Is the NLN PAX still offered, or was it replaced?

The NLN replaced the PAX with the NLN Nursing Entrance Exam (NEX), which launched February 11, 2024; the legacy PAX was available only through May 31, 2024. As of 2026 the NEX is the live exam, though many programs still use the PAX name. Confirm with your nursing program before you register — the academic skills are the same on both.

What sections are on the NLN entrance exam and how many questions?

The exam has three timed subject tests — Verbal, Mathematics, and Science. The NEX administers 163 items total (145 scored plus 18 unscored pilot items): Verbal 50 scored, Math 40 scored, and Science 55 scored. Verbal covers Word Knowledge and Reading Comprehension; Math covers numbers, measurement, algebra, and data; Science covers biology, anatomy, physiology, chemistry, and health.

How is the NLN entrance exam scored?

You receive a composite score (0–300) plus separate Verbal, Mathematics, and Science scores, reported as percent correct and converted into national percentile ranks. A percentile shows how you compare with other test takers rather than against a fixed passing line. Unanswered items count as incorrect, and there is no penalty for guessing.

What score do I need to pass the NLN entrance exam?

There is no universal passing score because it is an admissions tool — the NLN does not set a passing mark. Each nursing program sets its own minimum percentiles, though an illustrative composite at the 50th percentile is around 145. Check your specific program's requirements.

What is the difference between the PAX and the new NEX?

The NEX is the successor to the PAX. It uses longer per-section timing (60 minutes per subject test versus 40 on the legacy PAX), provides an on-screen calculator for math, removes physics from Science, and reports against two 2024 reference groups (RN and LPN/VN). Both measure Verbal, Mathematics, and Science readiness.

Can I retake the NLN entrance exam?

Retake rules are set by the NLN and by individual programs, which may limit how often you can test and how recent scores must be. Because the PAX is retired, current retakes are on the NEX. Confirm retake and score-validity policies with your program.

How do I register for the NLN entrance exam and what does it cost?

Register through the National League for Nursing at nln.org or through your program's designated testing process; some schools administer it on campus. Fees and scheduling are set by the NLN and may vary, so verify the current fee, test dates, and ID requirements when you register.

In the context of a medical research article, if a study is described as "double-blind," what does this imply?

Both the researchers and participants are unaware of who is receiving a particular treatment.

The study is conducted without the researchers knowing the participants.

The study has been reviewed by two independent researchers.

The results of the study will be checked twice to ensure accuracy.

When a passage refers to an "empirical study," what is it emphasizing about the research?

The study is based on experimental or observational evidence.

The study is based on established theories.

The study relies on personal opinions and anecdotes.

The study's conclusions are speculative.

In a discussion on healthcare policy, if a proposal is termed "equitable," what is being emphasized about the policy?

It is universally applicable without bias or favoritism.

It is innovative and introduces new methods.

It focuses on the health sector exclusively.

A paragraph in a nursing journal discusses the "prophylactic use of antibiotics." What does this imply?

Antibiotics are used to prevent infections.

Antibiotics are used to treat existing infections.

Antibiotics are used in response to allergic reactions.

Antibiotics are utilized to research new diseases.

A study mentions "placebo-controlled" trials. What characteristic does this highlight about the study?

It includes a group receiving a treatment and a group not receiving any treatment.

It is conducted without a control group for comparison.

It compares results from different time periods.

It involves multiple interventions simultaneously.

If a text describes a medical approach as "holistic," what aspect of the approach is being highlighted?

It considers the patient's overall well-being, including physical, emotional, and social health.

It focuses on a single aspect of a patient's condition.

It involves a team of specialists from various fields.

It is a new and untested treatment method.

When a medical text refers to "nosocomial infections," to what is it referring?

Infections acquired in a healthcare setting.

Infections that are resistant to antibiotics.

Infections that are chronic and long-lasting.

If an article discusses the "etiologic agent" in the context of a disease, what is it referring to?

The organism or substance causing the disease.

The method used to diagnose the disease.

In a discussion about patient care, the term "palliative" is used. What does this imply about the type of care being provided?

It is care intended to alleviate symptoms without curing the disease.

It is care aimed at curing the disease.

It is the initial step in a treatment plan.

It is a one-time intervention to address a critical issue.

When a healthcare policy is described as "sustainable," what aspect of the policy is being emphasized?

It is affordable and can be maintained over time.

It is innovative and introduces new treatment methods.

It has been unanimously agreed upon by all stakeholders.

It is focused on environmental health.

In medical literature, when a treatment is described as "adjunctive," what is implied about its role in patient care?

It is used alongside the main treatment to enhance outcomes.

It is the primary and only treatment used.

It is an experimental treatment under trial.

It is a traditional remedy with historical significance.

If a healthcare protocol is described as "prognostic," what aspect of care does this term specifically relate to?

Predicting the likely outcome of a disease.

Preventing the spread of diseases.

When an article refers to the "pathophysiology" of a disease, what is being discussed?

The underlying physical and biological processes causing the disease.

The distribution and determinants of the disease in a population.

The prevention strategies for the disease.

The psychological impact of the disease on patients.

A study that employs "longitudinal" data collection is characterized by what?

Observing and collecting data from the same subjects repeatedly over a period of time.

Collecting data from different places to ensure variability.

Collecting data at one point in time from a large number of subjects.

Using historical data to predict future outcomes.

What does it indicate when a patient's condition is described as "idiopathic"?

The cause of the condition is unknown.

The condition is worsening rapidly.

In the context of medical results, what does it mean when findings are termed "statistically significant"?

The results are based on statistical probability and unlikely to be due to chance.

The results have a significant impact on the field of medicine.

The findings are supported by a large sample size.

The statistical methods used in the study are innovative.

What is implied when a condition is described as "benign" in a medical context?

The condition is mild or not harmful in effect.

The condition is life-threatening.

The condition is severe and requires immediate attention.

The condition is infectious and can spread rapidly.

If a therapy is described as "palliative" rather than "curative," what is its primary objective?

To alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life.

To provide a temporary solution.

When a patient's prognosis is described as "guarded," what does this suggest about their expected outcome?

The outcome is uncertain, and the condition may worsen or improve.

The outcome is very positive, with expectations of full recovery.

The patient is expected to experience a rapid recovery.

The condition is terminal with no chance of recovery.

In the context of clinical trials, what does a "crossover" study design imply?

Participants switch between treatment and control conditions at some point during the study.

Participants are randomly assigned to one of two or more treatment groups.

The study is conducted across multiple geographic locations.

Participants in the study are crossed over to different study phases without breaks.

Your FREE NLN PAX (Pre-Admission Examination) Practice Test 2026 – 360+ Q&A

Q: What is the NLN PAX exam and who makes it?

The NLN PAX (Pre-Admission Examination) is a nursing-school entrance exam created by the National League for Nursing (NLN). Nursing programs use it to screen RN and PN applicants. It measures academic readiness in three areas: Verbal, Mathematics, and Science.

Realistic NLN PAX nursing-school entrance practice questions across the Verbal, Mathematics, and Science sections, with instant scoring and answer explanations.

Master questions to boost your scoreMaster questions to raise your exam readiness score

How ready are you?

