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Your FREE TEAS (Test of Essential Academic Skills) Practice Test 2026 – 900+ Q&A

Prepare with realistic, TEAS exam-style questions — take the full test or focused Reading, Math, Science & English section drills.

How ready are you?

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TEAS exam by the numbersStandard mode

Where the TEAS exam's points come from

ATI's official outline weights, the exam rules and our 809 free practice questions mapped domain by domain. Use it to plan your study hours.

ATI states the TEAS 7 has “170 questions” — 150 scored plus 20 unscored pretest items — with 209 minutes total.[1]

  • Passing score:No universal cutoff — set by your program
  • Exam fee:≈ $70–$115 (set by the testing site)
  • Calculator:Four-function calculator provided (Math)
  • Format:Computer (test center or online proctored), or paper
  • Retakes:Allowed; limited by your program's policy
Facts from ATI's official exam outline and rules
170
Questions
209 min
Time limit

Where the TEAS points are

ATI's official weight for each of the four domains. Hover or tap a domain to see how many questions that means on your exam.

See these numbers as a table
Weights from ATI's TEAS exam outline. Questions on your exam = weight × 170 questions, rounded. Practice questions: Career Employer's TEAS bank.
DomainOfficial weightQuestions on your examOur practice questions
Reading26%44234
Mathematics22%37168
Science29%49250
English and Language Usage22%37157

What to do: Science is the biggest domain at 29%, which means 49 of your questions. Mathematics and English and Language Usage are the smallest at 22% each.

Career Employer study data · TEAS exam

What TEAS studiers got right (and wrong) so far

6,241 first-try answers on our free TEAS practice questions. Each part below switched on by itself once it had enough people behind it.[9]

Data through Nov 10, 2026 · updates daily
62.4%
accuracy on the second try, up from 61%

Where TEAS points are lost

Out of 100 questions on a real exam, how many a typical studier would miss in each section. Accuracy alone hides this: a big section with average accuracy costs more points than a small, hard one.

See these numbers as a table
First-try answers from TEAS studiers on Career Employer, through Nov 10, 2026. Weights from ATI's TEAS content outline.
SectionExam weightScored questionsFirst-try accuracyPoints lost per 100First-try answersStudiers
Science29.4%5054.5%13.42,21767
Reading26.5%4551.6%12.81,28961
English & Language Usage21.8%3769.5%6.61,42464
Mathematics22.4%3872%6.31,31166

What to do: Science costs the most points (13.4 of every 100), because it's 29% of the exam. Study it first. Reading is the hardest section, but it's only 27% of the exam.[9]

You vs everyone new

Your score in each section, next to the average first-try score of TEAS studiers. Take a practice test and your own scores show up here.

Take a practice test to see your scores next to everyone’s.

Split your study time by where points are lost

Tell us your study hours. We split them by points lost per section, so time goes where it moves your score most.

Science
6.9 hrs
Reading
6.5 hrs
Mathematics
3.2 hrs
English & Language Usage
3.4 hrs

More TEAS student data is on its way

We’ve logged 6,241 first-try answers on our TEAS questions so far. This section switches to real TEAS student results by itself once each part has enough people behind it:

What switches onNeeds
Headline numbers150 studiers
First full exam score100 full exams
Finish rate150 people starting

Then it shows question difficulty.

Priority map

How big each section is against how hard it is. Bubble size = how many answers we have.

See these numbers as a table
SectionExam weightFirst-try accuracyFirst-try answers
Science29.4%54.5%2,217
Reading26.5%51.6%1,289
Mathematics22.4%72%1,311
English & Language Usage21.8%69.5%1,424

TEAS study activity, week by week

How much TEAS studying happens on Career Employer each week. Hover or tap a week for details.

See these numbers as a table
Site analytics, week of Jul 6 through Nov 8, 2026.
Week ofQuestions answeredPractice tests startedFlashcard sessions
Nov 22,58532118
Oct 262,3452957
Oct 191,5712381
Oct 121,9501729
Oct 5399327
Sep 284044210
Sep 216044910
Sep 14908683
Sep 74563014
Aug 31408171
Aug 244614812
Aug 174903516
Aug 106814514
Aug 3704446
Jul 27426413
Jul 20954464
Jul 13492280
Jul 6828381

Source: anonymous first-try answers on Career Employer TEAS practice tests, Aug 29, 2026 – Nov 10, 2026. Staff traffic, repeats and peeked answers excluded. Our practice questions are written to the official outline, not the official exam; self-selected sample; a studier is one browser.

Weights and rules from ATI's published TEAS exam outline and certification pages. Practice-question counts from Career Employer's TEAS bank. Fees and requirements can change; check ATI before you register.

The TEAS (Test of Essential Academic Skills) by ATI is the entrance exam most nursing and allied-health programs use to screen applicants.[1]It’s broad — four sections of high-school-level content — so the best way to prepare is realistic, timed practice across each section. That’s what these free TEAS practice tests and test prep are built for.[7]

What Is on the TEAS Exam?

The ATI TEAS 7 covers four sections: Reading (45 questions), Mathematics (38), Science (50), and English & Language Usage (37) — 170 questions in 209 minutes total.[2][3]

Each section is separately timed and weighted by its number of questions. Science is the largest section — weight your studying accordingly:

ATI TEAS 7 sections (170 questions / 209 minutes)
SectionQuestionsTime% of test
Reading4555 min26%
Mathematics3857 min22%
Science5060 min29%
English & Language Usage3737 min22%

Practice the TEAS by Section

Take the full timed test from the Start Test button above, or target one section at a time with the drills below. Each section drill pulls from hundreds of realistic, explained questions.

TEAS Reading Practice Test

The Reading section (45 questions, 55 minutes) tests key ideas and details, craft and structure, and integration of knowledge and ideas — pulling answers directly from passages.[4] Use the Reading drill to practice close, timed reading and inference under exam pressure.

TEAS Math Practice Test

The Mathematics section (38 questions, 57 minutes) covers numbers and algebra plus measurement and data — fractions, ratios, percentages, equations, and reading tables and graphs.[4] A four-function calculator is provided. Use the Math drill to build speed and accuracy on the question types you’ll actually see.

TEAS Science Practice Test

Science (50 questions, 60 minutes) is the largest section — heavy on human anatomy and physiology, plus life and physical sciences and scientific reasoning.[4] Use the Science drill to hammer A&P.

TEAS English & Language Usage Practice Test

English & Language Usage (37 questions, 37 minutes) covers conventions of standard English, knowledge of language, and vocabulary acquisition — grammar, sentence structure, and word meaning in context.[4] Use the English drill to lock in the rules that recur on the test.

How Is the TEAS Scored?

The TEAS is scored as a total composite score (a percentage) plus a sub-score for each of the four sections, based only on the 150 scored questions; the 20 unscored pretest items are mixed in and don’t affect your result.[1]

Scores are reported immediately for the computer version. ATI also maps your score to proficiency levels (Basic, Proficient, Advanced, Exemplary).

What Score Do You Need to Pass the TEAS?

There is no universal passing score for the TEAS — each nursing or allied-health program sets its own cutoff.[6] Many programs require a composite around 60–70%, and competitive BSN programs often expect higher. Always confirm your target program’s exact requirement.

60–70%
Typical program cutoff
competitive programs higher

The takeaway: find your program’s required score, then practice each section until you’re consistently above it — with a buffer. Candidates who drill the weakest section (usually Science or Math) move the composite the most.

On Career Employer, TEAS students miss Reading most (52% right on the first try)[9] — see the TEAS student data above.

What to Expect on Exam Day

The ATI TEAS 7 has 170 questions (150 scored) across four separately timed sections — Reading, Math, Science, and English & Language Usage — for about 209 minutes total. A four-function calculator is built into the Math section, so you won’t bring your own.

You may test at a school testing center, a PSI/Prometric site, or through ATI’s remote online proctoring.[5]Bring a valid government-issued photo ID and arrive early; personal items and phones aren’t allowed at your station. Your TEAS score report is available soon after you finish.

To remove surprises, simulate each section’s timing with the practice tests below so the pacing feels familiar.

How to Use TEAS Practice Tests

The TEAS rewards broad review plus targeted section work.[8] Get the most from these practice tests with these tips:

  • Recreate exam-day conditions. Practice timed, in a quiet space, with only the provided calculator for Math.[7]
  • Diagnose, then drill. Take a full timed test first to find your weakest section, then use that section’s drill until it improves.
  • Prioritize your weakest section. Science is the largest section, so A&P practice pays off on any score.
  • Watch the clock per section. Each section is separately timed — practice pacing within each one, not just overall.
  • Answer everything. There’s no guessing penalty, so never leave a question blank.
  • Aim above your program’s cutoff. If your program wants 65%, practice to 75–80% for a safe margin.

How Do You Register for the TEAS?

You register for the TEAS through ATI (atitesting.com) and choose a test center or online proctored exam; the fee is typically $70–$115 depending on the site.[5]Many nursing programs require you to send your scores directly through ATI, so confirm your program’s code and deadline before you test.

Conclusion

Hitting your target TEAS score comes down to realistic, section-by-section practice. Take the full timed test to find your weak spots, drill Reading, Math, Science, and English until each clears your program’s cutoff, and build a comfortable buffer. These free practice tests are how you get there.

TEAS Practice Test FAQ

The ATI TEAS 7 has 170 questions total — 150 scored and 20 unscored pretest items — across four sections: Reading (45), Math (38), Science (50), and English & Language Usage (37). You get 209 minutes.

What changed on this page

Every real change, with the date.

  1. Interactive charts added. Built from the official outline and our question bank.
  2. 809 questions rewritten.
  3. 1 question corrected.
  4. 2 questions corrected.
  5. 19 questions corrected.
  6. 17 questions retired. 61 questions corrected, including 6 answer keys. The bank now has 809 questions.
Earlier changes (1)
  1. 1 question corrected.
Career Employer TEAS practice-test data, through Nov 10, 2026 · 67+ students
Every published Career Employer TEAS practice-test number, with its sample size, source and date
MetricValuenStudentsSourceData through
First-try accuracy: Reading (26.5% of the exam; costs 12.8 of every 100 exam points)51.6%1,289 answers61current question setNov 10, 2026
First-try accuracy: Science (29.4% of the exam; costs 13.4 of every 100 exam points)54.5%2,217 answers67current question setNov 10, 2026
First-try accuracy: English & Language Usage (21.8% of the exam; costs 6.6 of every 100 exam points)69.5%1,424 answers64current question setNov 10, 2026
First-try accuracy: Mathematics (22.4% of the exam; costs 6.3 of every 100 exam points)72%1,311 answers66current question setNov 10, 2026

First attempt at each question only; repeats, answers after revealing the explanation, bots and staff excluded. Aug 29, 2026 – Nov 10, 2026. Our practice questions written to the official outline, not the official exam; self-selected sample; a student is one browser. Free to reuse under CC BY 4.0 — cite “Career Employer practice-test data, careeremployer.com/data”.

Want the short version before you start the question bank? Our free TEAS cheat sheet condenses the highest-yield TEAS facts into one quick review for your final week.

TEAS question bank

All 809 questions, by domain

A reference copy of every question in this practice test. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To practice with scoring, timing and your readiness score, use Start Test at the top of the page.

Reading (234)

  1. Watermelons After extensive research, a German botanist and her colleagues have discovered that the watermelon we know today didn’t originate from Mesopotamia, as many other domesticated crops have. Its genetic analysis shows that it is more closely related to the Sudanese variety, although they look very different. Our ‘modern’ version of watermelons has red flesh and a very sweet taste, while the flesh of Sudanese watermelons is white and it isn’t sweet at all; it is mainly used to feed animals. Which of the following provides information about watermelons?

    • A.Conventional domesticated vegetables might have evolved in Sudan.
    • B.Common domesticated watermelons might have predecessors in Sudan.
    • C.Domesticated sweet watermelons might have evolved in Mesopotamia.
    • D.Watermelons in Sudan might have characteristically crimson flesh.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Common domesticated watermelons might have predecessors in Sudan.

    Common domesticated watermelons might have predecessors in Sudan. This is what the passage reports: the genetic analysis "shows that it is more closely related to the Sudanese variety, although they look very different." Conventional domesticated vegetables might have evolved in Sudan. This is wrong because the passage says the watermelon differs from "many other domesticated crops," which did originate from Mesopotamia; it says nothing about other crops coming from Sudan. Domesticated sweet watermelons might have evolved in Mesopotamia. This is wrong because the passage states that the modern watermelon "didn't originate from Mesopotamia." Watermelons in Sudan might have characteristically crimson flesh. This is wrong because "the flesh of Sudanese watermelons is white"; red flesh belongs to the modern variety.

  2. Karl just finished reading a graphic novel with a ‘coming of age’ theme about four young sisters who become grown women through the difficulties of living in a working-class family in the 1800s. Which of the following has a contrasting theme?

    • A.A novel about a timid boy who leaves home to discover the extent of his talent.
    • B.A song about a wayward youth who grows up to leave the safety of his childhood.
    • C.A film about a teenage boy who soon learns to accept the loss of his innocence.
    • D.A play about a royal heir who schemes alone to avenge the murder of his father.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A play about a royal heir who schemes alone to avenge the murder of his father.

    A play about a royal heir who schemes alone to avenge the murder of his father. This work has a revenge theme, which contrasts with the coming-of-age theme of Karl's graphic novel. A novel about a timid boy who leaves home to discover the extent of his talent. This is wrong because leaving home and discovering oneself is a coming-of-age story, the same theme as Karl's book. A song about a wayward youth who grows up to leave the safety of his childhood. This is wrong because growing up and leaving childhood behind is the coming-of-age theme itself. A film about a teenage boy who soon learns to accept the loss of his innocence. This is wrong because the loss of innocence in adolescence is a classic coming-of-age theme, so it is similar rather than contrasting.

  3. Humidity When days are hot and humid, the air feels heavy and breathing might feel challenging; our skin can also feel overheated and sticky. Humidity feels so uncomfortable because it makes us feel hotter than we feel on dry days. Usually, when we feel hot, we sweat and our sweat evaporates into the air, therefore cooling our skin. However, humidity doesn’t allow our sweat to evaporate as quickly since the air around us cannot absorb any more moisture (vapour). The longer our sweat stays on our skin, the warmer (and more uncomfortable!) we feel. Which of the following is an inference that could be made about humidity?

    • A.Our sweat dries up more speedily on humid days.
    • B.Our lungs gain more fresh oxygen on humid days.
    • C.Our bodies cool down more slowly on humid days.
    • D.Our skin feels much more parched on humid days.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Our bodies cool down more slowly on humid days.

    Our bodies cool down more slowly on humid days. The passage explains that sweat normally evaporates and cools the skin, but "humidity doesn't allow our sweat to evaporate as quickly," and "the longer our sweat stays on our skin, the warmer" we feel, so cooling down is harder. Our sweat dries up more speedily on humid days. This reverses the passage, which says sweat evaporates less quickly in humid air. Our lungs gain more fresh oxygen on humid days. This is wrong because the passage says the air "feels heavy and breathing might feel challenging"; it never suggests breathing improves. Our skin feels much more parched on humid days. This is wrong because the passage says our skin "can also feel overheated and sticky," not dry.

  4. Mars In 2018, a team of researchers found evidence of a large lake underneath Mars’ south polar surface. This announcement was made after analysing radar data gathered by Europe’s Mars Express spacecraft. The same instruments were used once again to follow up on the discovery and to study a wider area around the newly found lake. This provided evidence for the existence of three more underground lakes. However, a different team of scientists seem unsure regarding the existence of subsurface liquid water on Mars. They simply cannot understand what is preventing the water from freezing in Mars’ sub-zero atmosphere. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?

    • A.A mild atmosphere like a blanket might shield the buried lakes.
    • B.A geothermal source like a volcano might warm the buried lakes.
    • C.A sunbaked landscape like a desert might heat the buried lakes.
    • D.A robotic mission like a lander might explore the buried lakes.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A geothermal source like a volcano might warm the buried lakes.

    A geothermal source like a volcano might warm the buried lakes. The last line says scientists "cannot understand what is preventing the water from freezing in Mars' sub-zero atmosphere," so a reasonable prediction is that something underground, such as a volcano, is supplying heat. A mild atmosphere like a blanket might shield the buried lakes. This is wrong because the same line describes the atmosphere as "sub-zero," so it is too cold to keep anything from freezing. A sunbaked landscape like a desert might heat the buried lakes. This is wrong because a surface under a sub-zero atmosphere is not hot, and the lakes lie underneath the polar surface, out of reach of the sun. A robotic mission like a lander might explore the buried lakes. This is wrong because a future mission follows from the earlier sentences about studying the lakes, not from the last line, which is about why the water does not freeze.

  5. Mia and Her Prosthetic Foot Bearded vultures are the largest flying birds in Europe. When large birds such as these lose one of their limbs, their inability to walk will certainly lead to death from malnutrition. Luckily this won’t be the case for a bearded vulture named Mia, who injured its foot so badly that it had to be amputated. So far, prosthetic limbs have been used in humans; however, for the first time, a bionic limb has been attached directly to a vulture’s bones, allowing the bird to land safely multiple times a day and to grab prey. The veterinary team from Vienna University designed a special bone implant durable enough to withstand the large bird’s daily activity. Only a few weeks after the surgery, Mia was able to walk and land using both feet. Which of the following is an inference that could be made about Mia, the bearded vulture?

    • A.Mia is the continent's largest wild bird.
    • B.Mia is the country's seventh bionic bird.
    • C.Mia is the world's double bionic amputee.
    • D.Mia is the planet's earliest bionic bird.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Mia is the planet's earliest bionic bird.

    Mia is the planet's earliest bionic bird. The passage says that "for the first time, a bionic limb has been attached directly to a vulture's bones," which supports the inference that Mia is the first bird of its kind. Mia is the continent's largest wild bird. This is wrong because the passage says bearded vultures as a species "are the largest flying birds in Europe"; it says nothing about Mia being the largest individual. Mia is the country's seventh bionic bird. This is wrong because the passage presents Mia's bionic limb as a first, not as one of several. Mia is the world's double bionic amputee. This is wrong because only one foot was amputated, and after surgery Mia could "walk and land using both feet."

  6. Beth just finished watching a movie with a ‘revenge’ theme, in which an innocent man spends his time in prison plotting against those who betrayed him and had him jailed. Which of the following has a similar theme?

    • A.A folk song about a lonely girl who renounces her career to follow her sweetheart.
    • B.A memoir about a country girl who leaves her village to discover her own identity.
    • C.A graphic novel about a bullied girl who uses her powers to punish her tormentors.
    • D.A movie about a courageous nurse who risks her own life to safeguard her patients.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A graphic novel about a bullied girl who uses her powers to punish her tormentors.

    A graphic novel about a bullied girl who uses her powers to punish her tormentors. Like Beth's movie, this story is about a wronged person paying back those who hurt her, which is a revenge theme. A folk song about a lonely girl who renounces her career to follow her sweetheart. This is wrong because giving up everything for a sweetheart is a love theme. A memoir about a country girl who leaves her village to discover her own identity. This is wrong because leaving home to find oneself is a coming-of-age theme. A movie about a courageous nurse who risks her own life to safeguard her patients. This is wrong because risking oneself to protect others is a courage and self-sacrifice theme, with no one being paid back for a wrong.

  7. Passant just finished reading a novel with a ‘redemption’ theme, in which an old businessman realizes how mean and selfish he had been towards others and invests his money, time, and effort to improve the lives of the people around him. Which of the following has a similar theme?

    • A.A song about a betrayed sailor who wastes his fortune ruining his former partners.
    • B.A movie about a lonely pianist who risks his job chasing his childhood sweetheart.
    • C.A play about a released convict who spends his life enriching his humble hometown.
    • D.A novel about a shy teenager who discovers his confidence starting his new school.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A play about a released convict who spends his life enriching his humble hometown.

    A play about a released convict who spends his life enriching his humble hometown. Like the businessman in Passant's novel, the former convict makes up for past wrongs by improving the lives of the people around him, which is a redemption theme. A song about a betrayed sailor who wastes his fortune ruining his former partners. This is wrong because using his fortune to ruin those who betrayed him is a revenge theme, the opposite of making amends. A movie about a lonely pianist who risks his job chasing his childhood sweetheart. This is wrong because pursuing a sweetheart is a love theme. A novel about a shy teenager who discovers his confidence starting his new school. This is wrong because a teenager gaining confidence is a coming-of-age theme, and there are no past wrongs to atone for.

  8. Understanding OCD On your way to work, do you sometimes go back to check if the front door of your house is locked? Do you always do the washing up after every meal? Well, that’s nothing to be concerned about. However, if you are compelled to perform repetitive behavior by intrusive, persistent, and disturbing thoughts about something terrible — inflicted by you — happening to you, or even to someone else, it could be a sign of an Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD). OCD is a common disorder that can affect individuals of any age. It may start in a mild form during childhood and develop further during adolescence, continuing into adulthood. It isn’t clear what causes this disorder, but there are some factors that might trigger it, such as genetics, a chemical imbalance in the brain, or personality. Exceptionally responsible, methodical people who set high standards for themselves are more prone to develop OCD. Embarrassment and shame often prevent people with OCD from seeking help, but the right treatment and support can help them overcome this disorder. Prescribed medicine and therapy are the most effective treatments, but they may take some time to work. Dealing with OCD can be challenging; therefore, contacting support groups can provide some relief from this stressful situation. Which of the following statements from the passage supports the claim made in paragraph 2?

    • A.Occasional door rechecks are likely to signal the disorder.
    • B.Young sufferers are likely to quickly outgrow the disorder.
    • C.Meticulous types are especially likely to get the disorder.
    • D.Prescribed drugs are likely to remedy the disorder quickly.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Meticulous types are especially likely to get the disorder.

    Meticulous types are especially likely to get the disorder. Paragraph 2 claims that some factors, including personality, can trigger OCD, and it supports this with "Exceptionally responsible, methodical people who set high standards for themselves are more prone to develop OCD." Occasional door rechecks are likely to signal the disorder. This is wrong because the passage says going back to check the front door is "nothing to be concerned about." Young sufferers are likely to quickly outgrow the disorder. This is wrong because OCD may start in childhood and develop further during adolescence, "continuing into adulthood." Prescribed drugs are likely to remedy the disorder quickly. This is wrong because the passage says medicine and therapy "may take some time to work," and treatment is discussed in a later paragraph, not paragraph 2.

  9. The Man-Eating Whale Sperm whales are huge marine creatures that can reach the size of a school-bus. They mainly feed on very small sea creatures, such as tiny fish and plankton. When a lobster diver got swallowed by one of these enormous animals, he thought he was going to die. Although whales don’t have teeth, the diver could have been crushed by the animal’s tongue. Luckily for him, the whale decided to spit him out. The diver reported an injury no greater than a dislocated knee. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?

    • A.The diver's backbone was crushed.
    • B.The diver's life was safeguarded.
    • C.The diver's profession was ended.
    • D.The diver's account was disputed.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The diver's life was safeguarded.

    The diver's life was safeguarded. The last line says "the diver reported an injury no greater than a dislocated knee," so the predictable outcome is that he survived; a person who files a report about a minor knee injury came through alive. The diver's backbone was crushed. This is wrong because the passage only says he "could have been crushed by the animal’s tongue," and his worst injury was a knee. The diver's profession was ended. This is wrong because nothing in the last line or the rest of the passage says he stopped working as a lobster diver. The diver's account was disputed. This is wrong because nothing in the passage suggests anyone doubted his report; the last line simply states what he reported.

  10. The Future of Space Exploration Since the first moon landing, many probes have been sent across the solar system, while our spacecraft have orbited around, surveyed, and landed on several planets. Astronauts have already performed extensive experiments on the dangers and requirements of living in space-bound habitats. It seems logical, then, to expect astronauts of the future to repair equipment sent millions of miles away from Earth. Space isn’t a suitable place for a delicate species like us. The conditions in which humans can survive are limited — we need the right amount of pressure, oxygen, water, temperature, radiation, and acceleration, or we die. In fact, we need protective clothing and technology even to explore many areas of our own planet. After all, space exploration is necessary for the human species, as we will have to leave our biosphere when the sun turns into a red giant. But shouldn’t we send robots to do the exploring instead of humans? Robots don’t die — not like humans, anyway. They are designed to withstand extremely harsh conditions that humans would never be able to endure. If one of the robots breaks down or is lost, it can be rebuilt. For humans, it doesn’t work quite like that. We have always imagined artificial servants or artificial minds that exist for the sole purpose of fulfilling human needs. So, perhaps, the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI) is to live and explore space on our behalf. Current robotic explorers are rare and hence extremely expensive, requiring endless pre-mission modeling and careful actions. But robotics is becoming cheaper and more adaptable, as are the ways to hurl them beyond our atmosphere. As space access becomes cheaper, we should expect a more ruthless use of robots. However, we find it impossible to resist the charm of human space exploration, despite its risks. Knowledge and achievements aren’t enough for us — we want to be there to witness the unfolding of our success. First of all, sending humans into space adds glory to our lives. Overcoming the plethora of challenges that come with long-term spaceflight inspires and delights us. Many of us would consider a human landing on Mars as an achievement of paramount importance for our species, not only for personal satisfaction, but also for national pride. Furthermore, the desire for raw materials in order to make profits is one of the greatest incentives that space exploration has to offer. Of course, this poses the moral dilemma that we might not be able to repair any damage we cause, therefore blurring our knowledge of the origin and organization of life in the solar system. The main motivation that will keep us going is that it is challenging and fascinating: humans are ambitious creatures that strive to achieve what is nearly impossible, and be present for the occasion. I wonder if AI will ever be able to learn this very human trait! Meanwhile, it would be useful to consider the advantages that our automated explorers currently maintain over their human counterparts. Which of the following is a counterargument from the passage?

    • A.Robots offer both durability and a simple path of replacement.
    • B.People crave both information and a firsthand view of victory.
    • C.Automation gives both savings and a wide range of versatility.
    • D.Astronauts demand both oxygen and a tight band of temperature.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: People crave both information and a firsthand view of victory.

    People crave both information and a firsthand view of victory. The author's main argument is that robots should explore space in place of humans; the counterargument is that "knowledge and achievements aren’t enough for us — we want to be there to witness the unfolding of our success." Robots offer both durability and a simple path of replacement. This is wrong because robots that withstand harsh conditions and "can be rebuilt" support the main argument for robots rather than opposing it. Automation gives both savings and a wide range of versatility. This is wrong because "robotics is becoming cheaper and more adaptable" is another point in favor of sending robots. Astronauts demand both oxygen and a tight band of temperature. This is wrong because the limits on the conditions "in which humans can survive" are given as a reason to send robots, so this point supports the argument instead of countering it.

  11. An Unusual Event Cheese rolling is an unusual annual event that has taken place every spring since the 15th century in the English region of Gloucester, famous for its Double Gloucester cheese. The rules are simple: a large round of cheese is rolled down from the top of a hill, with the competitors chasing it all the way to the bottom. Once the Master of Ceremonies starts the event, those who are competing race down, following the cheese. The winner is the first to cross the finish line. The prize? It’s the cheese, of course! Although you don’t need to meet any fitness requirements to participate, this race is very difficult, dangerous and muddy! Originally, the aim of the competition was to catch the actual cheese round, but this has proved to be almost impossible to achieve. Since 2013, the cheese has been replaced with an object of similar shape, but much lighter, to reduce the number of accidents that occur each year. Which of the following is a prediction based on the passage?

    • A.The cheese race was relocated because it was too muddy to stage.
    • B.The grassy hill was leveled because it was too steep to descend.
    • C.The cheese event was boycotted because it was too risky to join.
    • D.The cheese wheel was exchanged because it was too hard to grasp.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The cheese wheel was exchanged because it was too hard to grasp.

    The cheese wheel was exchanged because it was too hard to grasp. The passage says that catching the actual cheese round "has proved to be almost impossible to achieve" and that "since 2013, the cheese has been replaced with an object of similar shape, but much lighter" (the passage also names reducing accidents as a purpose of the change). The cheese race was relocated because it was too muddy to stage. This is wrong because the race is still held in Gloucester, where it has taken place "every spring since the 15th century"; mud is described as part of the race, not a reason to move it. The grassy hill was leveled because it was too steep to descend. This is wrong because the cheese is still "rolled down from the top of a hill" with competitors chasing it. The cheese event was boycotted because it was too risky to join. This is wrong because, although the race is described as "difficult, dangerous and muddy," people still compete every year and no fitness requirements keep them out.

  12. The Most Beautiful Sport Its origin is uncertain, but there is no doubt that ‘mermaiding’ is a fascinating water activity. Globally recognised as a sport in 2020, it brings back fond memories of old tales, legends, and cartoon characters for children. It can be described as ‘dancing under water’, while wearing a ‘fishtail’ to keep your legs together. It doesn’t come as a surprise that it is considered to be the ‘most beautiful’ underwater sport in the world. With the help of a professional instructor, this sport can supplement a person’s physical and psychological well-being, but it requires commitment to hours of training and breathing practice. The bond between parents and children becomes stronger when they practice mermaiding together. The children develop their confidence in becoming whoever they want to be, sure of their parents’ support. This type of water sport has become popular worldwide and, as such, it offers many unusual and profitable work opportunities – as performing artists in aquariums and at children’s birthday parties, or as instructors. Which of the following is an inference that could be made about ‘mermaiding’?

    • A.It is a beneficial pastime for the entire family.
    • B.It is a traditional sport for the coastal people.
    • C.It is a lucrative career for the average swimmer.
    • D.It is a casual hobby for the untrained beginners.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It is a beneficial pastime for the entire family.

    It is a beneficial pastime for the entire family. The passage says "the bond between parents and children becomes stronger when they practice mermaiding together" and that children gain confidence from their parents' support. It is a traditional sport for the coastal people. This is wrong because, although mermaiding recalls "old tales, legends," its origin is uncertain and it was only recognized as a sport in 2020. It is a lucrative career for the average swimmer. This is wrong because the passage mentions "profitable work opportunities" for performing artists and instructors, not riches for any swimmer, and the sport requires commitment and training. It is a casual hobby for the untrained beginners. This is wrong because the sport "requires commitment to hours of training and breathing practice."

  13. James just finished reading a graphic novel with a ‘circle of life’ theme in which a fox teaches her three cubs to survive in the forest in order to be prepared when she dies. Which of the following has a similar theme?

    • A.A cartoon about a princess who takes her father's throne once he grows old.
    • B.A movie about a girl who nurses her father's injuries once he returns home.
    • C.A song about a woman who misses her father's laughter once he moves abroad.
    • D.A novel about a widow who destroys her husband's killer once he walks free.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A cartoon about a princess who takes her father's throne once he grows old.

    A cartoon about a princess who takes her father's throne once he grows old. Like the fox preparing her cubs to carry on after her death, a daughter succeeding her aging father shows one generation taking the place of the last, the circle of life theme. A movie about a girl who nurses her father's injuries once he returns home. This is wrong because caring for a wounded parent is familial love; no generation takes over from another. A song about a woman who misses her father's laughter once he moves abroad. This is wrong because longing for an absent parent is again familial love, not the cycle of one generation replacing the next. A novel about a widow who destroys her husband's killer once he walks free. This is wrong because punishing a killer is a revenge theme.

  14. Viking Tombs Archeologists have found seven Viking tombs holding 1,000 year old, well preserved skeletons of eight people — four adults and four children. One of the tombs contains two very small infants, who appear to be of the same age. This is probably the result of late miscarriages of a couple of sets of twins. The graves have been excavated, revealing their unusual lay out which doesn’t match traditional Viking beliefs. At that time, Vikings were cremated, rather than buried, which was a the Christian custom. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?

    • A.The buried Vikings had taken up Christianity.
    • B.The buried Vikings had faced Norse cremation.
    • C.The buried Vikings had kept Norse traditions.
    • D.The buried Vikings had shared Danish parents.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The buried Vikings had taken up Christianity.

    The buried Vikings had taken up Christianity. The last line says that "at that time, Vikings were cremated, rather than buried," and that burial was the Christian custom, so Vikings found buried in tombs had most likely converted to Christianity. The buried Vikings had faced Norse cremation. This is wrong because the tombs hold "well preserved skeletons," which means the bodies were buried, not cremated. The buried Vikings had kept Norse traditions. This is wrong because the graves' layout "doesn't match traditional Viking beliefs," and the Viking tradition of the time was cremation. The buried Vikings had shared Danish parents. This is wrong because, beyond the two infants who were probably twins, the passage never says how the eight people were related.

  15. Andrea just finished listening to a song with a ‘long lasting friendship’ theme, in which the singer describes the importance of having good friends beside you at any point in life. Which of the following has a contrasting theme?

    • A.A ballad about two neighbors who gather to share their coffee through a decade.
    • B.A film about two astronauts who learn to trust their partner through a mission.
    • C.A play about twin daughters who unite to support their father through a crisis.
    • D.A novel about old widowers who choose to share their evenings through a winter.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A play about twin daughters who unite to support their father through a crisis.

    A play about twin daughters who unite to support their father through a crisis. Family members standing by a parent is a familial love theme, which contrasts with the friendship theme of Andrea's song. A ballad about two neighbors who gather to share their coffee through a decade. This is wrong because neighbors keeping each other company for years is a lasting friendship. A film about two astronauts who learn to trust their partner through a mission. This is wrong because two people coming to rely on each other through a shared challenge is a friendship theme. A novel about old widowers who choose to share their evenings through a winter. This is wrong because companions spending their time together and supporting each other also shows friendship, so it is similar rather than contrasting.

  16. Understanding OCD On your way to work, do you sometimes go back to check if the front door of your house is locked? Do you always do the washing up after every meal? Well, that’s nothing to be concerned about. However, if you are compelled to perform repetitive behavior by intrusive, persistent, and disturbing thoughts about something terrible — inflicted by you — happening to you, or even to someone else, it could be a sign of an Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD). OCD is a common disorder that can affect individuals of any age. It may start in a mild form during childhood and develop further during adolescence, continuing into adulthood. It isn’t clear what causes this disorder, but there are some factors that might trigger it, such as genetics, a chemical imbalance in the brain, or personality. Exceptionally responsible, methodical people who set high standards for themselves are more prone to develop OCD. Embarrassment and shame often prevent people with OCD from seeking help, but the right treatment and support can help them overcome this disorder. Prescribed medicine and therapy are the most effective treatments, but they may take some time to work. Dealing with OCD can be challenging; therefore, contacting support groups can provide some relief from this stressful situation. What secondary argument does the author make?

    • A.Embarrassment and deep shame can result in developing OCD.
    • B.Perfectionism and rigid habits can help in preventing OCD.
    • C.Household chores and schedules can help in preventing OCD.
    • D.Psychological and medical care can help in addressing OCD.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Psychological and medical care can help in addressing OCD.

    Psychological and medical care can help in addressing OCD. Beyond describing the disorder, the author argues that treatment works: "Prescribed medicine and therapy are the most effective treatments, but they may take some time to work." Embarrassment and deep shame can result in developing OCD. This is wrong because the passage says embarrassment and shame "often prevent people with OCD from seeking help"; they delay help, they are not named as causes. Perfectionism and rigid habits can help in preventing OCD. This is wrong because it reverses the passage, which says methodical people "who set high standards for themselves are more prone to develop OCD." Household chores and schedules can help in preventing OCD. This is wrong because doing the washing up after every meal is mentioned only as "nothing to be concerned about," not as a way to prevent the disorder.

  17. ACV for Your Hair You might be a fan of apple cider vinegar (ACV) for your salad dressing, and you may have used it to remove odors from your fridge or stains from your carpet. What’s more, despite the lack of scientific evidence, many swear by the remarkable health properties that ACV has to offer. But have you ever applied apple cider vinegar to your hair? No? You should! Here’s why: Because it contains high levels of acetic acid and minerals, rinsing your hair regularly with apple cider vinegar can bring your dull, frizzy hair back to life. But its benefits don’t stop here. Chemical substances contained in common shampoos and conditioners can cause hair and scalp acidity imbalance. However, adding ACV to your hair care routine can prevent dandruff, scalp itchiness, and minor infections. But beware! Not all scalps are created equal, so it’s better to err on the side of caution to avoid irritating your skin. If you are new to this, start with diluting a couple of tablespoons of vinegar with plenty of water — you can always try increasing the proportion of vinegar in future applications. What secondary argument does the author make?

    • A.ACV can unsettle the natural chemical makeup of hair and scalp.
    • B.ACV can stabilize the compromised pH balance of hair and scalp.
    • C.ACV can replace the detergent power of hair and scalp shampoos.
    • D.ACV can boast the scientific support of hair and scalp experts.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: ACV can stabilize the compromised pH balance of hair and scalp.

    ACV can stabilize the compromised pH balance of hair and scalp. The main argument is that ACV can "bring your dull, frizzy hair back to life"; the secondary argument follows "its benefits don’t stop here": shampoos and conditioners "can cause hair and scalp acidity imbalance," and adding ACV counters it. ACV can unsettle the natural chemical makeup of hair and scalp. This reverses the passage, which blames the imbalance on chemicals in common shampoos and conditioners and offers ACV as the fix. ACV can replace the detergent power of hair and scalp shampoos. This is wrong because the passage suggests adding ACV to a hair care routine; it never says ACV cleans hair or takes the place of shampoo. ACV can boast the scientific support of hair and scalp experts. This is wrong because the passage notes "the lack of scientific evidence" behind the claims made for ACV.

  18. Polly just finished watching a movie with a ‘good vs. evil’ theme in which a young wizard fights against the most powerful villain of all time to avenge his parents and protect his friends. Which of the following has a contrasting theme?

    • A.A medieval ballad about a daring highwayman who feeds villagers with stolen royal treasure.
    • B.A graphic novel about a paranormal detective who grows obsessed with reenacting dark deeds.
    • C.A comic series about a masked vigilante who punishes criminals with ruthless urban cunning.
    • D.A crime movie about a rookie officer who fights corruption with unflinching honest resolve.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A graphic novel about a paranormal detective who grows obsessed with reenacting dark deeds.

    A graphic novel about a paranormal detective who grows obsessed with reenacting dark deeds. This story shows a character being drawn into evil, with no struggle between a good side and an evil side, so its theme contrasts with good vs. evil. A medieval ballad about a daring highwayman who feeds villagers with stolen royal treasure. This is wrong because, although he is an outlaw, he takes from the powerful to help the poor, which still sets good against evil. A comic series about a masked vigilante who punishes criminals with ruthless urban cunning. This is wrong because a vigilante fighting criminals, however harsh his methods, is a good vs. evil story. A crime movie about a rookie officer who fights corruption with unflinching honest resolve. This is wrong because an honest officer battling corruption is good against evil, the same theme as Polly's movie.

  19. ACV for Your Hair You might be a fan of apple cider vinegar (ACV) for your salad dressing, and you may have used it to remove odors from your fridge or stains from your carpet. What’s more, despite the lack of scientific evidence, many swear by the remarkable health properties that ACV has to offer. But have you ever applied apple cider vinegar to your hair? No? You should! Here’s why: Because it contains high levels of acetic acid and minerals, rinsing your hair regularly with apple cider vinegar can bring your dull, frizzy hair back to life. But its benefits don’t stop here. Chemical substances contained in common shampoos and conditioners can cause hair and scalp acidity imbalance. However, adding ACV to your hair care routine can prevent dandruff, scalp itchiness, and minor infections. But beware! Not all scalps are created equal, so it’s better to err on the side of caution to avoid irritating your skin. If you are new to this, start with diluting a couple of tablespoons of vinegar with plenty of water — you can always try increasing the proportion of vinegar in future applications. Which of the following statements supports the claim made in the last line?

    • A.Increasing the vinegar dosage is obligatory later.
    • B.Leaving the vinegar rinse overnight is beneficial.
    • C.Adjusting the vinegar ratio is possible afterward.
    • D.Warming the vinegar gently beforehand is sensible.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Adjusting the vinegar ratio is possible afterward.

    Adjusting the vinegar ratio is possible afterward. The last line advises starting with "a couple of tablespoons of vinegar with plenty of water" and adds that "you can always try increasing the proportion of vinegar in future applications," so the mix can be changed later. Increasing the vinegar dosage is obligatory later. This is wrong because the passage says you "can always try" increasing it; it is an option, not a requirement. Leaving the vinegar rinse overnight is beneficial. This is wrong because the passage never says how long to leave the rinse on, and it urges caution to avoid irritating the skin. Warming the vinegar gently beforehand is sensible. This is wrong because the passage says nothing about heating the vinegar; it does not support the claim about adjusting the mix.

  20. Sandra just finished watching a play with the ‘familial love’ theme, in which two sisters joined at the hip share an extraordinary life that brings them fame.

    • A.A film about a bitter sister who is reconciled by her brother's apology.
    • B.A novel about a runaway wife who is murdered by her husband's relatives.
    • C.A song about a wounded soldier who is comforted by her mother's letters.
    • D.A play about a cantankerous widow who is softened by her son's children.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A novel about a runaway wife who is murdered by her husband's relatives.

    A novel about a runaway wife who is murdered by her husband's relatives. Family members killing one of their own shows the opposite of familial love, so this work does not share the theme of Sandra's play. A film about a bitter sister who is reconciled by her brother's apology. This is wrong because, despite the quarrel, siblings making peace is familial love. A song about a wounded soldier who is comforted by her mother's letters. This is wrong because a mother's support for her child far away is familial love. A play about a cantankerous widow who is softened by her son's children. This is wrong because grandchildren winning over their grandmother is familial love, the same theme as Sandra's play.

  21. Kenyan Work Etiquette If you are new to working in Kenya, you might want to pay attention to the way you interact with others, in order to make a good first impression. Kenyan culture gives great importance to age and position, so remember to greet everyone individually, even when meeting a group. Be respectful in your conduct – don’t address your colleagues by their first names unless you know them well. Should any issue arise between you and a workmate, try to resolve it discreetly, avoiding any public display of anger. Last, but not the least, be on time, even if others might not be! Which of the following summarizes the information about work etiquette in Kenya?

    • A.Kenyans greet seniors and juniors individually in the workplace.
    • B.Kenyans resolve feuds and conflicts discreetly in the workplace.
    • C.Kenyans value formal and professional behavior in the workplace.
    • D.Kenyans highly prize punctuality and schedules in the workplace.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Kenyans value formal and professional behavior in the workplace.

    Kenyans value formal and professional behavior in the workplace. Every tip in the passage, greeting "everyone individually," being "respectful in your conduct," avoiding first names, resolving issues "discreetly," and being on time, describes formal, professional behavior, so this sentence summarizes the whole passage. Kenyans greet seniors and juniors individually in the workplace. This is wrong because, although the passage does advise greeting everyone individually, that is only one detail, not a summary. Kenyans resolve feuds and conflicts discreetly in the workplace. This is wrong because resolving issues discreetly is again a single piece of advice, not the main idea. Kenyans highly prize punctuality and schedules in the workplace. This is wrong because punctuality is only one point, and the advice to be on time "even if others might not be" suggests not everyone is punctual.

  22. Vegetarian vs. Vegan Speaker 1: Would you like to come over for dinner? There are a few vegetarian recipes I’d like you to try. Speaker 2: It sounds great! And I’m so glad you’re including more vegetarian meals in your diet. It’s a great way to reduce gas emissions, avoid further water pollution, and protect wildlife and its habitat. Speaker 1: That’s very true. But on a personal note, I can already see the benefits of my new eating habits. I used to feel very lethargic after my meals, but not anymore. My mood has improved too! Speaker 2: I’m very pleased to hear that! I know exactly how you feel. In fact, I’m considering pushing my vegetarian diet to the next level and becoming a vegan. Speaker 1: Oh no, I could never do that! I love cheese and steaks too much to give them up altogether. Besides, I believe that we should eat anything in moderation and a balanced diet is the best option. Speaker 2: I guess I’d miss eating cheese too, but I feel that the benefits of avoiding any form of animal fats and proteins are far greater than my cravings for dairy products. Speaker 1: Well, good luck, and let me know how you get on! Which of the following statements could NOT provide support for BOTH arguments?

    • A.A plant-based diet can improve your health while embracing eggs and milk.
    • B.A veggie-heavy diet can help your planet while sparing wildlife and seas.
    • C.A vegetable-rich diet can lift your mood while boosting energy and focus.
    • D.A low-meat diet can cut your footprint while reducing emissions and smog.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A plant-based diet can improve your health while embracing eggs and milk.

    A plant-based diet can improve your health while embracing eggs and milk. Only Speaker 1's argument allows animal products such as dairy; Speaker 2 wants to avoid "any form of animal fats and proteins," so this statement cannot support both arguments. A veggie-heavy diet can help your planet while sparing wildlife and seas. This is wrong because Speaker 2 says more vegetarian meals help "protect wildlife and its habitat" and "avoid further water pollution," and Speaker 1 replies, "That's very true," so it supports both. A vegetable-rich diet can lift your mood while boosting energy and focus. This is wrong because Speaker 1 reports no longer feeling "lethargic" and an improved mood, and Speaker 2 replies, "I know exactly how you feel," so it fits both. A low-meat diet can cut your footprint while reducing emissions and smog. This is wrong because both speakers have cut back on meat (Speaker 1 by adding vegetarian meals, Speaker 2 by planning to give it up), and both accept that this helps "reduce gas emissions."

  23. The Five-Second Rule Speaker 1: I’m so hungry…and these chips are delicious! Oh no! I’ve just dropped one… Speaker 2: Quick, pick it up and eat it! Don’t you remember the five-second rule? Speaker 1: What’s this five-second rule? Speaker 2: It is a food hygiene theory stating that it is safe to eat food that has been dropped on the floor, as long as it’s picked up within five seconds. This is because such a limited window of time doesn’t allow dropped food to contract enough bacteria to make you sick. Speaker 1: Well, I don’t think that’s a good idea. After all, even if it’s in small amounts, you don’t know what kind of bacteria is on the floor. Speaker 2: I see your point, but in my opinion, small doses of harmful bacteria can improve our immune system. Isn’t it how vaccines work? Speaker 1: First of all, vaccines are prepared safely in a lab; secondly, why should I choose to ingest food that has been contaminated? No way! Speaker 2: Ok, let’s agree to disagree on this! Which of the following statements would the authors agree on?

    • A.Food dropped for five seconds can collect a faint trace of germs.
    • B.Food dropped for five seconds can cause a severe bout of illness.
    • C.Food dropped for five seconds can offer a mild boost of immunity.
    • D.Food dropped for five seconds can receive a clean bill of health.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Food dropped for five seconds can collect a faint trace of germs.

    Food dropped for five seconds can collect a faint trace of germs. Speaker 2 says the short window does not let dropped food collect "enough bacteria to make you sick," which concedes that some bacteria get on it, and Speaker 1 agrees that bacteria are there "even if it’s in small amounts." Food dropped for five seconds can cause a severe bout of illness. This is wrong because Speaker 2 says the food does not pick up enough bacteria to make you sick. Food dropped for five seconds can offer a mild boost of immunity. This is wrong because only Speaker 2 claims small doses of bacteria help the immune system; Speaker 1 rejects the comparison with vaccines. Food dropped for five seconds can receive a clean bill of health. This is wrong because only Speaker 2 thinks the food is safe to eat; Speaker 1 asks why anyone would eat food "that has been contaminated."

  24. Jacque just finished listening to a song with a ‘courage and perseverance’ theme, about the struggles we all endure through life and the strength required to carry on living.

    • A.A movie about a cook who is trained by demanding mentors to become a successful chef.
    • B.A song about a sailor who is drawn by charming letters to marry a faraway sweetheart.
    • C.A novel about a prince who is driven by burning grudges to ruin a treacherous cousin.
    • D.A cartoon about a turtle who is joined by mutant brothers to defend a sprawling city.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A movie about a cook who is trained by demanding mentors to become a successful chef.

    A movie about a cook who is trained by demanding mentors to become a successful chef. Pushing through hard training to reach a goal shows determination, which matches the courage and perseverance theme of Jacque's song. A song about a sailor who is drawn by charming letters to marry a faraway sweetheart. This is wrong because it is a love theme. A novel about a prince who is driven by burning grudges to ruin a treacherous cousin. This is wrong because ruining someone over a grudge is a revenge theme. A cartoon about a turtle who is joined by mutant brothers to defend a sprawling city. This is wrong because heroes protecting a city from criminals is a good vs. evil theme; the story is about defeating villains, not enduring hardship to reach a personal goal.

  25. Constellations Orion is one of the largest constellations visible from anywhere on Earth, mainly in January. Like Aries and Cygnus, Orion is among the 48 constellations listed by Ptolemy in the 2nd century and officially recognised by the International Astronomical Union. It is believed to be the most famous of its kind, probably because it has been mentioned by the poets Virgil and Homer. Orion takes its name after the mythological Greek hunter it represents. It appears to be quite easy to recognise, for the unmistakable row of three stars that indicate the hunter’s belt. Orion is a unique constellation in the sense that it can be used as a guide to find other constellations during the winter months. Which of the following is an inference that could be made about the Orion constellation?

    • A.Orion owes its title to celebrated poets.
    • B.Orion owes its renown to unrivaled scale.
    • C.Orion owes its obscurity to dimmer stars.
    • D.Orion owes its fame to classical writers.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Orion owes its fame to classical writers.

    Orion owes its fame to classical writers. The passage says Orion "is believed to be the most famous of its kind, probably because it has been mentioned by the poets Virgil and Homer." Orion owes its title to celebrated poets. This is wrong because "Orion takes its name after the mythological Greek hunter it represents," not after any writer. Orion owes its renown to unrivaled scale. This is wrong because Orion is only "one of the largest constellations," and the passage credits its fame to the poets, not to its size. Orion owes its obscurity to dimmer stars. This is wrong because Orion is described as easy to spot thanks to "the unmistakable row of three stars that indicate the hunter’s belt."

  26. Online Learning There is no denying that the shift to online learning has brought about several challenges, from a sense of isolation to physical discomfort. Perhaps, what really unsettled educators and learners alike is the sudden change that was imposed by a global pandemic. However, there are many advantages to learning online. This modern medium allows learning to take place where and when possible, from a wide range of devices, while reducing the amount of money and time spent on commuting. With so many benefits of online learning, why didn’t we think of it before? Traditional Learning While acknowledging the positive aspects of online learning, it is believed that traditional (or classroom) learning remains invaluable from a pedagogical point of view, especially with regard to young learners’ education. As well as school subjects, children need to learn social skills – how can they be practiced on a screen? In everyone’s best interest, it is worth considering that the future of education might rely on both methods of learning: traditional and online. Which of the following is a common theme between the passages given above?

    • A.Hold to familiar ways.
    • B.Turn to screens alone.
    • C.Bow to whatever comes.
    • D.Adapt to move forward.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Adapt to move forward.

    Adapt to move forward. The first passage admits the challenges of online learning but lists "many advantages," and the second values classroom learning while concluding that "the future of education might rely on both methods," so both call for adapting to change. Hold to familiar ways. This is wrong because the first passage welcomes the new medium, and even the second accepts the positive aspects of online learning. Turn to screens alone. This is wrong because the second passage doubts that children's social skills can be "practiced on a screen" and argues for using both methods. Bow to whatever comes. This is wrong because neither passage urges passive acceptance; both weigh the strengths of each way of learning.

  27. Chocolate & Nobel prize A study suggests that moderate and regular chocolate intake could have positive effects on the mental functions of senior patients who show early signs of dementia. This has been backed by experiments on rats and snails, with evidence of improved cognitive abilities on the former, and of better memory on the latter. Intrigued by these findings, researchers have taken their studies a step further and found a correlation between chocolate consumption and the number of Nobel Prize winners in any given country. It appears that the highest number of Nobel Prize winners belongs to the countries with the highest chocolate consumption. It might not come as a surprise, then, that Switzerland came in first place, as one of the biggest chocolate producers worldwide. Among this data, an anomaly was found regarding Sweden. Despite the fact that the amount of chocolate consumed in Sweden is much less than that in Germany, the number of Swedish Nobel Prize winners is twice as much as their German counterparts. Which of the following is an exaggerated claim in support of the argument presented in the passage?

    • A.Rodent experiments suggest that daily chocolate improves thinking ability.
    • B.Nobel rankings disclose that chocolate consumption tracks winning nations.
    • C.Swiss figures validate that eating chocolate increases brain capabilities.
    • D.Swedish statistics suggest that winning involves factors beyond chocolate.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Swiss figures validate that eating chocolate increases brain capabilities.

    Swiss figures validate that eating chocolate increases brain capabilities. The passage only reports "a correlation between chocolate consumption and the number of Nobel Prize winners," with Switzerland in first place, and the Swedish anomaly shows the link is not consistent, so claiming the Swiss case confirms a cause overstates the evidence. Rodent experiments suggest that daily chocolate improves thinking ability. This is wrong because it is a measured claim that matches the reported "evidence of improved cognitive abilities" in rats; it is not exaggerated. Nobel rankings disclose that chocolate consumption tracks winning nations. This is wrong because it simply restates the correlation the researchers found, without claiming cause. Swedish statistics suggest that winning involves factors beyond chocolate. This is wrong because it is a cautious reading of the Sweden anomaly and works against the argument rather than exaggerating in its support.

  28. Which of the following statements from a company’s mission statement offers evidence in favor of the claim that their business’ purpose is to reduce food waste?

    • A.To reinvent, repurpose, and redistribute unwanted farm produce.
    • B.To source, package, and distribute sustainable kitchen staples.
    • C.To educate, encourage, and celebrate passionate amateur bakers.
    • D.To cultivate, gather, and showcase organic heirloom vegetables.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To reinvent, repurpose, and redistribute unwanted farm produce.

    To reinvent, repurpose, and redistribute unwanted farm produce. Giving unwanted produce a new use instead of throwing it away directly reduces food waste, so this statement supports the claim. To source, package, and distribute sustainable kitchen staples. This is wrong because sustainability in sourcing is not the same as reducing waste; nothing here deals with food that would otherwise be thrown away. To educate, encourage, and celebrate passionate amateur bakers. This is wrong because it describes an education and community goal, not waste reduction. To cultivate, gather, and showcase organic heirloom vegetables. This is wrong because growing and promoting vegetables is about production and quality, not about saving unwanted food.

  29. Which of the following car advertising slogans offers evidence in favour of the claim that the vehicles are built to last?

    • A.Built for the human race.
    • B.Fast car for the weekend.
    • C.Small car for the masses.
    • D.One car for the lifetime.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: One car for the lifetime.

    One car for the lifetime. A car you keep for your whole lifetime is a car that lasts, so this slogan supports the claim that the vehicles are built to last. Built for the human race. This is wrong because, despite the word "built," it claims the car suits everyone, not that it is durable. Fast car for the weekend. This is wrong because it appeals to speed and weekend fun, not to how long the car lasts. Small car for the masses. This is wrong because it promises an affordable car for ordinary people, saying nothing about longevity.

  30. Sumo Wrestling Written records of sumo date back to the 8th century AD and it has been a popular sport for over a thousand years. However, sumo has developed throughout the centuries and the wrestlers, called rikishi, lead their lives by a strict code of conduct and ceremony which connects them to the Shinto religion and the ancient samurai tradition. Each of them belongs to a ‘stable’, where they live, eat, sleep and train. All rikishi wake up at 5 o’clock every day, including weekends. Discipline and routine are necessary for their physical and mental wellbeing. During their five hours of hard training, the rikishi carry out a range of exercises, depending on which part of the body they want to work on and the goal they want to achieve: strength, flexibility, balance etc. Their meals are rich in protein and contain a variety of ingredients, such as vegetables, tofu, meat and fish, accompanied by several bowls of rice. They eat large quantities of food and, if they are considered under-weight, they might be forced to eat even more rice. After their meal, the rikishi sleep for a few hours. This is very important because the lack of movement allows the high calorie intake to be transformed into fat, thereby ensuring an increase in body weight. Which of the following summarizes the topic of the passage?

    • A.Dietary habits of a sumo wrestler
    • B.Daily schedule of a sumo wrestler
    • C.Spiritual ties of a sumo wrestler
    • D.Weight targets of a sumo wrestler
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Daily schedule of a sumo wrestler

    Daily schedule of a sumo wrestler. Most of the passage follows the rikishi through a day: they "wake up at 5 o’clock every day," train for five hours, eat large protein-rich meals, and then sleep for a few hours. Dietary habits of a sumo wrestler. This is wrong because meals are only one part of the day the passage describes. Spiritual ties of a sumo wrestler. This is wrong because the link to "the Shinto religion and the ancient samurai tradition" is mentioned only briefly in the introduction. Weight targets of a sumo wrestler. This is wrong because gaining weight is a detail explaining the meals and naps, not the topic of the whole passage.

  31. Creative Writing There’s no doubt that writing is an art and, as such, it cannot be taught. After talking to a university professor who teaches creative writing, I have discovered that it is very rare to come across a course participant who has the talent and the right attitude to make it as a published author. Creativity, imagination, and observational skills are the key features of a good writer. These are unique characteristics that cannot be learnt, but stem from the personality of an individual. However, they can be practiced and developed – which should be the focus of attending a respectable creative writing course. Another vital aspect of literary success that should not be underestimated is the writer’s attitude towards criticism. Although it can be constructive, helping them improve their future work, writers often face useless, negative feedback. This can be the cause of self-doubt and low self-esteem, and it might even lead an aspiring writer to giving up writing altogether. Because of this, writers should develop ‘thick skin’ and avoid getting offended by what others say. In addition to this, while it is important for writers to separate useful from harmful criticism, they should also keep an open mind about the feedback they receive. This helps them create a bond with their audience, which has the advantage of improving a writer’s popularity. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?

    • A.Building friendships with their fans can be dangerous for a writer's career.
    • B.Arguing publicly with their reviewers can be valuable for a writer's career.
    • C.Competing ruthlessly with their peers can be critical for a writer's career.
    • D.Developing rapport with their readers can be positive for a writer's career.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Developing rapport with their readers can be positive for a writer's career.

    Developing rapport with their readers can be positive for a writer's career. The last line says keeping an open mind about feedback "helps them create a bond with their audience, which has the advantage of improving a writer’s popularity." Building friendships with their fans can be dangerous for a writer's career. This is wrong because it reverses the last line, which presents the bond with the audience as an advantage. Arguing publicly with their reviewers can be valuable for a writer's career. This is wrong because the passage advises writers to develop "thick skin" and avoid getting offended by what others say. Competing ruthlessly with their peers can be critical for a writer's career. This is wrong because the passage never discusses competition between writers; the last line is about the writer's relationship with the audience.

  32. Circus – Advertisement 1 Do you have a unique skill? Are you ready to share it with the world? Then Fantasy Circus WANTS YOU! Join our team of talented artists and transform your life into a thrilling adventure. Interested? Pop in for more info. Circus – Advertisement 2 The team at Fantasy Circus are delighted to invite you to our brand new show! Treat yourself and your loved ones to a thrilling evening: Come and see us for an unforgettable experience of mesmerizing acts. You won’t regret it – there’s nothing quite like it! Which of the following is a common theme between the two advertisements?

    • A.Affordable passes for the circus.
    • B.Talented recruits for the circus.
    • C.Wistful nostalgia for the circus.
    • D.Shared enthusiasm for the circus.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Shared enthusiasm for the circus.

    Shared enthusiasm for the circus. Both advertisements build excitement: the first promises to "transform your life into a thrilling adventure," and the second offers "a thrilling evening" and "an unforgettable experience of mesmerizing acts." Affordable passes for the circus. This is wrong because neither advertisement mentions prices or discounts. Talented recruits for the circus. This is wrong because only the first advertisement is recruiting ("Join our team of talented artists"). Wistful nostalgia for the circus. This is wrong because neither advertisement looks back to the past; the second even promotes a "brand new show."

  33. Detecting Microplastics Information received from NASA satellites can be now used to track the movement of microplastics, thanks to a team of scientists from the University of Michigan. Microplastics are tiny pieces of plastic trash broken down by the sun’s rays and the motion of ocean waves. Because ocean currents can carry these plastic particles far away from where they originated, it can become very difficult to track them and remove them. It has been observed that microplastics are present in smoother waters because they can affect the ocean roughness. Data from a group of eight small satellites can help scientists predict where microplastics congregate by following ocean and wind speed calculations. Currently, fisher boat trawlers are the main source of information about the locations of microplastics, as they use nets to catch plankton and, accidentally, microplastics. However, the new technique demonstrates that satellite data can successfully track ocean microplastic from space. This might transform the way in which we tackle water pollution. As microplastics are harmful to marine organisms and ecosystems, this can be considered a ground-breaking discovery. Which of the following provides information about a specific use of the satellites?

    • A.Satellite data can remove microplastics from offshore waters.
    • B.Satellite data can monitor seaborne microplastics from orbit.
    • C.Satellite data can photograph microscopic plankton from afar.
    • D.Satellite data can trace microplastics from inland factories.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Satellite data can monitor seaborne microplastics from orbit.

    Satellite data can monitor seaborne microplastics from orbit. The passage states that "the new technique demonstrates that satellite data can successfully track ocean microplastic from space." Satellite data can remove microplastics from offshore waters. This is wrong because the data only helps scientists locate microplastics; it does not take them out of the water. Satellite data can photograph microscopic plankton from afar. This is wrong because plankton are mentioned only as what fishing nets catch, and the satellites measure ocean roughness rather than imaging tiny organisms. Satellite data can trace microplastics from inland factories. This is wrong because the passage describes microplastics as trash broken down by sun and waves, and the satellites predict "where microplastics congregate," not where they were made.

  34. Bottled drink – Advertisement 1 Since 1951 you have welcomed us at your dinner tables at your picnic venues at your children’s parties Come rain or shine you have chosen us For this, we THANK YOU by investing in the future of your children by investing in 100% biodegradable bottles by investing in ZERO carbon emissions throughout production. Bottled drink – Advertisement 2 By your side, since 1951 on hot days, on cold days on happy days on tough days On our 70th birthday we want to celebrate with you bringing to your lips the fresh taste of a new fruity flavor. Discover more on our website. Which of the following is a difference between the themes of the two advertisements?

    • A.A strategy to promote eco-friendly values.
    • B.A reminder to applaud decades-old loyalty.
    • C.A drink to accompany year-round occasions.
    • D.A pledge to use locally-grown ingredients.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A strategy to promote eco-friendly values.

    A strategy to promote eco-friendly values. Only the first advertisement invests "in 100% biodegradable bottles" and "in ZERO carbon emissions throughout production"; the second says nothing about the environment, so this is a difference. A reminder to applaud decades-old loyalty. This is wrong because both advertisements stress the relationship with customers "since 1951," so it is shared. A drink to accompany year-round occasions. This is wrong because both list occasions in all conditions, "Come rain or shine" in the first and "on hot days, on cold days" in the second. A pledge to use locally-grown ingredients. This is wrong because neither advertisement mentions where its ingredients come from.

  35. Circus – Advertisement 1 Do you have a unique skill? Are you ready to share it with the world? Then Fantasy Circus WANTS YOU! Join our team of talented artists and transform your life into a thrilling adventure. Interested? Pop in for more info. Circus – Advertisement 2 The team at Fantasy Circus are delighted to invite you to our brand new show! Treat yourself and your loved ones to a thrilling evening: Come and see us for an unforgettable experience of mesmerizing acts. You won’t regret it – there’s nothing quite like it! Which of the following is a difference between the themes of the two advertisements?

    • A.Calling on readers to pursue an uncommon adventure.
    • B.Drawing on proud traditions to strengthen an image.
    • C.Focusing on individual abilities to make an impact.
    • D.Insisting on bargain prices to attract an audience.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Focusing on individual abilities to make an impact.

    Focusing on individual abilities to make an impact. Only the first advertisement speaks to the reader's own talent ("Do you have a unique skill? Are you ready to share it with the world?"); the second simply invites people to watch a show. Calling on readers to pursue an uncommon adventure. This is wrong because both advertisements promise a thrilling experience, so it is shared rather than a difference. Drawing on proud traditions to strengthen an image. This is wrong because neither advertisement mentions tradition; the second advertises a "brand new show." Insisting on bargain prices to attract an audience. This is wrong because neither advertisement mentions prices.

