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FREE ABIM Study Guide 2026: Internal Medicine Boards

The highest-yield content the ABIM Internal Medicine Certification exam tests — an interactive study guide built on the official blueprint, organized by organ system, with diagrams, checkpoints, and built-in flashcards.

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This free ABIM study guide walks through the highest-yield content the exam tests — organized by organ system and built directly on the official ABIM blueprint.[1]

It is interactive, not a wall of text: every organ system has worked clinical reasoning, comparison tables, labeled diagrams, per-module checkpoints, and built-in flashcards — taught to the level a board-eligible internist is expected to reach.

Read it system by system, then round out your prep with our practice questions and flashcards. The exam has up to 240 questions (about 205 scored) in four sessions on one day and is reported Pass/Fail against an absolute standard.[3]

ABIM Internal Medicine Exam Snapshot

ABIM Internal Medicine Certification at a glance (2026)
DetailABIM Internal Medicine Certification
QuestionsUp to 240 single-best-answer MCQ (~35 unscored pretest → ~205 scored)
StructureFour sessions (blocks), up to 60 questions and up to 2 hours each
Total time~10 hours; 100 minutes of break time across up to 3 breaks
FormatComputer-based at a Pearson VUE test center; some items include images/ECGs
ScoringCriterion-referenced (Angoff), 200–800 scale; reported Pass/Fail (no published cut point)
Pass rate (1st-time)86–88% in recent years (2025: 86%)
Fee1,430initial(+1,430 initial (+400 late) — dated anchor, verify on abim.org
EligibilityCompleted ACGME-accredited IM residency + unrestricted medical license
When offeredAnnually in August (multiple dates)
Issued byAmerican Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM)

Six organ systems carry the exam. Cardiovascular Disease alone is 14% of the items, and the next five — Pulmonary, Gastroenterology, Infectious Disease, Rheumatology/Orthopedics, and Endocrinology — are 9% each.[1]

Together those six are over half the test, so they deserve the bulk of your study time. The remaining categories (Hematology, Oncology, Nephrology at 6% each, then Neurology, Psychiatry, and the smaller fields) round it out.

ABIM Internal Medicine weighting by Medical Content Category
Cardiovascular Disease14% · the single largest category
Pulmonary Disease9%
Gastroenterology9%
Infectious Disease9%
Rheumatology & Orthopedics9%
Endocrinology, Diabetes & Metabolism9%
Hematology6%
Medical Oncology6%
Nephrology & Urology6%
Neurology4%
Psychiatry4%
Dermatology / OB-GYN / Geriatrics3% · 3% each
Allergy/Immunology, Misc, Ophtho, ENT2% · 1–2% each

This guide groups the 18 categories into eight teaching modules by organ system so the content is easy to navigate — all 18 official categories are covered, organized into eight study modules. [1] Because every item is a single-best-answer clinical vignette, the skill the exam rewards is the same in every module: read the stem for the task (most likely diagnosis, best test, best next step, mechanism, or prognosis), then choose the one best answer.

How the ABIM Blueprint Is Built

The ABIM Internal Medicine Certification exam is built from a published blueprint that assigns each item to a Medical Content Category (an organ system or specialty) with a fixed relative weight.[1] It also weaves in cross-content areas— Critical Care, Prevention, Clinical Epidemiology, Ethics, Nutrition, Palliative and End-of-Life Care, Patient Safety, and Substance Abuse — that appear inside those categories rather than as a separate weighted axis. So a single question can be “Pulmonary Disease” (the content category) and also test “Critical Care” and “Ethics” at once.

Scoring is : the passing standard is an absolute benchmark set by the ABIM board using the Angoff method, reported on a 200–800 scaled score and ultimately as Pass or Fail.[3] Your result does not depend on how other candidates perform, ABIM does not publish the numeric cut point, and unanswered questions are counted as incorrect — so you should answer every item.