NLN PAX Practice Questions

In the context of a medical research article, if a study is described as "double-blind," what does this imply?
- The study is conducted without the researchers knowing the participants.
- Both the researchers and participants are unaware of who is receiving a particular treatment.
- The study has been reviewed by two independent researchers.
- The results of the study will be checked twice to ensure accuracy.
Correct answer: Both the researchers and participants are unaware of who is receiving a particular treatment.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: In a "double-blind" study, neither the researchers nor the participants know who is receiving the actual treatment and who is receiving a placebo, eliminating bias.
When a passage refers to an "empirical study," what is it emphasizing about the research?
- The study is based on established theories.
- The study relies on personal opinions and anecdotes.
- The study is based on experimental or observational evidence.
- The study's conclusions are speculative.
Correct answer: The study is based on experimental or observational evidence.
Correct answer: C. Explanation: "Empirical" indicates that the study is grounded in evidence gathered through experiments or observations, not just theory or opinion.
In a discussion on healthcare policy, if a proposal is termed "equitable," what is being emphasized about the policy?
- It is economically viable.
- It is universally applicable without bias or favoritism.
- It is innovative and introduces new methods.
- It focuses on the health sector exclusively.
Correct answer: It is universally applicable without bias or favoritism.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Equitable" refers to fairness and impartiality, suggesting the policy is designed to be just and fair to all parties involved.
A paragraph in a nursing journal discusses the "prophylactic use of antibiotics." What does this imply?
- Antibiotics are used to treat existing infections.
- Antibiotics are used to prevent infections.
- Antibiotics are used in response to allergic reactions.
- Antibiotics are utilized to research new diseases.
Correct answer: Antibiotics are used to prevent infections.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Prophylactic" means intended to prevent disease, so in this context, antibiotics are used to prevent, not treat, infections.
A study mentions "placebo-controlled" trials. What characteristic does this highlight about the study?
- It includes a group receiving a treatment and a group not receiving any treatment.
- It is conducted without a control group for comparison.
- It compares results from different time periods.
- It involves multiple interventions simultaneously.
Correct answer: It includes a group receiving a treatment and a group not receiving any treatment.
Correct answer: A. Explanation: In placebo-controlled trials, one group receives the actual treatment, while the other receives a placebo, serving as a control for comparison.
If a text describes a medical approach as "holistic," what aspect of the approach is being highlighted?
- It focuses on a single aspect of a patient's condition.
- It involves a team of specialists from various fields.
- It considers the patient's overall well-being, including physical, emotional, and social health.
- It is a new and untested treatment method.
Correct answer: It considers the patient's overall well-being, including physical, emotional, and social health.
Correct answer: C. Explanation: A "holistic" approach takes into account all facets of a person's health and well-being, not just the symptoms of a particular condition.
When a medical text refers to "nosocomial infections," to what is it referring?
- Infections that are resistant to antibiotics.
- Infections acquired in a healthcare setting.
- Infections that are airborne.
- Infections that are chronic and long-lasting.
Correct answer: Infections acquired in a healthcare setting.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Nosocomial infections" are those that patients acquire while receiving treatment for other conditions within a healthcare facility.
If an article discusses the "etiologic agent" in the context of a disease, what is it referring to?
- The cure for the disease.
- The method used to diagnose the disease.
- The organism or substance causing the disease.
- The symptoms of the disease.
Correct answer: The organism or substance causing the disease.
Correct answer: C. Explanation: The "etiologic agent" is the cause of a disease, such as a bacteria, virus, or other pathogen.
In a discussion about patient care, the term "palliative" is used. What does this imply about the type of care being provided?
- It is care aimed at curing the disease.
- It is care intended to alleviate symptoms without curing the disease.
- It is the initial step in a treatment plan.
- It is a one-time intervention to address a critical issue.
Correct answer: It is care intended to alleviate symptoms without curing the disease.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: Palliative care focuses on providing relief from the symptoms and stress of a serious illness, regardless of the diagnosis or stage of disease.
When a healthcare policy is described as "sustainable," what aspect of the policy is being emphasized?
- It is affordable and can be maintained over time.
- It is innovative and introduces new treatment methods.
- It has been unanimously agreed upon by all stakeholders.
- It is focused on environmental health.
Correct answer: It is affordable and can be maintained over time.
Correct answer: A. Explanation: Sustainability in healthcare policies implies that the initiatives can be continued over the long term without causing resource depletion or financial strain.
In medical literature, when a treatment is described as "adjunctive," what is implied about its role in patient care?
- It is the primary and only treatment used.
- It is used alongside the main treatment to enhance outcomes.
- It is an experimental treatment under trial.
- It is a traditional remedy with historical significance.
Correct answer: It is used alongside the main treatment to enhance outcomes.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Adjunctive" treatments are supplementary; they are used in addition to the primary treatment to improve patient outcomes.
If a healthcare protocol is described as "prognostic," what aspect of care does this term specifically relate to?
- Preventing the spread of diseases.
- Diagnosing a disease.
- Predicting the likely outcome of a disease.
- Treating a disease.
Correct answer: Predicting the likely outcome of a disease.
Correct answer: C. Explanation: "Prognostic" refers to the prediction of the course or outcome of a disease, offering an outlook on the patient's future health status.
When an article refers to the "pathophysiology" of a disease, what is being discussed?
- The distribution and determinants of the disease in a population.
- The prevention strategies for the disease.
- The underlying physical and biological processes causing the disease.
- The psychological impact of the disease on patients.
Correct answer: The underlying physical and biological processes causing the disease.
Correct answer: C. Explanation: Pathophysiology examines the disordered physiological processes associated with disease or injury.
A study that employs "longitudinal" data collection is characterized by what?
- Collecting data from different places to ensure variability.
- Collecting data at one point in time from a large number of subjects.
- Observing and collecting data from the same subjects repeatedly over a period of time.
- Using historical data to predict future outcomes.
Correct answer: Observing and collecting data from the same subjects repeatedly over a period of time.
Correct answer: C. Explanation: Longitudinal studies involve repeated observations of the same variables (such as people) over short or long periods of time.
What does it indicate when a patient's condition is described as "idiopathic"?
- The condition is worsening rapidly.
- The condition is improving.
- The cause of the condition is unknown.
- The condition is contagious.
Correct answer: The cause of the condition is unknown.
Correct answer: C. Explanation: "Idiopathic" refers to a condition or disease that arises spontaneously or for which the cause is unknown.
In the context of medical results, what does it mean when findings are termed "statistically significant"?
- The results are based on statistical probability and unlikely to be due to chance.
- The results have a significant impact on the field of medicine.
- The findings are supported by a large sample size.
- The statistical methods used in the study are innovative.
Correct answer: The results are based on statistical probability and unlikely to be due to chance.
Correct answer: A. Explanation: "Statistically significant" indicates that the results are not likely to have occurred by chance, according to a predefined threshold of probability.
What is implied when a condition is described as "benign" in a medical context?
- The condition is life-threatening.
- The condition is mild or not harmful in effect.
- The condition is severe and requires immediate attention.
- The condition is infectious and can spread rapidly.
Correct answer: The condition is mild or not harmful in effect.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: In a medical context, "benign" often refers to a condition, tumor, or growth that is not cancerous and does not pose a serious threat to health.
If a therapy is described as "palliative" rather than "curative," what is its primary objective?
- To cure the disease.
- To provide a temporary solution.
- To alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life.
- To diagnose the disease.
Correct answer: To alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life.
Correct answer: C. Explanation: Palliative care focuses on providing relief from the symptoms and stress of a serious illness, aiming to improve the quality of life rather than curing the disease.
When a patient's prognosis is described as "guarded," what does this suggest about their expected outcome?
- The outcome is very positive, with expectations of full recovery.
- The outcome is uncertain, and the condition may worsen or improve.
- The patient is expected to experience a rapid recovery.
- The condition is terminal with no chance of recovery.
Correct answer: The outcome is uncertain, and the condition may worsen or improve.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: A "guarded" prognosis indicates that it is uncertain whether the patient's condition will improve or deteriorate, showing caution in predicting the outcome.
In the context of clinical trials, what does a "crossover" study design imply?
- Participants are randomly assigned to one of two or more treatment groups.
- Participants switch between treatment and control conditions at some point during the study.
- The study is conducted across multiple geographic locations.
- Participants in the study are crossed over to different study phases without breaks.
Correct answer: Participants switch between treatment and control conditions at some point during the study.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: In a crossover study, participants receive multiple treatments in a sequential manner, allowing each participant to serve as their own control at different times.
Which word is most synonymous with "abstruse"?
- Obvious
- Esoteric
- Simple
- Common
Correct answer: Esoteric
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Abstruse" means difficult to understand; "esoteric" also means understood by only a small number of people with a specialized knowledge or interest, making it the most synonymous.
Choose the word that is most opposite in meaning to "mendicant".
- Altruist
- Philanthropist
- Benefactor
- Tycoon
Correct answer: Tycoon
Correct answer: D. Explanation: "Mendicant" refers to a beggar or someone who lives by asking for alms. A "tycoon" is a wealthy, powerful person in business or industry, making it the most opposite in meaning.
What does "sycophant" best describe?
- A courageous person
- A flatterer for personal gain
- A skilled artisan
- An honest broker
Correct answer: A flatterer for personal gain
Correct answer: B. Explanation: A "sycophant" is someone who acts obsequiously towards someone important in order to gain advantage; hence, a flatterer for personal gain.
Which word best describes something that is "ephemeral"?
- Permanent
- Lasting
- Transitory
- Endless
Correct answer: Transitory
Correct answer: C. Explanation: "Ephemeral" means lasting for a very short time, making "transitory" the best synonym as it also means not permanent or enduring.
The word "insipid" most closely means:
- Flavorful
- Dull
- Exciting
- Spicy
Correct answer: Dull
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Insipid" means lacking flavor or interest; thus, "dull" is the closest in meaning.
Choose the word that is most synonymous with "obdurate".
- Flexible
- Stubborn
- Yielding
- Compliant
Correct answer: Stubborn
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Obdurate" means stubbornly refusing to change one's opinion or course of action, making "stubborn" the most synonymous.
What does the word "taciturn" best describe?
- Talkative
- Reserved
- Garrulous
- Eloquent
Correct answer: Reserved
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Taciturn" describes a person who is reserved or says little, making "reserved" the most appropriate synonym.
Which word is most opposite in meaning to "prolific"?
- Fruitful
- Barren
- Productive
- Fertile
Correct answer: Barren
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Prolific" means producing much fruit or foliage or many offspring. "Barren" means not productive, making it the most opposite in meaning.
The word "conflagration" is most similar to:
- Flood
- Blizzard
- Inferno
- Earthquake
Correct answer: Inferno
Correct answer: C. Explanation: "Conflagration" refers to an extensive fire that causes a great deal of damage, making "inferno" the most similar as it also means a large fire that is dangerously out of control.
Which word best describes someone who is "penurious"?
- Wealthy
- Generous
- Thrifty
- Impoverished
Correct answer: Impoverished
Correct answer: D. Explanation: "Penurious" means extremely poor; impoverished, making "impoverished" the best synonym.
The term "exculpate" most nearly means:
- Condemn
- Accuse
- Exonerate
- Charge
Correct answer: Exonerate
Correct answer: C. Explanation: "Exculpate" means to show or declare that someone is not guilty of wrongdoing, synonymous with "exonerate."
Choose the word that is most synonymous with "quixotic".
- Realistic
- Idealistic
- Practical
- Cynical
Correct answer: Idealistic
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Quixotic" describes someone or something that is exceedingly idealistic, unrealistic, and impractical, making "idealistic" the most synonymous.
What does "lugubrious" best describe?
- Joyful
- Mournful
- Luminous
- Humorous
Correct answer: Mournful
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Lugubrious" means looking or sounding sad and dismal, thus "mournful" is the best synonym.
The word "cupidity" most closely means:
- Love
- Greed
- Courage
- Curiosity
Correct answer: Greed
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Cupidity" means greed for money or possessions, making "greed" the closest in meaning.
Which word is most opposite in meaning to "laconic"?
- Terse
- Succinct
- Verbose
- Concise
Correct answer: Verbose
Correct answer: C. Explanation: "Laconic" means using very few words, making "verbose," which means using or expressed in more words than are needed, the most opposite in meaning.
The term "nefarious" most nearly means:
- Virtuous
- Wicked
- Notorious
- Honorable
Correct answer: Wicked
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Nefarious" means wicked or criminal, making "wicked" the closest in meaning.
Choose the word that is most synonymous with "pellucid".
- Murky
- Transparent
- Opaque
- Complicated
Correct answer: Transparent
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Pellucid" means translucently clear, making "transparent" the most synonymous.
What does "intransigent" best describe?
- Flexible
- Unyielding
- Cooperative
- Amenable
Correct answer: Unyielding
Correct answer: B. Explanation: "Intransigent" means unwilling or refusing to change one's views or to agree about something, hence "unyielding" is the best synonym.
The word "ephemeral" is most opposite to:
- Fleeting
- Momentary
- Perennial
- Brief
Correct answer: Perennial
Correct answer: C. Explanation: "Ephemeral" means lasting for a very short time, making "perennial," which means lasting or existing for a long or apparently infinite time, the most opposite.
Which word best describes something that is "recondite"?
- Shallow
- Obvious
- Arcane
- Common
Correct answer: Arcane
Correct answer: C. Explanation: "Recondite" means little known or obscure, making "arcane" (understood by few; mysterious or secret) the best synonym.
A researcher records the growth of a bacterial culture every hour. The number of bacteria triples every hour. If the culture started with 500 bacteria, how many bacteria will there be after 4 hours?
- 13,500
- 40,500
- 45,000
- 54,000
Correct answer: 40,500
Correct Answer: B). Explanation: The growth is exponential: $500 \times 3^4 = 500 \times 81 = 40,500$ .
A train travels 60 miles in 2 hours and then 90 miles in 3 hours. What is the average speed for the entire trip?
- 25 mph
- 30 mph
- 50 mph
- 60 mph
Correct answer: 30 mph
Correct Answer: B). Explanation: The total distance is $60 + 90 = 150$ miles and the total time is $2 + 3 = 5$ hours. The average speed is $\frac{150}{5} = 30$ mph.
The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5. If the perimeter of the triangle is 36 cm, what is the length of the longest side?
- 15 cm
- 18 cm
- 12 cm
- 9 cm
Correct answer: 15 cm
Correct Answer: A). Explanation: The sides are $3x, 4x,$ and $5x$ . The perimeter is $3x + 4x + 5x = 12x = 36$ , so $x = 3$ . The longest side is $5x = 15$ cm.
A box contains 6 red, 4 blue, and 5 green balls. If three balls are picked at random, what is the probability that they are all red?
- $\frac{1}{91}$
- $\frac{1}{22}$
- $\frac{1}{455}$
- $\frac{5}{91}$
Correct answer: $\frac{1}{22}$
Correct Answer: B). Explanation: There are $\binom{15}{3} = 455$ ways to choose 3 balls from 15. There are $\binom{6}{3} = 20$ ways to choose 3 red balls. So, the probability is $\frac{20}{455} = \frac{1}{22}$ .
What is the next number in the sequence: 2, 6, 18, 54, ..
- 108
- 162
- 216
- 324
Correct answer: 162
Correct Answer: B). Explanation: This is a geometric sequence with a common ratio of 3. Multiply 54 by 3 to get 162.
What is the primary function of ribosomes in a eukaryotic cell?
- Energy production
- Lipid synthesis
- Protein synthesis
- DNA replication
Correct answer: Protein synthesis
Correct answer: C. Explanation: Ribosomes are the cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis. They translate messenger RNA 'mRNA' into proteins, a crucial process for cell function and growth.
In which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes align at the cell's equatorial plate?
- Prophase
- Metaphase
- Anaphase
- Telophase
Correct answer: Metaphase
Correct answer: B. Explanation: During metaphase, chromosomes align at the cell's equatorial plate, preparing for segregation to opposite poles, which is crucial for equal genetic distribution to daughter cells.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of blood calcium levels?
- Insulin
- Thyroxine
- Parathyroid hormone
- Adrenaline
Correct answer: Parathyroid hormone
Correct answer: C. Explanation: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) regulates calcium levels in the blood by increasing the release of calcium from bones, enhancing calcium absorption in the intestines, and promoting calcium retention in the kidneys.
The presence of which of the following molecules is most critical for the function of the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?
- Glucose
- ATP
- Oxygen
- Carbon dioxide
Correct answer: Oxygen
Correct answer: C. Explanation: Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, crucial for the production of ATP. Without oxygen, the chain halts, and ATP production significantly decreases.
Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
- Aorta
- Pulmonary artery
- Pulmonary vein
- Vena cava
Correct answer: Pulmonary vein
Correct answer: C. Explanation: The pulmonary vein is the blood vessel that transports oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the left atrium of the heart, unlike other veins which typically carry deoxygenated blood.
What is the role of the enzyme catalase in human cells?
- It synthesizes ATP.
- It breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.
- It aids in DNA replication.
- It facilitates glucose uptake.
Correct answer: It breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: Catalase protects the cell by breaking down potentially harmful hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen, preventing oxidative damage to cells.
Which type of cell junction allows for direct electrical communication between cells in cardiac muscle?
- Tight junctions
- Desmosomes
- Gap junctions
- Hemidesmosomes
Correct answer: Gap junctions
Correct answer: C. Explanation: Gap junctions in cardiac muscle cells facilitate direct electrical continuity, allowing for synchronized contraction of heart muscle.
What is the primary function of the lymphatic system in the human body?
- Oxygen transport
- Nutrient absorption
- Immune response coordination
- Hormone secretion
Correct answer: Immune response coordination
Correct answer: C. Explanation: The lymphatic system is crucial for immune response coordination, facilitating the transport of lymph, removal of interstitial fluid, fat absorption, and immune system engagement.
During which stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
- G1 phase
- S phase
- G2 phase
- M phase
Correct answer: S phase
Correct answer: B. Explanation: DNA replication occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle, ensuring each daughter cell receives an identical set of chromosomes during cell division.
What is the term for a solution that has a higher solute concentration than the cytoplasm of a cell, causing the cell to lose water?
- Isotonic
- Hypotonic
- Hypertonic
- Hypodermic
Correct answer: Hypertonic
Correct answer: C. Explanation: A hypertonic solution has a higher solute concentration than the cell's cytoplasm, leading to water efflux from the cell, resulting in cell shrinkage.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?
- Production of blood cells
- Regulation of body temperature
- Protection of internal organs
- Support and structure for the body
Correct answer: Regulation of body temperature
Correct answer: B. Explanation: The primary functions of the skeletal system include support, movement, protection, production of blood cells, and mineral storage, but not direct regulation of body temperature.
In the context of enzyme activity, what does the term 'substrate' refer to?
- The enzyme's active site
- The molecule upon which an enzyme acts
- The product resulting from the reaction
- The energy required to initiate the reaction
Correct answer: The molecule upon which an enzyme acts
Correct answer: B. Explanation: A substrate is the molecule upon which an enzyme acts, binding to the enzyme's active site and undergoing a chemical reaction to form a product.
Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for coordinating voluntary muscle movements?
- Cerebellum
- Medulla oblongata
- Hypothalamus
- Frontal lobe
Correct answer: Cerebellum
Correct answer: A. Explanation: The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating voluntary movements, balance, and motor learning, ensuring smooth and balanced muscular activity.
What is the significance of the 'universal recipient' blood type in blood transfusions?
- It can donate blood to any blood type.
- It can receive blood from any blood type without adverse reactions.
- It lacks all antigens on the red blood cells.
- It has all possible antibodies in the plasma.
Correct answer: It can receive blood from any blood type without adverse reactions.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: The 'universal recipient' blood type (AB+) can receive blood from any blood type because it lacks antibodies that would react against the antigens in the donated blood.
What process describes the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration?
- Diffusion
- Active transport
- Osmosis
- Filtration
Correct answer: Osmosis
Correct answer: C. Explanation: Osmosis is the process where water moves across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration to achieve equilibrium.
In the context of genetics, what is the principle of independent assortment?
- Genes for different traits are sorted separately from one another so that the inheritance of one trait is not dependent on the inheritance of another.
- Alleles for the same gene separate from each other during gamete formation.
- Offspring receive one allele for each gene from each parent.
- The likelihood of inheriting one trait is the same for all individuals in a population.
Correct answer: Genes for different traits are sorted separately from one another so that the inheritance of one trait is not dependent on the inheritance of another.
Correct answer: A. Explanation: The principle of independent assortment states that the alleles of two (or more) different genes get sorted into gametes independently of one another, allowing for genetic variation.
Which component of the nervous system is responsible for the 'fight or flight' response?
- Central nervous system
- Parasympathetic nervous system
- Sympathetic nervous system
- Somatic nervous system
Correct answer: Sympathetic nervous system
Correct answer: C. Explanation: The sympathetic nervous system activates the body's 'fight or flight' response during perceived threats, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and energy availability.
What is the role of myelin in the nervous system?
- To transmit electrical signals
- To protect and insulate axons
- To produce neurotransmitters
- To regulate ion concentration
Correct answer: To protect and insulate axons
Correct answer: B. Explanation: Myelin sheaths insulate axons, enhancing the speed and efficiency of electrical signal transmission along the nerve cells.
Which of the following best describes the role of the mitochondria in cells?
- They are the site of protein synthesis.
- They play a key role in the digestion of cellular debris.
- They generate most of the cell's supply of ATP.
- They are involved in the modification and packaging of proteins.
Correct answer: They generate most of the cell's supply of ATP.
Correct answer: C. Explanation: Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell because they generate most of the cell's supply of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), used as a source of chemical energy.
What is the primary structure responsible for gas exchange in the lungs?
- Bronchi
- Alveoli
- Trachea
- Larynx
Correct answer: Alveoli
Correct answer: B. Explanation: Alveoli are tiny sacs within our lungs that allow oxygen and carbon dioxide to move between the lungs and bloodstream, serving as the primary site for gas exchange.
Which hormone regulates the circadian rhythm and sleep-wake cycles in humans?
- Cortisol
- Adrenaline
- Melatonin
- Insulin
Correct answer: Melatonin
Correct answer: C. Explanation: Melatonin, produced by the pineal gland, is crucial for regulating circadian rhythms and sleep-wake cycles, influencing sleep timing and quality.
In human anatomy, the term "sagittal plane" refers to a plane that divides the body into what?
- Upper and lower parts
- Front and back parts
- Right and left parts
- Internal and external parts
Correct answer: Right and left parts
Correct answer: C. Explanation: The sagittal plane divides the body into right and left parts, allowing for anatomical descriptions relative to these divisions.
What is the primary function of the enzyme renin in the human body?
- Blood sugar regulation
- Digestion of proteins
- Regulation of blood pressure
- Conversion of carbon dioxide to oxygen
Correct answer: Regulation of blood pressure
Correct answer: C. Explanation: Renin, released by the kidneys, plays a key role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, influencing blood pressure regulation and fluid balance.
Which type of tissue is responsible for transmitting electrical impulses in the body?
- Epithelial tissue
- Connective tissue
- Muscle tissue
- Nervous tissue
Correct answer: Nervous tissue
Correct answer: D. Explanation: Nervous tissue, consisting of neurons and supporting cells, is specialized for transmitting electrical signals throughout the body, facilitating communication and response to stimuli.
In terms of genetics, what is the significance of the term "codominance"?
- A single gene controls multiple traits.
- Two alleles are expressed such that each one has a distinguishable effect on the phenotype.
- An allele is masked by the presence of another allele.
- An allele's effect is amplified when two copies are present.
Correct answer: Two alleles are expressed such that each one has a distinguishable effect on the phenotype.
Correct answer: B. Explanation: Codominance occurs when both alleles in a gene pair are fully expressed in the phenotype, allowing both traits to be observed simultaneously without blending.
During the cell cycle, the genetic material of a cell is copied so that each new cell will receive a complete set of DNA. In which phase does this DNA copying take place?
- G1 phase
- G0 phase
- M phase
- S phase
Correct answer: S phase
Correct answer: S phase. The S (synthesis) phase of interphase is when DNA replication occurs, doubling the chromosomes before division. G1 and G2 are growth and preparation phases, and M phase (mitosis) is when the already-copied chromosomes are separated, not copied.
A nursing applicant reviews how cells produce energy. In aerobic cellular respiration, what are the final products formed when glucose is fully broken down with oxygen?
- Lactic acid and ethanol
- Amino acids and nucleotides
- Oxygen and glucose
- Carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
Correct answer: Carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
Correct answer: carbon dioxide, water, and ATP. Aerobic respiration breaks glucose down completely using oxygen, releasing energy stored as ATP and producing carbon dioxide and water as wastes. Lactic acid and ethanol form during anaerobic fermentation, not full aerobic respiration.
Which organelle contains digestive enzymes used to break down worn-out cell parts and foreign material inside the cell?
- Golgi apparatus
- Lysosome
- Nucleolus
- Centriole
Correct answer: Lysosome
Correct answer: lysosome. Lysosomes are membrane-bound sacs filled with hydrolytic (digestive) enzymes that break down macromolecules, debris, and pathogens. The Golgi packages proteins, the nucleolus makes ribosome parts, and centrioles help organize the spindle during division.
A cell is placed in a hypotonic solution. Based on the movement of water across the cell membrane, what is most likely to happen to the cell?
- It gains water and may swell or burst
- It stays exactly the same size
- It actively pumps out solutes
- It loses water and shrinks
Correct answer: It gains water and may swell or burst
Correct answer: it gains water and may swell or burst. A hypotonic solution has a lower solute concentration than the cell, so water moves in by osmosis toward the higher internal solute concentration. This influx causes the cell to swell and, in animal cells, possibly lyse. Shrinking happens in hypertonic solutions.
In genetics, the observable physical traits of an organism, such as eye color, are referred to as its:
- Phenotype
- Genotype
- Karyotype
- Allele
Correct answer: Phenotype
Correct answer: phenotype. The phenotype is the set of observable characteristics that result from the genotype interacting with the environment. The genotype is the actual genetic makeup (the alleles present), an allele is one version of a gene, and a karyotype is a display of an organism's chromosomes.
Two parents who are both heterozygous for a trait (Aa) have children. According to a standard Punnett square, what fraction of their offspring is expected to be homozygous recessive (aa)?
- 3 out of 4
- 2 out of 4
- 1 out of 4
- 4 out of 4
Correct answer: 1 out of 4
Correct answer: 1 out of 4. An Aa x Aa cross gives genotype ratios of 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa. Only one of the four boxes is aa, so one-quarter of offspring are homozygous recessive. Three of four show the dominant trait, but that is the phenotype ratio, not the homozygous recessive fraction.
A student practicing nursing entrance exam science questions must identify the molecule that carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosome for protein synthesis. Which molecule is it?
- Transfer RNA (tRNA)
- DNA polymerase
- Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
- Messenger RNA (mRNA)
Correct answer: Messenger RNA (mRNA)
Correct answer: messenger RNA (mRNA). mRNA is transcribed from DNA in the nucleus and travels to the ribosome, where its codon sequence is translated into a protein. tRNA brings amino acids, rRNA is a structural part of the ribosome, and DNA polymerase copies DNA rather than carrying the message.
Meiosis differs from mitosis in an important way. Which statement correctly describes a result of meiosis?
- It only occurs in skin and muscle cells
- It produces two identical diploid cells
- It copies DNA without ever dividing
- It produces four genetically varied haploid cells
Correct answer: It produces four genetically varied haploid cells
Correct answer: it produces four genetically varied haploid cells. Meiosis involves two divisions and crossing over, yielding four cells with half the chromosome number (haploid) used for sexual reproduction. Mitosis produces two identical diploid body cells, so the other choices describe mitosis or are incorrect.
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions in the body. Which statement best explains how an enzyme increases the rate of a reaction?
- It changes the reaction's final products
- It lowers the activation energy needed for the reaction
- It raises the temperature of the cell
- It is permanently used up during the reaction
Correct answer: It lowers the activation energy needed for the reaction
Correct answer: it lowers the activation energy needed for the reaction. Enzymes are biological catalysts that bind substrates at their active site and reduce the energy barrier, allowing reactions to proceed faster. They are not consumed and do not change which products form, so those choices are wrong.
Most human enzymes work best at a specific body temperature. If a person develops a high fever well above this range, what is most likely to happen to many enzymes?
- They may denature and lose their function
- They speed up permanently with no downside
- They turn into DNA
- They become more acidic catalysts
Correct answer: They may denature and lose their function
Correct answer: they may denature and lose their function. Human enzymes have an optimal temperature near normal body temperature (about 37 degrees Celsius). Excessive heat disrupts the protein's three-dimensional shape, denaturing it so the active site no longer binds substrate. Denatured enzymes cannot speed reactions, which is why very high fevers are dangerous.
On the pH scale, a solution with a pH of 3 is best described as:
- Strongly basic
- Acidic
- Identical to pure water
- Neutral
Correct answer: Acidic
Correct answer: acidic. The pH scale runs from 0 to 14; values below 7 are acidic, 7 is neutral (like pure water), and above 7 is basic. A pH of 3 is well below 7, so the solution is acidic with a relatively high hydrogen ion concentration.
Human blood is normally maintained within a narrow pH range. Which value is closest to the normal pH of healthy arterial blood?
- 2.0
- 5.5
- 7.4
- 10.0
Correct answer: 7.4
Correct answer: 7.4. Normal arterial blood pH is tightly regulated around 7.35 to 7.45, slightly basic. Buffer systems, the lungs, and the kidneys keep it in this range. A value of 2 or 5.5 would be dangerously acidic, and 10 would be dangerously basic.
In the periodic table, the atomic number of an element tells you the number of which particle in one atom of that element?
- Total nucleons
- Protons
- Electrons in the outer shell only
- Neutrons
Correct answer: Protons
Correct answer: protons. The atomic number equals the number of protons in the nucleus and defines the identity of the element. In a neutral atom, electron number equals proton number, but the atomic number itself specifically counts protons, not neutrons or total nucleons.
What type of chemical bond forms when one atom transfers an electron to another atom, creating oppositely charged ions that attract each other?
- Nonpolar bond
- Covalent bond
- Hydrogen bond
- Ionic bond
Correct answer: Ionic bond
