?
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High needlestick risk; OSHA prohibits it — drop sharps directly into the container.

Order: release tourniquet vs remove needle
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Release the tourniquet before withdrawing the needle.

Two common tests using a lavender (EDTA) tube
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Complete blood count (CBC) and HbA1c.

Test using a light blue (citrate) tube
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Coagulation studies — PT/INR and aPTT.

What is the antecubital 'H' vs 'M' pattern?
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Common arrangements of the median cubital, cephalic, and basilic veins in the antecubital fossa.

Best practice if you can't find a vein within a minute
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Release the tourniquet, wait, then reapply — don't leave it on.

Recommended number of venipuncture attempts before escalating
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About two attempts, then ask another phlebotomist or escalate — avoid blind probing.

Why let alcohol air-dry before puncture?
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Wet alcohol can cause a stinging sensation, hemolysis, and a false result; let it dry.

What is a winged blood-collection set?
Show answer

A butterfly — flexible tubing with a small-gauge needle for fragile/hand veins.

Why is the basilic vein risky?
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It sits near the brachial artery and median nerve — higher risk of arterial puncture or nerve injury.

Patient position for an outpatient draw
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Seated with the arm supported and extended downward; reclining if syncope-prone.

Blood culture set — how many and from where?
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Often two sets from two separate sites to distinguish true infection from contamination.

Why adequate volume matters for a blood culture
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Too little blood is the most common cause of a false-negative culture.

Order of draw memory phrase
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'Studies Begin Right Going Lab Gray' — Sterile, Blue, Red, Green, Lavender, Gray.

Tube for stat electrolytes
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Green (heparin) tube for rapid plasma chemistry.

Pink-top tube use
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EDTA tube designated for blood bank (type and screen / crossmatch).

Equipment to verify before a draw
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Tube expiration dates, the right additives, correct needle, and that supplies are sterile/intact.

What is a 'short draw' / QNS coag tube outcome?
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Rejected — the 9:1 ratio is off, invalidating PT/aPTT.

Why patient identification is so critical
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Misidentification is a leading cause of transfusion errors and one of the most serious pre-analytical errors.

What does the requisition tell you?
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Which tubes to collect, required volume, special handling, and the timing of the draw.

How to handle a discrepancy between order and wristband
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Stop and resolve it before drawing — never assume.

Skin-puncture vs venipuncture — sample type
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Skin puncture yields capillary (mixed arterial-venous + tissue fluid) blood; venipuncture yields venous blood.

Two reasons to choose a skin puncture
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Small sample volume needed (infants) or poor venous access.

Why not perform a heel stick on an older child?
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The heel bone is close to the surface only in infants; older children/adults use a fingerstick.

Preferred fingerstick site
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The side of the middle or ring fingertip, slightly off-center, perpendicular to the fingerprint lines.

Common cause of clotted EDTA tube
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Failure to mix (invert) the tube promptly after collection.

Why invert tubes gently rather than shake?
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Shaking hemolyzes the sample; gentle inversion mixes additive without rupturing cells.

Specimen Handling, Transport, and Processing (40)

Most common specimen-rejection reasons
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Hemolysis, clotted tube, QNS/wrong fill, mislabeled/unlabeled, wrong tube/additive, and improper handling.

What is hemolysis?
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Rupture of red blood cells releasing their contents — makes serum pink/red and falsely raises K, LDH, AST.

Common causes of hemolysis
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Needle too small, forceful draw, shaking tubes, prolonged tourniquet, drawing from a hematoma.

Action for a mislabeled tube
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Never relabel — reject and recollect using two identifiers.

What does QNS mean?
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Quantity Not Sufficient — too little specimen (or wrong ratio) to run the test.

What is accessioning?
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Logging a received specimen into the lab system and assigning a unique tracking number.

Required tube label information
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Patient name, ID, date of birth, date and time of collection, and the collector's initials.

Clotting time before spinning an SST
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About 30 minutes at room temperature for full clotting.

Clotting time before spinning a plain red tube
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About 60 minutes at room temperature.

What happens if you centrifuge serum too early?
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Incomplete clotting leaves fibrin strands that interfere with the analyzer.

Time limit to separate serum/plasma from cells
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Within about 2 hours of collection.

Why separate serum/plasma from cells promptly?
Show answer

Cells alter glucose, potassium, and other analytes over time.

Can you re-centrifuge a gel (SST) tube?
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No — re-spinning can release analytes from cells trapped above the gel.