Most items are clinical patient scenarios that test diagnosis, test interpretation, treatment, and risk or prognosis; some include photographs, radiographs, ECGs, or heart and lung sounds.[2] The modules below teach the highest-yield disease for each system the way the exam asks it — by the best next step, not by rote lists.

Cardiovascular Disease

Cardiovascular Disease is the single largest category at 14% — about 29 of the scored items — so it is where the most points live.[1] The exam concentrates on acute coronary syndrome, heart failure, arrhythmias, valvular disease, and hypertension. A 5% Hypertension block is counted here but is cross-cutting with endocrine and renal causes of secondary hypertension.

Coronary Disease, ACS & Heart Failure

is the dominant cardiac topic. A — new ST elevation in two or more contiguous leads (or a new LBBB) with ischemic symptoms — demands emergent reperfusion, with primary PCI the goal within 90 minutes.

Without ST elevation, a rising defines an NSTEMI, while a normal troponin with ischemic symptoms is unstable angina. All ACS gets aspirin, a P2Y12 inhibitor, anticoagulation, and a high-intensity statin; secondary prevention adds a beta-blocker and an ACE inhibitor or ARB.

For heart failure, the most important distinction is ejection fraction. (EF ≤40%) is treated with the four guideline pillars — an ARNI (or ACE inhibitor/ARB), a beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor — which reduce mortality.[6]

(EF ≥50%) is managed with diuresis, comorbidity control, and SGLT2 inhibitors. Loop diuretics relieve congestion but do not improve survival.

Arrhythmias, Valves & Vascular Disease

Atrial fibrillation is an irregularly irregular rhythm with no discrete P waves; manage it with rate or rhythm control plus stroke prevention guided by the score (direct oral anticoagulants preferred, except mechanical valves and rheumatic mitral stenosis, which need warfarin).

For valves, memorize the murmurs: aortic stenosis is a crescendo–decrescendo systolic murmur radiating to the carotids with the triad of angina, syncope, and heart failure; mitral regurgitation is holosystolic at the apex radiating to the axilla; aortic regurgitation is an early diastolic decrescendo murmur with a wide pulse pressure.

Round out the system with pericarditis (diffuse ST elevation with PR depression, a friction rub, pain relieved by sitting forward), tamponade (Beck triad with pulsus paradoxus), peripheral artery disease (an ankle–brachial index ≤0.90), and lipid management (high-intensity statin for clinical ASCVD, LDL ≥190, or diabetes age 40–75).

High-yield murmurs
LesionMurmurKey clue
Aortic stenosisCrescendo–decrescendo systolic, radiates to carotidsAngina, syncope, heart failure
Mitral regurgitationHolosystolic at apex, radiates to axillaVolume overload, LA enlargement
Aortic regurgitationEarly diastolic decrescendoWide pulse pressure, water-hammer pulse
Mitral stenosisOpening snap + diastolic rumbleRheumatic; atrial fibrillation
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathySystolic, LOUDER with Valsalva/standingYoung athlete, risk of sudden death

Checkpoint · Cardiovascular Disease

Question 1 of 10

Which feature on physical examination and electrocardiography is most characteristic of atrial fibrillation?

Pulmonary & Critical Care

Pulmonary Disease is 9% of the exam, and Critical Care is one of the cross-content areas woven through it.[1] The big topics are obstructive airway disease, the evaluation of dyspnea and cough, pulmonary embolism, pleural disease, and the management of respiratory failure and shock in the ICU.

Asthma, COPD & Interstitial Disease

The cardinal distinction is reversibility: asthma airflow obstruction is largely reversible with a bronchodilator, while is incompletely reversible, confirmed by a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC below 0.70.

Asthma is controlled with an inhaled corticosteroid as the cornerstone (adding a LABA and escalating), and a COPD exacerbation is treated with bronchodilators, systemic corticosteroids, and antibiotics when sputum becomes more purulent (consider noninvasive ventilation for hypercapnic failure).