Correct answer: ionic bond. An ionic bond results from the transfer of electrons, producing a positive cation and a negative anion that attract one another, as in sodium chloride. Covalent bonds share electrons, and hydrogen bonds are weak attractions between molecules, not full electron transfers.
Table salt (NaCl) dissolves easily in water. This is best explained by the fact that:
- Water is polar and surrounds the charged ions
- Water breaks the covalent bonds inside sodium atoms
- Water is nonpolar and repels the ions
- Salt is a gas at room temperature
Correct answer: Water is polar and surrounds the charged ions
Correct answer: water is polar and surrounds the charged ions. Water molecules have partial positive and negative ends, so they orient around and separate the Na+ and Cl- ions, dissolving the salt. Water is polar, not nonpolar, and the process pulls ions apart rather than breaking bonds inside atoms.
A nursing applicant reviews oxygen-carrying blood flow. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood out to the entire body through the aorta?
- Right ventricle
- Left atrium
- Right atrium
- Left ventricle
Correct answer: Left ventricle
Correct answer: left ventricle. The left ventricle is the most muscular chamber and pumps oxygen-rich blood into the aorta for distribution throughout the body. The right ventricle sends blood to the lungs, while the atria receive incoming blood rather than pumping it to the body.
In the human respiratory system, oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between air and blood across the thin walls of which structures?
- Pleura
- Trachea
- Bronchi
- Alveoli
Correct answer: Alveoli
Correct answer: alveoli. The alveoli are tiny air sacs surrounded by capillaries where gas exchange occurs: oxygen diffuses into the blood and carbon dioxide diffuses out. The bronchi and trachea are conducting airways, and the pleura is the membrane lining the lungs.
The functional filtering unit of the kidney, where blood is filtered and urine begins to form, is called the:
- Villus
- Alveolus
- Neuron
- Nephron
Correct answer: Nephron
Correct answer: nephron. Each kidney contains about a million nephrons, the structures that filter blood, reabsorb needed substances, and form urine. Alveoli are in the lungs, villi line the small intestine, and neurons are nerve cells, so these are not kidney filtering units.
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) helps regulate body water. When ADH levels rise, what happens in the kidneys?
- Blood pressure drops sharply
- More water is lost, producing very dilute urine
- More water is reabsorbed, producing more concentrated urine
- Sodium is completely removed from the blood
Correct answer: More water is reabsorbed, producing more concentrated urine
Correct answer: more water is reabsorbed, producing more concentrated urine. ADH, released by the posterior pituitary, increases water permeability in the collecting ducts so more water returns to the blood. This conserves body water and yields smaller amounts of concentrated urine, the opposite of dilute urine output.
Which part of the nervous system controls involuntary functions such as heart rate, digestion, and the 'rest and digest' state?
- Skeletal system
- Sensory cortex
- Somatic nervous system
- Autonomic nervous system
Correct answer: Autonomic nervous system
Correct answer: autonomic nervous system. The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary activities and includes the sympathetic ('fight or flight') and parasympathetic ('rest and digest') divisions. The somatic system controls voluntary skeletal muscle, and the skeletal system is not part of the nervous system.
A nurse explains that bones store an important mineral that also circulates in the blood and is needed for muscle contraction and nerve signaling. Which mineral is this?
- Iodine
- Calcium
- Potassium
- Iron
Correct answer: Calcium
Correct answer: calcium. Bones act as the body's main reservoir of calcium, releasing it into the blood when needed for muscle contraction, nerve impulse transmission, and blood clotting. Iron is central to hemoglobin, iodine to thyroid hormones, and potassium is mainly an intracellular electrolyte.
Which type of muscle tissue is striated, multinucleated, and under voluntary control for moving the skeleton?
- Smooth muscle
- Connective tissue
- Skeletal muscle
- Cardiac muscle
Correct answer: Skeletal muscle
Correct answer: skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscle is striated, has many nuclei per fiber, and is voluntarily controlled to move bones. Smooth muscle is non-striated and involuntary (in organs), and cardiac muscle is striated but involuntary and found only in the heart.
During strenuous exercise without enough oxygen, muscle cells switch to fermentation. In humans, what product builds up and can cause muscle fatigue?
- Carbon dioxide only
- Glucose
- Lactic acid
- Ethanol
Correct answer: Lactic acid
Correct answer: lactic acid. When oxygen is limited, human muscle cells perform lactic acid fermentation to regenerate the molecules needed to keep making a small amount of ATP. The accumulating lactic acid contributes to muscle fatigue and soreness. Ethanol fermentation occurs in yeast, not human muscle.
The endocrine system regulates the body using chemical messengers. Which gland is often called the 'master gland' because it controls several other endocrine glands?
- Pituitary gland
- Thyroid gland
- Pancreas
- Adrenal gland
Correct answer: Pituitary gland
Correct answer: pituitary gland. The pituitary, directed by the hypothalamus, secretes hormones that regulate the thyroid, adrenal glands, gonads, and growth, earning it the 'master gland' nickname. The thyroid, adrenals, and pancreas each have specific roles but do not broadly control other glands.
In a reflex arc, a sensory neuron carries a signal toward the spinal cord and a motor neuron carries a signal away to a muscle. What is the role of the interneuron between them?
- It produces hormones for the response
- It replaces the need for a motor neuron
- It carries the signal out to the skin
- It connects the sensory and motor neurons within the central nervous system
Correct answer: It connects the sensory and motor neurons within the central nervous system
Correct answer: it connects the sensory and motor neurons within the central nervous system. Interneurons relay signals between incoming sensory neurons and outgoing motor neurons inside the spinal cord or brain, allowing rapid reflex responses. They do not carry signals to the skin or secrete hormones, and the motor neuron is still required.
Vaccines work by triggering the immune system to make a protective response. Which type of cell produces antibodies that target specific pathogens?
- Neurons
- B lymphocytes (B cells)
- Platelets
- Red blood cells
Correct answer: B lymphocytes (B cells)
Correct answer: B lymphocytes (B cells). B cells differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies specific to a pathogen's antigens, providing humoral immunity that vaccines aim to stimulate. Red blood cells carry oxygen, platelets help clotting, and neurons transmit nerve signals.
In photosynthesis, plants convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose using light energy. Which gas is released as a byproduct of this process?
- Oxygen
- Hydrogen
- Nitrogen
- Carbon dioxide
Correct answer: Oxygen
Correct answer: oxygen. During photosynthesis, water molecules are split and oxygen is released into the atmosphere as a byproduct while carbon dioxide is used to build glucose. Carbon dioxide is a reactant, not the product released, and nitrogen and hydrogen gas are not produced.
A red blood cell is placed in a strongly hypertonic salt solution. Based on osmosis, what will happen to the cell?
- It swells and bursts
- It stays unchanged
- It divides into two cells
- It shrinks and shrivels (crenates)
Correct answer: It shrinks and shrivels (crenates)
Correct answer: it shrinks and shrivels (crenates). In a hypertonic solution the surrounding fluid has more solute than the cell, so water leaves the cell by osmosis. The red blood cell loses volume and crenates. Swelling and bursting occur in hypotonic, not hypertonic, conditions.
Which of the following is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms?
- The molecule
- The cell
- The tissue
- The organ
Correct answer: The cell
Correct answer: the cell. The cell is the smallest unit that can carry out all life processes and is the building block of tissues, organs, and organisms. Tissues and organs are higher levels of organization, and molecules are non-living chemical components.
The four major classes of biological macromolecules are carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, and proteins. Which class is primarily made up of amino acids?
- Carbohydrates
- Proteins
- Lipids
- Nucleic acids
Correct answer: Proteins
Correct answer: proteins. Proteins are polymers built from amino acid monomers linked by peptide bonds, and they serve as enzymes, structural components, and transporters. Carbohydrates are made of sugars, lipids of fatty acids and glycerol, and nucleic acids of nucleotides.
A scientist measures speed using the formula speed equals distance divided by time. If a runner covers 100 meters in 20 seconds, what is the runner's average speed?
- 2000 meters per second
- 2 meters per second
- 5 meters per second
- 20 meters per second
Correct answer: 5 meters per second
Correct answer: 5 meters per second. Speed equals distance divided by time, so 100 meters divided by 20 seconds equals 5 meters per second. This is a basic physics relationship tested at the entrance level, and the other values come from dividing or multiplying incorrectly.
According to Newton's third law of motion, when one object exerts a force on a second object, the second object exerts a force on the first that is:
- Smaller and in the opposite direction
- Equal in size and in the opposite direction
- Equal in size and in the same direction
- Larger and in the same direction
Correct answer: Equal in size and in the opposite direction
Correct answer: equal in size and in the opposite direction. Newton's third law states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The paired forces are equal in magnitude but act in opposite directions on the two interacting objects, which is why the other choices are incorrect.
A nurse pushes a heavy cart with a steady force, but the cart does not move. Using physics terms, why doesn't it move at first?
- There is no force acting on the cart
- Gravity is pulling the cart sideways
- Static friction is balancing the applied force
- The cart has no mass
Correct answer: Static friction is balancing the applied force
Correct answer: static friction is balancing the applied force. Before motion begins, static friction between the cart and floor opposes the push with an equal and opposite force, so the net force is zero and the cart stays still. Once the push exceeds maximum static friction, the cart accelerates.
Which subatomic particle carries a negative electrical charge and is found in regions surrounding the nucleus of an atom?
- Neutron
- Proton
- Electron
- Nucleus
Correct answer: Electron
Correct answer: electron. Electrons carry a negative charge and occupy energy levels or orbitals around the nucleus. Protons are positive and neutrons are neutral, both located inside the nucleus, while the nucleus itself is the central core, not a single particle.
In a chemical equation, the law of conservation of mass requires that:
- Atoms can be created during the reaction
- The total mass of products equals the total mass of reactants
- Only the number of molecules must stay the same
- Mass is always lost as energy
Correct answer: The total mass of products equals the total mass of reactants
Correct answer: the total mass of products equals the total mass of reactants. Matter is neither created nor destroyed in an ordinary chemical reaction, so atoms are rearranged and the total mass is conserved. This is why chemical equations must be balanced with equal numbers of each atom on both sides.
Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration. How does this process differ from active transport?
- Active transport requires energy and can move substances against their concentration gradient
- Diffusion requires cellular energy (ATP); active transport does not
- Both always move substances from low to high concentration
- Diffusion only happens in dead cells
Correct answer: Active transport requires energy and can move substances against their concentration gradient
Correct answer: active transport requires energy and can move substances against their concentration gradient. Diffusion is passive and moves substances down their gradient without ATP, while active transport uses energy to pump substances from low to high concentration. This distinction is a common nursing entrance science topic.
The thyroid gland releases hormones that influence the body's metabolic rate. Which element is essential for the production of thyroid hormones?
- Calcium
- Iodine
- Sodium
- Iron
Correct answer: Iodine
Correct answer: iodine. Thyroid hormones such as thyroxine contain iodine atoms, so adequate dietary iodine is required for normal thyroid hormone synthesis and metabolic regulation. Iron is used in hemoglobin, calcium in bone and signaling, and sodium in fluid balance and nerve conduction.
Blood type is determined by antigens on red blood cells. A person with type O negative blood is often called a 'universal donor' because their red blood cells:
- Carry both A and B antigens plus Rh factor
- Contain no white blood cells
- Produce no antibodies at all
- Carry no A, B, or Rh antigens for the immune system to attack
Correct answer: Carry no A, B, or Rh antigens for the immune system to attack
Correct answer: carry no A, B, or Rh antigens for the immune system to attack. Type O negative red cells lack A, B, and Rh(D) antigens, so a recipient's immune system has fewer surface markers to react against, making O negative the safest emergency donor red cells. The other statements misstate antigen and antibody status.
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment. When body temperature rises, the body sweats to cool down. This is an example of:
- Active transport
- A negative feedback loop
- Random chance
- A positive feedback loop
Correct answer: A negative feedback loop
Correct answer: a negative feedback loop. In negative feedback, a change triggers a response that reverses or reduces the original change, restoring balance. Rising temperature triggers sweating to lower temperature back toward normal. Positive feedback amplifies a change, such as in childbirth contractions.
A student reviewing a nursing entrance exam study guide learns that the small intestine has tiny finger-like projections that increase surface area for nutrient absorption. What are these projections called?
- Nephrons
- Villi
- Cilia
- Alveoli
Correct answer: Villi
Correct answer: villi. The villi (and smaller microvilli) line the small intestine and greatly increase the surface area available for absorbing digested nutrients into the bloodstream. Alveoli are in the lungs, nephrons are in the kidneys, and cilia are hair-like structures that move fluid or particles.
Which structure controls what substances enter and leave an animal cell?
- Golgi apparatus
- Cell (plasma) membrane
- Nucleolus
- Cell wall
Correct answer: Cell (plasma) membrane
The correct answer is the cell (plasma) membrane. The plasma membrane is a selectively permeable boundary that regulates the passage of substances into and out of the cell. A cell wall is found in plants and bacteria, not animal cells; the nucleolus makes ribosomes, and the Golgi apparatus packages proteins.
What is the main difference in outcome between mitosis and meiosis?
- Both produce gametes used in reproduction
- Mitosis produces two identical cells; meiosis produces four cells with half the chromosomes
- Mitosis produces four cells; meiosis produces two
- Mitosis halves the chromosome number; meiosis keeps it the same
Correct answer: Mitosis produces two identical cells; meiosis produces four cells with half the chromosomes
The correct answer is that mitosis produces two identical cells while meiosis produces four cells with half the chromosomes. Mitosis makes two genetically identical diploid daughter cells for growth and repair, whereas meiosis produces four haploid gametes (sperm or egg) for sexual reproduction. In humans, body cells have 46 chromosomes and gametes have 23.
Normal human blood is maintained at a pH of about 7.4. This means blood is normally:
- Strongly basic
- Exactly neutral
- Strongly acidic
- Slightly basic
Correct answer: Slightly basic
The correct answer is slightly basic. Healthy blood pH is held in a narrow range of roughly 7.35 to 7.45, which is just above the neutral value of 7, making it slightly basic (alkaline). A drop below 7.35 is called acidosis and a rise above 7.45 is called alkalosis.
DNA carries the instructions for building proteins. Which molecule directly carries the genetic message from DNA out of the nucleus to the ribosome?
- DNA polymerase
- Messenger RNA (mRNA)
- Transfer RNA (tRNA)
- ATP
Correct answer: Messenger RNA (mRNA)
The correct answer is messenger RNA (mRNA). During transcription, a copy of a gene's instructions is made as mRNA, which travels from the nucleus to a ribosome where the message is translated into a protein. Transfer RNA brings amino acids during translation, and ATP supplies energy rather than carrying the genetic code.
Which gas do human cells take in and which gas do they release during cellular respiration?
- Take in oxygen, release carbon dioxide
- Take in carbon dioxide, release oxygen
- Take in nitrogen, release oxygen
- Take in oxygen, release nitrogen
Correct answer: Take in oxygen, release carbon dioxide
The correct answer is take in oxygen, release carbon dioxide. Cellular respiration uses oxygen to break down glucose for energy and produces carbon dioxide as a waste product. This is the opposite of photosynthesis in plants, which takes in carbon dioxide and releases oxygen.
A nursing applicant studies a diagram showing blood flowing from the right ventricle. To which structure does the right ventricle pump blood?
- The left atrium
- The body tissues directly
- The aorta
- The lungs (via the pulmonary artery)
Correct answer: The lungs (via the pulmonary artery)
The correct answer is the lungs via the pulmonary artery. The right ventricle pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs to pick up oxygen and release carbon dioxide. The left ventricle, not the right, pumps oxygen-rich blood out through the aorta to the body.
Which blood cells are mainly responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body?
- White blood cells
- Platelets
- Plasma cells
- Red blood cells
Correct answer: Red blood cells
The correct answer is red blood cells. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin, an iron-rich protein that binds oxygen and transports it from the lungs to body tissues. White blood cells fight infection and platelets help blood clot.
Which part of a neuron receives incoming signals from other neurons?
- Dendrites
- Axon
- Myelin sheath
- Synaptic terminal
Correct answer: Dendrites
The correct answer is the dendrites. Dendrites are the branched extensions that receive incoming signals and carry them toward the cell body. The axon then carries the impulse away from the cell body toward other cells.
A student learns that an atom that has lost or gained electrons and now carries an electric charge is called a(n):
- Ion
- Molecule
- Compound
- Isotope
Correct answer: Ion
The correct answer is an ion. When a neutral atom loses or gains one or more electrons, it becomes charged and is called an ion. An isotope differs in the number of neutrons, a molecule is two or more atoms bonded together, and a compound contains two or more different elements bonded together.
In the chemical formula H2O, the subscript 2 indicates that one molecule of water contains:
- Two electrons
- Two oxygen atoms
- Two hydrogen atoms
- Two water molecules
Correct answer: Two hydrogen atoms
The correct answer is two hydrogen atoms. In a chemical formula, the subscript number shows how many atoms of the element immediately before it are present, so H2O contains two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. Understanding subscripts is a basic chemistry skill tested on the entrance exam.
Which organ system is primarily responsible for filtering wastes from the blood and producing urine?
- Urinary (renal) system
- Respiratory system
- Endocrine system
- Integumentary system
Correct answer: Urinary (renal) system
The correct answer is the urinary (renal) system. The kidneys filter waste products and excess water from the blood to form urine, which is then removed from the body. The respiratory system handles gas exchange and the endocrine system manages hormones.
A pre-nursing student reviews body planes. The plane that divides the body into upper and lower portions is the:
- Frontal (coronal) plane
- Sagittal plane
- Transverse plane
- Midline
Correct answer: Transverse plane
The correct answer is the transverse plane. A transverse (horizontal) plane divides the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) parts. The frontal plane separates front from back, and the sagittal plane separates right from left.
Which type of muscle tissue is under voluntary control and is attached to bones to produce movement?
- Smooth muscle
- Skeletal muscle
- Cardiac muscle
- Connective tissue
Correct answer: Skeletal muscle
The correct answer is skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscle attaches to bones and is consciously (voluntarily) controlled to move the body. Cardiac muscle in the heart and smooth muscle in organ walls both work involuntarily, without conscious control.
During an experiment, a scientist changes only the amount of light a plant receives and measures its growth. The amount of light is the:
- Dependent variable
- Control group
- Constant
- Independent variable
Correct answer: Independent variable
The correct answer is the independent variable. The independent variable is the factor the experimenter deliberately changes, which here is the amount of light. The measured result, plant growth, is the dependent variable because it depends on the change in light.
In a well-designed experiment, what is the purpose of the control group?
- To receive the largest dose of the treatment
- To provide a baseline for comparison by not receiving the experimental treatment
- To guarantee the hypothesis is correct
- To increase the number of variables tested
Correct answer: To provide a baseline for comparison by not receiving the experimental treatment
The correct answer is to provide a baseline for comparison by not receiving the experimental treatment. The control group is kept under normal conditions so its results can be compared with the experimental group, helping show whether the treatment caused any change. Comparing the two groups is what makes the experiment meaningful.
Diffusion is best described as the movement of molecules from an area of:
- Equal concentrations in both directions only
- Low concentration to high concentration, using energy
- High concentration to low concentration, without using energy
- High pressure to low pressure through a pump
Correct answer: High concentration to low concentration, without using energy
The correct answer is high concentration to low concentration without using energy. Diffusion is the passive movement of particles down their concentration gradient until evenly spread, and it requires no ATP. Active transport, by contrast, moves substances against the gradient and does require energy.
Which part of the digestive system is the primary site where most nutrient absorption takes place?
- Small intestine
- Large intestine
- Stomach
- Esophagus
Correct answer: Small intestine
The correct answer is the small intestine. The small intestine is lined with tiny finger-like villi that greatly increase surface area, making it the main site of nutrient absorption into the blood. The stomach mostly breaks food down, and the large intestine mainly absorbs water.
Which organelle is often called the powerhouse of the cell because it produces most of the cell's energy?
- Endoplasmic reticulum
- Lysosome
- Nucleus
- Mitochondrion
Correct answer: Mitochondrion
The correct answer is the mitochondrion. Mitochondria carry out cellular respiration to generate most of the cell's ATP, the molecule cells use for energy, which is why they are called the powerhouse of the cell. The nucleus stores DNA, and lysosomes break down waste.
A child inherits one allele from each parent. A trait that is expressed only when two identical alleles are present is called:
- Codominant
- Recessive
- Dominant
- Mutated
Correct answer: Recessive
The correct answer is recessive. A recessive trait appears only when an individual inherits two copies of the recessive allele, one from each parent. A dominant trait is expressed when even a single dominant allele is present.
Newton's first law of motion states that an object at rest will:
- Change its mass over time
- Stay at rest unless acted on by an outside force
- Speed up continuously
- Always begin to move on its own
Correct answer: Stay at rest unless acted on by an outside force
The correct answer is stay at rest unless acted on by an outside force. Newton's first law, the law of inertia, says an object at rest remains at rest and an object in motion stays in motion unless an unbalanced (outside) force acts on it. This is a basic physics concept on the entrance exam science review.
Which of the following is a chemical change rather than a physical change?
- Tearing a sheet of paper
- Ice melting into water
- Sugar dissolving in tea
- Wood burning into ash and smoke
Correct answer: Wood burning into ash and smoke
The correct answer is wood burning into ash and smoke. A chemical change forms new substances with different properties, as when burning wood produces ash, smoke, and gases. Melting, dissolving, and tearing are physical changes because the substance's chemical identity stays the same.
The endocrine gland that releases insulin to lower blood sugar is the:
- Pancreas
- Pituitary gland
- Adrenal gland
- Thyroid gland
Correct answer: Pancreas
The correct answer is the pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, a hormone that lowers blood glucose by helping cells take in sugar from the blood. The thyroid controls metabolism and the adrenal glands release stress hormones such as adrenaline.
Bacteria and human cells differ in one key way: bacteria are prokaryotic, which means they:
- Lack a membrane-bound nucleus
- Have a true nucleus surrounded by a membrane
- Are always larger than human cells
- Cannot reproduce
Correct answer: Lack a membrane-bound nucleus
The correct answer is they lack a membrane-bound nucleus. Prokaryotic cells such as bacteria have no true nucleus, so their DNA floats freely in the cytoplasm. Human cells are eukaryotic and keep their DNA inside a membrane-bound nucleus.
Which body system works with the nervous system to maintain balance by releasing hormones into the bloodstream?
- Lymphatic system
- Skeletal system
- Muscular system
- Endocrine system
Correct answer: Endocrine system
The correct answer is the endocrine system. The endocrine system uses hormones released into the blood to regulate processes such as growth, metabolism, and blood sugar, working alongside the nervous system to keep the body in balance (homeostasis). The skeletal and muscular systems mainly provide support and movement.
A nursing instructor explains that when a person becomes overheated, the body responds by sweating and widening blood vessels near the skin to cool down. What general physiological principle does this describe?
- Mitosis, the division of body cells
- Homeostasis, the maintenance of a stable internal environment
- Diffusion, the random spreading of molecules
- Metabolism, the chemical breakdown of nutrients for energy
Correct answer: Homeostasis, the maintenance of a stable internal environment
The correct answer is homeostasis. Homeostasis is the body's ability to keep its internal conditions, such as temperature, fluid balance, and blood chemistry, stable within a narrow range despite changes outside the body. Sweating and dilating skin blood vessels are corrective responses that bring an overheated body back toward its normal set point. Metabolism refers to energy reactions and does not describe the stabilizing response itself.
What is the primary function of the nervous system in the human body?
- To pump blood and distribute nutrients throughout the body
- To produce hormones that regulate growth over many years
- To break down food into absorbable nutrients
- To detect stimuli, process information, and coordinate the body's responses
Correct answer: To detect stimuli, process information, and coordinate the body's responses
The correct answer is to detect stimuli, process information, and coordinate the body's responses. The nervous system, made up of the brain, spinal cord, and nerves, gathers sensory input, interprets it, and sends signals that direct muscles and glands to act, allowing rapid communication and control. Pumping blood is the job of the circulatory system, and breaking down food belongs to the digestive system. The nervous system, not the endocrine system, provides the body's fast electrical signaling.
During exercise, a person breathes faster and deeper. What is the main function of the respiratory system that this supports?
- Storing minerals such as calcium for later use
- Producing antibodies to fight infection
- Filtering wastes from the blood to form urine
- Exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air and the blood
Correct answer: Exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air and the blood
The correct answer is exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air and the blood. The respiratory system brings air into the lungs so that oxygen can pass into the bloodstream at the alveoli while carbon dioxide passes out to be exhaled. During exercise, muscles need more oxygen and produce more carbon dioxide, so faster, deeper breathing increases this gas exchange. Filtering wastes into urine is a kidney function, not a respiratory one.
A patient's lab report shows a low red blood cell count, and the patient feels tired and short of breath. Which red blood cell function best explains these symptoms?
- Red blood cells produce the hormones that control metabolism
- Red blood cells carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues
- Red blood cells engulf and destroy invading bacteria
- Red blood cells form clots to stop bleeding
Correct answer: Red blood cells carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues
The correct answer is that red blood cells carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin, an iron-rich protein that binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it where tissues need it. When the red blood cell count is low (anemia), less oxygen reaches the tissues, causing fatigue and shortness of breath. Forming clots is the role of platelets, and engulfing bacteria is the role of white blood cells.
After a meal, food moves through a series of organs where it is mechanically and chemically broken down. What is the main function of the digestive system?
- To break down food into nutrients the body can absorb and use
- To circulate oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle
- To send electrical impulses that trigger muscle movement
- To filter pathogens out of the lymph fluid
Correct answer: To break down food into nutrients the body can absorb and use
The correct answer is to break down food into nutrients the body can absorb and use. The digestive system uses mechanical action, such as chewing, and chemical action, such as enzymes and stomach acid, to convert food into small molecules that the small intestine absorbs into the blood. The undigested remainder is eliminated as waste. Circulating blood and sending electrical impulses are functions of the circulatory and nervous systems, not digestion.
A student is asked to summarize the main job of the circulatory system. Which statement is the most accurate?
- It transports oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and wastes throughout the body
- It produces digestive enzymes that break down proteins
- It controls the body's voluntary movements
- It generates new blood cells exclusively within the liver
Correct answer: It transports oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and wastes throughout the body
The correct answer is that it transports oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and wastes throughout the body. The circulatory system, made up of the heart, blood vessels, and blood, delivers oxygen and nutrients to cells, carries away carbon dioxide and other wastes, and moves hormones and immune cells where they are needed. Producing digestive enzymes is a function of organs like the pancreas, and most blood cell production occurs in bone marrow, not the liver.
As blood returns from the body low in oxygen, trace the correct path it takes through the heart so it can be pumped to the lungs and then out to the body.
- Right ventricle, right atrium, body, left ventricle, left atrium, lungs
- Left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle, body
- Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body
- Left ventricle, lungs, left atrium, right ventricle, right atrium, body
Correct answer: Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body
The correct answer is right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body. Oxygen-poor blood returning from the body enters the right atrium, drops into the right ventricle, and is pumped to the lungs to pick up oxygen. The now oxygen-rich blood returns to the left atrium, moves into the left ventricle, and is pumped out through the aorta to the rest of the body. The heart pumps blood when its muscular chambers contract in this ordered sequence, with valves preventing backflow.
What is the first step in solving an algebra word problem such as "A number increased by 7 equals 19; find the number"?
- Define a variable to stand for the unknown quantity, then translate the words into an equation
- Add all the numbers in the problem together to get the answer
- Multiply both sides by 7 before reading the problem
- Guess a number and check whether it works by trial and error
Correct answer: Define a variable to stand for the unknown quantity, then translate the words into an equation
The correct answer is to define a variable for the unknown, then translate the words into an equation. To solve algebra word problems, you assign a letter (such as x) to what you are asked to find, rewrite the sentence as an equation (here x + 7 = 19), and then solve it (x = 12). Guessing and trial-and-error is unreliable on the PAX, where you have limited time and no calculator. Adding all numbers blindly ignores the relationships the words describe.
Solve for x: 4x - 9 = 23.
- X = 3.5
- X = 32
- X = 8
- X = 14
Correct answer: X = 8
The correct answer is x = 8. Add 9 to both sides to get 4x = 32, then divide both sides by 4 to get x = 8. The distractor x = 14 comes from adding 9 to 23 and then dividing the wrong term, and x = 32 stops after isolating 4x without dividing. Always undo addition or subtraction first, then undo the multiplication.
A nursing student buys scrubs and a stethoscope for a total of 84 dollars. The stethoscope costs three times as much as the scrubs. How much do the scrubs cost?
- 63 dollars
- 42 dollars
- 28 dollars
- 21 dollars
Correct answer: 21 dollars
The correct answer is 21 dollars. Let the scrubs cost x, so the stethoscope costs 3x, and x + 3x = 84. Combining gives 4x = 84, so x = 21. The stethoscope then costs 63 dollars, and 21 + 63 = 84 confirms the answer. The distractor 63 dollars is the stethoscope price, not the scrubs, and 28 comes from dividing 84 by 3 instead of by 4.
If 5 textbooks cost 60 dollars, what is the cost of 8 textbooks at the same price per book?
- 75 dollars
- 104 dollars
- 96 dollars
- 48 dollars
Correct answer: 96 dollars
The correct answer is 96 dollars. Set up the proportion 5 books / 60 dollars = 8 books / x dollars, or first find the unit price: 60 divided by 5 equals 12 dollars per book. Then 8 books times 12 dollars equals 96 dollars. The distractor 75 dollars wrongly adds 15 dollars for three more books at 5 dollars each, and 48 dollars uses the wrong unit price.
Solve for y: (y / 3) + 4 = 10.
- Y = 2
- Y = 42
- Y = 6
- Y = 18
Correct answer: Y = 18
The correct answer is y = 18. Subtract 4 from both sides to get y / 3 = 6, then multiply both sides by 3 to get y = 18. The distractor y = 2 comes from dividing 6 by 3 instead of multiplying, and y = 42 comes from adding 4 before isolating the fraction. Undo the addition first, then clear the denominator.
A patient's water intake goal is modeled by the equation g = 8h, where g is glasses of water and h is the number of hours awake. If the patient drank 48 glasses, how many hours was the patient awake?
- 6 hours
- 56 hours
- 384 hours
- 40 hours
Correct answer: 6 hours
The correct answer is 6 hours. Substitute 48 for g to get 48 = 8h, then divide both sides by 8 to get h = 6. The distractor 384 comes from multiplying instead of dividing, and 40 and 56 come from subtracting or adding 8 rather than dividing. Translating a word problem means plugging the known value into the equation and solving for the remaining variable.