  36. Bottled drink – Advertisement 1 Since 1951 you have welcomed us at your dinner tables at your picnic venues at your children’s parties Come rain or shine you have chosen us For this, we THANK YOU by investing in the future of your children by investing in 100% biodegradable bottles by investing in ZERO carbon emissions throughout production. Bottled drink – Advertisement 2 By your side, since 1951 on hot days, on cold days on happy days on tough days On our 70th birthday we want to celebrate with you bringing to your lips the fresh taste of a new fruity flavor. Discover more on our website. Which of the following is a common theme between the two advertisements?

    • A.A focus on the longevity of the company.
    • B.A spotlight on the launch of the flavor.
    • C.A stand on the protection of the planet.
    • D.A comment on the price of the beverages.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A focus on the longevity of the company.

    A focus on the longevity of the company. Both advertisements stress how long the brand has been around: "Since 1951 you have welcomed us" in the first, and "By your side, since 1951" and "our 70th birthday" in the second. A spotlight on the launch of the flavor. This is wrong because only the second advertisement presents "a new fruity flavor." A stand on the protection of the planet. This is wrong because only the first advertisement mentions biodegradable bottles and zero carbon emissions. A comment on the price of the beverages. This is wrong because neither advertisement mentions price.

  37. Sumo Wrestling Written records of sumo date back to the 8th century AD and it has been a popular sport for over a thousand years. However, sumo has developed throughout the centuries and the wrestlers, called rikishi, lead their lives by a strict code of conduct and ceremony which connects them to the Shinto religion and the ancient samurai tradition. Each of them belongs to a ‘stable’, where they live, eat, sleep and train. All rikishi wake up at 5 o’clock every day, including weekends. Discipline and routine are necessary for their physical and mental wellbeing. During their five hours of hard training, the rikishi carry out a range of exercises, depending on which part of the body they want to work on and the goal they want to achieve: strength, flexibility, balance etc. Their meals are rich in protein and contain a variety of ingredients, such as vegetables, tofu, meat and fish, accompanied by several bowls of rice. They eat large quantities of food and, if they are considered under-weight, they might be forced to eat even more rice. After their meal, the rikishi sleep for a few hours. This is very important because the lack of movement allows the high calorie intake to be transformed into fat, thereby ensuring an increase in body weight. Which of the following is an inference that could be made about sumo wrestlers?

    • A.Sumo wrestlers are weighed periodically.
    • B.Sumo wrestlers are faithful vegetarians.
    • C.Sumo wrestlers are moderately nourished.
    • D.Sumo wrestlers are sporadically trained.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Sumo wrestlers are weighed periodically.

    Sumo wrestlers are weighed periodically. The passage says that "if they are considered under-weight, they might be forced to eat even more rice," which means their weight must be checked. Sumo wrestlers are faithful vegetarians. This is wrong because their meals include "meat and fish." Sumo wrestlers are moderately nourished. This is wrong because "they eat large quantities of food" to increase their body weight. Sumo wrestlers are sporadically trained. This is wrong because they wake at 5 o'clock every day and do "five hours of hard training."

  38. The Future of Space Exploration Since the first moon landing, many probes have been sent across the solar system, while our spacecraft have orbited around, surveyed, and landed on several planets. Astronauts have already performed extensive experiments on the dangers and requirements of living in space-bound habitats. It seems logical, then, to expect astronauts of the future to repair equipment sent millions of miles away from Earth. Space isn’t a suitable place for a delicate species like us. The conditions in which humans can survive are limited — we need the right amount of pressure, oxygen, water, temperature, radiation, and acceleration, or we die. In fact, we need protective clothing and technology even to explore many areas of our own planet. After all, space exploration is necessary for the human species, as we will have to leave our biosphere when the sun turns into a red giant. But shouldn’t we send robots to do the exploring instead of humans? Robots don’t die — not like humans, anyway. They are designed to withstand extremely harsh conditions that humans would never be able to endure. If one of the robots breaks down or is lost, it can be rebuilt. For humans, it doesn’t work quite like that. We have always imagined artificial servants or artificial minds that exist for the sole purpose of fulfilling human needs. So, perhaps, the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI) is to live and explore space on our behalf. Current robotic explorers are rare and hence extremely expensive, requiring endless pre-mission modeling and careful actions. But robotics is becoming cheaper and more adaptable, as are the ways to hurl them beyond our atmosphere. As space access becomes cheaper, we should expect a more ruthless use of robots. However, we find it impossible to resist the charm of human space exploration, despite its risks. Knowledge and achievements aren’t enough for us — we want to be there to witness the unfolding of our success. First of all, sending humans into space adds glory to our lives. Overcoming the plethora of challenges that come with long-term spaceflight inspires and delights us. Many of us would consider a human landing on Mars as an achievement of paramount importance for our species, not only for personal satisfaction, but also for national pride. Furthermore, the desire for raw materials in order to make profits is one of the greatest incentives that space exploration has to offer. Of course, this poses the moral dilemma that we might not be able to repair any damage we cause, therefore blurring our knowledge of the origin and organization of life in the solar system. The main motivation that will keep us going is that it is challenging and fascinating: humans are ambitious creatures that strive to achieve what is nearly impossible, and be present for the occasion. I wonder if AI will ever be able to learn this very human trait! Meanwhile, it would be useful to consider the advantages that our automated explorers currently maintain over their human counterparts. What is the primary argument of the passage?

    • A.Valuable space minerals should be mined to generate profits.
    • B.Uncrewed space journeys should be preferred to avoid losses.
    • C.Future space colonies should be prepared to ensure survival.
    • D.Crewed space trips should be celebrated to inspire citizens.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Uncrewed space journeys should be preferred to avoid losses.

    Uncrewed space journeys should be preferred to avoid losses. The author asks, "shouldn’t we send robots to do the exploring instead of humans?", notes that "Robots don’t die" and that a lost robot "can be rebuilt," and ends by urging us to consider "the advantages that our automated explorers currently maintain over their human counterparts." Valuable space minerals should be mined to generate profits. This is wrong because the profit motive is mentioned only as one incentive, and the author immediately raises a moral dilemma about it. Future space colonies should be prepared to ensure survival. This is wrong because the need to leave our biosphere one day is a supporting detail, not the argument about who should explore. Crewed space trips should be celebrated to inspire citizens. This is wrong because glory and national pride are presented as reasons people are drawn to human exploration, the counterpoint to the main argument.

  39. Studying at the Sound of Music What’s the soundtrack of your learning? What do you have in the background? Some people listen to the sound of birds singing, while others prefer that of the ocean waves. Research suggests that complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving. Most learners, however, prefer to listen to some music while studying. Studies have shown that music with lyrics can be distracting. This is because listening to the words of a song takes brain resources away from the studying process. It turns out that our brain has only so much power to work with at any given time! Despite this, another study shows that songs with unintelligible words do not have such a negative impact on your studying. However, if you are looking for music that can improve your studying and concentrating abilities, it is important to remember that different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains. Generally speaking, classical music is considered a good background choice for studying, but there are some exceptions. Explosive works like Respighi’s Pines of Rome or Rossini’s William Tell Overture may be too energetic for effective studying. As concluded by other studies on music and concentration, it appears that baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying. With 50 to 80 beats per minute, baroque music creates an ideal environment for studying by creating stable mental, physical, and emotional patterns. Another genre without lyrics is meditative music, regarded as a good study option as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music. This hypothesis is supported by studies that focus specifically on this kind of music. It has been found that meditative music, which contains what’s called “alpha” beats, stimulates alpha waves in the brain. These put our brains in a relaxed, yet alert, state, which allows the brain to better absorb and retain information and ideas. Meditative music also commonly includes sounds of nature, like croaking frogs or wind through the trees, which can improve cognitive function and concentration. They also efficiently conceal other sounds that interfere with studying, like people talking or road noise. A study on the correlation between music genres and studying demonstrates that each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre. This was carried out by comparing brain wave patterns reacting to different musical genres and a song selected by each study participant as a personal favorite. They found that neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre. The researcher shared their study results in their paper, titled “Network Science and the Effects of Music Preference on Functional Brain Connectivity: From Beethoven to Eminem.” So, listening to music can improve our concentration and ability to study, but that’s not all, as music is a gift that keeps on giving. It has been suggested that learning to play a musical instrument can strengthen our abilities involved in remembering information, and it could even enhance our IQ. Regardless of whether you can become more intelligent or not, you can use music to make studying more enjoyable and more effective. Ultimately, you know when you’re studying well and when you’re not, so try out some different genres and find out what works for you. Which of the following statements from the passage supports the claim made in paragraph 4?

    • A.Brain power devoted to learning can be drained by complex lyrics.
    • B.Brain waves linked to unwinding can be stimulated by alpha beats.
    • C.Brain signals tied to reasoning can be boosted by favored tracks.
    • D.Skills linked to remembering facts can be built by music lessons.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Brain signals tied to reasoning can be boosted by favored tracks.

    Brain signals tied to reasoning can be boosted by favored tracks. Paragraph 4 claims that "each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre," and the study supports it: "neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre." Brain power devoted to learning can be drained by complex lyrics. This is wrong because it repeats the earlier point that lyrics take "brain resources away from the studying process"; it says nothing about personal taste. Brain waves linked to unwinding can be stimulated by alpha beats. This is wrong because it describes one genre, meditative music, which is the opposite of the claim that taste matters more than genre. Skills linked to remembering facts can be built by music lessons. This is wrong because learning to play an instrument is a separate point from the final paragraph, not evidence about preferred study music.

  40. Studying at the Sound of Music What’s the soundtrack of your learning? What do you have in the background? Some people listen to the sound of birds singing, while others prefer that of the ocean waves. Research suggests that complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving. Most learners, however, prefer to listen to some music while studying. Studies have shown that music with lyrics can be distracting. This is because listening to the words of a song takes brain resources away from the studying process. It turns out that our brain has only so much power to work with at any given time! Despite this, another study shows that songs with unintelligible words do not have such a negative impact on your studying. However, if you are looking for music that can improve your studying and concentrating abilities, it is important to remember that different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains. Generally speaking, classical music is considered a good background choice for studying, but there are some exceptions. Explosive works like Respighi’s Pines of Rome or Rossini’s William Tell Overture may be too energetic for effective studying. As concluded by other studies on music and concentration, it appears that baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying. With 50 to 80 beats per minute, baroque music creates an ideal environment for studying by creating stable mental, physical, and emotional patterns. Another genre without lyrics is meditative music, regarded as a good study option as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music. This hypothesis is supported by studies that focus specifically on this kind of music. It has been found that meditative music, which contains what’s called “alpha” beats, stimulates alpha waves in the brain. These put our brains in a relaxed, yet alert, state, which allows the brain to better absorb and retain information and ideas. Meditative music also commonly includes sounds of nature, like croaking frogs or wind through the trees, which can improve cognitive function and concentration. They also efficiently conceal other sounds that interfere with studying, like people talking or road noise. A study on the correlation between music genres and studying demonstrates that each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre. This was carried out by comparing brain wave patterns reacting to different musical genres and a song selected by each study participant as a personal favorite. They found that neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre. The researcher shared their study results in their paper, titled “Network Science and the Effects of Music Preference on Functional Brain Connectivity: From Beethoven to Eminem.” So, listening to music can improve our concentration and ability to study, but that’s not all, as music is a gift that keeps on giving. It has been suggested that learning to play a musical instrument can strengthen our abilities involved in remembering information, and it could even enhance our IQ. Regardless of whether you can become more intelligent or not, you can use music to make studying more enjoyable and more effective. Ultimately, you know when you’re studying well and when you’re not, so try out some different genres and find out what works for you. Which of the following is a counterargument in the passage?

    • A.Baroque music creates ideal conditions to learn
    • B.Alpha rhythms help listeners to absorb material
    • C.Many students choose total quiet to concentrate
    • D.Nature recordings mask chatter to sharpen focus
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Many students choose total quiet to concentrate

    Many students choose total quiet to concentrate is the counterargument: the passage concedes that “complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving,” which cuts against its case for studying with music. Baroque music creates ideal conditions to learn supports the argument, since baroque music “creates an ideal environment for studying.” Alpha rhythms help listeners to absorb material also supports it, because alpha waves allow “the brain to better absorb and retain information and ideas.” Nature recordings mask chatter to sharpen focus supports it as well: nature sounds “improve cognitive function and concentration” and “conceal other sounds that interfere with studying.”

  41. Creative Writing There’s no doubt that writing is an art and, as such, it cannot be taught. After talking to a university professor who teaches creative writing, I have discovered that it is very rare to come across a course participant who has the talent and the right attitude to make it as a published author. Creativity, imagination, and observational skills are the key features of a good writer. These are unique characteristics that cannot be learnt, but stem from the personality of an individual. However, they can be practiced and developed – which should be the focus of attending a respectable creative writing course. Another vital aspect of literary success that should not be underestimated is the writer’s attitude towards criticism. Although it can be constructive, helping them improve their future work, writers often face useless, negative feedback. This can be the cause of self-doubt and low self-esteem, and it might even lead an aspiring writer to giving up writing altogether. Because of this, writers should develop ‘thick skin’ and avoid getting offended by what others say. In addition to this, while it is important for writers to separate useful from harmful criticism, they should also keep an open mind about the feedback they receive. This helps them create a bond with their audience, which has the advantage of improving a writer’s popularity. Which of the following summarizes the main message about creative writing courses?

    • A.They can sharpen abilities writers already possess
    • B.They can help writers achieve eventual publication
    • C.They can give writers negligible practical benefit
    • D.They can build writers durable audience popularity
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: They can sharpen abilities writers already possess

    They can sharpen abilities writers already possess is the main message: creativity, imagination, and observation “stem from the personality of an individual,” but “they can be practiced and developed – which should be the focus of attending a respectable creative writing course.” They can help writers achieve eventual publication misreads the course’s purpose: the professor finds it “very rare to come across a course participant who has the talent and the right attitude to make it as a published author,” and the passage names practice and development, not publication, as what a course should focus on. They can give writers negligible practical benefit overreads the opening claim that writing “cannot be taught”; the passage still names practice and development as what a good course offers. They can build writers durable audience popularity misplaces a detail: the passage ties popularity to a writer keeping “an open mind about the feedback they receive,” not to any course.

  42. Studying at the Sound of Music What’s the soundtrack of your learning? What do you have in the background? Some people listen to the sound of birds singing, while others prefer that of the ocean waves. Research suggests that complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving. Most learners, however, prefer to listen to some music while studying. Studies have shown that music with lyrics can be distracting. This is because listening to the words of a song takes brain resources away from the studying process. It turns out that our brain has only so much power to work with at any given time! Despite this, another study shows that songs with unintelligible words do not have such a negative impact on your studying. However, if you are looking for music that can improve your studying and concentrating abilities, it is important to remember that different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains. Generally speaking, classical music is considered a good background choice for studying, but there are some exceptions. Explosive works like Respighi’s Pines of Rome or Rossini’s William Tell Overture may be too energetic for effective studying. As concluded by other studies on music and concentration, it appears that baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying. With 50 to 80 beats per minute, baroque music creates an ideal environment for studying by creating stable mental, physical, and emotional patterns. Another genre without lyrics is meditative music, regarded as a good study option as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music. This hypothesis is supported by studies that focus specifically on this kind of music. It has been found that meditative music, which contains what’s called “alpha” beats, stimulates alpha waves in the brain. These put our brains in a relaxed, yet alert, state, which allows the brain to better absorb and retain information and ideas. Meditative music also commonly includes sounds of nature, like croaking frogs or wind through the trees, which can improve cognitive function and concentration. They also efficiently conceal other sounds that interfere with studying, like people talking or road noise. A study on the correlation between music genres and studying demonstrates that each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre. This was carried out by comparing brain wave patterns reacting to different musical genres and a song selected by each study participant as a personal favorite. They found that neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre. The researcher shared their study results in their paper, titled “Network Science and the Effects of Music Preference on Functional Brain Connectivity: From Beethoven to Eminem.” So, listening to music can improve our concentration and ability to study, but that’s not all, as music is a gift that keeps on giving. It has been suggested that learning to play a musical instrument can strengthen our abilities involved in remembering information, and it could even enhance our IQ. Regardless of whether you can become more intelligent or not, you can use music to make studying more enjoyable and more effective. Ultimately, you know when you’re studying well and when you’re not, so try out some different genres and find out what works for you. Which of the following is evidence that supports the argument?

    • A.Classical works produce alpha brain wave rhythms
    • B.Energetic classical works help boost study focus
    • C.Fixed genre rules outrank personal musical taste
    • D.Certain classical styles hold fairly slow tempos
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Certain classical styles hold fairly slow tempos

    Certain classical styles hold fairly slow tempos is the supporting evidence: baroque, a style of classical music, runs at “50 to 80 beats per minute,” which the passage says “creates an ideal environment for studying.” Classical works produce alpha brain wave rhythms gives classical music a feature the passage assigns to meditative music, whose “alpha” beats stimulate alpha waves in the brain. Energetic classical works help boost study focus reverses the passage’s warning that explosive works such as Pines of Rome “may be too energetic for effective studying.” Fixed genre rules outrank personal musical taste reverses the preference study, which found that “each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre.”

  43. Studying at the Sound of Music What’s the soundtrack of your learning? What do you have in the background? Some people listen to the sound of birds singing, while others prefer that of the ocean waves. Research suggests that complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving. Most learners, however, prefer to listen to some music while studying. Studies have shown that music with lyrics can be distracting. This is because listening to the words of a song takes brain resources away from the studying process. It turns out that our brain has only so much power to work with at any given time! Despite this, another study shows that songs with unintelligible words do not have such a negative impact on your studying. However, if you are looking for music that can improve your studying and concentrating abilities, it is important to remember that different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains. Generally speaking, classical music is considered a good background choice for studying, but there are some exceptions. Explosive works like Respighi’s Pines of Rome or Rossini’s William Tell Overture may be too energetic for effective studying. As concluded by other studies on music and concentration, it appears that baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying. With 50 to 80 beats per minute, baroque music creates an ideal environment for studying by creating stable mental, physical, and emotional patterns. Another genre without lyrics is meditative music, regarded as a good study option as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music. This hypothesis is supported by studies that focus specifically on this kind of music. It has been found that meditative music, which contains what’s called “alpha” beats, stimulates alpha waves in the brain. These put our brains in a relaxed, yet alert, state, which allows the brain to better absorb and retain information and ideas. Meditative music also commonly includes sounds of nature, like croaking frogs or wind through the trees, which can improve cognitive function and concentration. They also efficiently conceal other sounds that interfere with studying, like people talking or road noise. A study on the correlation between music genres and studying demonstrates that each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre. This was carried out by comparing brain wave patterns reacting to different musical genres and a song selected by each study participant as a personal favorite. They found that neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre. The researcher shared their study results in their paper, titled “Network Science and the Effects of Music Preference on Functional Brain Connectivity: From Beethoven to Eminem.” So, listening to music can improve our concentration and ability to study, but that’s not all, as music is a gift that keeps on giving. It has been suggested that learning to play a musical instrument can strengthen our abilities involved in remembering information, and it could even enhance our IQ. Regardless of whether you can become more intelligent or not, you can use music to make studying more enjoyable and more effective. Ultimately, you know when you’re studying well and when you’re not, so try out some different genres and find out what works for you. Which of the following is a claim that supports the argument of the passage?

    • A.Classical pieces equally aid deep concentration
    • B.Meditative tunes reliably beat classical pieces
    • C.Lyrical songs reliably strengthen memory recall
    • D.Classical pieces yield unequal student outcomes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Classical pieces yield unequal student outcomes

    Classical pieces yield unequal student outcomes is the supporting claim: the passage warns that “different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains” and that classical music has “some exceptions.” Classical pieces equally aid deep concentration denies those exceptions. Meditative tunes reliably beat classical pieces overstates the passage, which offers meditative music only “as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music,” not as a better choice. Lyrical songs reliably strengthen memory recall is contradicted twice: “music with lyrics can be distracting,” and complete silence suits tasks that “require memory recalling.”

  44. Studying at the Sound of Music What’s the soundtrack of your learning? What do you have in the background? Some people listen to the sound of birds singing, while others prefer that of the ocean waves. Research suggests that complete silence is a better option when completing tasks that require memory recalling or problem-solving. Most learners, however, prefer to listen to some music while studying. Studies have shown that music with lyrics can be distracting. This is because listening to the words of a song takes brain resources away from the studying process. It turns out that our brain has only so much power to work with at any given time! Despite this, another study shows that songs with unintelligible words do not have such a negative impact on your studying. However, if you are looking for music that can improve your studying and concentrating abilities, it is important to remember that different genres of music are unlikely to have the same impact on our brains. Generally speaking, classical music is considered a good background choice for studying, but there are some exceptions. Explosive works like Respighi’s Pines of Rome or Rossini’s William Tell Overture may be too energetic for effective studying. As concluded by other studies on music and concentration, it appears that baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying. With 50 to 80 beats per minute, baroque music creates an ideal environment for studying by creating stable mental, physical, and emotional patterns. Another genre without lyrics is meditative music, regarded as a good study option as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music. This hypothesis is supported by studies that focus specifically on this kind of music. It has been found that meditative music, which contains what’s called “alpha” beats, stimulates alpha waves in the brain. These put our brains in a relaxed, yet alert, state, which allows the brain to better absorb and retain information and ideas. Meditative music also commonly includes sounds of nature, like croaking frogs or wind through the trees, which can improve cognitive function and concentration. They also efficiently conceal other sounds that interfere with studying, like people talking or road noise. A study on the correlation between music genres and studying demonstrates that each person’s taste might give more reliable clues regarding the best studying music than any specific genre. This was carried out by comparing brain wave patterns reacting to different musical genres and a song selected by each study participant as a personal favorite. They found that neural activity connected to cognitive processing improved when participants were listening to their music of choice, regardless of the genre. The researcher shared their study results in their paper, titled “Network Science and the Effects of Music Preference on Functional Brain Connectivity: From Beethoven to Eminem.” So, listening to music can improve our concentration and ability to study, but that’s not all, as music is a gift that keeps on giving. It has been suggested that learning to play a musical instrument can strengthen our abilities involved in remembering information, and it could even enhance our IQ. Regardless of whether you can become more intelligent or not, you can use music to make studying more enjoyable and more effective. Ultimately, you know when you’re studying well and when you’re not, so try out some different genres and find out what works for you. What is the primary argument of the passage?

    • A.Certain classical pieces benefit academic skills
    • B.Instrument lessons heighten overall mental power
    • C.Classical pieces mask intrusive background noise
    • D.Meditative tunes firmly outrank classical pieces
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Certain classical pieces benefit academic skills

    Certain classical pieces benefit academic skills is the primary argument; the passage builds to the finding that “baroque music is a particularly useful type of music to listen to when studying,” while noting that some classical works are exceptions. Instrument lessons heighten overall mental power is only a closing aside, hedged as something that “could even enhance our IQ.” Classical pieces mask intrusive background noise misattributes a detail: it is the nature sounds in meditative music that “conceal other sounds that interfere with studying.” Meditative tunes firmly outrank classical pieces is never claimed; meditative music is presented “as an alternative, or in addition, to classical music.”

  45. A Prayer in Spring Oh, give us pleasure in the flowers to-day; And give us not to think so far away As the uncertain harvest; keep us here All simply in the springing of the year. The Secret Garden They always called it Magic and indeed it seemed like it in the months that followed—the wonderful months—the radiant months—the amazing ones. Oh! the things which happened in that garden! If you have never had a garden you cannot understand, and if you have had a garden you will know that it would take a whole book to describe all that came to pass there. At first it seemed that green things would never cease pushing their way through the earth, in the grass, in the beds, even in the crevices of the walls. Then the green things began to show buds and the buds began to unfurl and show color, every shade of blue, every shade of purple, every tint and hue of crimson. In its happy days flowers had been tucked away into every inch and hole and corner. Which of the following is a difference between the poem and the passage?

    • A.Only the passage excitedly embraces seasonal change
    • B.Only the passage plainly mentions springtime blooms
    • C.Only the passage directly petitions heavenly powers
    • D.Only the poem eagerly anticipates harvest abundance
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Only the passage excitedly embraces seasonal change

    Only the passage excitedly embraces seasonal change is the difference: The Secret Garden exclaims over “the wonderful months—the radiant months—the amazing ones” as buds “unfurl and show color,” while the poem asks only to stay in the present (“keep us here”). Only the passage plainly mentions springtime blooms is false, because the poem opens “give us pleasure in the flowers to-day” in “the springing of the year.” Only the passage directly petitions heavenly powers reverses the two texts: the poem is the prayer, and the passage petitions no one. Only the poem eagerly anticipates harvest abundance is contradicted by the poem’s own request, “give us not to think so far away As the uncertain harvest.”

  46. Detecting Microplastics Information received from NASA satellites can be now used to track the movement of microplastics, thanks to a team of scientists from the University of Michigan. Microplastics are tiny pieces of plastic trash broken down by the sun’s rays and the motion of ocean waves. Because ocean currents can carry these plastic particles far away from where they originated, it can become very difficult to track them and remove them. It has been observed that microplastics are present in smoother waters because they can affect the ocean roughness. Data from a group of eight small satellites can help scientists predict where microplastics congregate by following ocean and wind speed calculations. Currently, fisher boat trawlers are the main source of information about the locations of microplastics, as they use nets to catch plankton and, accidentally, microplastics. However, the new technique demonstrates that satellite data can successfully track ocean microplastic from space. This might transform the way in which we tackle water pollution. As microplastics are harmful to marine organisms and ecosystems, this can be considered a ground-breaking discovery. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?

    • A.Trawler nets will remain chief microplastic trackers
    • B.Marine species will rapidly evolve plastic tolerance
    • C.Orbital sensors will eventually aid seawater cleanup
    • D.Ocean currents will spread plastic particles farther
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Orbital sensors will eventually aid seawater cleanup

    Orbital sensors will eventually aid seawater cleanup is the prediction: satellite data “can successfully track ocean microplastic from space,” which “might transform the way in which we tackle water pollution,” and the last line calls this “a ground-breaking discovery” because microplastics harm sea life. Trawler nets will remain chief microplastic trackers runs against that conclusion, since the passage presents trawlers as the current source and the satellite technique as the change. Marine species will rapidly evolve plastic tolerance contradicts the last line, which states that microplastics “are harmful to marine organisms and ecosystems.” Ocean currents will spread plastic particles farther is not a prediction drawn from the last line; the passage mentions currents only to explain why microplastics are hard to track and remove.

  47. The Secret I loved thee, though I told thee not, Right earlily and long, Thou wert my joy in every spot, My theme in every song. And when I saw a stranger face Where beauty held the claim, I gave it like a secret grace The being of thy name. And all the charms of face or voice Which I in others see Are but the recollected choice Of what I felt for thee. Pride and Prejudice In spite of her deeply-rooted dislike, she could not be insensible to the compliment of such a man’s affection, and though her intentions did not vary for an instant, she was at first sorry for the pain he was to receive; till, roused to resentment by his subsequent language, she lost all compassion in anger. Which of the following is a common theme between the poem and the passage?

    • A.Anger can override mercy
    • B.Time can mend heartbreak
    • C.Love can cause heartache
    • D.Pride can cloud judgment
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Love can cause heartache

    Love can cause heartache is the common theme: the poet carries a love he never declared (“I loved thee, though I told thee not”), and in the excerpt the woman is “sorry for the pain he was to receive” as she rejects the man’s affection. Anger can override mercy fits only the excerpt, where she “lost all compassion in anger”; the poem shows no anger. Time can mend heartbreak appears in neither text, since no wound heals within either one. Pride can cloud judgment echoes the novel’s title but is not shown in the excerpt or in the poem.

  48. Aphantasia The term ‘aphantasia’ was coined in 2015 from the Greek words ‘a’ and ‘phantasia’ meaning ‘without’ and ‘imagination’ respectively. It describes a neurological condition that causes an inability to visualise mental images of thoughts, memories, people, and places, even if they are very familiar. Although the term was coined not so long ago, the actual condition of having a blind mind’s eye was reported by Sir Francis Galton in one of his studies about mental imagery in 1880. While the cause of aphantasia is currently unknown, it has been discovered that it is often a congenital condition. It can also occur after a brain injury. This phenomenon, however, remains highly understudied overall. For those who aren’t affected by aphantasia, creating images in their minds is such an important part of their lives that they cannot imagine what life would be without it. Nevertheless, there are some advantages to having aphantasia, such as the inability to recall vivid images of past traumas and a high ability to concentrate. Which of the following defines ‘aphantasia’?

    • A.A neurological disorder hampering inner visualization
    • B.A congenital disorder obstructing visual recollection
    • C.A neurological disorder erasing painful recollections
    • D.A neurological disorder disrupting facial recognition
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A neurological disorder hampering inner visualization

    A neurological disorder hampering inner visualization matches the passage’s definition: aphantasia is “a neurological condition” that leaves a person unable to form mental images of thoughts, memories, people, and places, “even if they are very familiar.” A congenital disorder obstructing visual recollection overgeneralizes the cause; the passage says it “is often a congenital condition” but “can also occur after a brain injury,” so congenital is not part of the definition. A neurological disorder erasing painful recollections misreads an advantage: people with aphantasia cannot “recall vivid images of past traumas,” but the memories themselves are not erased. A neurological disorder disrupting facial recognition confuses picturing a familiar face from memory with recognizing one in front of you; the passage describes only the first.

  49. Dragon Man In June 2021, a group of paleontologists announced the discovery of a new human species named Homo Longi. This discovery was brought to light after the study of a nearly intact cranium found in China in 1933. The nickname Dragon Man comes from the name of the region in which the skull was found – the Black Dragon River. According to the researchers, the skull belonged to a large male individual who lived approximately 146,000 years ago in a forested area. He was around 50 years of age, hunted mammals and birds, gathered fruits and vegetables, and was perhaps able to catch fish. It is Homo Longi‘s large size that might have made it easier for the species to travel long distances and adapt to harsh conditions. This is the largest Homo skull ever found, and while some characteristics separate this species from us, its size brings it closer to the description of a modern human, i.e. Homo Sapiens. Therefore, Homo Longi appears to be a sister species of Homo Sapiens. This evidence demonstrates that Homo Sapiens did not evolve directly from the Neanderthal, as was previously believed. However, many scientists argue that there isn’t enough physical and genetic difference between the species to consider them separate from each other. Which of the following is an inference that can be made about Homo Longi?

    • A.Homo Longi was the later descendant of Homo Sapiens
    • B.Homo Longi was the direct precursor of Homo Sapiens
    • C.Homo Longi was the smallest variety of Homo Sapiens
    • D.Homo Longi was the closest relative of Homo Sapiens
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Homo Longi was the closest relative of Homo Sapiens

    Homo Longi was the closest relative of Homo Sapiens is the inference: the passage says its size “brings it closer to the description of a modern human” and concludes that “Homo Longi appears to be a sister species of Homo Sapiens.” Homo Longi was the later descendant of Homo Sapiens turns a sister species into an offshoot of our own, which the passage never claims. Homo Longi was the direct precursor of Homo Sapiens makes the same error in the other direction, treating a sister species as an ancestor. Homo Longi was the smallest variety of Homo Sapiens is contradicted twice: “this is the largest Homo skull ever found,” and the passage treats Homo Longi as a separate species, not a variety of our own.

  50. The Secret I loved thee, though I told thee not, Right earlily and long, Thou wert my joy in every spot, My theme in every song. And when I saw a stranger face Where beauty held the claim, I gave it like a secret grace The being of thy name. And all the charms of face or voice Which I in others see Are but the recollected choice Of what I felt for thee. Pride and Prejudice In spite of her deeply-rooted dislike, she could not be insensible to the compliment of such a man’s affection, and though her intentions did not vary for an instant, she was at first sorry for the pain he was to receive; till, roused to resentment by his subsequent language, she lost all compassion in anger. Which of the following is a difference between the poem and the passage?

    • A.The poem leaves devotion unspoken
    • B.The poem voices bitter resentment
    • C.The passage shows reciprocal love
    • D.The poem neglects physical beauty
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The poem leaves devotion unspoken

    The poem leaves devotion unspoken is the difference: the speaker admits “I loved thee, though I told thee not,” while in the excerpt feelings come out openly, as the woman is “roused to resentment” and loses “all compassion in anger.” The poem voices bitter resentment reverses the two texts; resentment belongs to the excerpt, and the poem speaks only of joy and devotion. The passage shows reciprocal love is contradicted by the woman’s “deeply-rooted dislike” of the man. The poem neglects physical beauty is contradicted by the lines “Where beauty held the claim” and “all the charms of face or voice.”

  51. Aphantasia The term ‘aphantasia’ was coined in 2015 from the Greek words ‘a’ and ‘phantasia’ meaning ‘without’ and ‘imagination’ respectively. It describes a neurological condition that causes an inability to visualise mental images of thoughts, memories, people, and places, even if they are very familiar. Although the term was coined not so long ago, the actual condition of having a blind mind’s eye was reported by Sir Francis Galton in one of his studies about mental imagery in 1880. While the cause of aphantasia is currently unknown, it has been discovered that it is often a congenital condition. It can also occur after a brain injury. This phenomenon, however, remains highly understudied overall. For those who aren’t affected by aphantasia, creating images in their minds is such an important part of their lives that they cannot imagine what life would be without it. Nevertheless, there are some advantages to having aphantasia, such as the inability to recall vivid images of past traumas and a high ability to concentrate. Which of the following is an inference that can be made about ‘aphantasia’?

    • A.Aphantasic perks prove superior to burdens
    • B.Aphantasic experience proves hard to grasp
    • C.Brain injuries prove central to aphantasia
    • D.Aphantasic minds stayed unknown to science
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Aphantasic experience proves hard to grasp

    Aphantasic experience proves hard to grasp is the inference: for those without the condition, “creating images in their minds is such an important part of their lives that they cannot imagine what life would be without it.” Aphantasic perks prove superior to burdens goes beyond the text, which lists “some advantages” but never weighs them against the drawbacks. Brain injuries prove central to aphantasia overweights one cause, since the condition “is often a congenital condition” and only “can also occur after a brain injury.” Aphantasic minds stayed unknown to science is a tempting inference from the term being “coined in 2015,” but Galton had already reported the condition in 1880.

  52. The Future of Space Exploration Since the first moon landing, many probes have been sent across the solar system, while our spacecraft have orbited around, surveyed, and landed on several planets. Astronauts have already performed extensive experiments on the dangers and requirements of living in space-bound habitats. It seems logical, then, to expect astronauts of the future to repair equipment sent millions of miles away from Earth. Space isn’t a suitable place for a delicate species like us. The conditions in which humans can survive are limited — we need the right amount of pressure, oxygen, water, temperature, radiation, and acceleration, or we die. In fact, we need protective clothing and technology even to explore many areas of our own planet. After all, space exploration is necessary for the human species, as we will have to leave our biosphere when the sun turns into a red giant. But shouldn’t we send robots to do the exploring instead of humans? Robots don’t die — not like humans, anyway. They are designed to withstand extremely harsh conditions that humans would never be able to endure. If one of the robots breaks down or is lost, it can be rebuilt. For humans, it doesn’t work quite like that. We have always imagined artificial servants or artificial minds that exist for the sole purpose of fulfilling human needs. So, perhaps, the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI) is to live and explore space on our behalf. Current robotic explorers are rare and hence extremely expensive, requiring endless pre-mission modeling and careful actions. But robotics is becoming cheaper and more adaptable, as are the ways to hurl them beyond our atmosphere. As space access becomes cheaper, we should expect a more ruthless use of robots. However, we find it impossible to resist the charm of human space exploration, despite its risks. Knowledge and achievements aren’t enough for us — we want to be there to witness the unfolding of our success. First of all, sending humans into space adds glory to our lives. Overcoming the plethora of challenges that come with long-term spaceflight inspires and delights us. Many of us would consider a human landing on Mars as an achievement of paramount importance for our species, not only for personal satisfaction, but also for national pride. Furthermore, the desire for raw materials in order to make profits is one of the greatest incentives that space exploration has to offer. Of course, this poses the moral dilemma that we might not be able to repair any damage we cause, therefore blurring our knowledge of the origin and organization of life in the solar system. The main motivation that will keep us going is that it is challenging and fascinating: humans are ambitious creatures that strive to achieve what is nearly impossible, and be present for the occasion. I wonder if AI will ever be able to learn this very human trait! Meanwhile, it would be useful to consider the advantages that our automated explorers currently maintain over their human counterparts. Which of the following is evidence that supports the primary argument of this text?

    • A.Machines tolerate extreme settings deadly to people
    • B.Robotic explorers currently cost little to assemble
    • C.Crewed voyages confer tremendous glory to countries
    • D.Astronaut bodies adapt readily to intense radiation
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Machines tolerate extreme settings deadly to people

    Machines tolerate extreme settings deadly to people is the supporting evidence: robots “are designed to withstand extremely harsh conditions that humans would never be able to endure,” which backs the case for sending robots instead of humans. Robotic explorers currently cost little to assemble is contradicted by “current robotic explorers are rare and hence extremely expensive.” Crewed voyages confer tremendous glory to countries belongs to the opposing case for human spaceflight (“sending humans into space adds glory to our lives”), so it does not support the argument for robots. Astronaut bodies adapt readily to intense radiation is contradicted by the statement that humans need the right amount of “pressure, oxygen, water, temperature, radiation, and acceleration, or we die.”

  53. The Future of Space Exploration Since the first moon landing, many probes have been sent across the solar system, while our spacecraft have orbited around, surveyed, and landed on several planets. Astronauts have already performed extensive experiments on the dangers and requirements of living in space-bound habitats. It seems logical, then, to expect astronauts of the future to repair equipment sent millions of miles away from Earth. Space isn’t a suitable place for a delicate species like us. The conditions in which humans can survive are limited — we need the right amount of pressure, oxygen, water, temperature, radiation, and acceleration, or we die. In fact, we need protective clothing and technology even to explore many areas of our own planet. After all, space exploration is necessary for the human species, as we will have to leave our biosphere when the sun turns into a red giant. But shouldn’t we send robots to do the exploring instead of humans? Robots don’t die — not like humans, anyway. They are designed to withstand extremely harsh conditions that humans would never be able to endure. If one of the robots breaks down or is lost, it can be rebuilt. For humans, it doesn’t work quite like that. We have always imagined artificial servants or artificial minds that exist for the sole purpose of fulfilling human needs. So, perhaps, the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI) is to live and explore space on our behalf. Current robotic explorers are rare and hence extremely expensive, requiring endless pre-mission modeling and careful actions. But robotics is becoming cheaper and more adaptable, as are the ways to hurl them beyond our atmosphere. As space access becomes cheaper, we should expect a more ruthless use of robots. However, we find it impossible to resist the charm of human space exploration, despite its risks. Knowledge and achievements aren’t enough for us — we want to be there to witness the unfolding of our success. First of all, sending humans into space adds glory to our lives. Overcoming the plethora of challenges that come with long-term spaceflight inspires and delights us. Many of us would consider a human landing on Mars as an achievement of paramount importance for our species, not only for personal satisfaction, but also for national pride. Furthermore, the desire for raw materials in order to make profits is one of the greatest incentives that space exploration has to offer. Of course, this poses the moral dilemma that we might not be able to repair any damage we cause, therefore blurring our knowledge of the origin and organization of life in the solar system. The main motivation that will keep us going is that it is challenging and fascinating: humans are ambitious creatures that strive to achieve what is nearly impossible, and be present for the occasion. I wonder if AI will ever be able to learn this very human trait! Meanwhile, it would be useful to consider the advantages that our automated explorers currently maintain over their human counterparts. Which of the following is a claim that supports the argument of the passage?

    • A.Robots demand scant human launch preparation
    • B.Machines prove expendable unlike human crews
    • C.Space exploration offers minor human benefit
    • D.Resource profits mainly motivate space trips
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Machines prove expendable unlike human crews

    Machines prove expendable unlike human crews is the supporting claim: “If one of the robots breaks down or is lost, it can be rebuilt. For humans, it doesn’t work quite like that.” Robots demand scant human launch preparation is contradicted, since current robotic missions require “endless pre-mission modeling and careful actions.” Space exploration offers minor human benefit is contradicted by the statement that “space exploration is necessary for the human species.” Resource profits mainly motivate space trips overstates the passage, which calls raw materials “one of the greatest incentives” but says “the main motivation” is that exploration is “challenging and fascinating”; the point also does nothing to support sending robots.

  54. Dragon Man In June 2021, a group of paleontologists announced the discovery of a new human species named Homo Longi. This discovery was brought to light after the study of a nearly intact cranium found in China in 1933. The nickname Dragon Man comes from the name of the region in which the skull was found – the Black Dragon River. According to the researchers, the skull belonged to a large male individual who lived approximately 146,000 years ago in a forested area. He was around 50 years of age, hunted mammals and birds, gathered fruits and vegetables, and was perhaps able to catch fish. It is Homo Longi‘s large size that might have made it easier for the species to travel long distances and adapt to harsh conditions. This is the largest Homo skull ever found, and while some characteristics separate this species from us, its size brings it closer to the description of a modern human, i.e. Homo Sapiens. Therefore, Homo Longi appears to be a sister species of Homo Sapiens. This evidence demonstrates that Homo Sapiens did not evolve directly from the Neanderthal, as was previously believed. However, many scientists argue that there isn’t enough physical and genetic difference between the species to consider them separate from each other. Which of the following is a prediction based on the last line of the passage?

    • A.Scientific consensus requires additional evidence
    • B.Scientists currently dispute species distinctions
    • C.Fossil evidence decisively settles classification
    • D.Genetic evidence supersedes skeletal measurements
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Scientific consensus requires additional evidence

    Scientific consensus requires additional evidence is the prediction: the last line reports that “many scientists argue that there isn’t enough physical and genetic difference between the species to consider them separate from each other,” so agreement waits on more evidence. Scientists currently dispute species distinctions is true, but it restates the present disagreement rather than predicting anything. Fossil evidence decisively settles classification is contradicted, because the fossil evidence is exactly what scientists are already disputing. Genetic evidence supersedes skeletal measurements misreads the last line, which weighs “physical and genetic difference” together and does not say one kind of evidence will win out.

  55. A Prayer in Spring Oh, give us pleasure in the flowers to-day; And give us not to think so far away As the uncertain harvest; keep us here All simply in the springing of the year. The Secret Garden They always called it Magic and indeed it seemed like it in the months that followed—the wonderful months—the radiant months—the amazing ones. Oh! the things which happened in that garden! If you have never had a garden you cannot understand, and if you have had a garden you will know that it would take a whole book to describe all that came to pass there. At first it seemed that green things would never cease pushing their way through the earth, in the grass, in the beds, even in the crevices of the walls. Then the green things began to show buds and the buds began to unfurl and show color, every shade of blue, every shade of purple, every tint and hue of crimson. In its happy days flowers had been tucked away into every inch and hole and corner. Which of the following has a common theme between the poem and the passage?

    • A.Present joys outweigh concerns
    • B.Diligent labor yields harvests
    • C.Natural beauty inspires wonder
    • D.Seasonal change brings sadness
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Natural beauty inspires wonder

    Natural beauty inspires wonder is the common theme: the poem asks for “pleasure in the flowers to-day,” and the passage calls the garden’s growth “Magic” and its months “wonderful,” “radiant,” and “amazing.” Present joys outweigh concerns fits only the poem, which asks to stay in the moment (“keep us here”); the passage never weighs present against future. Diligent labor yields harvests appears in neither text, since the garden grows on its own and the poem calls the harvest “uncertain.” Seasonal change brings sadness is contradicted by both texts, which greet spring with delight.

  56. Franco just finished reading a novel with a ‘moral corruption’ theme. It is about a man who trades his soul for an ever-youthful appearance and lives a dissolute and evil life, while the portrait that represents his soul rots away. Which of the following has a similar theme?

    • A.A novel about a sailor who, marooned by gales for days, meets a kind fisher and starts rowing to reach the mainland
    • B.A play about a nobleman who, blinded by lust for power, murders a good monarch and keeps killing to hold the throne
    • C.A film about a teenager who, driven by love for music, joins a garage band and begins rehearsing to win the contest
    • D.A poem about a widow who, soothed by friends for years, adopts a stray puppy and resumes painting to cheer the home
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A play about a nobleman who, blinded by lust for power, murders a good monarch and keeps killing to hold the throne

    A play about a nobleman who, blinded by lust for power, murders a good monarch and keeps killing to hold the throne shares the moral corruption theme: like the man who trades his soul and lives “a dissolute and evil life,” the nobleman gives up his conscience for personal gain and grows more evil with each act. A novel about a sailor who, marooned by gales for days, meets a kind fisher and starts rowing to reach the mainland is a survival and friendship story. A film about a teenager who, driven by love for music, joins a garage band and begins rehearsing to win the contest is about chasing a dream. A poem about a widow who, soothed by friends for years, adopts a stray puppy and resumes painting to cheer the home is about grief and healing. None of these three shows a character’s morals decaying.

  57. Jean just finished reading a novel with a ‘dreams and aspirations’ theme about a shepherd boy who embarks on a journey during which he learns to listen to his heart in order to achieve his dreams. Which of the following has a contrasting theme?

    • A.A movie about a woman who joins a friend on a trip to resolve past differences
    • B.A novel about a teenager who takes a post on a ranch to pursue aviation dreams
    • C.A play about a baker who rents a stall on a pier to realize lifelong ambitions
    • D.A song about a racer who trains a decade on a track to capture national titles
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A movie about a woman who joins a friend on a trip to resolve past differences

    A movie about a woman who joins a friend on a trip to resolve past differences has a friendship theme, which contrasts with the dreams-and-aspirations theme of the shepherd boy who follows his heart to achieve his dreams. A novel about a teenager who takes a post on a ranch to pursue aviation dreams shares that theme, since the character works toward a dream. A play about a baker who rents a stall on a pier to realize lifelong ambitions also shares it, because the story is about fulfilling an ambition. A song about a racer who trains a decade on a track to capture national titles shares it as well, as years of training serve a single goal.

  58. Chess Boxing Chess boxing is a sport that combines mental ability and physical strength, and appeals to a wide range of people, from the office worker to the martial art fighter. This sport was invented by a French artist for his comic books in 1992, but it took over a decade for the first chess boxing match to happen in real life, in Germany. In each match there are 11 total rounds of both boxing and chess. The boxing rounds last three minutes, while the chess ones last four. To win the match, players need to beat their opponents at either boxing or chess, not both. The player with the highest score wins. Those who practice it say that the challenge of switching from mental focus to physical strain is what keeps them engaged in this sport. They also believe that it helps them develop a flexible attitude that can be useful in every-day situations. Fireball Soccer Football (or soccer, in the USA) is probably the most popular sport in the world among people of all ages, but what about fireball soccer? Known as Sepak Bola Api in Indonesia, this sport is often played by students to test their courage. In this sport, a leather football is replaced with a coconut soaked in petrol or pure alcohol and set on fire. The players cover themselves in salt to avoid burning themselves before kicking the ball of fire with their bare feet. During the month before this dangerous match, the players spend their time praying. By doing so, they hope to develop their inner strength that should prevent them from being afraid of the fire and should protect their bodies from getting hurt. Fireball soccer is without a doubt a fascinating sport to watch, but it takes truly brave people to play it. Which of the following is a common theme between the passages given above?

    • A.Faith and prayers keep players unhurt
    • B.Comics and cartoons spawn real sports
    • C.Mind and body toughness count equally
    • D.Danger and spectacle draw huge crowds
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Mind and body toughness count equally

    Mind and body toughness count equally is the common theme: chess boxing “combines mental ability and physical strength,” and fireball soccer players kick a burning ball with bare feet after a month of prayer meant to build the “inner strength” that keeps them from being afraid. Faith and prayers keep players unhurt fits only fireball soccer, and even there the players only “hope” that prayer will protect their bodies. Comics and cartoons spawn real sports fits only chess boxing, which a French artist invented “for his comic books.” Danger and spectacle draw huge crowds fits only fireball soccer, “a fascinating sport to watch”; chess boxing is never described as dangerous or as a spectacle.

  59. AI and Nursing Artificial Intelligence (AI) is progressing at an exponential rate. These advances could radically transform the healthcare industry, which is investing in quality preventive care and moving away from occasional assistance. To support these changes, outdated policies should be replaced by a series of new and flexible reforms that can adapt to and work with the science of robotics. Hopefully, this will ensure that nurses in all settings can continue to play a pivotal role in the healthcare landscape, trusting that AI will enhance their skills without posing a threat to their position. There is no doubt that this technological innovation will transform the way in which healthcare workers perform their day-to-day tasks. Which of the following is an exaggerated claim in support of the argument presented in the passage?

    • A.Clinics will likely favor preventive care
    • B.Machines will soon replace trained nurses
    • C.Nurses will gain stronger clinical skills
    • D.Nurses will keep pivotal healthcare roles
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Machines will soon replace trained nurses

    Machines will soon replace trained nurses is the exaggeration: the passage says only that AI “will transform the way in which healthcare workers perform their day-to-day tasks,” and it hopes AI will “enhance their skills without posing a threat to their position.” Clinics will likely favor preventive care is not exaggerated, since the industry “is investing in quality preventive care.” Nurses will gain stronger clinical skills restates the passage’s expectation that AI “will enhance their skills.” Nurses will keep pivotal healthcare roles restates its hope that nurses “can continue to play a pivotal role in the healthcare landscape.”

  60. I bought a new bag to match my shoes. Match v. 1. a short, thin piece of wood used to light a fire 2. a sports contest in which people compete against each other 3. to be equal to something in quality or strength 4. to put things together to look pleasant and harmonious. Which of the following dictionary definitions best fits the word match as used in context?

    • A.Entry 3, comparable quality levels
    • B.Entry 4, attractive visual harmony
    • C.Entry 2, competitive athletic bout
    • D.Entry 1, narrow wooden firelighter
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Entry 4, attractive visual harmony

    Entry 4, attractive visual harmony fits the sentence: matching a bag to shoes means “to put things together to look pleasant and harmonious.” Entry 3, comparable quality levels is the sense “to be equal to something in quality or strength,” as in “No one can match her speed,” which is about keeping pace with a rival, not pairing a bag with shoes. Entry 2, competitive athletic bout is a noun naming a sports contest, as in “What a great match – we won 3-1!” Entry 1, narrow wooden firelighter is a noun naming a thin stick used to light a fire, as in “I can’t light this candle with this match.” The sentence uses match as a verb about appearance, so only the fourth entry fits.

  61. Dealing with Distractions while Studying: If you find yourself overly distracted while studying, you may need to take some steps to establish a peaceful environment before you even begin studying. With an environment free of distractions, you can use your time more efficiently. First, assess your needs. It’s important to be honest with yourself here. People often cannot resist the temptation of a certain environmental feature and will try to convince themselves they can study in its presence. For example, you may want to study while watching your favorite television show, but realistically, the best case scenario here is a divided attention. If what you’re studying is even a bit challenging, you will need more focus than what you’ll be able to devote when you’re also watching television. Be honest, therefore, about what can or cannot be in your environment while you study. You may need to be away from the television, your phone, and possibly even family members. Once you’ve decided on a distraction-free environment, take stock of all the things that you will need with you for an effective study session. This will certainly include your reading material and may also include things like a notebook, pens, highlighters, folders, coffee, water, and snacks. If you have all these things with you when you begin your study session, you won’t have to interrupt your study time to get them. This is important because leaving your study environment creates chances for distraction. You may go to the kitchen for a cup of coffee and find yourself in an extended conversation with a family member. By the time you make it back to your study environment, you may have lost your motivation, or you may have to move on to other life tasks.With a distraction-free environment, you’ll be able to spend less time studying because you’ll be using your time more efficiently. You’ll also feel more accomplished and better about studying, which will make it easier to come back to it with the consistency that you’ll need to make progress. With a little preparation work, you can establish a good environment and develop positive study habits.

    • A.Personal narrative
    • B.Descriptive detail
    • C.Sequential process
    • D.Feature comparison
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Sequential process

    Sequential process is the structure: the passage walks through ordered steps for setting up a study space (“First, assess your needs,” then “Once you’ve decided on a distraction-free environment, take stock of all the things that you will need”). Personal narrative is wrong because the passage tells no story about the writer’s own experiences; it gives instructions addressed to “you.” Descriptive detail is wrong because the passage explains a process rather than portraying a person, place, or thing. Feature comparison is wrong because the passage never sets two subjects side by side on shared points.

  62. The Dewey Decimal Classes: 000 Computer science, information, and general works 100 Philosophy and psychology 200 Religion 300 Social sciences 400 Languages 500 Science and mathematics 600 Technical and applied science 700 Arts and recreation 800 Literature 900 History, geography, and biography. During her research, Marta discovers that India was once a British colony. To which section of the library should she go to find out about the fall of the British empire?

    • A.300
    • B.900
    • C.000
    • D.600
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 900

    900 is correct: the fall of an empire is a historical event, and the 900 class covers “History, geography, and biography.” 300, Social sciences, covers subjects such as political science and economics; colonial politics may sound close, but an account of the empire’s fall is shelved as history. 000, Computer science, information, and general works, holds broad reference works rather than studies of one historical period. 600, Technical and applied science, covers engineering and other applied fields, not historical events.

  63. Play Therapy: Some might associate vibrant colored blocks and crayons with frivolity. For children, playing is not an absent way to kill time. Playing is a primary way for children to interpret experiences and communicate. So, mental health professionals have utilized play in children’s therapy since the early 1900s. Child-Centered Play Therapy (CCPT) resembles person-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers. It is the most prevalent play therapy approach in the U.S. The Association for Play Therapy (APT) was established in 1982. It has published many findings, developed training, and contributed to the rapid growth of play therapy over the past few decades. A well-trained therapist uses individualized play therapy in a variety of clinical applications. CCPT aims for children aged three to ten years. Ages two to ten (preoperational stage) have emerging abilities to represent surroundings in words and images. Four to seven is when reasoning and self-regulation skills develop. Cognition grows in complexity during the concrete operational stage from seven to eleven. Then comes abstract thought and deduction during the adolescent formal operational stage. Play therapy adapts to older children and adolescents, too. They begin to experience deeper emotional complexity and social relationships. Play therapy’s versatility and capacity to access nonverbal parts of the brain suits a host of challenges in addition to a range of age groups. It helps address aggression, ADHD, anxiety, depression, speech problems, and trauma. The principles behind CCPT mirror Carl Rogers’ standards. They emphasize empathy, acceptance, and unconditional positive regard for the client. The idea is to facilitate the child’s innate propensity for growth and self-directed healing. Therapists find imaginative ways to visualize difficult concepts, navigate relationships, and build confidence. CCPT appears in more than 90 cross-cultural studies spanning seven decades, including meta-analyses. The research shows encouraging outcomes for children across diverse circumstances and conditions. It works because play is a natural, enjoyable, and enriching state. It meets children where they are, to help them unlock their inner selves. Which of the following is the author’s main purpose for paragraph 2?

    • A.To trace early CCPT history and credential systems
    • B.To recap CCPT studies and largely positive results
    • C.To claim CCPT quickly cures anxiety and depression
    • D.To stress CCPT serves varied youths and objectives
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To stress CCPT serves varied youths and objectives

    To stress CCPT serves varied youths and objectives is the purpose of paragraph 2, which moves from children aged three to ten through older children and adolescents and then lists “aggression, ADHD, anxiety, depression, speech problems, and trauma.” To trace early CCPT history and credential systems belongs to paragraph 1, which covers play therapy “since the early 1900s” and the founding of the APT in 1982. To recap CCPT studies and largely positive results describes the later discussion of “more than 90 cross-cultural studies spanning seven decades.” To claim CCPT quickly cures anxiety and depression overstates paragraph 2, which says only that play therapy “helps address” such challenges.

  64. Play Therapy: Some might associate vibrant colored blocks and crayons with frivolity. For children, playing is not an absent way to kill time. Playing is a primary way for children to interpret experiences and communicate. So, mental health professionals have utilized play in children’s therapy since the early 1900s. Child-Centered Play Therapy (CCPT) resembles person-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers. It is the most prevalent play therapy approach in the U.S. The Association for Play Therapy (APT) was established in 1982. It has published many findings, developed training, and contributed to the rapid growth of play therapy over the past few decades. A well-trained therapist uses individualized play therapy in a variety of clinical applications. CCPT aims for children aged three to ten years. Ages two to ten (preoperational stage) have emerging abilities to represent surroundings in words and images. Four to seven is when reasoning and self-regulation skills develop. Cognition grows in complexity during the concrete operational stage from seven to eleven. Then comes abstract thought and deduction during the adolescent formal operational stage. Play therapy adapts to older children and adolescents, too. They begin to experience deeper emotional complexity and social relationships. Play therapy’s versatility and capacity to access nonverbal parts of the brain suits a host of challenges in addition to a range of age groups. It helps address aggression, ADHD, anxiety, depression, speech problems, and trauma. The principles behind CCPT mirror Carl Rogers’ standards. They emphasize empathy, acceptance, and unconditional positive regard for the client. The idea is to facilitate the child’s innate propensity for growth and self-directed healing. Therapists find imaginative ways to visualize difficult concepts, navigate relationships, and build confidence. CCPT appears in more than 90 cross-cultural studies spanning seven decades, including meta-analyses. The research shows encouraging outcomes for children across diverse circumstances and conditions. It works because play is a natural, enjoyable, and enriching state. It meets children where they are, to help them unlock their inner selves. What is the purpose of the last sentence of the passage?

    • A.It recruits the parents of CCPT candidates
    • B.It recaps the significance of CCPT briefly
    • C.It details the procedures of CCPT sessions
    • D.It extols the ingenuity of CCPT therapists
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It recaps the significance of CCPT briefly

    It recaps the significance of CCPT briefly is the purpose: the last sentence, “It meets children where they are, to help them unlock their inner selves,” closes the passage by restating in brief why CCPT matters. It recruits the parents of CCPT candidates is wrong because the sentence speaks about CCPT in general and never addresses parents or asks anyone to seek treatment. It details the procedures of CCPT sessions is wrong because “meets children where they are” states an aim, not a set of steps. It extols the ingenuity of CCPT therapists is wrong because the sentence is about what CCPT does for children; the therapists’ “imaginative ways” come earlier.

  65. The Necks of Flying Dinosaurs: During the late Cretaceous period, the skies were filled with giants. Around 70 million years ago, few creatures were safe from the pterosaurs who soared through the air and preyed on all kinds of living things below. The most formidable of them all, Quetzalcoatlus northropi, had a wingspan that stretched up to 33 feet and a neck as long as a giraffe’s. It is thought to be the largest living thing to ever fly. Until recently, scientists were at a loss to explain how this gargantuan creature could possibly carry heavy prey in its beak without breaking its long neck. This question has now been answered, thanks to a new study that found the flying reptile possess bones unlike any others found in nature. As a part of this breakthrough study, Ph.D. students at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign utilized a CT scan to analyze a pterosaur vertebra found in the Kem Kem fossil beds of Morocco. They couldn’t believe what they found. Inside, the vertebra was composed of an intricate network of struts, connecting a central tube to the outer walls of the bone. Its cross-section looks much like a bicycle wheel, with spokes radiating out from a central point. A bone like this had never been seen in the animal kingdom. The spoke structure allowed pterosaurs’ necks to be both lightweight and extremely strong. The team behind the discovery calculated that the addition of just 50 spokes increased the weight the bone could carry by 90 percent. The research team plans to follow up this study by scanning the vertebrae of other pterosaur species, to see whether they also possess this unique structure. In order to lift their massive bodies into the air, pterosaurs had to be exceptionally light for their size, and their bones needed to be thin and nearly hollow like those of a bird. As a result, their bones were exceedingly fragile and have mainly disintegrated over time. Though largely absent from the fossil record, pterosaur bones have been well preserved at the Kem Kem fossil site, which was once a thriving river system. Which of the following rephrases the author’s point of view that the discovery made by PhD students at University of Illinois was revolutionary?

    • A.The discovery merely confirmed a broadly shared assumption
    • B.The discovery documented a universal pterosaur bone design
    • C.The discovery remarkably solved a stubborn academic puzzle
    • D.The discovery revealed a dangerous pterosaur neck weakness
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The discovery remarkably solved a stubborn academic puzzle

    The discovery remarkably solved a stubborn academic puzzle rephrases the author’s view: “Until recently, scientists were at a loss to explain how this gargantuan creature could possibly carry heavy prey,” and the author calls the work a “breakthrough study” whose results the students “couldn’t believe.” The discovery merely confirmed a broadly shared assumption is contradicted, since “a bone like this had never been seen in the animal kingdom.” The discovery documented a universal pterosaur bone design overstates the finding, because the team still plans to scan other species “to see whether they also possess this unique structure.” The discovery revealed a dangerous pterosaur neck weakness reverses the finding that the spokes made the neck “both lightweight and extremely strong.”

  66. Which of the following statements indicates a stereotype?

    • A.Weekday visits are tied to school trips, whereas weekend crowds peak in afternoons
    • B.Gift shop sales are linked to exhibit premieres, whereas donations climb in winter
    • C.Art admissions are close to record highs, whereas history turnout dipped in autumn
    • D.Female students are naturally suited to visual art, whereas males excel in science
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Female students are naturally suited to visual art, whereas males excel in science

    Female students are naturally suited to visual art, whereas males excel in science is the stereotype: it assigns fixed abilities to everyone in a group based only on gender, an over-generalized belief rather than an observation. Weekday visits are tied to school trips, whereas weekend crowds peak in afternoons describes scheduling patterns at a museum, not a belief about a group of people. Gift shop sales are linked to exhibit premieres, whereas donations climb in winter reports a revenue trend that records can confirm. Art admissions are close to record highs, whereas history turnout dipped in autumn compares attendance figures, which are measurable facts rather than generalizations about people.

  67. The Necks of Flying Dinosaurs: During the late Cretaceous period, the skies were filled with giants. Around 70 million years ago, few creatures were safe from the pterosaurs who soared through the air and preyed on all kinds of living things below. The most formidable of them all, Quetzalcoatlus northropi, had a wingspan that stretched up to 33 feet and a neck as long as a giraffe’s. It is thought to be the largest living thing to ever fly. Until recently, scientists were at a loss to explain how this gargantuan creature could possibly carry heavy prey in its beak without breaking its long neck. This question has now been answered, thanks to a new study that found the flying reptile possess bones unlike any others found in nature. As a part of this breakthrough study, Ph.D. students at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign utilized a CT scan to analyze a pterosaur vertebra found in the Kem Kem fossil beds of Morocco. They couldn’t believe what they found. Inside, the vertebra was composed of an intricate network of struts, connecting a central tube to the outer walls of the bone. Its cross-section looks much like a bicycle wheel, with spokes radiating out from a central point. A bone like this had never been seen in the animal kingdom. The spoke structure allowed pterosaurs’ necks to be both lightweight and extremely strong. The team behind the discovery calculated that the addition of just 50 spokes increased the weight the bone could carry by 90 percent. The research team plans to follow up this study by scanning the vertebrae of other pterosaur species, to see whether they also possess this unique structure. In order to lift their massive bodies into the air, pterosaurs had to be exceptionally light for their size, and their bones needed to be thin and nearly hollow like those of a bird. As a result, their bones were exceedingly fragile and have mainly disintegrated over time. Though largely absent from the fossil record, pterosaur bones have been well preserved at the Kem Kem fossil site, which was once a thriving river system. What word best describes the author’s point of view?

    • A.Dazzled
    • B.Puzzled
    • C.Alarmed
    • D.Wistful
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Dazzled

    Dazzled best describes the author, who calls the work a “breakthrough study,” reports that the researchers “couldn’t believe what they found,” and describes bones “unlike any others found in nature.” Puzzled is wrong because the mystery belonged to scientists before the study; the author writes after the question “has now been answered.” Alarmed is wrong because the author describes the giant predators with admiration, not fear. Wistful is wrong because the author shows no longing or sadness about the past; the tone is one of excitement.