Centrifuge balancing rule
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Always place tubes of equal weight opposite each other; an unbalanced centrifuge is unsafe.

What is an aliquot?
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A measured portion poured off from the primary specimen for separate testing, labeled to match it.

Specimens that must be CHILLED on ice
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Ammonia, lactate, and arterial blood gases.

Specimen that must be PROTECTED from light
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Bilirubin (use an amber tube or wrap in foil).

Specimens that must be KEPT WARM (37°C)
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Cold agglutinins and cryoglobulins (they precipitate when cooled).

Risk of pneumatic-tube transport
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It can hemolyze fragile specimens — some samples must be hand-carried.

What is a critical (panic) value?
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A result so abnormal it requires immediate provider notification.

First action for an unlabeled specimen arriving in the lab
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Reject it; do not test or relabel — the patient must be recollected.

Why measure temperature on a frozen-section / fresh specimen?
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To verify the specimen meets the test's required transport/storage conditions.

How are most lab errors classified?
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Pre-analytical (collection/handling) — the phlebotomist's domain — outnumber analytical and post-analytical errors.

Three phases of laboratory testing
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Pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical.

What is lipemia and its effect?
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Cloudy, fatty serum (high triglycerides) that can interfere with some assays.

What is icterus?
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Yellow serum discoloration from high bilirubin.

Storage for a specimen that can't be processed immediately
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Follow the test's requirement — refrigerate, freeze, keep at room temp, chill, or keep warm as specified.

Why is mixing additive tubes important?
Show answer

Inadequate mixing causes microclots that invalidate the result (especially the CBC).

What invalidates a coagulation specimen besides clotting?
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An underfilled tube (wrong 9:1 ratio) or a hemolyzed/contaminated sample.

Transport requirement for a 24-hour urine
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Keep cold (refrigerated/on ice) during the collection and transport.

Acceptable add-on test window
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Depends on the analyte's stability in the already-collected specimen — some are too degraded to add on.

Why label at the bedside, not at the desk?
Show answer

To prevent mixing up tubes from different patients — the most dangerous labeling error.

What does centrifugation separate?
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Cells (bottom) from serum or plasma (top); a gel barrier forms in an SST.

Effect of leaving blood on the cells too long (glucose)
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Glycolysis lowers the glucose result over time (unless a fluoride tube was used).

Specimen requirement for potassium accuracy
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Avoid hemolysis and prolonged cell contact — both falsely raise potassium.

Why does hemolysis raise potassium?
Show answer

Potassium is concentrated inside red cells; rupture releases it into the serum/plasma.

Special handling for newborn screening cards
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Collected as dried blood spots on filter paper; air-dry, don't stack or contaminate, and mail promptly.

What is specimen integrity?
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Whether the sample is suitable for testing — correct type, volume, additive, and handling, free of hemolysis/clots.

First step if a specimen looks hemolyzed
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Note it, and recollect if the test is affected — many analytes can't be reported from a hemolyzed sample.

Why is turnaround time tracked?
Show answer

It is a quality-improvement metric; delays can affect patient care, especially for STAT tests.

Waived and Point-of-Care Testing (POCT) (25)

What is point-of-care testing (POCT)?
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Laboratory testing performed at or near the patient (bedside, clinic) rather than in a central lab.

What makes a test 'CLIA-waived'?
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The FDA cleared it as simple and low-risk for error, so it can run outside a high-complexity lab.

Examples of CLIA-waived tests
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Glucose meters, hemoglobin/hematocrit, PT/INR, urine dipstick, and rapid strep/flu/pregnancy/COVID kits.

Most critical step for POCT accuracy
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Run quality control and follow the manufacturer's instructions exactly.

Internal vs external QC
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Internal = built-in electronic/onboard check; external = liquid control samples with known values.

What to do if a control is out of range
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STOP — do not report patient results; troubleshoot, check reagent/storage, and rerun QC first.

Cause of a falsely LOW point-of-care glucose
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Expired/improperly stored strip, insufficient sample, or a malfunctioning/cold device.

Why follow manufacturer storage instructions for strips?
Show answer

Strips/cartridges are temperature- and humidity-sensitive; improper storage invalidates results.

What does a POCT 'error' message mean?
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A problem with the sample or device — repeat with a fresh strip/sample per the instructions; don't force a result.

What is calibration in POCT?
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Setting the device against a known standard so its readings are accurate; done per the manufacturer's schedule.

Test monitored by PT/INR at the point of care
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Warfarin (anticoagulant) therapy.