What is the value of the expression 3a - 2b when a = 5 and b = 4?
- 2
- 23
- -7
- 7
Correct answer: 7
The correct answer is 7. Substitute the values to get 3(5) - 2(4) = 15 - 8 = 7. The distractor 23 comes from adding instead of subtracting (15 + 8), and -7 reverses the subtraction. Evaluating an expression means replacing each variable with its given number and following the order of operations.
Solve the inequality 2x + 5 < 13 for x.
- X < 8
- X < 9
- X < 4
- X > 4
Correct answer: X < 4
The correct answer is x < 4. Subtract 5 from both sides to get 2x < 8, then divide both sides by 2 to get x < 4. Because you divided by a positive number, the inequality sign does not flip. The distractor x > 4 would only apply if you divided by a negative number, and x < 9 comes from forgetting to divide by 2.
Two consecutive whole numbers add up to 47. What is the larger of the two numbers?
- 25
- 22
- 24
- 23
Correct answer: 24
The correct answer is 24. Let the smaller number be n and the next be n + 1, so n + (n + 1) = 47. This simplifies to 2n + 1 = 47, then 2n = 46, so n = 23 and the larger number is 24. The distractor 23 is the smaller number, and 22 or 25 come from setting up the consecutive relationship incorrectly. Defining one variable and expressing the second in terms of it is the standard way to handle consecutive-number word problems.
A nursing student records the number of hours she studied on five days: 4, 6, 5, 9, and 6 hours. What is the mean number of hours she studied per day?
- 7 hours
- 6 hours
- 30 hours
- 5 hours
Correct answer: 6 hours
The correct answer is 6 hours. To calculate the mean (average), add all the values and divide by how many values there are: 4 + 6 + 5 + 9 + 6 = 30, and 30 divided by 5 days equals 6. The choice 30 is the sum, not the mean, and choice 5 confuses the mean with the median.
Which measure of central tendency is found by listing a set of numbers in order from least to greatest and identifying the value in the middle?
- The mode
- The mean
- The median
- The range
Correct answer: The median
The correct answer is the median. The median is the middle value of a data set after the numbers are arranged in order from least to greatest. The mean is the arithmetic average, the mode is the value that appears most often, and the range is the difference between the highest and lowest values, so none of those describe the middle value.
A clinic records the ages of seven patients: 22, 25, 25, 30, 31, 34, and 40. What is the mode of this data set?
- 30
- 31
- 40
- 25
Correct answer: 25
The correct answer is 25. The mode is the value that appears most frequently in a data set, and 25 is the only number that appears twice while every other age appears only once. The value 30 is the median (the middle number), not the mode, which is a common mix-up.
A set of six blood pressure readings is arranged in order: 110, 116, 120, 124, 130, and 138. Because there is no single middle number, how is the median found?
- Average the two middle values, 120 and 124, to get 122
- Use the value that appears most often
- Choose the larger of the two middle values, 124
- Add all six values and divide by six
Correct answer: Average the two middle values, 120 and 124, to get 122
The correct answer is to average the two middle values, 120 and 124, to get 122. When a data set has an even number of values, the median is the mean of the two central values: (120 + 124) divided by 2 equals 122. Adding all values and dividing by six would give the mean, not the median, and using the most frequent value would give the mode.
A quiz has scores of 70, 80, 80, 90, and 100. A student says the mean, median, and mode are all the same. Which statement correctly compares these three measures?
- The mean, median, and mode are all 84
- The mean is 84, the median is 80, and the mode is 80, so they are not all equal
- The mean, median, and mode are all 80
- The mean is 80, the median is 84, and the mode is 90
Correct answer: The mean is 84, the median is 80, and the mode is 80, so they are not all equal
The correct answer is that the mean is 84, the median is 80, and the mode is 80, so they are not all equal. The mean is the sum (420) divided by 5, which is 84; the median is the middle value when ordered (80); and the mode is the most frequent value (80). Because the mean differs from the median and mode, the three measures are not identical, showing they can give different results for the same data.
On a nursing entrance exam, the Science section may ask which of the three main energy-yielding nutrients supplies the most calories per gram. Which nutrient provides the most energy per gram?
- Fat
- Carbohydrate
- Dietary fiber
- Protein
Correct answer: Fat
Fat provides the most energy per gram. Using the standard Atwater conversion factors, fat supplies about 9 calories per gram, while both carbohydrate and protein supply about 4 calories per gram. Dietary fiber is a carbohydrate that contributes little usable energy because it is largely not digested, so it is not the high-calorie answer.
A student reviewing basic nutrition facts for a nursing exam needs to convert grams of carbohydrate into calories. If a snack contains 20 grams of carbohydrate, 5 grams of protein, and 0 grams of fat, about how many total calories does it provide?
- Approximately 80 calories
- Approximately 125 calories
- Approximately 225 calories
- Approximately 100 calories
Correct answer: Approximately 100 calories
The snack provides approximately 100 calories. Carbohydrate and protein each supply about 4 calories per gram, so 20 grams of carbohydrate gives about 80 calories and 5 grams of protein gives about 20 calories, totaling about 100. With no fat present, no calories are added at the higher 9-calorie-per-gram rate.
A person who has gone many weeks with almost no fruits or vegetables develops bleeding gums, easy bruising, and poor wound healing. A deficiency of which vitamin most likely explains these signs?
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
Correct answer: Vitamin C
Vitamin C deficiency best explains these signs. A lack of vitamin C causes scurvy, which classically produces bleeding or swollen gums, easy bruising, and impaired wound healing because vitamin C is needed to make collagen. Vitamin C is found largely in fruits and vegetables, so excluding them is a common cause; vitamin K deficiency causes bleeding but not the gum and collagen-related wound-healing pattern seen here.
A nurse explains why a patient's vitamin D level matters for bone strength. What is the main role of vitamin D in supporting healthy bones?
- It blocks the body from using calcium so bones store more
- It helps the body absorb calcium from food in the intestines
- It directly hardens bone by replacing calcium
- It converts calcium into vitamin C inside the bone
Correct answer: It helps the body absorb calcium from food in the intestines
Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium from food in the intestines. Without enough vitamin D, the intestines cannot take up calcium efficiently, so the body may pull calcium from bone, weakening it. In children, severe vitamin D deficiency can cause rickets, leading to soft, deformed bones such as bowed legs.
On the Science portion of a nursing entrance exam, vitamins are often grouped as water-soluble or fat-soluble. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin that is not stored in large amounts and must be consumed regularly?
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin A
Correct answer: Vitamin C
Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin. Water-soluble vitamins, which include vitamin C and the B vitamins, dissolve in water, are not stored in large amounts in the body, and excess is excreted in urine, so they should be eaten regularly. Vitamins A, D, and E are fat-soluble and can be stored in body fat and the liver.
A patient asks which nutrient the body uses first and most readily as its main source of quick energy. Which macronutrient is the body's primary energy source?
- Proteins
- Fats
- Carbohydrates
- Cholesterol
Correct answer: Carbohydrates
Carbohydrates are the body's primary energy source. The body breaks carbohydrates down into glucose, which cells use readily for quick energy, and which the brain and red blood cells especially rely on. Protein is used mainly for building and repairing tissue, and fat serves as a more concentrated, longer-term energy store.
A nurse is teaching a family about building a balanced plate using the federal nutrition guidance. According to the long-standing MyPlate model, which food groups should together fill about half of the plate?
- Protein and grains
- Fruits and vegetables
- Dairy and fats
- Grains and dairy
Correct answer: Fruits and vegetables
Fruits and vegetables should together fill about half of the plate. The MyPlate guide divides the plate into vegetables, fruits, grains, and protein, with the fruit and vegetable sections making up roughly half. Note that in January 2026 the USDA introduced a new guidance graphic to succeed MyPlate, but the half-plate produce emphasis remains a core message.
A teenager eats almost no foods containing iron over a long period. Which problem is this dietary pattern most likely to contribute to?
- Scurvy with bleeding gums
- Rickets with bowed legs
- Goiter with thyroid enlargement
- Iron-deficiency anemia with fatigue and weakness
Correct answer: Iron-deficiency anemia with fatigue and weakness
This pattern is most likely to contribute to iron-deficiency anemia. Iron is needed to make hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen, so too little iron reduces oxygen delivery and causes fatigue and weakness. Bleeding gums point to vitamin C deficiency, bowed legs to vitamin D deficiency, and goiter to iodine deficiency.
A nursing applicant must interpret why public health advice urges limiting added sugars and saturated fat while increasing fiber. Which statement best reflects current dietary guidance on these nutrients?
- Avoid all fat and all carbohydrates entirely
- Limit added sugars and saturated fat, and eat more fiber
- Limit fiber, and eat more added sugars
- Eat more added sugars and saturated fat, and less fiber
Correct answer: Limit added sugars and saturated fat, and eat more fiber
Current guidance is to limit added sugars and saturated fat while eating more fiber. Federal dietary recommendations advise choosing foods higher in dietary fiber and lower in saturated fat, sodium, and added sugars to support heart health and healthy weight. Fat and carbohydrate are not eliminated entirely, since the body needs both in appropriate, healthy forms.
A nurse must distinguish a fat-soluble vitamin from a water-soluble one when teaching about toxicity risk. Why can fat-soluble vitamins such as A and D cause toxicity more easily than water-soluble vitamins?
- They are destroyed instantly by stomach acid
- They are stored in body fat and the liver, so excess can build up
- They are excreted completely in urine within hours
- They cannot be absorbed from food at all
Correct answer: They are stored in body fat and the liver, so excess can build up
Fat-soluble vitamins can cause toxicity more easily because they are stored in body fat and the liver, so excess amounts accumulate over time rather than being flushed out. Water-soluble vitamins like vitamin C and the B vitamins dissolve in water and excess is largely excreted in urine, making harmful buildup less likely. This is why high-dose supplements of vitamins A and D carry a greater overdose risk.
Two samples of carbon are found to have the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons. What are these two samples called?
- Isotopes of carbon
- Molecules of carbon
- Compounds of carbon
- Ions of carbon
Correct answer: Isotopes of carbon
They are isotopes of carbon. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons (so they are still carbon) but different numbers of neutrons, which gives them different mass numbers. An ion would differ in its number of electrons and carry a charge, not differ in neutrons, so that choice is incorrect.
Which statement best describes an atom, the basic building block of matter?
- A region of space where electrons are guaranteed to be located
- A charged particle formed when electrons are gained or lost
- A substance made of two or more elements chemically combined
- The smallest unit of an element that retains the chemical properties of that element
Correct answer: The smallest unit of an element that retains the chemical properties of that element
An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains that element's chemical properties. It consists of a dense central nucleus of protons and neutrons surrounded by electrons. A charged particle is an ion, and a substance of two or more elements chemically combined is a compound, so those options describe different things.
A neutral sodium atom loses one electron during a chemical reaction. What is the resulting particle called, and what is its charge?
- A cation with a charge of +1
- An anion with a charge of -1
- An isotope with no charge
- A molecule with a charge of +1
Correct answer: A cation with a charge of +1
It becomes a cation with a +1 charge. An ion is an atom that has gained or lost electrons, giving it a net electric charge; losing a negatively charged electron leaves one more proton than electron, so the charge is positive (+1) and a positively charged ion is called a cation. Gaining an electron would instead form a negatively charged anion.
In the periodic table of the elements, what does each vertical column, called a group, primarily tell you about the elements within it?
- They are all metals
- They tend to have similar chemical properties
- They all exist as gases at room temperature
- They have the same atomic mass
Correct answer: They tend to have similar chemical properties
Elements in the same group (vertical column) tend to have similar chemical properties because they have the same number of valence (outer-shell) electrons. The periodic table arranges elements by increasing atomic number, with rows called periods and columns called groups. Atomic mass generally increases across and down the table rather than staying constant within a group, so that option is wrong.
Table salt forms when a sodium atom transfers an electron to a chlorine atom, producing oppositely charged ions that attract one another. What type of chemical bond holds these particles together?
- An ionic bond
- A hydrogen bond
- A covalent bond
- A nonpolar bond
Correct answer: An ionic bond
It is an ionic bond. A chemical bond is the attractive force that holds atoms together, and an ionic bond forms when one atom transfers electrons to another, creating positive and negative ions that attract each other. A covalent bond, by contrast, involves atoms sharing electrons rather than transferring them, so it does not fit this electron-transfer scenario.
A nurse removes an ice cube from the freezer and leaves it on a counter, where it slowly melts into liquid water. Which two states of matter are involved in this change?
- Solid and liquid
- Solid and gas
- Liquid and gas
- Gas and plasma
Correct answer: Solid and liquid
This change involves the solid and liquid states. The three states of matter commonly encountered are solid, liquid, and gas; melting is the change from a solid (ice) to a liquid (water). No gas is produced during simple melting, and plasma is a high-energy state not formed by ice melting at room temperature, so those options are incorrect.
A solution is tested and found to have a pH of 3. What does this value indicate about the solution on the pH scale?
- It is acidic
- It is neutral
- It contains no hydrogen ions
- It is strongly basic
Correct answer: It is acidic
A pH of 3 indicates the solution is acidic. The pH scale runs from 0 to 14, where values below 7 are acidic, 7 is neutral, and values above 7 are basic (alkaline); acids have a higher concentration of hydrogen ions than bases. A pH of 3 is well below 7, so the solution is acidic rather than neutral or basic.
Read the passage, then answer. "Florence Nightingale is often remembered for her work as a nurse during the Crimean War, but her lasting influence came from something less dramatic. She kept careful records of patient deaths and used charts to show that more soldiers died from preventable infections than from battle wounds. By presenting data clearly, she persuaded officials to improve sanitation in military hospitals." What is the main idea of this passage?
- Nurses should keep careful records of every patient they treat.
- Nightingale's greatest contribution was using clear data to drive reform.
- Military hospitals in the 1800s were dangerous places to recover.
- The Crimean War caused more deaths from infection than from combat.
Correct answer: Nightingale's greatest contribution was using clear data to drive reform.
The correct answer is that Nightingale's greatest contribution was using clear data to drive reform. The passage opens by contrasting her fame as a wartime nurse with her "lasting influence" from record-keeping and charts, then shows how that data persuaded officials. The other choices are supporting details, not the central point the author builds toward.
Read the passage, then answer. "Many people believe that you must drink eight glasses of water a day to stay healthy. In reality, individual needs vary widely depending on body size, activity level, and climate. The foods we eat also supply a surprising amount of water. Rigid rules can mislead more than they help." What can you infer the author believes about the eight-glasses rule?
- It oversimplifies a need that actually differs from person to person.
- It is a useful minimum that everyone should try to meet.
- It applies only to people who exercise frequently.
- It was invented by doctors to sell bottled water.
Correct answer: It oversimplifies a need that actually differs from person to person.
The correct answer is that the rule oversimplifies a need that differs from person to person. The author states needs "vary widely" and warns that "rigid rules can mislead," so the inference is that the fixed rule is an oversimplification. Nothing in the passage suggests a marketing motive or limits the point to people who exercise.
Read the passage, then answer. "The author writes: 'Before you dismiss the common housefly as a mere nuisance, consider that it can carry over one hundred different pathogens on its body. Each time it lands on your food, it may leave behind organisms capable of causing illness. Perhaps the next swat should come a little faster.'" What is the author's primary purpose?
- To persuade readers to take houseflies seriously as a health risk.
- To describe the anatomy of an insect.
- To entertain readers with a humorous story.
- To explain how houseflies reproduce.
Correct answer: To persuade readers to take houseflies seriously as a health risk.
The correct answer is to persuade readers to take houseflies seriously as a health risk. The author urges readers not to "dismiss" the fly, cites the pathogens it carries, and ends with a call to act faster, all of which signal a persuasive purpose. Although the closing line is light, the passage's central aim is persuasion, not pure entertainment or anatomy.
Read the passage, then answer. "Coral reefs cover less than one percent of the ocean floor, yet they support about a quarter of all marine species. Fish, crabs, sea turtles, and countless other creatures depend on reefs for food and shelter. When reefs decline, the effects ripple outward through entire ocean ecosystems." Which detail best supports the idea that reefs are ecologically important?
- They are made of living organisms.
- They are found in warm ocean water.
- They cover less than one percent of the ocean floor.
- They support about a quarter of all marine species.
Correct answer: They support about a quarter of all marine species.
The correct answer is that reefs support about a quarter of all marine species. Supporting the claim of ecological importance requires a detail showing how much life depends on reefs, and the one-quarter figure does exactly that. The fact that they cover under one percent of the floor actually emphasizes how disproportionate their importance is, but it is the species figure that directly proves the importance.
Read the passage, then answer. "Sleep is not simply a period of rest. During sleep, the brain consolidates memories, clears waste products, and regulates hormones that affect hunger and mood. Skimping on sleep, therefore, affects far more than how tired you feel the next day." In this passage, the word "consolidates" most nearly means:
- Erases
- Strengthens and organizes
- Examines
- Postpones
Correct answer: Strengthens and organizes
The correct answer is strengthens and organizes. The passage presents memory consolidation as one of sleep's beneficial functions, alongside clearing waste and regulating hormones, so the word must carry a positive, constructive meaning. "Erases" would contradict the helpful tone, making it the tempting but incorrect opposite.
Read the passage, then answer. "At first the new recycling program seemed like a failure. Few residents sorted their trash, and the bins sat half empty. But the city did not give up. After a year of reminders, simpler labels, and curbside pickup, participation tripled." What can you infer about the city's approach?
- Persistence and small adjustments improved the program over time.
- The city abandoned recycling after the slow start.
- Residents were fined for failing to recycle.
- The recycling bins were redesigned to hold more.
Correct answer: Persistence and small adjustments improved the program over time.
The correct answer is that persistence and small adjustments improved the program over time. The phrase "did not give up" plus the list of reminders, simpler labels, and curbside pickup shows incremental effort, and "participation tripled" shows it worked. Fines and bigger bins are never mentioned, so those inferences are unsupported.
Read the passage, then answer. "The human eye adjusts to darkness gradually. When you first enter a dark room, you can see almost nothing. After several minutes, the pupils widen and special cells in the retina become more sensitive, allowing dim shapes to appear." According to the passage, why can you eventually see in a dark room?
- The pupils widen and retinal cells grow more sensitive.
- The room slowly fills with light.
- The brain imagines the shapes that are present.
- The pupils narrow to block glare.
Correct answer: The pupils widen and retinal cells grow more sensitive.
The correct answer is that the pupils widen and retinal cells grow more sensitive. The passage states both changes directly as the cause of improved night vision. The choice about pupils narrowing reverses what the passage says, and the room does not actually gain light.
Read the passage, then answer. "Some students think highlighting their textbooks is an effective way to study. Research suggests otherwise. Highlighting feels productive, but it is a passive activity. Students remember more when they quiz themselves, a method that forces active recall." What is the author's main point?
- Highlighting is the best way to remember textbook material.
- Self-quizzing is more effective than highlighting because it is active.
- Research on studying is usually unreliable.
- Students should never write in their textbooks.
Correct answer: Self-quizzing is more effective than highlighting because it is active.
The correct answer is that self-quizzing is more effective than highlighting because it is active. The author contrasts "passive" highlighting with the "active recall" of self-quizzing and cites research favoring the latter. The claim that highlighting is best directly contradicts the passage's argument.
Read the passage, then answer. "The desert may look lifeless during the day, when temperatures soar and most animals hide. But at dusk it comes alive. Foxes, owls, snakes, and insects emerge to hunt and feed in the cooler air." The author organizes this passage mainly by:
- Explaining how deserts form over time
- Comparing two different deserts
- Listing the dangers of desert travel
- Contrasting the desert by day with the desert by night
Correct answer: Contrasting the desert by day with the desert by night
The correct answer is contrasting the desert by day with the desert by night. The passage sets up "during the day" against "at dusk it comes alive," using a clear day-versus-night structure. No second desert is compared and no formation process is explained.
Read the passage, then answer. "Vaccines work by training the immune system. They introduce a harmless piece or weakened form of a germ so the body can learn to recognize it. If the real germ ever appears, the immune system responds quickly, often stopping the illness before it starts." Which statement is best supported by the passage?
- Vaccines replace the need for an immune system.
- Vaccines contain only fully active, dangerous germs.
- Vaccines cure illnesses after they have already developed.
- Vaccines prepare the immune system to react faster to a real infection.
Correct answer: Vaccines prepare the immune system to react faster to a real infection.
The correct answer is that vaccines prepare the immune system to react faster to a real infection. The passage describes vaccines "training" the immune system so it "responds quickly" to the real germ. The tempting wrong choice about curing existing illness is contradicted by "before it starts," which describes prevention, not cure.
Read the passage, then answer. "The author writes: 'I have walked many trails, but none compares to the quiet of the redwood forest at dawn. The towering trees seem to hush every sound, and the cool mist softens the morning light. To stand among them is to feel very small and strangely at peace.'" What is the author's tone in this passage?
- Anxious and fearful
- Sarcastic and critical
- Angry and frustrated
- Reverent and peaceful
Correct answer: Reverent and peaceful
The correct answer is reverent and peaceful. Phrases like "quiet," "hush every sound," "softens the morning light," and "strangely at peace" convey calm admiration. There is no anger, fear, or sarcasm in the descriptive language.
Read the passage, then answer. "Honeybees communicate the location of food through a movement called the waggle dance. The direction of the dance points other bees toward the food relative to the sun, and the length of the waggle tells them how far to fly. This dance allows a hive to gather resources efficiently." What is the main idea?
- Hives waste energy searching for food at random.
- The waggle dance lets bees share the location of food.
- Honeybees are the most intelligent insects.
- Bees prefer flowers that grow near the sun.
Correct answer: The waggle dance lets bees share the location of food.
The correct answer is that the waggle dance lets bees share the location of food. Every sentence develops how the dance communicates direction and distance to food. The claim about random searching is the opposite of the passage's point about efficiency.
Read the passage, then answer. "When the factory closed, the small town faced hard times. Yet within a decade it had reinvented itself. Empty warehouses became art studios and cafes, and tourists began arriving to enjoy the riverfront. The closure that once seemed like an ending became a beginning." What can you infer about the town?
- The town never recovered from the factory closure.
- The town adapted and found a new source of vitality.
- Tourists caused the factory to close.
- The factory reopened a decade later.
Correct answer: The town adapted and found a new source of vitality.
The correct answer is that the town adapted and found a new source of vitality. The passage describes warehouses becoming studios and cafes and tourists arriving, ending with a closure becoming "a beginning." The choice that the town never recovered directly contradicts this turnaround.
Read the passage, then answer. "Caffeine blocks a chemical in the brain called adenosine, which normally builds up during the day and makes us feel sleepy. By blocking adenosine, caffeine delays the feeling of tiredness. However, once the caffeine wears off, the accumulated adenosine can hit all at once." In this passage, the word "accumulated" most nearly means:
- Forgotten
- Destroyed
- Unusual
- Built up over time
Correct answer: Built up over time
The correct answer is built up over time. The passage says adenosine "builds up during the day," so "accumulated" restates that gradual buildup. "Destroyed" is the opposite of what the context describes.
Read the passage, then answer. "Not all bacteria are harmful. In fact, the human gut contains trillions of bacteria that help digest food, produce certain vitamins, and crowd out dangerous microbes. A healthy population of gut bacteria is now seen as essential to overall wellness." What is the author's primary purpose?
- To inform readers that many gut bacteria are beneficial.
- To warn readers about the dangers of all bacteria.
- To describe how vitamins are manufactured in factories.
- To persuade readers to take antibiotics regularly.
Correct answer: To inform readers that many gut bacteria are beneficial.
The correct answer is to inform readers that many gut bacteria are beneficial. The passage opens with "not all bacteria are harmful" and lists the helpful roles of gut bacteria. The choice about antibiotics is never raised and would undercut the passage's positive view of gut bacteria.
Read the passage, then answer. "The first printing press did more than make books cheaper. Before its invention, books were copied by hand, a slow process that limited who could own them. Once printing spread, ideas traveled faster, literacy grew, and ordinary people gained access to knowledge once reserved for the wealthy." Which statement best summarizes the passage?
- Hand-copied books were more accurate than printed ones.
- Only the wealthy benefited from the printing press.
- The printing press widened access to knowledge and changed society.
- The printing press made books slightly less expensive.
Correct answer: The printing press widened access to knowledge and changed society.
The correct answer is that the printing press widened access to knowledge and changed society. The passage explicitly says it did "more than make books cheaper" and then describes faster ideas, growing literacy, and broader access. The choice that only the wealthy benefited reverses the passage's point that ordinary people gained access.
Read the passage, then answer. "A good first-aid responder stays calm. Panic spreads quickly and can keep both the responder and the victim from thinking clearly. By breathing steadily and speaking in a reassuring voice, a responder helps the situation feel manageable, which often improves the outcome." What can you infer about the value of staying calm?
- A responder's calmness can influence the victim and the outcome.
- Speaking quickly reassures a victim best.
- Calmness mainly helps the responder feel comfortable.
- Staying calm is only useful in minor emergencies.
Correct answer: A responder's calmness can influence the victim and the outcome.
The correct answer is that a responder's calmness can influence the victim and the outcome. The passage notes panic affects both people and that a reassuring voice helps the situation and "often improves the outcome." The idea that calmness mainly benefits the responder ignores the stated effect on the victim.
Read the passage, then answer. "The author writes: 'Critics complained that the bridge was too expensive and too bold. Decades later, those same critics fell silent. The bridge had become the most beloved landmark in the city, drawing visitors from around the world.'" What is the author's attitude toward the bridge?
- Indifferent to its history
- Admiring of its eventual success
- Fearful of its safety
- Regretful that it was ever built
Correct answer: Admiring of its eventual success
The correct answer is admiring of its eventual success. The author notes critics "fell silent" and calls the bridge "the most beloved landmark," signaling approval. There is no expressed regret, indifference, or fear.
Read the passage, then answer. "Plants do not have brains, yet they respond to their environment in remarkable ways. Sunflowers turn to follow the sun. Some plants close their leaves when touched. Others release chemicals to warn nearby plants of insect attacks." Which detail best supports the claim that plants respond to their environment?
- Plants need water to survive.
- Sunflowers turn to follow the sun.
- Plants do not have brains.
- Plants are living organisms.
Correct answer: Sunflowers turn to follow the sun.
The correct answer is that sunflowers turn to follow the sun. Supporting the claim requires an example of a plant reacting to its surroundings, and sun-tracking is exactly such a response. The statement that plants lack brains sets up the surprise but does not itself prove responsiveness.
Read the passage, then answer. "Many job seekers focus only on listing their skills. Employers, however, often care more about how those skills were used. A resume that says 'reduced patient wait times by twenty percent' tells a stronger story than one that simply says 'good at organization.'" What is the main idea of this passage?
- Organization is the most important job skill.
- Employers ignore resumes entirely.
- Resumes should never mention skills.
- Showing results is more convincing than just naming skills.
Correct answer: Showing results is more convincing than just naming skills.
The correct answer is that showing results is more convincing than just naming skills. The author contrasts a vague skill claim with a concrete, measurable result and says the result "tells a stronger story." The choice that resumes should never mention skills overstates the point, since the author favors pairing skills with results.
Read the passage, then answer. "The Arctic fox is built for the cold. Its thick fur changes from brown in summer to white in winter, helping it blend into the snow. Its small ears and short legs reduce heat loss, and the fur on its paws lets it walk on ice without slipping." In this passage, the word "reduce" most nearly means:
- Lessen
- Increase
- Measure
- Reflect
Correct answer: Lessen
The correct answer is lessen. The passage describes adaptations that help the fox stay warm, so reducing heat loss must mean decreasing it. "Increase" would be the opposite and would not help the animal survive the cold.
Read the passage, then answer. "For years, people assumed that left-handed and right-handed brains were simply mirror images. Newer research challenges that view. Brain imaging shows subtle differences in how the two groups process language and movement, suggesting handedness is more complex than once thought." What can you infer about scientists' understanding of handedness?
- Left-handed people cannot process language.
- Scientists have always agreed on how handedness works.
- Handedness has no effect on the brain.
- Scientists' understanding of handedness has changed with new evidence.
Correct answer: Scientists' understanding of handedness has changed with new evidence.
The correct answer is that scientists' understanding of handedness has changed with new evidence. The passage contrasts an old assumption with "newer research" and brain imaging that "challenges that view." The claim that scientists always agreed contradicts the shift the passage describes.
Read the passage, then answer. "The author writes: 'You might think that learning a second language as an adult is hopeless. Do not believe it. Adults bring discipline, life experience, and clear motivation to the task. What they lack in youthful flexibility, they make up for in focus.'" What is the author's primary purpose?
- To encourage adults by arguing they can learn a new language.
- To compare different teaching methods.
- To discourage adults from learning new languages.
- To explain the grammar of a foreign language.
Correct answer: To encourage adults by arguing they can learn a new language.
The correct answer is to encourage adults by arguing they can learn a new language. The author tells readers "do not believe" the idea that it is hopeless and lists adult strengths like discipline and motivation. The opening line states the discouraging view only to refute it.
Read the passage, then answer. "A lighthouse does not chase ships or pull them to safety. It simply stands firm and shines a steady light. In the same way, a good mentor does not solve every problem for a student but offers steady guidance that helps the student find the way." What comparison does the author make?
- A ship is compared to a student who is lost forever.
- A lighthouse is compared to a dangerous storm.
- A mentor is compared to a lighthouse offering steady guidance.
- A mentor is compared to a problem that cannot be solved.
Correct answer: A mentor is compared to a lighthouse offering steady guidance.
The correct answer is that a mentor is compared to a lighthouse offering steady guidance. The passage states "in the same way" to link the lighthouse's steady light to a mentor's steady guidance. The other choices misread which elements the author is connecting.