  68. Renting or Buying a Home?: For most people, housing is probably by far the biggest monthly expense. It’s understandable, therefore, that people want to figure out whether renting or buying a home is better. While cost is certainly a factor, you should also consider the level of responsibility and freedom you are looking for. If you buy a home, you will be responsible for all its repairs and replacements. This would be true even if the repairs are needed shortly after you move in. Depending upon the state of your home, this could end up adding significantly to your cost of living. However, with this responsibility comes complete decision-making freedom. If you want to change your paint color, you can do that. If you don’t like the flooring, you can change it to anything you want. It will take time and money, but you can customize your house to your liking. If you choose to rent a home, you will be spared the expenses of repairs and replacements. When there’s a leak in a pipe or the dryer doesn’t seem to be working (assuming a dryer was provided by the landlord), you can call the landlord or the property management office and they will make the necessary repairs at no cost to you. However, you will not get to make any decisions about how these repairs are conducted. For example, if the dryer needs to be replaced, you will not be able to pick the replacement. Likewise, you won’t be able to make any aesthetic changes to the home, at least not without the landlord’s permission. If the carpet or paint is not to your liking, you will simply have to accept it. Given these differences, which choice is better might depend on the level of commitment you’re ready to make to home maintenance and improvement. What is the structure of the passage?

    • A.Argumentative thesis
    • B.Comparative analysis
    • C.Causal relationships
    • D.Proposed resolutions
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Comparative analysis

    Comparative analysis is the structure: the passage weighs buying against renting on the same two points, responsibility for repairs and freedom to make changes. Argumentative thesis is wrong because the passage never argues for renting or for buying; it ends by saying the better choice “might depend on the level of commitment you’re ready to make.” Causal relationships is wrong because, although owning a home leads to repair costs, the passage is organized around two options set side by side, not a chain of causes and effects. Proposed resolutions is wrong because the passage poses a choice but offers no solution, leaving the decision to the reader.

  69. The Happy Planet Index The Happy Planet Index was developed by Nic Marks, an independent policy advisor who applies statistics to gain a deeper understanding of happiness and sustainability. The index seeks to provide a broader view of progress than that typically touted by governments. National progress is generally measured in economic terms, as if gross domestic product (GDP)1 itself can fully convey the wellbeing of a nation’s citizenry. However, it takes more than economic output to build happy lives for people and sustainability for the planet. What It Measures The Happy Planet Index measures four criteria: wellbeing, life expectancy, inequality of outcomes, and ecological footprint. A Happy Planet Index (HPI) score for a given nation is determined by multiplying the first of those three factors and dividing the resulting value by the fourth (ecological footprint). Some of these factors, like wellbeing, may seem hard to quantify, but a value is given to them, nonetheless. Wellbeing is assessed on a scale of 1-10 using data collected in a Gallup World Poll. Surprising Results HPI scores have been calculated for 140 countries, and the results may be surprising. Wealthy first-world countries tend to have poorer results. These countries have impressive GDPs and they’re powerful in many respects, but they don’t necessarily succeed at facilitating happy lives for their citizens in a way that is sustainable for the planet. The United States of America, for example, has an HPI score of 20.7, which gives it a rank of 108 out of 140. The US does reasonably well on life expectancy and wellbeing, but there’s room for improvement in equity. Most notably, though, the US does horribly on ecological footprint. The goal for the US and similar countries, then, would be to build on their strengths in a way that doesn’t cost the planet. 1 Defined by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development as “the standard measure of the value added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.” Which text feature highlights a specific, surprising conclusion of the Happy Planet Index research?

    • A.Footnote numerals
    • B.Boldfaced entries
    • C.Italicized phrase
    • D.Topic subheadings
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Italicized phrase

    Italicized phrase is the feature that marks a specific, surprising conclusion, because italic type sets a phrase apart for emphasis within the body text. Footnote numerals are wrong because the passage’s one footnote marker points to a definition of gross domestic product, not to a conclusion. Boldfaced entries are wrong because bold, where used, marks the heading and subheadings, which name sections rather than state findings. Topic subheadings are wrong because a subheading such as “Surprising Results” labels a whole section; it announces that results follow but does not single out the specific conclusion.

  70. Many Worlds in One Trek: Anyone in search of adventure can find it in unexpected places. All it takes is a working set of wheels and some time to kill. There are plentiful unexpected places along a unique route meandering northwest from that top-hat on Texas to Salt Lake City, Utah. Amarillo gets less attention than Texas’ other cities, but it characteristically offers plains, big sky, and plenty to eat. The Big Texan steakhouse signature 72 ouncer is on the house if you can finish it. From there, expect a couple zen hours of scraggy brush, ghost towns, and dirt. Approaching Albuquerque, NM, hills and windy roads start to appear. The sunsets here are breathtaking but blinding, so timing is key. Navajo and Ute lands appear next in dramatic fashion, boasting jaw-dropping buttes and mesas. Cutting across the tiniest southwest corner of Colorado, take a load off at the unassuming diner in Cortez for some hearty huevos rancheros. Another pit stop might be in order roughly ninety minutes later in Monticello, UT. Peaceful country roads lead from there towards the noble La Sal mountains with a foreground of rolling rock formations. Drawing closer to Moab and Arches National Park will bring surreal, Martian red landscapes well worth exploring. Rest up before braving a stretch of picturesque desert followed by a collage of majestic peaks and plunging vistas. Finally in Salt Lake City, remember to enjoy a satisfying victory lap across the gleaming salt flats. What is the main purpose of the text?

    • A.To treat readers to a delightful highlight montage
    • B.To help homebound readers to visualize a landscape
    • C.To persuade readers to follow a specific itinerary
    • D.To urge readers to embrace a spontaneous adventure
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To persuade readers to follow a specific itinerary

    To persuade readers to follow a specific itinerary is the main purpose: the third sentence names “a unique route meandering northwest from that top-hat on Texas to Salt Lake City, Utah,” and every later detail makes a stop on that route sound inviting. To treat readers to a delightful highlight montage mistakes the method for the purpose; the highlights are entertaining, but they serve to sell the route. To help homebound readers to visualize a landscape is wrong because the text addresses travelers with “a working set of wheels” and tells them where to stop and eat, not readers staying home. To urge readers to embrace a spontaneous adventure is too broad: the opening line about adventure in “unexpected places” leads straight into one particular route.

  71. The Leaning Tower Building the Leaning Tower of Pisa took 200 years before it was finally completed in 1372. However, five years after the work had begun in 1173, the tower started tilting. As it was in danger of collapsing, the tower was closed to the public in 1990. A British-led team of 13 experts was appointed by the Italian government to lay out a ‘straightening’ plan. The stabilizing work was completed in 2001, straightening the tower by 38cm. In 2013, a study found that the tower had straightened by a further 2.5cm. The tower is expected to continue to straighten by another few millimeters, before gradually leaning again. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?

    • A.Persuasive
    • B.Expository
    • C.Reflective
    • D.Procedural
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Expository

    Expository is correct because the passage informs readers about the Leaning Tower of Pisa with dates and figures, such as the 38cm straightening completed in 2001, and offers no opinion. Persuasive is wrong because the author never argues for a position or urges readers to act. Reflective is wrong because the passage shares no personal thoughts or feelings. Procedural is wrong because the passage gives no steps for readers to follow.

  72. A voter is researching a ballot proposition. Which of the following is a primary source that the voter could use to learn more about this topic?

    • A.The radio critique of the ballot proposition
    • B.The expert opinion of the ballot proposition
    • C.The certified text of the ballot proposition
    • D.The newscast recap of the ballot proposition
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The certified text of the ballot proposition

    The certified text of the ballot proposition is the primary source, because it is the proposition itself, the original document the voter is researching. The radio critique of the ballot proposition is a secondary source, one commentator’s judgment of the measure. The expert opinion of the ballot proposition is also secondary, since it interprets the measure rather than presenting it. The newscast recap of the ballot proposition is secondary as well, a condensed report that is one step removed from the original wording.

  73. Surgeons and Robots: Robots currently play a vital role in the operating room, from aiding surgeons in minute tasks to reducing the size and number of incisions required to perform many surgeries. With advances in robotic systems and artificial intelligence, robots could be poised to have an even bigger impact on the way surgeries are done. While many operations once required incisions large enough for a doctor’s hands to access the body cavity, robotic technology now allows for the same tasks to be accomplished with only small incisions in what is known as minimally invasive surgeries. During these procedures, robotic arms enter the body through an opening about the size of a keyhole and are controlled by surgeons with the aid of a camera inserted through another small incision. This type of surgery significantly reduces strain on the body and cuts down on recovery time. Some new robots are even able to accomplish major surgical procedures through just a single incision. In a single-incision surgery, the camera and tools are all inserted through just one small opening. In the case of one robot that is currently in development, this incision is only six-tenths of an inch. Questions remain, however, about how viable this technology really is in a real-world hospital context. The machines required are incredibly costly and many hospitals may not be convinced that the benefits of single-incision surgery justify the steep price tag. Regardless, researchers have been testing the possibility of using artificial intelligence (AI) in performing some simple surgical tasks autonomously – with a human surgeon observing but not actually controlling the machine. Advances in machine learning can enable robots to watch videos of human-controlled surgeries and effectively “learn” how to perform procedures such as incisions or sutures. These autonomous robots would have the benefit of relieving the load of over-worked surgeons and cutting down on costly mistakes if done reliably. So far, the robots have not proven themselves to be as effective as humans, but researchers claim that it is only a matter of time until they are able to reliably perform tasks on their own. Further advances in the field could open up the possibility of remote surgery, allowing doctors to operate on patients who are miles away, on a distant battlefield, or even, someday, on the moon. Which word best describes the author’s attitude towards robotic technology?

    • A.The author warns doctors to distrust surgical robots
    • B.The author expects robots to extend healthcare reach
    • C.The author deems machines unable to learn procedures
    • D.The author considers robots too expensive to justify
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The author expects robots to extend healthcare reach

    The author expects robots to extend healthcare reach describes the author’s attitude: the passage closes by imagining remote surgery that would let “doctors to operate on patients who are miles away, on a distant battlefield, or even, someday, on the moon.” The author warns doctors to distrust surgical robots is contradicted by the author’s favorable account of shorter recovery and less strain on the body. The author deems machines unable to learn procedures is contradicted, because the passage reports that robots can “learn” procedures from videos and that it is “only a matter of time” before they perform tasks reliably. The author considers robots too expensive to justify misreads the cost concern, which the passage attributes to hospitals and then sets aside with “Regardless.”

  74. Many Worlds in One Trek: Anyone in search of adventure can find it in unexpected places. All it takes is a working set of wheels and some time to kill. There are plentiful unexpected places along a unique route meandering northwest from that top-hat on Texas to Salt Lake City, Utah. Amarillo gets less attention than Texas’ other cities, but it characteristically offers plains, big sky, and plenty to eat. The Big Texan steakhouse signature 72 ouncer is on the house if you can finish it. From there, expect a couple zen hours of scraggy brush, ghost towns, and dirt. Approaching Albuquerque, NM, hills and windy roads start to appear. The sunsets here are breathtaking but blinding, so timing is key. Navajo and Ute lands appear next in dramatic fashion, boasting jaw-dropping buttes and mesas. Cutting across the tiniest southwest corner of Colorado, take a load off at the unassuming diner in Cortez for some hearty huevos rancheros. Another pit stop might be in order roughly ninety minutes later in Monticello, UT. Peaceful country roads lead from there towards the noble La Sal mountains with a foreground of rolling rock formations. Drawing closer to Moab and Arches National Park will bring surreal, Martian red landscapes well worth exploring. Rest up before braving a stretch of picturesque desert followed by a collage of majestic peaks and plunging vistas. Finally in Salt Lake City, remember to enjoy a satisfying victory lap across the gleaming salt flats. Which of the following is the author’s main purpose for paragraph 2?

    • A.To specify the roads of the latter stretch
    • B.To list the main sights of the destination
    • C.To show the scenery of the southern plains
    • D.To illustrate the final leg of the journey
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To illustrate the final leg of the journey

    To illustrate the final leg of the journey is the purpose of paragraph 2, which starts where “Navajo and Ute lands appear next” and ends with “a satisfying victory lap across the gleaming salt flats” of Salt Lake City. To specify the roads of the latter stretch confuses description with directions: the paragraph names places and scenery but no highways or turns. To list the main sights of the destination is too narrow, since only the last sentence concerns Salt Lake City itself. To show the scenery of the southern plains belongs to the opening leg near Amarillo, which “offers plains, big sky, and plenty to eat.”

  75. Motivation: I woke up early and got ready as quickly as possible. Within thirty minutes, I had eaten my breakfast and was out the door speed walking to my 8 A.M. advanced German grammar and translation class. I would be on time, but being on time wasn’t good enough. I needed to be early. I arrived seven minutes early and slightly out of breath. The board was numbered one through twenty; sentences one through nine had already been completed and other students were working on eleven and twelve. Thirteen won’t be bad, I thought. I quickly put down my bag and began rummaging in it for my notebook. Someone rushed past me and took sentence thirteen. Fine. Fourteen it is. At 8 A.M. exactly, the professor entered the classroom and began going over the translation sentences with us. Each class session, we had to have twenty English to German translations complete. The lower numbers were easier while the higher numbers were hard. Everyone was eager to get an easier sentence because not only did we have to put them up on the board, but we also had to explain our translation in front of the class. No one wanted to get one wrong in front of the class. I’ve never before or since seen a class of students so eager to be early to an already early class. What is the structure of the passage?

    • A.Descriptive detail
    • B.Problem resolution
    • C.Causal explanation
    • D.Narrative anecdote
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Narrative anecdote

    Narrative anecdote is the structure: a first-person narrator tells the story of one morning in order (“I woke up early,” “I arrived seven minutes early,” “At 8 A.M. exactly, the professor entered”). Descriptive detail is wrong because the classroom routine is told through the narrator’s experience of events, not laid out as a general description. Problem resolution is wrong because, although the students compete for the easier sentences, the passage does not present a problem and a proposed solution. Causal explanation is wrong because the reason the students arrive early is one detail inside the story, not the organizing principle of the passage.

  76. A parent wants to learn about the academic achievements of students in local high schools. Which of the following is a primary source that the parent could use to locate information on this topic?

    • A.Academic multiyear analyses of the schools
    • B.Television news assessments of the schools
    • C.Published magazine rankings of the schools
    • D.Recorded proficiency scores of the schools
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Recorded proficiency scores of the schools

    Recorded proficiency scores of the schools is the primary source, because test scores are the raw data on student achievement, produced directly by the schools. Academic multiyear analyses of the schools are secondary sources: scholars interpret the scores, even when they reproduce some of them. Television news assessments of the schools are secondary as well, a reporter’s account of results gathered by others. Published magazine rankings of the schools are secondary too, since a ranking is built from other people’s data and adds the publisher’s own judgments.

  77. The Happy Planet Index The Happy Planet Index was developed by Nic Marks, an independent policy advisor who applies statistics to gain a deeper understanding of happiness and sustainability. The index seeks to provide a broader view of progress than that typically touted by governments. National progress is generally measured in economic terms, as if gross domestic product (GDP)1 itself can fully convey the wellbeing of a nation’s citizenry. However, it takes more than economic output to build happy lives for people and sustainability for the planet. What It Measures The Happy Planet Index measures four criteria: wellbeing, life expectancy, inequality of outcomes, and ecological footprint. A Happy Planet Index (HPI) score for a given nation is determined by multiplying the first of those three factors and dividing the resulting value by the fourth (ecological footprint). Some of these factors, like wellbeing, may seem hard to quantify, but a value is given to them, nonetheless. Wellbeing is assessed on a scale of 1-10 using data collected in a Gallup World Poll. Surprising Results HPI scores have been calculated for 140 countries, and the results may be surprising. Wealthy first-world countries tend to have poorer results. These countries have impressive GDPs and they’re powerful in many respects, but they don’t necessarily succeed at facilitating happy lives for their citizens in a way that is sustainable for the planet. The United States of America, for example, has an HPI score of 20.7, which gives it a rank of 108 out of 140. The US does reasonably well on life expectancy and wellbeing, but there’s room for improvement in equity. Most notably, though, the US does horribly on ecological footprint. The goal for the US and similar countries, then, would be to build on their strengths in a way that doesn’t cost the planet. 1 Defined by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development as “the standard measure of the value added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.” What information is included in the footnote?

    • A.The footnote formally defines gross domestic product.
    • B.The footnote openly critiques gross domestic product.
    • C.The footnote fully quantifies gross domestic product.
    • D.The footnote briefly outlines happiness poll methods.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The footnote formally defines gross domestic product.

    The footnote formally defines gross domestic product. It quotes the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development’s definition, “the standard measure of the value added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.” The footnote openly critiques gross domestic product. is wrong because the criticism of GDP appears in the body of the passage, while the footnote only defines the term. The footnote fully quantifies gross domestic product. is wrong because the footnote gives no figure for any country. The footnote briefly outlines happiness poll methods. is wrong because the Gallup World Poll and its 1-10 scale are described in the body, not in the footnote.

  78. The Happy Planet Index The Happy Planet Index was developed by Nic Marks, an independent policy advisor who applies statistics to gain a deeper understanding of happiness and sustainability. The index seeks to provide a broader view of progress than that typically touted by governments. National progress is generally measured in economic terms, as if gross domestic product (GDP)1 itself can fully convey the wellbeing of a nation’s citizenry. However, it takes more than economic output to build happy lives for people and sustainability for the planet. What It Measures The Happy Planet Index measures four criteria: wellbeing, life expectancy, inequality of outcomes, and ecological footprint. A Happy Planet Index (HPI) score for a given nation is determined by multiplying the first of those three factors and dividing the resulting value by the fourth (ecological footprint). Some of these factors, like wellbeing, may seem hard to quantify, but a value is given to them, nonetheless. Wellbeing is assessed on a scale of 1-10 using data collected in a Gallup World Poll. Surprising Results HPI scores have been calculated for 140 countries, and the results may be surprising. Wealthy first-world countries tend to have poorer results. These countries have impressive GDPs and they’re powerful in many respects, but they don’t necessarily succeed at facilitating happy lives for their citizens in a way that is sustainable for the planet. The United States of America, for example, has an HPI score of 20.7, which gives it a rank of 108 out of 140. The US does reasonably well on life expectancy and wellbeing, but there’s room for improvement in equity. Most notably, though, the US does horribly on ecological footprint. The goal for the US and similar countries, then, would be to build on their strengths in a way that doesn’t cost the planet. 1 Defined by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development as “the standard measure of the value added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.” What is the purpose of the headings/subheadings in this passage?

    • A.They recap the findings and overall verdicts
    • B.They define the terms and technical concepts
    • C.They emphasize the thesis and central claims
    • D.They preview the subject and later subtopics
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: They preview the subject and later subtopics

    They preview the subject and later subtopics states the purpose: the heading “The Happy Planet Index” names the topic, and subheadings such as “What It Measures” and “Surprising Results” announce the part of that topic each section covers. They recap the findings and overall verdicts is wrong because the headings come before the content and summarize nothing. They define the terms and technical concepts is wrong because definitions appear in the body and the footnote, not in the headings. They emphasize the thesis and central claims is wrong because the headings are neutral labels; the claims themselves are made in the body text.

  79. Surgeons and Robots: Robots currently play a vital role in the operating room, from aiding surgeons in minute tasks to reducing the size and number of incisions required to perform many surgeries. With advances in robotic systems and artificial intelligence, robots could be poised to have an even bigger impact on the way surgeries are done. While many operations once required incisions large enough for a doctor’s hands to access the body cavity, robotic technology now allows for the same tasks to be accomplished with only small incisions in what is known as minimally invasive surgeries. During these procedures, robotic arms enter the body through an opening about the size of a keyhole and are controlled by surgeons with the aid of a camera inserted through another small incision. This type of surgery significantly reduces strain on the body and cuts down on recovery time. Some new robots are even able to accomplish major surgical procedures through just a single incision. In a single-incision surgery, the camera and tools are all inserted through just one small opening. In the case of one robot that is currently in development, this incision is only six-tenths of an inch. Questions remain, however, about how viable this technology really is in a real-world hospital context. The machines required are incredibly costly and many hospitals may not be convinced that the benefits of single-incision surgery justify the steep price tag. Regardless, researchers have been testing the possibility of using artificial intelligence (AI) in performing some simple surgical tasks autonomously – with a human surgeon observing but not actually controlling the machine. Advances in machine learning can enable robots to watch videos of human-controlled surgeries and effectively “learn” how to perform procedures such as incisions or sutures. These autonomous robots would have the benefit of relieving the load of over-worked surgeons and cutting down on costly mistakes if done reliably. So far, the robots have not proven themselves to be as effective as humans, but researchers claim that it is only a matter of time until they are able to reliably perform tasks on their own. Further advances in the field could open up the possibility of remote surgery, allowing doctors to operate on patients who are miles away, on a distant battlefield, or even, someday, on the moon. Which word best describes the author’s point of view towards AI?

    • A.Optimistic
    • B.Ambivalent
    • C.Suspicious
    • D.Apathetic
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Optimistic

    Optimistic is correct: the author closes by saying further advances "could open up the possibility of remote surgery," even "someday, on the moon," and presents AI as a way of "relieving the load of over-worked surgeons." Ambivalent is incorrect: the author notes a limit ("the robots have not proven themselves to be as effective as humans") but is not torn, and the passage ends on hope. Suspicious is incorrect: the doubts about cost belong to hospitals that "may not be convinced," not to the author, who moves on with "Regardless." Apathetic is incorrect: an author who details AI's possible benefits and looks ahead to surgery on the moon is engaged with the topic, not indifferent to it.

  80. Not us Don’t try us if you are afraid of excitement. Don’t try us if you fear thrilling rides. Don’t try us if you are scared of entertainment at its best. But if you want a one-of-a-kind, fun-packed experience then look no further Visit Rockin’ & Rollin’ theme park! The biggest and boldest entertainment park in the southern states. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?

    • A.Narrative writing
    • B.Expository writing
    • C.Persuasive writing
    • D.Technical writing
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Persuasive writing

    Persuasive writing is correct: the advertisement wants readers to act, ending with the command "Visit Rockin' & Rollin' theme park!" and selling it as "one-of-a-kind" and "fun-packed." Narrative writing is incorrect because no story unfolds; there are no characters or events, only a sales pitch. Expository writing is incorrect because the text does not explain a topic neutrally; every claim, such as "The biggest and boldest entertainment park," is promotion. Technical writing is incorrect because the text gives no steps or procedures to follow.

  81. Transitioning from High School to College: In order to transition effectively from high school to college, it’s important for students to recognize the different level of academic responsibility that will be expected of them. While all classes are different, college classes generally require a greater amount of out-of-class study and preparation time than high school classes do. College classes may have a significant amount of reading meant to be completed on students’ own study time. Class time will likely build on that material or related material, but not repeat it directly. College classes are also more likely to require extensive research projects and longer essays. This also means more out-of-class preparation time than one likely experienced in high school. College students may also find fewer opportunities for make-up work should they get behind in their coursework. Late policies are often stricter in college classes than in high school classes. Additionally, while small amounts of extra credit may be offered in a given college course, college students should not expect that an extra credit assignment can take the place of a significant amount of missed work throughout the quarter or semester. Ultimately, it is generally harder to catch up in a college class than a high school class should one lag behind. This means that college students will need to take on a greater amount of academic responsibility. This might seem daunting, but it doesn’t have to be. Consistent effort throughout the term will pay off with more learning and less stress! What is the structure of the passage?

    • A.Problem-solution
    • B.Cause-effect
    • C.Chronological
    • D.Compare-contrast
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Compare-contrast

    Compare-contrast is correct: the passage sets college against high school point by point, saying college classes "require a greater amount of out-of-class study and preparation time than high school classes do" and that "Late policies are often stricter in college classes than in high school classes." Problem-solution is incorrect: the closing advice ("Consistent effort throughout the term will pay off") is a single sentence, not the frame that organizes the passage. Cause-effect is incorrect: the passage mentions results ("This also means more out-of-class preparation time"), but each point is built as a high school versus college comparison. Chronological is incorrect because the passage does not move through events in time order.

  82. The Walk We had been walking for hours and I had fallen behind. I was tired and hungry, and I couldn’t wait to get to my uncle’s villa. I had now reached the end of the woods and the trees were behind me. I couldn’t see the others yet, but I could hear the waterfalls and my cousin calling me. “Come on, Adam, hurry up! You won’t believe your eyes!”, she said. Filled with excitement, I ran as fast as I was able to. They had already gone in, lit a fire, and started cooking. The fresh air had given me lots of unexpected energy and I wanted to make myself useful, but there was nothing for me to do. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?

    • A.Persuasive writing
    • B.Narrative writing
    • C.Expository writing
    • D.Technical writing
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Narrative writing

    Narrative writing is correct: a first-person narrator ("We had been walking for hours and I had fallen behind") tells a story with characters, dialogue ("Come on, Adam, hurry up!") and events in sequence. Persuasive writing is incorrect because nothing urges the reader to believe or do anything. Expository writing is incorrect because the passage does not explain a topic; it recounts an experience. Technical writing is incorrect because the passage contains no instructions or procedures.

  83. The Dewey Decimal Classes: 000 Computer science, information, and general works 100 Philosophy and psychology 200 Religion 300 Social sciences 400 Languages 500 Science and mathematics 600 Technical and applied science 700 Arts and recreation 800 Literature 900 History, geography, and biography. Stuti needs to do research on residential buildings. To which section of the library should she go to?

    • A.700
    • B.000
    • C.300
    • D.900
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 700

    700 is correct: residential buildings are a subject of architecture, and the Dewey system shelves architecture under Arts and recreation, in the 720s. 300 is incorrect: Social sciences covers subjects such as economics, law and government, not the design of homes. 000 is incorrect: Computer science, information, and general works holds encyclopedias and other general reference works, not specialized books on architecture. 900 is incorrect: History, geography, and biography covers past events, places and people, not how buildings are designed.

  84. The Happy Planet Index The Happy Planet Index was developed by Nic Marks, an independent policy advisor who applies statistics to gain a deeper understanding of happiness and sustainability. The index seeks to provide a broader view of progress than that typically touted by governments. National progress is generally measured in economic terms, as if gross domestic product (GDP)1 itself can fully convey the wellbeing of a nation’s citizenry. However, it takes more than economic output to build happy lives for people and sustainability for the planet. What It Measures The Happy Planet Index measures four criteria: wellbeing, life expectancy, inequality of outcomes, and ecological footprint. A Happy Planet Index (HPI) score for a given nation is determined by multiplying the first of those three factors and dividing the resulting value by the fourth (ecological footprint). Some of these factors, like wellbeing, may seem hard to quantify, but a value is given to them, nonetheless. Wellbeing is assessed on a scale of 1-10 using data collected in a Gallup World Poll. Surprising Results HPI scores have been calculated for 140 countries, and the results may be surprising. Wealthy first-world countries tend to have poorer results. These countries have impressive GDPs and they’re powerful in many respects, but they don’t necessarily succeed at facilitating happy lives for their citizens in a way that is sustainable for the planet. The United States of America, for example, has an HPI score of 20.7, which gives it a rank of 108 out of 140. The US does reasonably well on life expectancy and wellbeing, but there’s room for improvement in equity. Most notably, though, the US does horribly on ecological footprint. The goal for the US and similar countries, then, would be to build on their strengths in a way that doesn’t cost the planet. 1 Defined by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development as “the standard measure of the value added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.” What is the meaning of the superscript “1” in the passage?

    • A.It marks key vocabulary collected in a glossary
    • B.It marks extra information placed in a footnote
    • C.It marks exponent notation written in a formula
    • D.It marks happiness figures presented in a table
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It marks extra information placed in a footnote

    It marks extra information placed in a footnote is correct: the superscript follows "gross domestic product (GDP)" and matches the numbered note at the end of the passage, which gives a definition of GDP that would interrupt the main text. It marks key vocabulary collected in a glossary is incorrect: the passage has no glossary; the note sits directly below the text and is tied to one numbered reference. It marks exponent notation written in a formula is incorrect: although an HPI score is calculated by multiplying and dividing, GDP is not a quantity raised to a power here. It marks happiness figures presented in a table is incorrect: the passage contains no table, and the note defines GDP rather than reporting the Gallup wellbeing data.

  85. Website The first step to building your own website is to find a domain name that you like and that is available. Think of something catchy! Remember to register it, so that nobody else can use it. Next, you need to choose a hosting service and connect it to your website. At this point, you are ready to install the software that will enable you to create your website how you want it to be. Choose a suitable design in line with the message you want to send across the web. Configuration is the next step, to give your visitors the best experience possible. Well done, your website is all set! All that is left to do now is to add your content. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?

    • A.Narrative writing
    • B.Persuasive writing
    • C.Technical writing
    • D.Expository writing
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Technical writing

    Technical writing is correct: the text walks the reader through ordered steps for building a website: "The first step to building your own website is to find a domain name," "Next, you need to choose a hosting service," and "Configuration is the next step." Narrative writing is incorrect because no story with characters or events is told. Persuasive writing is incorrect: lines like "Think of something catchy!" encourage the reader, but the purpose is to instruct, not to win agreement. Expository writing is incorrect because the text gives a procedure to follow rather than general information about websites.

  86. The Dewey Decimal Classes: 000 Computer science, information, and general works 100 Philosophy and psychology 200 Religion 300 Social sciences 400 Languages 500 Science and mathematics 600 Technical and applied science 700 Arts and recreation 800 Literature 900 History, geography, and biography. James needs to do research on Christian theology. To which section of the library should he go to?

    • A.100
    • B.800
    • C.900
    • D.200
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 200

    200 is correct: Christian theology is the study of a religion's beliefs, and the Dewey list places it under Religion. 100 is incorrect: Philosophy and psychology covers subjects such as ethics and logic; a reader who treats theology as a branch of philosophy may go there, but works on a particular faith are shelved in the 200s. 800 is incorrect: Literature holds poetry, drama and fiction, not the study of religious doctrine. 900 is incorrect: History, geography, and biography covers past events and places; it would hold a history of the church, not its theology.

  87. After careful examination, the researchers managed to date the fossil back to 3000 years ago. Date v. 1. a specific day or year on which a given event occurred or will occur 2. a person with whom one has a social or romantic appointment 3. to go out with someone that one is romantically involved with 4. to establish the year/period of origin of an object or event. Which of the following dictionary definitions best fits the word date as used in context?

    • A.Entry 1: calendar time
    • B.Entry 4: determine age
    • C.Entry 2: dinner companion
    • D.Entry 3: romance somebody
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Entry 4: determine age

    Entry 4: determine age is correct: in "the researchers managed to date the fossil back to 3000 years ago," date is a verb meaning to establish the period of origin of an object, here the fossil. Entry 1: calendar time is incorrect: it is a noun naming the day or year of an event, but the sentence needs an action the researchers performed. Entry 2: dinner companion is incorrect: it is a noun naming a romantic or social companion, which does not fit a fossil. Entry 3: romance somebody is incorrect: it is a verb, but it means to go out with someone romantically, which makes no sense for researchers examining a fossil.

  88. Confirmation Bias When someone is influenced by confirmation bias, that person is not being objective, although they likely won’t recognize this. Confirmation bias means to favor information that confirms a viewpoint that one already holds. Should the information be of questionable credibility, the person will often overlook or excuse any problems. They may not pay attention to such problems as an author’s lack of authority on an issue, inadequate research, or illogical arguments. They will wish to validate the information because it validates their beliefs. However, confirmation bias will influence someone to respond quite differently to information that does not support the person’s pre-existing viewpoint. Even if a text is credible and makes a logical argument, the person will be inclined to find fault with it for one reason or another. The perceived fault may not even be actually present, but the person seeks an excuse to not deal with the substance of the argument. Ultimately, this is a defense mechanism to preserve belief in a viewpoint that one finds comforting on some level. The confirmation bias is likely to be stronger if the topic is something that bolsters a person’s worldview or sense of self. What is the structure of the passage?

    • A.Problem-solution
    • B.Chronological
    • C.Compare-contrast
    • D.Argumentative
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Compare-contrast

    Compare-contrast is correct: the passage first shows how a person under confirmation bias treats information that supports their view ("the person will often overlook or excuse any problems"), then sets that against the opposite case: "However, confirmation bias will influence someone to respond quite differently to information that does not support the person's pre-existing viewpoint." Problem-solution is incorrect: the bias is presented as a problem, but no remedy is offered. Chronological is incorrect because the passage does not trace events in time order. Argumentative is incorrect: the author explains how the bias works rather than defending a position against opposing views.

  89. The Cascadia Subduction Zone: Picture the millions of people living in and around Portland and Seattle. They bustle about their daily lives right on the precipice of the West Coast of the United states. Now, zoom out. Seven hundred miles off that Pacific Northwest Coast lies the Cascadia Subduction Zone. It is situated within the 500 km by 40,000 km Ring of Fire — the volcanic hotbed wrapped around the Pacific Ocean rim. The name comes from the Cascadia Range, roughly one hundred miles inland. The volcanic mountain range stretches from northern California, up through Oregon and Washington to British Columbia. There is evidence of destructive earthquakes at the Cascadia Subduction Zone long before all those people got there. Another might be around the corner. Near the Washington coast, there is a ghost forest. Soil layers and dendrochronology (the study of growth-ring patterns) show that an entire grove of cedars suddenly died between August 1699 and May 1700. The cause was an earthquake that made the ground drop out from under itself. An ‘orphan tsunami’ of unknown origin at the time occurred on the coast of Japan. In 1966, seismologists determined that the magnitude-9.0 earthquake and land drop that killed the cedars of coastal Washington’s ghost forest created a massive wave half a continent long that struck the Northwest coast and then Japan. First nation tribes of the area have also passed down accounts of this event. Seafloor core samples recording the past ten thousand years of geographic history depict a deposit from torrents of land rushing off the continental slope. This evidence offers glimpses into the frequency and extent of Cascadia Subduction Zone ruptures. 41 times over the past 10,000 years, land has collapsed into the seafloor from earthquakes in the Pacific Northwest, leaving deposits. That is a recurrence interval of 243 years. The most recent earthquake happened there in 1700 (320 years ago), so the Pacific Northwest is almost 80 years overdue for another devastating event. Chris Goldfinger is a scientist studying the Cascadia Subduction Zone’s volatility. He predicts a one in three chance of a big earthquake in the next 50 years, and a one in ten chance of a completely catastrophic one. What is the author’s purpose for writing this passage?

    • A.To remind readers of the destruction of a cedar forest in the Pacific Northwest in earlier centuries
    • B.To persuade readers of the importance of a family emergency plan in the Pacific Northwest in advance
    • C.To inform readers of the likelihood of a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest in future decades
    • D.To advise readers of the mechanics of a subduction zone in the Pacific Northwest in technical detail
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To inform readers of the likelihood of a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest in future decades

    To inform readers of the likelihood of a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest in future decades is correct: the passage builds from past evidence to a forecast, ending with "a recurrence interval of 243 years," a region "almost 80 years overdue," and Goldfinger's "one in three chance of a big earthquake in the next 50 years," all in a neutral, informative tone. To remind readers of the destruction of a cedar forest in the Pacific Northwest in earlier centuries is incorrect: the ghost forest is one piece of evidence in the middle of the passage, not its purpose. To persuade readers of the importance of a family emergency plan in the Pacific Northwest in advance is incorrect: the passage never tells readers what to do. To advise readers of the mechanics of a subduction zone in the Pacific Northwest in technical detail is incorrect: the passage locates the zone and dates its earthquakes but never explains how subduction works.

  90. The Decapitating Sea Slug: While the placid shallow waters of the South Pacific Ocean might call to mind images of tropical love stories, beneath their tranquil surface dwells a creature whose regenerative ability is more akin to the grisly spectacle of a horror film. This monster is no toothy menace, but rather the leaf-like sea slug, Elysia marginata. Recently, scientists have discovered that these slugs are able to decapitate themselves and regrow brand new bodies in a matter of weeks. This shocking finding represents a novel scientific discovery with numerous potential applications for human medicine. A few years ago, researchers at Nara Women’s University in Japan were astounded to find the severed head of one of their laboratory’s Elysia marginata sea slugs crawling away from its discarded body, continuing to eat algae as if nothing had occurred. Meanwhile, the body continued to show signs of life, wriggling and writhing around, with its heart still beating. Within three weeks, the sea slug had regrown a brand new body from the base of its detached head. While this kind of self-amputation, called autotomy, is not altogether uncommon across the animal kingdom, the sea slug’s feat is notable for the complexity of the body parts that it is able to regenerate. Various species of reptiles and insects are known to detach limbs in order to escape predation, and simple-bodied organisms like flatworms and sea squirts are able to regenerate large portions of their bodies. In each of these cases, however, the regrown body parts are relatively straightforward structures. Elysia marginata, on the other hand, is the first animal known to detach its entire body and then regrow vital organs such as its heart and kidneys. The secret to an Elysia marginata’s regeneration appears to lie in the chloroplasts that it hijacks from algae. Chloroplasts are the green-tinted drivers of photosynthesis that algae and other plants use to draw energy directly from the sun’s rays. Incredibly, when these sea slugs eat algae, they incorporate these chloroplasts into their own cells, giving them the nickname “solar-powered sea slugs”, and allowing them to synthesize sugars directly from the sun and thus survive without their organs. The sea slug’s radical autotomy appears to be a way to rid itself of parasitic infection. All of the individuals in the lab who underwent self-decapitation were observed to be carrying harmful parasites. After regenerating their bodies, these parasites were nowhere to be found. While researchers are thrilled by these novel discoveries, much remains unknown about the biological processes that enable this amazing phenomenon. Scientists believe that deepening our understanding of these slugs could one day lead to advances in regenerative medicine and other scientific fields. Which word best describes the author’s attitude towards sea slugs?

    • A.Disturbing
    • B.Intriguing
    • C.Unexciting
    • D.Menacing
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Intriguing

    Intriguing is correct: the author calls the slug's regrowth an "amazing phenomenon," introduces its theft of chloroplasts with "Incredibly," and stresses that studying it "could one day lead to advances in regenerative medicine." Disturbing is incorrect: the comparison to "the grisly spectacle of a horror film" is a playful hook, and the rest of the passage describes the slugs with admiration, not unease. Menacing is incorrect: the passage says outright that "This monster is no toothy menace." Unexciting is incorrect: an author who calls the finding "shocking" and "novel" and the slug's feat "notable" finds it anything but dull.

  91. The Decapitating Sea Slug: While the placid shallow waters of the South Pacific Ocean might call to mind images of tropical love stories, beneath their tranquil surface dwells a creature whose regenerative ability is more akin to the grisly spectacle of a horror film. This monster is no toothy menace, but rather the leaf-like sea slug, Elysia marginata. Recently, scientists have discovered that these slugs are able to decapitate themselves and regrow brand new bodies in a matter of weeks. This shocking finding represents a novel scientific discovery with numerous potential applications for human medicine. A few years ago, researchers at Nara Women’s University in Japan were astounded to find the severed head of one of their laboratory’s Elysia marginata sea slugs crawling away from its discarded body, continuing to eat algae as if nothing had occurred. Meanwhile, the body continued to show signs of life, wriggling and writhing around, with its heart still beating. Within three weeks, the sea slug had regrown a brand new body from the base of its detached head. While this kind of self-amputation, called autotomy, is not altogether uncommon across the animal kingdom, the sea slug’s feat is notable for the complexity of the body parts that it is able to regenerate. Various species of reptiles and insects are known to detach limbs in order to escape predation, and simple-bodied organisms like flatworms and sea squirts are able to regenerate large portions of their bodies. In each of these cases, however, the regrown body parts are relatively straightforward structures. Elysia marginata, on the other hand, is the first animal known to detach its entire body and then regrow vital organs such as its heart and kidneys. The secret to an Elysia marginata’s regeneration appears to lie in the chloroplasts that it hijacks from algae. Chloroplasts are the green-tinted drivers of photosynthesis that algae and other plants use to draw energy directly from the sun’s rays. Incredibly, when these sea slugs eat algae, they incorporate these chloroplasts into their own cells, giving them the nickname “solar-powered sea slugs”, and allowing them to synthesize sugars directly from the sun and thus survive without their organs. The sea slug’s radical autotomy appears to be a way to rid itself of parasitic infection. All of the individuals in the lab who underwent self-decapitation were observed to be carrying harmful parasites. After regenerating their bodies, these parasites were nowhere to be found. While researchers are thrilled by these novel discoveries, much remains unknown about the biological processes that enable this amazing phenomenon. Scientists believe that deepening our understanding of these slugs could one day lead to advances in regenerative medicine and other scientific fields. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author’s opinion about autotomy?

    • A.We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is intriguing yet standard.
    • B.We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is boring yet widespread.
    • C.We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is astonishing yet unusual.
    • D.We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is sickening yet universal.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is intriguing yet standard.

    "We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is intriguing yet standard." is correct: the author says self-amputation "is not altogether uncommon across the animal kingdom," naming reptiles, insects, flatworms and sea squirts, yet treats the slug's version as an "amazing phenomenon" worth further study. "We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is boring yet widespread." is incorrect: autotomy is widespread, but nothing in the passage treats it as dull; the author calls it part of an "amazing phenomenon." "We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is astonishing yet unusual." is incorrect: the author is impressed, but autotomy itself is not unusual, since it "is not altogether uncommon"; only the slug's ability to "regrow vital organs such as its heart and kidneys" is new. "We can infer that the author believes that autotomy is sickening yet universal." is incorrect: the author never expresses disgust; the "grisly" horror-film image is a hook, the tone that follows is admiring, and the passage never claims that every animal can detach body parts.

  92. The Cascadia Subduction Zone: Picture the millions of people living in and around Portland and Seattle. They bustle about their daily lives right on the precipice of the West Coast of the United states. Now, zoom out. Seven hundred miles off that Pacific Northwest Coast lies the Cascadia Subduction Zone. It is situated within the 500 km by 40,000 km Ring of Fire — the volcanic hotbed wrapped around the Pacific Ocean rim. The name comes from the Cascadia Range, roughly one hundred miles inland. The volcanic mountain range stretches from northern California, up through Oregon and Washington to British Columbia. There is evidence of destructive earthquakes at the Cascadia Subduction Zone long before all those people got there. Another might be around the corner. Near the Washington coast, there is a ghost forest. Soil layers and dendrochronology (the study of growth-ring patterns) show that an entire grove of cedars suddenly died between August 1699 and May 1700. The cause was an earthquake that made the ground drop out from under itself. An ‘orphan tsunami’ of unknown origin at the time occurred on the coast of Japan. In 1966, seismologists determined that the magnitude-9.0 earthquake and land drop that killed the cedars of coastal Washington’s ghost forest created a massive wave half a continent long that struck the Northwest coast and then Japan. First nation tribes of the area have also passed down accounts of this event. Seafloor core samples recording the past ten thousand years of geographic history depict a deposit from torrents of land rushing off the continental slope. This evidence offers glimpses into the frequency and extent of Cascadia Subduction Zone ruptures. 41 times over the past 10,000 years, land has collapsed into the seafloor from earthquakes in the Pacific Northwest, leaving deposits. That is a recurrence interval of 243 years. The most recent earthquake happened there in 1700 (320 years ago), so the Pacific Northwest is almost 80 years overdue for another devastating event. Chris Goldfinger is a scientist studying the Cascadia Subduction Zone’s volatility. He predicts a one in three chance of a big earthquake in the next 50 years, and a one in ten chance of a completely catastrophic one. Which of the following is the author’s main purpose for paragraph 3?

    • A.To provide specific details on the likely timeframe of a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest
    • B.To provide scientific evidence on the simultaneous death of a cedar grove in the Pacific Northwest
    • C.To provide technical background on the extraction of a seabed core sample in the Pacific Northwest
    • D.To provide expert doubts on the soundness of a recent earthquake forecast in the Pacific Northwest
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To provide specific details on the likely timeframe of a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest

    To provide specific details on the likely timeframe of a natural disaster in the Pacific Northwest is correct: paragraph 3 supplies the figures that pin down timing: 41 collapses "over the past 10,000 years," "a recurrence interval of 243 years," a region "almost 80 years overdue," and "a one in three chance of a big earthquake in the next 50 years." To provide scientific evidence on the simultaneous death of a cedar grove in the Pacific Northwest is incorrect: the ghost forest and its dendrochronology belong to paragraph 2. To provide technical background on the extraction of a seabed core sample in the Pacific Northwest is incorrect: paragraph 3 uses what the core samples show but never explains how they are collected. To provide expert doubts on the soundness of a recent earthquake forecast in the Pacific Northwest is incorrect: Goldfinger's prediction is reported without any challenge to it.

  93. Welcome Aboard Congratulations on being selected! We look forward to having you as part of our crew. This study pack will guide you through your course of study — 40 hours approximately — and it is divided into two parts: ‘General’ and ‘Specific’. The former gives you an overview of the tasks that need to be carried out during each flight on a daily basis. The latter explains the procedures involved in the safety training. At the end of each section, there are revision questions to help you identify the areas that you need to improve on. Please ensure that you understand and learn all the information covered in your study pack. At the end of your training, there are five theory tests and one practical exam that you need to pass in order for you to become a fully-fledged cabin crew member. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?

    • A.Persuasive writing
    • B.Narrative writing
    • C.Expository writing
    • D.Technical writing
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Technical writing

    Technical writing is correct: the text is the opening of a workplace training manual; it sets out how the course is organized ("divided into two parts: 'General' and 'Specific'"), what each part covers ("the procedures involved in the safety training"), and what trainees must do to finish ("five theory tests and one practical exam that you need to pass"). Expository writing is incorrect: the text does inform, but its purpose is to direct trainees through a specific course of procedures, not to explain a general topic. Persuasive writing is incorrect: "Congratulations on being selected!" welcomes the reader, but nothing argues for a position. Narrative writing is incorrect because no story is told.

  94. First Day at Work Mara was nervously looking for her car keys because she couldn’t remember where she had put them. She could have easily taken the bus, but counting on the unreliable frequency of her town’s public transport didn’t fill her with confidence. It was her first day at work and she wanted to feel in control of the situation, so driving was the best option. Unfortunately, it was rush-hour — her least favourite time of the day. She would have to find her keys soon to avoid the stress of dashing through the busy roads of the city centre. Mara didn’t like rushing. She was a calm person and she didn’t like to do things in a hurry. She often arrived late at dinners, appointments and even business meetings. There they were! The keys were in her handbag all along. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?

    • A.Narrative writing
    • B.Technical writing
    • C.Persuasive writing
    • D.Expository writing
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Narrative writing

    Narrative writing is correct: the passage tells a story about a character, Mara, with a problem (her missing car keys), her inner thoughts ("She would have to find her keys soon"), and a resolution: "There they were! The keys were in her handbag all along." Expository writing is incorrect: the details about rush hour and public transport serve the story; they do not explain a topic. Persuasive writing is incorrect because the text does not try to convince the reader of anything. Technical writing is incorrect because the passage gives no instructions or procedures.

  95. In “The Chimney Sweeper,” British poet William Blake uses dramatic irony to craft a poem that is all the more chilling for the naive innocence of the speaker. The speaker is a young chimney sweeper. Chimney sweepers had to be extremely small in order to crawl into chimneys, so they were children, not adults. It was also catastrophically unhealthy. This was not something a child ended up doing unless he was an orphan or his family was in perilously dire financial straits. The unnamed chimney sweeper in Blake’s poem recounts having been “sold” into the profession (2) and sleeping in “soot” (4). Despite a life of sadness and deprivation, he displays an unspoiled, child-like sweetness. He soothes another chimney sweeper and encourages dutiful patience, affirming, in the final line, that “if all do their duty, they need not fear harm” (24). The irony, of course, is that doing their duty (sweeping chimneys) is exactly what will send these young children to an early grave. The innocent young speaker doesn’t realize this, and his pure trust makes this poem more chilling for adult readers who recognize the irony and are more aware of the unfairness of the world. Which of the following citations would be the best resource to support the author’s purpose?

    • A.A citation from a gallery director specializing in William Blake
    • B.A citation from a tourism website specializing in William Blake
    • C.A citation from a social historian specializing in East London
    • D.A citation from a literary scholar specializing in William Blake
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A citation from a literary scholar specializing in William Blake

    A citation from a literary scholar specializing in William Blake is correct: the author's purpose is to show how Blake "uses dramatic irony" in "The Chimney Sweeper," so the strongest support comes from an expert on Blake's poetry. A citation from a gallery director specializing in William Blake is incorrect: Blake was also a painter and engraver, and a gallery director's expertise lies in that artwork, while the passage analyzes the irony of a poem. A citation from a tourism website specializing in William Blake is incorrect: a site built to attract visitors may celebrate Blake, but it offers no scholarly authority on his poetry. A citation from a social historian specializing in East London is incorrect: such an expert could confirm that sweeping chimneys was "catastrophically unhealthy," a background detail, but not the passage's central claim about the poem's irony.

  96. Fixing a Run-On Sentence Many people think a run-on sentence (also called a fused sentence) is just a really long sentence. However, it’s certainly possible to have a long sentence that is correctly punctuated. A run-on occurs when two independent clauses are squished together without appropriate punctuation or a conjunction. Run-on sentences can be corrected in a variety of ways. The most straightforward way to fix a run-on sentence is to simply add a period after the first independent clause. A semicolon can also separate independent clauses; however, semicolons and periods are not interchangeable. A period forms a stronger separation, whereas a semicolon keeps the two clauses in the same sentence, thus indicating a greater degree of relation than clauses separated by a period. Another punctuation choice is a comma. However, just adding a comma creates another type of error, a comma splice. A conjunction must be used with the comma. A coordinating conjunction would be placed after the comma. These conjunctions are for, and, nor, but, or, yet, and so. There are also subordinating conjunctions, such as when, after, although, and while. One of these would be placed at the beginning of one of the two independent clauses; the clause with the subordinating conjunction would then become dependent, making the comma joining the two clauses acceptable. One final type of conjunction is a conjunctive adverb, such as furthermore and otherwise. After the initial independent clause, there would be a semicolon, a conjunctive adverb, a comma, and then the next independent clause. Since there are various methods of fixing run-on sentences, how do you know which one to use? All of them are grammatically correct, so consider how each of them impacts style and meaning. You may find, for example, that while a period is the easiest method to end a sentence, overusing it can create choppy writing. Additionally, you may find that using a subordinating conjunction to make one of the clauses dependent better supports your meaning by shifting emphasis to the remaining independent clause. In any event, good grammar is about more than being “correct.” It also reinforces your meaning and helps you develop your writing style. What is the structure of the passage?

    • A.Compare-contrast
    • B.Chronological order
    • C.Spatial description
    • D.Process analysis
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Process analysis

    Process analysis is correct: the passage explains how to do something, fix a run-on sentence, method by method: "simply add a period after the first independent clause," use a semicolon, pair a comma with a conjunction, or use a conjunctive adverb, and then advises how to choose among them. Compare-contrast is incorrect: the passage briefly contrasts periods and semicolons ("A period forms a stronger separation"), but that comparison serves the explanation of how to fix the error. Chronological order is incorrect: the methods are alternatives, not events arranged in time order. Spatial description is incorrect because nothing is described by its physical layout.

  97. The Cascadia Subduction Zone: Picture the millions of people living in and around Portland and Seattle. They bustle about their daily lives right on the precipice of the West Coast of the United states. Now, zoom out. Seven hundred miles off that Pacific Northwest Coast lies the Cascadia Subduction Zone. It is situated within the 500 km by 40,000 km Ring of Fire — the volcanic hotbed wrapped around the Pacific Ocean rim. The name comes from the Cascadia Range, roughly one hundred miles inland. The volcanic mountain range stretches from northern California, up through Oregon and Washington to British Columbia. There is evidence of destructive earthquakes at the Cascadia Subduction Zone long before all those people got there. Another might be around the corner. Near the Washington coast, there is a ghost forest. Soil layers and dendrochronology (the study of growth-ring patterns) show that an entire grove of cedars suddenly died between August 1699 and May 1700. The cause was an earthquake that made the ground drop out from under itself. An ‘orphan tsunami’ of unknown origin at the time occurred on the coast of Japan. In 1966, seismologists determined that the magnitude-9.0 earthquake and land drop that killed the cedars of coastal Washington’s ghost forest created a massive wave half a continent long that struck the Northwest coast and then Japan. First nation tribes of the area have also passed down accounts of this event. Seafloor core samples recording the past ten thousand years of geographic history depict a deposit from torrents of land rushing off the continental slope. This evidence offers glimpses into the frequency and extent of Cascadia Subduction Zone ruptures. 41 times over the past 10,000 years, land has collapsed into the seafloor from earthquakes in the Pacific Northwest, leaving deposits. That is a recurrence interval of 243 years. The most recent earthquake happened there in 1700 (320 years ago), so the Pacific Northwest is almost 80 years overdue for another devastating event. Chris Goldfinger is a scientist studying the Cascadia Subduction Zone’s volatility. He predicts a one in three chance of a big earthquake in the next 50 years, and a one in ten chance of a completely catastrophic one. What is the purpose of the first sentence of the passage?

    • A.It invites readers to imaginatively enter the topic
    • B.It warns residents to seriously consider the danger
    • C.It gives audiences the central thesis to scrutinize
    • D.It previews the scientific evidence to follow later
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It invites readers to imaginatively enter the topic

    It invites readers to imaginatively enter the topic is correct: the command "Picture the millions of people living in and around Portland and Seattle" asks readers to form a mental image, and "Now, zoom out" carries that imagined view out to the subduction zone. It warns residents to seriously consider the danger is incorrect: the sentence only asks readers to picture people going about "their daily lives"; the residents are described in the third person rather than addressed, and no danger is mentioned until later, when the region is called "almost 80 years overdue." It gives audiences the central thesis to scrutinize is incorrect: the sentence makes no claim at all; the passage's point, that a major earthquake is likely within decades, emerges only from the evidence that follows. It previews the scientific evidence to follow later is incorrect: the first sentence says nothing about the ghost forest, the core samples or the recurrence interval.

  98. Public Transit Big cities offer unparalleled recreation options. There are restaurants, museums, parks, and other unique features. And, if you want to visit these places, you’ll notice something else big cities offer: traffic. Rather than sit in bumper-to-bumper traffic as your day and sanity slip away, consider using public transit. Not only will it save you the stress of driving, but some cities also offer innovative forms of transportation that are themselves pleasant and entertaining. Water Taxi, Seattle, Washington As part of its public transit array, Seattle offers a water taxi on two routes, both departing from Pier 50 on Alaskan Way. One goes to Vashon Island and the other to Seacrest Park in West Seattle. The vessels offer indoor seating and tables and plenty of windows so you can enjoy Pacific Northwest views while staying warm and dry, regardless of the weather. If you’d like to step outside, though, there are viewing decks available. The fare for an adult is $5.75 if you’re paying with cash or a ticket or $5.00 if you’re paying with a public transit card (an ORCA card). While this is a little pricier than the more mundane forms of public transit, the ride itself offers more than convenience; it is also part of the day’s fun. Which text feature is primarily used in this text?

    • A.Headings and subheadings
    • B.Footnotes and references
    • C.Bold and italic terms
    • D.Captions and diagrams
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Headings and subheadings

    Headings and subheadings is correct: the text opens under the title "Public Transit," and a subheading, "Water Taxi, Seattle, Washington," introduces the section on Seattle's water taxi; these labels tell readers what each part covers. Footnotes and references is incorrect: there are no numbered notes or source references; the ORCA card is explained in parentheses within the sentence. Bold and italic terms is incorrect: no individual words in the body are set off for emphasis or as new vocabulary. Captions and diagrams is incorrect because the text contains no images or labeled figures to caption.

  99. After the baby was born, Angela spent two months on maternity leave before returning to work. Leave n. 1. a period of time off from work, usually for holiday or illness 2. official permission to do something 3. to arrange for someone to receive an inheritance when one dies 4. to go away from a place Which of the following dictionary definitions best fits the word leave as used in context?

    • A.Entry 2: formal clearance
    • B.Entry 3: bequeath assets
    • C.Entry 1: employment break
    • D.Entry 4: exit somewhere
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Entry 1: employment break

    Entry 1: employment break is correct: Angela "spent two months on maternity leave before returning to work," so leave is a noun naming a period of time off from work. Entry 2: formal clearance is incorrect: leave can mean official permission, as in leave to appeal, but Angela was not granted permission to do something; she was away from her job. Entry 3: bequeath assets is incorrect: that sense is a verb about passing on an inheritance, and the sentence needs a noun. Entry 4: exit somewhere is incorrect: to go away from a place is also a verb sense, and "maternity leave" names a stretch of time, not an act of leaving.

  100. The Decapitating Sea Slug: While the placid shallow waters of the South Pacific Ocean might call to mind images of tropical love stories, beneath their tranquil surface dwells a creature whose regenerative ability is more akin to the grisly spectacle of a horror film. This monster is no toothy menace, but rather the leaf-like sea slug, Elysia marginata. Recently, scientists have discovered that these slugs are able to decapitate themselves and regrow brand new bodies in a matter of weeks. This shocking finding represents a novel scientific discovery with numerous potential applications for human medicine. A few years ago, researchers at Nara Women’s University in Japan were astounded to find the severed head of one of their laboratory’s Elysia marginata sea slugs crawling away from its discarded body, continuing to eat algae as if nothing had occurred. Meanwhile, the body continued to show signs of life, wriggling and writhing around, with its heart still beating. Within three weeks, the sea slug had regrown a brand new body from the base of its detached head. While this kind of self-amputation, called autotomy, is not altogether uncommon across the animal kingdom, the sea slug’s feat is notable for the complexity of the body parts that it is able to regenerate. Various species of reptiles and insects are known to detach limbs in order to escape predation, and simple-bodied organisms like flatworms and sea squirts are able to regenerate large portions of their bodies. In each of these cases, however, the regrown body parts are relatively straightforward structures. Elysia marginata, on the other hand, is the first animal known to detach its entire body and then regrow vital organs such as its heart and kidneys. The secret to an Elysia marginata’s regeneration appears to lie in the chloroplasts that it hijacks from algae. Chloroplasts are the green-tinted drivers of photosynthesis that algae and other plants use to draw energy directly from the sun’s rays. Incredibly, when these sea slugs eat algae, they incorporate these chloroplasts into their own cells, giving them the nickname “solar-powered sea slugs”, and allowing them to synthesize sugars directly from the sun and thus survive without their organs. The sea slug’s radical autotomy appears to be a way to rid itself of parasitic infection. All of the individuals in the lab who underwent self-decapitation were observed to be carrying harmful parasites. After regenerating their bodies, these parasites were nowhere to be found. While researchers are thrilled by these novel discoveries, much remains unknown about the biological processes that enable this amazing phenomenon. Scientists believe that deepening our understanding of these slugs could one day lead to advances in regenerative medicine and other scientific fields. Which of the following words would the author use to describe regenerative medicine?

    • A.Faltering
    • B.Unsettling
    • C.Promising
    • D.Misleading
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Promising

    Promising is correct: the final paragraph says that understanding these slugs "could one day lead to advances in regenerative medicine," which presents the field as one with a hopeful future. Faltering is incorrect: a field the author expects to gain "advances" from a new discovery is not presented as losing ground. Unsettling is incorrect: the horror-film language ("the grisly spectacle of a horror film") describes the slug's self-decapitation, not regenerative medicine. Misleading is incorrect: the author never questions the field's claims; the only uncertainty mentioned is that "much remains unknown" about the slug's biology.

  101. Researchers have been studying the virus to trace the origin of the pandemic. Trace v. 1. an indication of the existence or passing of something 2. a quantity so small that cannot be measured 3. to find or discover something by investigation 4. to draw something with your finger or toe. Which of the following dictionary definitions best fits the word trace as used in context?

    • A.Entry 1: telltale signal
    • B.Entry 2: microscopic bit
    • C.Entry 3: piece together
    • D.Entry 4: sketch freehand
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Entry 3: piece together

    Correct answer: Entry 3: piece together. Explanation: In the sentence, trace is a verb meaning to find or discover something by investigation. Researchers are investigating the virus to work out where the pandemic began. Entries 1 and 2 are noun senses (a sign that something passed by, and an amount too small to measure), and Entry 4 refers to drawing, which does not fit a scientific investigation.

  102. Procrastination: Procrastination is often thought of as a time-management problem. In such a view, the person is simply so overwhelmed by their tasks or so inept at managing them that they are unable to make time for everything. Conversely, some see it as a laziness problem. In this view, the person doesn’t do much of anything, whether that be the particular task they are procrastinating or anything else, from housework to exercising to other important activities. However, even highly motivated and organized people procrastinate. That’s because procrastination is often an emotional response. For some reason, the task evokes a negative emotional reaction in the person. This often happens when the task is performative in some way, when we’ll be judged on it. It might therefore not be the task itself that we’re avoiding so much as the potential negative reaction to our efforts at the task. This feared negative reaction could come from others or even ourselves. We are often our own harshest critics, and the fear that what we’re doing isn’t good enough may keep us from starting the task in the first place, lest we risk confirming our fears. That a person who is procrastinating isn’t incapable of time management and isn’t lazy is often clear in that people who are procrastinating often assuage their guilt by making great progress in other tasks. Then, they are able to accomplish something while avoiding the task that evokes negative emotions. What is the structure of the passage?

    • A.Cause-effect
    • B.Problem-solution
    • C.Chronological
    • D.Process analysis
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cause-effect

    Cause-effect is correct: the passage is organized around why people procrastinate; it sets aside the time-management and laziness explanations and gives the real cause: "That's because procrastination is often an emotional response," a fear of "the potential negative reaction to our efforts at the task." Problem-solution is incorrect: procrastination is treated as a problem, but the passage offers no remedy for it. Chronological is incorrect because the passage does not follow events in time order. Process analysis is incorrect because the passage gives no steps for doing anything.

  103. I asked him to be more polite – he can’t just bark his orders at everyone. Bark v. 1. thin sheet of chocolate topped with nuts 2. the tough outer layer of a tree 3. to give commands in an aggressive manner 4. to make a sound like a dog Which of the following dictionary definitions best fits the word bark as used in context?

    • A.Entry 1: nutty sweets
    • B.Entry 2: trunk rind
    • C.Entry 4: yap noisily
    • D.Entry 3: yell demands
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Entry 3: yell demands

    Entry 3: yell demands is correct: the speaker wants him "to be more polite" because he barks "his orders at everyone," so bark is a verb meaning to give commands in an aggressive manner. Entry 1: nutty sweets is incorrect because it is a noun naming chocolate topped with nuts, and the sentence needs a verb. Entry 2: trunk rind is incorrect because it is a noun naming the outer layer of a tree. Entry 4: yap noisily is incorrect: it is a verb, but it means to make a sound like a dog, and the person in the sentence is giving orders, not imitating a dog.

  104. COVID Price-Gouging With the onslaught of COVID-19, people naturally wanted to do what they could to ensure their families’ safety and their own. For many, this meant increased attention to hand-washing and sanitizing. Accordingly, store shelves were soon barren of cleaning and sanitizing products. While the sudden increase in demand was certainly a cause of this, the shortage was exacerbated by opportunistic individuals who quickly made the rounds of every store in reach, buying up huge supplies of these products in order to sell them at an exorbitant cost to desperate people. Many people were willing to pay these prices, but that doesn’t mean they were happy about it. State attorney generals noted vast increases in complaints of price gouging, and, as most states have laws against price gouging, these complaints were legally actionable. Many retailers received citations and fines for price gouging. Additionally, online retailers like Amazon took action, including the removal of thousands of seller accounts. That products like sanitizer were viewed as necessities for the pandemic and not luxuries likely increased people’s indignation. Supplying a need and creating a reasonable profit is one thing, but artificially amplifying that need by hoarding products and then taking advantage of people’s desperation is another. What is the structure of the passage?

    • A.Cause-effect
    • B.Compare-contrast
    • C.Process analysis
    • D.Spatial order
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cause-effect

    Cause-effect is correct: the passage traces a chain of causes and results: fear of COVID-19 led to more hand-washing, demand plus hoarding by "opportunistic individuals" caused the shortage, and price gouging led to complaints, "citations and fines," and Amazon's "removal of thousands of seller accounts." Compare-contrast is incorrect: the closing line sets a fair profit against exploitation, but that one contrast is not how the passage is organized. Process analysis is incorrect because the passage gives no steps for doing anything. Spatial order is incorrect because nothing is described by its physical arrangement.