For interstitial lung disease, recognize idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (a progressive restrictive pattern with honeycombing/UIP on HRCT) and sarcoidosis (non-caseating granulomas with bilateral hilar adenopathy and elevated ACE/calcium).

PE, Pleural Disease & the ICU

Diagnose with CT pulmonary angiography, using D-dimer to rule it out when pretest probability is low or moderate; a hemodynamically unstable (massive) PE warrants systemic thrombolysis plus anticoagulation.

Sort a pleural effusion with Light’s criteria into exudate (infection, malignancy, PE) versus transudate (heart failure, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome). In the ICU, treat with lung-protective, low-tidal-volume ventilation, and manage with early cultures, antibiotics within an hour, fluid resuscitation, and norepinephrine as the first-line vasopressor for septic shock.[7]

Pleural effusion — Light's criteria (exudate if any one is met)
CriterionExudate threshold
Pleural / serum protein ratioGreater than 0.5
Pleural / serum LDH ratioGreater than 0.6
Pleural fluid LDHGreater than two-thirds the upper limit of normal serum LDH
Common exudate causesParapneumonic/empyema, malignancy, PE
Common transudate causesHeart failure, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome

Checkpoint · Pulmonary & Critical Care

Question 1 of 10

A 64-year-old man with a 40-pack-year smoking history reports chronic productive cough and progressive dyspnea. Post-bronchodilator spirometry shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62. Which finding is required to confirm a diagnosis of COPD?

Gastroenterology & Hepatology

Gastroenterology is 9% and spans the luminal gut and the liver, pancreas, and biliary tree.[1] Expect questions on reflux and ulcer disease, inflammatory bowel disease, GI bleeding, pancreatitis, and the complications of chronic liver disease.

Esophagus, Stomach, Bowel & GI Bleeding

Recognize GERD alarm features (dysphagia, weight loss, bleeding, anemia, new symptoms after 60) that mandate endoscopy, and treat peptic ulcer disease by addressing its two main causes, H. pylori and NSAIDs (test-and-treat H. pylori with PPI-based triple or quadruple therapy).

Distinguish : ulcerative colitis is continuous, mucosal, and limited to the colon from the rectum up, while Crohn disease has transmural skip lesions anywhere from mouth to anus, with granulomas and fistulae. For GI bleeding, melena and a high BUN/creatinine ratio point above the ligament of Treitz, while hematochezia points below it.

Liver, Pancreas & Biliary Disease

Diagnose acute pancreatitis when two of three are present — characteristic epigastric pain, lipase or amylase at least three times the upper limit, or imaging findings — with gallstones and alcohol the leading causes.

For , master the complications and their treatments: variceal bleeding (octreotide, prophylactic antibiotics, band ligation), ascites with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (ascitic neutrophils ≥250/µL → a third-generation cephalosporin), and hepatic encephalopathy (lactulose titrated to 2–3 stools per day, plus rifaximin).

Recognize the named liver diseases: hemochromatosis (iron overload, treated with phlebotomy), Wilson disease (copper, low ceruloplasmin, Kayser-Fleischer rings), and primary biliary cholangitis (anti-mitochondrial antibody, treated with ursodiol).

Ulcerative colitis vs Crohn disease
FeatureUlcerative colitisCrohn disease
DistributionContinuous, rectum upward, colon onlySkip lesions, mouth to anus
DepthMucosa/submucosaTransmural
Classic complicationsToxic megacolon, colon cancerFistulae, strictures, abscesses
Histology clueCrypt abscessesNon-caseating granulomas
SmokingProtective (paradoxically)Worsens disease

Checkpoint · Gastroenterology & Hepatology

Question 1 of 10

A 28-year-old woman has 6 months of bloody diarrhea, urgency, and lower abdominal cramping. Colonoscopy shows continuous inflammation extending from the rectum proximally to the splenic flexure with no skip areas, and biopsies show crypt abscesses limited to the mucosa. Which feature best supports ulcerative colitis rather than Crohn disease in this patient?