Read the passage, then answer. "Stress is not always harmful. In small, short bursts, it sharpens focus and prepares the body to meet a challenge. The trouble begins when stress becomes constant, because the body was never designed to stay on high alert for long periods." Which statement is best supported by the passage?
- Stress has no effect on focus.
- All stress damages the body.
- The body works best under permanent high alert.
- Brief stress can be helpful, while constant stress is the problem.
Correct answer: Brief stress can be helpful, while constant stress is the problem.
The correct answer is that brief stress can be helpful while constant stress is the problem. The passage says short bursts of stress "sharpen focus" but that constant stress causes trouble. The choice that all stress is damaging contradicts the opening line that stress is "not always harmful."
Read the passage, then answer. "The community garden began with a single raised bed in a vacant lot. Neighbors who had never spoken now traded seeds and recipes. Over three summers, the lot filled with vegetables, flowers, and friendships that reached far beyond the garden fence." What is the main idea of this passage?
- A garden grew into a source of food and community connection.
- Neighbors rarely cooperate on projects.
- Vacant lots are usually a waste of space.
- Gardening requires expensive equipment.
Correct answer: A garden grew into a source of food and community connection.
The correct answer is that a garden grew into a source of food and community connection. The passage tracks the garden's growth alongside new neighborly relationships and "friendships that reached far beyond the garden fence." The claim that neighbors rarely cooperate contradicts the cooperation the passage celebrates.
Read the passage, then answer. "Most people picture spiders as enemies, but spiders are valuable allies in the home and garden. A single spider can eat hundreds of insects in a year, including pests that damage crops or spread disease. Before reaching for a shoe, consider letting the spider do its work." What is the author trying to persuade readers to do?
- Avoid all insects in the home.
- Buy more shoes for pest control.
- Reconsider killing spiders because they control pests.
- Plant more crops in the garden.
Correct answer: Reconsider killing spiders because they control pests.
The correct answer is to reconsider killing spiders because they control pests. The author reframes spiders as "allies," cites the insects they eat, and urges readers not to reach for a shoe. The shoe reference is figurative, not a suggestion to buy shoes.
Read the passage, then answer. "Glaciers act like slow-moving rivers of ice. Under their own weight, they grind down rock, carve deep valleys, and carry debris for miles. Over thousands of years, they reshape entire landscapes long after they have melted away." In this passage, the word "reshape" most nearly means:
- Change the form of
- Destroy completely
- Measure carefully
- Photograph
Correct answer: Change the form of
The correct answer is change the form of. The passage describes glaciers carving valleys and altering landscapes, so reshaping means changing their form. "Destroy completely" is too extreme, since carving and altering is not total destruction.
Read the passage, then answer. "Many inventions were the result of accidents. A scientist studying radar noticed a chocolate bar melting in his pocket, which led to the microwave oven. A failed attempt to make a strong glue produced a weak adhesive that became the sticky note. Sometimes mistakes open unexpected doors." What can you infer the author believes about mistakes?
- Mistakes always lead to great inventions.
- Mistakes can sometimes lead to valuable discoveries.
- Mistakes are only useful to scientists.
- Mistakes should be avoided at all costs.
Correct answer: Mistakes can sometimes lead to valuable discoveries.
The correct answer is that mistakes can sometimes lead to valuable discoveries. The closing line, "sometimes mistakes open unexpected doors," qualifies the claim with "sometimes." The choice that mistakes "always" lead to inventions overstates the cautious wording.
Read the passage, then answer. "The author writes: 'The new policy was sold as a way to save money. In practice, it shifted costs onto the very families it claimed to help. Behind the cheerful language lay a heavier burden for those who could least afford it.'" What is the author's tone toward the policy?
- Enthusiastic and approving
- Playful and amused
- Critical and disapproving
- Neutral and factual
Correct answer: Critical and disapproving
The correct answer is critical and disapproving. Phrases like "shifted costs onto the very families it claimed to help" and "behind the cheerful language" reveal disapproval of the policy's effects. There is no praise or neutrality in the wording.
Read the passage, then answer. "Trees in a forest are not as solitary as they appear. Beneath the soil, their roots connect through networks of fungi. Through these networks, trees share nutrients and even send warning signals to neighbors under attack by insects." Which statement is best supported by the passage?
- Trees rely only on sunlight, not on soil.
- Trees can share resources and signals through underground fungal networks.
- Trees compete and never help one another.
- Insects help trees communicate.
Correct answer: Trees can share resources and signals through underground fungal networks.
The correct answer is that trees can share resources and signals through underground fungal networks. The passage describes roots connected by fungi that allow trees to share nutrients and send warnings. The choice that trees never help one another contradicts this cooperative picture.
Read the passage, then answer. "The first attempts at human flight ended in failure and ridicule. Yet each crash taught the inventors something new about wings, balance, and air. The Wright brothers succeeded not because they avoided failure, but because they studied it carefully." What is the main idea?
- Studying earlier failures helped make flight possible.
- Flying machines are too dangerous to build.
- Human flight was achieved by avoiding all mistakes.
- The Wright brothers were the first to attempt flight.
Correct answer: Studying earlier failures helped make flight possible.
The correct answer is that studying earlier failures helped make flight possible. The passage says each crash "taught the inventors something" and that the Wright brothers succeeded by studying failure. The choice that flight came from avoiding mistakes contradicts that the brothers learned from failures.
Read the passage, then answer. "A balanced diet is sometimes pictured as a plate divided into sections: vegetables and fruits filling half, grains and proteins sharing the rest. The image is simple, but it captures an important truth. No single food provides everything the body needs." What is the author's primary purpose?
- To explain why one perfect food exists.
- To criticize people who eat vegetables.
- To describe how plates are manufactured.
- To illustrate the idea that variety in the diet is important.
Correct answer: To illustrate the idea that variety in the diet is important.
The correct answer is to illustrate the idea that variety in the diet is important. The plate image leads to the stated truth that "no single food provides everything the body needs." The choice about a perfect food contradicts that very point.
Read the passage, then answer. "When the power went out across the region, people expected chaos. Instead, neighbors checked on one another, shared flashlights and food, and gathered on porches to talk. For a few quiet nights, the outage brought the community closer together." What can you infer from the passage?
- People ignored one another during the outage.
- An unexpected hardship brought neighbors together.
- The power never came back on.
- The outage caused lasting damage to the community.
Correct answer: An unexpected hardship brought neighbors together.
The correct answer is that an unexpected hardship brought neighbors together. The passage contrasts the expected chaos with neighbors helping one another and ends saying the outage "brought the community closer." The choice that people ignored one another contradicts the described cooperation.
Read the passage, then answer. "The author writes: 'Reading aloud to young children may seem old-fashioned in an age of screens and apps. But few activities do more for a developing mind. The shared rhythm of a story builds vocabulary, attention, and a lasting bond between reader and child.'" What is the author's main argument?
- Reading aloud to children remains highly valuable.
- Stories should be kept short to hold attention.
- Children should not be read to until they are older.
- Screens and apps are better than books for children.
Correct answer: Reading aloud to children remains highly valuable.
The correct answer is that reading aloud to children remains highly valuable. The author admits the practice seems old-fashioned but argues "few activities do more for a developing mind" and lists its benefits. The choice favoring screens contradicts the author's clear preference for reading aloud.
Read the passage, then answer. "The word 'volunteer' carries a quiet power. Volunteers staff food banks, comfort hospital patients, and rebuild homes after disasters, all without pay. Their reward is not money but the knowledge that they have eased someone else's burden." In this passage, the word "eased" most nearly means:
- Lightened
- Measured
- Worsened
- Ignored
Correct answer: Lightened
The correct answer is lightened. The passage presents volunteers as helping others, so easing a burden means making it lighter. "Worsened" is the opposite of what helpful volunteers would do.
Read the passage, then answer. "Some animals migrate thousands of miles each year, but the Arctic tern outdoes them all. This small bird travels from the Arctic to the Antarctic and back, chasing summer at both ends of the Earth. Over its lifetime, it may fly a distance equal to several trips to the moon." Which detail best supports the claim that the Arctic tern is an extreme migrator?
- It eats fish from the ocean.
- It travels from the Arctic to the Antarctic and back.
- It is a small bird.
- It nests in cold climates.
Correct answer: It travels from the Arctic to the Antarctic and back.
The correct answer is that it travels from the Arctic to the Antarctic and back. Supporting the claim of extreme migration requires a detail about distance traveled, and the pole-to-pole journey provides it. The bird's small size makes the feat impressive but does not by itself measure migration.
Read the passage, then answer. "At the museum, the most popular exhibit was not the largest or the most expensive. It was a simple set of buttons and levers that let visitors light a bulb or sound a bell. People learn best, it turns out, when they can touch and try, not just look." What is the main idea of this passage?
- Museums should remove all hands-on exhibits.
- Expensive exhibits are always the most popular.
- Hands-on, interactive exhibits engage visitors most effectively.
- Buttons and levers are dangerous for visitors.
Correct answer: Hands-on, interactive exhibits engage visitors most effectively.
The correct answer is that hands-on, interactive exhibits engage visitors most effectively. The passage notes the popular exhibit let people "touch and try" and concludes people "learn best" that way. The choice that expensive exhibits are most popular is contradicted by the simple exhibit's success.
Read the passage, then answer. "Sharks have patrolled the oceans for over four hundred million years, longer than trees have existed on land. Despite their fearsome reputation, most species pose little threat to humans. Far more people are harmed by ordinary household accidents each year than by sharks." What can you infer the author wants readers to understand?
- Sharks are the deadliest animals on Earth.
- Sharks are far less dangerous to people than their reputation suggests.
- Trees are older than sharks.
- Household accidents are caused by sharks.
Correct answer: Sharks are far less dangerous to people than their reputation suggests.
The correct answer is that sharks are far less dangerous to people than their reputation suggests. The author notes most species "pose little threat" and compares shark harm to common household accidents. The claim that sharks are the deadliest animals contradicts this reassurance.
Read the passage, then answer. "The author writes: 'For decades the old theater sat boarded up, a relic everyone agreed was beyond saving. Then a group of volunteers proved everyone wrong. With patience and donated labor, they restored the theater to its former glory.'" What is the author's attitude toward the volunteers?
- Admiring of what they accomplished
- Confused by their motives
- Worried about their safety
- Dismissive of their efforts
Correct answer: Admiring of what they accomplished
The correct answer is admiring of what they accomplished. The author says the volunteers "proved everyone wrong" and restored the theater "to its former glory," both signs of admiration. There is no dismissal, worry, or confusion in the description.
Read the passage, then answer. "Laughter may seem trivial, but it has real effects on the body. A good laugh relaxes muscles, eases tension, and prompts the brain to release chemicals that improve mood. Some hospitals now invite comedians and clowns to help patients heal." Which statement is best supported by the passage?
- Comedians cure serious diseases.
- Laughter can produce physical and emotional benefits.
- Laughter has no measurable effect on health.
- Hospitals discourage patients from laughing.
Correct answer: Laughter can produce physical and emotional benefits.
The correct answer is that laughter can produce physical and emotional benefits. The passage lists relaxed muscles, eased tension, and improved mood, then notes hospitals using humor. The choice that comedians cure diseases overstates the passage, which describes helping patients heal, not curing illness.
Read the passage, then answer. "The internet promised to connect the world, and in many ways it has. Yet some researchers warn that endless streams of information can leave people feeling more isolated, not less. Being constantly available is not the same as being truly connected." What is the author's main point?
- The internet has fully solved the problem of loneliness.
- Constant online access does not guarantee genuine connection.
- People should never use the internet.
- Researchers dislike all new technology.
Correct answer: Constant online access does not guarantee genuine connection.
The correct answer is that constant online access does not guarantee genuine connection. The passage's final line distinguishes "being constantly available" from "being truly connected." The choice that the internet has solved loneliness contradicts the warning about isolation.
Read the passage, then answer. "A river does not flow in a straight line. It bends, slows, and sometimes doubles back, shaped by the land it crosses. A career often unfolds the same way. The path that seems like a detour may be carving something valuable." What comparison is the author making?
- A career is compared to a straight, predictable road.
- A river is compared to a job that never changes.
- A detour is compared to a complete failure.
- A career is compared to a winding river shaped by circumstances.
Correct answer: A career is compared to a winding river shaped by circumstances.
The correct answer is that a career is compared to a winding river shaped by circumstances. The author states a career "unfolds the same way" as a bending river and suggests detours can be valuable. The choice describing a straight road is the opposite of the river's winding path.
Read the passage, then answer. "Bees are vanishing in many parts of the world, and the loss matters far beyond honey. Bees pollinate a large share of the crops we eat, from apples to almonds. Without them, grocery shelves would look very different and far more bare." In this passage, the word "bare" most nearly means:
- Colorful
- Fully stocked
- Heavy
- Empty
Correct answer: Empty
The correct answer is empty. The passage warns that without bees, shelves would look "very different and far more bare," meaning lacking food. "Fully stocked" is the opposite of the shortage the author describes.
Read the passage, then answer. "The night nurse noticed that her patient grew restless every evening around sunset, a pattern she had seen before. Rather than dismiss it, she dimmed the lights, spoke softly, and stayed nearby until the patient settled. Small, attentive acts, she had learned, often did more than any single medication." What is the main idea of this passage?
- Attentive, observant care can be as valuable as medication.
- Medication is the only reliable way to calm a restless patient.
- Patients should not be disturbed after sunset.
- The nurse was unable to help her patient.
Correct answer: Attentive, observant care can be as valuable as medication.
The correct answer is that attentive, observant care can be as valuable as medication. The passage shows the nurse noticing a pattern and using small acts that "often did more than any single medication." The choice that medication is the only reliable method contradicts that conclusion.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Handwashing remains the single most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in any setting. Soap works by loosening dirt and microbes from the skin so they can be rinsed away with water. While alcohol-based sanitizers are convenient, they are less effective when hands are visibly soiled, because the grime shields germs from the alcohol." What is the main idea of this passage?
- Soap kills germs faster than water alone.
- Handwashing with soap and water is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection.
- Dirt on the hands is harmless to most people.
- Alcohol-based sanitizers should never be used.
Correct answer: Handwashing with soap and water is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection.
The correct answer is that handwashing with soap and water is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection. The first sentence states this directly as the central claim, and the rest of the passage supports it. The sanitizer point is a supporting detail, not the main idea.
Read the passage and answer the question. "The human body loses heat in four ways: radiation, conduction, convection, and evaporation. Radiation accounts for the largest share of heat loss in a person at rest in a cool room. Evaporation, by contrast, becomes the dominant pathway during heavy exercise, when sweat carries heat away from the skin." According to the passage, which method of heat loss is greatest when a person is exercising hard?
- Convection
- Radiation
- Conduction
- Evaporation
Correct answer: Evaporation
The correct answer is evaporation. The passage states that evaporation becomes the dominant pathway during heavy exercise as sweat carries heat away. Radiation is named as the largest share only when a person is at rest, so it is the tempting but incorrect choice here.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Vaccines train the immune system to recognize a pathogen before a real infection occurs. They contain a harmless piece or weakened form of the germ, which prompts the body to build defenses. Should the actual pathogen later enter the body, the immune system responds quickly because it has already learned the threat." Which statement can be inferred from this passage?
- Vaccines cause the diseases they are meant to prevent.
- A vaccinated person fights off the real pathogen faster than they otherwise would.
- The immune system cannot remember past infections.
- Vaccines work only on bacteria, not viruses.
Correct answer: A vaccinated person fights off the real pathogen faster than they otherwise would.
The correct answer is that a vaccinated person fights off the real pathogen faster. The passage says the immune system responds quickly because it has already learned the threat, which implies a faster response. It explicitly states vaccines use a harmless or weakened form, so they do not cause the disease.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Sleep is not a passive state. During deep sleep the brain consolidates memories, clears metabolic waste, and repairs tissue. Chronic sleep loss has been linked to impaired concentration, weakened immunity, and increased risk of accidents." What is the author's primary purpose in this passage?
- To compare different sleep disorders
- To describe how dreams are formed
- To explain that sleep is an active, restorative process important to health
- To argue that people should sleep less to be more productive
Correct answer: To explain that sleep is an active, restorative process important to health
The correct answer is to explain that sleep is an active, restorative process important to health. The passage opens by denying that sleep is passive, then lists the restorative work the brain performs and the harms of losing sleep. It does not argue for less sleep or focus on dreams or disorders.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Despite mountains of evidence linking smoking to lung disease, some companies spent decades insisting the science was unsettled. Internal documents later revealed that their own researchers had confirmed the dangers years earlier." Which word best describes the author's tone toward these companies?
- Admiring
- Neutral
- Critical
- Amused
Correct answer: Critical
The correct answer is critical. The author contrasts the companies' public denials with their own private knowledge of the dangers, exposing dishonesty. This disapproving framing reflects a critical tone, not admiration, neutrality, or amusement.
Read the passage and answer the question. "A balanced diet supplies the body with macronutrients and micronutrients. Macronutrients, which include carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, are needed in large amounts and supply energy. Micronutrients, such as vitamins and minerals, are required in small amounts but are essential for processes like bone formation and oxygen transport." Based on the passage, which of the following is a micronutrient?
- Fat
- Carbohydrate
- Protein
- Iron
Correct answer: Iron
The correct answer is iron. The passage defines micronutrients as vitamins and minerals needed in small amounts; iron is a mineral involved in oxygen transport. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are all named as macronutrients, making them incorrect.
Read the passage and answer the question. "The placebo effect occurs when a patient experiences a real improvement after receiving an inactive treatment, simply because they believe it will help. Researchers must account for this effect in clinical trials, which is why a comparison group often receives a sham treatment." Which sentence states an opinion rather than a fact?
- Clinical trials are far too expensive to be worthwhile.
- Researchers must account for the placebo effect in trials.
- A comparison group often receives a sham treatment.
- The placebo effect involves improvement after an inactive treatment.
Correct answer: Clinical trials are far too expensive to be worthwhile.
The correct answer is the claim that clinical trials are far too expensive to be worthwhile. That statement expresses a judgment that cannot be verified and was not in the passage, marking it as opinion. The other choices restate factual information given in the passage.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Coral reefs cover less than one percent of the ocean floor, yet they shelter roughly a quarter of all marine species. As ocean temperatures rise, corals expel the algae that feed them and turn white, a process called bleaching. Prolonged bleaching can kill a reef and collapse the ecosystem that depends on it." What is the best title for this passage?
- Coral Reefs and the Threat of Bleaching
- The Largest Fish in the Sea
- How to Scuba Dive Safely
- The History of Ocean Exploration
Correct answer: Coral Reefs and the Threat of Bleaching
The correct answer is Coral Reefs and the Threat of Bleaching. The passage centers on the importance of reefs and the danger that warming and bleaching pose to them. The other titles cover topics the passage never addresses, such as diving or exploration.
Read the passage and answer the question. "When a person stands up too quickly, blood briefly pools in the legs and blood pressure in the brain drops. Most people recover in a second as the heart speeds up and vessels tighten. In some individuals, however, this adjustment lags, causing dizziness or fainting." According to the passage, why do most people NOT faint when standing up quickly?
- They never experience a drop in blood pressure
- Blood does not pool in their legs
- Their brains do not need blood
- The heart speeds up and vessels tighten to restore pressure
Correct answer: The heart speeds up and vessels tighten to restore pressure
The correct answer is that the heart speeds up and vessels tighten to restore pressure. The passage states most people recover in a second because of this rapid adjustment. Everyone experiences the brief drop and pooling, so the response, not their absence, prevents fainting.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Antibiotics kill bacteria but have no effect on viruses. Prescribing them for viral illnesses such as the common cold offers no benefit and contributes to antibiotic resistance, a growing problem in which bacteria evolve to survive the very drugs designed to destroy them." What can be concluded about treating a common cold with antibiotics?
- It is helpful only in winter
- It is ineffective and may worsen antibiotic resistance
- It speeds recovery from the cold
- It cures the virus within a day
Correct answer: It is ineffective and may worsen antibiotic resistance
The correct answer is that it is ineffective and may worsen antibiotic resistance. The passage says antibiotics do not affect viruses and that the cold is viral, so they offer no benefit, and overuse contributes to resistance. This rules out the choices claiming a cure or faster recovery.
Read the passage and answer the question. "The author writes: 'Imagine a hospital where every patient is treated as a number on a chart rather than a person with fears and hopes. Now imagine the opposite, a place where caregivers learn each patient's story. The difference is not sentimentality; it is better medicine.'" What is the author mainly trying to persuade the reader to believe?
- Hospitals should hire fewer staff
- Treating patients as individuals improves care
- Patients should not share their fears
- Charts and numbers should be eliminated
Correct answer: Treating patients as individuals improves care
The correct answer is that treating patients as individuals improves care. The author contrasts impersonal care with personal care and ends by calling the personal approach better medicine. The phrase rejecting sentimentality shows the argument is about quality of care, not eliminating charts.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Vitamin D can be obtained from sunlight, certain foods, and supplements. The body produces it when ultraviolet rays strike the skin. People who live in northern climates, work indoors, or wear extensive sun protection may produce too little and benefit from dietary sources." Which group is the passage suggesting is most at risk of low vitamin D?
- People who spend most days outdoors in sunny climates
- People who eat fortified foods daily
- People who work indoors in northern climates
- People who take supplements regularly
Correct answer: People who work indoors in northern climates
The correct answer is people who work indoors in northern climates. The passage names limited sun exposure, including northern climates and indoor work, as the cause of low production. The other groups either get ample sun or already obtain vitamin D through diet or supplements.
Read the passage and answer the question. "For centuries, sailors suffered from scurvy, a disease marked by bleeding gums and extreme weakness. The cause baffled physicians until a naval surgeon noticed that sailors given citrus fruit recovered. We now know scurvy results from a lack of vitamin C." The phrase "baffled physicians" most nearly means the disease's cause was:
- Confusing or puzzling to them
- Easily explained
- Known but ignored
- Considered unimportant
Correct answer: Confusing or puzzling to them
The correct answer is confusing or puzzling to them. The word baffled describes something that defies explanation, and the passage confirms this by saying the cause was unknown until citrus was observed to cure it. This rules out meanings like easily explained or already known.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Stress is not always harmful. Short-term stress can sharpen focus and prepare the body to respond to a challenge. It becomes damaging only when it is constant, keeping stress hormones elevated for long periods and wearing down the body over time." Which statement best reflects the author's view of stress?
- All stress is dangerous and should be avoided
- Stress has no effect on the body
- Stress is harmful only when it is prolonged
- Stress always improves performance
Correct answer: Stress is harmful only when it is prolonged
The correct answer is that stress is harmful only when it is prolonged. The passage opens by saying stress is not always harmful and explains that short-term stress can help, while constant stress causes damage. The choices calling all stress dangerous or always helpful both overstate the author's point.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Blood pressure is recorded as two numbers. The top number, systolic pressure, measures the force in the arteries when the heart beats. The bottom number, diastolic pressure, measures the force when the heart rests between beats." In a reading of 118 over 76, what does the number 76 represent?
- The force in the arteries when the heart rests between beats
- The total volume of blood in the body
- The number of heartbeats per minute
- The force in the arteries when the heart beats
Correct answer: The force in the arteries when the heart rests between beats
The correct answer is the force in the arteries when the heart rests between beats. The passage defines the bottom number as diastolic pressure, measured while the heart rests, and 76 is the bottom number. The force during a heartbeat is the top, systolic number.
Read the passage and answer the question. "The skin is the body's largest organ and its first line of defense. It blocks harmful microbes, helps regulate temperature, and contains nerve endings that detect touch, pressure, and pain. Damaged skin can no longer perform these duties fully, which is why burns and wounds raise the risk of infection." Why do burns increase the risk of infection, according to the passage?
- Burns lower body temperature permanently
- The skin stops being an organ after a burn
- Burns attract more microbes to the body
- Damaged skin can no longer fully act as a barrier against microbes
Correct answer: Damaged skin can no longer fully act as a barrier against microbes
The correct answer is that damaged skin can no longer fully act as a barrier against microbes. The passage states the skin blocks harmful microbes and that damaged skin cannot perform its duties fully, which is why wounds raise infection risk. The other options misstate or invent claims not supported by the text.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Exercise benefits the body in ways that go beyond weight control. Regular physical activity strengthens the heart, improves circulation, lowers blood pressure, and releases chemicals in the brain that lift mood. Even a daily walk produces measurable gains." Which detail from the passage supports the idea that exercise affects mental well-being?
- It lowers blood pressure
- It improves circulation
- It strengthens the heart
- It releases chemicals in the brain that lift mood
Correct answer: It releases chemicals in the brain that lift mood
The correct answer is that exercise releases chemicals in the brain that lift mood. This is the only listed benefit tied to mental well-being. Strengthening the heart, improving circulation, and lowering blood pressure are all physical, not mental, benefits.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Dehydration sneaks up on people. By the time a person feels thirsty, the body is often already low on fluid. Older adults are especially vulnerable because the sense of thirst weakens with age, so they may not feel thirsty even when their bodies need water." Why are older adults more vulnerable to dehydration, according to the passage?
- Their sense of thirst weakens with age
- They sweat more than younger adults
- They never feel thirsty at any age
- They drink too much water
Correct answer: Their sense of thirst weakens with age
The correct answer is that their sense of thirst weakens with age. The passage states the thirst sense weakens with age, so older adults may not feel thirsty even when they need water. The text does not mention sweating, and it says thirst weakens rather than vanishes entirely.
Read the passage and answer the question. "The author concludes: 'We spend fortunes treating illness after it appears, yet a fraction of that money spent on prevention, on clean water, vaccination, and education, would save far more lives. The wiser investment is obvious.'" What is the author arguing?
- Clean water has no effect on health
- Treating illness is always a waste of money
- Education is irrelevant to public health
- Prevention is a wiser investment than treating illness after it appears
Correct answer: Prevention is a wiser investment than treating illness after it appears
The correct answer is that prevention is a wiser investment than treating illness after it appears. The author contrasts the cost of treatment with the greater payoff of prevention and calls prevention the wiser investment. The passage values treatment less than prevention but does not call all treatment a waste.
Read the passage and answer the question. "Hand sanitizer and soap both reduce germs, but they work differently. Soap and water physically remove microbes by washing them down the drain, while alcohol-based sanitizer kills many germs in place. Sanitizer is handy when a sink is unavailable, but it does not remove dirt or all types of germs." Which conclusion is best supported by the passage?
- Soap and sanitizer work in exactly the same way
- Sanitizer is a reasonable substitute when soap and water are not available
- Sanitizer removes dirt better than soap
- Soap kills germs in place without removing them
Correct answer: Sanitizer is a reasonable substitute when soap and water are not available
The correct answer is that sanitizer is a reasonable substitute when soap and water are not available. The passage says sanitizer is handy when a sink is unavailable while noting its limits. It explicitly states the two work differently and that sanitizer does not remove dirt, ruling out the other choices.
A nursing entrance exam math question asks: What is 3/4 written as a percentage?
- 75%
- 34%
- 43%
- 0.75%
Correct answer: 75%
The correct answer is 75%. To convert a fraction to a percentage, divide the numerator by the denominator and multiply by 100. Dividing 3 by 4 gives 0.75, and 0.75 times 100 equals 75%. Converting between fractions, decimals, and percentages is a core PAX math skill.
On a nursing entrance exam practice question, you must find 15% of 240. What is the answer?
- 45
- 24
- 36
- 30
Correct answer: 36
The correct answer is 36. To find a percentage of a number, convert the percent to a decimal and multiply: 15% becomes 0.15, and 0.15 times 240 equals 36. Percentage-of-a-number problems like this are common nursing entrance exam math practice questions.
What is the sum of 3/8 and 1/4?
- $\frac{4}{12}$
- $\frac{1}{2}$
- $\frac{4}{8}$
- $\frac{5}{8}$
Correct answer: $\frac{5}{8}$
The correct answer is 5/8. To add fractions you need a common denominator; 1/4 is equivalent to 2/8, so 3/8 plus 2/8 equals 5/8. Adding 3/8 and 1/4 numerators directly without a common denominator would give the wrong answer.
A patient drinks 2/3 of a 750 mL bottle of water. How many milliliters did the patient drink?
- 600 mL
- 450 mL
- 500 mL
- 250 mL
Correct answer: 500 mL
The correct answer is 500 mL. To find a fraction of a quantity, multiply the fraction by the total: 2/3 times 750 equals 1500 divided by 3, which is 500 mL. A common error is to find 1/3 of the bottle (250 mL) instead of 2/3.
Convert the decimal 0.045 to a fraction in lowest terms.
- $\frac{9}{200}$
- $\frac{9}{100}$
- $\frac{45}{100}$
- $\frac{45}{1000}$
Correct answer: $\frac{9}{200}$
The correct answer is 9/200. The decimal 0.045 means 45 thousandths, or 45/1000. Dividing both numerator and denominator by their greatest common factor of 5 gives 9/200. Leaving it as 45/1000 is correct in value but not reduced to lowest terms.
What is 0.25 expressed as a fraction in simplest form?
- $\frac{1}{4}$
- $\frac{2}{5}$
- $\frac{25}{10}$
- $\frac{1}{2}$
Correct answer: $\frac{1}{4}$