  105. The Necks of Flying Dinosaurs: During the late Cretaceous period, the skies were filled with giants. Around 70 million years ago, few creatures were safe from the pterosaurs who soared through the air and preyed on all kinds of living things below. The most formidable of them all, Quetzalcoatlus northropi, had a wingspan that stretched up to 33 feet and a neck as long as a giraffe’s. It is thought to be the largest living thing to ever fly. Until recently, scientists were at a loss to explain how this gargantuan creature could possibly carry heavy prey in its beak without breaking its long neck. This question has now been answered, thanks to a new study that found the flying reptile possess bones unlike any others found in nature. As a part of this breakthrough study, Ph.D. students at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign utilized a CT scan to analyze a pterosaur vertebra found in the Kem Kem fossil beds of Morocco. They couldn’t believe what they found. Inside, the vertebra was composed of an intricate network of struts, connecting a central tube to the outer walls of the bone. Its cross-section looks much like a bicycle wheel, with spokes radiating out from a central point. A bone like this had never been seen in the animal kingdom. The spoke structure allowed pterosaurs’ necks to be both lightweight and extremely strong. The team behind the discovery calculated that the addition of just 50 spokes increased the weight the bone could carry by 90 percent. The research team plans to follow up this study by scanning the vertebrae of other pterosaur species, to see whether they also possess this unique structure. In order to lift their massive bodies into the air, pterosaurs had to be exceptionally light for their size, and their bones needed to be thin and nearly hollow like those of a bird. As a result, their bones were exceedingly fragile and have mainly disintegrated over time. Though largely absent from the fossil record, pterosaur bones have been well preserved at the Kem Kem fossil site, which was once a thriving river system. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about early scientists’ opinions of the Quetzalcoatlus northropi?

    • A.Inexplicable
    • B.Unremarkable
    • C.Misnamed
    • D.Harmless
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Inexplicable

    Inexplicable is correct: the passage says that "Until recently, scientists were at a loss to explain how this gargantuan creature could possibly carry heavy prey in its beak without breaking its long neck," so the creature baffled them. Unremarkable is incorrect: the passage calls it "the largest living thing to ever fly," its vertebra had a structure that "had never been seen in the animal kingdom," and the researchers "couldn't believe what they found." Misnamed is incorrect: the passage never suggests that scientists doubted the creature's name or classification; their question was how its neck worked. Harmless is incorrect: the passage presents the pterosaur as a predator from which "few creatures were safe," and nothing suggests scientists thought otherwise.

  106. Beloved English novelist Jane Austen died at age 41 of what most biographers believe to have been Addison’s disease, an endocrine disorder named after Thomas Addison, who first described it in 1855. The author uses italics __________.

    • A.To signal a book title
    • B.To identify a new term
    • C.To mark a foreign word
    • D.To stress a key point
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To identify a new term

    To identify a new term is correct: the italicized words name a medical condition, Addison's disease, that most readers will not know, and the sentence goes on to define it as "an endocrine disorder named after Thomas Addison." To signal a book title is incorrect: italics are used for titles, but no title of Austen's or anyone else's appears in the sentence. To mark a foreign word is incorrect: Addison's disease is an English medical term, not a word borrowed from another language. To stress a key point is incorrect: the italics introduce a term that is then explained; they do not add emphasis to a claim.

  107. Play Therapy: Some might associate vibrant colored blocks and crayons with frivolity. For children, playing is not an absent way to kill time. Playing is a primary way for children to interpret experiences and communicate. So, mental health professionals have utilized play in children’s therapy since the early 1900s. Child-Centered Play Therapy (CCPT) resembles person-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers. It is the most prevalent play therapy approach in the U.S. The Association for Play Therapy (APT) was established in 1982. It has published many findings, developed training, and contributed to the rapid growth of play therapy over the past few decades. A well-trained therapist uses individualized play therapy in a variety of clinical applications. CCPT aims for children aged three to ten years. Ages two to ten (preoperational stage) have emerging abilities to represent surroundings in words and images. Four to seven is when reasoning and self-regulation skills develop. Cognition grows in complexity during the concrete operational stage from seven to eleven. Then comes abstract thought and deduction during the adolescent formal operational stage. Play therapy adapts to older children and adolescents, too. They begin to experience deeper emotional complexity and social relationships. Play therapy’s versatility and capacity to access nonverbal parts of the brain suits a host of challenges in addition to a range of age groups. It helps address aggression, ADHD, anxiety, depression, speech problems, and trauma. The principles behind CCPT mirror Carl Rogers’ standards. They emphasize empathy, acceptance, and unconditional positive regard for the client. The idea is to facilitate the child’s innate propensity for growth and self-directed healing. Therapists find imaginative ways to visualize difficult concepts, navigate relationships, and build confidence. CCPT appears in more than 90 cross-cultural studies spanning seven decades, including meta-analyses. The research shows encouraging outcomes for children across diverse circumstances and conditions. It works because play is a natural, enjoyable, and enriching state. It meets children where they are, to help them unlock their inner selves. What is the main purpose of the text?

    • A.To document the child-centered play therapy origins
    • B.To explain the child-centered play therapy practice
    • C.To summarize the child-centered play therapy trials
    • D.To refute the child-centered play therapy framework
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To explain the child-centered play therapy practice

    To explain the child-centered play therapy practice is correct: the passage covers what CCPT is, whom it serves, which problems it helps ("aggression, ADHD, anxiety, depression, speech problems, and trauma"), the principles behind it, and why "It works." To document the child-centered play therapy origins is incorrect: the history is limited to a few background facts, such as play being used in therapy "since the early 1900s" and the APT being "established in 1982." To summarize the child-centered play therapy trials is incorrect: the research gets two sentences ("more than 90 cross-cultural studies"), a supporting detail rather than the purpose. To refute the child-centered play therapy framework is incorrect: the author presents CCPT favorably, noting that "The research shows encouraging outcomes."

  108. Eyebrows can be tweezed, trimmed, penciled in, microbladed, tattooed, and, in a more recent trend, laminated. Eyebrow lamination gives eyebrows a thicker, fuller look, in contrast to the thinner, more heavily plucked look favored in the 90’s and early 2000’s. The process of eyebrow lamination starts with the application of a degreasing solution. Next comes a perming gel, and then the eyebrows are brushed. Finally, a neutralizing gel sets the brows. This process involves several chemicals, so it’s important that it be done by a trained esthetician. Which text feature is primarily used in this text?

    • A.Numbered list(s)
    • B.Bolded term(s)
    • C.Chart caption(s)
    • D.Footnote(s)
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Bolded term(s)

    Bolded term(s) is correct: the passage introduces a key term about a beauty treatment and sets it in bold so readers recognize the subject that the rest of the text explains. Numbered list(s) is incorrect: the steps of the process ("starts with the application of a degreasing solution. Next comes a perming gel... Finally") are written as running sentences, not as a numbered list. Chart caption(s) is incorrect because the text has no chart or image to caption. Footnote(s) is incorrect because no numbered note or note at the bottom of the text appears.

  109. Tokyo Declaration In 2015, the Tokyo Declaration on Dental Care and Oral Health for Healthy Longevity was adopted at the end of the World Congress. With this declaration, policy-makers and health professionals are asked to actively contribute to the promotion of equal provision of oral health solutions. Among others, the main objectives of this declaration are to gather scientific evidence regarding the impact of oral health on longevity and to introduce new policies based on such evidence. This is part of the plan towards the implementation of WHO’s Global Action Plan for the Prevention and Control of Noncommunicable diseases (2013-2030). Which of the following best describes this type of writing?

    • A.Narrative writing
    • B.Persuasive writing
    • C.Expository writing
    • D.Technical writing
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Expository writing

    Expository writing is correct: the passage reports facts about the 2015 Tokyo Declaration (when it was adopted, whom it addresses, and its aims, such as "to gather scientific evidence regarding the impact of oral health on longevity") without offering the author's opinion. Persuasive writing is incorrect: the declaration itself asks policy-makers to act, but the passage only reports that request; it does not urge the reader to do anything. Technical writing is incorrect because no procedure or set of instructions is given. Narrative writing is incorrect because no story with characters or events unfolds.

  110. Opportunity for Experience Hi everyone! I’m reaching out on behalf of a fellow educational writer who has just finished writing his first book, due to be published later this year. The content is great and the resource has great potential, but the manuscript requires some editing. Although this project is unpaid, it will offer you the unique opportunity to get your name out there if you are new to the game. What’s more, it would give you the chance to showcase your editorial skills on your CV. Drop me a line if you are available. Which of the following best describes this type of writing?

    • A.Narrative writing
    • B.Technical writing
    • C.Persuasive writing
    • D.Expository writing
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Persuasive writing

    Persuasive writing is correct: the post tries to recruit an unpaid editor by stressing what the reader gains, "the unique opportunity to get your name out there" and "the chance to showcase your editorial skills," and ends with a call to act: "Drop me a line if you are available." Expository writing is incorrect: the post gives a few facts about the book, but only to support its appeal. Narrative writing is incorrect because it does not tell a story. Technical writing is incorrect because no procedure is explained.

  111. Universal Design for Learning (UDL) is a teaching framework that seeks to increase accessibility and reduce barriers for students. It is organized around three principles: providing students with multiple means of engagement, multiple means of representation, and multiple means of action and expression. Within each principle are numerous teaching and classroom management strategies that teachers could implement. This might seem overwhelming, but it’s important to realize that not all strategies would work for all classes. Additionally, the strategies vary in the degree to which they rely on technology. Some do not at all rely on technology, while some are fairly high-tech, and some are in the middle. This means that there’s something available for all teachers to implement, no matter what their comfort level with technology may be. However, it should be noted that technological tools open up more options for increasing student access. For example, providing discussions online via your school’s learning management system (LMS) as well as in person provides an additional way for students to interact with their classmates and the teacher. Online discussions can increase engagement for students who might be too shy to easily engage in in-person discussions. Additionally, online discussions give students a chance to put more effort into developing and refining their contributions, which might be significantly harder in a real-time, in-person discussion. This helps students successfully convey their ideas and gain mastery of class concepts. Which of the following citations would be the best resource to support the author’s purpose?

    • A.A citation from a vendor who has successfully embedded UDL principles in her tools
    • B.A citation from a teacher who has successfully implemented UDL principles in her class
    • C.A citation from a sophomore who has applauded UDL engagement strategies in her school
    • D.A citation from a volunteer who has successfully promoted UDL principles in her school
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A citation from a teacher who has successfully implemented UDL principles in her class

    A citation from a teacher who has successfully implemented UDL principles in her class is correct: the author's purpose is to show that UDL strategies are workable for "all teachers" and that tools such as online discussions increase engagement, so the best support is a teacher with direct classroom experience of making them work. A citation from a vendor who has successfully embedded UDL principles in her tools is incorrect: a seller of technology profits from the claim and has no classroom teaching experience to offer. A citation from a sophomore who has applauded UDL engagement strategies in her school is incorrect: a student may enjoy the strategies but has neither teaching expertise nor experience implementing them. A citation from a volunteer who has successfully promoted UDL principles in her school is incorrect: a volunteer who promotes UDL around a school is an advocate, not a teacher with evidence from her own classroom practice.

  112. Although staying hydrated is important, it’s also important to avoid extremes; excessive water consumption can result in death. The author uses italics ___________.

    • A.To define a new term
    • B.To cite a book title
    • C.To mark a quotation
    • D.To emphasize a point
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To emphasize a point

    To emphasize a point is correct: the italics draw attention to the sentence's warning that drinking too much water "can result in death," so readers do not skim past how serious the risk is. To define a new term is incorrect: no unfamiliar term is introduced or explained; the sentence uses everyday words. To cite a book title is incorrect because no title appears in the sentence. To mark a quotation is incorrect because the sentence quotes no one.

  113. The Longest Voyage : 1. When you think of long voyages, your mind might immediately think back to a tedious transatlantic flight or perhaps even a relaxing cruise journey across vast oceans. Botanists and environmentalists, on the other hand, would probably think about the famous migration pattern of the vanessa cardui, a native sub-Saharan butterfly that makes an exceptional, yearly expedition from West Africa to Scandinavia, totaling just over 8,600 miles each year! Past research has indicated that specific climatic conditions likely need to be present in order for these butterflies to make the long journey and breed around the world successfully. However, evidence has always been lacking — until now. Thanks to a recent study on migration patterns, more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey of these insects. 2. This well-traveled species goes by a few different names, ranging from its scientific term, vanessa cardui, to the colloquial nickname of the “painted lady”. Unlike similar species, the painted lady breeds constantly throughout the year. Thus, it is one of the most popular butterflies that can thrive in almost any climate and can be found in gardens on every continent, excluding South America and Antarctica. While most are probably not familiar with the scientific details surrounding this butterfly, it has definitely become a household name. According to a psychology study, an astounding number of people picture the painted lady’s classic orange and black wing detail when asked to describe the image of a butterfly. As of now, even more information is known regarding this popular species. 3. To begin the research process on migration patterns, a team from the University of Reading (UK) compared data regarding the presence of the butterfly in Europe. The study included decades worth of information regarding the climate and atmosphere of sub-Saharan Africa. After the initial analysis, scientists discovered that the number of specimens of the vanessa cardui in Europe alone can actually fluctuate up to 100 times from one year to the next. When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa. The number of painted lady butterflies in Europe matched up with the climate data from the past few decades, finally providing enough evidence to solidify past speculation. 4. Regarding vegetation, it has been found that the vanessa cardui caterpillars multiply at a rapid speed when the African savannah’s humidity rate is higher than average. This allows the species to become stronger before crossing the Sahara desert. When it comes to winds, simulations have shown that the stronger the tailwind, the easier it is for the species to reach the necessary altitude of two miles above sea level. This height allows them to attain a desirable flight speed of 6 miles per second. While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effect that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?

    • A.Humidity in savanna grasslands and caterpillars can result in healthier migrants in the population of painted lady butterflies that survive deserts.
    • B.Wind patterns in arid regions outweigh vegetation and can result in wild swings in the number of painted lady butterflies that successfully migrate.
    • C.Fluctuations in wind patterns and vegetation can result in dramatic differences in the number of painted lady butterflies that successfully migrate.
    • D.Wind patterns in cooler regions and vegetation loss can result in gradual drops in the number of painted lady butterflies that successfully migrate.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Fluctuations in wind patterns and vegetation can result in dramatic differences in the number of painted lady butterflies that successfully migrate.

    "Fluctuations in wind patterns and vegetation can result in dramatic differences in the number of painted lady butterflies that successfully migrate." is correct: paragraph 3 reports that the butterfly's numbers in Europe "can actually fluctuate up to 100 times from one year to the next" and traces the variation to two conditions: "wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa." "Humidity in savanna grasslands and caterpillars can result in healthier migrants in the population of painted lady butterflies that survive deserts." is incorrect: humidity in the savanna and the rapid multiplying of caterpillars are covered in paragraph 4, not paragraph 3. "Wind patterns in arid regions outweigh vegetation and can result in wild swings in the number of painted lady butterflies that successfully migrate." is incorrect: paragraph 3 names wind and vegetation as two conditions that "must be fulfilled" and never ranks one above the other. "Wind patterns in cooler regions and vegetation loss can result in gradual drops in the number of painted lady butterflies that successfully migrate." is incorrect: the paragraph describes numbers that rise and fall from year to year, not a steady decline, and the vegetation it discusses is in North Africa, not in cooler regions.

  114. The aspiring author decided to write her book in imitation of the trends; her story, therefore, was banal. Which of the following is an antonym for the word “banal” as used in the sentence above?

    • A.Derivative
    • B.Pedestrian
    • C.Original
    • D.Prosaic
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Original

    Original is correct: banal means dull and unoriginal, and the author's story was banal because she wrote it "in imitation of the trends," so the opposite is original, meaning new and inventive. Derivative is incorrect: it means copied from the work of others, which is close to banal and describes exactly what the author did. Pedestrian is incorrect: it means ordinary and uninspired, a synonym of banal. Prosaic is incorrect: it means commonplace and lacking imagination, also a synonym of banal.

  115. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the following information? As soon as I hear the overture start playing from the orchestra, I always feel as though I never should have become a musical theatre performer. If I told most people that I suffer from complex stage fright, they would be shocked, given my outgoing personality and long career in the theatre arts.

    • A.The performer's stage fright is not easily curable.
    • B.The performer's stage fright is not publicly known.
    • C.The performer's sociable personality is not real.
    • D.The performer's stage fright is not truly serious.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The performer's stage fright is not publicly known.

    "The performer's stage fright is not publicly known." is correct: the performer says, "If I told most people that I suffer from complex stage fright, they would be shocked," which means most people have not been told. "The performer's stage fright is not easily curable." is incorrect: the passage says nothing about treatment, so nothing supports a claim about how hard it is to cure. "The performer's sociable personality is not real." is incorrect: the performer cites an "outgoing personality" as a real trait that would make the news surprising; nothing suggests it is an act. "The performer's stage fright is not truly serious." is incorrect: the performer calls it "complex stage fright" and says that hearing the overture brings the feeling that they "never should have become" a performer, which signals a serious problem.

  116. Chaos in Translation 1. Although it can seem quite technical, translating texts into different languages is a delicate art. Not only does it require a solid understanding of languages, but it also calls for an artistic voice that can truly make the words seem natural to native speakers. When it is done well, readers do not even realize that they are reading a text that has been translated from another language. When it is done badly, however, chaos ensues. One of the most emblematic examples of a translation mishap occurred at the dawn of the twentieth century, when an American diplomat received an incorrectly translated copy of a popular book about aliens. As you might imagine, the mistake ignited both fear and disbelief regarding a concept that was already so foreign to begin with. 2. It all started with Giovanni Virginio Schiaparelli, an Italian astronomer and astrophysicist, in the late 1800s. In addition to studying astronomy at renowned universities, Schiaparelli was the lead director of a famous observatory in Milan, where he was able to observe stars and planets with a telescope. When he first viewed Mars this way in 1877, he quickly made a hand drawn picture of what he had seen on a piece of paper. Using this reference, he believed that the chromatic differences and the “grooves” that he had seen on the surface of Mars meant that continents and seas existed on the planet. Even more interesting was the fact that “channels”, bodies of water that join two larger areas of water, seemed to connect the various seas. Of course, Schiaparelli had written the original works and explanations in his native language of Italian. He immediately received national success for his findings, and his works were quickly translated into English. 3. Once the information made its way into the United States, it attracted the attention of a wealthy American named Percival Lowell, who had previously abandoned his career as a foreign diplomat to invest his time and interests in astronomy. He, too, had observed Mars with a telescope, but was shocked when he read Schiaparelli’s description of the planet. Although he was familiar with the grooves and ridges described in Schiaparelli’s work, he was shocked to read about the “canals” — artificial man-made structures — that connected large bodies of water on Mars. Not only did this prove that life exists on Mars, but it suggested that these life forms could construct immense structures in a short period of time! Understanding that Schiaparelli had been a distinguished astronomer and a credible source, Lowell decided that the shocking discovery must be made accessible to the public. 4. What he did not realize at the time, however, was that the translation was incorrect, and Schiaparelli had never intended to say that man-made structures existed on Mars. In any case, on August 27, 1911, the front page of the New York Times contained a startling headline: “Martians Build Two Immense Canals in Two Years”. This gave rise to incorrect assumptions about intelligent life on Mars. For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in, while others remained skeptical. Luckily, the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography. Despite this, conspiracy theories about “martians” and their strength persisted for decades to come. Later, scientists and other astronomers came to the conclusion that the channels were simply optical illusions, and future high-resolution snapshots from visiting spacecrafts would only confirm that the man-made “canals” were only a result of a language mishap. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from paragraph 2?

    • A.Schiaparelli was confident in the existence of alien life, even before his drawings of “channels” drew readers.
    • B.Schiaparelli was mostly self-taught in the art of astronomy, even before his notes of “channels” appeared abroad.
    • C.Schiaparelli was openly criticized in the world of astronomy, even before his charts of “channels” spread abroad.
    • D.Schiaparelli was widely known in the field of astronomy, even before his depictions of “channels” earned notice.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Schiaparelli was widely known in the field of astronomy, even before his depictions of “channels” earned notice.

    "Schiaparelli was widely known in the field of astronomy, even before his depictions of “channels” earned notice." is correct: paragraph 2 says he studied "astronomy at renowned universities" and "was the lead director of a famous observatory in Milan" before his 1877 observations of Mars, so he was established in the field before the findings spread. "Schiaparelli was confident in the existence of alien life, even before his drawings of “channels” drew readers." is incorrect: he described "channels" as "bodies of water that join two larger areas of water," and paragraph 4 says he "had never intended to say that man-made structures existed on Mars." "Schiaparelli was mostly self-taught in the art of astronomy, even before his notes of “channels” appeared abroad." is incorrect: he studied astronomy "at renowned universities." "Schiaparelli was openly criticized in the world of astronomy, even before his charts of “channels” spread abroad." is incorrect: nothing in paragraph 2 mentions criticism; he "immediately received national success for his findings."

  117. It was imprudent to attempt such a difficult stunt without the proper safety precautions. Which of the following is an antonym for the word “imprudent” as used in the sentence?

    • A.Reckless
    • B.Rational
    • C.Unwise
    • D.Foolish
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Rational

    Rational is correct: imprudent means acting without good judgment, as in attempting a difficult stunt "without the proper safety precautions," so its opposite is rational, acting with sound reason. Reckless is incorrect: it means careless of danger, a synonym of imprudent. Unwise is incorrect: it means showing poor judgment, which is what imprudent means. Foolish is incorrect: it means lacking good sense, also close in meaning to imprudent.

  118. After her diatribe against the manager, she was called in for a discussion on more productive methods of conflict resolution. A synonym for “diatribe” as it is used in this sentence is ___________.

    • A.Grudge
    • B.Tirade
    • C.Appeal
    • D.Strike
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Tirade

    Tirade is correct. A diatribe is a bitter, angry verbal attack, and a tirade is a long, angry outburst of criticism; the sentence confirms this sense, since her outburst against the manager led to a meeting about better conflict resolution. Grudge is incorrect because a grudge is a lasting feeling of resentment that a person holds, not something she delivers against someone. Appeal is incorrect because an appeal is a formal request to have a decision reviewed, a calm procedural step rather than an angry attack. Strike is incorrect because a strike is a group work stoppage, not one person's spoken outburst.

  119. The Longest Voyage : 1. When you think of long voyages, your mind might immediately think back to a tedious transatlantic flight or perhaps even a relaxing cruise journey across vast oceans. Botanists and environmentalists, on the other hand, would probably think about the famous migration pattern of the vanessa cardui, a native sub-Saharan butterfly that makes an exceptional, yearly expedition from West Africa to Scandinavia, totaling just over 8,600 miles each year! Past research has indicated that specific climatic conditions likely need to be present in order for these butterflies to make the long journey and breed around the world successfully. However, evidence has always been lacking — until now. Thanks to a recent study on migration patterns, more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey of these insects. 2. This well-traveled species goes by a few different names, ranging from its scientific term, vanessa cardui, to the colloquial nickname of the “painted lady”. Unlike similar species, the painted lady breeds constantly throughout the year. Thus, it is one of the most popular butterflies that can thrive in almost any climate and can be found in gardens on every continent, excluding South America and Antarctica. While most are probably not familiar with the scientific details surrounding this butterfly, it has definitely become a household name. According to a psychology study, an astounding number of people picture the painted lady’s classic orange and black wing detail when asked to describe the image of a butterfly. As of now, even more information is known regarding this popular species. 3. To begin the research process on migration patterns, a team from the University of Reading (UK) compared data regarding the presence of the butterfly in Europe. The study included decades worth of information regarding the climate and atmosphere of sub-Saharan Africa. After the initial analysis, scientists discovered that the number of specimens of the vanessa cardui in Europe alone can actually fluctuate up to 100 times from one year to the next. When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa. The number of painted lady butterflies in Europe matched up with the climate data from the past few decades, finally providing enough evidence to solidify past speculation. 4. Regarding vegetation, it has been found that the vanessa cardui caterpillars multiply at a rapid speed when the African savannah’s humidity rate is higher than average. This allows the species to become stronger before crossing the Sahara desert. When it comes to winds, simulations have shown that the stronger the tailwind, the easier it is for the species to reach the necessary altitude of two miles above sea level. This height allows them to attain a desirable flight speed of 6 miles per second. While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effect that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 2?

    • A.The painted lady is rugged, needs specific climates, and rides strong tailwinds.
    • B.The painted lady is famous, braves cold climates, and inhabits seven continents.
    • C.The painted lady is beloved, suits varied climates, and lives nearly everywhere.
    • D.The painted lady is obscure, unknown outside research labs, and seldom pictured.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The painted lady is beloved, suits varied climates, and lives nearly everywhere.

    The painted lady is beloved, suits varied climates, and lives nearly everywhere. This is correct: paragraph 2 says the butterfly is "one of the most popular butterflies that can thrive in almost any climate and can be found in gardens on every continent, excluding South America and Antarctica," which covers its popularity, its adaptability, and its wide range. The painted lady is rugged, needs specific climates, and rides strong tailwinds. This is incorrect because the two climate conditions and the tailwinds come from paragraphs 3 and 4, not paragraph 2. The painted lady is famous, braves cold climates, and inhabits seven continents. This is incorrect because paragraph 2 says it is found on every continent "excluding South America and Antarctica," so it does not live on seven. The painted lady is obscure, unknown outside research labs, and seldom pictured. This is incorrect because paragraph 2 says the butterfly "has definitely become a household name" and that many people picture its wings when asked to describe a butterfly.

  120. 4 1 1 2 3 4 1 2 4 1 Using the number string above, replace every 1 with the letter T, every 2 with the letter A, every 3 with the letter S, and every 4 with the letter G. For letters that appear only twice, delete the first instance of those letters. Delete the first two letters in the string, and replace the letter T with the letter R only the first time it appears.

    • A.RASGTGT
    • B.TSGTAGR
    • C.RSGTAGT
    • D.RSGTGT
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: RSGTAGT

    RSGTAGT is correct. Replacing 1 with T, 2 with A, 3 with S, and 4 with G turns 4112341241 into GTTASGTAGT. G appears three times and T four times, so A is the only letter that appears exactly twice; deleting its first instance gives GTTSGTAGT. Deleting the first two letters gives TSGTAGT, and changing only the first T to R gives RSGTAGT. RASGTGT deletes the second A instead of the first. TSGTAGR changes the last T to R instead of the first. RSGTGT deletes both A's instead of only the first one.

  121. Book or movie? : 1. You shouldn’t miss this movie. Don’t get me wrong, the book is great too, but the movie brings a different appeal. This often happens in the industry. You see, the book is entertaining, but it begins with long winded and detailed descriptions of the setting and characters, while the movie kicks off with explosive action scenes that will keep you on edge for some time. The overall storyline of the movie, however, is not affected by these dissimilarities. 2. The plot of both the novel and the movie adaptation is about a post-apocalyptic world, years from now, where people struggle to survive. Trying to escape their depressing daily routines, people spend time in a virtual world where they can reinvent themselves. During his time in the virtual world, one of the ‘players’ finds love and clues that lead him to inherit the wealth that the creator of this game has accumulated before his death. Which of the sentences from the passage best presents the topic of the passage?

    • A.This often happens in the industry.
    • B.Don’t get me wrong, the book is great too, but the movie brings a different appeal.
    • C.The overall storyline of the movie, however, is not affected by these dissimilarities.
    • D.The plot of both the novel and the movie adaptation is about a post-apocalyptic world, years from now, where people struggle to survive.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Don’t get me wrong, the book is great too, but the movie brings a different appeal.

    Don’t get me wrong, the book is great too, but the movie brings a different appeal. This is correct because it names both subjects of the passage, the book and the movie, and the passage goes on to compare how each one opens and then describes the plot they share. This often happens in the industry. This is incorrect because it is a passing general remark about adaptations; it does not name the book, the movie, or what the passage discusses. The overall storyline of the movie, however, is not affected by these dissimilarities. This is incorrect because it only qualifies the differences already described; it is a supporting point, not the topic. The plot of both the novel and the movie adaptation is about a post-apocalyptic world, years from now, where people struggle to survive. This is incorrect because it summarizes the story itself, a detail of paragraph 2, rather than what the passage as a whole is about.

  122. Book or movie? : 1. You shouldn’t miss this movie. Don’t get me wrong, the book is great too, but the movie brings a different appeal. This often happens in the industry. You see, the book is entertaining, but it begins with long winded and detailed descriptions of the setting and characters, while the movie kicks off with explosive action scenes that will keep you on edge for some time. The overall storyline of the movie, however, is not affected by these dissimilarities. 2. The plot of both the novel and the movie adaptation is about a post-apocalyptic world, years from now, where people struggle to survive. Trying to escape their depressing daily routines, people spend time in a virtual world where they can reinvent themselves. During his time in the virtual world, one of the ‘players’ finds love and clues that lead him to inherit the wealth that the creator of this game has accumulated before his death. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?

    • A.Faithful adaptations preserve plots from their source books.
    • B.Printed stories sometimes differ from their film retellings.
    • C.Screened versions outshine novels from their initial scenes.
    • D.Despondent citizens escape from their bleak routines online.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Printed stories sometimes differ from their film retellings.

    Printed stories sometimes differ from their film retellings. This is correct: paragraph 1 is built on the contrast that "the book is great too, but the movie brings a different appeal," since the book "begins with long winded and detailed descriptions" while the movie "kicks off with explosive action scenes." Faithful adaptations preserve plots from their source books. This is incorrect as the main idea; the paragraph does say the storyline "is not affected by these dissimilarities," but only as a closing qualification to the differences it describes. Screened versions outshine novels from their initial scenes. This is incorrect because the writer says "the book is great too" and calls the movie's appeal different, not better. Despondent citizens escape from their bleak routines online. This is incorrect because it is plot from paragraph 2 ("trying to escape their depressing daily routines"), not the main idea of paragraph 1.

  123. To: Seymour Lewis From: Amber Shield Subject: Additional Materials Requested Dear Mr. Lewis, Thank you for your interest in East Oliver County’s call for submissions in our sustainability campaign. Our team has reviewed your proposal on placing sustainable water fountains throughout the city, and we are quite intrigued. The ideas you put forth in your proposal are both innovative and relevant to East Oliver’s needs at this time. However, we need more information regarding the timeline of the project before we can move forward in our decision-making process. In your proposal, you mentioned that you typically work with a separate engineering and design team, which tends to speed up the process. Could you please submit a more detailed schedule, including estimated start and end times for the project? Once you have submitted your estimated schedule, we would then be interested in discussing the budget and expenses you have proposed as well. Please keep in mind that we are still reviewing other applications at this time, and your prompt attention to this matter is appreciated. In any case, we were very pleased with your ideas and believe that your ideals align quite well with our organization’s goals on making East Oliver a thriving county in southwestern Maryland! Your contact for the application process, Margaret Davis, will be in touch regarding the additional details that we have requested. Please reach out to her should you have any questions. Thank you in advance for your dedication to the project and your commitment to East Oliver County. Best, Amber Shield, Selection Committee Chair What is the main purpose of this email?

    • A.To tabulate budget estimates on the recipient’s proposal
    • B.To introduce county contacts on the recipient’s proposal
    • C.To praise innovative choices on the recipient’s proposal
    • D.To request further specifics on the recipient’s proposal
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To request further specifics on the recipient’s proposal

    To request further specifics on the recipient’s proposal. This is correct: the committee needs "more information regarding the timeline of the project before we can move forward," and the central request is "Could you please submit a more detailed schedule, including estimated start and end times for the project?" To tabulate budget estimates on the recipient’s proposal. This is incorrect because the budget comes later: "Once you have submitted your estimated schedule, we would then be interested in discussing the budget." To introduce county contacts on the recipient’s proposal. This is incorrect because Margaret Davis is named only as the person who will follow up; that is a supporting detail, not the purpose. To praise innovative choices on the recipient’s proposal. This is incorrect because, although the email calls the ideas "innovative and relevant," the praise only frames the request for more information.

  124. 4 4 2 3 1 4 1 1 2 3 Using the number string above, replace every 1 with the letter E, every 2 with the letter A, every 3 with the letter U, and every 4 with the letter N. For letters that appear twice, delete the first instance of each. Switch the first and last letters in the string, and replace the consonants with the letter O.

    • A.OAUEOEAU
    • B.UAUOEEAO
    • C.AOUEOEAU
    • D.UAUEOEAO
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: UAUEOEAO

    UAUEOEAO is the keyed answer, but only under one reading of the instructions. Replacing 1 with E, 2 with A, 3 with U, and 4 with N turns 4423141123 into NNAUENEEAU. The rule "for letters that appear twice" can be read two ways. Counted across the whole string, only A and U appear exactly twice, and deleting their first instances leads to UOEOEEAO, which is not among the options. The key follows only if "appear twice" means twice in a row (NN and EE): deleting the first N and the first E of the EE pair gives NAUENEAU, switching the first and last letters gives UAUENEAN, and replacing each consonant (N) with O gives UAUEOEAO. Under that same reading, OAUEOEAU skips the switch of the first and last letters, UAUOEEAO deletes the first E in the string instead of the first E of the doubled pair, and AOUEOEAU switches the first two letters instead of the first and last letters.

  125. To: Ruth Graze From: Gregory Thomas Subject: Recent Customer Service Experience Dear Ms. Graze, Thank you for reaching out to our Customer Service Team regarding your most recent experience at one of our physical locations. Here at Lightpost Shopping Services, we pride ourselves on our superior customer service experiences, which has been rated ten out of ten by our clients. Unfortunately, it seems as though we did not live up to this standard based on your recent feedback, and we would like to make up for this. First off, we would like to extend our sincerest apologies regarding the subpar service you received in our electronics department at the Lightpost Shopping Center on Perry Highway. After reading your email, we looked into the matter and would like to shed some light on the situation. Since we have been short staffed for quite some time, we have recently hired more seasonal workers. The manager at our Perry Highway store, for instance, has been training an influx of new employees for the past five months. As such, it seems as though you were given incorrect information regarding the cost and maintenance of your laptop battery from a new employee. To prevent this from happening in the future, we are currently revamping our training methods so that our employees’ knowledge of the product is accurate. Thank you for bringing this to our attention! Secondly, we would like to fully reimburse you for the cost of the laptop battery. You will find the refunded amount on your credit card within three to five business days. Please let us know if you have any questions or further comments regarding this matter. Once again, we appreciate your business and look forward to assisting you with all of your future electronics needs! Kind Regards, Gregory Thomas According to the writer, why did the recipient likely perceive subpar customer service?

    • A.The trainee misunderstood the battery details.
    • B.The manager overlooked the seasonal newcomers.
    • C.The distributor shipped the defective battery.
    • D.The salesclerk misplaced the battery warranty.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The trainee misunderstood the battery details.

    The trainee misunderstood the battery details. This is correct: the writer says "you were given incorrect information regarding the cost and maintenance of your laptop battery from a new employee" and promises new training "so that our employees’ knowledge of the product is accurate." The manager overlooked the seasonal newcomers. This is incorrect because the email says the manager "has been training an influx of new employees for the past five months," the opposite of overlooking them. The distributor shipped the defective battery. This is incorrect because the email never says the battery was faulty; the complaint concerned information about its cost and maintenance. The salesclerk misplaced the battery warranty. This is incorrect because no warranty is mentioned; the problem was the incorrect information the employee gave.

  126. The McCluster Health Company is preparing information for its annual company retreat. Part of the Marketing Team’s presentation will explain the number of program enrollments attained with each of the marketing plans over the last two years. Each marketing plan had a different budget. The team will demonstrate how the number of program enrollments rose with an increase in the marketing budget, with the highest budget of $14,000 reaching over 2000 program enrollments. For this reason, they are asking for an increase in the next marketing campaign’s budget. Which of the following is a conclusion based on the graph?

    • A.Program enrollments and marketing budgets advanced together.
    • B.Program enrollments and marketing budgets trended inversely.
    • C.Program enrollments and marketing budgets peaked separately.
    • D.Program enrollments and marketing budgets decoupled halfway.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Program enrollments and marketing budgets advanced together.

    Program enrollments and marketing budgets advanced together. This is correct: the team will show "how the number of program enrollments rose with an increase in the marketing budget," with the highest budget reaching over 2000 enrollments, so the two rise together. Program enrollments and marketing budgets trended inversely. This is incorrect because it reverses the trend the data shows; enrollments went up, not down, as the budget grew. Program enrollments and marketing budgets peaked separately. This is incorrect because the highest budget, 14,000 dollars, also produced the most enrollments, so both peaked at the same point. Program enrollments and marketing budgets decoupled halfway. This is incorrect because enrollments kept rising with the budget all the way to the highest budget instead of leveling off partway.

  127. After all the unsuccessful interviews, I have finally landed a position in a promising company. When I decided to quit my last job at a tech start-up, I immediately got in touch with a headhunter who I had first worked with years ago. Even though I had a fairly updated resume, it was not until I updated my online portfolio that I finally got my first call for an interview. Then, the calls just kept on coming! What happened before the narrator’s first call for an interview?

    • A.She applied changes to her online portfolio.
    • B.She forwarded links to her online portfolio.
    • C.She referred panels to her online portfolio.
    • D.She sent inquiries to her newest headhunter.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: She applied changes to her online portfolio.

    She applied changes to her online portfolio. This is correct: the narrator says, "it was not until I updated my online portfolio that I finally got my first call for an interview," so the update came first and the call followed. She forwarded links to her online portfolio. This is incorrect because the passage never says she sent her portfolio to anyone; it credits only the update itself. She referred panels to her online portfolio. This is incorrect because pointing interview panels to her work could only happen once the calls for interviews had started, and the passage never describes it. She sent inquiries to her newest headhunter. This is incorrect because she contacted "a headhunter who I had first worked with years ago," someone she already knew, not a new one.

  128. The McCluster Health Company is preparing information for its annual company retreat. Part of the Marketing Team’s presentation will explain the number of program enrollments attained with each of the marketing plans over the last two years. Each marketing plan had a different budget. The team will demonstrate how the number of program enrollments rose with an increase in the marketing budget, with the highest budget of $14,000 reaching over 2000 program enrollments. For this reason, they are asking for an increase in the next marketing campaign’s budget. Using the information in the graph, which of the following courses of action would likely be the best if the company needs 2500 program enrollments?

    • A.Boost the budget by 500–1,000 dollars.
    • B.Raise the budget by 2,000–4,000 dollars.
    • C.Grow the budget by 16,000–18,000 dollars.
    • D.Hike the budget by 12,000–14,000 dollars.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Raise the budget by 2,000–4,000 dollars.

    Raise the budget by 2,000–4,000 dollars. This is the keyed answer: the 14,000-dollar budget reached just over 2000 enrollments, and the graph's budgets rise in steps of 2,000 dollars, so continuing the trend by one or two more steps is the likeliest way to reach 2500 enrollments. Boost the budget by 500–1,000 dollars. This is incorrect because it treats the 500 additional enrollments needed as a number of dollars. Grow the budget by 16,000–18,000 dollars. This is incorrect because it reports the whole budget needed for 2500 enrollments (about 17,500 dollars at the current cost per enrollment) as the size of the increase. Hike the budget by 12,000–14,000 dollars. This is incorrect because it roughly doubles the current budget, far more than a target only about 25 percent above current enrollments calls for.

  129. Glasses or Contacts? We’re used to thinking of contacts as making people more attractive than glasses. In movies and makeovers, when someone makes an impressive transformation, part of that, inevitably, seems to be switching from glasses to contacts. These movies are often silly and trite, but nonetheless influential in shaping cultural perceptions. In pop culture, there’s also the association of glasses with people who are shy and bookish; these aren’t qualities our society often sees as positive. However, glasses are far easier and more convenient than contacts. Even if you decide to go for contacts, you’ll want a pair of glasses when your eyes are too tired or sensitive for contacts. Glasses do have to be cleaned, but overall, their maintenance is simpler than contacts. You don’t have to store them in saline each night or throw them out and get new ones each morning. You don’t have to worry about washing your hands before you put on your glasses; however, forgetting to wash your hands before you put on your contacts could lead to irritating particles on your contacts, which can hurt your eyes. Glasses also produce fewer annoying situations. You can fall asleep with your glasses on, but if you fall asleep with your contacts in, your eyes may become dry, and removing your contacts may become uncomfortable. Also, you never have to worry about your glasses getting stuck up your eyelid, but this can happen with contacts. Many contact wearers have experienced this. Ultimately, your contact cannot actually go behind your eye. This is because of how the eye is constructed. The inside of the eyelids has a lining called the conjunctiva. It transitions into the white part of the eyeball, which is the sclera. There’s a complete connection there; there are no holes or anything for the contact to slip through and migrate to the back of the eye. Still, having one lost under your eyelid can be stressful and irritating. This is something that can never happen with glasses. Ultimately, individual preference is key. However, you shouldn’t spare a second thought when it comes to movies and other media that connect glasses with unattractiveness. Wear what’s best for you, but do consider at least having a pair of glasses as a back-up for when you don’t want to deal with those little discs of discomfort. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses an opinion?

    • A.Many contact wearers have experienced this.
    • B.You don’t have to store them in saline each night or throw them out and get new ones each morning.
    • C.However, glasses are far easier and more convenient than contacts.
    • D.You can fall asleep with your glasses on, but if you fall asleep with your contacts in, your eyes may become dry, and removing your contacts may become uncomfortable.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: However, glasses are far easier and more convenient than contacts.

    However, glasses are far easier and more convenient than contacts. This is correct because "far easier and more convenient" is the writer's own judgment; a contact wearer could reasonably disagree, so the statement cannot be proven true or false. Many contact wearers have experienced this. This is incorrect because it reports something that has happened to real people and could be checked by asking contact wearers. You don’t have to store them in saline each night or throw them out and get new ones each morning. This is incorrect because it states how glasses are cared for, which is verifiable. You can fall asleep with your glasses on, but if you fall asleep with your contacts in, your eyes may become dry, and removing your contacts may become uncomfortable. This is incorrect because it describes what can physically happen; the word "may" marks a possibility that eye experts can confirm, not a personal preference.

  130. I never thought that I would be saying this after all the difficulties that I faced, but at long last, I officially have my driver’s license after having passed the exam! Every time I get behind the wheel, I will remember the stress and anxiety that came with this process. I am so glad that I never gave up, even after failing the theory and practical exams twice! Which event came last in the sequence?

    • A.The narrator cleared their driver’s license exam.
    • B.The narrator failed their driver’s license tests.
    • C.The narrator received their new driver’s license.
    • D.The narrator quit their driver’s license pursuit.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The narrator received their new driver’s license.

    The narrator received their new driver’s license. This is correct: "at long last, I officially have my driver’s license after having passed the exam" places getting the license after every other event. The narrator cleared their driver’s license exam. This is incorrect because the license came "after having passed the exam," so passing was the second-to-last event, not the last. The narrator failed their driver’s license tests. This is incorrect because failing "the theory and practical exams twice" happened earlier, before the narrator finally passed. The narrator quit their driver’s license pursuit. This is incorrect because the narrator says, "I am so glad that I never gave up," so quitting never happened at all.

  131. After just a few years, my small knitting hobby has turned into a full-blown business with paying clients. I usually start out a new project with a trip to the craft store, accompanied by the notes made previously during my initial meeting with each client. These meetings are the second step in the process, which happen shortly after a new client expresses interest in my work. What happens before the narrator meets with clients?

    • A.A prospective client admires the narrator’s handiwork.
    • B.A notebook captures the narrator’s client discussions.
    • C.A finished commission satisfies the narrator’s client.
    • D.A further consultation includes the narrator’s client.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A prospective client admires the narrator’s handiwork.

    A prospective client admires the narrator’s handiwork. This is correct: the meetings "happen shortly after a new client expresses interest in my work," so the client's interest comes first. A notebook captures the narrator’s client discussions. This is incorrect because the notes are "made previously during my initial meeting with each client," so they are written during the meeting, not before it. A finished commission satisfies the narrator’s client. This is incorrect because a finished piece could only come after the meeting, the trip to the craft store, and the work itself. A further consultation includes the narrator’s client. This is incorrect because the passage describes only the initial meeting, which is "the second step in the process"; no additional meeting is mentioned, and any later one would follow the first meeting rather than precede it.

  132. Chaos in Translation 1. Although it can seem quite technical, translating texts into different languages is a delicate art. Not only does it require a solid understanding of languages, but it also calls for an artistic voice that can truly make the words seem natural to native speakers. When it is done well, readers do not even realize that they are reading a text that has been translated from another language. When it is done badly, however, chaos ensues. One of the most emblematic examples of a translation mishap occurred at the dawn of the twentieth century, when an American diplomat received an incorrectly translated copy of a popular book about aliens. As you might imagine, the mistake ignited both fear and disbelief regarding a concept that was already so foreign to begin with. 2. It all started with Giovanni Virginio Schiaparelli, an Italian astronomer and astrophysicist, in the late 1800s. In addition to studying astronomy at renowned universities, Schiaparelli was the lead director of a famous observatory in Milan, where he was able to observe stars and planets with a telescope. When he first viewed Mars this way in 1877, he quickly made a hand drawn picture of what he had seen on a piece of paper. Using this reference, he believed that the chromatic differences and the “grooves” that he had seen on the surface of Mars meant that continents and seas existed on the planet. Even more interesting was the fact that “channels”, bodies of water that join two larger areas of water, seemed to connect the various seas. Of course, Schiaparelli had written the original works and explanations in his native language of Italian. He immediately received national success for his findings, and his works were quickly translated into English. 3. Once the information made its way into the United States, it attracted the attention of a wealthy American named Percival Lowell, who had previously abandoned his career as a foreign diplomat to invest his time and interests in astronomy. He, too, had observed Mars with a telescope, but was shocked when he read Schiaparelli’s description of the planet. Although he was familiar with the grooves and ridges described in Schiaparelli’s work, he was shocked to read about the “canals” — artificial man-made structures — that connected large bodies of water on Mars. Not only did this prove that life exists on Mars, but it suggested that these life forms could construct immense structures in a short period of time! Understanding that Schiaparelli had been a distinguished astronomer and a credible source, Lowell decided that the shocking discovery must be made accessible to the public. 4. What he did not realize at the time, however, was that the translation was incorrect, and Schiaparelli had never intended to say that man-made structures existed on Mars. In any case, on August 27, 1911, the front page of the New York Times contained a startling headline: “Martians Build Two Immense Canals in Two Years”. This gave rise to incorrect assumptions about intelligent life on Mars. For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in, while others remained skeptical. Luckily, the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography. Despite this, conspiracy theories about “martians” and their strength persisted for decades to come. Later, scientists and other astronomers came to the conclusion that the channels were simply optical illusions, and future high-resolution snapshots from visiting spacecrafts would only confirm that the man-made “canals” were only a result of a language mishap. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from paragraph 4?

    • A.Spacecraft cameras originally debunked the planet’s canals.
    • B.The paper’s editors swiftly printed corrections themselves.
    • C.Certain citizens doubted the respected newspaper’s reports.
    • D.Fearful readers outnumbered the headline’s calmer skeptics.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Certain citizens doubted the respected newspaper’s reports.

    Certain citizens doubted the respected newspaper’s reports. This is correct: after the New York Times headline, "For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in, while others remained skeptical," so not everyone believed it even though it ran on the front page of a major newspaper. Spacecraft cameras originally debunked the planet’s canals. This is incorrect because the information "was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography"; images from visiting spacecraft came much later and only confirmed what was already known. The paper’s editors swiftly printed corrections themselves. This is incorrect because paragraph 4 says the information was corrected but never says who corrected it or that the newspaper printed anything further. Fearful readers outnumbered the headline’s calmer skeptics. This is incorrect because the paragraph says only that some were afraid while "others remained skeptical"; it gives no sign of which group was larger.

  133. Glasses or Contacts? We’re used to thinking of contacts as making people more attractive than glasses. In movies and makeovers, when someone makes an impressive transformation, part of that, inevitably, seems to be switching from glasses to contacts. These movies are often silly and trite, but nonetheless influential in shaping cultural perceptions. In pop culture, there’s also the association of glasses with people who are shy and bookish; these aren’t qualities our society often sees as positive. However, glasses are far easier and more convenient than contacts. Even if you decide to go for contacts, you’ll want a pair of glasses when your eyes are too tired or sensitive for contacts. Glasses do have to be cleaned, but overall, their maintenance is simpler than contacts. You don’t have to store them in saline each night or throw them out and get new ones each morning. You don’t have to worry about washing your hands before you put on your glasses; however, forgetting to wash your hands before you put on your contacts could lead to irritating particles on your contacts, which can hurt your eyes. Glasses also produce fewer annoying situations. You can fall asleep with your glasses on, but if you fall asleep with your contacts in, your eyes may become dry, and removing your contacts may become uncomfortable. Also, you never have to worry about your glasses getting stuck up your eyelid, but this can happen with contacts. Many contact wearers have experienced this. Ultimately, your contact cannot actually go behind your eye. This is because of how the eye is constructed. The inside of the eyelids has a lining called the conjunctiva. It transitions into the white part of the eyeball, which is the sclera. There’s a complete connection there; there are no holes or anything for the contact to slip through and migrate to the back of the eye. Still, having one lost under your eyelid can be stressful and irritating. This is something that can never happen with glasses. Ultimately, individual preference is key. However, you shouldn’t spare a second thought when it comes to movies and other media that connect glasses with unattractiveness. Wear what’s best for you, but do consider at least having a pair of glasses as a back-up for when you don’t want to deal with those little discs of discomfort. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses a fact?

    • A.Ultimately, individual preference is key.
    • B.Ultimately, your contact cannot actually go behind your eye.
    • C.Glasses also produce fewer annoying situations.
    • D.Even if you decide to go for contacts, you’ll want a pair of glasses when your eyes are too tired or sensitive for contacts.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ultimately, your contact cannot actually go behind your eye.

    Ultimately, your contact cannot actually go behind your eye. This is correct because it can be verified from the structure of the eye: the passage explains that the conjunctiva lining the eyelid joins the sclera, leaving "no holes or anything for the contact to slip through." Ultimately, individual preference is key. This is incorrect because it is the writer's view of how people should choose; it cannot be proven. Glasses also produce fewer annoying situations. This is incorrect because "annoying" is a personal reaction; what one wearer finds annoying another may not, so the statement is an opinion even though it sounds like a comparison of facts. Even if you decide to go for contacts, you’ll want a pair of glasses when your eyes are too tired or sensitive for contacts. This is incorrect because it is the writer's prediction of what the reader will want, a judgment about the best course of action rather than a verifiable fact.

  134. The McCluster Health Company is preparing information for its annual company retreat. Part of the Marketing Team’s presentation will explain the number of program enrollments attained with each of the marketing plans over the last two years. Each marketing plan had a different budget. The team will demonstrate how the number of program enrollments rose with an increase in the marketing budget, with the highest budget of $14,000 reaching over 2000 program enrollments. For this reason, they are asking for an increase in the next marketing campaign’s budget. Which of the following best describes the results of the marketing budget analysis?

    • A.Program enrollments slump sharply as the marketing budget peaks.
    • B.Program enrollments barely budge as the marketing budget climbs.
    • C.Program enrollments rise steadily as the marketing budget grows.
    • D.Program enrollments seesaw wildly as the marketing budget moves.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Program enrollments rise steadily as the marketing budget grows.

    Program enrollments rise steadily as the marketing budget grows. This is correct: the presentation shows "how the number of program enrollments rose with an increase in the marketing budget," ending with the highest budget reaching over 2000 enrollments. Program enrollments slump sharply as the marketing budget peaks. This is incorrect because the highest budget, 14,000 dollars, produced the most enrollments, not a drop. Program enrollments barely budge as the marketing budget climbs. This is incorrect because enrollments rose with each increase and reached over 2000 at the top budget, which is a large change. Program enrollments seesaw wildly as the marketing budget moves. This is incorrect because the results follow one clear direction, rising as the budget rises, rather than moving up and down unpredictably.

  135. To: Ruth Graze From: Gregory Thomas Subject: Recent Customer Service Experience Dear Ms. Graze, Thank you for reaching out to our Customer Service Team regarding your most recent experience at one of our physical locations. Here at Lightpost Shopping Services, we pride ourselves on our superior customer service experiences, which has been rated ten out of ten by our clients. Unfortunately, it seems as though we did not live up to this standard based on your recent feedback, and we would like to make up for this. First off, we would like to extend our sincerest apologies regarding the subpar service you received in our electronics department at the Lightpost Shopping Center on Perry Highway. After reading your email, we looked into the matter and would like to shed some light on the situation. Since we have been short staffed for quite some time, we have recently hired more seasonal workers. The manager at our Perry Highway store, for instance, has been training an influx of new employees for the past five months. As such, it seems as though you were given incorrect information regarding the cost and maintenance of your laptop battery from a new employee. To prevent this from happening in the future, we are currently revamping our training methods so that our employees’ knowledge of the product is accurate. Thank you for bringing this to our attention! Secondly, we would like to fully reimburse you for the cost of the laptop battery. You will find the refunded amount on your credit card within three to five business days. Please let us know if you have any questions or further comments regarding this matter. Once again, we appreciate your business and look forward to assisting you with all of your future electronics needs! Kind Regards, Gregory Thomas What is the main purpose of this email?

    • A.To reimburse payment for the recipient’s laptop battery
    • B.To express regrets for the recipient’s unpleasant visit
    • C.To justify temporary recruits for the recipient’s store
    • D.To publicize flawless ratings for the recipient’s store
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To express regrets for the recipient’s unpleasant visit

    To express regrets for the recipient’s unpleasant visit. This is correct: after admitting "we did not live up to this standard," the writer extends "our sincerest apologies regarding the subpar service you received," and everything else in the email, including the explanation and the refund, serves that apology. To reimburse payment for the recipient’s laptop battery. This is incorrect as the main purpose; the refund is introduced with "Secondly" as one way the company makes up for the problem it has just apologized for. To justify temporary recruits for the recipient’s store. This is incorrect because the seasonal hiring is mentioned only to explain how a new employee came to give wrong information. To publicize flawless ratings for the recipient’s store. This is incorrect because the ten-out-of-ten rating is mentioned only to admit that the company fell short of it.

  136. Shark attack (source) A new analysis of a 3000-year-old skeleton unearthed 100 years ago reveals the earliest evidence of a shark attack ever recorded. Archaeologists believe that the skeleton, missing a hand and a leg, belongs to a Japanese fisherman or shellfish diver who was killed while at work. Presumably, his severed body was taken back to land by his comrades. Prior to this discovery, the oldest signs of a shark attack were found on a skeleton dated back to 1000 years ago from Puerto Rico. Which of the following best rephrases the main idea of the passage?

    • A.Ancient fishermen routinely suffered gruesome shark attacks.
    • B.Archaeologists newly unearthed ancient shark attack victims.
    • C.Recent research overturned earlier shark attack conclusions.
    • D.Caribbean skeletons previously yielded shark attack origins.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Recent research overturned earlier shark attack conclusions.

    Recent research overturned earlier shark attack conclusions. This is correct: a new analysis of a 3000-year-old skeleton "reveals the earliest evidence of a shark attack ever recorded," replacing the earlier record, since "Prior to this discovery, the oldest signs of a shark attack were found on a skeleton dated back to 1000 years ago from Puerto Rico." Ancient fishermen routinely suffered gruesome shark attacks. This is incorrect because the passage describes a single skeleton and never says such attacks were routine. Archaeologists newly unearthed ancient shark attack victims. This is incorrect because the skeleton was "unearthed 100 years ago"; only the analysis is new. Caribbean skeletons previously yielded shark attack origins. This is incorrect as the main idea; the Puerto Rico skeleton is a supporting detail that shows what the new finding replaced.

  137. Differences (source) Many believe that what makes humans different from animals is the ability to solve difficult problems and to feel emotions like joy and sorrow. Many biologists affirm that understanding these differences is a complex process. By observing a Caledonian crow solve a problem that impedes it from reaching its drinking water, it appears evident that some animals are able to find solutions to practical issues as humans would. Similarly, watching a single raven slide down a snowy roof countless times on a piece of plastic for no practical reasons could be a sign that they are partaking in a bit of fun and perhaps feeling joy. It seems that we might need to rethink our beliefs on what makes us different from animals after all. Which of the following states the main idea of the passage?

    • A.Humans remain decidedly more rational than clever animals.
    • B.Animals experience basic emotions more deeply than humans.
    • C.Thirsty crows access water more ingeniously than expected.
    • D.Animals possibly mirror humans more closely than imagined.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Animals possibly mirror humans more closely than imagined.

    Animals possibly mirror humans more closely than imagined. This is correct: the passage gives two examples, a crow solving a problem and a raven apparently having fun, and concludes, "It seems that we might need to rethink our beliefs on what makes us different from animals after all." Humans remain decidedly more rational than clever animals. This is incorrect because it repeats the belief the passage questions; the crow example suggests animals can "find solutions to practical issues as humans would." Animals experience basic emotions more deeply than humans. This is incorrect because the passage only suggests a raven "could be" feeling joy; it never claims animals feel more deeply than people. Thirsty crows access water more ingeniously than expected. This is incorrect because the crow is one supporting example, not the main idea.

  138. Constellation Aries (source) Aries is the Latin term for ‘ram’, and it is a winter constellation, most visible in December in the northern hemisphere. Unlike other constellations, many cultures have always recognized Aries as the representation of a ram, and it gives its name to one of the star signs in western astrology. In the tale of Jason and the Argonauts, Jason is sent to find the Golden Fleece in order to claim his throne as king, which he finds with the help of his future wife, Medea. In Greek mythology, the Golden Fleece is the symbol of power and authority, and it is supposed to be the fleece belonging to Aries, the flying ram, after it had been sacrificed to Zeus. This is one of the most famous ancient stories, which was current in Homer’s time. Although this medium-sized constellation is formed of 5 stars, only 4 are often visible, creating a line from the ram’s head all the way down its back. Which of the following best rephrases the topic of the passage?

    • A.Cultural meanings behind star patterns
    • B.Personality profiles behind star signs
    • C.Linguistic heritage behind star labels
    • D.Legendary quests behind golden fleeces
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cultural meanings behind star patterns

    Cultural meanings behind star patterns. This is correct: the passage explains that "many cultures have always recognized Aries as the representation of a ram" and ties the constellation to the Golden Fleece of Greek mythology, so its topic is what a star pattern has meant to people. Personality profiles behind star signs. This is incorrect because the passage only notes that Aries "gives its name to one of the star signs"; it says nothing about personality or astrology. Linguistic heritage behind star labels. This is incorrect because the Latin meaning of "Aries" is a single opening detail. Legendary quests behind golden fleeces. This is incorrect because the story of Jason is included to show what the constellation represents; on its own it leaves out the constellation, which is the subject of the passage.

  139. Saving giant pandas (source) With their distinctive black and white wooly coat and their usually docile temperament, giant pandas are the symbol of China. The decrease of the giant panda population prompted the country to put a lot of effort into protecting this species, which was removed from the ‘endangered’ list and labeled as ‘vulnerable’ in 2016. After poaching spiralled out of control in the 1980s and deforestation exhausted their bamboo food resources, giant pandas were officially deemed endangered in 1990. Since then, the Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide have worked to reforest and protect the habitat in which the giant panda and other wildlife can thrive. There are now over sixty reserves dotted around the country, where pandas can breed in captivity and are cared for if injured. Furthermore, visitors are educated about conservation programs, while the locals learn the importance of panda-related tourism and how it can benefit their community. What is the main idea of the passage?

    • A.Panda recovery reflects cooperative global rescue work.
    • B.Panda recovery reflects homegrown national rescue work.
    • C.Panda recovery reflects successfully ended rescue work.
    • D.Panda recovery reflects unaided wild population growth.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Panda recovery reflects cooperative global rescue work.

    Panda recovery reflects cooperative global rescue work. This is correct: the passage says "the Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide have worked to reforest and protect the habitat," and describes reserves, visitor education, and local involvement, all parts of a joint effort. Panda recovery reflects homegrown national rescue work. This is incorrect because the passage credits "conservation organizations worldwide" as well as the Chinese government, so the work was not a single nation's effort. Panda recovery reflects successfully ended rescue work. This is incorrect because pandas are still labeled "vulnerable" and the reserves continue to operate, so the work is not finished. Panda recovery reflects unaided wild population growth. This is incorrect because the passage credits human effort, not natural growth, for the change in the pandas' status.

  140. Saving giant pandas (source) With their distinctive black and white wooly coat and their usually docile temperament, giant pandas are the symbol of China. The decrease of the giant panda population prompted the country to put a lot of effort into protecting this species, which was removed from the ‘endangered’ list and labeled as ‘vulnerable’ in 2016. After poaching spiralled out of control in the 1980s and deforestation exhausted their bamboo food resources, giant pandas were officially deemed endangered in 1990. Since then, the Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide have worked to reforest and protect the habitat in which the giant panda and other wildlife can thrive. There are now over sixty reserves dotted around the country, where pandas can breed in captivity and are cared for if injured. Furthermore, visitors are educated about conservation programs, while the locals learn the importance of panda-related tourism and how it can benefit their community. Which of the following is a supporting detail for the idea that people have attempted to save giant pandas?

    • A.Officials and international charities restored panda forests.
    • B.Overseas zoos and sanctuaries reintroduced panda populations.
    • C.Townspeople and community patrols apprehended panda poachers.
    • D.Scientists and veterinarians repeatedly cloned panda embryos.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Officials and international charities restored panda forests.

    Officials and international charities restored panda forests. This is correct: "the Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide have worked to reforest and protect the habitat," which is a direct example of people trying to save giant pandas. Overseas zoos and sanctuaries reintroduced panda populations. This is incorrect because the passage never mentions zoos abroad or pandas being released into the wild; the reserves it describes are in China, where pandas "can breed in captivity." Townspeople and community patrols apprehended panda poachers. This is incorrect because the passage mentions poaching only as a cause of the decline; it says the locals "learn the importance of panda-related tourism," not that they caught poachers. Scientists and veterinarians repeatedly cloned panda embryos. This is incorrect because cloning is never mentioned; the passage describes breeding in captivity, habitat protection, and education.

  141. Saving giant pandas (source) With their distinctive black and white wooly coat and their usually docile temperament, giant pandas are the symbol of China. The decrease of the giant panda population prompted the country to put a lot of effort into protecting this species, which was removed from the ‘endangered’ list and labeled as ‘vulnerable’ in 2016. After poaching spiralled out of control in the 1980s and deforestation exhausted their bamboo food resources, giant pandas were officially deemed endangered in 1990. Since then, the Chinese government and conservation organizations worldwide have worked to reforest and protect the habitat in which the giant panda and other wildlife can thrive. There are now over sixty reserves dotted around the country, where pandas can breed in captivity and are cared for if injured. Furthermore, visitors are educated about conservation programs, while the locals learn the importance of panda-related tourism and how it can benefit their community. Which detail is irrelevant to the main idea?

    • A.Reserves give injured pandas a quiet refuge.
    • B.Monochrome fur makes pandas a national icon.
    • C.Guests get a short panda conservation class.
    • D.China made pandas a top protection priority.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Monochrome fur makes pandas a national icon.

    Monochrome fur makes pandas a national icon. This is correct: the opening line, "With their distinctive black and white wooly coat and their usually docile temperament, giant pandas are the symbol of China," describes the animal's appearance and status but says nothing about saving it, which is the main idea. Reserves give injured pandas a quiet refuge. This is incorrect because the reserves, where pandas "are cared for if injured," are part of the rescue effort. Guests get a short panda conservation class. This is incorrect because "visitors are educated about conservation programs" is another step taken to protect pandas. China made pandas a top protection priority. This is incorrect because the population decline "prompted the country to put a lot of effort into protecting this species," which is central to the main idea.