Infectious Disease

Infectious Disease is 9% and rewards a syndrome-based approach: match the presentation to the likely organisms, then choose empiric therapy and narrow it with cultures.[1] The exam also tests infection control and antimicrobial stewardship.

Sepsis, Pneumonia & Endocarditis

Treat community-acquired pneumonia in a healthy outpatient with amoxicillin or doxycycline (or a respiratory fluoroquinolone), and cover Pseudomonas and MRSA for hospital-acquired pneumonia based on local risk. Diagnose infective endocarditis with the Duke criteria, drawing three sets of blood cultures before antibiotics and looking for vegetations on echocardiography.

Approach with the time-critical bundle and remember source control — drain abscesses and remove infected lines and devices — is as important as the antibiotic. Always tap an acutely hot joint to exclude septic arthritis before attributing it to gout.

HIV, TB & Antimicrobial Stewardship

Start antiretroviral therapy in everyone with HIV regardless of CD4 count, and add prophylaxis as immunity falls (TMP-SMX for Pneumocystiswhen CD4 <200). For tuberculosis, treat active disease with the four-drug RIPE regimen (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol) and latent infection with isoniazid, rifampin, or a short combination course.

Practice stewardship: narrow therapy once cultures return, use the shortest effective duration, and do not treat asymptomatic bacteriuria (except in pregnancy or before a urologic procedure). Know the hepatitis serologies — HBsAg means infection, anti-HBs means immunity, and anti-HBc IgM means acute hepatitis B.

Empiric therapy for common ID syndromes
SyndromeEmpiric approachKey point
Outpatient CAP (healthy)Amoxicillin or doxycyclineRespiratory fluoroquinolone if comorbidities
Bacterial meningitisVancomycin + ceftriaxoneAdd ampicillin (Listeria) if >50 or immunocompromised; dexamethasone for pneumococcus
Infective endocarditis3 blood-culture sets first, then antibiotics by organismDuke criteria; echo for vegetations
Neutropenic feverAnti-pseudomonal beta-lactam (e.g., cefepime)Within the hour — oncologic emergency
Asymptomatic bacteriuriaDo NOT treatExceptions: pregnancy, pre-urologic procedure

Checkpoint · Infectious Disease

Question 1 of 10

A 60-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is admitted with severe community-acquired pneumonia requiring intensive care. The treating team wants empiric coverage that includes atypical pathogens. Which empiric regimen best meets the standard recommendation for an inpatient with severe community-acquired pneumonia and no specific risk factors for resistant organisms?

Nephrology, Endocrine & Metabolism

This module combines Nephrology/Urology (6%) with Endocrinology, Diabetes, and Metabolism (9%) — together a large, electrolyte-heavy slice where careful arithmetic earns points.[1]

AKI, CKD, Electrolytes & Acid–Base

Classify as prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal, and use the fractional excretion of sodium to separate prerenal injury (FENa <1%, bland sediment) from acute tubular necrosis (FENa >2%, muddy-brown casts).[8] Stage chronic kidney disease by GFR and albuminuria, slowing progression with blood-pressure control, ACE inhibitors/ARBs, and SGLT2 inhibitors.

For electrolytes, treat hyperkalemia in order — calcium to stabilize the membrane, then insulin with glucose (or albuterol) to shift potassium, then remove it — and correct hyponatremia slowly (≤8 mEq/L per 24 hours) to avoid osmotic demyelination. For acid–base, always compute the .

Diabetes, Thyroid, Adrenal & Bone

For type 2 diabetes, start metformin plus lifestyle and add a GLP-1 receptor agonist or SGLT2 inhibitor for their proven cardiorenal benefit. Recognize and treat with fluids, an insulin infusion, and potassium repletion, continuing insulin until the anion gap closes.[9]

Use TSH to screen thyroid function (high in hypothyroidism, low in hyperthyroidism), and know the endocrine emergencies — thyroid storm, myxedema coma, adrenal crisis. For adrenal disease, primary insufficiency presents with fatigue, hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia (low cortisol, high ACTH), while a pheochromocytoma needs alpha-blockade before beta-blockade. Treat osteoporosis (a T-score ≤ −2.5 or a fragility fracture) with bisphosphonates plus calcium and vitamin D.