The correct answer is 1/4. The decimal 0.25 equals 25/100, and dividing both numerator and denominator by 25 reduces it to 1/4. Recognizing common decimal-fraction equivalents like 0.25 = 1/4 and 0.5 = 1/2 is a frequently tested PAX skill.
Round the number 3.7851 to the nearest hundredth.
- 3.78
- 3.785
- 3.79
- 3.80
Correct answer: 3.79
The correct answer is 3.79. The hundredths digit is 8 and the digit immediately to its right, in the thousandths place, is 5; because that digit is 5 or greater, you round the hundredths digit up from 8 to 9, giving 3.79. Rounding decimals to a given place value is a basic PAX math skill.
A nurse works 7.5 hours per day for 5 days. How many total hours did the nurse work that week?
- 40 hours
- 35 hours
- 37.5 hours
- 42.5 hours
Correct answer: 37.5 hours
The correct answer is 37.5 hours. Multiplying the daily hours by the number of days, 7.5 times 5 equals 37.5 hours. Estimating 7 times 5 as 35 would undercount the half hour worked each day.
If a shirt originally costs $40 and is discounted by 25%, what is the sale price?
- $35
- $10
- $15
- $30
Correct answer: $30
The correct answer is $30. A 25% discount on $40 is 0.25 times 40, which equals $10 off; subtracting that from $40 gives a sale price of $30. The $10 figure is the discount amount, not the final price.
A test has 80 questions and a student answers 68 correctly. What percentage did the student get correct?
- 88%
- 85%
- 82%
- 80%
Correct answer: 85%
The correct answer is 85%. To find the percentage correct, divide the number correct by the total and multiply by 100: 68 divided by 80 equals 0.85, which is 85%. This part-to-whole percentage calculation is a typical nursing entrance exam math question.
The price of a medication rose from $50 to $65. What is the percent increase?
- 35%
- 23%
- 30%
- 15%
Correct answer: 30%
The correct answer is 30%. Percent increase equals the amount of change divided by the original amount, times 100. The change is $65 minus $50, which is $15; dividing 15 by the original 50 gives 0.30, or 30%. Dividing by the new price of 65 instead of the original would give the wrong answer.
Solve for x: 3x + 7 = 22.
- X = 7
- X = 5
- X = 9
- X = 3
Correct answer: X = 5
The correct answer is x = 5. Subtract 7 from both sides to get 3x = 15, then divide both sides by 3 to get x = 5. Basic one-variable algebraic equations like this are part of the PAX math reasoning content.
Solve for y: y/4 - 3 = 5.
- Y = 2
- Y = 32
- Y = 20
- Y = 8
Correct answer: Y = 32
The correct answer is y = 32. Add 3 to both sides to get y/4 = 8, then multiply both sides by 4 to find y = 32. Forgetting to multiply by 4 and stopping at 8 is a common mistake.
If 5 pounds of apples cost $9.00, what is the cost of 8 pounds at the same rate?
- $13.50
- $16.20
- $14.40
- $15.00
Correct answer: $14.40
The correct answer is $14.40. First find the unit price: $9.00 divided by 5 pounds is $1.80 per pound. Multiplying $1.80 by 8 pounds gives $14.40. Setting up and solving proportions is a core PAX algebra and ratio skill.
A recipe uses a ratio of 2 cups of flour to 3 cups of water. If you use 8 cups of flour, how much water is needed?
- 14 cups
- 12 cups
- 10 cups
- 16 cups
Correct answer: 12 cups
The correct answer is 12 cups. The ratio of flour to water is 2 to 3, and 8 cups of flour is 4 times the original 2 cups, so the water must also be multiplied by 4: 3 times 4 equals 12 cups. Solving ratio and proportion word problems is frequently tested on the PAX.
Evaluate the expression 4 + 6 x 2 - 5 using the order of operations.
- 20
- 17
- 15
- 11
Correct answer: 11
The correct answer is 11. Using the order of operations, multiplication comes before addition and subtraction, so 6 times 2 equals 12 first; then 4 plus 12 minus 5 equals 11. Working strictly left to right and adding 4 plus 6 first would give the wrong result.
What is the value of the expression $2(5 + 3)^2$ ?
- 64
- 256
- 98
- 128
Correct answer: 128
The correct answer is 128. Following order of operations, evaluate inside the parentheses first: 5 plus 3 is 8; then apply the exponent, 8 squared is 64; finally multiply by 2 to get 128. Skipping the exponent or multiplying before squaring leads to errors.
A rectangular bandage measures 12 cm long and 5 cm wide. What is its area?
- 34 sq cm
- 17 sq cm
- 120 sq cm
- 60 sq cm
Correct answer: 60 sq cm
The correct answer is 60 square centimeters. The area of a rectangle equals length times width, so 12 times 5 equals 60 square centimeters. Adding the sides instead (12 plus 5) would give the half-perimeter, not the area.
What is the perimeter of a square whose side length is 9 inches?
- 81 inches
- 18 inches
- 27 inches
- 36 inches
Correct answer: 36 inches
The correct answer is 36 inches. The perimeter of a square equals 4 times the side length, so 4 times 9 equals 36 inches. The value 81 is the area (side squared), not the perimeter.
A circle has a radius of 7 cm. Using 3.14 for pi, approximately what is its area?
- About 154 sq cm
- About 44 sq cm
- About 22 sq cm
- About 308 sq cm
Correct answer: About 154 sq cm
The correct answer is about 154 square centimeters. The area of a circle equals pi times the radius squared; 7 squared is 49, and 49 times 3.14 is about 153.9, which rounds to 154. Using the diameter or computing circumference instead of area would give a different value.
What is the circumference of a circle with a diameter of 10 cm? Use 3.14 for pi.
- 62.8 cm
- 15.7 cm
- 78.5 cm
- 31.4 cm
Correct answer: 31.4 cm
The correct answer is 31.4 cm. Circumference equals pi times the diameter, so 3.14 times 10 equals 31.4 cm. The value 78.5 would be the area, not the circumference, so it is a tempting distractor.
A right triangle has legs measuring 6 cm and 8 cm. What is the length of the hypotenuse?
- 14 cm
- 10 cm
- 12 cm
- 48 cm
Correct answer: 10 cm
The correct answer is 10 cm. By the Pythagorean theorem, the hypotenuse squared equals the sum of the squares of the legs: 6 squared plus 8 squared is 36 plus 64, which equals 100, and $\sqrt{100} = 10$ . Adding the legs directly (6 plus 8) is a common mistake.
What is the volume of a rectangular box that is 4 cm long, 3 cm wide, and 5 cm tall?
- 60 cubic cm
- 120 cubic cm
- 12 cubic cm
- 27 cubic cm
Correct answer: 60 cubic cm
The correct answer is 60 cubic centimeters. Volume of a rectangular box equals length times width times height, so 4 times 3 times 5 equals 60 cubic centimeters. Multiplying only two of the three dimensions gives an area, not a volume.
Convert 2.5 kilometers to meters.
- 25 meters
- 250 meters
- 25,000 meters
- 2,500 meters
Correct answer: 2,500 meters
The correct answer is 2,500 meters. There are 1,000 meters in a kilometer, so multiply 2.5 by 1,000 to get 2,500 meters. Knowing metric prefixes and converting between units is part of the PAX measurement content.
How many milliliters are in 3 liters?
- 30,000 mL
- 3,000 mL
- 300 mL
- 30 mL
Correct answer: 3,000 mL
The correct answer is 3,000 mL. There are 1,000 milliliters in one liter, so 3 liters equals 3 times 1,000, which is 3,000 mL. This metric conversion is a basic measurement skill assessed on the PAX.
A baby weighs 4,500 grams. What is the baby's weight in kilograms?
- 0.45 kg
- 4.5 kg
- 450 kg
- 45 kg
Correct answer: 4.5 kg
The correct answer is 4.5 kg. To convert grams to kilograms, divide by 1,000 because there are 1,000 grams in a kilogram: 4,500 divided by 1,000 equals 4.5 kg. Moving the decimal the wrong number of places produces the incorrect choices.
The temperature is 20 degrees Celsius. Using the formula $F = \frac{9}{5}C + 32$ , what is the temperature in Fahrenheit?
- 98 degrees F
- 52 degrees F
- 72 degrees F
- 68 degrees F
Correct answer: 68 degrees F
The correct answer is 68 degrees Fahrenheit. Substituting 20 for C, multiply 9/5 times 20 to get 36, then add 32 to get 68 degrees Fahrenheit. Forgetting to add 32 would leave only 36, which is incorrect.
What is the average (mean) of the test scores 82, 90, 76, and 88?
- 84
- 82
- 86
- 85
Correct answer: 84
The correct answer is 84. To find the mean, add all the values and divide by how many there are: 82 plus 90 plus 76 plus 88 equals 336, and 336 divided by 4 equals 84. Finding the mean of a data set is part of the PAX data-analysis content.
Find the median of the following set of numbers: 12, 7, 9, 15, 11.
- 15
- 9
- 11
- 12
Correct answer: 11
The correct answer is 11. The median is the middle value when the numbers are placed in order; sorting gives 7, 9, 11, 12, 15, and the middle value is 11. The median differs from the mean and is tested as part of basic statistics on the PAX.
A patient's heart rate was recorded as 72, 75, 72, 80, and 76 beats per minute. What is the mode of these readings?
- 72
- 75
- 76
- 80
Correct answer: 72
The correct answer is 72. The mode is the value that appears most often in a data set, and 72 appears twice while every other reading appears only once. Distinguishing mode from mean and median is a basic data-analysis skill on the PAX.
On a number line, what is the result of -8 + 5?
- -3
- 3
- 13
- -13
Correct answer: -3
The correct answer is -3. Adding a positive number to a negative number moves toward zero; starting at -8 and moving 5 units in the positive direction lands on -3. Operations with negative numbers are part of the PAX whole-number and integer content.
What is the product of -6 and -4?
- 10
- 24
- -24
- -10
Correct answer: 24
The correct answer is 24. When two negative numbers are multiplied, the product is positive, so -6 times -4 equals positive 24. A common error is to assume the answer stays negative, giving -24.
Estimate the answer to 198 x 21 by rounding each number first.
- About 400
- About 40,000
- About 4,000
- About 2,000
Correct answer: About 4,000
The correct answer is about 4,000. Rounding 198 to 200 and 21 to 20, the estimate is 200 times 20, which equals 4,000. Estimation by rounding is a useful PAX strategy for checking whether a computed answer is reasonable.
A car travels 150 miles in 3 hours at a constant speed. What is its average speed?
- 45 mph
- 30 mph
- 50 mph
- 60 mph
Correct answer: 50 mph
The correct answer is 50 mph. Average speed equals total distance divided by total time, so 150 miles divided by 3 hours equals 50 miles per hour. Rate word problems involving distance, time, and speed are common applied-math items on the PAX.
If a job pays $18 per hour and a worker earns $324, how many hours did the worker work?
- 16 hours
- 18 hours
- 22 hours
- 20 hours
Correct answer: 18 hours
The correct answer is 18 hours. To find the number of hours, divide total earnings by the hourly rate: $324 divided by $18 equals 18 hours. Setting up a division based on the rate is the key step in this type of word problem.
What is 2/5 expressed as a decimal?
- 0.45
- 0.52
- 0.25
- 0.4
Correct answer: 0.4
The correct answer is 0.4. To convert a fraction to a decimal, divide the numerator by the denominator: 2 divided by 5 equals 0.4. Knowing how to move between fractions and decimals is essential for the PAX math section.
A solution is made by mixing 1 part concentrate with 4 parts water. What fraction of the final mixture is concentrate?
- $\frac{1}{5}$
- $\frac{4}{5}$
- $\frac{1}{4}$
- $\frac{1}{3}$
Correct answer: $\frac{1}{5}$
The correct answer is 1/5. The total number of parts is 1 part concentrate plus 4 parts water, which equals 5 parts, so the concentrate makes up 1 out of 5 parts, or 1/5 of the mixture. A common mistake is to write 1/4, comparing concentrate to water instead of to the whole.
Which of these fractions is the largest: 2/3, 3/5, 5/8, or 7/12?
- $\frac{5}{8}$
- $\frac{3}{5}$
- $\frac{7}{12}$
- $\frac{2}{3}$
Correct answer: $\frac{2}{3}$
The correct answer is 2/3. Converting each to a decimal, 2/3 is about 0.667, 3/5 is 0.6, 5/8 is 0.625, and 7/12 is about 0.583, so 2/3 is the largest. Comparing fractions by converting to decimals or finding a common denominator is a tested PAX skill.
A nurse needs to give 1/2 of a 500 mg tablet. How many milligrams is that?
- 500 mg
- 100 mg
- 150 mg
- 250 mg
Correct answer: 250 mg
The correct answer is 250 mg. Half of 500 mg is found by multiplying 1/2 by 500, which equals 250 mg. This is a straightforward fraction-of-a-quantity calculation at the entrance-exam level, not a clinical dosage formula.
In a class of 30 students, 18 are female. What percentage of the class is female?
- 40%
- 66%
- 60%
- 54%
Correct answer: 60%
The correct answer is 60%. Divide the number of females by the total and multiply by 100: 18 divided by 30 equals 0.6, which is 60%. This part-to-whole percentage problem is typical of nursing entrance exam math practice questions.
What is the next number in the pattern: 3, 6, 12, 24, ...?
- 30
- 72
- 48
- 36
Correct answer: 48
The correct answer is 48. Each term is found by multiplying the previous term by 2, so 24 times 2 equals 48. Recognizing the rule of a numeric pattern is part of the algebraic reasoning tested on the PAX.
The math section of a nursing entrance exam like the NLN PAX tests arithmetic and basic problem-solving rather than advanced topics. Which of the following types of math is LEAST likely to appear on the PAX math section?
- Calculating area and perimeter of simple shapes
- Converting between fractions, decimals, and percentages
- Evaluating limits and integrals from calculus
- Solving basic algebra equations and word problems
Correct answer: Evaluating limits and integrals from calculus
The correct answer is evaluating limits and integrals from calculus. The NLN PAX math section covers basic calculations with integers, fractions, decimals, and percentages, plus ratios and proportions, basic algebra, simple geometry, conversions, and reading data from graphs. It is a no-calculator section aimed at pre-nursing readiness, so calculus topics like limits and integrals are not tested.
A nursing student must give a patient 2.5 milligrams of a medication, and each tablet contains 1.25 milligrams. How many tablets should the student give?
- 1 tablet
- 1.5 tablets
- 2 tablets
- 2.5 tablets
Correct answer: 2 tablets
The correct answer is 2 tablets. Divide the dose needed by the strength per tablet: 2.5 divided by 1.25 equals 2. This kind of division with decimals is a typical PAX-style applied math problem, since the nursing entrance exam emphasizes everyday calculations done by hand without a calculator.
A solution is prepared by mixing salt and water in a ratio of 3 to 8. If the mixture contains 24 grams of salt, how many grams of water does it contain?
- 64 grams
- 32 grams
- 88 grams
- 9 grams
Correct answer: 64 grams
The correct answer is 64 grams. The ratio of salt to water is 3 to 8, and the salt is 24 grams, so each ratio unit equals 24 divided by 3, which is 8 grams. The water is 8 units, so 8 times 8 equals 64 grams. Ratio and proportion problems like this are a core part of NLN PAX math topics.
On a recent quiz, a student answered 17 of 20 questions correctly. To the nearest whole percent, what was the student's score?
- 85%
- 80%
- 75%
- 90%
Correct answer: 85%
The correct answer is 85%. Divide the number correct by the total and multiply by 100: 17 divided by 20 equals 0.85, which is 85%. Converting a fraction to a percentage is one of the most common skills tested on nursing entrance exam math questions, where percentages, decimals, and fractions appear frequently.
Read the passage, then answer the question. "Honeybees do far more than make honey. As they travel from flower to flower collecting nectar, pollen sticks to the fine hairs on their bodies. When a bee lands on the next blossom, some of that pollen rubs off, fertilizing the plant. Without this constant movement of pollen, many of the fruits and vegetables people rely on could not produce seeds. Scientists estimate that bees help pollinate roughly a third of the food humans eat." Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
- Many fruits and vegetables cannot produce seeds.
- Pollen sticks to the fine hairs on a honeybee's body.
- Honeybees are essential pollinators that help produce much of the food people eat.
- Honeybees collect nectar from a wide variety of flowers.
Correct answer: Honeybees are essential pollinators that help produce much of the food people eat.
The correct answer is that honeybees are essential pollinators that help produce much of the food people eat. The main idea is the central point the whole passage supports; here every sentence builds toward the importance of bee pollination to the human food supply. The other choices are true supporting details, but each covers only one narrow fact rather than the passage's overall point.
To find the main idea of a passage, a reader should look for the statement that:
- Contains the longest or most technical vocabulary.
- Expresses the writer's personal opinion most strongly.
- Appears in the very first sentence, since the main idea is always first.
- The other sentences in the passage explain, support, or give examples for.
Correct answer: The other sentences in the passage explain, support, or give examples for.
The correct answer is the statement that the other sentences explain, support, or give examples for. The main idea is the broad point the rest of the passage develops, so the supporting details should all connect back to it. The main idea is not always the first sentence, is not identified by vocabulary difficulty, and need not be an opinion at all.
Read the passage. "The new community clinic opened its doors at dawn, and within an hour the waiting room was full. Nurses moved quickly between patients, and the front desk phone rang without pause. By noon, staff had already seen more people than they had expected for the entire first day." What can the reader most reasonably infer from the passage?
- The clinic planned to close early that day.
- The clinic was poorly organized and understaffed.
- Most patients were turned away without care.
- There was strong demand for the clinic's services in the community.
Correct answer: There was strong demand for the clinic's services in the community.
The correct answer is that there was strong demand for the clinic's services. An inference is a conclusion drawn from evidence rather than from a direct statement; the full waiting room, constant phone, and higher-than-expected patient count all point to heavy demand. The passage never says the clinic was disorganized, closing early, or turning patients away, so those choices are not supported.
In reading comprehension, making an inference means:
- Counting how many times a key term appears in the passage.
- Restating a sentence from the passage using the exact same words.
- Drawing a logical conclusion based on clues in the text plus reasoning, even when the idea is not stated directly.
- Looking up the dictionary definition of an unfamiliar word.
Correct answer: Drawing a logical conclusion based on clues in the text plus reasoning, even when the idea is not stated directly.
The correct answer is drawing a logical conclusion based on textual clues plus reasoning. An inference goes beyond what is stated outright, using evidence in the passage to reach a conclusion the author implies. Restating words, defining vocabulary, or counting terms are different reading tasks and do not involve inferring unstated meaning.
Read the sentence. "After the long hike, the water tasted especially salubrious, leaving the runners refreshed and ready to finish the race." Based on the context clues, the word "salubrious" most likely means:
- Healthful and refreshing
- Warm and stale
- Bitter and unpleasant
- Scarce and rationed
Correct answer: Healthful and refreshing
The correct answer is healthful and refreshing. Context clues are the surrounding words that hint at an unfamiliar term's meaning; here "refreshed and ready to finish" signals a positive, restoring effect. "Bitter," "stale," and "scarce" all conflict with the refreshed, recovered tone of the sentence.
When you encounter an unfamiliar word while reading, the best way to use context clues is to:
- Assume the word means the opposite of the nearest familiar word.
- Examine the surrounding words and sentences for hints about the word's meaning.
- Replace the word with the first synonym that comes to mind.
- Skip the word entirely and keep reading without slowing down.
Correct answer: Examine the surrounding words and sentences for hints about the word's meaning.
The correct answer is to examine the surrounding words and sentences for hints. Context clues are signals in nearby text such as examples, contrasts, definitions, or tone that reveal an unfamiliar word's meaning. Skipping the word loses meaning, assuming an opposite is a guess, and grabbing the first synonym ignores the actual context.
Read the passage. "Sleep is not simply a period of rest. During deep sleep, the brain clears away waste products that build up while a person is awake, and it strengthens connections that help form lasting memories. People who lose sleep night after night often struggle to concentrate and recall information. In this way, a good night's sleep does real work for the body and mind." Which sentence best states the main idea?
- People who lose sleep struggle to concentrate.
- Memories are formed while a person is awake.
- The brain clears waste products during deep sleep.
- Sleep is an active process that performs important work for the body and mind.
Correct answer: Sleep is an active process that performs important work for the body and mind.
The correct answer is that sleep is an active process that performs important work for the body and mind. The opening sentence sets up the claim, and the rest of the passage gives examples of that work, which is how a main idea ties a passage together. The other choices are supporting details, and the last choice misstates the passage, since memories are strengthened during sleep.
Read the passage. "For three weeks the volunteers planted trees along the eroded riverbank, often working in heavy rain. Many of them had never held a shovel before they arrived. Yet not one quit, and by the final day they had set more than two thousand saplings into the soil." The author's main purpose in this passage is to:
- Warn readers about the dangers of working in the rain.
- Explain the science of how trees prevent soil erosion.
- Highlight the dedication and effort of the volunteers.
- Persuade readers to donate money to environmental groups.
Correct answer: Highlight the dedication and effort of the volunteers.
The correct answer is to highlight the dedication and effort of the volunteers. Author's purpose is the reason a passage is written, and the details about inexperience, bad weather, and no one quitting all emphasize commitment. The passage does not explain erosion science, ask for donations, or warn against rain, so those purposes are not supported.
Read the passage. "The mayor's plan sounds appealing at first. She promises lower taxes, new parks, and better roads, all without cutting a single service. But she has never explained where the money will come from. Until she does, voters would be wise to remain skeptical." The author's tone in this passage can best be described as:
- Neutral and indifferent
- Angry and hostile
- Doubtful and cautious
- Enthusiastic and supportive
Correct answer: Doubtful and cautious
The correct answer is doubtful and cautious. Tone is the author's attitude toward the subject, revealed by word choice; phrases like "sounds appealing at first," "never explained," and "remain skeptical" signal guarded doubt. The author is not enthusiastic, is not openly hostile or shouting, and is clearly taking a position rather than being indifferent.
Read the passage. "Sea otters spend much of their day diving for sea urchins. Where otters are abundant, urchin numbers stay low, which allows kelp forests to grow thick and tall. These kelp forests shelter fish, crabs, and many other ocean creatures. When otters disappear, urchins multiply and graze the kelp down to bare rock." According to the passage, what most directly happens to kelp forests when sea otters disappear?
- The otters return within a single season.
- Urchins multiply and graze the kelp down to bare rock.
- Fish and crabs increase in number.
- The kelp grows thicker and taller than before.
Correct answer: Urchins multiply and graze the kelp down to bare rock.
The correct answer is that urchins multiply and graze the kelp down to bare rock. A supporting-detail question is answered by locating the specific statement in the text; the passage directly says this happens when otters disappear. The first choice describes the opposite situation, and the other choices add events the passage never states.
Read the passage. "The librarian noticed that the same group of teenagers came in every afternoon, not to check out books, but to use the free computers. Some were applying for jobs; others were finishing homework they could not complete at home. She realized the library had quietly become something more than a place for borrowing books." What can the reader most reasonably infer about the library?
- The library was planning to remove its computers.
- The librarian wanted the teenagers to leave.
- The library served as an important community resource beyond lending books.
- The teenagers were not allowed to check out books.
Correct answer: The library served as an important community resource beyond lending books.
The correct answer is that the library served as an important community resource beyond lending books. The inference is supported by the teens using computers for jobs and homework and the librarian's realization that the library had become "something more." Nothing suggests removing computers, banning checkouts, or wanting the teens gone.
Read the sentence. "Unlike his gregarious sister, who thrived at crowded parties, Daniel was reclusive and preferred to spend his evenings alone with a book." Using the contrast in the sentence, the word "gregarious" most likely means:
- Sociable and fond of company
- Wealthy and generous
- Shy and withdrawn
- Tired and forgetful
Correct answer: Sociable and fond of company
The correct answer is sociable and fond of company. A contrast clue uses a signal word like "unlike" to show that a word means the opposite of a nearby term; since Daniel is reclusive and prefers being alone, his sister must be the opposite. "Shy and withdrawn" matches Daniel, not his sister, and the other choices have no support in the sentence.
Read the passage. "Vaccines work by training the immune system to recognize a threat before it strikes. A vaccine introduces a harmless piece of a germ, prompting the body to build defensive cells. If the real germ ever appears, the body remembers it and fights back quickly. This is why a person vaccinated against measles rarely becomes seriously ill if exposed." According to the passage, what does a vaccine introduce into the body?
- A fully active, dangerous virus
- A dose of antibiotics
- A sample of the person's own blood
- A harmless piece of a germ
Correct answer: A harmless piece of a germ
The correct answer is a harmless piece of a germ. Reading comprehension questions often ask you to locate a stated detail; the passage says a vaccine "introduces a harmless piece of a germ." Antibiotics, an active dangerous virus, and a blood sample are never mentioned and contradict the passage.
Read the passage. "At first the experiment seemed to fail. The seeds in the dim corner of the greenhouse barely sprouted, while those near the window grew tall. Frustrated, the student almost discarded the project. Then she realized the difference in growth was itself the discovery: light, not chance, was shaping the results." What can the reader infer about the student's experiment?
- The seeds near the window failed to grow.
- All the seeds grew at exactly the same rate.
- The experiment proved that light affects plant growth.
- The student wasted her time on a meaningless project.
Correct answer: The experiment proved that light affects plant growth.
The correct answer is that the experiment proved that light affects plant growth. The inference rests on the clue that seeds near the window grew tall while shaded seeds barely sprouted, and the student's realization that "light, not chance" shaped the results. The other choices contradict the passage's stated details.
Read the passage. "Some people argue that handwriting is an outdated skill in the digital age. They are mistaken. Studies show that students who take notes by hand remember more than those who type, because writing forces the mind to summarize rather than copy word for word. Schools that abandon handwriting may be trading a powerful learning tool for mere convenience." The main idea of the passage is that:
- Typing notes is always faster than writing by hand.
- Digital technology has no place in modern education.
- Schools should ban laptops from every classroom.
- Handwriting remains a valuable skill that supports learning.
Correct answer: Handwriting remains a valuable skill that supports learning.
The correct answer is that handwriting remains a valuable skill that supports learning. The passage opens by countering the claim that handwriting is outdated, then supports its position with evidence about memory and summarizing. The other choices overstate or distort the passage, which never bans laptops or rejects all technology.
Read the passage. "The old bridge had served the town for nearly a century. Generations had crossed it on their way to school, work, and church. So when engineers announced it would be demolished, many residents felt they were losing more than a structure of steel and stone." Why do the residents feel they are losing "more than a structure of steel and stone"?
- The engineers had made an error in their inspection.
- The bridge was made of valuable materials worth saving.
- The bridge held personal and historical meaning for the community.
- The new bridge would be far more expensive to build.
Correct answer: The bridge held personal and historical meaning for the community.
The correct answer is that the bridge held personal and historical meaning for the community. The phrase signals that the bridge's value went beyond its physical materials, supported by the detail that generations crossed it daily for a century. The passage does not mention material value, construction cost, or an engineering error.
Read the sentence. "The medication's effects were ephemeral; the patient felt relief for only a few minutes before the pain returned in full force." Based on the context, the word "ephemeral" most nearly means:
- Lasting only a short time
- Powerful and reliable
- Painful and severe
- Permanent and unchanging
Correct answer: Lasting only a short time
The correct answer is lasting only a short time. The phrase "for only a few minutes before the pain returned" defines the word through context, showing the relief was brief. "Permanent" is the opposite, and the other choices describe the pain rather than the duration of the relief.
Read the passage. "Every spring, monarch butterflies travel thousands of miles from Mexico to Canada. No single butterfly makes the entire round trip. Instead, several generations are born and die along the way, each one continuing the journey its ancestors began. How they know the route remains one of nature's mysteries." Which statement is best supported by the passage?
- The monarch migration is carried out across several generations.
- Scientists have fully explained how monarchs find their route.
- A single monarch butterfly completes the full round trip.
- Monarch butterflies travel only within Mexico.
Correct answer: The monarch migration is carried out across several generations.
The correct answer is that the monarch migration is carried out across several generations. The passage states plainly that no single butterfly makes the whole trip and that several generations continue the journey. The other choices directly contradict statements in the text.
Read the passage. "Critics complained that the film was too slow, too quiet, and far too long. Audiences, however, told a different story. Theaters stayed packed for weeks, and ticket sales climbed steadily as word spread from one moviegoer to the next." What is the main contrast the author presents in this passage?
- The difference between critics' opinions and audiences' response
- The difference between actors and directors
- The difference between two competing films
- The difference between the film's budget and its earnings
Correct answer: The difference between critics' opinions and audiences' response
The correct answer is the difference between critics' opinions and audiences' response. Recognizing a passage's structure means seeing how ideas are organized; here the word "however" pivots from negative critic reviews to strong audience turnout. The passage does not compare budgets, rival films, or actors and directors.
Read the passage. "When the storm knocked out power across the valley, neighbors who had rarely spoken began checking on one another. People shared generators, food, and flashlights. By the time the lights came back on, friendships had formed that lasted long after the storm was forgotten." What can the reader most reasonably infer from the passage?
- The storm caused lasting damage to the valley's homes.
- Most neighbors already knew one another well.
- The power outage lasted for several months.
- A shared hardship can bring a community closer together.
Correct answer: A shared hardship can bring a community closer together.
The correct answer is that a shared hardship can bring a community closer together. The inference is built on neighbors who "rarely spoke" beginning to help each other and forming lasting friendships. The passage gives no information about home damage, says neighbors rarely spoke before, and never states the outage lasted months.
Read the passage. "A balanced diet provides the body with energy and the raw materials it needs to grow and repair itself. Carbohydrates supply quick fuel, proteins build and mend tissue, and fats store energy for later use. Vitamins and minerals, though needed in small amounts, keep these processes running smoothly." According to the passage, which nutrient is described as building and mending tissue?
- Vitamins
- Fats
- Proteins
- Carbohydrates
Correct answer: Proteins
The correct answer is proteins. The passage states directly that "proteins build and mend tissue," which is the kind of stated detail reading-comprehension questions test. Carbohydrates supply quick fuel, fats store energy, and vitamins keep processes running, so those choices match other roles.
Read the passage. "The committee spent months drafting the proposal, weighing every detail with care. Members met late into the night, revised the language repeatedly, and consulted experts in three different fields. By the time they presented their work, no one could say they had acted hastily." The phrase "no one could say they had acted hastily" suggests that the committee:
- Disagreed about every decision
- Rushed to finish the proposal quickly
- Ignored the advice of experts
- Took great care and time with their work
Correct answer: Took great care and time with their work
The correct answer is that the committee took great care and time with their work. Understanding the implied meaning of a phrase depends on its context; the months of meetings, repeated revisions, and expert consultations all show thoroughness, so "not hasty" means careful. The other choices contradict these details.
Read the sentence. "The witness gave a candid account of the accident, hiding nothing and answering every question openly and honestly." Based on the context clues, the word "candid" most nearly means:
- Confused and uncertain
- Frank and truthful
- Brief and incomplete
- Angry and defensive
Correct answer: Frank and truthful
The correct answer is frank and truthful. The phrase "hiding nothing and answering every question openly and honestly" restates the meaning of "candid," a definition-style context clue. The other choices conflict with the openness and honesty described in the sentence.
Read the passage. "Coral reefs are sometimes called the rainforests of the sea. Like rainforests, they support an enormous variety of life in a relatively small space. Thousands of species of fish, along with countless invertebrates, depend on healthy reefs for food and shelter. When reefs decline, the loss ripples outward through the entire ocean ecosystem." Why does the author compare coral reefs to rainforests?
- Both are made of the same materials.
- Both are located near the equator.
- Both support a great diversity of life in a limited area.
- Both are easy to replace once destroyed.
Correct answer: Both support a great diversity of life in a limited area.
The correct answer is that both support a great diversity of life in a limited area. The passage explicitly explains the comparison by noting that reefs, "like rainforests," support enormous variety in a small space. Location, materials, and replaceability are never given as reasons for the comparison.
Read the passage. "For years, the factory had dumped warm water into the river, and few people gave it much thought. Then the fish began to vanish. Researchers discovered that the heated water held less oxygen, slowly suffocating the species that once thrived there." What is the most logical conclusion the reader can draw from the passage?
- The river had always been too cold for fish.
- The researchers caused the fish to disappear.
- The factory closed because of the warm water.