  142. The Longest Voyage : 1. When you think of long voyages, your mind might immediately think back to a tedious transatlantic flight or perhaps even a relaxing cruise journey across vast oceans. Botanists and environmentalists, on the other hand, would probably think about the famous migration pattern of the vanessa cardui, a native sub-Saharan butterfly that makes an exceptional, yearly expedition from West Africa to Scandinavia, totaling just over 8,600 miles each year! Past research has indicated that specific climatic conditions likely need to be present in order for these butterflies to make the long journey and breed around the world successfully. However, evidence has always been lacking — until now. Thanks to a recent study on migration patterns, more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey of these insects. 2. This well-traveled species goes by a few different names, ranging from its scientific term, vanessa cardui, to the colloquial nickname of the “painted lady”. Unlike similar species, the painted lady breeds constantly throughout the year. Thus, it is one of the most popular butterflies that can thrive in almost any climate and can be found in gardens on every continent, excluding South America and Antarctica. While most are probably not familiar with the scientific details surrounding this butterfly, it has definitely become a household name. According to a psychology study, an astounding number of people picture the painted lady’s classic orange and black wing detail when asked to describe the image of a butterfly. As of now, even more information is known regarding this popular species. 3. To begin the research process on migration patterns, a team from the University of Reading (UK) compared data regarding the presence of the butterfly in Europe. The study included decades worth of information regarding the climate and atmosphere of sub-Saharan Africa. After the initial analysis, scientists discovered that the number of specimens of the vanessa cardui in Europe alone can actually fluctuate up to 100 times from one year to the next. When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa. The number of painted lady butterflies in Europe matched up with the climate data from the past few decades, finally providing enough evidence to solidify past speculation. 4. Regarding vegetation, it has been found that the vanessa cardui caterpillars multiply at a rapid speed when the African savannah’s humidity rate is higher than average. This allows the species to become stronger before crossing the Sahara desert. When it comes to winds, simulations have shown that the stronger the tailwind, the easier it is for the species to reach the necessary altitude of two miles above sea level. This height allows them to attain a desirable flight speed of 6 miles per second. While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effect that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 1?

    • A.Experts remain unsure climate alters the butterfly’s migration.
    • B.Strong tailwinds mainly power the butterfly’s yearly migration.
    • C.The butterfly’s yearly expedition covers several climate zones.
    • D.New proof establishes climate shapes the butterfly’s migration.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: New proof establishes climate shapes the butterfly’s migration.

    New proof establishes climate shapes the butterfly’s migration. This is correct: paragraph 1 says past research suggested climatic conditions were needed, "However, evidence has always been lacking — until now," because "a recent study" has shed light on "climatic conditions that influence" the journey. Experts remain unsure climate alters the butterfly’s migration. This is incorrect because the paragraph says the lack of evidence lasted only "until now." Strong tailwinds mainly power the butterfly’s yearly migration. This is incorrect because tailwinds are discussed in paragraph 4, not paragraph 1, and even there they are one of two conditions. The butterfly’s yearly expedition covers several climate zones. This is incorrect because the route from West Africa to Scandinavia is a supporting detail, not a summary of the paragraph's point about the new evidence.

  143. When giving feedback on someone’s performance, do not enumerate all of their shortcomings, which can be discouraging; instead, identify just one or two things to focus on. Which of the following defines “enumerate” in the sentence above?

    • A.Mock
    • B.Rate
    • C.Mask
    • D.List
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: List

    List is correct. To enumerate is to name things one by one, as in a list; the sentence contrasts listing all of someone's shortcomings with picking out "just one or two things to focus on." Mock is incorrect because to mock is to ridicule; the sentence is about how many faults are named, not about making fun of them. Rate is incorrect because to rate is to score or rank something, which is not what enumerate means. Mask is incorrect because masking shortcomings would hide them, the opposite of naming them all, and would not be discouraging.

  144. From: Shannon Edler, President To: All Staff Date: September 1 Subject: New Marketing Materials Attachment: Zip File Hello everyone, As you should all be aware, McKensey Enterprises has forged a new partnership with Harris Public Relations. After a year of discussions and shifts in our company’s target markets, we have finally decided on our new brand. It is a fresh take on tradition while still adhering to our company’s values and core mission. Among other things, this change includes different color schemes and an updated company logo. Attached to this email, you will find the most updated changes in a zip File. Please look through the file with utmost attention, as you will find everything you need when updating client material, your personal business cards, and any other business material. A copy of the file will also be uploaded to the company’s employee portal within two business days. Please note that our Marketing team is still in the process of updating our website to reflect these new changes. It will be done within two business days, or in other words, before the weekend. If you have any other questions regarding the recent rebranding, keep an eye out for our in-company newsletter, which will be making its way to you soon. For any other issues, please refer to your direct manager for clarification. Best, Shannon Edler President, McKensey Enterprises When will employees be able to view the company’s new website?

    • A.After the weekend
    • B.Over the weekend
    • C.Within the workweek
    • D.With the newsletter
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Within the workweek

    Within the workweek. This is correct: the email says the website "will be done within two business days, or in other words, before the weekend," so employees can view it before the workweek ends. After the weekend. This is incorrect because the email says the work will be finished "before the weekend," not after it. Over the weekend. This is incorrect for the same reason; the update is promised before the weekend begins. With the newsletter. This is incorrect because the newsletter is mentioned only as the place to look for answers to questions about the rebranding; it has nothing to do with when the website is ready.

  145. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the following information? After hearing a strange noise in the next room, Beth tiptoed slowly to the hallway and scanned the area for potential self-defense weapons. To her relief, she noticed a pile of large books that had fallen after her cat had pushed them off the tall bookshelf.

    • A.Beth’s leisure time favors books.
    • B.Beth’s pet reaches lofty shelves.
    • C.Beth’s house lacks extra tenants.
    • D.Beth’s shelf cracked apart today.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Beth’s pet reaches lofty shelves.

    Beth’s pet reaches lofty shelves. This is correct: the books fell "after her cat had pushed them off the tall bookshelf," so the cat must be able to climb up high furniture. Beth’s leisure time favors books. This is incorrect because the passage says only that the books were large and sat on a tall bookshelf; owning books does not show that she spends her free time reading them. Beth’s house lacks extra tenants. This is incorrect because the passage never says who else lives with Beth; investigating the noise herself does not show that she lives alone. Beth’s shelf cracked apart today. This is incorrect because the books fell when the cat pushed them off the bookshelf; nothing says the shelf broke.

  146. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the following information? After a few months of traveling through Italy, I was finally starting to grasp the basics of the beautiful romance language. I could order a gelato and check-in to a hotel with ease, which were things that I had never thought possible with only two years worth of Italian classes from college decades ago.

    • A.The writer’s Italian teachers taught badly.
    • B.The writer’s Italian skills neared fluency.
    • C.The writer’s Italian course ended recently.
    • D.The writer’s Italian acquisition took time.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The writer’s Italian acquisition took time.

    The writer’s Italian acquisition took time. This is correct: only "after a few months of traveling through Italy" was the writer "finally starting to grasp the basics," even with two years of college classes behind them. The writer’s Italian teachers taught badly. This is incorrect because nothing in the passage judges the quality of the classes; the gap is explained by the classes being "decades ago." The writer’s Italian skills neared fluency. This is incorrect because the writer is only "starting to grasp the basics," such as ordering a gelato. The writer’s Italian course ended recently. This is incorrect because the classes were taken "from college decades ago."

  147. The company’s fees were exorbitant, more than twice what their competitors charged. Which of the following defines “exorbitant” in the sentence above?

    • A.Exclusive
    • B.Mandatory
    • C.Arbitrary
    • D.Excessive
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Excessive

    Excessive is correct. Exorbitant means far higher than is reasonable, and the sentence supports that meaning: the fees were "more than twice what their competitors charged." Exclusive is incorrect because it means limited to a select group; it looks similar to exorbitant but says nothing about the size of the fees. Mandatory is incorrect because it means required; the sentence compares the fees with competitors' prices, not with whether customers must pay them. Arbitrary is incorrect because it means chosen without reason; the clue in the sentence is how high the fees are, not how they were set.

  148. If the statements listed below are true, which of the answer choices is the logical conclusion? Driving in Europe is not all that it’s cracked up to be, and driving in the middle of the night is never ideal. But I am fresh out of options since the taxi service was unavailable and my transatlantic flight home is leaving in just three hours.

    • A.The writer must adjust to the clutch.
    • B.The writer must head to the mainland.
    • C.The writer must drive to the airport.
    • D.The writer must see to the emergency.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The writer must drive to the airport.

    The writer must drive to the airport. This is correct: the writer is "fresh out of options since the taxi service was unavailable," the "transatlantic flight home is leaving in just three hours," and the passage opens by complaining about driving in Europe at night, so driving to the airport is the only remaining choice. The writer must adjust to the clutch. This is incorrect because nothing suggests the car or European driving is new to the writer; saying driving in Europe "is not all that it’s cracked up to be" sounds like the view of someone who has done it before. The writer must head to the mainland. This is incorrect because the flight home is "transatlantic," so home lies across the Atlantic, not elsewhere in Europe. The writer must see to the emergency. This is incorrect because the passage gives no sign of an emergency; the writer is simply out of options and short on time.

  149. To: Seymour Lewis From: Amber Shield Subject: Additional Materials Requested Dear Mr. Lewis, Thank you for your interest in East Oliver County’s call for submissions in our sustainability campaign. Our team has reviewed your proposal on placing sustainable water fountains throughout the city, and we are quite intrigued. The ideas you put forth in your proposal are both innovative and relevant to East Oliver’s needs at this time. However, we need more information regarding the timeline of the project before we can move forward in our decision-making process. In your proposal, you mentioned that you typically work with a separate engineering and design team, which tends to speed up the process. Could you please submit a more detailed schedule, including estimated start and end times for the project? Once you have submitted your estimated schedule, we would then be interested in discussing the budget and expenses you have proposed as well. Please keep in mind that we are still reviewing other applications at this time, and your prompt attention to this matter is appreciated. In any case, we were very pleased with your ideas and believe that your ideals align quite well with our organization’s goals on making East Oliver a thriving county in southwestern Maryland! Your contact for the application process, Margaret Davis, will be in touch regarding the additional details that we have requested. Please reach out to her should you have any questions. Thank you in advance for your dedication to the project and your commitment to East Oliver County. Best, Amber Shield, Selection Committee Chair After the requested details are submitted, what will be the next step in the selection process?

    • A.Announcing the successful proposal
    • B.Addressing the financial estimates
    • C.Building the sustainable fountains
    • D.Interviewing the outside engineers
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Addressing the financial estimates

    Addressing the financial estimates. This is correct: "Once you have submitted your estimated schedule, we would then be interested in discussing the budget and expenses you have proposed as well." Announcing the successful proposal. This is incorrect because the committee is "still reviewing other applications," so no decision is the next step. Building the sustainable fountains. This is incorrect because the project has not been approved; the budget still has to be discussed. Interviewing the outside engineers. This is incorrect because the separate engineering and design team is mentioned only as something the applicant usually works with; no interviews are planned.

  150. Recently, a group of 100 professionals aged 25-30 took part in a study that examined the correlation between hours of sleep and cognitive scores. Participants were asked to keep track of the number of hours they slept each night for a total of 7 nights. Each morning, an hour after participants woke up, they were asked to complete a brief cognitive function test online. Based on these results, researchers believe that one’s sleeping hours do have an impact on one’s cognitive scores. It is clear that the more hours one slept, the better the test performance was, but only up until the 9-hour mark. In fact, those who slept an average of 9 hours each night performed the best on the cognitive test, attaining just over 90 points. Interestingly, the trend began to decrease with participants who slept more than 9 hours each night, since they performed worse on the tests. With this trend, participants reported lower scores for each additional hour of sleep. In order to continue studying this correlation, researchers will create a similar experiment for older and younger age groups. Which of the following describes the cognitive score of someone who has slept for 5 hours?

    • A.It beats a nine-hour sleeper's score.
    • B.It tops a seven-hour sleeper's score.
    • C.It lags a two-hour sleeper's results.
    • D.It trails a ten-hour sleeper's score.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It trails a ten-hour sleeper's score.

    It trails a ten-hour sleeper's score. This is the keyed answer, but it rests on the study's results graph, which is not reproduced with this question; the text says only that scores rose with sleep up to 9 hours and fell for each hour beyond 9, which by itself does not settle how 5 hours compares with 10 hours. It beats a nine-hour sleeper's score. This is incorrect because "those who slept an average of 9 hours each night performed the best on the cognitive test." It tops a seven-hour sleeper's score. This is incorrect because "the more hours one slept, the better the test performance was" up to 9 hours, so 7 hours beats 5 hours. It lags a two-hour sleeper's results. This is incorrect for the same reason: below 9 hours, more sleep meant a higher score, so 5 hours beats 2 hours.

  151. The unscrupulous manager tried to coerce the employees to skip their lunch breaks by threatening to reduce their hours. A synonym for “coerce” as it is used in the sentence above would be __________.

    • A.Force
    • B.Bribe
    • C.Trick
    • D.Tempt
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Force

    Force is correct. To coerce is to make someone do something by pressure or threats, and the sentence shows exactly that: the manager tried to make employees skip lunch "by threatening to reduce their hours." Bribe is incorrect because bribing means offering a reward, while the manager used a threat. Trick is incorrect because tricking means deceiving someone, and nothing in the sentence is hidden; the threat is open. Tempt is incorrect because tempting means making something attractive so a person chooses it, whereas coercion takes the choice away.

  152. 4 4 1 1 3 2 3 1 1 3 Using the number string above, replace every 1 with the letter R, every 2 with the letter E, every 3 with the letter F and every 4 with the letter B. Delete the third instance of the letter that appears the most. Change the letter in the exact middle of the string to an X, and replace any vowels with the letter H.

    • A.BBRFXFRRF
    • B.BBRRFXFRF
    • C.BBRRFHFRF
    • D.BBRRXHFRF
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: BBRRXHFRF

    BBRRXHFRF is correct. Replacing 1 with R, 2 with E, 3 with F, and 4 with B turns 4411323113 into BBRRFEFRRF. R appears most often (four times), so deleting its third instance gives BBRRFEFRF. With nine letters left, the exact middle is the fifth letter, F, which becomes X: BBRRXEFRF. Replacing the vowel E with H gives BBRRXHFRF. BBRFXFRRF deletes the first R instead of the third, which shifts the middle onto the E. BBRRFXFRF changes the sixth letter instead of the fifth, the exact middle of nine. BBRRFHFRF skips the step that changes the middle letter to X.

  153. About dogs : 1. Their behavior can tell us a lot about their personalities, but there are some myths that revolve around dogs’ nature. The misconception that large dogs are more aggressive than small ones still exists so does that of believing that it is normal for dogs to have bad breath. Unfortunately, persistent bad breath could be a sign of tooth decay or gum disease. It is also believed that dogs can only see in black and white. However, this is not true, as they are able to distinguish some colors. 2. Among many myths, a true fact is that dogs have played an important role in society throughout history. Dogs are able to track and catch prey during hunting trips without eating it and can help shepherds with their sheep and cows. Nowadays, dogs are often employed to trace illegal drugs and explosives in public places, and during rescue missions, we rely on dogs to find people in danger. Some are trained to become guide dogs to assist people with vision impairment. However, most dogs can be great companions to the elderly and families with young children. What is the main idea of paragraph 2?

    • A.Dogs perceive multiple colors.
    • B.Dogs greatly benefit humanity.
    • C.Dogs detect hidden explosives.
    • D.Dogs supplant human searchers.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Dogs greatly benefit humanity.

    Dogs greatly benefit humanity. This is correct: paragraph 2 opens by saying "dogs have played an important role in society throughout history" and then lists the ways they help people, from hunting and herding to finding people in danger, guiding people with vision impairment, and keeping families company. Dogs perceive multiple colors. This is incorrect because the point about color comes from paragraph 1, where the passage corrects the myth that dogs see only in black and white. Dogs detect hidden explosives. This is incorrect because tracing "illegal drugs and explosives" is only one example in the list, not the main idea. Dogs supplant human searchers. This is incorrect because the paragraph says "we rely on dogs to find people in danger"; dogs help rescuers rather than replace them.

  154. A yarn shop sells exactly seven different types of colored yarn: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. Choose five different types of yarn to buy using the following guidelines: If type 4 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen. If type 1 is chosen, then type 4 must be chosen. If type 6 is chosen, then type 1 must be chosen. Which of the following combinations of yarn corresponds with the directions?

    • A.4,2,5,1,6
    • B.7,6,2,5,4
    • C.2,1,5,7,3
    • D.5,3,7,4,2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 4,2,5,1,6

    4,2,5,1,6 is correct because it follows all three guidelines: type 4 is chosen and type 3 is not; type 1 is chosen and type 4 is also chosen; type 6 is chosen and type 1 is also chosen. 7,6,2,5,4 is incorrect because it includes type 6 without type 1, breaking the third guideline. 2,1,5,7,3 is incorrect because it includes type 1 without type 4, breaking the second guideline. 5,3,7,4,2 is incorrect because it includes both type 4 and type 3, breaking the first guideline.

  155. About dogs : 1. Their behavior can tell us a lot about their personalities, but there are some myths that revolve around dogs’ nature. The misconception that large dogs are more aggressive than small ones still exists so does that of believing that it is normal for dogs to have bad breath. Unfortunately, persistent bad breath could be a sign of tooth decay or gum disease. It is also believed that dogs can only see in black and white. However, this is not true, as they are able to distinguish some colors. 2. Among many myths, a true fact is that dogs have played an important role in society throughout history. Dogs are able to track and catch prey during hunting trips without eating it and can help shepherds with their sheep and cows. Nowadays, dogs are often employed to trace illegal drugs and explosives in public places, and during rescue missions, we rely on dogs to find people in danger. Some are trained to become guide dogs to assist people with vision impairment. However, most dogs can be great companions to the elderly and families with young children. Which of the sentences from the passage best presents the topic of the passage?

    • A.Their behavior can tell us a lot about their personalities, but there are some myths that revolve around dogs’ nature.
    • B.Nowadays, dogs are often employed to trace illegal drugs and explosives in public places, and during rescue missions, we rely on dogs to find people in danger.
    • C.Among many myths, a true fact is that dogs have played an important role in society throughout history.
    • D.Unfortunately, persistent bad breath could be a sign of tooth decay or gum disease.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Among many myths, a true fact is that dogs have played an important role in society throughout history.

    Among many myths, a true fact is that dogs have played an important role in society throughout history. This is correct because it links both parts of the passage: the myths about dogs discussed in paragraph 1 and the true, important role of dogs described in paragraph 2. Their behavior can tell us a lot about their personalities, but there are some myths that revolve around dogs’ nature. This is incorrect because it introduces only paragraph 1, the myths, and leaves out the role dogs play in society. Nowadays, dogs are often employed to trace illegal drugs and explosives in public places, and during rescue missions, we rely on dogs to find people in danger. This is incorrect because it gives two examples of the work dogs do today, supporting details of paragraph 2 rather than the topic of the passage. Unfortunately, persistent bad breath could be a sign of tooth decay or gum disease. This is incorrect because it is a supporting detail of paragraph 1 that explains why one of the myths matters, not the topic of the whole passage.

  156. The Longest Voyage : 1. When you think of long voyages, your mind might immediately think back to a tedious transatlantic flight or perhaps even a relaxing cruise journey across vast oceans. Botanists and environmentalists, on the other hand, would probably think about the famous migration pattern of the vanessa cardui, a native sub-Saharan butterfly that makes an exceptional, yearly expedition from West Africa to Scandinavia, totaling just over 8,600 miles each year! Past research has indicated that specific climatic conditions likely need to be present in order for these butterflies to make the long journey and breed around the world successfully. However, evidence has always been lacking — until now. Thanks to a recent study on migration patterns, more light has been shed on climatic conditions that influence the remarkable and the longest seasonal journey of these insects. 2. This well-traveled species goes by a few different names, ranging from its scientific term, vanessa cardui, to the colloquial nickname of the “painted lady”. Unlike similar species, the painted lady breeds constantly throughout the year. Thus, it is one of the most popular butterflies that can thrive in almost any climate and can be found in gardens on every continent, excluding South America and Antarctica. While most are probably not familiar with the scientific details surrounding this butterfly, it has definitely become a household name. According to a psychology study, an astounding number of people picture the painted lady’s classic orange and black wing detail when asked to describe the image of a butterfly. As of now, even more information is known regarding this popular species. 3. To begin the research process on migration patterns, a team from the University of Reading (UK) compared data regarding the presence of the butterfly in Europe. The study included decades worth of information regarding the climate and atmosphere of sub-Saharan Africa. After the initial analysis, scientists discovered that the number of specimens of the vanessa cardui in Europe alone can actually fluctuate up to 100 times from one year to the next. When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa. The number of painted lady butterflies in Europe matched up with the climate data from the past few decades, finally providing enough evidence to solidify past speculation. 4. Regarding vegetation, it has been found that the vanessa cardui caterpillars multiply at a rapid speed when the African savannah’s humidity rate is higher than average. This allows the species to become stronger before crossing the Sahara desert. When it comes to winds, simulations have shown that the stronger the tailwind, the easier it is for the species to reach the necessary altitude of two miles above sea level. This height allows them to attain a desirable flight speed of 6 miles per second. While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effect that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects. Which of the following sentences is most representative of a summary sentence for this passage?

    • A.When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa.
    • B.While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effect that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects.
    • C.Botanists and environmentalists, on the other hand, would probably think about the famous migration pattern of the vanessa cardui, a native sub-Saharan butterfly that makes an exceptional, yearly expedition from West Africa to Scandinavia, totaling just over 8,600 miles each year!
    • D.When it comes to winds, simulations have shown that the stronger the tailwind, the easier it is for the species to reach the necessary altitude of two miles above sea level.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa.

    When delving deeper into the reasoning behind the large variation, the research team realized that there are two specific climate conditions that must be fulfilled for a successful intercontinental journey of the painted lady butterfly: wind patterns conducive to speedy flights and an increase in vegetation in North Africa. This is correct because it states the study's central finding, the two climate conditions behind the migration, which the rest of the passage introduces and then explains. While this information is specific to the long yearly journey of the vanessa cardui, understanding the effect that climatic conditions can have on other insect migrations can lead to a more thorough understanding of the ebbs and flows of the exceptional migration patterns of insects. This is incorrect because it looks ahead to what the findings might mean for other insects rather than summarizing what the study found. Botanists and environmentalists, on the other hand, would probably think about the famous migration pattern of the vanessa cardui, a native sub-Saharan butterfly that makes an exceptional, yearly expedition from West Africa to Scandinavia, totaling just over 8,600 miles each year! This is incorrect because it introduces the butterfly and its route in paragraph 1 but says nothing about what the research found. When it comes to winds, simulations have shown that the stronger the tailwind, the easier it is for the species to reach the necessary altitude of two miles above sea level. This is incorrect because it explains how only one of the two conditions, the wind, helps the butterfly; it is a supporting detail from paragraph 4.

  157. From: Shannon Edler, President To: All Staff Date: September 1 Subject: New Marketing Materials Attachment: Zip File Hello everyone, As you should all be aware, McKensey Enterprises has forged a new partnership with Harris Public Relations. After a year of discussions and shifts in our company’s target markets, we have finally decided on our new brand. It is a fresh take on tradition while still adhering to our company’s values and core mission. Among other things, this change includes different color schemes and an updated company logo. Attached to this email, you will find the most updated changes in a zip File. Please look through the file with utmost attention, as you will find everything you need when updating client material, your personal business cards, and any other business material. A copy of the file will also be uploaded to the company’s employee portal within two business days. Please note that our Marketing team is still in the process of updating our website to reflect these new changes. It will be done within two business days, or in other words, before the weekend. If you have any other questions regarding the recent rebranding, keep an eye out for our in-company newsletter, which will be making its way to you soon. For any other issues, please refer to your direct manager for clarification. Best, Shannon Edler President, McKensey Enterprises What is the main point of the printed communication?

    • A.To notify staff about the new partner the firm has selected
    • B.To inform staff about the new identity the firm has adopted
    • C.To alert staff about the new website the firm has scheduled
    • D.To brief staff about the target markets the firm has chosen
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To inform staff about the new identity the firm has adopted

    To inform staff about the new identity the firm has adopted is correct. The email announces "our new brand," names what it changes ("different color schemes and an updated company logo"), and attaches the file staff will need; every other sentence serves that update. To notify staff about the new partner the firm has selected is incorrect: the partnership with Harris Public Relations is mentioned only in the opening sentence as background to the rebrand. To alert staff about the new website the firm has scheduled is incorrect: the website note ("still in the process of updating our website") is a side detail about timing, not the purpose of the message. To brief staff about the target markets the firm has chosen is incorrect: the email mentions "shifts in our company's target markets" only as a reason for the change and never says which markets they are.

  158. After a long day of test preparation, I called my friend Jonathan and asked if he wanted to see a movie and get a pizza later. Jonathan was up for it, but he asked if we could wait until his girlfriend gets home, since he lost his keys yesterday. So, when his girlfriend gets home, Jonathan will come over to my place. What happens after Jonathan’s girlfriend arrives at home?

    • A.Jonathan will misplace the keys.
    • B.Jonathan will propose the delay.
    • C.Jonathan will meet the narrator.
    • D.Jonathan will accept the invite.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Jonathan will meet the narrator.

    Jonathan will meet the narrator. This is correct: the passage says, "when his girlfriend gets home, Jonathan will come over to my place," and the word "when" ties his coming over to her arrival. Jonathan will misplace the keys. This is incorrect because he "lost his keys yesterday," the day before, which is why he must wait at all. Jonathan will propose the delay. This is incorrect because he already "asked if we could wait until his girlfriend gets home" during the phone call, before she arrives. Jonathan will accept the invite. This is incorrect because "Jonathan was up for it" on the call, so he accepted before his girlfriend came home.

  159. Are Electronic Books or Hard Copy Books Better for College Students? College students generally have the option of choosing electronic books or their hardcopies. Which is the better choice? Electronic books are generally a bit less expensive than hard copy books, more so if the books are textbooks as opposed to trade paperbacks. You will need a device on which to read electronic books, however. If you already have a device that you use for other purposes, you may not consider this part of the expense. However, if you purchase a dedicated e-reader, you probably will. Convenience is also a factor, and both types of books are convenient in their own ways. Hundreds of ebooks can be stored on one device, which makes them very portable. E-readers also have lighted screens, so you don’t have to worry about sitting somewhere with good lighting. E-readers do have to be charged, though; you never have to worry about this with a hard copy. Hard copy books are also more aesthetically pleasing. They offer a wide variety of colorful, beautiful covers. Hard copy books also look nice on shelves. They can contribute significantly to your decor. The most significant factor for college students, though, is which type is better for learning. To some degree, this is a matter of personal preference. However, e-books comprise 15-20 percent of trade book sales. This indicates that people still feel that hard copy books offer a valuable reading experience. Research indicates that people feel a greater tactile connection to physical books, and that this might improve reading comprehension. In an e-reader, every book is the same physically; they are all on the same device. Hard copy books, though, have different thicknesses, different paper textures, and different feels. People often remember where something was in a book by how the book felt in their hands when they read the thing. Depending on how far into the book they were, there would be a certain amount of pages on the left side of the book and on the right. This could help recall the memory of where the information was located. Additionally, many people read e-books on devices that can also access the internet. You can do no such thing with a hard copy book. This means fewer distractions, and hence, better learning. Ultimately, therefore, hard copy books are better for college students. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses a fact?

    • A.Convenience is also a factor, and both types of books are convenient in their own ways.
    • B.This indicates that people still feel that hard copy books offer a valuable reading experience.
    • C.The most significant factor for college students, though, is which type is better for learning.
    • D.You will need a device on which to read electronic books, however.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: You will need a device on which to read electronic books, however.

    You will need a device on which to read electronic books, however. This is correct: it can be checked and is true for anyone, since an electronic book cannot be read without a device. Convenience is also a factor, and both types of books are convenient in their own ways. This is incorrect because judging both kinds of books "convenient in their own ways" is the author's evaluation, and a reader could find one of them inconvenient. This indicates that people still feel that hard copy books offer a valuable reading experience. This is incorrect because it is the author's interpretation of a sales figure, not a fact the figure proves; the number of sales does not show what buyers feel. The most significant factor for college students, though, is which type is better for learning. This is incorrect because ranking one factor as "the most significant" is the author's judgment; another student could rank cost or convenience first.

  160. Are Electronic Books or Hard Copy Books Better for College Students? College students generally have the option of choosing electronic books or their hardcopies. Which is the better choice? Electronic books are generally a bit less expensive than hard copy books, more so if the books are textbooks as opposed to trade paperbacks. You will need a device on which to read electronic books, however. If you already have a device that you use for other purposes, you may not consider this part of the expense. However, if you purchase a dedicated e-reader, you probably will. Convenience is also a factor, and both types of books are convenient in their own ways. Hundreds of ebooks can be stored on one device, which makes them very portable. E-readers also have lighted screens, so you don’t have to worry about sitting somewhere with good lighting. E-readers do have to be charged, though; you never have to worry about this with a hard copy. Hard copy books are also more aesthetically pleasing. They offer a wide variety of colorful, beautiful covers. Hard copy books also look nice on shelves. They can contribute significantly to your decor. The most significant factor for college students, though, is which type is better for learning. To some degree, this is a matter of personal preference. However, e-books comprise 15-20 percent of trade book sales. This indicates that people still feel that hard copy books offer a valuable reading experience. Research indicates that people feel a greater tactile connection to physical books, and that this might improve reading comprehension. In an e-reader, every book is the same physically; they are all on the same device. Hard copy books, though, have different thicknesses, different paper textures, and different feels. People often remember where something was in a book by how the book felt in their hands when they read the thing. Depending on how far into the book they were, there would be a certain amount of pages on the left side of the book and on the right. This could help recall the memory of where the information was located. Additionally, many people read e-books on devices that can also access the internet. You can do no such thing with a hard copy book. This means fewer distractions, and hence, better learning. Ultimately, therefore, hard copy books are better for college students. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses the author’s opinion?

    • A.Hundreds of ebooks can be stored on one device, which makes them very portable.
    • B.E-readers also have lighted screens, so you don’t have to worry about sitting somewhere with good lighting.
    • C.Depending on how far into the book they were, there would be a certain amount of pages on the left side of the book and on the right.
    • D.Ultimately, therefore, hard copy books are better for college students.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ultimately, therefore, hard copy books are better for college students.

    Ultimately, therefore, hard copy books are better for college students. This is correct: it is the author's final judgment, the position the whole passage argues for, and others could weigh the same points and choose differently. Hundreds of ebooks can be stored on one device, which makes them very portable. This is incorrect because the storage capacity of an e-reader can be checked, so the statement is a fact. E-readers also have lighted screens, so you don’t have to worry about sitting somewhere with good lighting. This is incorrect because it describes a feature of e-readers that anyone can verify. Depending on how far into the book they were, there would be a certain amount of pages on the left side of the book and on the right. This is incorrect because it describes how a printed book physically works, which anyone can confirm by opening one.

  161. Recently, a group of 100 professionals aged 25-30 took part in a study that examined the correlation between hours of sleep and cognitive scores. Participants were asked to keep track of the number of hours they slept each night for a total of 7 nights. Each morning, an hour after participants woke up, they were asked to complete a brief cognitive function test online. Based on these results, researchers believe that one’s sleeping hours do have an impact on one’s cognitive scores. It is clear that the more hours one slept, the better the test performance was, but only up until the 9-hour mark. In fact, those who slept an average of 9 hours each night performed the best on the cognitive test, attaining just over 90 points. Interestingly, the trend began to decrease with participants who slept more than 9 hours each night, since they performed worse on the tests. With this trend, participants reported lower scores for each additional hour of sleep. In order to continue studying this correlation, researchers will create a similar experiment for older and younger age groups. Which of the following is a conclusion based on the graph and explanation?

    • A.Remarkably, ten hours can yield a sleeper maximum cognitive scores.
    • B.Likewise, nine hours can secure a retiree optimal cognitive scores.
    • C.Past a threshold, extra slumber can really reduce cognitive scores.
    • D.Beneath a peak, shortened sleep can sharply raise cognitive scores.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Past a threshold, extra slumber can really reduce cognitive scores.

    Past a threshold, extra slumber can really reduce cognitive scores. This is correct: scores rose "only up until the 9-hour mark," and after that "participants reported lower scores for each additional hour of sleep." Remarkably, ten hours can yield a sleeper maximum cognitive scores. This is incorrect because the best scores came at 9 hours ("those who slept an average of 9 hours each night performed the best"), and sleepers past 9 hours "performed worse on the tests." Likewise, nine hours can secure a retiree optimal cognitive scores. This is incorrect because the study tested only professionals aged 25-30; retirees and other older adults have not been studied yet, since the researchers still plan "a similar experiment for older and younger age groups." Beneath a peak, shortened sleep can sharply raise cognitive scores. This is incorrect because below the 9-hour peak the passage reports the reverse: "the more hours one slept, the better the test performance was," so cutting sleep under 9 hours lowers scores.

  162. Even though my local post office is small, it has specific reservation requirements for people who need to get passport photos taken. As I was waiting in line early this afternoon, I witnessed countless walk-ins get rejected after not having booked appointments prior to coming in. Luckily, I had remembered to call in and book my spot first thing this morning! I finally have my photos and can send off my application on time. Which event came first in the sequence?

    • A.The narrator hurried away to mail a passport photo package.
    • B.The narrator saw customers fail to obtain a passport photo.
    • C.The narrator queued calmly to await a passport photo shoot.
    • D.The narrator phoned ahead to reserve a passport photo slot.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The narrator phoned ahead to reserve a passport photo slot.

    The narrator phoned ahead to reserve a passport photo slot. This is correct: "I had remembered to call in and book my spot first thing this morning," before the afternoon visit, so this came first. The narrator hurried away to mail a passport photo package. This is incorrect because mailing has not happened yet; the narrator only says the application "can" now be sent, which makes it the last step, not the first. The narrator saw customers fail to obtain a passport photo. This is incorrect because the walk-ins were turned away "as I was waiting in line early this afternoon," hours after the morning call. The narrator queued calmly to await a passport photo shoot. This is incorrect because the waiting happened "early this afternoon," and the call was made "first thing this morning."

  163. Applying for college can be a complicated process, and it is important to pay attention to deadlines that come up throughout the year. Students will typically have a meeting with their guidance counselors early in the academic year, but not before they pinpoint their future academic interests. Then, they should book college tours and interviews with the respective admission teams before applying to the programs of choice. What happens before the meeting with the guidance counselor?

    • A.Students schedule the campus tours they hope to take.
    • B.Students face the formal interviews they hope to ace.
    • C.Students sign the application form they hope to mail.
    • D.Students choose the subject areas they hope to study.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Students choose the subject areas they hope to study.

    Students choose the subject areas they hope to study. This is correct: the meeting comes early in the year, "but not before they pinpoint their future academic interests," so choosing what to study comes first. Students schedule the campus tours they hope to take. This is incorrect because tours are booked "then," after the meeting with the guidance counselor. Students face the formal interviews they hope to ace. This is incorrect because the interviews with admission teams are also part of the "then" step that follows the meeting. Students sign the application form they hope to mail. This is incorrect because applying comes last, after the tours and interviews: students book them "before applying to the programs of choice."

  164. "A couple, on a budget, is shopping for fruits. At this specific store, they are looking to buy just one piece of fruit. They have a choice between three different types of fruit. The chart shows the prices of more than one piece of each fruit. Which single piece of fruit is the cheapest when bought on its own? Type of Fruit | Price: Banana 2 for $1.12, Apple 4 for $2.50, Nectarine 3 for $1.89"

    • A.One apple
    • B.One banana
    • C.One nectarine
    • D.Three-way tie
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: One banana

    One banana is correct: 1.12 dollars divided by 2 is 56 cents per banana, the lowest single-piece price. One apple is incorrect: 2.50 dollars divided by 4 is 62.5 cents per apple, which is lower than the nectarine but still above the banana. One nectarine is incorrect: 1.89 dollars divided by 3 is 63 cents per nectarine, the highest of the three. Three-way tie is incorrect: the per-piece prices are 56, 62.5 and 63 cents, so they are close but not equal, and the banana is clearly cheapest.

  165. A perfume shop sells exactly seven different types of perfume: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. Choose five different types of perfume to buy using the following guidelines: If type 7 is chosen, then type 1 cannot be chosen. If type 1 is chosen, then type 2 must be chosen. If type 4 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen. Which of the following combinations of flavored sodas corresponds with the directions?

    • A.2,1,7,5,6
    • B.3,4,2,6,5
    • C.7,2,3,5,6
    • D.6,1,3,5,7
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 7,2,3,5,6

    7,2,3,5,6 is correct: type 7 is chosen without type 1, type 4 is absent so type 3 is allowed, and choosing type 2 without type 1 breaks nothing, because the rule only requires 2 when 1 is chosen; types 5 and 6 are unrestricted. 2,1,7,5,6 is incorrect: it pairs type 7 with type 1, which the first guideline forbids. 3,4,2,6,5 is incorrect: it contains both type 4 and type 3, which the third guideline forbids. 6,1,3,5,7 is incorrect: it pairs type 7 with type 1, and it chooses type 1 without type 2, so it breaks the first and second guidelines.

  166. Passage 3 (4 Paragraphs) Losing The Past, Losing The Present 1. The word “biodiversity” is a combination of two words: “biological” and “diversity”. On a basic level, it represents the variety of plant and animal life on Earth. For decades, scientists have been studying biodiversity loss, ranging from insect extinction to the effects of overfishing. From a philosophical standpoint, some would argue that biodiversity is also representative of the vast knowledge humans have acquired through trial and error over millions of years. This information would include understanding how to survive in certain environmental conditions, or knowing how to treat common ailments. This comprehensive view of biodiversity triggered a recent study into the slow disappearance of indigenous languages and its effects on the future of society. Based on the findings, some linguists believe that loss of language can be just as devastating as climate change, if not more so. 2. Of about 7,400 languages spoken around the world, thirty percent are expected to become extinct by the end of the century, many of which are indigenous languages. Indigenous languages are distinct communication methods that are native to a specific region. Typically, they are only spoken by the indigenous people of that area, although some indigenous languages (such as Navajo and Sioux) have become somewhat mainstream and have been studied in-depth. In order to understand the consequences of indigenous language loss, a team of biologists from the University of Zurich analyzed three geographic areas known for their cultural diversity and distinct biological traits: North America, Northwest Amazonia, and New Guinea. Part of the study involved examining nearly 12,000 different medicinal plants that were associated with a specific purpose. An example of this would include using an aloe vera plant specifically for burns and cuts. 3. The study found that over seventy-five percent of the information specific to the medicinal plants is either known or transmitted using indigenous languages. Thus, losing access to these languages would seriously set back the centuries worth of information that has been gathered regarding holistic healing. This lack of information could also have disastrous consequences for the development of new pharmaceuticals and the treatment of diseases. While most medicinal molecules are synthesized in laboratories, the chemicals produced by plants help create new treatments and are necessary to support human health. According to the World Health Organization, the active principle of a quarter of synthetic pharmaceuticals currently on the market is derived from plants. 4. In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity. It encompasses more than solely cultural aspects of society. Rather, it branches off into the future of medicine and how we can move forward as a human race. Many scholars hope that plans will be put into place to delay the extinction of languages. The United Nations, for instance, has already taken action against this risk by creating the International Decade of Indigenous Languages initiative, which is set to take place from 2022 to 2032. Perhaps through these efforts, information and experiences from the past will continue to help navigate the present and the future. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 1?

    • A.Losing languages may damage society and rival lost biodiversity.
    • B.Losing languages may erode society and tribal cultural identity.
    • C.Losing languages may hurt cures and biodiversity drug discovery.
    • D.Losing languages may hit society and biodiversity zones hardest.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Losing languages may damage society and rival lost biodiversity.

    Correct answer: Losing languages may damage society and rival lost biodiversity. Explanation: Paragraph 1 starts from biodiversity loss, widens biodiversity to include the knowledge humans have gathered, introduces a study of language loss and "its effects on the future of society," and ends with linguists warning that language loss can be as devastating as climate change, if not more so. That puts language loss alongside the environmental losses the paragraph opened with. Cultural identity comes up only in paragraph 4, drug discovery is the subject of paragraph 3, and paragraph 1 never says which regions would be hit hardest.

  167. Passage 3 (4 Paragraphs) Losing The Past, Losing The Present 1. The word “biodiversity” is a combination of two words: “biological” and “diversity”. On a basic level, it represents the variety of plant and animal life on Earth. For decades, scientists have been studying biodiversity loss, ranging from insect extinction to the effects of overfishing. From a philosophical standpoint, some would argue that biodiversity is also representative of the vast knowledge humans have acquired through trial and error over millions of years. This information would include understanding how to survive in certain environmental conditions, or knowing how to treat common ailments. This comprehensive view of biodiversity triggered a recent study into the slow disappearance of indigenous languages and its effects on the future of society. Based on the findings, some linguists believe that loss of language can be just as devastating as climate change, if not more so. 2. Of about 7,400 languages spoken around the world, thirty percent are expected to become extinct by the end of the century, many of which are indigenous languages. Indigenous languages are distinct communication methods that are native to a specific region. Typically, they are only spoken by the indigenous people of that area, although some indigenous languages (such as Navajo and Sioux) have become somewhat mainstream and have been studied in-depth. In order to understand the consequences of indigenous language loss, a team of biologists from the University of Zurich analyzed three geographic areas known for their cultural diversity and distinct biological traits: North America, Northwest Amazonia, and New Guinea. Part of the study involved examining nearly 12,000 different medicinal plants that were associated with a specific purpose. An example of this would include using an aloe vera plant specifically for burns and cuts. 3. The study found that over seventy-five percent of the information specific to the medicinal plants is either known or transmitted using indigenous languages. Thus, losing access to these languages would seriously set back the centuries worth of information that has been gathered regarding holistic healing. This lack of information could also have disastrous consequences for the development of new pharmaceuticals and the treatment of diseases. While most medicinal molecules are synthesized in laboratories, the chemicals produced by plants help create new treatments and are necessary to support human health. According to the World Health Organization, the active principle of a quarter of synthetic pharmaceuticals currently on the market is derived from plants. 4. In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity. It encompasses more than solely cultural aspects of society. Rather, it branches off into the future of medicine and how we can move forward as a human race. Many scholars hope that plans will be put into place to delay the extinction of languages. The United Nations, for instance, has already taken action against this risk by creating the International Decade of Indigenous Languages initiative, which is set to take place from 2022 to 2032. Perhaps through these efforts, information and experiences from the past will continue to help navigate the present and the future. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?

    • A.Losing indigenous languages would rival both climate change and habitat loss.
    • B.Losing indigenous languages would hurt both herbal remedies and modern drugs.
    • C.Losing indigenous languages would spare both synthetic medicine and lab work.
    • D.Losing indigenous languages would erode both tribal pride and human progress.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Losing indigenous languages would hurt both herbal remedies and modern drugs.

    Losing indigenous languages would hurt both herbal remedies and modern drugs. This is correct: paragraph 3 says the loss "would seriously set back" what is known about "holistic healing" and "could also have disastrous consequences for the development of new pharmaceuticals," so both traditional and mainstream medicine are affected. Losing indigenous languages would rival both climate change and habitat loss. This is incorrect because the comparison with climate change belongs to paragraph 1, and paragraph 3 makes no comparison at all. Losing indigenous languages would spare both synthetic medicine and lab work. This is incorrect because paragraph 3 says the reverse: even though most medicinal molecules are made in laboratories, plant chemicals "help create new treatments," and a quarter of synthetic drugs on the market come from plants. Losing indigenous languages would erode both tribal pride and human progress. This is incorrect because identity and the future of the human race are the themes of paragraph 4; paragraph 3 is about healing and medicine.

  168. Passage 3 (4 Paragraphs) Losing The Past, Losing The Present 1. The word “biodiversity” is a combination of two words: “biological” and “diversity”. On a basic level, it represents the variety of plant and animal life on Earth. For decades, scientists have been studying biodiversity loss, ranging from insect extinction to the effects of overfishing. From a philosophical standpoint, some would argue that biodiversity is also representative of the vast knowledge humans have acquired through trial and error over millions of years. This information would include understanding how to survive in certain environmental conditions, or knowing how to treat common ailments. This comprehensive view of biodiversity triggered a recent study into the slow disappearance of indigenous languages and its effects on the future of society. Based on the findings, some linguists believe that loss of language can be just as devastating as climate change, if not more so. 2. Of about 7,400 languages spoken around the world, thirty percent are expected to become extinct by the end of the century, many of which are indigenous languages. Indigenous languages are distinct communication methods that are native to a specific region. Typically, they are only spoken by the indigenous people of that area, although some indigenous languages (such as Navajo and Sioux) have become somewhat mainstream and have been studied in-depth. In order to understand the consequences of indigenous language loss, a team of biologists from the University of Zurich analyzed three geographic areas known for their cultural diversity and distinct biological traits: North America, Northwest Amazonia, and New Guinea. Part of the study involved examining nearly 12,000 different medicinal plants that were associated with a specific purpose. An example of this would include using an aloe vera plant specifically for burns and cuts. 3. The study found that over seventy-five percent of the information specific to the medicinal plants is either known or transmitted using indigenous languages. Thus, losing access to these languages would seriously set back the centuries worth of information that has been gathered regarding holistic healing. This lack of information could also have disastrous consequences for the development of new pharmaceuticals and the treatment of diseases. While most medicinal molecules are synthesized in laboratories, the chemicals produced by plants help create new treatments and are necessary to support human health. According to the World Health Organization, the active principle of a quarter of synthetic pharmaceuticals currently on the market is derived from plants. 4. In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity. It encompasses more than solely cultural aspects of society. Rather, it branches off into the future of medicine and how we can move forward as a human race. Many scholars hope that plans will be put into place to delay the extinction of languages. The United Nations, for instance, has already taken action against this risk by creating the International Decade of Indigenous Languages initiative, which is set to take place from 2022 to 2032. Perhaps through these efforts, information and experiences from the past will continue to help navigate the present and the future. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 4?

    • A.Climate change and rapid extinction of languages may prove similarly destructive.
    • B.Joint campaigns and awareness of wider stakes may safeguard linguistic diversity.
    • C.Herbal knowledge and design of future medicines may require linguistic diversity.
    • D.Indigenous dialects and much of linguistic diversity may rapidly face extinction.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Joint campaigns and awareness of wider stakes may safeguard linguistic diversity.

    Joint campaigns and awareness of wider stakes may safeguard linguistic diversity. This is correct: paragraph 4 explains that preservation "encompasses more than solely cultural aspects of society," reaching into medicine, and then points to efforts such as the United Nations initiative, hoping that "through these efforts" the past will keep guiding the future. Climate change and rapid extinction of languages may prove similarly destructive. This is incorrect because the comparison with climate change is the closing idea of paragraph 1. Herbal knowledge and design of future medicines may require linguistic diversity. This is incorrect because the medical argument is developed in paragraph 3; paragraph 4 mentions medicine only in passing on the way to the efforts to save languages. Indigenous dialects and much of linguistic diversity may rapidly face extinction. This is incorrect because the extinction forecast (thirty percent of about 7,400 languages by the end of the century) is the content of paragraph 2.

  169. Passage 3 (4 Paragraphs) Losing The Past, Losing The Present 1. The word “biodiversity” is a combination of two words: “biological” and “diversity”. On a basic level, it represents the variety of plant and animal life on Earth. For decades, scientists have been studying biodiversity loss, ranging from insect extinction to the effects of overfishing. From a philosophical standpoint, some would argue that biodiversity is also representative of the vast knowledge humans have acquired through trial and error over millions of years. This information would include understanding how to survive in certain environmental conditions, or knowing how to treat common ailments. This comprehensive view of biodiversity triggered a recent study into the slow disappearance of indigenous languages and its effects on the future of society. Based on the findings, some linguists believe that loss of language can be just as devastating as climate change, if not more so. 2. Of about 7,400 languages spoken around the world, thirty percent are expected to become extinct by the end of the century, many of which are indigenous languages. Indigenous languages are distinct communication methods that are native to a specific region. Typically, they are only spoken by the indigenous people of that area, although some indigenous languages (such as Navajo and Sioux) have become somewhat mainstream and have been studied in-depth. In order to understand the consequences of indigenous language loss, a team of biologists from the University of Zurich analyzed three geographic areas known for their cultural diversity and distinct biological traits: North America, Northwest Amazonia, and New Guinea. Part of the study involved examining nearly 12,000 different medicinal plants that were associated with a specific purpose. An example of this would include using an aloe vera plant specifically for burns and cuts. 3. The study found that over seventy-five percent of the information specific to the medicinal plants is either known or transmitted using indigenous languages. Thus, losing access to these languages would seriously set back the centuries worth of information that has been gathered regarding holistic healing. This lack of information could also have disastrous consequences for the development of new pharmaceuticals and the treatment of diseases. While most medicinal molecules are synthesized in laboratories, the chemicals produced by plants help create new treatments and are necessary to support human health. According to the World Health Organization, the active principle of a quarter of synthetic pharmaceuticals currently on the market is derived from plants. 4. In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity. It encompasses more than solely cultural aspects of society. Rather, it branches off into the future of medicine and how we can move forward as a human race. Many scholars hope that plans will be put into place to delay the extinction of languages. The United Nations, for instance, has already taken action against this risk by creating the International Decade of Indigenous Languages initiative, which is set to take place from 2022 to 2032. Perhaps through these efforts, information and experiences from the past will continue to help navigate the present and the future. Which of the following sentences is most representative of a summary sentence for this passage?

    • A.In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity.
    • B.This comprehensive view of biodiversity triggered a recent study into the slow disappearance of indigenous languages and its effects on the future of society.
    • C.Part of the study involved examining nearly 12,000 different medicinal plants that were associated with a specific purpose.
    • D.According to the World Health Organization, the active principle of a quarter of synthetic pharmaceuticals currently on the market is derived from plants.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity.

    In short, the preservation of linguistic diversity, specifically that of indigenous cultures, is not just about cultural identity. This is correct: "In short" signals the author's summing up, and the sentence states the claim that paragraphs 1 to 3 build toward, that losing indigenous languages costs far more than culture. This comprehensive view of biodiversity triggered a recent study into the slow disappearance of indigenous languages and its effects on the future of society. This is incorrect because it only explains how the study began in paragraph 1; it does not state what the passage concludes. Part of the study involved examining nearly 12,000 different medicinal plants that were associated with a specific purpose. This is incorrect because it describes the method of the Zurich study in paragraph 2, a supporting detail rather than the overall point. According to the World Health Organization, the active principle of a quarter of synthetic pharmaceuticals currently on the market is derived from plants. This is incorrect because it is a single statistic from paragraph 3 that supports the medical argument; it says nothing about languages or why preserving them matters.

  170. Passage 4 (4 Paragraphs) Brain Workouts 1. Medical experts have claimed that mental and physical health are equally important for a healthy, balanced life. While exercising can cut back on heart disease, for example, meditating has been proven to counteract stress in a positive way. Although no one is debating the effectiveness of these types of activities, experts are now wondering what we can do to “tone up” our brain in order to properly take care of our neurons. In fact, recent studies suggest that the human brain can continue to produce new nerve cells, even in old age. Neuroscientists believe that positive lifestyle choices can greatly contribute to brain health, slow cognitive decline, and improve our emotional state. However, these lifestyle choices are quite specific, and include other parts of the body that may not seem to be obviously linked to the brain. 2. First off, neuroscientists believe that what goes on in the human intestinal tract can highly impact both short-term and long-term brain function. Further, in recent years, nutritionists and food scientists have made some breakthroughs regarding the relationship between intestinal bacteria and mood disorders, including anxiety and depression. Although the exact link is not yet known, it has been proven that most of the mood-stabilizing hormone, serotonin, is produced in the intestine, whereas only ten percent of it is produced in the brain. Nutritionists believe that poor eating habits and dehydration are two major triggers to an unbalanced bacterial component. Thus, most would recommend a diet rich in plant-based foods that can nourish the body and provide a healthy environment for good bacteria to thrive. In addition to contributing to overall health, neuroscientists suspect that fewer imbalances in the gut could ward off neurodegenerative diseases, such as Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s. 3. The next link between health and the brain relies on both the quantity and quality of the food we ingest. When it comes to quantity, evolution has shown us that humans have survived periods in which food was periodically scarce and fasting was mandatory. In these cases, when little food was available, it was normal to switch from burning energy (glucose) to getting energy from the body’s fat storage. Now known as a specific diet called intermittent fasting, some neuroscientists are trying to understand if this process could actually slow cognitive decline. The quantity of the specific food groups that we ingest, on the other hand, has also come a long way over time. When analyzing the Western diet, for instance, it is clear that the intake of polyunsaturated fats has increased over time, which has led to a rise in inflammation. Thus, it is advisable to decrease these aforementioned fats and replace them with more omega-3 fats, which are known to improve brain function. 4. The last aspect regarding brain health is tied in closely with emotional well-being and involves physical activity. Quite simply, neuroscientists believe that introducing more movement into an increasingly sedentary society can perhaps reverse cognitive decline. In fact, it has been proven that thirteen percent of Alzheimer’s cases in the world have been linked to physical inactivity. The mechanism behind this connection lies within movement. Physical activity tends to reduce inflammation, which otherwise inhibits the growth of new brain cells. The end result is neurogenesis, or the process by which new neurons are formed in the brain. Although thirty minutes of physical activity each day would be ideal, experts suggest that small steps, such as making a conscious effort to get up and walk around every so often, could make positive changes in brain health. In short, approaching brain health in a similar way to physical workouts might be one way to work towards a healthier future. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 1?

    • A.Everyday routines may protect brain health and slow cognitive decline.
    • B.Intestinal bacteria may regulate brain health and calm anxious states.
    • C.Healthier fats may strengthen brain health and slow cognitive decline.
    • D.Daily exercise may strengthen brain health and slow cognitive decline.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Everyday routines may protect brain health and slow cognitive decline.

    Everyday routines may protect brain health and slow cognitive decline. This is correct: paragraph 1 says "positive lifestyle choices can greatly contribute to brain health, slow cognitive decline, and improve our emotional state," and the rest of the paragraph sets up that idea. Intestinal bacteria may regulate brain health and calm anxious states. This is incorrect because the gut-brain link is the subject of paragraph 2, not paragraph 1. Healthier fats may strengthen brain health and slow cognitive decline. This is incorrect because the advice on fats belongs to paragraph 3, and even there omega-3 fats are said to "improve brain function," not to slow decline. Daily exercise may strengthen brain health and slow cognitive decline. This is incorrect because physical activity is the topic of paragraph 4; paragraph 1 mentions exercise only as an example that "can cut back on heart disease," so this choice is too narrow to summarize it.

  171. Passage 4 (4 Paragraphs) Brain Workouts 1. Medical experts have claimed that mental and physical health are equally important for a healthy, balanced life. While exercising can cut back on heart disease, for example, meditating has been proven to counteract stress in a positive way. Although no one is debating the effectiveness of these types of activities, experts are now wondering what we can do to “tone up” our brain in order to properly take care of our neurons. In fact, recent studies suggest that the human brain can continue to produce new nerve cells, even in old age. Neuroscientists believe that positive lifestyle choices can greatly contribute to brain health, slow cognitive decline, and improve our emotional state. However, these lifestyle choices are quite specific, and include other parts of the body that may not seem to be obviously linked to the brain. 2. First off, neuroscientists believe that what goes on in the human intestinal tract can highly impact both short-term and long-term brain function. Further, in recent years, nutritionists and food scientists have made some breakthroughs regarding the relationship between intestinal bacteria and mood disorders, including anxiety and depression. Although the exact link is not yet known, it has been proven that most of the mood-stabilizing hormone, serotonin, is produced in the intestine, whereas only ten percent of it is produced in the brain. Nutritionists believe that poor eating habits and dehydration are two major triggers to an unbalanced bacterial component. Thus, most would recommend a diet rich in plant-based foods that can nourish the body and provide a healthy environment for good bacteria to thrive. In addition to contributing to overall health, neuroscientists suspect that fewer imbalances in the gut could ward off neurodegenerative diseases, such as Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s. 3. The next link between health and the brain relies on both the quantity and quality of the food we ingest. When it comes to quantity, evolution has shown us that humans have survived periods in which food was periodically scarce and fasting was mandatory. In these cases, when little food was available, it was normal to switch from burning energy (glucose) to getting energy from the body’s fat storage. Now known as a specific diet called intermittent fasting, some neuroscientists are trying to understand if this process could actually slow cognitive decline. The quantity of the specific food groups that we ingest, on the other hand, has also come a long way over time. When analyzing the Western diet, for instance, it is clear that the intake of polyunsaturated fats has increased over time, which has led to a rise in inflammation. Thus, it is advisable to decrease these aforementioned fats and replace them with more omega-3 fats, which are known to improve brain function. 4. The last aspect regarding brain health is tied in closely with emotional well-being and involves physical activity. Quite simply, neuroscientists believe that introducing more movement into an increasingly sedentary society can perhaps reverse cognitive decline. In fact, it has been proven that thirteen percent of Alzheimer’s cases in the world have been linked to physical inactivity. The mechanism behind this connection lies within movement. Physical activity tends to reduce inflammation, which otherwise inhibits the growth of new brain cells. The end result is neurogenesis, or the process by which new neurons are formed in the brain. Although thirty minutes of physical activity each day would be ideal, experts suggest that small steps, such as making a conscious effort to get up and walk around every so often, could make positive changes in brain health. In short, approaching brain health in a similar way to physical workouts might be one way to work towards a healthier future. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?

    • A.Microbes have hormonal linkages and may affect brain health.
    • B.Sedentary habits have increased and may affect brain health.
    • C.Meals have evolved considerably and may affect brain health.
    • D.Fasts have documented benefits and may restore brain health.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Meals have evolved considerably and may affect brain health.

    Meals have evolved considerably and may affect brain health. This is correct: paragraph 3 covers both the "quantity and quality of the food we ingest," showing how eating has changed from periods of scarcity to the modern Western diet, and links each change to brain health. Microbes have hormonal linkages and may affect brain health. This is incorrect because intestinal bacteria and serotonin are the subject of paragraph 2. Sedentary habits have increased and may affect brain health. This is incorrect because physical inactivity is the subject of paragraph 4. Fasts have documented benefits and may restore brain health. This is incorrect because paragraph 3 says only that "some neuroscientists are trying to understand if" fasting could slow cognitive decline, so no benefit has been documented, and fasting is one detail of the paragraph, not its summary.

  172. Mosquitoes in Winter : Mosquitoes tend to be ubiquitous in the summer months, especially in humid areas with damp climates. With the advent of cooler autumn months though, they seem to disappear for the entire year. Where do they go? In short, they go into hiding since they cannot survive temperatures below 73 degrees Fahrenheit. This process is known as a diapause and it gives adult mosquitoes the opportunity to go into a “standby” of sorts during the colder months. The first step involves finding a place to settle in for the winter, including natural areas (such as caves or tree trunks) or in some cases, man-made structures like garages and cellars. They then enter a highly lethargic state in which they do not move, eat, or grow until they can sense a change in the weather. In other words, time seems to stand still until the arrival of spring and a warmer climate. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the given information?

    • A.Mosquitoes can end their diapause once conditions improve.
    • B.Mosquitoes can forage normally once their diapause begins.
    • C.Mosquitoes can relocate south once their diapause arrives.
    • D.Mosquitoes can enter their diapause once humidity lessens.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Mosquitoes can end their diapause once conditions improve.

    Mosquitoes can end their diapause once conditions improve. This is correct: the passage says they stay still "until they can sense a change in the weather," and "time seems to stand still until the arrival of spring," so it is valid to infer that they can tell when to come out of it. Mosquitoes can forage normally once their diapause begins. This is incorrect because during the diapause they "do not move, eat, or grow." Mosquitoes can relocate south once their diapause arrives. This is incorrect because the passage says they "go into hiding" nearby, in caves, tree trunks, garages or cellars; nothing suggests they travel south. Mosquitoes can enter their diapause once humidity lessens. This is incorrect because the passage ties the diapause to temperature ("they cannot survive temperatures below 73 degrees Fahrenheit"), not to humidity.

  173. Since the claim is based on spurious sources, we cannot accept it as legitimate. Which of the following defines “spurious” in the sentence above?

    • A.Dated
    • B.Vague
    • C.Bogus
    • D.Scant
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Bogus

    Bogus is correct: "spurious" means false or not genuine, so a claim resting on spurious sources cannot be accepted as legitimate. Dated is incorrect: it means old or out of date, and an old source can still be genuine. Vague is incorrect: it means unclear or imprecise, which describes how a source is worded, not whether it is genuine. Scant is incorrect: it means too little in amount, which describes how much evidence there is, not whether the sources are real.

  174. Passage 1 (4 Paragraphs) Expanding a Viking Family Tree with DNA : 1. When a genomicist team from the University of Copenhagen set out to research ancient DNA, they expected to discover more information about the origins of Scandinavian populations. What they did not expect to find, however, was a familial tie between two warriors from the Viking Age, buried around 500 miles away from each other. This unexpected element not only provided a fascinating look into the ancient Viking population, but it also debunked some common ideas related to the general time period of the Viking Age, spanning from around 750 to 1100 CE. These findings are changing what we know about this time period and even offering up more information regarding genetic diversity. 2. In the research project’s early stages, Ashot Margaryan, the lead genomicist on the project, and his team set off to sample and sequence DNA from just over 400 human skeletons located in ancient archaeological sites in Europe and Greenland. The next step involved comparing the genomes and matching them up against other readily available genomes from modern populations, which led to a surprising discovery. The team realized that the effects of Scandinavian maritime expansion during the Viking Age was twofold. First, mixed ancestries were present along coastal areas, likely due to the raiding and settlements of Viking tribes. Moreover, it proves that genetic DNA from Scandinavia moved along the most common trade and raiding routes of the time. 3. Using the newfound knowledge of Viking travels and additional genetic DNA, the team was able to trace back the origins of two different sets of skeletal remains found in Denmark and England, respectively. Not only did the remains belong to two Viking warriors, but research proved that they were actually second-degree relatives. The first set of remains found in Denmark likely belonged to a fifty-year-old man who had sustained multiple injuries from raids throughout his long life. The second set, found in England, belonged to a younger man in his early twenties, who archaeologists believe met his death in a violent manner. Although the exact familial ties between the pair is impossible to know with certainty, the DNA proves that they could have been half-siblings, grandfather and grandson, or uncle and nephew. 4. While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past. Whether it can shed light on mass migrations or provide a more personal look into select individuals, genetic evidence will remain a source of interest and study for researchers. Coupled with archaeology, geneticists hope to use ancient DNA when studying the history of complex civilizations that have left behind little evidence. If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next. Which of the following sentences is most representative of a summary sentence for this passage?

    • A.What they did not expect to find, however, was a familial tie between two warriors from the Viking Age, buried around 500 miles away from each other.
    • B.While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past.
    • C.If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next.
    • D.In the research project’s early stages, Ashot Margaryan, the lead genomicist on the project, and his team set off to sample and sequence DNA from just over 400 human skeletons located in ancient archaeological sites in Europe and Greenland.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past.

    While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past. This is correct: it joins the passage's two strands, the surprising discovery of the related warriors and the larger point that ancient DNA can rebuild history, which is what the whole passage is about. What they did not expect to find, however, was a familial tie between two warriors from the Viking Age, buried around 500 miles away from each other. This is incorrect because it introduces the surprise in paragraph 1 but says nothing about what ancient DNA can do. If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next. This is incorrect because it is a closing look ahead; it leaves out the research and its findings. In the research project’s early stages, Ashot Margaryan, the lead genomicist on the project, and his team set off to sample and sequence DNA from just over 400 human skeletons located in ancient archaeological sites in Europe and Greenland. This is incorrect because it describes the first step of the method in paragraph 2, a supporting detail rather than a summary.

  175. Considering that the road was already quite narrow, the sign stating that the road would continue to narrow gave her a strong feeling of trepidation. Which of the following defines “trepidation” in the sentence above?

    • A.Exasperation
    • B.Apprehension
    • C.Exhilaration
    • D.Indifference
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Apprehension

    Apprehension is correct: "trepidation" means fear or anxiety about what may happen, which fits a driver who sees that an already narrow road will narrow further. Exasperation is incorrect: it means irritation or annoyance, and the sentence describes dread of what lies ahead, not frustration. Exhilaration is incorrect: it means excited delight, a positive feeling the sentence gives no reason for. Indifference is incorrect: it means a lack of concern, but the sign gave her "a strong feeling," so she plainly cared.

  176. When you get home, you read a note from your roommate. It says, “I forgot to tell you that I’m working the nightshift this week! I’ll be gone by the time you get home from class. Before I come home for breakfast at 8:00 AM, I’m going to the gym to work out.” When should you expect your roommate to come home?