Common waived urinalysis method
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A reagent dipstick read for glucose, protein, pH, blood, leukocytes, ketones, etc.

Sample type for a rapid strep test
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A throat swab of the tonsils and posterior pharynx.

Sample for a urine pregnancy (hCG) test
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Urine (ideally first-morning, most concentrated) — or serum for a quantitative test.

Why document POCT QC?
Show answer

Regulatory requirement (CLIA) and proof the result is reliable for patient care.

Who may perform waived testing?
Show answer

Trained, competency-assessed operators following the manufacturer's instructions.

What does a control with a KNOWN value confirm?
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That the device and reagent are working before patient samples are run.

Hemoglobin vs hematocrit
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Hemoglobin = oxygen-carrying protein concentration; hematocrit = the % of blood volume that is red cells.

Risk of an expired reagent strip
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Inaccurate (often falsely low/high) results — always check the expiration date.

First action before any POCT patient test
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Confirm QC has passed and the device is calibrated and in date.

What is competency assessment for POCT?
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Periodic verification that an operator can correctly perform the test and QC.

Why is POCT used despite a central lab?
Show answer

Faster turnaround at the bedside for time-critical results (e.g. glucose, INR).

Effect of an insufficient POCT blood drop
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An error or a falsely low result — apply enough sample per the device.

Lot-to-lot verification for reagents
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When a new reagent lot is opened, run QC to confirm it performs like the previous lot.

Document updated for each new reagent lot
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The QC log / reagent log (lot number, expiration, and QC results).

Non-Blood Specimens (25)

Random urine specimen
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Any voided sample, collected at any time — used for routine urinalysis.

Clean-catch midstream urine — why and how
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Cleanse first, begin the stream, then catch the middle — minimizes contamination for a culture.

24-hour urine collection procedure
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Discard the first void (note the time), collect every void for 24 hours kept cold, end with a final void.

Why discard the first void in a 24-hour urine?
Show answer

To start the timed clock with an empty bladder so the result reflects exactly 24 hours.

What invalidates a 24-hour urine?
Show answer

Missing or discarding any void during the collection window.

First-morning urine — why preferred
Show answer

It is the most concentrated — best for pregnancy and microalbumin testing.

Best time to collect a sputum culture
Show answer

Early morning, as a deep cough (not saliva).

Stool occult-blood test prep
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May require avoiding red meat and certain medications for a few days beforehand.

Sweat-chloride test — what it diagnoses
Show answer

Cystic fibrosis (collected by iontophoresis/pilocarpine stimulation).

Throat swab technique
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Swab the tonsils and posterior pharynx, avoiding the tongue and cheeks.

Nasopharyngeal swab use
Show answer

Recovering respiratory viruses/bacteria (e.g. flu, COVID, pertussis) — insert along the nasal floor.

Breath test examples
Show answer

Urea breath test for H. pylori; hydrogen breath test for lactose intolerance.

Why use transport media for swabs?
Show answer

To keep the organism viable until it reaches the lab for culture.

Container for a 24-hour urine with a preservative
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A large container that may contain an acid or other preservative — verify the test requirement first.

Specimen-test correlation example
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CSF for meningitis, urine for UTI, sputum for pneumonia — the right specimen for the right test.

Why measure urine temperature in a drug screen?
Show answer

To confirm a fresh, unadulterated (not substituted) specimen right after collection.

Chain of custody — definition
Show answer

Documented, unbroken, tamper-evident handling of a specimen from collection to testing, with signed transfers.

When is a chain of custody required?
Show answer

For forensic/legal specimens — most often urine drug screens and blood-alcohol tests.

Patient instruction for a clean-catch
Show answer

Wipe front-to-back/clean the area, void a little, then collect midstream into the sterile cup.

CSF specimen — who collects it?
Show answer

A physician (lumbar puncture); the phlebotomist/lab processes and routes the tubes in order.

Stool culture purpose
Show answer

Detect enteric pathogens (bacteria/parasites) causing GI infection.

Why is a sputum sample sometimes rejected?
Show answer

If it is mostly saliva rather than lower-respiratory secretions.

Buccal swab use
Show answer

Collecting cheek cells for DNA/genetic testing.

Semen analysis handling
Show answer

Collected per strict instructions and delivered to the lab within a short, specified time, kept near body temperature.

Sterile container — when required
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For any culture (urine, sputum, swab) to prevent contamination from skewing the result.

Laboratory Operations (40)

Difference between QC and QA
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QC = day-to-day checks that a test runs correctly; QA = ongoing monitoring of the whole process (all three phases).