- The factory's warm water harmed the river's fish.
Correct answer: The factory's warm water harmed the river's fish.
The correct answer is that the factory's warm water harmed the river's fish. Drawing a conclusion means combining stated facts logically: the warm water held less oxygen, which suffocated the fish that then vanished. The passage never says the river was too cold, blames the researchers, or mentions the factory closing.
Read the passage. "There is nothing magical about success in school. The students who do well are usually the ones who show up, ask questions, and put in steady effort day after day. Talent helps, but it is no substitute for persistence." The main idea of the passage is that:
- Asking questions is the single key to good grades.
- Only naturally talented students succeed in school.
- Success in school happens by luck.
- Consistent effort matters more than talent for school success.
Correct answer: Consistent effort matters more than talent for school success.
The correct answer is that consistent effort matters more than talent for school success. The passage states that talent "is no substitute for persistence" and points to steady effort, which captures its central claim. The other choices either overstate one detail or contradict the passage's rejection of luck.
Read the passage. "The first electric cars were slow, expensive, and could travel only short distances before needing a charge. Few drivers took them seriously. Today, however, electric vehicles can travel hundreds of miles on a single charge, and their prices continue to fall. What once seemed like a curiosity now competes directly with gasoline-powered cars." The author organizes this passage mainly by:
- Describing a single event in great detail
- Listing steps in a process from start to finish
- Contrasting early electric cars with modern ones
- Comparing electric cars to airplanes
Correct answer: Contrasting early electric cars with modern ones
The correct answer is contrasting early electric cars with modern ones. Identifying text structure means seeing how ideas are arranged; the word "however" and the shift from "first" to "today" set up a then-versus-now contrast. The passage is not a step-by-step process, a single event, or a comparison to airplanes.
Read the sentence. "The instructions were so verbose that students grew tired before reaching the end; a few clear sentences would have served far better than pages of dense explanation." Based on the context, the word "verbose" most nearly means:
- Clear and easy to follow
- Colorful and entertaining
- Using far more words than necessary
- Brief and to the point
Correct answer: Using far more words than necessary
The correct answer is using far more words than necessary. The contrast with "a few clear sentences" and the mention of "pages of dense explanation" signal that verbose means wordy. "Brief" and "clear" are opposites, and "entertaining" is unsupported by the sentence.
Read the passage. "Nurses do not simply follow doctors' orders. A skilled nurse observes subtle changes in a patient, asks the right questions, and often catches problems before they become emergencies. The best nurses combine technical knowledge with sharp judgment and genuine compassion." The author's primary purpose in this passage is to:
- Compare hospitals to clinics
- Criticize doctors for relying too heavily on nurses
- Explain the steps of a medical procedure
- Show that nursing requires more than following instructions
Correct answer: Show that nursing requires more than following instructions
The correct answer is to show that nursing requires more than following instructions. Author's purpose is identified from how the details function; the passage opens by rejecting the idea that nurses just follow orders and then lists skills that go beyond it. It does not criticize doctors, explain a procedure, or compare facilities.
Read the passage. "The town council voted to build the new highway despite loud objections from residents. Supporters insisted it would bring jobs and ease traffic. Opponents warned it would destroy quiet neighborhoods and pave over a beloved park. Both sides agreed only that the decision would change the town forever." What can the reader infer was the residents' general reaction to the highway plan?
- Residents were united in supporting the highway.
- Residents were indifferent to the decision.
- Residents were divided, with strong feelings on both sides.
- Residents had no chance to share their opinions.
Correct answer: Residents were divided, with strong feelings on both sides.
The correct answer is that residents were divided, with strong feelings on both sides. The inference is supported by the mention of supporters favoring jobs and traffic relief while opponents feared lost neighborhoods and a park. The passage shows neither unity nor indifference and notes that objections were voiced loudly.
Read the passage. "At the museum, the children pressed their faces against the glass, eyes wide, pointing at the towering dinosaur skeleton. They peppered the guide with questions faster than she could answer them, and not one of them wanted to leave when the tour ended." The tone of this passage can best be described as:
- Tense and fearful
- Lively and enthusiastic
- Gloomy and sorrowful
- Calm and detached
Correct answer: Lively and enthusiastic
The correct answer is lively and enthusiastic. Tone comes from descriptive word choice; details like "eyes wide," rapid-fire questions, and not wanting to leave convey excitement and energy. Nothing in the passage suggests sadness, fear, or detachment.
Read the passage. "Reading a difficult text is a skill that improves with practice. Strong readers do not give up at the first confusing sentence. Instead, they slow down, reread, and look for clues that connect one idea to the next. Over time, what once felt impossible begins to feel familiar." Which statement best expresses the main idea?
- Difficult texts should be avoided whenever possible.
- Strong readers never find any text confusing.
- Reading skill grows through patient, active practice.
- Rereading a sentence once is always enough.
Correct answer: Reading skill grows through patient, active practice.
The correct answer is that reading skill grows through patient, active practice. The opening sentence states the claim, and the rest describes the active strategies that build the skill over time. The other choices contradict the passage, which encourages working through difficulty rather than avoiding it or expecting instant ease.
Read the passage. "The river that runs through the city was once so polluted that no fish could survive in it. After thirty years of cleanup efforts, that has changed. Today, anglers line the banks, and biologists count dozens of species in waters that were once considered dead." Which detail from the passage best supports the idea that the cleanup succeeded?
- No fish could once survive in the river.
- Biologists count dozens of species in the once-dead waters.
- The river runs through the city.
- The cleanup took thirty years.
Correct answer: Biologists count dozens of species in the once-dead waters.
The correct answer is that biologists count dozens of species in the once-dead waters. A supporting-detail question asks which fact best backs a claim; the return of many fish species directly shows the cleanup worked. The other details set context or describe the past problem but do not by themselves prove success.
What is photosynthesis?
- The breakdown of glucose to release stored energy as ATP
- The movement of water across a membrane toward higher solute concentration
- The process by which plants use light energy to make glucose from carbon dioxide and water
- The copying of DNA before a cell divides
Correct answer: The process by which plants use light energy to make glucose from carbon dioxide and water
Correct answer: B. Photosynthesis is the process in which plants, algae, and some bacteria use light energy (captured by chlorophyll) to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose, releasing oxygen as a byproduct. It stores energy in sugar, which is the opposite of cellular respiration that releases that energy. Choice A describes respiration, not photosynthesis.
What is cellular respiration?
- The series of reactions that break down glucose to capture energy in ATP
- The use of sunlight to build sugars in a plant cell
- The intake and release of air by the lungs
- The synthesis of proteins from amino acids on ribosomes
Correct answer: The series of reactions that break down glucose to capture energy in ATP
Correct answer: B. Cellular respiration is the set of metabolic reactions that break down glucose and other fuels to release energy stored as ATP, the cell's usable energy currency. In its aerobic form it uses oxygen and produces carbon dioxide and water. It is not the same as breathing (choice A), which is the physical exchange of air.
A laboratory dialysis bag containing a concentrated sugar solution is placed in a beaker of pure water. Water moves into the bag, causing it to swell. Which process explains this movement?
- Osmosis
- Active transport requiring ATP
- Filtration under pressure
- Diffusion of sugar out of the bag
Correct answer: Osmosis
Correct answer: C. Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of lower solute concentration (the pure water) toward a region of higher solute concentration (the concentrated sugar inside the bag). The sugar cannot cross the membrane, so water moves in and the bag swells. Osmosis is passive and requires no ATP, ruling out active transport.
What is the primary purpose of mitosis in the human body?
- To break down worn-out organelles
- To produce two genetically identical daughter cells for growth and tissue repair
- To produce sperm and egg cells with half the chromosome number
- To generate energy for the cell
Correct answer: To produce two genetically identical daughter cells for growth and tissue repair
Correct answer: C. Mitosis is cell division that produces two daughter cells genetically identical to the parent cell, each with the full (diploid) chromosome number. It supports body growth, tissue repair, and the replacement of worn-out cells. The production of gametes with half the chromosomes (choice A) is meiosis, not mitosis.
What is diffusion?
- The transport of molecules against a concentration gradient using energy
- The duplication of genetic material
- The net movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
- The movement of water across a membrane only
Correct answer: The net movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
Correct answer: A. Diffusion is the passive net movement of particles (such as gas molecules or dissolved solutes) from a region where they are more concentrated to one where they are less concentrated, until they are evenly spread. It needs no energy input. Osmosis (choice B) is a special case of diffusion involving only water across a membrane; active transport (choice C) moves substances against the gradient and requires energy.
What is an enzyme, and what does it do in a cell?
- A nucleic acid that carries genetic instructions
- A carbohydrate that provides structural support
- A protein that speeds up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy
- A lipid that stores long-term energy
Correct answer: A protein that speeds up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy
Correct answer: B. An enzyme is a biological catalyst, almost always a protein, that speeds up a specific chemical reaction by lowering the activation energy needed for it to occur. Enzymes are not used up or permanently changed by the reactions they catalyze, so they can be reused. They are specific to particular substrates, which is why each enzyme typically acts on one type of reaction.
A patient eats a meal and the enzyme amylase begins breaking starch into smaller sugars in the mouth. Which statement best describes how this enzyme works?
- It supplies the chemical energy that powers the reaction
- It is consumed during the reaction and must be replaced for the next meal
- It raises the temperature of the food to break the bonds
- It binds its specific substrate and lowers the energy needed for the reaction without being used up
Correct answer: It binds its specific substrate and lowers the energy needed for the reaction without being used up
Correct answer: B. Enzymes such as amylase bind to a specific substrate (here, starch) at their active site and lower the activation energy so the reaction proceeds faster, then release the products and are reused. Enzymes are not consumed by the reaction (ruling out choice A) and do not supply energy themselves (ruling out choice C). Their specificity means amylase acts on starch but not on proteins or fats.
What is the main function of the mitochondria in a cell?
- To store the cell's genetic material
- To control which substances enter and leave the cell
- To package and ship proteins out of the cell
- To carry out most aerobic respiration and produce ATP
Correct answer: To carry out most aerobic respiration and produce ATP
Correct answer: B. The mitochondria are the site of most aerobic cellular respiration, where glucose-derived molecules are broken down with oxygen to produce ATP, the energy the cell uses to do work. This is why mitochondria are called the powerhouse of the cell. Packaging proteins is the Golgi apparatus (choice A), and controlling entry and exit of substances is the cell membrane (choice D).
What is the cell membrane and what is its primary role?
- The site where proteins are assembled
- A thin phospholipid layer that controls what enters and leaves the cell
- The structure that contains the cell's DNA
- A rigid outer wall found in all animal cells that gives them shape
Correct answer: A thin phospholipid layer that controls what enters and leaves the cell
Correct answer: B. The cell membrane (plasma membrane) is a thin, flexible phospholipid bilayer that surrounds the cell and is selectively permeable, controlling which substances move into and out of the cell. It is not a rigid wall; a cell wall (choice A) is found in plant and bacterial cells, not animal cells. The DNA is housed in the nucleus, and proteins are made on ribosomes.
How does meiosis differ from mitosis?
- Both produce four haploid cells, but only mitosis allows crossing over
- Meiosis produces two identical diploid cells, while mitosis produces four
- Meiosis occurs in body cells and mitosis occurs only in reproductive organs
- Meiosis produces four genetically varied haploid cells, while mitosis produces two identical diploid cells
Correct answer: Meiosis produces four genetically varied haploid cells, while mitosis produces two identical diploid cells
Correct answer: B. Meiosis produces four genetically distinct daughter cells, each haploid (half the chromosome number), and is used to make gametes such as sperm and eggs. Mitosis produces two genetically identical daughter cells that are diploid (full chromosome number) for growth and repair. Crossing over and independent assortment in meiosis create genetic variation, which mitosis does not.
What is the primary function of DNA in a cell?
- To provide immediate energy for cellular work
- To transport oxygen through the bloodstream
- To break down nutrients during digestion
- To store the genetic instructions that direct the production of proteins
Correct answer: To store the genetic instructions that direct the production of proteins
Correct answer: B. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) stores the genetic information that serves as the instructions for building proteins and directing the cell's activities, and it is passed from parent cells to daughter cells. It does not supply quick energy (that is ATP) and does not transport oxygen (that is hemoglobin in red blood cells).
A nursing student compares a bacterial cell to a human skin cell. Which feature is found only in the eukaryotic human cell and not in the prokaryotic bacterial cell?
- DNA
- Ribosomes
- A cell membrane
- A membrane-bound nucleus
Correct answer: A membrane-bound nucleus
Correct answer: C. The key difference between prokaryotic cells (such as bacteria) and eukaryotic cells (such as human cells) is that eukaryotic cells have a true membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles, while prokaryotic cells do not. Both cell types have a cell membrane, ribosomes, and DNA, so those features cannot distinguish them; only the enclosed nucleus does.
A patient's temperature is recorded as 40 degrees Celsius. What is this temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?
- 108 degrees Fahrenheit
- 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit
- 104 degrees Fahrenheit
- 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct answer: 104 degrees Fahrenheit
The answer is 104 degrees Fahrenheit. To convert Celsius to Fahrenheit, multiply by $\frac{9}{5}$ (or 1.8) and add 32: $(40 \times 1.8) + 32 = 72 + 32 = 104$ . A common mistake is to forget the +32 step, which would give 72.
Which formula correctly converts a temperature from degrees Celsius (C) to degrees Fahrenheit (F)?
- $F = (C + 32) \times \frac{9}{5}$
- $F = (C - 32) \times \frac{5}{9}$
- $F = C \times \frac{5}{9} + 32$
- $F = (C \times \frac{9}{5}) + 32$
Correct answer: $F = (C \times \frac{9}{5}) + 32$
The answer is $F = (C \times \frac{9}{5}) + 32$ . To convert Celsius to Fahrenheit you scale by $\frac{9}{5}$ (the ratio of degree sizes) and then add 32 to account for the different zero points. The formula $F = (C - 32) \times \frac{5}{9}$ is the reverse conversion, going from Fahrenheit to Celsius.
A normal body temperature is about 37 degrees Celsius. Converted to Fahrenheit, this is closest to which value?
- 96.8 degrees Fahrenheit
- 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
- 94.2 degrees Fahrenheit
- 100.0 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct answer: 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
The answer is 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. Using $F = (C \times \frac{9}{5}) + 32$ : $(37 \times 1.8) + 32 = 66.6 + 32 = 98.6$ . This matches the familiar normal body temperature, which is a useful anchor for checking that a Celsius-to-Fahrenheit conversion is reasonable.
A circle has a radius of 5 centimeters. Using 3.14 for pi, what is the area of the circle?
- 15.7 square centimeters
- 25 square centimeters
- 31.4 square centimeters
- 78.5 square centimeters
Correct answer: 78.5 square centimeters
The answer is 78.5 square centimeters. The area of a circle is found with $A = \pi \cdot r^2$ , so $A = 3.14 \times 5 \times 5 = 3.14 \times 25 = 78.5$ . Using the circumference formula $(2 \cdot \pi \cdot r)$ instead would wrongly give 31.4.
Which formula gives the area of a circle?
- $A = \pi \cdot r \cdot 2$
- $A = 2 \cdot \pi \cdot r$
- $A = \pi \cdot \text{diameter}$
- $A = \pi \cdot r^2$
Correct answer: $A = \pi \cdot r^2$
The answer is $A = \pi \cdot r^2$ . The area of a circle equals pi multiplied by the radius times itself (the radius squared). The expression $2 \cdot \pi \cdot r$ is the circumference, the distance around the circle, not the area inside it.
A circular treatment table has a diameter of 12 inches. Using 3.14 for pi, what is its area to the nearest square inch?
- 452 square inches
- 113 square inches
- 38 square inches
- 57 square inches
Correct answer: 113 square inches
The answer is 113 square inches. The diameter is 12 inches, so the radius is half of that, 6 inches. Area $= \pi \cdot r^2 = 3.14 \times 6 \times 6 = 3.14 \times 36 = 113.04$ , about 113. Using the diameter as the radius would incorrectly give 452.
A rectangular bandage measures 8 centimeters long and 3 centimeters wide. What are its area and perimeter?
- Area 11 square centimeters and perimeter 24 centimeters
- Area 24 square centimeters and perimeter 22 centimeters
- Area 22 square centimeters and perimeter 24 centimeters
- Area 24 square centimeters and perimeter 24 centimeters
Correct answer: Area 24 square centimeters and perimeter 22 centimeters
The answer is area 24 square centimeters and perimeter 22 centimeters. Area of a rectangle is length times width: 8 x 3 = 24. Perimeter is the distance around, found by adding all four sides or using 2 x (length + width): 2 x (8 + 3) = 22.
A square room has sides of 6 meters. What is the difference between its area and its perimeter, using the same numerical units?
- 18
- 60
- 30
- 12
Correct answer: 12
The answer is 12. The area of a square is side times side: 6 x 6 = 36 square meters. The perimeter is 4 times the side: 4 x 6 = 24 meters. The difference is 36 - 24 = 12. Area uses two dimensions while perimeter uses one, so they are calculated differently.
A nurse needs to know the perimeter of a rectangular wound that is 5 millimeters by 9 millimeters to estimate dressing size. What is the perimeter?
- 28 millimeters
- 45 millimeters
- 23 millimeters
- 14 millimeters
Correct answer: 28 millimeters
The answer is 28 millimeters. Perimeter is the total distance around the shape: 2 x (5 + 9) = 2 x 14 = 28 millimeters. Multiplying length by width (5 x 9 = 45) gives the area instead, which is a different measurement.
A medication order calls for 1500 milliliters of fluid. How many liters is this?
- 150 liters
- 15 liters
- 0.15 liters
- 1.5 liters
Correct answer: 1.5 liters
The answer is 1.5 liters. There are 1000 milliliters in 1 liter, so to convert milliliters to liters you divide by 1000: 1500 / 1000 = 1.5 liters. Moving the decimal point three places to the left is a quick way to do this.
To convert a volume measured in milliliters (mL) into liters (L), what operation should be performed?
- Multiply the number of milliliters by 1000
- Divide the number of milliliters by 100
- Multiply the number of milliliters by 10
- Divide the number of milliliters by 1000
Correct answer: Divide the number of milliliters by 1000
The answer is divide the number of milliliters by 1000. Because 1 liter equals 1000 milliliters, the milliliter is the smaller unit, so converting to the larger liter unit means the number gets smaller, which requires division by 1000.
A patient drank 250 milliliters of water at breakfast, 500 milliliters at lunch, and 750 milliliters at dinner. What is the total intake in liters?
- 15 liters
- 0.15 liters
- 1.5 liters
- 1500 liters
Correct answer: 1.5 liters
The answer is 1.5 liters. First add the milliliters: 250 + 500 + 750 = 1500 milliliters. Then convert to liters by dividing by 1000: 1500 / 1000 = 1.5 liters. Tracking fluid intake this way is a routine measurement skill in nursing.
A tablet contains 500 milligrams of a medication. How many grams is this?
- 50 grams
- 0.5 grams
- 5000 grams
- 5 grams
Correct answer: 0.5 grams
The answer is 0.5 grams. There are 1000 milligrams in 1 gram, so to convert milligrams to grams you divide by 1000: 500 / 1000 = 0.5 grams. Because a milligram is much smaller than a gram, the resulting number of grams is smaller.
Which statement correctly describes the relationship used to convert milligrams (mg) to grams (g)?
- 1 gram equals 1000 milligrams, so divide milligrams by 1000
- 1 gram equals 10 milligrams, so divide milligrams by 10
- 1 gram equals 100 milligrams, so divide milligrams by 100
- 1 milligram equals 1000 grams, so multiply milligrams by 1000
Correct answer: 1 gram equals 1000 milligrams, so divide milligrams by 1000
The answer is 1 gram equals 1000 milligrams, so divide milligrams by 1000. The metric prefix milli means one-thousandth, so 1 milligram is one-thousandth of a gram. To go from the smaller milligram unit up to grams, you divide the count by 1000.
A nurse combines three doses weighing 250 milligrams, 250 milligrams, and 1500 milligrams. What is the combined weight in grams?
- 200 grams
- 2 grams
- 0.2 grams
- 20 grams
Correct answer: 2 grams
The answer is 2 grams. First add the milligrams: 250 + 250 + 1500 = 2000 milligrams. Then divide by 1000 to convert to grams: 2000 / 1000 = 2 grams. Converting only after summing keeps the arithmetic simple.
On a standard metric conversion chart used in nursing, which sequence lists the prefixes from largest to smallest unit value?
- Kilo, milli, centi, base unit
- Centi, milli, kilo, base unit
- Milli, centi, base unit, kilo
- Kilo, base unit, centi, milli
Correct answer: Kilo, base unit, centi, milli
The answer is kilo, base unit, centi, milli. Kilo means one thousand times the base unit, centi means one-hundredth, and milli means one-thousandth. So from largest to smallest the order is kilo, then the base unit (such as gram or liter), then centi, then milli. This ordering is what makes a metric chart easy to convert across.
Using dimensional analysis, a nurse converts 2.5 grams to milligrams by multiplying by the factor 1000 milligrams per 1 gram. What is the result, and why does this method work?
- 0.0025 milligrams, because the larger unit becomes smaller
- 250 milligrams, because grams divide into milligrams by 100
- 25 milligrams, because each gram equals 10 milligrams
- 2500 milligrams, because the gram units cancel and leave milligrams
Correct answer: 2500 milligrams, because the gram units cancel and leave milligrams
The answer is 2500 milligrams, because the gram units cancel and leave milligrams. In dimensional analysis you multiply by a conversion factor written so the unwanted unit cancels: 2.5 grams x (1000 milligrams / 1 gram) = 2500 milligrams. The grams in the numerator and denominator cancel, leaving the answer in milligrams, which confirms the setup is correct.
A doctor orders 0.75 liters of solution, but the measuring cup is marked in milliliters. Using the metric system, how many milliliters should the nurse measure?
- 750 milliliters
- 7.5 milliliters
- 7500 milliliters
- 75 milliliters
Correct answer: 750 milliliters
The answer is 750 milliliters. Converting from the larger liter unit to the smaller milliliter unit means multiplying by 1000: 0.75 x 1000 = 750 milliliters. On a metric conversion chart, moving from liters down to milliliters always increases the number because the unit gets smaller.
What is 3/8 written as a decimal?
- 0.625
- 0.375
- 0.38
- 0.83
Correct answer: 0.375
The answer is 0.375. To convert a fraction to a decimal, divide the numerator by the denominator: 3 divided by 8 equals 0.375. The choice 0.625 is what you get from 5/8, and 0.83 comes from mistakenly dividing 8 by something near it, so neither matches 3/8.
A nursing applicant gets 17 of 20 questions correct on a practice quiz. Expressed as a decimal, what fraction of the questions did the applicant answer correctly?
- 0.85
- 1.7
- 0.80
- 0.17
Correct answer: 0.85
The answer is 0.85. To turn the fraction 17/20 into a decimal, divide 17 by 20, which equals 0.85. You can also scale the fraction to 85/100, which is read directly as 0.85. The value 0.17 wrongly treats the numerator alone as the decimal, and 0.80 corresponds to 16/20, not 17/20.
What is the decimal 0.6 written as a percentage?
- 60%
- 0.6%
- 6%
- 600%
Correct answer: 60%
The answer is 60%. To convert a decimal to a percentage, multiply by 100 (or move the decimal point two places to the right): 0.6 becomes 60%. Writing 6% would mean only 0.06, and 0.6% would mean 0.006, both far smaller than 0.6.
A solution is 0.045 of a certain concentration. Written as a percentage, this is:
- 45%
- 0.045%
- 0.45%
- 4.5%
Correct answer: 4.5%
The answer is 4.5%. To convert a decimal to a percent, move the decimal point two places to the right (multiply by 100): 0.045 becomes 4.5%. Moving the point only one place gives the incorrect 0.45%, and treating it as if the digits were already a percent gives the wrong 45%.
What is 1/4 + 2/3?
- $\frac{5}{6}$
- $\frac{2}{12}$
- $\frac{3}{7}$
- $\frac{11}{12}$
Correct answer: $\frac{11}{12}$
The answer is 11/12. To add fractions you need a common denominator; the least common denominator of 4 and 3 is 12. Rewrite the fractions as 3/12 and 8/12, then add the numerators to get 11/12. The choice 3/7 wrongly adds numerators and denominators straight across, which is not how fraction addition works.
A medication cup holds 5/6 ounce of liquid. After 1/3 ounce is poured out, how much liquid remains?
- $\frac{4}{3}$ ounce
- $\frac{2}{3}$ ounce
- $\frac{1}{6}$ ounce
- $\frac{1}{2}$ ounce
Correct answer: $\frac{1}{2}$ ounce
The answer is 1/2 ounce. To subtract fractions, use a common denominator: 1/3 becomes 2/6, so 5/6 minus 2/6 equals 3/6, which simplifies to 1/2. The choice 4/3 comes from incorrectly adding instead of subtracting, and 1/6 comes from subtracting numerators without converting to the common denominator.
Using the standard order of operations, what is the value of 6 + 2 x 5?
- 16
- 30
- 40
- 13
Correct answer: 16
The answer is 16. The order of operations (PEMDAS: Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication and Division, Addition and Subtraction) requires multiplication before addition. So 2 x 5 = 10 is done first, then 6 + 10 = 16. The value 40 comes from incorrectly adding first to get 8, then multiplying by 5.
Evaluate the expression: $(8 - 3) \times 2 + 4 \div 2$
- 9
- 12
- 11
- 7
Correct answer: 12
The answer is 12. Following PEMDAS, do the parentheses first: $8 - 3 = 5$ . Then handle multiplication and division left to right: $5 \times 2 = 10$ and $4 \div 2 = 2$ . Finally add: $10 + 2 = 12$ . The choice 9 results from ignoring the order and working strictly left to right without prioritizing multiplication and division.
What number does the Roman numeral XIV represent?
- 14
- 16
- 24
- 9
Correct answer: 14
The answer is 14. In Roman numerals X equals 10, and IV equals 4 (one less than five, because the smaller I comes before V). Adding 10 + 4 gives 14. The value 16 would be XVI, and 9 would be IX, so neither matches XIV.
A medication order is labeled with the Roman numeral XL. What whole number does this represent?
- 15
- 49
- 40
- 60
Correct answer: 40
The answer is 40. In Roman numerals, when a smaller value precedes a larger one it is subtracted: X (10) before L (50) means 50 minus 10, which equals 40. If the X came after the L (LX) it would mean 60 instead. The value 49 would be written XLIX.
What is the product of 2/5 and 3/4?
- $\frac{3}{10}$
- $\frac{6}{9}$
- $\frac{8}{15}$
- $\frac{5}{9}$
Correct answer: $\frac{3}{10}$
The answer is 3/10. To multiply fractions, multiply the numerators together and the denominators together: 2 x 3 = 6 and 5 x 4 = 20, giving 6/20, which simplifies to 3/10. You do not need a common denominator to multiply. The choice 5/9 incorrectly adds across the fractions instead of multiplying.
What is 3/4 divided by 1/2?
- $\frac{1}{4}$
- $\frac{3}{8}$
- $\frac{2}{3}$
- $\frac{3}{2}$
Correct answer: $\frac{3}{2}$
The answer is 3/2. To divide by a fraction, multiply by its reciprocal: 3/4 divided by 1/2 becomes 3/4 times 2/1, which equals 6/4, or 3/2. The choice 3/8 comes from mistakenly multiplying by 1/2 instead of flipping it to 2/1 first.
On a unit, the ratio of nurses to patients is 1 to 8. If there are 6 nurses on shift, how many patients can be covered at the same ratio?
- 56
- 48
- 14
- 2
Correct answer: 48
The answer is 48. Set up the proportion 1/8 = 6/x and cross-multiply: 1 times x equals 8 times 6, so x = 48. Multiplying the patient side by the same factor (6) that the nurse side was multiplied by keeps the ratio equal. The choice 14 comes from incorrectly adding 6 + 8 instead of using the proportion.
If 3 ounces of concentrate are mixed with every 12 ounces of water, how many ounces of concentrate are needed for 28 ounces of water at the same ratio?
- 7
- 4
- 9
- 16
Correct answer: 7
The answer is 7. Write the proportion $\frac{3}{12} = \frac{x}{28}$ and cross-multiply: $12x = 3 \times 28 = 84$ , so $x = 84 \div 12 = 7$ . The ratio 3 to 12 simplifies to 1 to 4, and one quarter of 28 is 7, confirming the result. The choice 16 comes from adding the difference (28 - 12) to 3 rather than scaling proportionally.
A nursing program admits 25% of its 240 applicants. How many applicants are admitted?
- 25
- 48
- 60
- 96
Correct answer: 60
The answer is 60. To find a percentage of a number, convert the percent to a decimal and multiply: 25% becomes 0.25, and 0.25 x 240 = 60. You can also recognize that 25% is one quarter, and one quarter of 240 is 60. The choice 48 would be 20% of 240, not 25%.
A study guide originally costs $80 and is marked down by 15%. What is the dollar amount of the discount?
- $12
- $68
- $65
- $15
Correct answer: $12
The answer is $12. To find a percentage of an amount, change the percent to a decimal and multiply: 15% becomes 0.15, and 0.15 x $80 = $12. That $12 is the discount itself, not the sale price; the reduced price would be $80 minus $12, or $68. The choice $15 mistakes the percent number for the dollar discount.
What is 7/10 written as a percentage?
- 70%
- 0.7%
- 17%
- 7%
Correct answer: 70%
The answer is 70%. One way is to convert the fraction to a decimal by dividing 7 by 10 to get 0.7, then multiply by 100 to get 70%. Because the denominator is already 10, you can also scale to 70/100, which is read directly as 70%. The choice 7% would be only 7/100, which is far smaller than 7/10.
How many chambers does the human heart have, and what are the upper two chambers called?
- Three chambers, with the upper one called the atrium
- Two chambers, both called ventricles
- Four chambers, with the upper two called atria
- Four chambers, with the upper two called ventricles
Correct answer: Four chambers, with the upper two called atria
Four chambers, with the upper two called atria. The human heart has four chambers: two upper chambers known as the right and left atria, which receive blood entering the heart, and two lower chambers known as the right and left ventricles, which pump blood out. The ventricles are the lower chambers, not the upper ones, which rules out the choices that label the upper chambers as ventricles.
A nursing student is tracing blood flow through the heart. Which chamber receives oxygen-poor blood returning from the body and passes it toward the lungs?
- Left ventricle
- Right atrium
- Right ventricle
- Left atrium
Correct answer: Right atrium
Right atrium. Oxygen-poor blood returning from the body enters the right atrium first, then moves into the right ventricle, which pumps it to the lungs to pick up oxygen. The left atrium is wrong because it receives oxygen-rich blood coming back from the lungs, not deoxygenated blood from the body.
In anatomy, what do the directional terms "superior" and "inferior" mean?
- Superior means toward the front; inferior means toward the back
- Superior means closer to the midline; inferior means farther from the midline
- Superior means closer to the point of attachment; inferior means farther from it
- Superior means higher or toward the head; inferior means lower or away from the head
Correct answer: Superior means higher or toward the head; inferior means lower or away from the head
Superior means higher or toward the head; inferior means lower or away from the head. In standard anatomical position, superior describes a structure positioned above another (toward the head), while inferior describes one positioned below (toward the feet). Front-versus-back is described by anterior and posterior, and distance from the midline is described by medial and lateral, so those choices describe different term pairs.
Using anatomical directional terms, how is the wrist described in relation to the elbow on the same arm?
- The wrist is superior to the elbow
- The wrist is distal to the elbow
- The wrist is proximal to the elbow
- The wrist is medial to the elbow
Correct answer: The wrist is distal to the elbow
The wrist is distal to the elbow. Distal means farther from the trunk or point of origin of a limb, and the wrist is farther from the shoulder than the elbow is. Proximal would be incorrect because it means closer to the trunk, which describes the elbow's position relative to the wrist, not the reverse.
A pre-nursing student is matching human body systems to their main functions. Which pairing is correct?
- The skeletal system filters waste from the blood to form urine
- The digestive system breaks down food so nutrients can be absorbed
- The respiratory system pumps blood to deliver nutrients to tissues
- The integumentary system transmits electrical impulses to control movement
Correct answer: The digestive system breaks down food so nutrients can be absorbed
The digestive system breaks down food so nutrients can be absorbed. The digestive system mechanically and chemically breaks food into nutrients the body can absorb and use. The other pairings mismatch systems with the wrong jobs: the respiratory system handles gas exchange (not pumping blood), the urinary system filters blood to make urine (not the skeletal system), and the nervous system transmits electrical impulses (not the integumentary, or skin, system).
A diagram shows the sternum (breastbone) and the shoulder. Which set of directional terms most accurately describes the sternum's location relative to the shoulder?
- Lateral and posterior
- Proximal and inferior
- Distal and superior
- Medial and anterior
Correct answer: Medial and anterior
Medial and anterior. The sternum sits near the body's midline, so it is medial compared with the shoulder, which lies off to the side (lateral). The sternum is also on the front of the chest, making it anterior. The posterior and lateral terms would place it toward the back and side, which does not match the breastbone's actual front-and-center position.