    • A.Once she concludes her night shift.
    • B.Once she eats her hearty breakfast.
    • C.Once she ends her exercise routine.
    • D.Once she starts her overnight work.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Once she ends her exercise routine.

    Once she ends her exercise routine. This is correct: the note says, "Before I come home for breakfast at 8:00 AM, I’m going to the gym to work out," so she comes home after the workout. Once she concludes her night shift. This is incorrect because she goes to the gym after work and before coming home, so the end of the shift is not when she arrives. Once she eats her hearty breakfast. This is incorrect because she is coming home "for breakfast," so she arrives before she eats, not after. Once she starts her overnight work. This is incorrect because starting the shift is when she leaves; she will "be gone by the time you get home from class."

  177. Which of the following statements is accurate based on the map?

    • A.Most of the campsites are placed together north of the water.
    • B.The highway extends largely to the northwest of the river.
    • C.The restrooms sit nearer to the lake than to the campgrounds.
    • D.The visitor lot occupies the southernmost part of the map.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The restrooms sit nearer to the lake than to the campgrounds.

    The restrooms sit nearer to the lake than to the campgrounds. This is correct: on the map the restrooms are directly beside Chester Lake and are not directly next to any of the campgrounds. Most of the campsites are placed together north of the water. This is incorrect because two of the three campgrounds are south of the lake and only one is north of it. The highway extends largely to the northwest of the river. This is incorrect because Highway 6 runs to the southeast of the river. The visitor lot occupies the southernmost part of the map. This is incorrect because none of the parking facilities is in the southernmost part of the map.

  178. Business culture (source) When traveling abroad for business, learning the local business etiquette is more important than learning the language, as most international deals are conducted in English. In Japan, for example, receiving someone’s business card with both hands, taking some time to admire it before carefully placing it in your cardholder shows your respect for your business counterpart. In many countries, meetings are often carried out during a meal. In these occasions, the host usually pays and, as a guest, offering to pay would cause great offence. However, in Mexico, your host may interpret your suggestion to discuss business at a restaurant as a romantic proposal. What is the main idea of the passage?

    • A.Adapted business manners spare overseas travelers awkward blunders.
    • B.International business negotiations mostly use one shared language.
    • C.Business meal invites occasionally imply romantic proposals abroad.
    • D.Courteous business guests routinely settle pricey restaurant bills.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Adapted business manners spare overseas travelers awkward blunders.

    Adapted business manners spare overseas travelers awkward blunders. This is correct: the passage opens by saying that "learning the local business etiquette is more important than learning the language," and every example that follows (Japanese business cards, who pays for a meal, a restaurant invitation in Mexico) shows a misunderstanding that local knowledge would prevent. International business negotiations mostly use one shared language. This is incorrect as the main idea: the passage does say "most international deals are conducted in English," but only as the reason etiquette matters more than language. Business meal invites occasionally imply romantic proposals abroad. This is incorrect because the romantic misreading in Mexico is one supporting example, not the point of the passage. Courteous business guests routinely settle pricey restaurant bills. This is incorrect because the passage says the reverse: "the host usually pays," and a guest who offers to pay would cause great offense.

  179. After going back and forth on our choice for months, my fiance and I finally decided on a destination for our honeymoon. Even though we had initially chosen Bali, I kept thinking about the awful sun poisoning I had gotten years ago! Beach destinations just were not as appealing to me anymore, so I suggested an Alaskan cruise instead. We simply cannot wait for some colder temperatures! Which event came first in the sequence?

    • A.The narrator proposed Alaska.
    • B.The narrator questioned Bali.
    • C.The sweethearts dropped Bali.
    • D.The honeymooners picked Bali.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The honeymooners picked Bali.

    The honeymooners picked Bali. This is correct: the narrator says, "we had initially chosen Bali," and the word "initially" places that choice before everything else in the account. The narrator proposed Alaska. This is incorrect because the narrator "suggested an Alaskan cruise instead" only after beach trips had lost their appeal. The narrator questioned Bali. This is incorrect because the doubts came after Bali had been chosen: "Even though we had initially chosen Bali, I kept thinking about the awful sun poisoning." The sweethearts dropped Bali. This is incorrect because giving up Bali was the outcome of the change of plan, which came last, after months of going "back and forth."

  180. Medical jargon (source) The unexpected outbreak of a new viral illness in 2020 meant that guidance on prevention and treatment had to rely on developing scientific evidence. In the U.S., keeping up with the latest updates was challenging for many, especially for people who speak little or no English, and those with limited education or cognitive abilities. Generally speaking, in fact, most people would find the language of the healthcare industry difficult to understand. The consequences of misunderstanding medical advice and guidelines can be severe, causing confusion over the message conveyed and leading to misinformation. What is the main idea of the passage?

    • A.Medical advice tracked new scientific studies.
    • B.Medical jargon stumps mainly nonnative adults.
    • C.Medical jargon confusion breeds unsafe rumors.
    • D.Medical jargon confuses average adult readers.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Medical jargon confuses average adult readers.

    Medical jargon confuses average adult readers. This is correct: the passage's central claim is that "most people would find the language of the healthcare industry difficult to understand," and the other sentences lead up to it or follow from it. Medical advice tracked new scientific studies. This is incorrect because the fact that guidance "had to rely on developing scientific evidence" is background that opens the passage, not its main idea. Medical jargon stumps mainly nonnative adults. This is incorrect because the passage names people who speak little English as one group affected "especially," then says "most people" struggle, so the problem is not mainly theirs. Medical jargon confusion breeds unsafe rumors. This is incorrect because the risk of "misinformation" is a consequence the final sentence adds as support, not the main idea.

  181. From: Human Resources Team Date: October 7th Subject: Company Walk-A-Thon As you all know, our company-wide Walk-A-Thon is just two weeks away. This event is an annual fundraiser that raises money and awareness for pediatric cancer. All of the proceeds from the event go directly to the Pediatric Cancer Ward of our local hospital, and they greatly appreciate our yearly support. While most of the preparation work for the event is well underway, we have noticed that not all employees have signed up for the event. In order to make this event a success, we are hoping that each and every employee will participate in the Walk-A-Thon. If you cannot participate, we do hope you will consider donating a small amount or sponsoring another employee. If this is not possible, please consider finding or contacting a potential business sponsor who would be interested in creating prizes for the guests of the Walk-A-Thon. We strongly believe that fellowship events are just as important as work-related events, and we hope that you will make an effort to participate this time around. Please let us know if you have already signed up for the event, in which case you should not have received this memo. We appreciate your patience as we are still sorting through the sign-ups from all employees and their families. If we haven’t gotten to your submitted registration form yet, then please disregard this memo. What does the Walk-A-Thon raise money for?

    • A.A nearby hospital's child oncology unit
    • B.A nearby hospital's general upkeep fund
    • C.A nearby hospital's cancer research lab
    • D.A local sponsor's walkathon prize purse
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A nearby hospital's child oncology unit

    A nearby hospital's child oncology unit is correct: the memo says, "All of the proceeds from the event go directly to the Pediatric Cancer Ward of our local hospital." A nearby hospital's general upkeep fund is incorrect because the money goes "directly" to one ward, not to the hospital's general costs. A nearby hospital's cancer research lab is incorrect because the memo names the Pediatric Cancer Ward, where children are treated, and never mentions research. A local sponsor's walkathon prize purse is incorrect because sponsors are asked to donate prizes for guests; the prizes come from sponsors and are not what the event raises money for.

  182. To: All Employees From: Public Relations Team Date: January 8th Subject: Healthy Habits Campaign Do the winter months put you in a slump? Do you find that you engage in more unhealthy habits after the holiday season? Well, you are not alone. Studies show that unhealthy habits are expanded upon in the winter, ranging from unhealthy eating habits to lack of exercise. So, in an effort to combat these unhealthy habits during the winter months, the Public Relations Team is excited to announce a new health initiative for our company. Joining us in this adventure is one of the healthiest decisions you can make this season! Along with local medical professionals, we have developed an employee health program that is sure to kickstart your journey to healthy habits. Each department will have access to a pedometer and one free one-on-one consultation with a dietician at the start of the program. Of course, the initiative is in no way obligatory, but it would be a great way to start the new year! How will it work? For the next three months, we will be inputting the number of steps walked each day, along with our minutes of screen time. The department with both the highest amount of steps and lowest number of screen time minutes will win a prize. Taking part in this initiative will surely help you feel happier and healthier! Please keep in mind that all details will always be kept anonymous, and your personal details will never be shared with a third party or anyone else in the company. Only you will have access to the information in this initiative. Please refer to one of the Public Relations Team members for any additional questions. Which of the following is not part of the health program mentioned in the memo?

    • A.Upfront dietician consultation
    • B.Everyday nutritionist consults
    • C.Anonymized participant records
    • D.Departmental pedometer devices
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Everyday nutritionist consults

    Everyday nutritionist consults is correct, because it is not part of the program: the memo offers only "one free one-on-one consultation with a dietician at the start of the program," not daily check-ins. Upfront dietician consultation is incorrect because that single consultation at the start is exactly what the memo promises. Anonymized participant records is incorrect because the memo says "all details will always be kept anonymous." Departmental pedometer devices is incorrect because "Each department will have access to a pedometer."

  183. A flavored soda shop sells exactly seven different types of flavored soda: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. Choose five different types of flavored sodas to buy using the following guidelines: If type 2 is chosen, then type 7 cannot be chosen. If type 1 is chosen, then type 3 cannot be chosen. If type 6 is chosen, then type 2 must be chosen. Which of the following combinations of flavored sodas corresponds with the directions?

    • A.6,2,3,5,4
    • B.2,7,4,5,3
    • C.7,3,1,5,4
    • D.4,6,1,5,7
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 6,2,3,5,4

    6,2,3,5,4 is correct: type 6 is chosen together with type 2, as the third guideline requires; because type 2 is chosen, type 7 is left out, as the first guideline requires; and type 3 is chosen without type 1, so the second guideline is met. Types 4 and 5 are unrestricted. 2,7,4,5,3 is incorrect: it chooses type 2 together with type 7, which the first guideline forbids. 7,3,1,5,4 is incorrect: it chooses type 1 together with type 3, which the second guideline forbids. 4,6,1,5,7 is incorrect: it chooses type 6 without type 2, which breaks the third guideline.

  184. Recently, a group of 100 professionals aged 25-30 took part in a study that examined the correlation between hours of sleep and cognitive scores. Participants were asked to keep track of the number of hours they slept each night for a total of 7 nights. Each morning, an hour after participants woke up, they were asked to complete a brief cognitive function test online. Based on these results, researchers believe that one’s sleeping hours do have an impact on one’s cognitive scores. It is clear that the more hours one slept, the better the test performance was, but only up until the 9-hour mark. In fact, those who slept an average of 9 hours each night performed the best on the cognitive test, attaining just over 90 points. Interestingly, the trend began to decrease with participants who slept more than 9 hours each night, since they performed worse on the tests. With this trend, participants reported lower scores for each additional hour of sleep. In order to continue studying this correlation, researchers will create a similar experiment for older and younger age groups. Which of the following best describes the results of the study?

    • A.Scores plateaued until 8 hours of sleep, then climbed.
    • B.Scores improved until 9 hours of sleep, then declined.
    • C.Scores progressed until 9 hours of sleep, then surged.
    • D.Scores climbed until 6 hours of sleep, then plummeted.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Scores improved until 9 hours of sleep, then declined.

    Scores improved until 9 hours of sleep, then declined. This is correct: "the more hours one slept, the better the test performance was, but only up until the 9-hour mark," and after that "participants reported lower scores for each additional hour of sleep." Scores plateaued until 8 hours of sleep, then climbed. This is incorrect because scores rose with each added hour rather than holding level, and they fell, not climbed, after the peak. Scores progressed until 9 hours of sleep, then surged. This is incorrect because it reads the passage as "more sleep, better scores" all the way through; in fact the trend "began to decrease" after 9 hours, and participants "reported lower scores for each additional hour of sleep." Scores climbed until 6 hours of sleep, then plummeted. This is incorrect because the peak came at 9 hours, where participants scored "just over 90 points," not at 6 hours; this answer stops counting three hours too early.

  185. To: All Sales Associates From: Robert Raymond Date: June 19, 2021 Re: New Sales Initiatives Based on yesterday’s staff meeting, you should all be familiar with the low sales figures from this last quarter. While we were expecting a higher turnout based on last year’s figures and our own projections, the decrease in sales is not all that surprising, given the current economic climate. Fortunately, consumer satisfaction remains unchanged. In any case, it is our goal to combat this problem quickly and effectively. We hope to see an increased consumer demand for our products by the beginning of the next quarter. As such, our marketing team has drafted a new set of sales initiatives and guidelines for your review. We are also in the process of preparing a detailed webinar that will clearly detail the proposed action. We request that you kindly review the attached documents within the next 48 hours in order to be fully prepared for the sales call on Wednesday morning. We strongly believe that your individual skills and determination, coupled with the marketing team’s creative efforts, will result in a more impressive quarter this time around. All the information is located in your employee portal, but please reach out to me if you have any trouble accessing the information. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the given information?

    • A.Shoppers likely dislike the style of a new product.
    • B.Managers likely expect the repeat of a bad quarter.
    • C.Staff likely caused the failure of a sales quarter.
    • D.Customers likely feel the strain of a weak economy.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Customers likely feel the strain of a weak economy.

    Customers likely feel the strain of a weak economy. This is correct: the writer calls the drop in sales "not all that surprising, given the current economic climate," while noting that "consumer satisfaction remains unchanged," so customers are buying less because of economic pressure, not because they are unhappy. Shoppers likely dislike the style of a new product. This is incorrect because satisfaction "remains unchanged" and the memo mentions no new product. Managers likely expect the repeat of a bad quarter. This is incorrect because the memo says the opposite: "We hope to see an increased consumer demand for our products by the beginning of the next quarter." Staff likely caused the failure of a sales quarter. This is incorrect because the writer blames the economic climate and praises the associates' "individual skills and determination" as the way to a better quarter.

  186. After a long and difficult journey filled with traffic and car troubles, we finally reached our final destination of New Mexico. What started out as a fun road trip between friends quickly escalated into a tiring misadventure filled with unexpected difficulties that put everyone on edge. Next time, I am sure that we will think twice about traveling by car and book a flight! Which event came last in the sequence?

    • A.The group started the adventure to New Mexico.
    • B.The group suffered the gridlock to New Mexico.
    • C.The group completed the odyssey to New Mexico.
    • D.The group researched the flight to New Mexico.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The group completed the odyssey to New Mexico.

    The group completed the odyssey to New Mexico. This is correct: "we finally reached our final destination of New Mexico," and "finally" marks the arrival as the last thing that happened. The group started the adventure to New Mexico. This is incorrect because setting out on what "started out as a fun road trip" was the first event, not the last. The group suffered the gridlock to New Mexico. This is incorrect because the traffic came during the "long and difficult journey," before the group arrived. The group researched the flight to New Mexico. This is incorrect because flying is only the narrator's plan for "next time"; no flight was looked into or booked on this trip.

  187. Themed Cookbooks: Less High-Tech than Electronic Recipe Libraries, but Still Amazing In many ways, technology makes our lives easier, and we tend to gravitate to the shiny new things that promise increased convenience. Recipe collections are no exception. In past decades, people, usually women, wrote down each step and each ingredient of each recipe and then collected the recipes together in a box or a notebook, and now here we are with electronic recipe collections. With an electronic recipe collection, you can start an account on a site like the New York Times and have access to hundreds of recipes, all without writing down a thing. You can save the ones that appeal to you in a virtual “recipe box”. You can categorize them and search for them, which is useful once your collection grows. You can add notes on the recipes and read notes left by others, if they’ve been made public. On some sites, you can also add recipes from other sites. In an hour of browsing, you can add more recipes than our grandmothers could have written down in a week. Despite this convenience, there’s a middle path between laboriously hand-written recipes and electronic recipe libraries that should not be overlooked, and that is the cookbook, specifically, themed cookbooks. Cookbooks may be themed to match certain dietary preferences, needs, or cooking techniques and devices — you can find cookbooks for vegetarians, for diabetics, and for air fryers, for example. However, cookbooks are often also themed towards interests that aren’t directly tied to cooking. These might correspond to television shows, books, video games, and other creative works. These are more than recipe books; they are beautiful tributes to cherished fictional worlds. They allow an immersive, imaginative experience for fans and the chance to try unique recipes designed to evoke these fictional worlds. These books are about more than recipes. They feature beautiful art, photography, and often stories linking the recipes to the creative work to which they’re themed. If you are part of a fictional world’s fandom, do yourself a favor and see if there is a corresponding cookbook. If you know anyone who loves a fictional world, a themed cookbook is one of the best gifts you could get them. Which of the following statements from the passages expresses a fact?

    • A.Despite this convenience, there’s a middle path between laboriously hand-written recipes and electronic recipe libraries that should not be overlooked, and that is the cookbook, specifically, themed cookbooks.
    • B.These are more than recipe books; they are beautiful tributes to cherished fictional worlds.
    • C.Cookbooks may be themed to match certain dietary preferences, needs, or cooking techniques and devices — you can find cookbooks for vegetarians, for diabetics, and for air fryers, for example.
    • D.They feature beautiful art, photography, and often stories linking the recipes to the creative work to which they’re themed.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cookbooks may be themed to match certain dietary preferences, needs, or cooking techniques and devices — you can find cookbooks for vegetarians, for diabetics, and for air fryers, for example.

    Cookbooks may be themed to match certain dietary preferences, needs, or cooking techniques and devices — you can find cookbooks for vegetarians, for diabetics, and for air fryers, for example. This is correct: anyone can check it by finding cookbooks written for vegetarians, for diabetics or for air fryers. Despite this convenience, there’s a middle path between laboriously hand-written recipes and electronic recipe libraries that should not be overlooked, and that is the cookbook, specifically, themed cookbooks. This is incorrect because "should not be overlooked" is the author's recommendation, a judgment rather than a checkable fact. These are more than recipe books; they are beautiful tributes to cherished fictional worlds. This is incorrect because calling the books "beautiful tributes" is the author's admiring judgment, which other readers might not share. They feature beautiful art, photography, and often stories linking the recipes to the creative work to which they’re themed. This is incorrect because "beautiful" is a matter of taste, so the statement includes an opinion.

  188. To: All Employees From: Public Relations Team Date: January 8th Subject: Healthy Habits Campaign Do the winter months put you in a slump? Do you find that you engage in more unhealthy habits after the holiday season? Well, you are not alone. Studies show that unhealthy habits are expanded upon in the winter, ranging from unhealthy eating habits to lack of exercise. So, in an effort to combat these unhealthy habits during the winter months, the Public Relations Team is excited to announce a new health initiative for our company. Joining us in this adventure is one of the healthiest decisions you can make this season! Along with local medical professionals, we have developed an employee health program that is sure to kickstart your journey to healthy habits. Each department will have access to a pedometer and one free one-on-one consultation with a dietician at the start of the program. Of course, the initiative is in no way obligatory, but it would be a great way to start the new year! How will it work? For the next three months, we will be inputting the number of steps walked each day, along with our minutes of screen time. The department with both the highest amount of steps and lowest number of screen time minutes will win a prize. Taking part in this initiative will surely help you feel happier and healthier! Please keep in mind that all details will always be kept anonymous, and your personal details will never be shared with a third party or anyone else in the company. Only you will have access to the information in this initiative. Please refer to one of the Public Relations Team members for any additional questions. What is the main purpose of the memo?

    • A.To urge workers to join the voluntary wellness plan.
    • B.To order workers to track the mandatory daily steps.
    • C.To alert workers to the new department step contest.
    • D.To introduce workers to the new local medical staff.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To urge workers to join the voluntary wellness plan.

    To urge workers to join the voluntary wellness plan. This is correct: the memo is persuasive throughout ("Joining us in this adventure is one of the healthiest decisions you can make this season!"), while stating that "the initiative is in no way obligatory." To order workers to track the mandatory daily steps. This is incorrect because the memo says the initiative is "in no way obligatory," so nothing is being ordered. To alert workers to the new department step contest. This is incorrect because the prize for the winning department is one detail used to make the program attractive, not the purpose of the memo. To introduce workers to the new local medical staff. This is incorrect because the memo mentions "local medical professionals" only as partners who helped design the program; it does not introduce anyone.

  189. Passage 1 (4 Paragraphs) Expanding a Viking Family Tree with DNA : 1. When a genomicist team from the University of Copenhagen set out to research ancient DNA, they expected to discover more information about the origins of Scandinavian populations. What they did not expect to find, however, was a familial tie between two warriors from the Viking Age, buried around 500 miles away from each other. This unexpected element not only provided a fascinating look into the ancient Viking population, but it also debunked some common ideas related to the general time period of the Viking Age, spanning from around 750 to 1100 CE. These findings are changing what we know about this time period and even offering up more information regarding genetic diversity. 2. In the research project’s early stages, Ashot Margaryan, the lead genomicist on the project, and his team set off to sample and sequence DNA from just over 400 human skeletons located in ancient archaeological sites in Europe and Greenland. The next step involved comparing the genomes and matching them up against other readily available genomes from modern populations, which led to a surprising discovery. The team realized that the effects of Scandinavian maritime expansion during the Viking Age was twofold. First, mixed ancestries were present along coastal areas, likely due to the raiding and settlements of Viking tribes. Moreover, it proves that genetic DNA from Scandinavia moved along the most common trade and raiding routes of the time. 3. Using the newfound knowledge of Viking travels and additional genetic DNA, the team was able to trace back the origins of two different sets of skeletal remains found in Denmark and England, respectively. Not only did the remains belong to two Viking warriors, but research proved that they were actually second-degree relatives. The first set of remains found in Denmark likely belonged to a fifty-year-old man who had sustained multiple injuries from raids throughout his long life. The second set, found in England, belonged to a younger man in his early twenties, who archaeologists believe met his death in a violent manner. Although the exact familial ties between the pair is impossible to know with certainty, the DNA proves that they could have been half-siblings, grandfather and grandson, or uncle and nephew. 4. While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past. Whether it can shed light on mass migrations or provide a more personal look into select individuals, genetic evidence will remain a source of interest and study for researchers. Coupled with archaeology, geneticists hope to use ancient DNA when studying the history of complex civilizations that have left behind little evidence. If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 4?

    • A.Ancient DNA findings can overturn long accepted textbook theories.
    • B.Ancient DNA can help fieldwork illuminate certain historic epochs.
    • C.Ancient DNA can document maritime expansion along coastal regions.
    • D.Ancient DNA can prove unexpected warrior kinship despite distance.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ancient DNA can help fieldwork illuminate certain historic epochs.

    Ancient DNA can help fieldwork illuminate certain historic epochs. This is correct: paragraph 4 calls ancient DNA "a tool to reconstruct the past" and says that, "coupled with archaeology," geneticists hope to use it to study civilizations "that have left behind little evidence." Ancient DNA findings can overturn long accepted textbook theories. This is incorrect because the claim that the findings "debunked some common ideas" is made in paragraph 1; paragraph 4 only alludes to it in its closing line. Ancient DNA can document maritime expansion along coastal regions. This is incorrect because the evidence of Scandinavian maritime expansion along coasts and trade routes is the subject of paragraph 2. Ancient DNA can prove unexpected warrior kinship despite distance. This is incorrect because the two related warriors are the subject of paragraph 3; paragraph 4 mentions the link only as a lead-in to its broader point.

  190. Where are the majority of the campgrounds located?

    • A.To the north of the lake
    • B.To the east of the lake
    • C.To the south of the lake
    • D.To the west of the lake
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To the south of the lake

    To the south of the lake is correct: on the map, two of the three campgrounds lie south of the lake, so that is where most of them are. To the north of the lake is incorrect because only one campground is north of the lake. To the east of the lake is incorrect because no campground is located east of the lake. To the west of the lake is incorrect because no campground is located west of the lake.

  191. After listening to the instructor’s convoluted answer, she was even more confused. Which of the following is the closest meaning to “convoluted” in the sentence above?

    • A.Unnecessarily complex
    • B.Noticeably incomplete
    • C.Admirably transparent
    • D.Overtly disrespectful
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Unnecessarily complex

    Unnecessarily complex is correct: "convoluted" means so twisted or complicated that it is hard to follow, which explains why the answer left her "even more confused." Noticeably incomplete is incorrect: an answer that leaves things out is lacking, not tangled, and "convoluted" says nothing about missing parts. Admirably transparent is incorrect: transparent means clear and easy to understand, the opposite of an answer that increased her confusion. Overtly disrespectful is incorrect: disrespectful describes a rude tone, while "convoluted" describes how complicated the answer was.

  192. Yoga: More Accessible Than You Might Think One common misconception about yoga is that you need to be flexible to even try it. This misconception stems from a limited view of something unfamiliar. If you don’t practice yoga, your ideas of it may come from images carefully constructed for public view on social media. These images, often shared by companies or “influencers,” show lithe, seasoned yogis in acrobatic poses. Their faces are serene, their hair and makeup flawless, their outfits expensive and perfectly coordinated. If you visit a yoga studio, though, you’ll see practitioners of all ages, shapes, sizes, and ability levels. There will be plenty of sweat, frizzy hair, mismatched outfits, and people falling out of poses (a natural part of learning!). Yoga studios also offer a variety of props to help students access poses safely while they build the necessary flexibility to practice without the prop. Common props include blocks and straps. Yoga blocks are rectangular and generally made of some form of foam or wood. Many practitioners feel that wood blocks provide a greater sense of stability. However, they can be less comfortable when placed under the back in reclining poses. Yoga straps are long, sturdy, and generally made of cotton. They often have a form of buckle at the end which practitioners can use to create a loop. Straps can help you with many things, such as reaching your toes in a seated forward fold. With a couple blocks and a strap, yoga students can safely access poses they might have thought impossible. Instead of stressing or straining (and hence risking injury), people can safely work into a pose, gradually developing more flexibility. Aside from using props in the yoga studio, everyone should have some for their home practice as well. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses a fact?

    • A.This misconception stems from a limited view of something unfamiliar.
    • B.Their faces are serene, their hair and makeup flawless, their outfits expensive and perfectly coordinated.
    • C.There will be plenty of sweat, frizzy hair, mismatched outfits, and people falling out of poses (a natural part of learning!).
    • D.Straps can help you with many things, such as reaching your toes in a seated forward fold.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Straps can help you with many things, such as reaching your toes in a seated forward fold.

    Straps can help you with many things, such as reaching your toes in a seated forward fold. This is correct: it can be checked by using a strap in that pose, and the qualified wording ("can help," "such as") makes it a verifiable fact rather than a judgment. This misconception stems from a limited view of something unfamiliar. This is incorrect because it is the author's interpretation of why people hold the misconception, which cannot be proven. Their faces are serene, their hair and makeup flawless, their outfits expensive and perfectly coordinated. This is incorrect because "serene," "flawless" and "perfectly coordinated" are subjective impressions that another viewer might not share. There will be plenty of sweat, frizzy hair, mismatched outfits, and people falling out of poses (a natural part of learning!). This is incorrect because it is the author's general prediction about any studio, and calling falling out of poses "a natural part of learning" is a judgment.

  193. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. Start with the word MAGICALLY. Remove one of the double consonants. Change the M to an N. Remove the last letter. Switch the first and last letters. Change the I to an E. Change the C to an R. Switch the fifth and seventh letters. What is the new word?

    • A.LAGERAN
    • B.LAGENAR
    • C.LAGINAR
    • D.NAGELAR
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: LAGENAR

    LAGENAR is correct. Working step by step: MAGICALLY; remove one L to get MAGICALY; change the M to an N to get NAGICALY; remove the last letter to get NAGICAL; switch the first and last letters to get LAGICAN; change the I to an E to get LAGECAN; change the C to an R to get LAGERAN; switch the fifth and seventh letters (R and N) to get LAGENAR. LAGERAN is incorrect: it stops one step early and leaves out the final switch of the fifth and seventh letters. LAGINAR is incorrect: it skips the step that changes the I to an E. NAGELAR is incorrect: it skips the step that switches the first and last letters, so the N stays at the front.

  194. A cupcake shop sells exactly seven different types of cupcakes: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. Choose five different types of cupcakes to buy using the following guidelines: If type 1 is chosen, then type 5 cannot be chosen. If type 3 is chosen, then type 7 must be chosen. If type 6 is chosen, then type 1 must be chosen. Which of the following combinations of cupcakes corresponds with the directions?

    • A.6,1,4,7,2
    • B.2,1,5,4,7
    • C.4,3,1,2,6
    • D.7,5,6,2,4
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 6,1,4,7,2

    6,1,4,7,2 is correct: type 6 is chosen with type 1, as the third guideline requires; type 1 is chosen without type 5, as the first guideline requires; and type 3 is not chosen, so the second guideline does not apply (choosing type 7 without type 3 is allowed, because the rule only requires 7 when 3 is chosen). Types 2 and 4 are unrestricted. 2,1,5,4,7 is incorrect: it chooses type 1 together with type 5, which the first guideline forbids. 4,3,1,2,6 is incorrect: it chooses type 3 without type 7, which breaks the second guideline. 7,5,6,2,4 is incorrect: it chooses type 6 without type 1, which breaks the third guideline.

  195. Themed Cookbooks: Less High-Tech than Electronic Recipe Libraries, but Still Amazing In many ways, technology makes our lives easier, and we tend to gravitate to the shiny new things that promise increased convenience. Recipe collections are no exception. In past decades, people, usually women, wrote down each step and each ingredient of each recipe and then collected the recipes together in a box or a notebook, and now here we are with electronic recipe collections. With an electronic recipe collection, you can start an account on a site like the New York Times and have access to hundreds of recipes, all without writing down a thing. You can save the ones that appeal to you in a virtual “recipe box”. You can categorize them and search for them, which is useful once your collection grows. You can add notes on the recipes and read notes left by others, if they’ve been made public. On some sites, you can also add recipes from other sites. In an hour of browsing, you can add more recipes than our grandmothers could have written down in a week. Despite this convenience, there’s a middle path between laboriously hand-written recipes and electronic recipe libraries that should not be overlooked, and that is the cookbook, specifically, themed cookbooks. Cookbooks may be themed to match certain dietary preferences, needs, or cooking techniques and devices — you can find cookbooks for vegetarians, for diabetics, and for air fryers, for example. However, cookbooks are often also themed towards interests that aren’t directly tied to cooking. These might correspond to television shows, books, video games, and other creative works. These are more than recipe books; they are beautiful tributes to cherished fictional worlds. They allow an immersive, imaginative experience for fans and the chance to try unique recipes designed to evoke these fictional worlds. These books are about more than recipes. They feature beautiful art, photography, and often stories linking the recipes to the creative work to which they’re themed. If you are part of a fictional world’s fandom, do yourself a favor and see if there is a corresponding cookbook. If you know anyone who loves a fictional world, a themed cookbook is one of the best gifts you could get them. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses the author’s opinion?

    • A.In past decades, people, usually women, wrote down each step and each ingredient of each recipe and then collected the recipes together in a box or a notebook, and now here we are with electronic recipe collections.
    • B.You can save the ones that appeal to you in a virtual “recipe box”.
    • C.These might correspond to television shows, books, video games, and other creative works.
    • D.If you know anyone who loves a fictional world, a themed cookbook is one of the best gifts you could get them.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: If you know anyone who loves a fictional world, a themed cookbook is one of the best gifts you could get them.

    If you know anyone who loves a fictional world, a themed cookbook is one of the best gifts you could get them. This is correct: ranking a gift among "the best" is the author's personal view; a fan who does not cook might not agree. In past decades, people, usually women, wrote down each step and each ingredient of each recipe and then collected the recipes together in a box or a notebook, and now here we are with electronic recipe collections. This is incorrect because it describes how recipes were kept in the past and are kept now, which can be checked. You can save the ones that appeal to you in a virtual “recipe box”. This is incorrect because it describes a feature of recipe websites that anyone can confirm. These might correspond to television shows, books, video games, and other creative works. This is incorrect because the existence of cookbooks themed to shows, books and games can be verified by looking for them.

  196. Iago: In Shakespeare’s Othello, Iago devotes himself to obtaining revenge on Othello for wounding his sense of pride. Iago has two complaints: one involves a rumor that Othello has had an affair with Iago’s wife Emilia; the other is a promotion that Iago believes he should have received. Iago admits that he doesn’t know if the rumor is even true; however, that his ambition was thwarted is true. Cassio was promoted to lieutenant while Iago was made to settle with the position of ensign. Although he is bitterly angry at Othello for promoting Cassio ahead of him, a key part of his plan for vengeance involves keeping his emotions from reaching the surface, at least in front of others. Accordingly, he plays the conscientious soldier, always ready when needed, always trustworthy, and always honorable. His deception is effective. Nearly everyone in the play believes him to be what he seems, right up until it is too late to stop the horrible events he has set into motion. What is the meaning of the word “conscientious” as used in the paragraph?

    • A.Dutiful
    • B.Wakeful
    • C.Valiant
    • D.Devious
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Dutiful

    Dutiful is correct. The passage glosses the word itself: Iago "plays the conscientious soldier, always ready when needed, always trustworthy, and always honorable," so the word means faithful to one's duties. Wakeful is incorrect; it confuses conscientious with conscious (awake, aware), a different word that does not fit a soldier who is ready, trustworthy, and honorable. Valiant is incorrect; bravery is a soldierly trait, but the clues the passage lists are reliability and honor, not courage. Devious is incorrect; Iago really is devious, but the passage says he is hiding that, so the word describes the dependable image he shows others, not his true nature.

  197. Othello’s Tragic Fall : Othello, by William Shakespeare, is a tragedy. A tragedy is meant to affect a cathartic release of emotions. A catharsis is a sort of purging, an opportunity to experience an extreme emotion without a real-life cause. In a tragedy, the main character falls from a lofty height. It is this great fall that is meant to inspire sadness and pity. It also serves as a cautionary tale that no one is immune from destruction brought on by bad decisions or harmful personality traits allowed to run unchecked. In the case of Othello, the titular character is the general of the Venetian army, a position of great power. It is clear that the Venetians count on him to handle their military exploits and protect their interests. Othello is a successful soldier and also wins the love of Desdemona, the daughter of a Senator and a woman who is sought after and praised by all. However, his fall is caused by jealousy. Although Iago is the instrument of his fall, Othello would not have been susceptible to Iago’s machinations had his own jealousy and insecurity not made him weak. By the end of the play, Othello has betrayed all those most dear to him and lost everything, even his life. In a short span of time, he has fallen from a dramatic height. As everything unfolds at the end, the onlookers are stunned (those still alive, at any rate). Like the audience, they cannot help an emotional reaction to this devastating and bloody tragedy. What is the meaning of the word “susceptible” as used in the paragraph?

    • A.Alert to
    • B.Loath to
    • C.Equal to
    • D.Prone to
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Prone to

    Prone to is correct. The passage says Othello "would not have been susceptible to Iago's machinations had his own jealousy and insecurity not made him weak," so susceptible means likely to be affected by. Alert to is incorrect; it would mean Othello saw through Iago, yet the passage says Othello is destroyed by the scheme. Loath to is incorrect; it means reluctant or unwilling, and nothing suggests Othello was unwilling toward Iago's plotting, only that he was weakened by it. Equal to is incorrect; being equal to a threat means being able to withstand it, the reverse of a man whose jealousy "made him weak."

  198. Gish Gallop : Have you ever been in a debate or argument with someone who blasted off a series of points which may have been loosely related, false, half-truths, or weakly developed? Even if you knew these points were weak, you may have felt overwhelmed by the realization of how much time and emotional energy it would take to refute each one individually. If you’ve experienced this, you’ve been the victim of a Gish gallop, an argumentative technique that attempts to substitute a veneer of substance for actual substance by overwhelming an opponent with a series of dubious arguments. The goal is to make it seem like the Gish galloper’s position is supported by overwhelming evidence, and this might be convincing to people who do not have enough familiarity with the issue to recognize poorly developed or fallacious arguments. However, the Gish gallop is an intellectually dishonest tactic. It takes time to research and debate any argument in depth. The Gish gallop is the opposite of depth. It is pure superficiality and it attempts to evade meaningful debate. What is the meaning of the word “dubious” as used in the paragraph?

    • A.Disconnected
    • B.Questionable
    • C.Inflammatory
    • D.Interminable
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Questionable

    Questionable is correct. The passage describes the Gish galloper's points as "loosely related, false, half-truths, or weakly developed" and calls them "poorly developed or fallacious arguments," so dubious means open to doubt. Disconnected is incorrect; the passage does say the points may be "loosely related," but that is only one of several weaknesses, and dubious describes their doubtful truth, not how they connect. Inflammatory is incorrect; nothing in the passage says the arguments are insulting or meant to provoke, only that they are weak. Interminable is incorrect; the tactic piles up many points, but dubious describes the quality of each point, not the length of the debate.

  199. Griffith Observatory : The Griffith Observatory in Los Angeles is one of the best places for spectacular views, both celestial and terrestrial. From the grounds outside the observatory, you can easily see the Hollywood sign overlooking Los Angeles, and Los Angeles itself, with all its skyscrapers and thickly intersecting streets. The smog may somewhat obfuscate your view on a bad day, but the prominent position of the observatory should still make for an excellent look over the city. If you’re looking upwards, the observatory offers the public use of powerful telescopes from which you’ll be able to see far above even the thickest smog. Observers can note such features of our solar system as comets, our moon, and the planets. The observatory offers educational features to help you locate and understand the wonders beyond our planet. Whatever the level of your interest in astronomy, Griffith Observatory should be high on your to-do list when you’re in Los Angeles. What is the meaning of the word “obfuscate” as used in the paragraph?

    • A.To obscure
    • B.To pollute
    • C.To magnify
    • D.To clarify
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To obscure

    To obscure is correct. The passage says, "The smog may somewhat obfuscate your view on a bad day, but the prominent position of the observatory should still make for an excellent look over the city," so obfuscate means to make the view harder to see. To pollute is incorrect; smog is pollution, but the verb describes what happens to the view, and a view cannot be polluted. To magnify is incorrect; the telescopes magnify the sky, but the sentence contrasts the smog's effect with an "excellent look," so the word must reduce visibility, not enlarge it. To clarify is incorrect; it is the opposite of the meaning, since the "but" clause shows the smog works against a clear view.

  200. Denotation : A word’s denotation is its dictionary definition. It is the objective definition of what a word means. However, words can have multiple denotations and even different parts of speech. The word “spring”, for example, despite being a word most people would consider simple, has over forty denotations and exists as both a noun and a verb. That being the case, if you are working with an unfamiliar word, how can you know if you have the right denotation? It’s important to keep in mind that the context for which you need the word should filter out illogical denotations. Therefore, when you look up a new word, read not only the definitions, but the sample sentences. You’ll see the word in action, as it were; you’ll be able to see an example of the word in context. For a word with multiple denotations, this will help you choose the write denotation to use in your own writing. Choosing the wrong denotation and using the word improperly will create confusion for your readers. However, sometimes a writer may want multiple denotations. In this case, a word would be chosen because more than one denotation is appropriate, essentially allowing the writer to pack more meaning into fewer words. We can see this in the poem “Cross” by Langston Hughes. The speaker regrets his anger against his deceased parents, a wealthy white man and a poor black woman. He wonders where he himself will die, “Being neither white nor black?” (12). Instead of considering himself both black and white, he considers himself neither. The poem reveals his struggles to establish his identity in a society in which he feels unrecognized and unmoored. Considering this, the poem’s title “Cross” can be seen to have at least three relevant denotations: “cross” as in angry, “cross” as in a mix or mixture, and “cross” as in a burden (an allusion to Jesus’s cross in the Bible). The title and the poem itself are brief, but effective use of denotation allows Hughes to fold significant meaning into one word; this meaning then infuses the poem itself with greater significance and emotion. Which of the following is the best definition of “allusion” as used in the passage?

    • A.Direct restatement
    • B.Scriptural parable
    • C.Indirect reference
    • D.Deceptive illusion
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Indirect reference

    Indirect reference is correct. The passage says the title "Cross" carries "'cross' as in a burden (an allusion to Jesus's cross in the Bible)," meaning the one word points to the Bible story without naming or quoting it. Direct restatement is incorrect; the title does not repeat or spell out the Bible story, and an allusion works by hinting at its source rather than stating it outright. Scriptural parable is incorrect; the passage happens to allude to the Bible, but an allusion can point to any source, and the cross is not a parable. Deceptive illusion is incorrect; it confuses allusion with illusion, a similar-sounding word meaning a false impression, which the passage never describes.

  201. Defining Poetry : We often define poetry by rhyme and meter, but poetry is more than that. In fact, poetry does not even have to have rhyme or meter. Of course, many poems do have these features, but there are variations that do not. One of them is blank verse, which has meter but does not have rhyme. Another is free verse, which, as the name suggests, is not bound by any formulaic constraints of rhyme, meter, or any other type of pattern. This more open form of poetry is more likely to be found in modern poetry that often eschews the well-established forms more common in previous decades and centuries. If not by rhyme and meter, how are we to define poetry? While there may not be a universally agreed-upon answer, poetry can be defined by its compact, emotionally evocative use of language and by its freedom from the conventions that govern prose. Poets aim to use language in a way that condenses more meaning and emotional experience into words than we typically see with prose. This might mean making use of words that embody multiple relevant denotations, carefully choosing words for their connotations, and employing rich, original figurative language. None of this is unique to poetry, but poetry tends to make greater use of these features than prose. Poetry may also experiment in ways not found in prose, which is where we get the idea of “poetic license,” or the idea that writing conventions typically obeyed in prose are not restrictive upon poetry. Which of the following is the best definition of “eschew” as used in the passage?

    • A.Adapt
    • B.Scorn
    • C.Honor
    • D.Avoid
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Avoid

    Avoid is correct. The passage says free verse is "not bound by any formulaic constraints" and is "more likely to be found in modern poetry that often eschews the well-established forms," so eschew means to stay away from those forms. Adapt is incorrect; adapting the forms would mean still using them in a changed way, but the passage says free verse is not bound by them at all. Scorn is incorrect; it adds contempt that the passage never expresses, since it simply describes poets choosing not to use the forms. Honor is incorrect; it reverses the meaning, because the passage sets the open forms against the well-established ones rather than in tribute to them.

  202. Because she paid attention, took notes, and looked up unfamiliar words, she was able to discern the speaker’s meaning. Which of the following words has the same meaning as discern, as it is used in this sentence?

    • A.Translate
    • B.Highlight
    • C.Determine
    • D.Disregard
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Determine

    Determine is correct. The sentence says that because she "paid attention, took notes, and looked up unfamiliar words, she was able to discern the speaker's meaning," so discern means to work out or perceive. Translate is incorrect; looking up words helped her understand, but nothing says the speaker used another language, and discern means grasping a meaning, not converting it. Highlight is incorrect; taking notes might involve marking key points, but discern describes understanding the meaning, not marking it. Disregard is incorrect; it is the opposite of the effort the sentence describes, since every step she took was aimed at grasping the meaning.

  203. Hopefully we’ll get some rain soon; we need a respite from this hot and dry weather. Which of the following is the closest meaning to “respite” in the sentence above?

    • A.Shower
    • B.Reward
    • C.Uptick
    • D.Relief
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Relief

    Relief is correct. The speaker says, "we need a respite from this hot and dry weather," so respite means a break or relief from something unpleasant. Shower is incorrect; rain is what the speaker hopes will bring the respite, but the word names the break itself, not the weather that causes it. Reward is incorrect; a respite is a pause from something unpleasant, not something earned for good conduct. Uptick is incorrect; the speaker wants the hot and dry spell to ease, not to increase.

  204. An Environmental Vacation : The state of Maine is home to famous state parks and sought-after beaches, making it a popular vacation destination. Recently, however, this northeastern state has made headlines for a mysterious black element, similar to soot, found on some of its beaches. Visitors alerted authorities after realizing that their feet had been covered with the ash-like substance, which was almost impossible to remove. What was initially believed to have been oil deposits mixed with sand was proven to be something else entirely and even more concerning. Thanks to a collaboration between a team of oceanographers and the Department of Environmental Protection, the black ash was confirmed to be tiny carcasses of millions of insects identified as Coelopa frigida, a fly that is rich in pigment and tends to feed on algae. While it is not clear how the insects ended up on the beaches or why the disastrous phenomenon occurred, experts believe that it is likely an isolated incident. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the given information?

    • A.Coelopa frigida arrived alongside leaked petroleum.
    • B.Coelopa frigida residue blisters barefoot visitors.
    • C.Coelopa frigida remains resist easy identification.
    • D.Coelopa frigida swarms annually blanket coastlines.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Coelopa frigida remains resist easy identification.

    Coelopa frigida remains resist easy identification. This is the valid inference: the passage calls the substance a "mysterious black element, similar to soot," says it "was initially believed to have been oil deposits mixed with sand," and notes that it took "a collaboration between a team of oceanographers and the Department of Environmental Protection" to confirm what it was. Coelopa frigida arrived alongside leaked petroleum. This is incorrect; the passage says the oil theory was "proven to be something else entirely," so there is no evidence any oil was present. Coelopa frigida residue blisters barefoot visitors. This is incorrect; visitors found the substance on their feet and it was "almost impossible to remove," but the passage never says it harmed anyone's skin. Coelopa frigida swarms annually blanket coastlines. This is incorrect; the passage ends by saying "experts believe that it is likely an isolated incident," which rules out a yearly event.

  205. Give Me…Four? : The spectacled salamander, also known as the salamandrina terdigitata, is a European species of salamanders found in both central and southern regions of Italy. Unlike all of the other European salamander species, it has four fingers instead of five on its hind legs. Another interesting feature of the species is that it does not secrete substances that are as toxic as those of other salamanders, even though its dark coloring would suggest otherwise. Typically, the presence of these salamanders denotes a healthy environmental status in the surrounding area. As such, they are most often found in lush forests with a high humidity rate and clear streams. The climate and other elements help the species stay cool without having to enter the water. In fact, only females enter water in order to lay their eggs in the early summer months. After a few months, these eggs hatch, which triggers the metamorphosis stage that leads to adulthood. Once the metamorphosis stage has completed, male spectacled salamanders spend their time on land and avoid the water. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the given information?

    • A.Spectacled salamanders ooze toxins fatal to predators.
    • B.Female salamanders keep to water throughout adulthood.
    • C.Unhatched salamanders begin to morph inside eggshells.
    • D.Darker salamanders tend to discharge stronger poisons.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Darker salamanders tend to discharge stronger poisons.

    Darker salamanders tend to discharge stronger poisons. This is the valid inference: the passage says the spectacled salamander "does not secrete substances that are as toxic as those of other salamanders, even though its dark coloring would suggest otherwise," which only makes sense if dark coloring usually signals stronger toxins. Spectacled salamanders ooze toxins fatal to predators. This is incorrect; the passage says this species' secretions are less toxic than those of other salamanders and never mentions predators being killed. Female salamanders keep to water throughout adulthood. This is incorrect; the passage says "only females enter water in order to lay their eggs in the early summer months" and that the climate helps the species "stay cool without having to enter the water," so females visit water to breed rather than living in it. Unhatched salamanders begin to morph inside eggshells. This is incorrect; the passage says the eggs "hatch, which triggers the metamorphosis stage," so the change begins after hatching, not before.

  206. Passage 1 (4 Paragraphs) Expanding a Viking Family Tree with DNA : 1. When a genomicist team from the University of Copenhagen set out to research ancient DNA, they expected to discover more information about the origins of Scandinavian populations. What they did not expect to find, however, was a familial tie between two warriors from the Viking Age, buried around 500 miles away from each other. This unexpected element not only provided a fascinating look into the ancient Viking population, but it also debunked some common ideas related to the general time period of the Viking Age, spanning from around 750 to 1100 CE. These findings are changing what we know about this time period and even offering up more information regarding genetic diversity. 2. In the research project’s early stages, Ashot Margaryan, the lead genomicist on the project, and his team set off to sample and sequence DNA from just over 400 human skeletons located in ancient archaeological sites in Europe and Greenland. The next step involved comparing the genomes and matching them up against other readily available genomes from modern populations, which led to a surprising discovery. The team realized that the effects of Scandinavian maritime expansion during the Viking Age was twofold. First, mixed ancestries were present along coastal areas, likely due to the raiding and settlements of Viking tribes. Moreover, it proves that genetic DNA from Scandinavia moved along the most common trade and raiding routes of the time. 3. Using the newfound knowledge of Viking travels and additional genetic DNA, the team was able to trace back the origins of two different sets of skeletal remains found in Denmark and England, respectively. Not only did the remains belong to two Viking warriors, but research proved that they were actually second-degree relatives. The first set of remains found in Denmark likely belonged to a fifty-year-old man who had sustained multiple injuries from raids throughout his long life. The second set, found in England, belonged to a younger man in his early twenties, who archaeologists believe met his death in a violent manner. Although the exact familial ties between the pair is impossible to know with certainty, the DNA proves that they could have been half-siblings, grandfather and grandson, or uncle and nephew. 4. While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past. Whether it can shed light on mass migrations or provide a more personal look into select individuals, genetic evidence will remain a source of interest and study for researchers. Coupled with archaeology, geneticists hope to use ancient DNA when studying the history of complex civilizations that have left behind little evidence. If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?

    • A.DNA and burial artifacts proved two warriors were full siblings.
    • B.DNA and blade wounds showed two warriors were combat casualties.
    • C.DNA and grave contents showed two warriors were buried together.
    • D.DNA and voyage histories showed two warriors were close kinsmen.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: DNA and voyage histories showed two warriors were close kinsmen.

    DNA and voyage histories showed two warriors were close kinsmen. This summarizes paragraph 3, which says that "using the newfound knowledge of Viking travels and additional genetic DNA," the team traced remains found in Denmark and England and learned the two warriors "were actually second-degree relatives." DNA and burial artifacts proved two warriors were full siblings. This is incorrect; the paragraph says the exact tie "is impossible to know with certainty" and lists only second-degree possibilities such as half-siblings or uncle and nephew, and it never mentions burial artifacts. DNA and blade wounds showed two warriors were combat casualties. This is incorrect; the paragraph says the younger man met a violent death, but the older man survived raids "throughout his long life," and the injuries are details, not the paragraph's main point. DNA and grave contents showed two warriors were buried together. This is incorrect; one set of remains was found in Denmark and the other in England, and the passage says they were "buried around 500 miles away from each other."

  207. The dog park is located to which side of the river?

    • A.The south side
    • B.The north side
    • C.The east side
    • D.The west side
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The east side

    The east side is correct. On a standard map, north is at the top and east is to the right, and the dog park is drawn to the right of the river, which places it on the east side. The west side is incorrect because west is to the left of the river on the map. The north side is incorrect because north is toward the top of the map, not to the right of the river. The south side is incorrect because south is toward the bottom of the map. Note that the map this question refers to is not included with the question.

  208. As I glanced at my oven, I noticed that my loaf of bread was rising exponentially. It had only been twenty minutes since I had placed it in the oven, and the bread had already risen over the pan and the dough was everywhere! I thought back to why this was happening, and then I realized that I had mistakenly doubled the quantity of yeast in the initial stages of following the recipe! Now, I will never make that mistake again. Which event came first in the sequence?

    • A.The narrator moved the yeast dough to the oven.
    • B.The narrator added double the yeast to the mix.
    • C.The narrator soon traced the mess to the yeast.
    • D.The narrator watched the loaf swell to the rim.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The narrator added double the yeast to the mix.

    The narrator added double the yeast to the mix. This came first; the narrator says "I had mistakenly doubled the quantity of yeast in the initial stages of following the recipe," and the word "initial" places it before everything else. The narrator moved the yeast dough to the oven. This is incorrect; the bread had been in the oven for twenty minutes, but it could only go in after the dough was mixed, so this is the second event. The narrator soon traced the mess to the yeast. This is incorrect; the narrator "thought back to why this was happening" and only then realized the mistake, which is one of the last events in the paragraph. The narrator watched the loaf swell to the rim. This is incorrect; the narrator noticed the loaf "rising exponentially" while glancing at the oven, which happened after the yeast was added and the loaf was baking.

  209. A friend calls and tells you, “I’ve been stuck in traffic on the highway for the past hour. There must have been an accident, so I need to take a detour. So, I haven’t been able to go home and grab a shower. I know I’m late, but I’ll be over as soon as I’ve done that!” When should you expect your friend to arrive?

    • A.Directly after he takes a shower.
    • B.Soon after he escapes a gridlock.
    • C.Long after he finishes a cleanup.
    • D.Shortly after he exits a highway.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Directly after he takes a shower.

    Directly after he takes a shower. The friend says "I haven't been able to go home and grab a shower" and "I'll be over as soon as I've done that," so the visit follows the shower. Soon after he escapes a gridlock. This is incorrect; getting out of the traffic only lets him take the detour and reach his own home, and he says he still has to "go home and grab a shower" before he comes over. Long after he finishes a cleanup. This is incorrect; "as soon as" means he will come promptly once he has showered, not after a long delay. Shortly after he exits a highway. This is incorrect; leaving the highway for the detour only gets him home, and he still plans to shower before coming over.

  210. At the meeting, the committee plans to laud the supervisor for his exemplary leadership. Which of the following is the closest meaning to “laud” in the sentence above?

    • A.Praise
    • B.Rebuke
    • C.Assess
    • D.Summon
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Praise

    Praise is correct. The committee plans to laud the supervisor "for his exemplary leadership," and exemplary means worth copying, so to laud him is to praise him. Rebuke is incorrect; scolding someone does not fit leadership the sentence calls exemplary. Assess is incorrect; evaluating the supervisor would be neutral, but the phrase "for his exemplary leadership" shows the committee has already judged it highly and now plans to honor it. Summon is incorrect; calling the supervisor to the meeting does not express any judgment of his leadership, while laud clearly does.

  211. Spinal Movement Four types of movement occur in the spine. Flexion is the forward folding of the spine. In opposition to this, extension is backbending. Axial rotation is a twisting motion and, finally, lateral flexion is side stretching. Unfortunately, with our modern sedentary lifestyle, we often don’t get enough of any type of movement. We sit for hours at keyboards and in cars, our shoulders hunching over and our spines becoming stiff. When we’re done with work for the day, we’re exhausted, and we plop down on the couch for even more sedentary time. This can contribute to back pain and a loss of mobility, especially as we age over time. A sedentary lifestyle is relaxing. However, it’s important to have balance, and it may be necessary to make a deliberate effort to create this balance so as to keep our spines mobile and healthy. During your work day, make time for breaks for brief walks and stretching sessions. If you work from home, this will be easier because it feels awkward at work if your colleagues watch you take laps around the office. Additionally, at home it’s easier to stretch your spine. A bolster (a long, narrow, and firm pillow) is great for this. You can lie down with the bolster placed vertically in line with your spine. With your head and back supported, you’ll experience gentle, supported extension (the backward bending motion of the spine). This posture is relaxing and bolsters are quite comfortable. Regular time in this or in a similar position will help counteract the flexion we experience while sitting, thus bringing more balance to the spine. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses an opinion?

    • A.In opposition to this, extension is backbending.
    • B.You can lie down with the bolster placed vertically in line with your spine.
    • C.If you work from home, this will be easier because it feels awkward at work if your colleagues watch you take laps around the office.
    • D.Axial rotation is a twisting motion and, finally, lateral flexion is side stretching.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: If you work from home, this will be easier because it feels awkward at work if your colleagues watch you take laps around the office.

    If you work from home, this will be easier because it feels awkward at work if your colleagues watch you take laps around the office. This sentence expresses an opinion: whether it "feels awkward" to walk laps in front of colleagues is a personal feeling that cannot be proven, and many people would not mind at all. In opposition to this, extension is backbending. This is incorrect because it is a definition of a spinal movement that can be checked in any anatomy reference, so it is a fact. You can lie down with the bolster placed vertically in line with your spine. This is incorrect because it describes a position a person is physically able to take, which can be verified, not a judgment. Axial rotation is a twisting motion and, finally, lateral flexion is side stretching. This is incorrect because, like the other definitions in the first paragraph, it states what each movement is and can be verified.

  212. Passage 1 (4 Paragraphs) Expanding a Viking Family Tree with DNA : 1. When a genomicist team from the University of Copenhagen set out to research ancient DNA, they expected to discover more information about the origins of Scandinavian populations. What they did not expect to find, however, was a familial tie between two warriors from the Viking Age, buried around 500 miles away from each other. This unexpected element not only provided a fascinating look into the ancient Viking population, but it also debunked some common ideas related to the general time period of the Viking Age, spanning from around 750 to 1100 CE. These findings are changing what we know about this time period and even offering up more information regarding genetic diversity. 2. In the research project’s early stages, Ashot Margaryan, the lead genomicist on the project, and his team set off to sample and sequence DNA from just over 400 human skeletons located in ancient archaeological sites in Europe and Greenland. The next step involved comparing the genomes and matching them up against other readily available genomes from modern populations, which led to a surprising discovery. The team realized that the effects of Scandinavian maritime expansion during the Viking Age was twofold. First, mixed ancestries were present along coastal areas, likely due to the raiding and settlements of Viking tribes. Moreover, it proves that genetic DNA from Scandinavia moved along the most common trade and raiding routes of the time. 3. Using the newfound knowledge of Viking travels and additional genetic DNA, the team was able to trace back the origins of two different sets of skeletal remains found in Denmark and England, respectively. Not only did the remains belong to two Viking warriors, but research proved that they were actually second-degree relatives. The first set of remains found in Denmark likely belonged to a fifty-year-old man who had sustained multiple injuries from raids throughout his long life. The second set, found in England, belonged to a younger man in his early twenties, who archaeologists believe met his death in a violent manner. Although the exact familial ties between the pair is impossible to know with certainty, the DNA proves that they could have been half-siblings, grandfather and grandson, or uncle and nephew. 4. While the link between these two warriors’ remains added an unexpected twist in the research phase, it serves as a testament to how useful ancient DNA can be as a tool to reconstruct the past. Whether it can shed light on mass migrations or provide a more personal look into select individuals, genetic evidence will remain a source of interest and study for researchers. Coupled with archaeology, geneticists hope to use ancient DNA when studying the history of complex civilizations that have left behind little evidence. If it has made us rethink some common ideas surrounding one of the most studied civilizations in the world, there is no telling what it will do next. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 2?

    • A.Genome data showed coastal Europeans possess mostly Viking lineage.
    • B.Careful genome comparisons revealed new Viking Age voyage patterns.
    • C.Genome samples showed Viking Age warriors seldom ventured overseas.
    • D.Viking Age raiders left mixed ancestries along European coastlines.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Careful genome comparisons revealed new Viking Age voyage patterns.

    Careful genome comparisons revealed new Viking Age voyage patterns. This summarizes paragraph 2, which says the team compared ancient genomes with modern ones and learned that "the effects of Scandinavian maritime expansion during the Viking Age was twofold": mixed ancestries on the coasts, and Scandinavian DNA that "moved along the most common trade and raiding routes of the time." Genome data showed coastal Europeans possess mostly Viking lineage. This is incorrect; the paragraph says only that coastal areas showed "mixed ancestries," and it never says Viking descent makes up most of that mix. Genome samples showed Viking Age warriors seldom ventured overseas. This is incorrect; the paragraph says Scandinavian DNA traveled along trade and raiding routes, showing that Vikings ranged widely. Viking Age raiders left mixed ancestries along European coastlines. This is incorrect as a summary; it is a true detail from the paragraph, but it covers only the first of the two findings and leaves out how they were discovered.

  213. Global warming (source) The Earth is kept warm by greenhouse gases, but their imbalance can lead to our planet becoming warmer. The average temperature of our planet has fluctuated over time; but in the last century, temperatures have increased dramatically. There can be many reasons for this, and many researchers believe that it is the result of natural causes, such as variations in the sun’s activity, and volcanic eruptions. Others, however, support the idea that an excessive amount of greenhouse gases is the cause for the rise in temperature. Scientists argue that carbon dioxide emissions from cars and factories have contributed to the global warming effects of greenhouse gases. What is the main idea of the passage?

    • A.Natural solar variability drives the bulk of global warming.
    • B.Modern temperatures show the fastest pace of global warming.
    • C.Human carbon emissions underlie the whole of global warming.
    • D.Climate experts dispute the actual driver of global warming.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Climate experts dispute the actual driver of global warming.

    Climate experts dispute the actual driver of global warming. This is the main idea, because the passage presents two competing views: "many researchers believe that it is the result of natural causes," while "others, however, support the idea that an excessive amount of greenhouse gases is the cause." Natural solar variability drives the bulk of global warming. This is incorrect; it states only one side of the debate as settled, while the passage presents it as one view among others. Modern temperatures show the fastest pace of global warming. This is incorrect; the passage does say temperatures "have increased dramatically" in the last century, but that is a supporting detail, not what the whole passage is about. Human carbon emissions underlie the whole of global warming. This is incorrect; it overstates the other side of the debate, which the passage describes as what some scientists argue, not as an agreed fact.

  214. Spinal Movement Four types of movement occur in the spine. Flexion is the forward folding of the spine. In opposition to this, extension is backbending. Axial rotation is a twisting motion and, finally, lateral flexion is side stretching. Unfortunately, with our modern sedentary lifestyle, we often don’t get enough of any type of movement. We sit for hours at keyboards and in cars, our shoulders hunching over and our spines becoming stiff. When we’re done with work for the day, we’re exhausted, and we plop down on the couch for even more sedentary time. This can contribute to back pain and a loss of mobility, especially as we age over time. A sedentary lifestyle is relaxing. However, it’s important to have balance, and it may be necessary to make a deliberate effort to create this balance so as to keep our spines mobile and healthy. During your work day, make time for breaks for brief walks and stretching sessions. If you work from home, this will be easier because it feels awkward at work if your colleagues watch you take laps around the office. Additionally, at home it’s easier to stretch your spine. A bolster (a long, narrow, and firm pillow) is great for this. You can lie down with the bolster placed vertically in line with your spine. With your head and back supported, you’ll experience gentle, supported extension (the backward bending motion of the spine). This posture is relaxing and bolsters are quite comfortable. Regular time in this or in a similar position will help counteract the flexion we experience while sitting, thus bringing more balance to the spine. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses a fact?

    • A.A sedentary lifestyle is relaxing.
    • B.Flexion is the forward folding of the spine.
    • C.A bolster (a long, narrow, and firm pillow) is great for this.
    • D.However, it’s important to have balance, and it may be necessary to make a deliberate effort to create this balance so as to keep our spines mobile and healthy.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Flexion is the forward folding of the spine.

    Flexion is the forward folding of the spine. This sentence expresses a fact: it is the standard definition of a spinal movement and can be checked in any anatomy reference. A sedentary lifestyle is relaxing. This is incorrect because it is an opinion; some people find long hours of sitting tiring or dull rather than relaxing. A bolster (a long, narrow, and firm pillow) is great for this. This is incorrect because, although the parenthesis defines a bolster, calling it "great" is a personal judgment that others might not share. However, it’s important to have balance, and it may be necessary to make a deliberate effort to create this balance so as to keep our spines mobile and healthy. This is incorrect because saying something is "important" is the author's judgment about what people should value, so it is an opinion.

  215. Olympic runners (source): Depending on the type of track running, Olympic runners have different dietary requirements. Sprinters, for example, run for short lengths and need short, sharp bursts of energy. In contrast, long-distance or marathon runners need slow-releasing nutrients that provide energy for a longer period of time. For this reason, they require a similar amount of calories as swimmers. During training sessions close to their race, marathon runners follow a high-carb diet. They eat a very high percentage of carbohydrates three days before the race, but an average portion the night before. On the other hand, carb-loading the day before the event could compromise their performance, leaving the runners feeling bloated and lethargic. What is the main idea of the passage?

    • A.Runners in sprints demand concentrated energy bursts.
    • B.Runners in varied disciplines use energy differently.
    • C.Runners in marathons dine like professional swimmers.
    • D.Runners in sprints require gradually released energy.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Runners in varied disciplines use energy differently.