Prerenal AKI vs acute tubular necrosis
FindingPrerenalATN (intrinsic)
FENaLess than 1%Greater than 2%
Urine osmolalityHigh (concentrated)Near isosthenuric (~300)
Urine sedimentBland / hyaline castsMuddy-brown granular casts
BUN/creatinine ratioGreater than 20:1Around 10–15:1
Response to fluidsCreatinine improvesNo quick improvement

Checkpoint · Nephrology, Endocrine & Metabolism

Question 1 of 10

A 78-year-old man on a thiazide diuretic for hypertension is admitted with lethargy. Serum sodium is 122 mmol/L, he is clinically hypovolemic with dry mucous membranes and flat neck veins, urine sodium is 12 mmol/L, and his blood urea nitrogen to creatinine ratio is elevated. Which is the most appropriate initial treatment for his hyponatremia?

Hematology & Oncology

Hematology and Medical Oncology are 6% each.[1] Hematology centers on the anemias, coagulation and platelet disorders, and the blood cancers; oncology emphasizes the common solid tumors, cancer screening, and the oncologic emergencies you must recognize on sight.

Anemias, Coagulation & Blood Cancers

Work up anemia by cell size: microcytic suggests iron deficiency (low ferritin, high TIBC — find the GI source in adults) or thalassemia; macrocytic suggests B12 or folate deficiency (only B12 deficiency causes neurologic deficits). Hemolysis shows a high LDH and indirect bilirubin, low haptoglobin, and high reticulocytes.

Among platelet and coagulation disorders, separate immune thrombocytopenia (isolated low platelets), thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (the pentad with ADAMTS13 deficiency — urgent plasma exchange), and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (a platelet drop 5–10 days after heparin with thrombosis — stop all heparin). Recognize the blood cancers by their hallmark: multiple myeloma by CRAB (hyperCalcemia, Renal failure, Anemia, Bone lesions) and an M-spike; acute promyelocytic leukemia by t(15;17) and DIC, treated with all-trans retinoic acid.

Solid Tumors, Screening & Emergencies

For prevention, internalize the screening ages: colorectal cancer from age 45, low-dose CT for high-risk smokers 50–80, mammography for average-risk women (commonly 40–50 depending on the guideline), and shared decision-making for prostate PSA at 55–69.[10]

Then know the oncologic emergencies cold: (high potassium, phosphate, and uric acid with low calcium after treating bulky tumors — hydrate and give allopurinol/rasburicase), spinal cord compression (back pain with neurologic deficits → emergent MRI and steroids), superior vena cava syndrome, hypercalcemia of malignancy, and febrile neutropenia (empiric antibiotics within the hour).

Microcytic anemia — iron deficiency vs thalassemia vs chronic disease
AnemiaFerritinKey distinguisher
Iron deficiencyLowHigh TIBC; find the bleeding source
ThalassemiaNormalNormal/high RBC count; abnormal hemoglobin electrophoresis
Anemia of chronic diseaseNormal to highLow TIBC; treat the underlying disease

Checkpoint · Hematology & Oncology

Question 1 of 10

A 42-year-old woman with heavy menstrual bleeding reports fatigue and exertional dyspnea. Her hemoglobin is low, the mean corpuscular volume is reduced, the serum ferritin is markedly low, and the total iron-binding capacity is elevated. Which diagnosis best fits this pattern?

Rheumatology & Musculoskeletal

Rheumatology and Orthopedics is 9%.[1] The exam rewards matching a serologic pattern and a joint distribution to the right systemic disease, then choosing first-line therapy.