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By Career EmployerUpdated Jun 7, 2026

NLN PAX Question of the DayNew daily

1 of 360+ free questions — a new one every day

In which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes align at the cell's equatorial plate?

Pick an answer to see the explanation

Click Start Test above to launch a full-length NLN PAX practice test weighted across the three scored sections — Verbal, Mathematics, and Science — or drill a single section to target a weak spot. Every question includes a clear explanation so you learn the reasoning, not just the answer.

The NLN PAX (Pre-Admission Examination) is a nursing-school entrance exam developed by the National League for Nursing (NLN) and used by RN and PN programs to screen applicants.^[1]These free PAX practice questions mirror the exam’s content areas so you practice the way the real test is built.

Important: in 2025 the NLN introduced the NLN Nursing Entrance Exam (NEX) as the successor to the PAX, with longer per-section timing, an on-screen calculator for math, and physics removed from Science.^[2]

^[2] Confirm whether your program still accepts the legacy PAX or has moved to the NEX — the academic foundation you build here carries over to both. To round out your prep, pair these with our free study guide, flashcards.

NLN PAX at a Glance

NLN PAX / NEX at a glance
Detail	NLN PAX / NEX
Developer	National League for Nursing (NLN)
Purpose	Nursing-school (RN/PN) pre-admission entrance exam
Total questions	163 items (145 scored + 18 unscored pilot), multiple-choice
Sections	Verbal, Mathematics, Science
Time limit	180 minutes (three 60-minute subject tests, section-gated)
Scoring	Composite (0–300) and section scores converted to national percentiles
Passing method	No fixed pass mark — norm-referenced; each program sets its own cutoff
Successor exam	NLN NEX (launched Feb 2024) replaced the PAX; PAX retired May 31, 2024
Note	Programs may still call it the PAX; the live exam is the NEX

What Is on the NLN PAX Exam?

The NLN entrance exam administers 163 multiple-choice items — 145 scored plus 18 unscored pilot questions — across three timed subject tests: Verbal, Mathematics, and Science.^[1]

The Verbal section has two parts — Word Knowledge (vocabulary) and Reading Comprehension (passages). Mathematics covers numbers and operations, measurement, algebra, and data. Science spans biology, human anatomy, human physiology, chemistry, and health. Our full practice test is weighted to match the three official sections:

NLN PAX/NEX weighting by section

Science38% · 62 Qs

Verbal Ability34% · 56 Qs

Mathematics28% · 45 Qs

Note that on the NEX, Science no longer includes physics and math allows an on-screen calculator; percentages are the official Percent of Total Test and may not sum to 100 due to rounding.^[2]

Practice Questions by Section

Use Start Test for a full weighted PAX simulation, or open the hub and pick a single section to drill your weak area. After each full exam, your results show a per-section breakdown so you know exactly where to focus — for most candidates that means the broad Science section and timed reading passages.

What Are the Requirements to Take the PAX?

There are no national eligibility prerequisites for the NLN PAX itself; because it is an entrance exam, requirements are set by the individual nursing program.^[1] Each program defines who may sit and what else the application must include.

Prospective RN (associate or bachelor’s) and practical/vocational nursing (PN/LVN) applicants typically take the PAX as part of an application package, often alongside a high school diploma or GED, prerequisite coursework, and a minimum GPA. Some programs limit retakes or how recent scores must be — always confirm whether your target program requires the legacy PAX or the newer NEX.

How Do You Register for the NLN PAX?

You register for the NLN PAX (or its successor, the NEX) directly through the National League for Nursing at nln.org, or through the testing arrangement your nursing program uses.^[2] Some schools administer the exam on campus on set dates, while others direct applicants to register online for a remote or testing-center session.

During registration you select your test date and designate the program(s) to receive your scores. Review the current NLN candidate information for fees, scheduling windows, ID requirements, and retake policies.

How Is the NLN PAX Scored?

The NLN PAX produces a composite score plus separate Verbal, Mathematics, and Science scores, reported as the percentage of questions answered correctly and then converted into national percentile ranks.^[1]

A percentile tells you how you compare with other applicants — the 50th percentile means you scored higher than about half of test takers.

Many programs look for a composite percentile around 50 or higher, but each sets its own minimums and may weight sections differently, so there is no single pass/fail number. Confirm exact score requirements with your target program.

How Hard Is the PAX?

The PAX has no single pass or fail threshold — it is an admissions screening tool, so there is no national pass rate.^[1] Instead, each program sets its own minimum composite and/or section percentiles, and competitiveness depends on the applicant pool. The exam is challenging mainly for its breadth: the Science section is the most demanding for many test takers, while Verbal rewards strong vocabulary and timed reading and Math demands accuracy under time pressure.

145

Scored questions

Verbal, Math, Science

~50th

Common percentile target

program-dependent

38%

Science share

largest section

The takeaway: because the exam ranks you against other applicants, aim for the highest percentile you can reach — drill all three sections, especially Science, before test day.

What to Expect on Exam Day

How you test depends on your program: some schools administer the PAX on campus on set dates, while others direct you to an online-proctored or testing-center session you schedule yourself.

^[2] Bring a valid, unexpired government-issued photo ID whose name matches your registration, and arrive early to check in.

The exam is closed-book — no outside notes — and you work through 163 multiple-choice items across the Verbal, Mathematics, and Science sections, each timed at 60 minutes (180 minutes total).

On the legacy PAX you generally do not get an on-screen calculator (the newer NEX adds one for math), so practice your arithmetic by hand. Having simulated the full timing with practice tests makes that clock feel routine.

Confirm the exact format, ID rules, and whether your program uses the PAX or NEX before exam day.

How to Use This NLN PAX Practice Test

Recreate exam conditions. Take the full test timed, with no notes and no calculator on math.
Diagnose, then drill. Use a full PAX simulation to find weak sections, then drill them.
Prioritize Science + Math. Science is the broadest section and math demands speed.
Learn the why. Read every explanation — understanding beats memorizing.
Answer everything. Maximize raw score and percentile — never leave a question blank.

Why the PAX Matters

For RN and PN applicants, the PAX (or NEX) is often a gatekeeper: programs use your composite and section percentiles to rank a competitive applicant pool.^[1] A strong PAX score strengthens your application and the academic foundation it measures carries into the NEX and nursing school itself. These free practice tests are the most efficient way to get there.

Conclusion

Earning a competitive PAX percentile comes down to broad readiness across Verbal, Mathematics, and Science under time pressure. Use this free NLN PAX practice test to find your weak sections, drill them to mastery, and reinforce them with our study guide, flashcards — and confirm whether your program uses the legacy PAX or the newer NEX.

NLN PAX Practice Test FAQ

The NLN PAX (Pre-Admission Examination) is a nursing-school entrance exam created by the National League for Nursing (NLN). Nursing programs use it to screen RN and PN applicants. It measures academic readiness in three areas: Verbal, Mathematics, and Science.

References

1.National League for Nursing. “NEX Technical Brief (Blueprint, Norms and Reports).” NLN.org, 2026. ↑
2.National League for Nursing. “PAX-to-NEX Product Update One-Pager.” NLN.org, 2023. ↑
3.National League for Nursing. “NLN NEX Assessment (Nursing Entrance Exam).” NLN.org. ↑

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Career Employer’s Editorial Process

Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.