    Runners in varied disciplines use energy differently. This is the main idea; the passage opens by saying that "depending on the type of track running, Olympic runners have different dietary requirements," and every later sentence contrasts how sprinters and marathon runners are fueled. Runners in sprints demand concentrated energy bursts. This is incorrect as the main idea; it restates the detail that sprinters "need short, sharp bursts of energy," which is only one half of the contrast. Runners in marathons dine like professional swimmers. This is incorrect; the passage mentions swimmers only to compare calorie needs ("they require a similar amount of calories as swimmers"), a minor detail rather than the focus. Runners in sprints require gradually released energy. This is incorrect; the passage gives "slow-releasing nutrients" to long-distance and marathon runners, not to sprinters.

  216. Yoga: More Accessible Than You Might Think One common misconception about yoga is that you need to be flexible to even try it. This misconception stems from a limited view of something unfamiliar. If you don’t practice yoga, your ideas of it may come from images carefully constructed for public view on social media. These images, often shared by companies or “influencers,” show lithe, seasoned yogis in acrobatic poses. Their faces are serene, their hair and makeup flawless, their outfits expensive and perfectly coordinated. If you visit a yoga studio, though, you’ll see practitioners of all ages, shapes, sizes, and ability levels. There will be plenty of sweat, frizzy hair, mismatched outfits, and people falling out of poses (a natural part of learning!). Yoga studios also offer a variety of props to help students access poses safely while they build the necessary flexibility to practice without the prop. Common props include blocks and straps. Yoga blocks are rectangular and generally made of some form of foam or wood. Many practitioners feel that wood blocks provide a greater sense of stability. However, they can be less comfortable when placed under the back in reclining poses. Yoga straps are long, sturdy, and generally made of cotton. They often have a form of buckle at the end which practitioners can use to create a loop. Straps can help you with many things, such as reaching your toes in a seated forward fold. With a couple blocks and a strap, yoga students can safely access poses they might have thought impossible. Instead of stressing or straining (and hence risking injury), people can safely work into a pose, gradually developing more flexibility. Aside from using props in the yoga studio, everyone should have some for their home practice as well. Which of the following statements from the passage expresses an opinion?

    • A.Yoga straps are long, sturdy, and generally made of cotton.
    • B.If you visit a yoga studio, though, you’ll see practitioners of all ages, shapes, sizes, and ability levels.
    • C.Many practitioners feel that wood blocks provide a greater sense of stability.
    • D.They often have a form of buckle at the end which practitioners can use to create a loop.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Many practitioners feel that wood blocks provide a greater sense of stability.

    Many practitioners feel that wood blocks provide a greater sense of stability. This sentence expresses an opinion: a "sense of stability" is a personal feeling, and the passage itself notes that wood blocks "can be less comfortable" for some uses, so others may prefer foam. Yoga straps are long, sturdy, and generally made of cotton. This is incorrect because it describes what straps are made of and their shape, which can be checked. If you visit a yoga studio, though, you’ll see practitioners of all ages, shapes, sizes, and ability levels. This is incorrect because who attends a studio can be observed and checked, so it is a factual claim rather than a feeling. They often have a form of buckle at the end which practitioners can use to create a loop. This is incorrect because whether a strap has a buckle is a physical feature that can be verified; the word "often" simply limits the claim to many straps rather than all.

  217. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. Start with the word CONSCIOUS. Remove the first S that appears in the word. Change the first C to an X. Change the second C to an O. Add an N to the beginning of the word. Remove the letter in the exact middle of the word. Switch the second and third letters. Remove the third consonant. What is the new word?

    • A.ANXIOUS
    • B.VICIOUS
    • C.NOXIOUS
    • D.OBVIOUS
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: NOXIOUS

    NOXIOUS is correct. Step by step: CONSCIOUS; remove the first S to get CONCIOUS; change the first C to an X to get XONCIOUS; change the second C to an O to get XONOIOUS; add an N to the beginning to get NXONOIOUS; remove the letter in the exact middle (the fifth of nine letters, an O) to get NXONIOUS; switch the second and third letters to get NOXNIOUS; remove the third consonant (N, X, then the second N) to get NOXIOUS. ANXIOUS is incorrect; it shares the X and the -IOUS ending, but step 4 puts an N at the front and no step ever adds an A. VICIOUS is incorrect; it keeps a C, but steps 2 and 3 replace both C's, and no step adds a V. OBVIOUS is incorrect; it ends the same way, but no step introduces a B or a V.

  218. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. Start with the word HOLIDAY. Change the A to an E. Move the Y to the beginning of the word. Change the H to the letter that precedes it in the alphabet. Add an N to the beginning of the word. Remove the second letter of the word. Remove the third to last letter of the word. Move the first letter to the end of the word. What is the new word?

    • A.GOLDEN
    • B.GOALIE
    • C.YODELS
    • D.OLDIES
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: GOLDEN

    GOLDEN is correct. Step by step: HOLIDAY; change the A to an E to get HOLIDEY; move the Y to the beginning to get YHOLIDE; change the H to the letter before it (G) to get YGOLIDE; add an N to the beginning to get NYGOLIDE; remove the second letter (Y) to get NGOLIDE; remove the third-to-last letter (I) to get NGOLDE; move the first letter (N) to the end to get GOLDEN. GOALIE is incorrect; it keeps the A, which step 1 changes to an E, and it keeps the I, which step 6 removes. YODELS is incorrect; the Y is removed in step 5, and no step ever adds an S. OLDIES is incorrect; it drops the G created in step 3, keeps the I removed in step 6, and adds an S that never appears.

  219. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. Start with the word PERMEABLE. Remove the first E from the beginning of the word. Remove the A. Add a U after the E in the middle of the word. Move the U after the first letter. Switch the first and fourth letters. Remove the P. Change the third letter to an M. What is the new word?

    • A.RAMBLE
    • B.RUMBLE
    • C.MUMBLE
    • D.BUMBLE
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: MUMBLE

    MUMBLE is correct when step 3 is read as changing the middle E to a U. Step by step: PERMEABLE; remove the first E to get PRMEABLE; remove the A to get PRMEBLE; change the middle E to a U to get PRMUBLE; move the U after the first letter to get PURMBLE; switch the first and fourth letters to get MURPBLE; remove the P to get MURBLE; change the third letter (R) to an M to get MUMBLE. The stem's wording says to add a U after the E, and following that literally gives MUMEBLE, which is not an option, so step 3 has to be read as a change rather than an addition. RAMBLE is incorrect; it keeps the A, which step 2 removes. RUMBLE is incorrect; it keeps the R that the last step replaces with an M. BUMBLE is incorrect; no step moves the B to the front, and after step 5 the first letter is M, which no later step changes.

  220. To: All Staff in the West Offices From: Building Manager Date: September 9th Subject: Elevator Maintenance After frequent reports of elevator malfunctions in the West Offices, they have been closed for maintenance. Upon an initial check, the engineering team has found concerning problems in the electrical wires of all elevators located in these offices. Thus, we are requesting that all employees who work in this office use the stairs for all movement in and out of their offices. However, if you are an employee with personal mobility issues when it comes to stairs, we would encourage you to follow the company’s remote work procedures for the next two weeks in order to avoid injury or discomfort. This construction will also affect parking for our employees. Since the underground parking lots were directly connected to the elevators in the West Offices, they will be closed. The company will reimburse all employees who need to park elsewhere in the city. For reference, the nearest parking lot to the West Offices is located on Smith Avenue and 36th Street. In order to receive your daily stipend for parking, please submit your parking receipts to your direct manager. Although this construction has caused some mild inconveniences, we are confident that the West Office elevators will be back up and running in just a few weeks. We will keep you updated on the progress and if the predicted timeline shifts. Please reach out to your direct managers for any questions and concerns during this time. According to the memo, which employees can work from home for the next two weeks?

    • A.Employees who climb the stairs throughout workdays
    • B.Employees who haul the heaviest equipment upstairs
    • C.Employees who find the stairs physically difficult
    • D.Employees who consider the stairs overly dangerous
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Employees who find the stairs physically difficult

    Employees who find the stairs physically difficult. The memo says, "if you are an employee with personal mobility issues when it comes to stairs, we would encourage you to follow the company's remote work procedures for the next two weeks." Employees who climb the stairs throughout workdays is incorrect; the memo asks "all employees who work in this office" to use the stairs, so ordinary stair users are expected to keep coming in. Employees who haul the heaviest equipment upstairs is incorrect; carrying loads on the stairs may be tiring, but the memo offers remote work only to employees with "personal mobility issues when it comes to stairs," not to anyone whose tasks are harder without an elevator. Employees who consider the stairs overly dangerous is incorrect; the memo offers remote work only for mobility issues, not for general worries about the stairs.

  221. To: All Staff in the West Offices From: Building Manager Date: September 9th Subject: Elevator Maintenance After frequent reports of elevator malfunctions in the West Offices, they have been closed for maintenance. Upon an initial check, the engineering team has found concerning problems in the electrical wires of all elevators located in these offices. Thus, we are requesting that all employees who work in this office use the stairs for all movement in and out of their offices. However, if you are an employee with personal mobility issues when it comes to stairs, we would encourage you to follow the company’s remote work procedures for the next two weeks in order to avoid injury or discomfort. This construction will also affect parking for our employees. Since the underground parking lots were directly connected to the elevators in the West Offices, they will be closed. The company will reimburse all employees who need to park elsewhere in the city. For reference, the nearest parking lot to the West Offices is located on Smith Avenue and 36th Street. In order to receive your daily stipend for parking, please submit your parking receipts to your direct manager. Although this construction has caused some mild inconveniences, we are confident that the West Office elevators will be back up and running in just a few weeks. We will keep you updated on the progress and if the predicted timeline shifts. Please reach out to your direct managers for any questions and concerns during this time.What is the main purpose of the memo?

    • A.To caution West Office workers about elevator injuries.
    • B.To advise West Office workers about lot reimbursements.
    • C.To reassure West Office workers about elevator outages.
    • D.To notify West Office workers about elevator shutdowns.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To notify West Office workers about elevator shutdowns.

    To notify West Office workers about elevator shutdowns. This is the main purpose; the memo's subject line is "Elevator Maintenance," it opens by saying the elevators "have been closed for maintenance," and every other point (stairs, remote work, parking) follows from that closure. To caution West Office workers about elevator injuries. This is incorrect; the memo mentions avoiding injury only for employees with mobility issues on the stairs, and since the elevators are closed there is no elevator risk to warn about. To advise West Office workers about lot reimbursements. This is incorrect; the parking stipend is a supporting detail that results from the closure, not the reason for the memo. To reassure West Office workers about elevator outages. This is incorrect; the line "we are confident that the West Office elevators will be back up and running in just a few weeks" is a closing remark, not the memo's purpose.

  222. From: Human Resources Team Date: October 7th Subject: Company Walk-A-Thon As you all know, our company-wide Walk-A-Thon is just two weeks away. This event is an annual fundraiser that raises money and awareness for pediatric cancer. All of the proceeds from the event go directly to the Pediatric Cancer Ward of our local hospital, and they greatly appreciate our yearly support. While most of the preparation work for the event is well underway, we have noticed that not all employees have signed up for the event. In order to make this event a success, we are hoping that each and every employee will participate in the Walk-A-Thon. If you cannot participate, we do hope you will consider donating a small amount or sponsoring another employee. If this is not possible, please consider finding or contacting a potential business sponsor who would be interested in creating prizes for the guests of the Walk-A-Thon. We strongly believe that fellowship events are just as important as work-related events, and we hope that you will make an effort to participate this time around. Please let us know if you have already signed up for the event, in which case you should not have received this memo. We appreciate your patience as we are still sorting through the sign-ups from all employees and their families. If we haven’t gotten to your submitted registration form yet, then please disregard this memo. Which of the following individuals are most likely the recipients of this memo?

    • A.Hitherto unenrolled employees
    • B.Interested community watchers
    • C.Companywide current employees
    • D.Previously enrolled employees
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Hitherto unenrolled employees

    Hitherto unenrolled employees. The memo notes that "not all employees have signed up for the event" and says, "Please let us know if you have already signed up for the event, in which case you should not have received this memo," so it is aimed at employees who have not yet signed up. Companywide current employees is incorrect; the memo opens with "As you all know" and hopes "each and every employee will participate," but the line about who "should not have received this memo" shows it went only to those who have not signed up, not to the whole staff. Previously enrolled employees is incorrect; the memo states that people who have already signed up should not have received it. Interested community watchers is incorrect; the memo mentions prizes "for the guests of the Walk-A-Thon," but it speaks to people who can sign up, donate, or sponsor a coworker, which only company staff can do.

  223. Planning a wedding is time-consuming and exhausting. Although it originally felt like the wrong decision, we ultimately decided to postpone our wedding until next year so that all of our relatives could be there. When we first found out that our extended family members wouldn’t be able to join us from overseas, we immediately started evaluating our options and then thinking of backup plans. Which event came last in the sequence?

    • A.The couple postponed the celebrations till the new year.
    • B.The couple weighed the various options the news created.
    • C.The couple formulated the backup plans the event needed.
    • D.The couple heard the remote relatives declined the trip.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The couple postponed the celebrations till the new year.

    The couple postponed the celebrations till the new year. This came last; the writer says "we ultimately decided to postpone our wedding until next year," and "ultimately" marks the final step after the planning. The couple heard the remote relatives declined the trip. This is incorrect; it was the first event, signaled by "When we first found out that our extended family members wouldn't be able to join us from overseas." The couple weighed the various options the news created. This is incorrect; they "immediately started evaluating" options right after hearing the news, which was early in the sequence. The couple formulated the backup plans the event needed. This is incorrect; "and then thinking of backup plans" follows the evaluation but still comes before the final decision.

  224. Which of the following is the northernmost feature on the map?

    • A.Highway 35
    • B.Highway 3
    • C.Camping areas
    • D.Parking areas
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Highway 35

    Highway 35 is correct. It is the feature closest to the top of the map, and the top of a standard map is north, so it is the northernmost feature. Highway 3 is incorrect because it runs below Highway 35 on the map, so it is farther south. Parking areas is incorrect because the parking lots appear in the western, southern, and central parts of the map, not along the top. Camping areas is incorrect because the campgrounds sit in the western and southern parts of the map. Note that the map this question refers to is not included with the question.

  225. Chaos in Translation 1. Although it can seem quite technical, translating texts into different languages is a delicate art. Not only does it require a solid understanding of languages, but it also calls for an artistic voice that can truly make the words seem natural to native speakers. When it is done well, readers do not even realize that they are reading a text that has been translated from another language. When it is done badly, however, chaos ensues. One of the most emblematic examples of a translation mishap occurred at the dawn of the twentieth century, when an American diplomat received an incorrectly translated copy of a popular book about aliens. As you might imagine, the mistake ignited both fear and disbelief regarding a concept that was already so foreign to begin with. 2. It all started with Giovanni Virginio Schiaparelli, an Italian astronomer and astrophysicist, in the late 1800s. In addition to studying astronomy at renowned universities, Schiaparelli was the lead director of a famous observatory in Milan, where he was able to observe stars and planets with a telescope. When he first viewed Mars this way in 1877, he quickly made a hand drawn picture of what he had seen on a piece of paper. Using this reference, he believed that the chromatic differences and the “grooves” that he had seen on the surface of Mars meant that continents and seas existed on the planet. Even more interesting was the fact that “channels”, bodies of water that join two larger areas of water, seemed to connect the various seas. Of course, Schiaparelli had written the original works and explanations in his native language of Italian. He immediately received national success for his findings, and his works were quickly translated into English. 3. Once the information made its way into the United States, it attracted the attention of a wealthy American named Percival Lowell, who had previously abandoned his career as a foreign diplomat to invest his time and interests in astronomy. He, too, had observed Mars with a telescope, but was shocked when he read Schiaparelli’s description of the planet. Although he was familiar with the grooves and ridges described in Schiaparelli’s work, he was shocked to read about the “canals” — artificial man-made structures — that connected large bodies of water on Mars. Not only did this prove that life exists on Mars, but it suggested that these life forms could construct immense structures in a short period of time! Understanding that Schiaparelli had been a distinguished astronomer and a credible source, Lowell decided that the shocking discovery must be made accessible to the public. 4. What he did not realize at the time, however, was that the translation was incorrect, and Schiaparelli had never intended to say that man-made structures existed on Mars. In any case, on August 27, 1911, the front page of the New York Times contained a startling headline: “Martians Build Two Immense Canals in Two Years”. This gave rise to incorrect assumptions about intelligent life on Mars. For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in, while others remained skeptical. Luckily, the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography. Despite this, conspiracy theories about “martians” and their strength persisted for decades to come. Later, scientists and other astronomers came to the conclusion that the channels were simply optical illusions, and future high-resolution snapshots from visiting spacecrafts would only confirm that the man-made “canals” were only a result of a language mishap. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author’s opinion on the astronomical photographs used to correct the New York Times headline?

    • A.The author thinks the photographs barely convinced public observers.
    • B.The author thinks the photographs crucially relieved public anxiety.
    • C.The author thinks the photographs reached public scrutiny belatedly.
    • D.The author thinks the photographs finally exposed optical illusions.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The author thinks the photographs crucially relieved public anxiety.

    The author thinks the photographs crucially relieved public anxiety. The passage says "For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in," and then, "Luckily, the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography"; the word "Luckily" shows the author valued the correction for calming that fear. The author thinks the photographs barely convinced public observers. This is incorrect; the author says the information "was quickly corrected," presenting the photographs as effective. The author thinks the photographs reached public scrutiny belatedly. This is incorrect; the author stresses that the correction came "quickly," not too late. The author thinks the photographs finally exposed optical illusions. This is incorrect; the passage credits that conclusion to scientists who came "later" and to "future high-resolution snapshots from visiting spacecrafts," not to the photographs used to correct the headline.

  226. Chaos in Translation 1. Although it can seem quite technical, translating texts into different languages is a delicate art. Not only does it require a solid understanding of languages, but it also calls for an artistic voice that can truly make the words seem natural to native speakers. When it is done well, readers do not even realize that they are reading a text that has been translated from another language. When it is done badly, however, chaos ensues. One of the most emblematic examples of a translation mishap occurred at the dawn of the twentieth century, when an American diplomat received an incorrectly translated copy of a popular book about aliens. As you might imagine, the mistake ignited both fear and disbelief regarding a concept that was already so foreign to begin with. 2. It all started with Giovanni Virginio Schiaparelli, an Italian astronomer and astrophysicist, in the late 1800s. In addition to studying astronomy at renowned universities, Schiaparelli was the lead director of a famous observatory in Milan, where he was able to observe stars and planets with a telescope. When he first viewed Mars this way in 1877, he quickly made a hand drawn picture of what he had seen on a piece of paper. Using this reference, he believed that the chromatic differences and the “grooves” that he had seen on the surface of Mars meant that continents and seas existed on the planet. Even more interesting was the fact that “channels”, bodies of water that join two larger areas of water, seemed to connect the various seas. Of course, Schiaparelli had written the original works and explanations in his native language of Italian. He immediately received national success for his findings, and his works were quickly translated into English. 3. Once the information made its way into the United States, it attracted the attention of a wealthy American named Percival Lowell, who had previously abandoned his career as a foreign diplomat to invest his time and interests in astronomy. He, too, had observed Mars with a telescope, but was shocked when he read Schiaparelli’s description of the planet. Although he was familiar with the grooves and ridges described in Schiaparelli’s work, he was shocked to read about the “canals” — artificial man-made structures — that connected large bodies of water on Mars. Not only did this prove that life exists on Mars, but it suggested that these life forms could construct immense structures in a short period of time! Understanding that Schiaparelli had been a distinguished astronomer and a credible source, Lowell decided that the shocking discovery must be made accessible to the public. 4. What he did not realize at the time, however, was that the translation was incorrect, and Schiaparelli had never intended to say that man-made structures existed on Mars. In any case, on August 27, 1911, the front page of the New York Times contained a startling headline: “Martians Build Two Immense Canals in Two Years”. This gave rise to incorrect assumptions about intelligent life on Mars. For some, fear of an unknown and stronger lifeform set in, while others remained skeptical. Luckily, the information was quickly corrected based on official astronomical photography. Despite this, conspiracy theories about “martians” and their strength persisted for decades to come. Later, scientists and other astronomers came to the conclusion that the channels were simply optical illusions, and future high-resolution snapshots from visiting spacecrafts would only confirm that the man-made “canals” were only a result of a language mishap. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the passage as a whole?

    • A.Cumbersome secondhand scholarly exchanges generated confusion.
    • B.Schiaparelli knowingly exaggerated planetary surface findings.
    • C.Lowell personally mistranslated foreign astronomical writings.
    • D.Martian conspiracy theories disappeared essentially overnight.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cumbersome secondhand scholarly exchanges generated confusion.

    Cumbersome secondhand scholarly exchanges generated confusion. Schiaparelli wrote "in his native language of Italian," and Lowell knew his work only through an English translation that turned "channels" into man-made "canals"; Lowell "did not realize at the time" that it was wrong, and the error reached the front page of the New York Times before it was corrected. Because scholars depended on indirect, secondhand versions of each other's work rather than easy, immediate exchange, a mistake could travel far before anyone caught it. Schiaparelli knowingly exaggerated planetary surface findings. This is incorrect; the passage says "Schiaparelli had never intended to say that man-made structures existed on Mars," so the error came from translation, not from him. Lowell personally mistranslated foreign astronomical writings. This is incorrect; the passage says Lowell read a translation and "did not realize at the time" that it was wrong, and it never says he produced it. Martian conspiracy theories disappeared essentially overnight. This is incorrect; the passage says these theories "persisted for decades to come."

  227. The Future of Tattoos 1. Tattoos are one of the oldest art forms still in existence known to man. Archaeological records suggest that tattoos have existed as early as the Neolithic period, and they still remain a popular choice today when it comes to body art. Of course, tattoos have made great strides since their earliest moments, and are currently available in countless forms, ranging from temporary choices to designs in invisible ink. Could they get any more modern? Experts believe so, and new advancements in technology suggest that the future of tattoos could make life easier and more efficient for us when combined with smart, wearable devices. 2. Wearable devices have become increasingly popular within the past decade, and can be incorporated into pieces of clothing or kept directly on the skin. Currently, perhaps the most popular example of a wearable device is the ubiquitous smart watch, which is known for automatically tracking one’s steps or calories, among other things. Now, technology experts from University College London (UCL) are working on wearable devices in the form of “smart”, temporary tattoos that could be placed directly on the skin. Although the idea is still in the testing phase, it would empoy technology from organic light-emitting diodes (OLEDs) on temporary tattoo paper that would later be transferred onto human skin. Even though it uses OLED technology, the transfer process is extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos and is projected to be barely detectable at just 2.3 micrometers. 3. Now, you might be wondering why someone would opt for a temporary tattoo over a simple wearable device. The answer is twofold: efficiency and comfort. Not only would the temporary tattoo replace potentially bulky watches or devices, but it would also be able to do more than just act as a pedometer and calorie counter. For example, imagine that you are walking along the fruits and vegetables aisle in a grocery store, and are interested in understanding how ripe the products were before making a purchase. In theory, the tattoo would be able to detect information regarding the fruit’s freshness and inform you of the necessary information before your purchase. The tattoo’s technological ink could help spot dehydration levels in professional athletes, or quickly warn doctors of a drastic change in a patient’s statistics. It even has the potential to contribute to more intense treatments, such as chemotherapy. Skeptics should keep these advantages in mind before immediately writing off this idea as too “strange” or “invasive”. 4. Although researchers are still in the early stages of understanding tattoos as electronics, the technology team at UCL has already developed a few prototypes and has begun testing electrodes on people’s skin. Some notable advantages of using OLEDs include its ability to adhere to flexible surfaces while in movement besides being quite cost-effective in the long-run. However, the design team still needs to work out solutions to the potential degradation of the OLED tattoo when it comes into contact with wind and pollution. Based on past testing, researchers have found that because of the nature of the ink, foreign substances can contribute to its erosion quicker than expected. The combination of tattoos and wearable technology is a prime example of how this age-old art can adapt to the ebbs and flows of society while staying relevant in our lives. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from paragraph 2?

    • A.Wearable popularity appears sustainable decades ahead.
    • B.Intricate circuitry fuels deceptively plain wearables.
    • C.Smartwatch market dominance appears firmly entrenched.
    • D.Smart tattoos require elaborate application processes.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Intricate circuitry fuels deceptively plain wearables.

    Intricate circuitry fuels deceptively plain wearables. Paragraph 2 says, "Even though it uses OLED technology, the transfer process is extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos and is projected to be barely detectable," which shows that complex technology can sit inside a product that looks simple. Wearable popularity appears sustainable decades ahead. This is incorrect; the paragraph says only that wearables "have become increasingly popular within the past decade," which says nothing about how long the demand will last. Smartwatch market dominance appears firmly entrenched. This is incorrect; the paragraph calls the smart watch "perhaps the most popular example" today and then describes a new device meant to replace bulky watches, so it gives no reason to think the smart watch's lead is secure. Smart tattoos require elaborate application processes. This is incorrect; the paragraph says the transfer process is "extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos."

  228. The Future of Tattoos 1. Tattoos are one of the oldest art forms still in existence known to man. Archaeological records suggest that tattoos have existed as early as the Neolithic period, and they still remain a popular choice today when it comes to body art. Of course, tattoos have made great strides since their earliest moments, and are currently available in countless forms, ranging from temporary choices to designs in invisible ink. Could they get any more modern? Experts believe so, and new advancements in technology suggest that the future of tattoos could make life easier and more efficient for us when combined with smart, wearable devices. 2. Wearable devices have become increasingly popular within the past decade, and can be incorporated into pieces of clothing or kept directly on the skin. Currently, perhaps the most popular example of a wearable device is the ubiquitous smart watch, which is known for automatically tracking one’s steps or calories, among other things. Now, technology experts from University College London (UCL) are working on wearable devices in the form of “smart”, temporary tattoos that could be placed directly on the skin. Although the idea is still in the testing phase, it would empoy technology from organic light-emitting diodes (OLEDs) on temporary tattoo paper that would later be transferred onto human skin. Even though it uses OLED technology, the transfer process is extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos and is projected to be barely detectable at just 2.3 micrometers. 3. Now, you might be wondering why someone would opt for a temporary tattoo over a simple wearable device. The answer is twofold: efficiency and comfort. Not only would the temporary tattoo replace potentially bulky watches or devices, but it would also be able to do more than just act as a pedometer and calorie counter. For example, imagine that you are walking along the fruits and vegetables aisle in a grocery store, and are interested in understanding how ripe the products were before making a purchase. In theory, the tattoo would be able to detect information regarding the fruit’s freshness and inform you of the necessary information before your purchase. The tattoo’s technological ink could help spot dehydration levels in professional athletes, or quickly warn doctors of a drastic change in a patient’s statistics. It even has the potential to contribute to more intense treatments, such as chemotherapy. Skeptics should keep these advantages in mind before immediately writing off this idea as too “strange” or “invasive”. 4. Although researchers are still in the early stages of understanding tattoos as electronics, the technology team at UCL has already developed a few prototypes and has begun testing electrodes on people’s skin. Some notable advantages of using OLEDs include its ability to adhere to flexible surfaces while in movement besides being quite cost-effective in the long-run. However, the design team still needs to work out solutions to the potential degradation of the OLED tattoo when it comes into contact with wind and pollution. Based on past testing, researchers have found that because of the nature of the ink, foreign substances can contribute to its erosion quicker than expected. The combination of tattoos and wearable technology is a prime example of how this age-old art can adapt to the ebbs and flows of society while staying relevant in our lives. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from paragraph 4?

    • A.OLED ink tattoos presumably exclude windswept climates.
    • B.OLED ink durability demands extra prelaunch refinement.
    • C.UCL researchers expect imminent global consumer launch.
    • D.OLED ink tattoos ultimately undercut smartwatch prices.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: OLED ink durability demands extra prelaunch refinement.

    OLED ink durability demands extra prelaunch refinement. Paragraph 4 says "the design team still needs to work out solutions to the potential degradation of the OLED tattoo when it comes into contact with wind and pollution" and that "foreign substances can contribute to its erosion quicker than expected," so the ink must be made sturdier before the product is ready. OLED ink tattoos presumably exclude windswept climates. This is incorrect; the paragraph treats wind damage as a problem the team "still needs to work out," not as a reason to keep the product out of windy places, so a regional launch plan cannot be inferred. UCL researchers expect imminent global consumer launch. This is incorrect; the paragraph says researchers are "still in the early stages" and only testing prototypes, and it gives no launch date. OLED ink tattoos ultimately undercut smartwatch prices. This is incorrect; the paragraph calls OLEDs "quite cost-effective in the long-run," which describes the material, not the final product's price compared with smartwatches or other wearables.

  229. The Future of Tattoos 1. Tattoos are one of the oldest art forms still in existence known to man. Archaeological records suggest that tattoos have existed as early as the Neolithic period, and they still remain a popular choice today when it comes to body art. Of course, tattoos have made great strides since their earliest moments, and are currently available in countless forms, ranging from temporary choices to designs in invisible ink. Could they get any more modern? Experts believe so, and new advancements in technology suggest that the future of tattoos could make life easier and more efficient for us when combined with smart, wearable devices. 2. Wearable devices have become increasingly popular within the past decade, and can be incorporated into pieces of clothing or kept directly on the skin. Currently, perhaps the most popular example of a wearable device is the ubiquitous smart watch, which is known for automatically tracking one’s steps or calories, among other things. Now, technology experts from University College London (UCL) are working on wearable devices in the form of “smart”, temporary tattoos that could be placed directly on the skin. Although the idea is still in the testing phase, it would empoy technology from organic light-emitting diodes (OLEDs) on temporary tattoo paper that would later be transferred onto human skin. Even though it uses OLED technology, the transfer process is extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos and is projected to be barely detectable at just 2.3 micrometers. 3. Now, you might be wondering why someone would opt for a temporary tattoo over a simple wearable device. The answer is twofold: efficiency and comfort. Not only would the temporary tattoo replace potentially bulky watches or devices, but it would also be able to do more than just act as a pedometer and calorie counter. For example, imagine that you are walking along the fruits and vegetables aisle in a grocery store, and are interested in understanding how ripe the products were before making a purchase. In theory, the tattoo would be able to detect information regarding the fruit’s freshness and inform you of the necessary information before your purchase. The tattoo’s technological ink could help spot dehydration levels in professional athletes, or quickly warn doctors of a drastic change in a patient’s statistics. It even has the potential to contribute to more intense treatments, such as chemotherapy. Skeptics should keep these advantages in mind before immediately writing off this idea as too “strange” or “invasive”. 4. Although researchers are still in the early stages of understanding tattoos as electronics, the technology team at UCL has already developed a few prototypes and has begun testing electrodes on people’s skin. Some notable advantages of using OLEDs include its ability to adhere to flexible surfaces while in movement besides being quite cost-effective in the long-run. However, the design team still needs to work out solutions to the potential degradation of the OLED tattoo when it comes into contact with wind and pollution. Based on past testing, researchers have found that because of the nature of the ink, foreign substances can contribute to its erosion quicker than expected. The combination of tattoos and wearable technology is a prime example of how this age-old art can adapt to the ebbs and flows of society while staying relevant in our lives. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author’s opinion regarding tattoos connected to wearable devices?

    • A.The author dismisses the idea as excessively invasive.
    • B.The author presents the idea as impartial information.
    • C.The author judges the idea as financially unrealistic.
    • D.The author welcomes the idea as possibly advantageous.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The author welcomes the idea as possibly advantageous.

    The author welcomes the idea as possibly advantageous. After listing benefits such as checking produce, spotting dehydration, and warning doctors, the author writes, "Skeptics should keep these advantages in mind before immediately writing off this idea as too 'strange' or 'invasive'," which shows the author wants readers to stay open to a technology that could improve daily life. The author dismisses the idea as excessively invasive. This is incorrect; the author mentions "invasive" only as a criticism skeptics might raise and urges them not to write the idea off. The author presents the idea as impartial information. This is incorrect; telling skeptics what they "should" keep in mind is persuasive, not neutral. The author judges the idea as financially unrealistic. This is incorrect; paragraph 4 says OLEDs are "quite cost-effective in the long-run."

  230. The Future of Tattoos 1. Tattoos are one of the oldest art forms still in existence known to man. Archaeological records suggest that tattoos have existed as early as the Neolithic period, and they still remain a popular choice today when it comes to body art. Of course, tattoos have made great strides since their earliest moments, and are currently available in countless forms, ranging from temporary choices to designs in invisible ink. Could they get any more modern? Experts believe so, and new advancements in technology suggest that the future of tattoos could make life easier and more efficient for us when combined with smart, wearable devices. 2. Wearable devices have become increasingly popular within the past decade, and can be incorporated into pieces of clothing or kept directly on the skin. Currently, perhaps the most popular example of a wearable device is the ubiquitous smart watch, which is known for automatically tracking one’s steps or calories, among other things. Now, technology experts from University College London (UCL) are working on wearable devices in the form of “smart”, temporary tattoos that could be placed directly on the skin. Although the idea is still in the testing phase, it would empoy technology from organic light-emitting diodes (OLEDs) on temporary tattoo paper that would later be transferred onto human skin. Even though it uses OLED technology, the transfer process is extremely similar to simple, temporary tattoos and is projected to be barely detectable at just 2.3 micrometers. 3. Now, you might be wondering why someone would opt for a temporary tattoo over a simple wearable device. The answer is twofold: efficiency and comfort. Not only would the temporary tattoo replace potentially bulky watches or devices, but it would also be able to do more than just act as a pedometer and calorie counter. For example, imagine that you are walking along the fruits and vegetables aisle in a grocery store, and are interested in understanding how ripe the products were before making a purchase. In theory, the tattoo would be able to detect information regarding the fruit’s freshness and inform you of the necessary information before your purchase. The tattoo’s technological ink could help spot dehydration levels in professional athletes, or quickly warn doctors of a drastic change in a patient’s statistics. It even has the potential to contribute to more intense treatments, such as chemotherapy. Skeptics should keep these advantages in mind before immediately writing off this idea as too “strange” or “invasive”. 4. Although researchers are still in the early stages of understanding tattoos as electronics, the technology team at UCL has already developed a few prototypes and has begun testing electrodes on people’s skin. Some notable advantages of using OLEDs include its ability to adhere to flexible surfaces while in movement besides being quite cost-effective in the long-run. However, the design team still needs to work out solutions to the potential degradation of the OLED tattoo when it comes into contact with wind and pollution. Based on past testing, researchers have found that because of the nature of the ink, foreign substances can contribute to its erosion quicker than expected. The combination of tattoos and wearable technology is a prime example of how this age-old art can adapt to the ebbs and flows of society while staying relevant in our lives. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the passage as a whole?

    • A.Societal progress reshapes seemingly basic implements.
    • B.Smart tattoos ultimately supplant customary wearables.
    • C.Wearable technology gradually loses consumer interest.
    • D.Traditional tattoos gradually lose cultural relevance.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Societal progress reshapes seemingly basic implements.

    Societal progress reshapes seemingly basic implements. The passage traces tattoos from the Neolithic period to OLED designs and ends by calling the change "a prime example of how this age-old art can adapt to the ebbs and flows of society while staying relevant in our lives," so as society advances, even simple tools adapt to new needs. Smart tattoos ultimately supplant customary wearables. This is incorrect; the passage says the tattoos could replace "potentially bulky watches or devices" for some users, but the idea is still being tested and nothing suggests all wearables will be replaced. Wearable technology gradually loses consumer interest. This is incorrect; paragraph 2 says wearable devices "have become increasingly popular within the past decade." Traditional tattoos gradually lose cultural relevance. This is incorrect; the passage says tattoos "still remain a popular choice today" and that the art is "staying relevant in our lives."

  231. A veterinary student is researching the use of the drug Adequan in treating arthritis in cats.

    • A.A brochure of veterinary sales literature on cats treated with Adequan
    • B.A digest of mainstream newspaper articles on cats treated with Adequan
    • C.A set of observational veterinary reports on cats treated with Adequan
    • D.A summary of veterinary handbook chapters on cats treated with Adequan
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A set of observational veterinary reports on cats treated with Adequan

    The stem gives a scenario but no question; read as asking which source is a primary source, "A set of observational veterinary reports on cats treated with Adequan" is correct, because the veterinarians are recording firsthand data from the cats they observed, which is original evidence. "A brochure of veterinary sales literature on cats treated with Adequan" is promotional material that selects and interprets study results to sell the drug, so it is neither a primary source nor a reliable one. "A digest of mainstream newspaper articles on cats treated with Adequan" is a secondary source written for a general audience, at least one step removed from the research. "A summary of veterinary handbook chapters on cats treated with Adequan" is a tertiary source that condenses reference material already compiled from other sources.

  232. A college student is writing a paper on “Rappaccini’s Daughter,” by Nathaniel Hawthorne. Which of the following is a primary source that the student could use for this topic?

    • A.A published edition of Nathaniel Hawthorne’s story
    • B.A critical analysis of Nathaniel Hawthorne’s story
    • C.A detailed biography of Nathaniel Hawthorne’s life
    • D.A brief explanation of Nathaniel Hawthorne’s story
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A published edition of Nathaniel Hawthorne’s story

    "A published edition of Nathaniel Hawthorne’s story" is correct: in literary research, the primary source is the literary work itself, so the text of “Rappaccini’s Daughter” is what the student analyzes directly. "A critical analysis of Nathaniel Hawthorne’s story" is a secondary source, because a critic is interpreting the story. "A detailed biography of Nathaniel Hawthorne’s life" may give useful background, but a biographer writing about the author is a secondary source, not the work being studied. "A brief explanation of Nathaniel Hawthorne’s story" restates the story's meaning in someone else's words, so it is a secondary source.

  233. A college professor wants to research trends in syllabus writing. Which of the following is a primary source that the professor could use to find information on this topic?

    • A.A review of syllabus design studies compiled by education professors
    • B.A handbook of syllabus format advice authored by seasoned professors
    • C.A website of syllabus advice entries published by retired professors
    • D.A collection of past syllabus documents drafted by fellow professors
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A collection of past syllabus documents drafted by fellow professors

    "A collection of past syllabus documents drafted by fellow professors" is correct: the topic is how syllabi are written, so the syllabi themselves are the original documents the professor would examine for trends. "A review of syllabus design studies compiled by education professors" is a secondary source, because it summarizes and interprets other people's research about syllabi. "A handbook of syllabus format advice authored by seasoned professors" offers recommendations about how syllabi should be written, which is commentary on the subject, not the syllabi themselves. "A website of syllabus advice entries published by retired professors" is likewise advice written about syllabi, one step removed from the documents being studied.

  234. An art history student wants to research 20th-century surrealist art. Which of the following is a primary source that the student could use for this topic?

    • A.Scholarly evaluations of 20th-century surrealist art
    • B.Textbook descriptions of 20th-century surrealist art
    • C.Digital reproductions of 20th-century surrealist art
    • D.Documentary overviews of 20th-century surrealist art
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Digital reproductions of 20th-century surrealist art

    "Digital reproductions of 20th-century surrealist art" is correct: when art is the topic, the artworks themselves are the primary sources, and images of the works let the student examine them directly. "Scholarly evaluations of 20th-century surrealist art" are secondary sources, because critics are analyzing and interpreting the works. "Textbook descriptions of 20th-century surrealist art" are secondary or tertiary sources that summarize the movement in an author's own words. "Documentary overviews of 20th-century surrealist art" are secondary sources that present a filmmaker's interpretation of the art and its history.

Mathematics (168)

  1. Looking at a map, 1 inch is equal to 35 miles. If two state parks are 4.5 inches apart on the map, how many miles apart are the state parks in reality?

    • A.140.5 miles
    • B.157.5 miles
    • C.1,575 miles
    • D.0.129 miles
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 157.5 miles

    157.5 miles is correct. Set up the proportion 1 inch / 35 miles = 4.5 inches / x miles and cross multiply: x = 4.5 x 35 = 157.5, so the parks are 157.5 miles apart. 140.5 miles is incorrect; it multiplies only the whole inches (4 x 35 = 140) and then tacks on the 0.5 instead of adding half of 35, which is 17.5. 1,575 miles is incorrect; it drops the decimal point and multiplies 45 x 35. 0.129 miles is incorrect; it sets the proportion up upside down and divides 4.5 by 35.

  2. 37 mm is equal to _______ cm

    • A.37
    • B.0.37
    • C.3700
    • D.3.7
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3.7

    3.7 is correct. A centimeter is 10 millimeters, so moving from millimeters to the larger unit, centimeters, is one step up the metric ladder: divide by 10. 37 mm / 10 = 3.7 cm. 37 is incorrect; it leaves the number unchanged, as if millimeters and centimeters were the same size. 0.37 is incorrect; it divides by 100, moving two steps instead of one. 3700 is incorrect; it multiplies by 100, moving the wrong way and two steps instead of one.

  3. 7 gallons is equal to how many liters?

    • A.21.8
    • B.26.6
    • C.10.8
    • D.1.84
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 26.6

    26.6 is correct. Using 1 gallon = about 3.8 liters, set up 1 gallon / 3.8 liters = 7 gallons / x liters and cross multiply: x = 7 x 3.8 = 26.6 liters. 21.8 is incorrect; it multiplies only the 3 by 7 (21) and then adds the 0.8 without multiplying it by 7. 10.8 is incorrect; it adds 7 + 3.8 instead of multiplying. 1.84 is incorrect; it divides 7 by 3.8 instead of multiplying, which would give fewer liters than gallons even though a liter is the smaller unit.

  4. 112 ounces is equal to how many pounds?

    • A.9.33 pounds
    • B.11.2 pounds
    • C.7 pounds
    • D.4 pounds
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 7 pounds

    7 pounds is correct. There are 16 ounces in 1 pound, and moving from the smaller unit to the larger one means dividing: 112 / 16 = 7 pounds. 9.33 pounds is incorrect; it divides by 12, mixing up the ounces-to-pounds factor with the 12 inches in a foot. 11.2 pounds is incorrect; it divides by 10, as if the conversion were metric. 4 pounds is incorrect; it divides by 28, confusing ounces per pound with the roughly 28 grams in an ounce.

  5. 4 gallons is equal to how many liters?

    • A.1.05
    • B.7.8
    • C.12.8
    • D.15.2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 15.2

    Use 1 gallon = 3.8 liters and multiply: 4 x 3.8 = 15.2 liters, so 15.2 is correct. 1.05 comes from dividing instead of multiplying (4 / 3.8), which runs the conversion the wrong way. 7.8 comes from adding the two numbers (4 + 3.8) instead of multiplying them. 12.8 is a partial-product slip: multiplying only the whole part (4 x 3 = 12) and tacking on the 0.8 instead of adding 4 x 0.8 = 3.2.

  6. 48 ounces is equal to ______ cups.

    • A.4
    • B.12
    • C.6
    • D.40
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 6

    Ounces to cups is one step to the right on the liquid chart, so divide by 8 (8 ounces = 1 cup): 48 / 8 = 6 cups, and 6 is correct. 4 comes from dividing by 12, the inches-per-foot factor, instead of 8. 12 comes from dividing by 4, the quarts-per-gallon factor from a different step of the chart. 40 comes from subtracting 8 (48 - 8) instead of dividing by it.

  7. 80 ounces is equal to how many pounds?

    • A.5 pounds
    • B.8 pounds
    • C.10 pounds
    • D.64 pounds
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 5 pounds

    Ounces to pounds means dividing by 16 (16 ounces = 1 pound): 80 / 16 = 5, so 5 pounds is correct. 10 pounds comes from dividing by 8, treating weight ounces like fluid ounces (8 per cup). 64 pounds comes from subtracting 16 (80 - 16) instead of dividing by it. 8 pounds comes from dividing by 10 out of a metric habit.

  8. 104 ounces is equal to ______ cups.

    • A.13
    • B.6.5
    • C.96
    • D.832
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 13

    Ounces to cups is one step to the right on the liquid chart, so divide by 8 (8 ounces = 1 cup): 104 / 8 = 13 cups, and 13 is correct. 6.5 comes from dividing by 16, the ounces-per-pound factor for weight. 96 comes from subtracting 8 (104 - 8) instead of dividing by it. 832 comes from multiplying by 8 (104 x 8), moving the wrong way on the chart.

  9. 7 km is equal to how many miles? Round your answer to the nearest hundredth.

    • A.5.39
    • B.11.27
    • C.15.40
    • D.4.35
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 4.35

    With 1 mile = 1.6093 km, divide the kilometers by 1.6093: 7 / 1.6093 = 4.3497, which rounds to 4.35 at the hundredths place, so 4.35 is correct. 11.27 multiplies instead of dividing (7 x 1.6093 = 11.2651), which converts miles to kilometers; a distance in miles must be smaller than the same distance in kilometers. 15.40 multiplies by 2.2, the kilograms-to-pounds factor, instead of using the kilometers-to-miles factor. 5.39 subtracts the factor (7 - 1.6093) instead of dividing by it.

  10. Convert 12∘C12^{\circ}\text{C} into ∘F^{\circ}\text{F}.

    • A.21.6 °F
    • B.53.6 °F
    • C.44 °F
    • D.79.2 °F
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 53.6 °F

    Celsius to Fahrenheit is (C x 1.8) + 32. Here 12 x 1.8 = 21.6 and 21.6 + 32 = 53.6, so 53.6 °F is correct. 21.6 °F stops after the multiplication and forgets to add 32. 44 °F adds 32 but skips the multiplication by 1.8 (12 + 32). 79.2 °F adds 32 before multiplying, (12 + 32) x 1.8, which breaks the order of operations.

  11. Looking at a map, 1 inch is equal to 50 miles. If two cities are 3.8 inches apart on the map, how many miles apart are the cities in reality?

    • A.13.2 miles
    • B.53.8 miles
    • C.154 miles
    • D.190 miles
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 190 miles

    Set the scale up as a proportion: 1 inch / 50 miles = 3.8 inches / x miles, so x = 3.8 x 50 = 190, and 190 miles is correct. 13.2 miles comes from dividing 50 by 3.8 instead of multiplying. 53.8 miles comes from adding 3.8 and 50, the wrong operation. 154 miles is a decimal slip: 3 x 50 = 150, but 0.8 x 50 was written as 4 instead of 40.

  12. Convert 41∘C41^{\circ}\text{C} into ∘F^{\circ}\text{F}.

    • A.54.78 °F
    • B.73 °F
    • C.105.8 °F
    • D.131.4 °F
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 105.8 °F

    Celsius to Fahrenheit is (C x 1.8) + 32: 41 x 1.8 = 73.8, and 73.8 + 32 = 105.8, so 105.8 °F is correct. 54.78 °F divides by 1.8 instead of multiplying (41 / 1.8 + 32), borrowing a step from the Fahrenheit-to-Celsius formula. 73 °F adds 32 to 41 but never multiplies by 1.8. 131.4 °F adds 32 before multiplying, (41 + 32) x 1.8, which breaks the order of operations.

  13. 75 mm is equal to _______ cm

    • A.0.75
    • B.2.95
    • C.7.5
    • D.750
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 7.5

    Millimeters to centimeters is one step to the right on the metric chart (milli to centi), so divide by 10: 75 / 10 = 7.5 cm, and 7.5 is correct. 0.75 divides by 100, moving two steps instead of one. 750 multiplies by 10, moving the decimal point the wrong way. 2.95 converts to inches (75 mm / 25.4 mm per inch) instead of to centimeters.

  14. A balloon has the shape of a sphere when it is fully blown up. The radius of the balloon is 1.2 feet when it is fully blown up. How much air is blown into the balloon when it is full? V=43×π×r3V = \frac{4}{3} \times \pi \times r^{3} Use 3.14 for π\pi and 1.33 for 43\frac{4}{3}.

    • A.6.013728 square feet
    • B.24.054912 square feet
    • C.7.2164736 cubic feet
    • D.57.7317888 cubic feet
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 7.2164736 cubic feet

    V = 1.33 x 3.14 x r^3 with r = 1.2 ft. Cube the radius first: 1.2 x 1.2 x 1.2 = 1.728, then 1.33 x 3.14 x 1.728 = 7.2164736, so 7.2164736 cubic feet is correct; the air filling a sphere is a volume, measured in cubic feet. 6.013728 square feet squares the radius (1.44) instead of cubing it. 24.054912 square feet squares the diameter (2.4 x 2.4 = 5.76) instead of cubing the radius. 57.7317888 cubic feet cubes the diameter (2.4 x 2.4 x 2.4 = 13.824) instead of the radius.

  15. 11 km is equal to how many miles? Round your answer to the nearest hundredth.

    • A.9.39
    • B.6.84
    • C.12.61
    • D.17.70
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 6.84

    With 1 mile = 1.6093 km, divide the kilometers by 1.6093: 11 / 1.6093 = 6.8353, which rounds to 6.84 at the hundredths place, so 6.84 is correct. 17.70 multiplies instead of dividing (11 x 1.6093 = 17.7023), which converts miles to kilometers rather than kilometers to miles. 9.39 subtracts the factor (11 - 1.6093). 12.61 adds the factor (11 + 1.6093).

  16. 198 inches is equal to ___ feet.

    • A.5.5
    • B.16.5
    • C.19.8
    • D.186
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 16.5

    Inches to feet is one step to the right on the distance chart, so divide by 12 (12 inches = 1 foot): 198 / 12 = 16.5 feet, and 16.5 is correct. 19.8 divides by 10, as if the units were metric. 5.5 divides by 36, the inches-per-yard factor, which converts to yards instead of feet. 186 subtracts 12 (198 - 12) instead of dividing by it.

  17. 12 kg is equal to how many pounds?

    • A.26.4
    • B.5.45
    • C.9.8
    • D.14.2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 26.4

    With 1 kilogram = 2.2 pounds, multiply: 12 x 2.2 = 26.4 pounds, so 26.4 is correct. 5.45 divides by 2.2 (12 / 2.2), which converts pounds to kilograms, the reverse direction. 9.8 subtracts the factor (12 - 2.2). 14.2 adds the factor (12 + 2.2) instead of multiplying by it.

  18. What is the surface area of a cylinder with a radius of 6 cm and a height of 14 cm? Use 3.14 for π\pi.

    • A.376.8 cm^2
    • B.527.52 cm^2
    • C.753.6 cm^2
    • D.640.56 cm^2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 753.6 cm^2

    A cylinder's surface is two circular bases plus the side rectangle. Each base is 3.14 x 6^2 = 113.04; the side is the circumference times the height, 2 x 3.14 x 6 x 14 = 527.52. Total: 113.04 + 113.04 + 527.52 = 753.6, so 753.6 cm^2 is correct. 527.52 cm^2 is the side alone, leaving out both bases. 640.56 cm^2 counts only one base (113.04 + 527.52). 376.8 cm^2 drops the factor of 2 from both parts (3.14 x 36 + 3.14 x 6 x 14).

  19. 156 inches is equal to ___ feet.

    • A.9.75
    • B.15.6
    • C.13
    • D.144
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 13

    Inches to feet is one step to the right on the distance chart, so divide by 12 (12 inches = 1 foot): 156 / 12 = 13 feet, and 13 is correct. 9.75 divides by 16, the ounces-per-pound factor. 15.6 divides by 10, as if the units were metric. 144 subtracts 12 (156 - 12) instead of dividing by it.

  20. What is the surface area of a cylinder with a radius of 9 in and a height of 12 in? Use 3.14 for π\pi.

    • A.1865.16 in^2
    • B.1186.92 in^2
    • C.2712.96 in^2
    • D.3391.2 in^2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1186.92 in^2

    A cylinder's surface is two circular bases plus the side rectangle. Each base is 3.14 x 9^2 = 254.34; the side is 2 x 3.14 x 9 x 12 = 678.24. Total: 254.34 + 254.34 + 678.24 = 1186.92, so 1186.92 in^2 is correct. 1865.16 in^2 counts the side rectangle twice (2 x 254.34 + 2 x 678.24). 2712.96 in^2 finds each base with the diameter, 3.14 x 18^2, instead of the radius. 3391.2 in^2 uses the 18-inch diameter in place of the radius for every part.

  21. A basketball has a radius of 4.8 inches. How much air can be pumped into the basketball when it is full? V=43×π×r3V = \frac{4}{3} \times \pi \times r^{3} Use 3.14 for π\pi and 1.33 for 43\frac{4}{3}.

    • A.384.878592 square inches
    • B.461.8543104 cubic inches
    • C.96.219648 square inches
    • D.347.25888 cubic inches
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 461.8543104 cubic inches

    V = 1.33 x 3.14 x r^3 with r = 4.8 in. Cube the radius: 4.8 x 4.8 x 4.8 = 110.592, then 1.33 x 3.14 x 110.592 = 461.8543104, so 461.8543104 cubic inches is correct; the air inside a ball is a volume, measured in cubic inches. 347.25888 cubic inches leaves out the 4/3 (1.33) and multiplies only 3.14 x 110.592. 96.219648 square inches squares the radius (23.04) instead of cubing it. 384.878592 square inches squares the diameter (9.6 x 9.6 = 92.16) instead of cubing the radius.

  22. 9 kg is equal to how many pounds?

    • A.19.8
    • B.6.8
    • C.11.2
    • D.14.4
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 19.8

    With 1 kilogram = 2.2 pounds, multiply: 9 x 2.2 = 19.8 pounds, so 19.8 is correct. 6.8 subtracts the factor (9 - 2.2) instead of multiplying by it. 11.2 adds the factor (9 + 2.2). 14.4 multiplies by 1.6, the kilometers-per-mile factor, instead of 2.2.

  23. Favorite dessert | Frequency: Apple Pie 21, Banana Split 18, Fried Twinkie 20, Gooey Butter Cake 14, Chess Pie 11, Hummingbird Cake 25.What is the total number of people asked?

    • A.119
    • B.127
    • C.134
    • D.109
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 109

    The number of people asked is the sum of every frequency: 21 + 18 + 20 + 14 + 11 + 25 = 109, so 109 is correct. 119 comes from carrying an extra ten partway through the addition (73 written as 83). 127 counts Banana Split (18) twice. 134 counts Hummingbird Cake (25) twice.

  24. "The sport that the respondent prefers | Frequency: American Football 8, Baseball 5, Ice Hockey 2, Basketball 4, Golf 6, Socker 6, Tennis 3. What is the total number of people surveyed?"

    • A.29
    • B.37
    • C.42
    • D.34
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 34

    The number surveyed is the sum of every frequency: 8 + 5 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 6 + 3 = 34, so 34 is correct. 29 leaves out Baseball (5). 37 counts Tennis (3) twice. 42 counts American Football (8) twice.

  25. Find the median of the following numbers: 98.6, 11.8, 78.1, 25.3, and 65.4.

    • A.55.8
    • B.65.4
    • C.78.1
    • D.86.8
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 65.4

    The median is the middle value once the list is sorted: 11.8, 25.3, 65.4, 78.1, 98.6, so 65.4 is correct. 78.1 is the middle of the list as written, before sorting. 55.8 is the mean (279.2 / 5 = 55.84), a different measure of center. 86.8 is the range (98.6 - 11.8), a measure of spread.

  26. What is the median of the following numbers? 905.8, 125.6, 366.4, 489.7, 527.1

    • A.366.4
    • B.489.7
    • C.482.9
    • D.780.2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 489.7

    Sort the values first: 125.6, 366.4, 489.7, 527.1, 905.8. The middle one is 489.7, so 489.7 is correct. 366.4 is the middle of the list as written, before sorting. 482.9 is the mean (2414.6 / 5 = 482.92), not the median. 780.2 is the range (905.8 - 125.6), a measure of spread.

  27. The cost of concert tickets across 5 theatres in the US is given below. What is the average cost of a concert ticket in the US? $197, $250, $320, $218, $305

    • A.250 dollars
    • B.268 dollars
    • C.278 dollars
    • D.258 dollars
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 258 dollars

    The mean is the sum divided by the count: 197 + 250 + 320 + 218 + 305 = 1290, and 1290 / 5 = 258, so 258 dollars is correct. 250 dollars is the median, the middle of 197, 218, 250, 305, 320, not the mean. 268 dollars skips the 218 price and averages the other four (1072 / 4). 278 dollars comes from misadding the sum as 1390 before dividing by 5.

  28. The temperature in Miami was recorded for a week and is given below. What was the average temperature in Miami that week? 34.6∘C34.6^{\circ}\text{C}, 28.9∘C28.9^{\circ}\text{C}, 29.2∘C29.2^{\circ}\text{C}, 31.8∘C31.8^{\circ}\text{C}, 35.0∘C35.0^{\circ}\text{C}, 32.7∘C32.7^{\circ}\text{C}, 33.1∘C33.1^{\circ}\text{C}

    • A.31.72 °C
    • B.31.95 °C
    • C.32.19 °C
    • D.32.03 °C
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 32.19 °C

    Add all seven readings, 34.6 + 28.9 + 29.2 + 31.8 + 35.0 + 32.7 + 33.1 = 225.3, then divide by 7: 225.3 / 7 = 32.186, about 32.19, so 32.19 °C is correct. 31.72 °C leaves out the 35.0 reading and averages the other six (190.3 / 6). 31.95 °C averages only the lowest and highest readings, (28.9 + 35.0) / 2. 32.03 °C drops the last reading, 33.1, and averages the first six (192.2 / 6).

  29. Pete went on a trip and recorded how the air temperature rose as the car moved south. Determine the independent and dependent variables.

    • A.Air temperature – independent, distance – dependent
    • B.Velocity – independent, air temperature – dependent
    • C.Air temperature – independent, velocity – dependent
    • D.Distance – independent, air temperature – dependent
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Distance – independent, air temperature – dependent

    The independent variable is the one that is changed; the dependent variable is the one that responds. The farther south Pete drives, the higher the temperature, so the distance traveled is what changes and the temperature is the result: Distance – independent, air temperature – dependent is correct. Air temperature – independent, distance – dependent reverses the roles; the temperature does not decide how far the car goes. Velocity – independent, air temperature – dependent names a quantity Pete never recorded; the temperature changed with location, not with speed. Air temperature – independent, velocity – dependent pairs two quantities the trip record does not link at all.

  30. An engineer checks how strong cement becomes by adding different amounts of filler. Determine the independent and dependent variables.

    • A.Cement strength – independent, amount of filler – dependent
    • B.Cement type – independent, amount of filler – dependent
    • C.Amount of filler – independent, cement strength – dependent
    • D.Amount of water – independent, cement strength – dependent
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Amount of filler – independent, cement strength – dependent

    The engineer deliberately changes how much filler goes in and then measures how strong the cement becomes, so Amount of filler – independent, cement strength – dependent is correct. Cement strength – independent, amount of filler – dependent reverses cause and effect; the strength is the result, not the setting. Cement type – independent, amount of filler – dependent is wrong on both counts: the engineer changes the filler, not the type of cement, and the filler is something he adds, not a result he measures. Amount of water – independent, cement strength – dependent names the wrong ingredient; the stem says the engineer varies the filler, not the water.

  31. Which of the following combinations has the largest area on the pie chart? The most popular car colors: Blue 26%, Black 24%, Grey 23%, Red 12%, White 10%, Green 5%.

    • A.Grey, Red & Green
    • B.Green, Grey & White
    • C.Black, White & Green
    • D.Blue, Green & White
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Blue, Green & White

    Add the percentages in each combination. Blue, Green & White = 26 + 5 + 10 = 41%, the largest, so Blue, Green & White is correct. Grey, Red & Green = 23 + 12 + 5 = 40%, one point short. Black, White & Green = 24 + 10 + 5 = 39%. Green, Grey & White = 5 + 23 + 10 = 38%.

  32. Mrs. Dufree wanted to know how much her students had studied for the science test. She also wanted to know if the girls or the boys studied more.

    • A.Double line graph
    • B.Single bar graph
    • C.Double bar graph
    • D.Single line graph
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Double bar graph

    Mrs. Dufree wants study time for her students and a comparison of two groups, girls and boys, on that one measure, so a Double bar graph is correct: it sets a girls bar beside a boys bar for a direct comparison. A Single bar graph shows one series and cannot set the two groups side by side. A Double line graph and a Single line graph show change over time, and this question involves no time sequence.

  33. Find the median of the following numbers: 25, 78, 93, 51, and 46.

    • A.51
    • B.58.6
    • C.64.5
    • D.93
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 51

    Sort the list: 25, 46, 51, 78, 93. With five values the median is the third one, 51, so 51 is correct. 58.6 is the mean (293 / 5), a different measure of center. 93 is the middle number of the list as written, before sorting. 64.5 averages 51 and 78, as if the list had an even count with two middle values.

  34. Max’s scores are given here for the last 6 exams. What is his average score? 56, 96, 85, 72, 63, 91

    • A.66.14
    • B.76
    • C.78.50
    • D.77.17
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 77.17

    The mean is the sum divided by the count: 56 + 96 + 85 + 72 + 63 + 91 = 463, and 463 / 6 = 77.1667, about 77.17, so 77.17 is correct. 78.50 is the median, the average of the middle pair 72 and 85 once the scores are sorted, not the mean. 66.14 divides by 7 (463 / 7), miscounting the exams. 76 averages only the lowest and highest scores, (56 + 96) / 2.

  35. Coach Espinoza wants to know how many wins and losses his 5 rival teams have had.

    • A.Double line graph
    • B.Double bar graph
    • C.Single bar graph
    • D.Single line graph
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Double bar graph

    Coach Espinoza needs two counts, wins and losses, for each of five teams, so a Double bar graph is correct: each team gets a wins bar and a losses bar side by side. A Single bar graph can show only one count per team. A Double line graph and a Single line graph show change over time, and this question compares teams, not time periods.

  36. What is the circumference of a circle with a diameter of 11 cm? (Use 3.14 for π\pi)

    • A.14.14 cm
    • B.17.27 cm
    • C.34.54 cm
    • D.94.99 cm
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 34.54 cm

    Circumference = pi x diameter, so 3.14 x 11 = 34.54, and 34.54 cm is correct. 17.27 cm puts the radius (5.5) into the pi x diameter formula, which gives half the circumference. 94.99 cm is the area, 3.14 x 5.5^2 = 94.985, not the distance around the circle. 14.14 cm adds 3.14 and 11 instead of multiplying them.

  37. What is the mean of the following numbers: 85, 64, 73, 29, 51, 11?

    • A.52.17
    • B.57.50
    • C.60.40
    • D.62.60
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 52.17

    The mean is the sum divided by the count: 85 + 64 + 73 + 29 + 51 + 11 = 313, and 313 / 6 = 52.1667, about 52.17, so 52.17 is correct. 62.60 divides by 5 instead of 6 (313 / 5), miscounting the numbers. 60.40 drops the 11 and averages the other five (302 / 5). 57.50 is the median, the average of the middle pair 51 and 64 once the list is sorted.

  38. Betty conducted a survey in her class about how much time students spent preparing for the exam and the score they got. Determine the independent and dependent variables.

    • A.Time – independent, score – dependent
    • B.Score – independent, time – dependent
    • C.Exam length – independent, score – dependent
    • D.Time – independent, exam version – dependent
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Time – independent, score – dependent

    Each student chooses how long to prepare, and the score follows from that preparation, so Time – independent, score – dependent is correct. Score – independent, time – dependent reverses the roles; the score comes after the studying and cannot set it. Exam length – independent, score – dependent names something that is the same for the whole class, so it does not vary and cannot explain different scores. Time – independent, exam version – dependent makes a fixed feature of the exam, which version was handed out, an outcome of studying.

  39. Eye color | Frequency: Blue 9, Gray 8, Green 5, Gray-blue 4, Gray-green 3, Brown - black 31. What is the total number of people surveyed?

    • A.42
    • B.60
    • C.53
    • D.67
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 60

    The number surveyed is the sum of every frequency: 9 + 8 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 31 = 60, so 60 is correct. 53 leaves out the two blended rows, Gray-blue (4) and Gray-green (3), as if they were already counted under Gray. 67 counts those two blended rows twice, once under each color. 42 misreads the Brown - black frequency of 31 as 13.

  40. Find the mean of the following numbers: 123, 678, 291, 347.

    • A.287.80
    • B.359.75
    • C.400.50
    • D.479.67
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 359.75

    The mean is the sum divided by the count: 123 + 678 + 291 + 347 = 1439, and 1439 / 4 = 359.75, so 359.75 is correct. 479.67 divides by 3 instead of 4 (1439 / 3). 287.80 divides by 5 instead of 4 (1439 / 5). 400.50 averages only the smallest and largest numbers, (123 + 678) / 2.