RA, SLE & the Vasculitides

is symmetric small-joint (MCP/PIP) inflammation with morning stiffness over an hour and positive RF/anti-CCP; methotrexate is the anchor DMARD, and early treatment prevents erosions. is multisystem; ANA is the sensitive screen, while anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith are specific, and complement (C3/C4) falls during flares.

For , separate the ANCA-associated small-vessel diseases — GPA (c-ANCA/PR3) and MPA (p-ANCA/MPO), which cause pulmonary–renal syndromes — from large-vessel giant cell arteritis (headache, jaw claudication, vision loss, high ESR in patients over 50), which is treated with immediate high-dose steroids before biopsy to protect vision.

Crystal Arthritis, Spondyloarthritis & OA

is monosodium urate (negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals); treat the acute flare with NSAIDs, colchicine, or steroids, and prevent recurrence with allopurinol to a urate below 6 mg/dL. Pseudogout is calcium pyrophosphate (positively birefringent, rhomboid crystals; chondrocalcinosis on X-ray).

The seronegative spondyloarthritides — ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic, reactive, and IBD-associated — share HLA-B27, inflammatory back pain that improves with exercise, and enthesitis. Osteoarthritis, by contrast, worsens with use, has brief stiffness, and lacks systemic features, treated with exercise, weight loss, and analgesics.

Crystal arthropathies — gout vs pseudogout
FeatureGoutPseudogout (CPPD)
CrystalMonosodium urateCalcium pyrophosphate
Shape / birefringenceNeedle, negatively birefringentRhomboid, positively birefringent
Classic jointFirst MTP (podagra)Knee, wrist
Imaging clueErosions with overhanging edgesChondrocalcinosis
Urate-loweringAllopurinol (target <6 mg/dL)Not applicable

Checkpoint · Rheumatology & Musculoskeletal

Question 1 of 10

A 52-year-old woman reports six months of symmetric pain and swelling in the small joints of both hands and wrists, with morning stiffness lasting more than an hour that improves with activity. Examination shows boggy synovitis of the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. Which pattern of joint involvement most strongly supports a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis rather than osteoarthritis?

Neurology, Psychiatry, Dermatology & General Internal Medicine

This module covers Neurology (4%), Psychiatry (4%), Dermatology (3%), Geriatric Syndromes (3%), and the cross-content areas — Prevention, Clinical Epidemiology, and Ethics — that ABIM weaves throughout.[1] Smaller categories (OB/GYN, Allergy/Immunology, Ophthalmology, ENT) live here too.

Stroke, Seizures, Mood & Key Rashes

For , a non-contrast head CT first rules out hemorrhage; then give IV thrombolysis within 4.5 hours and consider thrombectomy for a large-vessel occlusion (selected patients up to 24 hours). Treat status epilepticus (a seizure over 5 minutes) with a benzodiazepine, then a loading antiepileptic.

In psychiatry, treat major depression (≥5 SIG-E-CAPS symptoms for two weeks) with an SSRI plus psychotherapy, and avoid antidepressant monotherapy in bipolar disorder (it can precipitate mania). Recognize the drug-related emergencies — serotonin syndrome (clonus, hyperreflexia, hyperthermia) and neuroleptic malignant syndrome (rigidity, fever, high CK).

In dermatology, the must-not-miss diagnoses are Stevens-Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis (drug-induced sloughing with a positive Nikolsky sign — stop the drug) and melanoma (the ABCDE warning signs).

Geriatrics, Prevention & Biostatistics

Geriatrics tests the syndromes — delirium (acute, fluctuating inattention; prevent with reorientation, mobility, and sleep), falls (review medications, vision, gait), polypharmacy (the Beers criteria), and decision-making capacity. Prevention questions hinge on the immunization schedule and the USPSTF screening recommendations.

For biostatistics, know that rules a disease OUT on a negative result (SnNout) and rules it IN on a positive result (SpPin); that positive predictive value rises with prevalence while likelihood ratios do not; and that the number needed to treat is the reciprocal of the absolute risk reduction.