What is a delta check?
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A QC comparison of a patient's current result with a recent prior one; a big unexpected change flags a possible error.

What is proficiency testing?
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External unknown samples sent to the lab to verify its results agree with peer laboratories.

What is competency assessment?
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Periodic verification that staff can correctly and safely perform their tasks.

Phase where most lab errors occur
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Pre-analytical (patient prep, collection, handling, labeling).

Purpose of an incident/occurrence report
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To document and track errors and near-misses for quality improvement.

What does CLIA regulate?
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All clinical laboratory testing on humans in the U.S. (administered by CMS).

Role of CAP and The Joint Commission
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Laboratory accreditation and inspection.

Role of CLSI
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Develops consensus standards (e.g. the order of draw, specimen labeling and handling).

Role of OSHA in the lab
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Workplace safety — including the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard.

Role of DOT / IATA
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Regulate shipping/transport of infectious substances (Category A and B).

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard citation
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29 CFR 1910.1030.

Key employer duties under the BBP Standard
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Provide free PPE, safety-engineered sharps, sharps containers, a free hepatitis B vaccine, and an exposure-control plan.

Rule about used needles
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Never recap, bend, or break by hand — drop directly into the sharps container.

Sharps container requirements
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Closable, puncture-resistant, leak-proof, biohazard-labeled, at the point of use.

What are standard precautions?
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Treat every patient's blood and body fluids as potentially infectious — hand hygiene, gloves, PPE.

Single most important infection-control measure
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Hand hygiene before and after every patient.

PPE donning order
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Gown → mask → eye protection → gloves.

PPE removal (doffing) order
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Gloves → eye protection → gown → mask, then hand hygiene.

Immediate steps after a needlestick
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Wash the site with soap and water, report immediately, and follow the exposure-control plan.

When to offer the hepatitis B vaccine
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Free, within 10 working days of assignment to at-risk duties.

What is HIPAA?
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Federal law protecting a patient's protected health information (PHI).

How to handle PHI
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Access/share only on a need-to-know basis; keep requisitions and screens secure; never discuss patients publicly.

A phlebotomist's scope of practice
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Collect, handle, and process specimens — not diagnose or interpret results.

Negligence vs malpractice
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Negligence = failure to exercise reasonable care; malpractice = negligence by a professional in their duties.

What is a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
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A document describing a chemical's hazards, handling, storage, and first aid — kept accessible to staff.

First action for a chemical spill
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Protect yourself/others and follow the SDS and facility spill procedure; contain and report it.

What is the principle of 'lean' in the lab?
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Reducing waste and non-value steps to improve efficiency and turnaround.

What is Six Sigma in the lab?
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A data-driven quality method aimed at reducing errors/defects in processes.

Document updated when a new reagent lot is used
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The reagent/QC log (lot number, expiration, QC results).

What does a 'critical value' require?
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Immediate notification of the provider and documentation of the read-back.

What is turnaround time (TAT)?
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The time from order/collection to result reporting — a key quality metric.

Routes of pathogen transmission
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Contact, droplet, airborne, vector, and vehicle (blood/fluids) — standard precautions reduce them.

When are isolation/transmission-based precautions used?
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In addition to standard precautions for patients with specific contagious infections.

Category A vs B infectious substance shipping
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Category A = capable of causing permanent disability/death (stricter packaging); Category B = most diagnostic specimens.

Purpose of a fire-safety plan (RACE)
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Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate — the response to a lab fire.

What is informed consent (lab context)?
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The patient agrees to the procedure after understanding its purpose and risks.

Why decontaminate work surfaces?
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To kill pathogens between patients/spills — use an approved disinfectant per facility policy.

What is an ABN (Advance Beneficiary Notice)?
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A notice that a test may not be covered, so the patient may be responsible for payment.

Why is patient confidentiality a legal duty?
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HIPAA mandates it; breaches can result in penalties and loss of trust.

References

  1. 1.ASCP Board of Certification (BOC). “Phlebotomy Technician, PBT(ASCP) — Content Guideline & Credential Page.” ASCP.org. ↑
  2. 2.Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI). “Collection of Diagnostic Venous Blood Specimens (PRE02/GP41) & Capillary Blood Specimens (GP42).” CLSI.org. ↑
  3. 3.National Institutes of Health / National Library of Medicine. “StatPearls (venipuncture, blood collection tubes, hemolysis, vascular anatomy).” NIH/NLM. ↑
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