Drug-related emergencies — recognize them on sight
SyndromeTriggerHallmark + treatment
Serotonin syndromeSerotonergic drugsClonus, hyperreflexia, hyperthermia → stop drug, cyproheptadine
Neuroleptic malignant syndromeAntipsychoticsLead-pipe rigidity, fever, high CK → stop drug, dantrolene/bromocriptine
Stevens-Johnson / TENDrugs (sulfa, anticonvulsants)Mucosal sloughing, positive Nikolsky → stop drug, supportive care
AnaphylaxisAllergen/drug/insectAirway, hypotension, urticaria → IM epinephrine
A repeatable way to attack any ABIM clinical vignette
  1. 1

    Step 1

    Read the LAST line first — identify the task: most likely diagnosis, best test, best next step, mechanism, or prognosis.

  2. 2

    Step 2

    Build the picture: age, risk factors, the key history and exam finding, and the single most discriminating lab, image, or ECG.

  3. 3

    Step 3

    Form the leading diagnosis BEFORE reading the options, so attractive distractors don't pull you off it.

  4. 4

    Step 4

    Pick the BEST answer for the task — the first-line treatment, the confirmatory test, or the correct next step (not just a true statement).

  5. 5

    Step 5

    Answer every item (blanks count as wrong); flag the hard ones and return with time to spare.

Checkpoint · Neurology, Psychiatry, Derm & General IM

Question 1 of 10

A 58-year-old man with chronic alcohol use is admitted after several days of poor intake. Over hours he develops confusion, horizontal gaze-evoked nystagmus, and a wide-based unsteady gait. Which immediate intervention is most appropriate before giving intravenous glucose?

How to Use This Study Guide

Work through the guide one organ system at a time. After each one, check it off in the contents to raise your exam-readiness score, then drill the same content in our free practice questions and flashcards — active recall and timed practice are what move knowledge into exam-day performance.

  • Study by the blueprint. The big six — Cardiovascular, Pulmonary, GI, Infectious Disease, Rheumatology, and Endocrine — are over half the exam. Spend your time where the points are.
  • Learn the best next step, not lists. The exam is single-best-answer vignettes; for each disease, fix the one fact that drives management (the confirmatory test, the first-line drug, the emergent intervention).
  • Master the emergencies. STEMI, massive PE, sepsis, tumor lysis, cord compression, GCA, DKA, and the drug-related syndromes are guaranteed, recognizable points.
  • Read for the task. A topic can be asked as diagnosis, mechanism, best test, or best next step — identify what the stem is actually asking before you read the options.
  • Pace yourself. About two minutes per item across four sessions is comfortable; answer every question (blanks count as wrong) and flag the hard ones to revisit.
  • Then prove it. When a system feels solid, confirm with timed practice questions and build a comfortable margin before exam day.

Common internal-medicine concepts ABIM candidates study and get asked — each answered briefly and backed by an official source (ABIM, NIH, CDC, or the USPSTF). Tap any card to test yourself.

ABIM Concept Questions

ABIM Internal Medicine Glossary

Key ABIM Internal Medicine terms in one place. Hover any dotted term throughout the guide for its definition; the full list is below.

ABIM
The American Board of Internal Medicine — the member board of the ABMS that develops and administers the Internal Medicine Certification (board) examination and sets its passing standard.
Internal Medicine Certification
ABIM's initial board exam: up to 240 single-best-answer questions (about 205 scored) in four sessions on one test day at a Pearson VUE center, reported Pass/Fail against an absolute standard.
acute coronary syndrome
The spectrum of acute myocardial ischemia — unstable angina, NSTEMI, and STEMI — defined by symptoms, ECG changes, and the troponin level.
STEMI
ST-elevation myocardial infarction: new ST elevation in ≥2 contiguous leads (or new LBBB) with ischemic symptoms — requires emergent reperfusion, preferably primary PCI.
HFrEF
Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (≤40%); treated with the four guideline pillars — an ARNI/ACEi/ARB, a beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor.
HFpEF
Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (≥50%) from diastolic dysfunction; managed with diuresis, comorbidity control, and SGLT2 inhibitors.
troponin
A cardiac protein released into blood when heart muscle is injured; a rising troponin distinguishes NSTEMI (myonecrosis) from unstable angina (normal troponin).
CHA₂DS₂-VASc
A stroke-risk score in atrial fibrillation; a score of ≥2 in men or ≥3 in women generally warrants anticoagulation.
COPD
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: chronic, incompletely reversible airflow limitation (post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC <0.70), strongly linked to smoking.
pulmonary embolism
A thrombus lodged in the pulmonary arteries causing dyspnea, pleuritic pain, and hypoxemia; diagnosed by CT pulmonary angiography, with D-dimer ruling it out at low pretest probability.
ARDS
Acute respiratory distress syndrome — acute hypoxemic respiratory failure with bilateral infiltrates not from cardiogenic edema; managed with lung-protective (low-tidal-volume) ventilation.
sepsis
Life-threatening organ dysfunction from a dysregulated host response to infection; managed with early cultures, antibiotics within an hour, and fluid resuscitation.
cirrhosis
Irreversible hepatic fibrosis with complications including varices, ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatorenal syndrome.
inflammatory bowel disease
Crohn disease (transmural, skip lesions, mouth-to-anus, granulomas/fistulae) and ulcerative colitis (continuous mucosal inflammation, rectum-up, colon only).
acute kidney injury
An abrupt fall in kidney function classified as prerenal (low perfusion), intrinsic (ATN, glomerulonephritis), or postrenal (obstruction).
anion gap
Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻); a high anion gap signals a metabolic acidosis from added acid (mnemonic MUDPILES).
diabetic ketoacidosis
A hyperglycemic emergency with anion-gap acidosis and ketosis (usually type 1); treated with IV fluids, insulin, and potassium repletion until the gap closes.
SIADH
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH — euvolemic hyponatremia with concentrated urine; treated with fluid restriction and the underlying cause.
rheumatoid arthritis
A systemic autoimmune disease causing symmetric small-joint inflammation with morning stiffness >1 hour and positive RF/anti-CCP; methotrexate is the anchor DMARD.
SLE
Systemic lupus erythematosus — a multisystem autoimmune disease; ANA is the sensitive screen, anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith are specific.
gout
A crystal arthropathy from monosodium urate deposition (negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals); flares treated with NSAIDs, colchicine, or steroids and prevented with allopurinol.
vasculitis
Inflammation of blood vessels; small-vessel ANCA-associated disease (GPA/MPA) and large-vessel giant cell arteritis are the high-yield ABIM entities.
tumor lysis syndrome
An oncologic emergency after treating bulky tumors: high potassium, phosphate, and uric acid with low calcium; prevented with hydration and allopurinol/rasburicase.
ischemic stroke
An acute neurologic deficit from arterial occlusion; IV thrombolysis within 4.5 hours and thrombectomy for large-vessel occlusion (selected, up to 24 hours) are time-critical.
anion-gap mnemonic (MUDPILES)
Causes of high-anion-gap acidosis: Methanol, Uremia, DKA, Propylene glycol, Iron/INH, Lactic acidosis, Ethylene glycol, Salicylates.
sensitivity
The proportion of people WITH a disease who test positive (true-positive rate); a negative result on a highly sensitive test helps rule a disease OUT (SnNout).
specificity
The proportion of people WITHOUT a disease who test negative (true-negative rate); a positive result on a highly specific test helps rule a disease IN (SpPin).
criterion-referenced scoring
A passing standard set against an absolute benchmark (ABIM uses the Angoff method) rather than a curve — your pass/fail does not depend on how others score.

ABIM Study Guide FAQ

The ABIM Internal Medicine Certification exam has up to 240 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions, of which about 35 are unscored pretest items, so roughly 205 questions count toward your score. They are delivered in four sessions on one test day at a Pearson VUE center.

References

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