  41. What is the perimeter and the area of a rectangle with a length of 25 inches and a width of 18 inches?

    • A.Perimeter = 86 in, area = 450 in^2
    • B.Perimeter = 43 in, area = 450 in^2
    • C.Perimeter = 86 in, area = 900 in^2
    • D.Perimeter = 43 in, area = 900 in^2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Perimeter = 86 in, area = 450 in^2

    Perimeter adds all four sides: 25 + 25 + 18 + 18 = 86 in. Area multiplies length by width: 25 x 18 = 450 square inches. So Perimeter = 86 in, area = 450 in^2 is correct. Perimeter = 43 in, area = 450 in^2 adds one length and one width only (25 + 18), counting two of the four sides. Perimeter = 86 in, area = 900 in^2 doubles the area (2 x 25 x 18), carrying the perimeter's factor of 2 into the area formula. Perimeter = 43 in, area = 900 in^2 makes both of those mistakes.

  42. What is the mean price of orange juice based on the following prices of orange juice across 8 stores? $1.20, $2.50, $2.40, $1.00, $2.99, $1.99, $1.50, $2.00

    • A.1.95 dollars
    • B.2.00 dollars
    • C.2.07 dollars
    • D.2.23 dollars
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1.95 dollars

    Add the eight prices, 1.20 + 2.50 + 2.40 + 1.00 + 2.99 + 1.99 + 1.50 + 2.00 = 15.58, then divide by 8: 15.58 / 8 = 1.9475, about 1.95, so 1.95 dollars is correct. 2.00 dollars is the median, (1.99 + 2.00) / 2 = 1.995, not the mean. 2.07 dollars comes from misadding the sum as 16.58 before dividing by 8. 2.23 dollars divides by 7 instead of 8 (15.58 / 7), miscounting the stores.

  43. The day of the week the respondent was born | Frequency: Monday 10, Tuesday 6, Wednesday 7, Thursday 12, Friday 9, Saturday 10, Sunday 8. What is the total number of people asked?

    • A.62
    • B.44
    • C.54
    • D.72
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 62

    The number asked is the sum of every frequency: 10 + 6 + 7 + 12 + 9 + 10 + 8 = 62, so 62 is correct. 44 adds only Monday through Friday and leaves out the weekend. 54 leaves out the last row, Sunday (8). 72 counts one of the two 10s twice.

  44. What is the median of the following numbers? 118, 251, 369, 98, 52

    • A.251
    • B.118
    • C.317
    • D.369
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 118

    Sorted, the five values read 52, 98, 118, 251, 369, so the middle value, 118, is the median. 251 is the fourth value in sorted order, one place past the middle; 317 is the range (369 minus 52), a measure of spread rather than of center; 369 is the middle number of the list as it is written, taken without sorting the values first.

  45. What is the circumference of a circle with a diameter of 27 in? (Use 3.14 for π\pi)

    • A.30.14 in
    • B.84.78 in
    • C.169.56 in
    • D.572.27 in
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 84.78 in

    Circumference is pi times the diameter: 3.14 times 27 = 84.78, so the answer is 84.78 in. 30.14 in comes from adding 3.14 and 27 instead of multiplying them; 169.56 in doubles the diameter, as if 27 in were the radius in 2 times pi times r; 572.27 in is the area, pi times 13.5 squared (572.265), which measures the inside of the circle, not the distance around it.

  46. Hana is on a diet and writes down her weight every day. Determine the independent and dependent variables.

    • A.Weight – independent, calendar days – dependent
    • B.Diet timeframe – controlled, weight – dependent
    • C.Diet duration – independent, weight – dependent
    • D.Weight – controlled, diet period – independent
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Diet duration – independent, weight – dependent

    The number of days Hana has been dieting changes on its own, and her weight is the outcome she records in response, so the answer is Diet duration – independent, weight – dependent. Weight – independent, calendar days – dependent reverses cause and effect: the passing days do not depend on her weight. Diet timeframe – controlled, weight – dependent mistakes the variable Hana changes for a controlled variable; a controlled variable is held constant, and the length of the diet grows every day. Weight – controlled, diet period – independent calls the measured outcome a controlled variable, but her weight is what she is watching change, not something held fixed.

  47. Which of the following combinations has the largest area on the pie chart? Most popular Fruits : Bananas 43%, Citrus 19%, Apples 17%, Berries 11%, Grapes 10%

    • A.Citrus, Apples & Berries
    • B.Apples, Berries & Grapes
    • C.Grapes & Bananas
    • D.Berries & Grapes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Grapes & Bananas

    Grapes & Bananas covers 10% + 43% = 53% of the chart, the largest share offered. Citrus, Apples & Berries totals 19% + 17% + 11% = 47%; Apples, Berries & Grapes totals 17% + 11% + 10% = 38%; Berries & Grapes totals 11% + 10% = 21%. Naming more fruits does not guarantee a bigger share: the single 43% slice outweighs any group that leaves it out.

  48. What is the perimeter and the area of a rectangle with a length of 12 centimeters and a width of 7 centimeters?

    • A.P = 84 cm, A = 38 cm^2
    • B.P = 38 cm, A = 42 cm^2
    • C.P = 26 cm, A = 84 cm^2
    • D.P = 38 cm, A = 84 cm^2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: P = 38 cm, A = 84 cm^2

    Perimeter (P) adds all four sides, 12 + 12 + 7 + 7 = 38 cm, and area (A) multiplies length by width, 12 times 7 = 84 square cm, so the answer is P = 38 cm, A = 84 cm^2. P = 84 cm, A = 38 cm^2 swaps the two results; P = 38 cm, A = 42 cm^2 halves the area as if the shape were a triangle; P = 26 cm, A = 84 cm^2 works 12 + 7 times 2 without parentheses, so it counts the width twice but the length only once.

  49. Veronica spends $2,987 each month. She wants to use a graph to see how her money is spent on rent, utilities, food, entertainment, etc.

    • A.Line Graph
    • B.Histogram
    • C.Pictograph
    • D.Pie Chart
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Pie Chart

    Veronica wants to see how one monthly total is divided among rent, utilities, food and entertainment, a part-to-whole comparison, so the answer is Pie Chart. A Line Graph tracks how a value changes over time, not how one total is split; a Histogram groups numeric data into intervals to show a distribution, not named spending categories; a Pictograph counts with repeated picture symbols and does not show each category as a share of the whole budget.

  50. Justus has 48 hours to spend studying for all of his classes over the weekend. He wants to use a graph to see how his time is spent studying Trigonometry, Spanish, European History, etc. Which type of graph should Justus use?

    • A.Line Graph
    • B.Pie Chart
    • C.Dot Plot
    • D.Pictograph
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Pie Chart

    Justus wants to see how a fixed 48 hours is shared among his subjects, a part-to-whole comparison, so the answer is Pie Chart. A Line Graph shows how a value changes over time, not how a total is divided; a Dot Plot shows how often each value occurs in a single numeric data set; a Pictograph counts with picture symbols and does not show each subject as a fraction of the whole 48 hours.

  51. What is the mean of the following numbers: 25, 39, 43, 56, 68?

    • A.38.5
    • B.46.2
    • C.51.5
    • D.57.8
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 46.2

    The sum is 25 + 39 + 43 + 56 + 68 = 231 and there are five values, so the mean is 231 / 5 = 46.2. 38.5 divides the sum by 6 instead of 5; 51.5 leaves out the 25 and averages only the other four values (206 / 4); 57.8 divides the full sum by 4 instead of 5 (57.75, rounded to tenths).

  52. Find the mean of the following numbers: 251, 387, 405, 569.

    • A.396
    • B.403
    • C.398
    • D.410
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 403

    251 + 387 + 405 + 569 = 1612, and 1612 / 4 = 403, so the mean is 403. 396 is the median, the average of the two middle values 387 and 405, not the mean; 398 comes from dropping the carry out of the ones column, which gives a sum of 1592; 410 is the midpoint of the smallest and largest values, (251 + 569) / 2, which ignores the two middle values.

  53. Delhi, India experienced one of the hottest summers in 2021. The temperature over a week in the month of July is recorded in the table below: Day | Temperature (∘C^{\circ}\text{C}) Monday 41.52, Tuesday 42.35, Wednesday 43.78, Thursday 40.57, Friday 38.56, Saturday 39.23, Sunday 40.71 What is the mean temperature of this week?

    • A.40.57 ℃
    • B.40.71 ℃
    • C.40.96 ℃
    • D.41.17 ℃
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 40.96 ℃

    The seven readings sum to 286.72, and 286.72 / 7 = 40.96, so the mean temperature is 40.96 ℃. 40.71 ℃ is the median, the middle reading once the seven are sorted; 40.57 ℃ is Thursday's reading, the middle day of the list, not an average; 41.17 ℃ is the midpoint of the lowest and highest readings, (38.56 + 43.78) / 2, which ignores the other five days.

  54. Given below is a table of recorded temperatures for a week. Date | Temperature (∘F^{\circ}\text{F}) 15/05/2019 - 59.5, 16/05/2019 - 66.2, 17/05/2019 - 63.7, 18/05/2019 - 62.5, 19/05/2019 - 64.9, 20/052019 - 65.1, 21/05/2019 - 63.6 Calculate the mean temperature for this week.

    • A.62.50 ℉
    • B.62.85 ℉
    • C.63.64 ℉
    • D.63.21 ℉
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 63.64 ℉

    The seven readings sum to 445.5, and 445.5 / 7 = 63.64 to two places, so the mean is 63.64 ℉. 62.85 ℉ is the midpoint of the lowest and highest readings, (59.5 + 66.2) / 2; 62.50 ℉ is the reading for the middle date of the week, 18/05, not an average; 63.21 ℉ comes from dropping the carry out of the tenths column, which gives a sum of 442.5.

  55. Solve 1215+591\frac{2}{15} + \frac{5}{9}

    • A.1 11/45
    • B.1 27/45
    • C.1 31/45
    • D.2 31/45
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1 31/45

    Over the common denominator 45, 2/15 = 6/45 and 5/9 = 25/45, so 1 2/15 + 5/9 = 1 31/45. 1 11/45 adds 6 + 5 without rewriting 5/9 as 25/45; 1 27/45 adds 2 + 25 without rewriting 2/15 as 6/45; 2 31/45 counts the whole number twice, once inside the improper fraction 76/45 and again when converting back to a mixed number.

  56. What is 1648\frac{16}{48} in its simplest form?

    • A.1/3
    • B.1/4
    • C.2/3
    • D.3/1
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1/3

    The greatest common factor of 16 and 48 is 16, and dividing both by 16 gives 1/3, which cannot be reduced further. 1/4 comes from miscounting 48 / 16 as 4; 2/3 divides the numerator by 8 but the denominator by 16, which changes the value of the fraction; 3/1 turns the fraction upside down after dividing, which is 48/16, not 16/48.

  57. Hailey bought 2342\frac{3}{4} pounds of fruit. Of these, 1231\frac{2}{3} pounds are apples, and the rest are bananas. How many pounds of bananas did she buy?

    • A.1 1/12
    • B.1 3/12
    • C.1 7/12
    • D.2 1/12
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1 1/12

    Bananas = 2 3/4 - 1 2/3. In twelfths, 3/4 = 9/12 and 2/3 = 8/12, so the wholes give 1 and the fractions give 1/12: 1 1/12 pounds. 1 7/12 rewrites 3/4 as 9/12 but leaves 2/3 as 2/12; 1 3/12 rewrites 2/3 as 6/12 by multiplying only its top by 3; 2 1/12 subtracts only the 2/3 and forgets the whole pound of apples.

  58. Write 99% as a decimal.

    • A.0.01
    • B.0.99
    • C.9.9
    • D.99.0
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.99

    To change a percent to a decimal, divide by 100, which moves the decimal point two places left: 99% = 0.99. 9.9 moves the point only one place; 99.0 never divides by 100 at all; 0.01 is the decimal for the remaining 1%, the part of the whole that 99% leaves out.

  59. What is the fractional equivalent to 12.6%?

    • A.13/100
    • B.63/250
    • C.500/63
    • D.63/500
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 63/500

    12.6% = 12.6/100 = 126/1000, and dividing the top and bottom by 2 gives 63/500, which is fully reduced because 63 = 3 times 3 times 7 shares no factor with 500. 13/100 rounds 12.6% up to 13% before converting, so it is not equivalent; 63/250 divides the numerator by 2 but the denominator by 4; 500/63 turns the fraction upside down.

  60. 165 is 110% of what number?

    • A.148.5
    • B.155
    • C.181.5
    • D.150
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 150

    If 110% of a number is 165, the number is 165 / 1.1 = 150. 181.5 multiplies 165 by 1.1, which finds 110% of 165 instead; 148.5 takes 10% of 165 away, but the extra 10% belongs to the unknown number, not to 165; 155 subtracts 10 from 165, treating the extra 10% as 10 units.

  61. Write 0.8 as a fraction.

    • A.4/5
    • B.1/8
    • C.3/4
    • D.8/1
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 4/5

    0.8 is eight tenths, 8/10, and dividing the top and bottom by 2 gives 4/5. 1/8 confuses 'point eight' with one eighth, which is 0.125; 3/4 is 0.75, a familiar fraction close to 0.8 that a quick estimate lands on, but it is not equal to eight tenths; 8/1 writes the digit over 1 and ignores the tenths place, giving 8.

  62. Order from least to greatest: 2.85, 74\frac{7}{4}, 263%, 2410\frac{24}{10}

    • A.2.85, 263%, 24/10, 7/4
    • B.7/4, 24/10, 263%, 2.85
    • C.263%, 7/4, 24/10, 2.85
    • D.24/10, 263%, 2.85, 7/4
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 7/4, 24/10, 263%, 2.85

    As decimals, 7/4 = 1.75, 24/10 = 2.4, 263% = 2.63 and 2.85 stays 2.85, so least to greatest is 7/4, 24/10, 263%, 2.85. 2.85, 263%, 24/10, 7/4 is the same list in greatest-to-least order; 263%, 7/4, 24/10, 2.85 moves the decimal point three places and reads 263% as 0.263; 24/10, 263%, 2.85, 7/4 reads 7/4 as the decimal 7.4 instead of 7 divided by 4.

  63. 42 is what percent of 124?

    • A.3.39%
    • B.25.3%
    • C.66.1%
    • D.33.9%
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 33.9%

    Divide the part by the whole: 42 / 124 = 0.339, and times 100 that is 33.9%. 3.39% moves the decimal point only one place when converting to a percent; 25.3% divides 42 by 166, the part plus the whole, instead of by 124; 66.1% is the share of 124 that is not 42 (82 / 124).

  64. Samatha has $78 more than Adam has. Together they have $183. Adam has about how much money?

    • A.100
    • B.110
    • C.180
    • D.260
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 100

    The intended method treats 78 as Samatha's amount and subtracts it from the total after rounding each number to the nearest ten: 180 - 80 = 100, so Adam has about 100. 110 rounds 78 down to 70 instead of up to 80; 180 rounds the total but never subtracts Samatha's share; 260 adds the two rounded amounts instead of subtracting.

  65. 335÷915=3\frac{3}{5} \div \frac{9}{15} =

    • A.3
    • B.6
    • C.4
    • D.5
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 6

    Rewrite 3 3/5 as 18/5, then keep, change, flip: 18/5 times 15/9 = 270/45 = 6. 5 divides only the whole number 3 by 9/15 and drops the 3/5; 4 divides only the 3/5 by 9/15 (which gives 1) and then adds the whole 3 back on; 3 converts 3 3/5 to 9/5 by multiplying the whole number by the numerator, and 9/5 times 15/9 = 3.

  66. Round the following number the nearest hundredth. 32.1647

    • A.32.1
    • B.32.17
    • C.32.16
    • D.32.2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 32.16

    The hundredths digit of 32.1647 is 6, and the digit after it is 4, so the 6 stays the same and the answer is 32.16. 32.17 rounds in two stages (32.1647 to 32.165, then to 32.17), but rounding looks only at the single digit to the right; 32.2 rounds to the tenths place instead; 32.1 cuts the number off at the tenths place without rounding.

  67. Solve for x: 4(3x + 2) + 3(x + 1) = 41

    • A.2.2
    • B.2.4
    • C.2
    • D.3
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2

    Distribute: 12x + 8 + 3x + 3 = 41, so 15x + 11 = 41, 15x = 30 and x = 2. 2.4 forgets to multiply the 2 by 4, so 15x + 5 = 41 and 15x = 36; 2.2 subtracts only the 8 and leaves the 3 behind, so 15x = 33; 3 adds the 4 and the 3 in 4(3x) to get 7x instead of multiplying them to get 12x, so 10x + 11 = 41 and 10x = 30.

  68. 12 – 12x + 5x + 3x

    • A.-7x + 12
    • B.-10x + 12
    • C.-20x + 12
    • D.-4x + 12
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: -4x + 12

    Only the x-terms combine: -12x + 5x + 3x = -4x, and the constant 12 stays as it is, giving -4x + 12. -7x + 12 combines -12x and 5x but leaves out the +3x; -10x + 12 treats the +3x as -3x; -20x + 12 treats every x-term as negative, adding -12, -5 and -3.

  69. Write an expression that means “one more than five times a number.”

    • A.5x + 5
    • B.1 + 5x
    • C.5 + x
    • D.x + 6
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1 + 5x

    'Five times a number' is 5x, and 'one more than' that adds 1 to it, giving 1 + 5x. 5x + 5 is 5(x + 1), which adds the one to the number before multiplying by five; 5 + x adds five to the number instead of multiplying; x + 6 combines 'one more than five' into 6 and then adds the number, so nothing is multiplied.

  70. Jackson drove 362 miles in 5 hours. What is his average speed in miles per hour to the nearest whole number?

    • A.72
    • B.73
    • C.74
    • D.91
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 72

    Average speed is distance divided by time: 362 / 5 = 72.4, which rounds to 72 miles per hour because the tenths digit, 4, is less than 5. 73 rounds 72.4 up instead of down; 74 adds the remainder of 362 / 5 = 72 R 2 onto the quotient; 91 divides by 4 hours instead of 5 (90.5, rounded up).

  71. Which of the following is the completed proportion for: 5.25:4.5::x:65.25:4.5 :: x:6

    • A.5.25:4.5 :: 5.14:6
    • B.5.25:4.5 :: 6.75:6
    • C.5.25:4.5 :: 7:6
    • D.5.25:4.5 :: 31.5:6
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 5.25:4.5 :: 7:6

    Write the proportion as 5.25/4.5 = x/6 and cross-multiply: 4.5x = 5.25 times 6 = 31.5, so x = 7 and the completed proportion is 5.25:4.5 :: 7:6. 5.25:4.5 :: 6.75:6 adds the difference 0.75 to 6, which keeps the gap the same instead of the ratio; 5.25:4.5 :: 5.14:6 flips the ratio, solving 4.5 times 6 / 5.25; 5.25:4.5 :: 31.5:6 stops after cross-multiplying and never divides by 4.5.

  72. Solve for x: 4x – 1 > 31

    • A.x > 8
    • B.x < 8
    • C.x > 7.5
    • D.x < 7.5
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: x > 8

    Add 1 to both sides (4x > 32), then divide by 4: x > 8. Dividing by a positive number never reverses the inequality, so x < 8 flips the sign without cause; x > 7.5 subtracts the 1 instead of adding it (4x > 30); x < 7.5 makes both mistakes at once.

  73. Chicago received 3.4 inches of snow on the 1st of December. If the city received 75 % more snow on the 2nd of December, how much snow did the city receive on the 2nd of December?

    • A.0.85 in
    • B.2.55 in
    • C.4.15 in
    • D.5.95 in
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 5.95 in

    75% more means 100% + 75% = 175% of the first day's snow: 3.4 times 1.75 = 5.95 in. 2.55 in is only the increase (75% of 3.4), not the new total; 4.15 in adds 0.75 inch instead of 75% of 3.4; 0.85 in finds 75% less snow, subtracting the increase instead of adding it.

  74. Carla went out to dinner with a few friends. The total bill came out to $121.66. If they left a 15% tip, how much money was left for the tip?

    • A.18.25
    • B.1.82
    • C.8.11
    • D.12.17
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 18.25

    The tip is 15% of the bill: 0.15 times 121.66 = 18.249, which rounds to 18.25 dollars, written 18.25. 12.17 is only 10% of the bill; 8.11 divides the bill by 15 instead of taking 15% of it; 1.82 uses 0.015 for 15%, moving the decimal point one place too far.

  75. Convert 411254\frac{11}{25} into an improper fraction

    • A.111/25
    • B.69/25
    • C.100/25
    • D.279/25
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 111/25

    Multiply the whole number by the denominator and add the numerator: 4 times 25 + 11 = 111, kept over 25, so 4 11/25 = 111/25. 100/25 multiplies 4 by 25 but forgets to add the 11; 69/25 multiplies 4 by the numerator 11 and then adds the denominator; 279/25 multiplies 25 by 11 and then adds the whole number 4.

  76. Order the following fractions from least to greatest: 2382\frac{3}{8} ; 27\frac{2}{7} ; 1231\frac{2}{3} ; 15\frac{1}{5}

    • A.1/5 ; 2/7 ; 1 2/3 ; 2 3/8
    • B.2/7 ; 1/5 ; 1 2/3 ; 2 3/8
    • C.2 3/8 ; 1 2/3 ; 2/7 ; 1/5
    • D.1/5 ; 2/7 ; 2 3/8 ; 1 2/3
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1/5 ; 2/7 ; 1 2/3 ; 2 3/8

    As decimals, 1/5 = 0.2, 2/7 is about 0.29, 1 2/3 is about 1.67 and 2 3/8 = 2.375, so least to greatest is 1/5 ; 2/7 ; 1 2/3 ; 2 3/8. 2/7 ; 1/5 ; 1 2/3 ; 2 3/8 assumes the larger denominator makes 2/7 the smaller fraction, but 2/7 = 10/35 is more than 1/5 = 7/35; 1/5 ; 2/7 ; 2 3/8 ; 1 2/3 compares only the fraction parts (3/8 against 2/3) and ignores that 2 3/8 has the larger whole number; 2 3/8 ; 1 2/3 ; 2/7 ; 1/5 lists the values from greatest to least.

  77. Which of the following inequalities best represents the following situation? A number less than seven is greater than 7.

    • A.x - 7 > 7
    • B.7 - x ≥ 7
    • C.7 - x > 7
    • D.x - 7 ≥ 7
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 7 - x > 7

    'A number less than seven' means seven minus the number, 7 - x, and 'is greater than 7' gives > 7, so the inequality is 7 - x > 7. x - 7 > 7 reverses the subtraction, which would mean 'seven less than a number'; 7 - x ≥ 7 adds 'or equal to', which the words 'greater than' do not include; x - 7 ≥ 7 makes both mistakes.

  78. Solve for x: x – 14 = 28

    • A.-42
    • B.-14
    • C.42
    • D.14
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 42

    Add 14 to both sides: x = 28 + 14 = 42. 14 subtracts 14 from 28, using the operation the equation already shows instead of its inverse; -14 subtracts 28 from 14; -42 has the right size but the wrong sign, as if one side had been multiplied by -1.

  79. Solve 238+37122\frac{3}{8} + 3\frac{7}{12}

    • A.5 16/24
    • B.5 23/24
    • C.5 17/24
    • D.6 23/24
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 5 23/24

    Add the wholes, 2 + 3 = 5, then the fractions over 24: 3/8 = 9/24 and 7/12 = 14/24, so 9/24 + 14/24 = 23/24 and the sum is 5 23/24. 5 16/24 rewrites 3/8 as 9/24 but leaves 7/12 as 7/24; 5 17/24 rewrites 7/12 as 14/24 but leaves 3/8 as 3/24; 6 23/24 carries an extra whole even though 23/24 is less than 1.

  80. Solve 1310+2581\frac{3}{10}+ 2\frac{5}{8}

    • A.3 8/40
    • B.3 17/40
    • C.3 28/40
    • D.3 37/40
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3 37/40

    Add the wholes, 1 + 2 = 3, then the fractions over 40: 3/10 = 12/40 and 5/8 = 25/40, so 12/40 + 25/40 = 37/40 and the sum is 3 37/40. 3 8/40 adds 3 + 5 over 40 without rewriting either fraction; 3 17/40 rewrites 3/10 as 12/40 but leaves 5/8 as 5/40; 3 28/40 rewrites 5/8 as 25/40 but leaves 3/10 as 3/40.

  81. 234÷516=2\frac{3}{4} \div 5\frac{1}{6} =

    • A.15/11
    • B.33/58
    • C.33/31
    • D.33/62
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 33/62

    Convert to improper fractions, 11/4 and 31/6, then keep, change, flip: 11/4 times 6/31 = 66/124 = 33/62. 33/58 converts 5 1/6 as 5 times 6 minus 1 = 29/6; 15/11 converts both mixed numbers by multiplying the whole number by the numerator and adding the denominator (10/4 and 11/6); 33/31 reduces 66/124 by dividing the top by 2 but the bottom by 4.

  82. 416÷178=4\frac{1}{6} \div 1\frac{7}{8} =

    • A.2 2/9
    • B.8/9
    • C.2 7/24
    • D.4 4/21
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2 2/9

    Convert to improper fractions, 25/6 and 15/8, then keep, change, flip: 25/6 times 8/15 = 200/90 = 20/9 = 2 2/9. 4 4/21 divides the whole numbers (4 / 1) and the fractions (1/6 / 7/8 = 4/21) separately; 8/9 converts 4 1/6 as 4 times 1 + 6 = 10/6 instead of 25/6; 2 7/24 subtracts the two mixed numbers instead of dividing them.

  83. Sophia bought 710\frac{7}{10} yards of fabric for a baby dress. Of these, 14\frac{1}{4} yard is red fabric, and the rest is gray. How many yards of gray fabric did she buy?

    • A.9/20
    • B.21/40
    • C.13/20
    • D.10/20
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 9/20

    The gray fabric is the total minus the red: 7/10 − 1/4 = 14/20 − 5/20 = 9/20 yard, so 9/20 is correct. 21/40 treats the red as one fourth of the fabric and takes 3/4 of 7/10, but the stem gives the red piece as 1/4 yard, not as a share of the total. 13/20 rewrites 1/4 as 1/20 by changing only the denominator (14/20 − 1/20), and 10/20 rewrites it as 4/20 by multiplying the numerator by 4 instead of 5 (14/20 − 4/20); both conversions change the value of 1/4.

  84. What is the fractional equivalent to 547%5\frac{4}{7}\%?

    • A.27/700
    • B.35/700
    • C.9/700
    • D.39/700
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 39/700

    Change 5 4/7 to an improper fraction, (5 × 7 + 4)/7 = 39/7, then divide by 100 to remove the percent sign: 39/7 ÷ 100 = 39/700, which is correct and already in lowest terms. 27/700 builds the numerator as 5 × 4 + 7, multiplying the whole number by the numerator instead of the denominator. 35/700 multiplies 5 × 7 but forgets to add the 4. 9/700 simply adds 5 + 4 and never multiplies by the denominator.

  85. 512÷1718=\frac{5}{12} \div 1\frac{7}{18} =

    • A.5/12
    • B.15/14
    • C.15/16
    • D.3/10
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3/10

    Write 1 7/18 as 25/18, then keep, change and flip: 5/12 × 18/25, cross-simplified, is (1 × 3)/(2 × 5) = 3/10, which is correct. 5/12 treats the divisor as just 1 and ignores its 7/18, but dividing by a number greater than 1 must give a smaller result. 15/14 drops the whole number and divides by 7/18 alone. 15/16 converts 1 7/18 as (1 + 7)/18 = 8/18 instead of (1 × 18 + 7)/18.

  86. Convert 215232\frac{15}{23} into an improper Fraction

    • A.31/23
    • B.61/23
    • C.46/23
    • D.53/23
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 61/23

    Multiply the whole number by the denominator and add the numerator: 2 × 23 + 15 = 61, kept over 23, so 61/23 is correct. 31/23 subtracts the 15 (46 − 15) instead of adding it. 46/23 stops after 2 × 23 and leaves out the 15 extra twenty-thirds, so it equals only 2. 53/23 multiplies the whole number by the numerator and adds the denominator (2 × 15 + 23).

  87. Write 13% as a decimal.

    • A.1.3
    • B.0.013
    • C.1,300
    • D.0.13
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.13

    Percent means per hundred, so divide by 100 by moving the decimal point two places to the left: 13% = 13 ÷ 100 = 0.13, which is correct. 1.3 moves the point only one place, which is 13 ÷ 10. 0.013 moves it three places, which is 13 ÷ 1000. 1,300 moves it two places the wrong way, multiplying by 100 instead of dividing.

  88. 56 is 35% of what number?

    • A.75.6
    • B.160
    • C.86.2
    • D.196
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 160

    If 56 is 35% of a number, divide 56 by 0.35: 56 ÷ 0.35 = 160, and 35% of 160 is 56, so 160 is correct. 75.6 is 56 × 1.35, the number 35% larger than 56, not the number that 56 is 35% of. 86.2 divides 56 by 0.65, using the other 65% of the whole instead of the 35%. 196 multiplies 56 by 3.5, which uses the wrong operation and misplaces the decimal point of 0.35.

  89. Solve 213+342\frac{1}{3} + \frac{3}{4}

    • A.2 5/12
    • B.1 7/12
    • C.3 7/12
    • D.3 1/12
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3 1/12

    Write 2 1/3 as 7/3 and use the common denominator 12: 28/12 + 9/12 = 37/12, and 37 ÷ 12 is 3 with remainder 1, so 3 1/12 is correct. 2 5/12 converts 2 1/3 as (2 + 3)/3 = 5/3 instead of (2 × 3 + 1)/3. 1 7/12 subtracts the fractions (28/12 − 9/12) instead of adding them. 3 7/12 divides 37 by 12 correctly but writes the 7 from 37 as the remainder instead of 1.

  90. A tourist covered 168 miles, and he rode a horse 56\frac{5}{6} of the way. How many miles did the tourist cover on horseback?

    • A.28
    • B.140
    • C.94.08
    • D.134.4
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 140

    Find 5/6 of 168: 168 ÷ 6 = 28 and 28 × 5 = 140 miles, so 140 is correct. 28 stops after dividing by 6 and gives only 1/6 of the trip, the part not on horseback. 94.08 misreads 5/6 as the decimal 0.56 and multiplies 168 × 0.56. 134.4 rounds 5/6 down to 0.8 before multiplying, but 5/6 is about 0.833, so the product falls short.

  91. What is 2535\frac{25}{35} in its simplest form?

    • A.2/3
    • B.1/3
    • C.5/7
    • D.5/6
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 5/7

    Divide the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common factor, 5: 25 ÷ 5 = 5 and 35 ÷ 5 = 7, so 5/7 is correct and cannot be reduced further. 2/3 cancels the matching digit 5 from 25 and 35, which is not division by a common factor. 1/3 subtracts 20 from both numbers (5/15), but subtracting the same amount from top and bottom changes a fraction's value. 5/6 divides the denominator incorrectly, taking 35 ÷ 5 as 6.

  92. A patient was prescribed 120 milligrams of medication by their doctor. Upon further review, their doctor decided to reduce the amount of medication by 35%. How many milligrams of medication are in the new prescription?

    • A.72 milligrams
    • B.84 milligrams
    • C.78 milligrams
    • D.89 milligrams
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 78 milligrams

    A 35% reduction leaves 65% of the dose: 0.65 × 120 = 78, so 78 milligrams is correct (35% of 120 is 42, and 120 − 42 = 78). 72 milligrams keeps only 60% of 120, dropping the 5 from 65%. 84 milligrams finds 30% of 120 (36) instead of 35% and subtracts that, dropping the 5 from 35%. 89 milligrams divides 120 by 1.35, which undoes a 35% increase rather than applying a 35% decrease.

  93. Write 4.1 as a fraction.

    • A.4 1/100
    • B.1 4/10
    • C.4 1/10
    • D.40 1/10
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 4 1/10

    Read 4.1 aloud as four and one tenth: the 4 is the whole number and the 1 sits in the tenths place, so 4.1 = 4 1/10, which is correct. 4 1/100 puts the 1 in the hundredths place, which is 4.01. 1 4/10 swaps the whole number and the tenths digit, which is 1.4. 40 1/10 shifts the 4 into the tens place, which is 40.1.

  94. 812 is what percent of 885?

    • A.91.8%
    • B.8.25%
    • C.1.09%
    • D.73%
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 91.8%

    Divide the part by the whole and multiply by 100: 812 ÷ 885 = 0.9175, which rounds to 0.918, or 91.8%, so 91.8% is correct. 8.25% is the remaining share (100% − 91.75%), not the share that 812 represents. 1.09% divides the whole by the part (885 ÷ 812 = 1.09) and never multiplies by 100. 73% takes the difference 885 − 812 = 73 and labels it a percent.

  95. Lily covered 193 miles in 3 hours. What is her average speed in miles per hour to the nearest whole number?

    • A.60
    • B.64
    • C.63
    • D.67
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 64

    Average speed is distance ÷ time: 193 ÷ 3 = 64.33, which rounds to 64 miles per hour, so 64 is correct. 60 rounds to the nearest ten instead of the nearest whole number. 63 rounds 193 down to 190 before dividing (190 ÷ 3 = 63.3), and 67 rounds 193 up to 200 before dividing (200 ÷ 3 = 66.7); rounding belongs at the end, after the division.

  96. Ninety-two children and 48 adults are at a party. About how many people attend the party altogether?

    • A.100
    • B.130
    • C.150
    • D.140
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 140

    Round each number to the nearest ten before adding: 92 rounds to 90 and 48 rounds to 50, so 90 + 50 = 140 people, which is correct. 130 rounds 48 down to 40, but a ones digit of 8 rounds up. 150 rounds 92 up to 100, but a ones digit of 2 rounds down, so 92 rounds to 90. 100 rounds each number to the nearest hundred (92 to 100 and 48 to 0), which is too coarse for two-digit numbers.

  97. Jo does a workout plan where each day she jogs 30% more distance than the previous day. If Jo jogs for 5.2 miles today, how many miles will she jog tomorrow?

    • A.5.36 miles
    • B.6.76 miles
    • C.7.43 miles
    • D.8.79 miles
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 6.76 miles

    Thirty percent more than today is 130% of today: 1.3 × 5.2 = 6.76, so 6.76 miles is correct. 5.36 miles writes 30% as 0.03 and multiplies 5.2 by 1.03. 7.43 miles divides 5.2 by 0.7, which reverses a 30% decrease instead of applying a 30% increase. 8.79 miles applies the increase twice (5.2 × 1.3 × 1.3), which is the distance for the day after tomorrow.

  98. Solve for x: 2(x + 1) + 3(x + 5) = 32

    • A.5
    • B.13
    • C.15
    • D.3
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3

    Distribute to get 2x + 2 + 3x + 15 = 32, combine like terms to get 5x + 17 = 32, subtract 17 to get 5x = 15, and divide by 5, so x = 3 is correct. 5 forgets to multiply the 3 into the +5, giving 5x + 7 = 32 and 5x = 25. 13 ignores the 2 and the 3 in front of the parentheses, giving (x + 1) + (x + 5) = 32, so 2x = 26. 15 stops at 5x = 15 and never divides by the coefficient 5.

  99. Order the following fractions from least to greatest: 34\frac{3}{4} ; 58\frac{5}{8} ; 12\frac{1}{2}.

    • A.3/4 ; 5/8 ; 1/2
    • B.1/2 ; 3/4 ; 5/8
    • C.1/2 ; 5/8 ; 3/4
    • D.5/8 ; 3/4 ; 1/2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1/2 ; 5/8 ; 3/4

    Rewrite each fraction over 8: 1/2 = 4/8, 5/8 stays 5/8 and 3/4 = 6/8, so least to greatest is 1/2 ; 5/8 ; 3/4, which is correct. 3/4 ; 5/8 ; 1/2 lists the same fractions from greatest to least. 1/2 ; 3/4 ; 5/8 orders them by the size of the denominator (2, 4, 8) instead of by value. 5/8 ; 3/4 ; 1/2 assumes a larger denominator always means a smaller fraction and ignores the numerators.

  100. Which of the following is the completed proportion for: 5:8::4:x5:8 :: 4:x

    • A.5:8 :: 4:1.6
    • B.5:8 :: 4:2.5
    • C.5:8 :: 4:6.4
    • D.5:8 :: 4:0.8
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 5:8 :: 4:6.4

    Write the proportion as 5/8 = 4/x and cross-multiply: 5x = 32, so x = 6.4 and 5:8 :: 4:6.4 is correct (both ratios equal 0.625). 5:8 :: 4:1.6 stops at the scale factor 8 ÷ 5 = 1.6 and never multiplies it by 4. 5:8 :: 4:2.5 sets the proportion up upside down (5/8 = x/4) and computes 5 × 4 ÷ 8, which gives a ratio of 1.6 instead of 0.625. 5:8 :: 4:0.8 finds the multiplier from 5 to 4 (4 ÷ 5 = 0.8) and stops before applying it to the 8 (8 × 0.8 = 6.4).

  101. Write an expression that means “10 more than four times a number.”

    • A.10 + 4x
    • B.4x + 40
    • C.4x - 10
    • D.x + 14
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 10 + 4x

    Four times a number is 4x, and 10 more than that adds 10, so 10 + 4x is correct. 4x + 40 multiplies the whole quantity by four, as if the phrase were four times the sum of a number and 10. 4x - 10 reverses more than into less than and subtracts the 10. x + 14 adds the 10 and the 4 instead of multiplying the number by 4.

  102. 3x + 6 + 5x – 15

    • A.8x + 9
    • B.8x - 9
    • C.8x - 21
    • D.8x + 21
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 8x - 9

    Combine like terms, keeping each sign with the term after it: 3x + 5x = 8x and +6 − 15 = −9, so 8x - 9 is correct. 8x + 9 subtracts the smaller constant from the larger (15 − 6) and drops the negative sign. 8x - 21 subtracts both constants (−6 − 15), ignoring that the 6 is positive. 8x + 21 adds both constants (6 + 15), ignoring the minus sign in front of the 15.

  103. Which of the following inequalities best represents the following situation? Three more than a number is greater than 12.

    • A.3 + x ≥ 12
    • B.3 + x > 12
    • C.3x > 12
    • D.3x ≥ 12
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3 + x > 12

    Three more than a number is 3 + x, and is greater than calls for the strict symbol >, so 3 + x > 12 is correct. 3 + x ≥ 12 uses greater than or equal to, which would also allow the sum to equal 12. 3x > 12 reads more than as multiplication, giving three times a number. 3x ≥ 12 makes both errors at once.

  104. Solve for x: 3x + 2 < 29

    • A.x < 9
    • B.x ≤ 9
    • C.x < 27
    • D.x ≤ 27
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: x < 9

    Subtract 2 from both sides to get 3x < 27, then divide both sides by 3 to get x < 9, which is correct; dividing by a positive number does not reverse the sign. x ≤ 9 switches to less than or equal to, which wrongly includes 9 (3 × 9 + 2 = 29, and 29 is not less than 29). x < 27 stops after subtracting 2 and never divides by 3. x ≤ 27 makes both errors.

  105. Order from least to greatest: 2452\frac{4}{5}, 0.45, 245%, 39\frac{3}{9}

    • A.3/9, 0.45, 245%, 2 4/5
    • B.3/9, 0.45, 2 4/5, 245%
    • C.245%, 3/9, 0.45, 2 4/5
    • D.3/9, 2 4/5, 245%, 0.45
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3/9, 0.45, 245%, 2 4/5

    As decimals, 3/9 is about 0.333, 0.45 stays 0.45, 245% = 2.45 and 2 4/5 = 2.8, so least to greatest is 3/9, 0.45, 245%, 2 4/5, which is correct. 3/9, 0.45, 2 4/5, 245% treats 245% as 245 instead of converting it to 2.45. 245%, 3/9, 0.45, 2 4/5 moves the decimal point three places and reads 245% as 0.245, which would make it the smallest. 3/9, 2 4/5, 245%, 0.45 divides 9 by 3 to get 3 for 3/9 and then lists the values from greatest to least.

  106. Solve for x: x – 8 = 12

    • A.-4
    • B.20
    • C.4
    • D.12
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 20

    Undo subtracting 8 by adding 8 to both sides: x = 12 + 8 = 20, which is correct because 20 − 8 = 12. 4 subtracts 8 instead of adding it (12 − 8). -4 subtracts in the wrong order (8 − 12). 12 drops the − 8 and copies the right side as the answer.

  107. Which of the following answer choices was rounded correctly?

    • A.67.291 rounded to the nearest tenth is 67.3
    • B.2.0748 rounded to the nearest hundredth is 2.08
    • C.4,687.5 rounded to the nearest thousand is 4,000
    • D.1,851.65 rounded to the nearest hundred is 1,800
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 67.291 rounded to the nearest tenth is 67.3

    To round, look only at the digit just right of the place you are rounding to: in 67.291 the digit after the tenths place is 9, so the 2 rounds up, and 67.291 rounded to the nearest tenth is 67.3 is correct. 2.0748 rounded to the nearest hundredth is 2.08 is wrong because the digit after the hundredths place is 4, so the answer is 2.07; rounding from the right in stages (2.075, then 2.08) is double rounding. 4,687.5 rounded to the nearest thousand is 4,000 is wrong because the hundreds digit is 6, which rounds up to 5,000. 1,851.65 rounded to the nearest hundred is 1,800 is wrong because the tens digit is 5, which rounds up to 1,900.

  108. Complete the expanded fraction. 34=15?\frac{3}{4} = \frac{15}{?}

    • A.15/16
    • B.15/9
    • C.15/20
    • D.15/60
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 15/20

    The numerator went from 3 to 15, a multiplier of 5, so the denominator must also be multiplied by 5: 4 × 5 = 20, and 15/20 is correct. 15/16 adds 12 to the denominator because 12 was added to the numerator, but equivalent fractions multiply rather than add. 15/9 adds the multiplier 5 to the denominator (4 + 5) instead of multiplying by it. 15/60 multiplies the old denominator 4 by the new numerator 15 instead of by the multiplier 5.

  109. Which fraction makes the equation true? 12=8?\frac{1}{2} = \frac{8}{?}

    • A.8/9
    • B.8/10
    • C.8/16
    • D.8/14
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 8/16

    The numerator went from 1 to 8, a multiplier of 8, so the denominator becomes 2 × 8 = 16, and 8/16 is correct. 8/9 keeps the denominator one more than the numerator, an additive pattern that does not keep the value equal. 8/10 adds the multiplier to the denominator (2 + 8) instead of multiplying by it. 8/14 multiplies the denominator by 7, the amount added to the numerator, instead of by the multiplier 8.

  110. What is 1550\frac{15}{50} in its simplest form?

    • A.3/5
    • B.3/10
    • C.3/50
    • D.1/8
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3/10

    Both 15 and 50 are divisible by 5: 15 ÷ 5 = 3 and 50 ÷ 5 = 10, and 3 and 10 share no other factor, so 3/10 is correct. 3/5 divides the numerator by 5 but the denominator by 10, which changes the value. 3/50 divides only the numerator. 1/8 subtracts 10 from both numbers (5/40) and reduces that, but subtracting the same amount from top and bottom does not produce an equivalent fraction.

  111. What is 75200\frac{75}{200} in its simplest form?

    • A.15/40
    • B.3/4
    • C.3/200
    • D.3/8
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3/8

    The greatest common factor of 75 and 200 is 25: 75 ÷ 25 = 3 and 200 ÷ 25 = 8, so 3/8 is correct. 15/40 stops after dividing by 5 once; it has the same value but is not in simplest form, because 15 and 40 still share a factor of 5. 3/4 divides the numerator by 25 but the denominator by 50. 3/200 divides only the numerator.

  112. Convert 3517\frac{35}{17} into a mixed number.

    • A.1 2/17
    • B.2 1/35
    • C.1 2/35
    • D.2 1/17
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2 1/17

    Divide 35 by 17: it goes in 2 whole times (2 × 17 = 34) with a remainder of 1, and the remainder stays over the original denominator 17, so 2 1/17 is correct. 1 2/17 swaps the quotient and the remainder. 2 1/35 puts the remainder over the dividend 35 instead of over the divisor 17. 1 2/35 makes both errors.

  113. Solve 16+79\frac{1}{6} + \frac{7}{9}

    • A.17/18
    • B.4/3
    • C.5/6
    • D.11/18
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 17/18

    Use the common denominator 18: 1/6 = 3/18 and 7/9 = 14/18, so the sum is 17/18, which is correct. 4/3 multiplies the 7 by 3 instead of 2 when converting 7/9 (3/18 + 21/18 = 24/18). 5/6 rewrites 1/6 as 1/18 without scaling its numerator (1/18 + 14/18 = 15/18). 11/18 subtracts the fractions instead of adding them (14/18 − 3/18).

  114. Solve 23.245 + 61.534

    • A.84.779
    • B.84.788
    • C.84.959
    • D.85.779
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 84.779

    Line up the decimal points and add column by column; no column produces a carry, so 23.245 + 61.534 = 84.779 is correct. 84.788 copies 23.245 as 23.254, swapping its last two digits. 84.959 copies 23.245 as 23.425. 85.779 adds a carry into the ones column even though the tenths column (2 + 5 = 7) produces none.

  115. 3 + 17 – 19 + 7 – 4

    • A.8
    • B.4
    • C.-3
    • D.12
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 4

    With only addition and subtraction, work from left to right: 3 + 17 = 20, 20 − 19 = 1, 1 + 7 = 8 and 8 − 4 = 4, so 4 is correct. 8 stops one step early and never subtracts the final 4. -3 leaves out the + 7 term (3 + 17 − 19 − 4). 12 treats the final − 4 as + 4.

  116. 58÷1332=\frac{5}{8} \div 1\frac{3}{32} =

    • A.7/4
    • B.1/28
    • C.4/7
    • D.20/3
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 4/7

    Write 1 3/32 as 35/32, then keep, change and flip: 5/8 × 32/35, cross-simplified, is (1 × 4)/(1 × 7) = 4/7, which is correct. 7/4 flips the first fraction instead of the divisor (8/5 × 35/32). 1/28 cross-simplifies 32 and 8 to 4 and 1 but writes the 4 in the denominator. 20/3 drops the whole number and divides by 3/32 alone (5/8 × 32/3).

  117. What is the fractional equivalent to 1556%15\frac{5}{6}\%?

    • A.27/200
    • B.3/20
    • C.19/120
    • D.1/30
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 19/120

    Change 15 5/6 to (15 × 6 + 5)/6 = 95/6, divide by 100 to get 95/600, and reduce by 5 to 19/120, which is correct. 27/200 builds the numerator as 15 × 5 + 6 = 81, multiplying by the numerator instead of the denominator (81/600). 3/20 multiplies 15 × 6 but forgets to add the 5 (90/600). 1/30 adds 15 + 5 over 6 instead of multiplying (20/600).

  118. If an odd and an even integer are multiplied together, which of the following could be the product?

    • A.31
    • B.37
    • C.45
    • D.26
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 26

    An odd number times an even number is always even, so the product must be even; 26 is even (13 × 2), so 26 is correct. 31 is odd (1 × 31), 37 is odd (1 × 37) and 45 is odd (5 × 9); each is a product of odd numbers only, and an odd number has no factor of 2, so none of them can come from multiplying by an even number.

  119. 212 is what percent of 848?

    • A.25%
    • B.4%
    • C.33%
    • D.75%
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 25%

    Divide the part by the whole and multiply by 100: 212 ÷ 848 = 0.25, so 25% is correct. 4% divides the whole by the part (848 ÷ 212 = 4) and skips multiplying by 100. 33% divides 212 by 636, the rest of the total, instead of by the whole 848. 75% is the share of 848 that is not 212.

  120. Which fraction makes the equation true? 3?=610\frac{3}{?} = \frac{6}{10}

    • A.3/5
    • B.3/8
    • C.3/7
    • D.3/4
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3/5

    The numerator 3 doubles to 6, so the unknown denominator doubles to 10: 5 × 2 = 10, and 3/5 is correct because 3/5 = 6/10. 3/8 subtracts the multiplier 2 from 10 instead of dividing 10 by it. 3/7 subtracts 3 from 10 because 3 was subtracted from 6, an additive shortcut that changes the value. 3/4 uses the difference 10 − 6 = 4 as the denominator.

  121. There are 68 seats on the bus. 34\frac{3}{4} of them are occupied. How many seats are occupied on this bus?

    • A.17
    • B.20
    • C.51
    • D.48
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 51

    Three fourths of 68 is 68 ÷ 4 × 3 = 17 × 3 = 51 occupied seats, so 51 is correct. 17 stops after dividing by 4 and gives the one fourth of the seats that are empty. 20 finds 17 correctly but then adds 3 instead of multiplying by 3. 48 divides 68 by 4 incorrectly as 16 and then multiplies by 3.

  122. It takes 8.25 hours to travel 495 miles in your car. What is the average number of miles travelled per hour?

    • A.61.9
    • B.55
    • C.60
    • D.58.2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 60

    Average speed is distance divided by time: 495 ÷ 8.25 = 60 miles per hour (multiply both numbers by 100 to get 49500 ÷ 825 = 60), so 60 is correct. 55 rounds the time up to 9 hours before dividing (495 ÷ 9). 58.2 rounds 8.25 hours up to 8.5 hours (495 ÷ 8.5 is about 58.2). 61.9 drops the 0.25 hour and divides by 8 (495 ÷ 8 is about 61.9). Rounding the divisor either way changes the quotient.

  123. A patient was prescribed 40 milligrams of medication by their doctor. Upon further review, their doctor decided to reduce the amount of medication by 40%. How many milligrams of medication are in the new prescription?

    • A.16 milligrams
    • B.28.6 milligrams
    • C.24 milligrams
    • D.38.4 milligrams
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 24 milligrams

    Reducing the dose by 40% leaves 100% − 40% = 60% of it: 0.6 × 40 = 24, so 24 milligrams is correct (40% of 40 is 16, and 40 − 16 = 24). 16 milligrams is the 40% that was taken off, not the dose that remains. 28.6 milligrams divides 40 by 1.4, which undoes a 40% increase instead of applying a 40% decrease. 38.4 milligrams writes 40% as 0.04, so it takes off only 1.6 milligrams.

  124. Solve 28×1.4628 \times 1.46

    • A.12.88
    • B.29.46
    • C.40.88
    • D.4.088
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 40.88

    Multiply as whole numbers, 28 × 146 = 4088, then count the decimal places in the factors: 1.46 has two, so the product is 40.88, which is correct (a check: 28 × 1.5 = 42, a little more than 40.88). 4.088 places the point three digits from the right, one place too many. 12.88 multiplies 28 by only the 0.46 and leaves out 28 × 1 = 28. 29.46 adds 28 + 1.46 instead of multiplying.

  125. A camp supervisor buys 13 packs of soda with each pack containing 12 cans of soda. How many cans of soda did the camp supervisor buy?

    • A.169
    • B.132
    • C.144
    • D.156
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 156

    Total cans = packs × cans per pack = 13 × 12 = 156 (13 × 10 = 130 and 13 × 2 = 26, then 130 + 26 = 156), so 156 is correct. 132 adds 130 + 2, forgetting to multiply the 2 by 13. 144 is 12 × 12, using the cans per pack in place of the number of packs. 169 is 13 × 13, using the number of packs in place of the cans per pack.

  126. Convert 57115\frac{7}{11} into an improper fraction

    • A.46/11
    • B.48/11
    • C.55/11
    • D.62/11
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 62/11

    Multiply the whole number by the denominator and add the numerator: 5 × 11 + 7 = 62, kept over 11, so 62/11 is correct. 46/11 multiplies the whole number by the numerator and adds the denominator (5 × 7 + 11). 48/11 subtracts the 7 (55 − 7) instead of adding it. 55/11 stops after 5 × 11 and leaves out the 7 extra elevenths, so it equals only 5.

  127. There are 600 students in a school. If 30% of the students speak Spanish, how many Spanish speakers are in the school?

    • A.420 people
    • B.180 people
    • C.570 people
    • D.200 people
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 180 people

    30% of 600 is 0.30 × 600 = 180, so 180 people is correct. 200 people treats 30% as one third (600 ÷ 3), but one third is about 33%. 420 people is the 70% of students who do not speak Spanish (600 − 180). 570 people subtracts 30 from 600, treating 30% as 30 students.

  128. Order the following fractions from least to greatest: 712\frac{7}{12} ; 1291\frac{2}{9} ; 13\frac{1}{3}

    • A.1 2/9 ; 7/12 ; 1/3
    • B.1/3 ; 7/12 ; 1 2/9
    • C.1 2/9 ; 1/3 ; 7/12
    • D.7/12 ; 1/3 ; 1 2/9
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1/3 ; 7/12 ; 1 2/9

    1 2/9 is the only number greater than 1, so it is the greatest; over a common denominator of 12, 1/3 = 4/12, which is less than 7/12. Least to greatest is 1/3 ; 7/12 ; 1 2/9, which is correct. 1 2/9 ; 1/3 ; 7/12 ignores the whole number and compares only the 2/9 with the other fractions. 7/12 ; 1/3 ; 1 2/9 assumes twelfths are always smaller than thirds and ignores the numerators, but 7/12 is more than 4/12 = 1/3. 1 2/9 ; 7/12 ; 1/3 lists the numbers from greatest to least.

  129. Write 7.409 as a fraction.

    • A.7409/10000
    • B.7 49/100
    • C.7 409/1000
    • D.7 41/100
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 7 409/1000

    7.409 is read as seven and four hundred nine thousandths: the whole number 7 plus 409 over 1000, so 7 409/1000 is correct, and 409/1000 cannot be simplified. 7409/10000 counts all four digits as decimal places, which is 0.7409. 7 49/100 drops the zero placeholder, which is 7.49, not 7.409. 7 41/100 rounds to the hundredths place, which is 7.41, not the exact value.

  130. What is 1832\frac{18}{32} in its simplest form?

    • A.8/15
    • B.9/23
    • C.3/4
    • D.9/16
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 9/16

    The greatest common factor of 18 and 32 is 2: 18 ÷ 2 = 9 and 32 ÷ 2 = 16, and 9 and 16 share no other factor, so 9/16 is correct. 3/4 divides the numerator by 6 but the denominator by 8; the two parts must be divided by the same number. 8/15 subtracts 2 from both parts (16/30, which reduces to 8/15) instead of dividing, and subtracting changes the value. 9/23 subtracts 9 from both parts (18 − 9 and 32 − 9), the same subtraction error.

  131. Write 51% as a decimal.

    • A.0.051
    • B.51.0
    • C.5,100
    • D.0.51
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.51

    Percent means per hundred, so divide by 100 by moving the decimal point two places to the left: 51% = 51 ÷ 100 = 0.51, which is correct. 0.051 moves the point three places (51 ÷ 1000). 51.0 drops the percent sign and rewrites 51 as a decimal without dividing by 100. 5,100 moves the point two places to the right, multiplying by 100 instead of dividing.

  132. Order from least to greatest: 208%, 815\frac{8}{15}, 0.23, 1581\frac{5}{8}

    • A.8/15, 0.23, 1 5/8, 208%
    • B.0.23, 8/15, 1 5/8, 208%
    • C.0.23, 8/15, 208%, 1 5/8
    • D.208%, 1 5/8, 8/15, 0.23
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.23, 8/15, 1 5/8, 208%

    As decimals, 0.23 stays 0.23, 8/15 is about 0.533, 1 5/8 = 1.625 and 208% = 2.08, so least to greatest is 0.23, 8/15, 1 5/8, 208%, which is correct. 208%, 1 5/8, 8/15, 0.23 lists the right values from greatest to least. 8/15, 0.23, 1 5/8, 208% compares only the numerators of 8/15 and 0.23 = 23/100 (8 is less than 23) and ignores the very different denominators. 0.23, 8/15, 208%, 1 5/8 converts 1 5/8 as (8 × 5 + 1)/8 = 41/8, about 5.1, multiplying the denominator by the numerator instead of by the whole number.

  133. Solve for x: 6x – 10 + 2x + 22 = 28

    • A.2
    • B.16
    • C.-2
    • D.8
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2

    Combine like terms: 6x + 2x = 8x and −10 + 22 = 12, so 8x + 12 = 28; subtract 12 from both sides to get 8x = 16, then divide by 8: x = 2, which is correct (6 × 2 − 10 + 2 × 2 + 22 = 28). -2 subtracts in the wrong order at the last step, 8x = 12 − 28 = −16, instead of 8x = 28 − 12. 8 subtracts 8 from 16 instead of dividing by 8. 16 stops at 8x = 16 and never divides by the coefficient.

  134. 24 is 60% of what number?

    • A.40
    • B.33.6
    • C.36
    • D.38.4
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 40

    If 24 is 60% of a number, divide 24 by 0.6: 24 ÷ 0.6 = 40, and 60% of 40 is 24, so 40 is correct. 33.6 adds 40% of 24 to 24 (24 + 9.6), taking the missing 40% of the part instead of the whole. 36 subtracts the part from the percent (60 − 24) instead of dividing. 38.4 is 24 × 1.6, the number 60% larger than 24, not the number that 24 is 60% of.

  135. Solve for x: x + 7 = 14

    • A.14
    • B.7
    • C.21
    • D.1
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 7

    Undo adding 7 by subtracting 7 from both sides: x = 14 − 7 = 7, which is correct because 7 + 7 = 14. 14 copies the right side and never removes the 7 from the left. 21 adds 7 to 14 instead of subtracting it, using the operation in the problem rather than its inverse. 1 divides the 7 and the 14 by 7 but leaves the x alone (x + 1 = 2), which is not doing the same thing to every term.

  136. Solve 42.35 + 35.28

    • A.77.81
    • B.77.07
    • C.77.35
    • D.77.63
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 77.63

    Line up the decimal points and add from the right: 5 + 8 = 13 hundredths, so write 3 and carry 1 to the tenths (3 + 2 + 1 = 6), then 42 + 35 = 77, giving 77.63, which is correct. 77.07 adds the whole numbers but subtracts the decimal parts (0.35 − 0.28). 77.35 adds 35 instead of 35.28, dropping the decimal part of the second number. 77.81 writes the 1 of 13 in the hundredths and carries the 3 instead (3 + 2 + 3 = 8 tenths).

  137. Solve 85.76 – 23.54

    • A.61.78
    • B.62.76
    • C.62.22
    • D.63.30
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 62.22

    Line up the decimal points and subtract column by column: 85.76 − 23.54 = 62.22, which is correct (a check: 62.22 + 23.54 = 85.76). 61.78 subtracts the decimal parts in the wrong order (0.54 − 0.76 = −0.22, then 62 − 0.22). 62.76 subtracts only the whole numbers (85 − 23) and keeps the 0.76. 63.30 subtracts the whole numbers but adds the decimal parts (0.76 + 0.54 = 1.30).

  138. Solve 5.3×2.465.3 \times 2.46

    • A.11.06
    • B.12.3
    • C.13.038
    • D.10.138
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 13.038

    Multiply as whole numbers, 53 × 246 = 13038, then place the point three digits from the right (one decimal place in 5.3 plus two in 2.46): 13.038, which is correct. 10.138 multiplies the whole parts and the decimal parts separately (5 × 2 + 0.3 × 0.46) and loses the cross products. 11.06 multiplies 5.3 by only the 2 and then tacks on the 0.46 (10.6 + 0.46). 12.3 multiplies 2.46 by only the 5 and drops the 0.3 (5 × 2.46).

  139. Solve 8.5×68.5 \times 6

    • A.510
    • B.51
    • C.48.3
    • D.48.5
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 51

    Multiply 85 × 6 = 510, then place one decimal place: 51.0, or 51, which is correct (8 × 6 = 48 plus 0.5 × 6 = 3). 510 multiplies 85 × 6 but never places the decimal point. 48.3 finds 0.5 × 6 = 3 but writes it as 0.3 instead of adding 3. 48.5 multiplies only the whole number by 6 and tacks on the 0.5 (48 + 0.5).

  140. A hobby store sells the cloth material you need to make blankets and curtains. Each blanket is 8.5 feet long and each curtain is 4 feet long. If you make 6 blankets and 3 curtains, how many feet of cloth material should you purchase from the hobby store?

    • A.51
    • B.63
    • C.55
    • D.58
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 63

    The blankets need 8.5 × 6 = 51 feet and the curtains need 4 × 3 = 12 feet, so the total is 51 + 12 = 63, which is correct. 51 counts only the blankets and forgets the curtains. 55 adds the length of just one curtain (51 + 4) instead of three. 58 adds the curtain length and the number of curtains (51 + 4 + 3) instead of multiplying them.

  141. Solve 13.54 + 12.23

    • A.25.54
    • B.257.7
    • C.25.77
    • D.25.31
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 25.77

    Line up the decimal points and add: 0.54 + 0.23 = 0.77 and 13 + 12 = 25, so 13.54 + 12.23 = 25.77, which is correct. 25.31 adds the whole numbers but subtracts the decimal parts (0.54 − 0.23). 25.54 adds 12 instead of 12.23, dropping the decimal part of the second number. 257.7 adds the digits correctly (1354 + 1223 = 2577) but counts only one decimal place instead of two.

  142. 7 + 9 – 5 + 6 – 4

    • A.13
    • B.9
    • C.-5
    • D.1
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 13

    With only addition and subtraction, work from left to right: 7 + 9 = 16, 16 − 5 = 11, 11 + 6 = 17, 17 − 4 = 13, which is correct. -5 treats the + 9 as − 9 (7 − 9 − 5 + 6 − 4). 1 adds 5 + 6 first and subtracts the sum (16 − 11 − 4), as if the minus sign also applied to the 6. 9 works from right to left: 6 − 4 = 2, 5 + 2 = 7, 9 − 7 = 2, 7 + 2 = 9.

  143. If two odd integers are multiplied together, which of the following could be the product?

    • A.10
    • B.20
    • C.15
    • D.28
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 15

    An odd number times an odd number is always odd, and 15 is odd (3 × 5), so 15 is correct. 10 is even; it is 5 × 2, an odd number times an even one. 20 is even (5 × 4). 28 is even (7 × 4). Any product with an even factor is even, so none of these three can come from two odd integers.

  144. Convert 3573\frac{5}{7} into an improper fraction.

    • A.26/7
    • B.22/7
    • C.38/7
    • D.16/7
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 26/7

    Multiply the whole number by the denominator and add the numerator: 3 × 7 + 5 = 26, kept over 7, so 26/7 is correct. 16/7 subtracts the 5 (21 − 5) instead of adding it. 22/7 multiplies the whole number by the numerator and adds the denominator (3 × 5 + 7). 38/7 multiplies the numerator by the denominator and adds the whole number (5 × 7 + 3).

  145. Complete the expanded fraction. 23=?12\frac{2}{3} = \frac{?}{12}

    • A.5/12
    • B.2/12
    • C.4/12
    • D.8/12
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 8/12

    Since 3 × 4 = 12, multiply the numerator by the same 4: 2 × 4 = 8, so 8/12 is correct, and it equals 2/3. 2/12 changes only the denominator and keeps the numerator 2, which makes the fraction smaller. 4/12 writes the multiplier 4 as the numerator instead of multiplying 2 by it. 5/12 adds the old denominator to the numerator (2 + 3) instead of multiplying by 4.

  146. Solve 4.2×0.354.2 \times 0.35

    • A.1.47
    • B.2.1
    • C.4.55
    • D.14.7
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1.47

    Multiply as whole numbers, 42 × 35 = 1470, then count the decimal places in the factors (one in 4.2 and two in 0.35) and place the point three digits from the right: 1.470, or 1.47, which is correct. 2.1 finds 4 × 0.35 = 1.4 but writes 0.2 × 0.35 = 0.07 as 0.7 (1.4 + 0.7). 4.55 adds 4.2 + 0.35 instead of multiplying. 14.7 counts only two decimal places instead of three.

  147. Joanah buys 42 packs of breath mints each containing 18 mints each. How many breath mints did Joanah buy?

    • A.756
    • B.798
    • C.840
    • D.714
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 756

    42 × 18 = 42 × 8 + 42 × 10 = 336 + 420 = 756, so 756 is correct. The three wrong totals all come from rounding 18 up to 20 (42 × 20 = 840), which counts 2 extra mints in each of the 42 packs, so 2 × 42 = 84 mints must come back off (840 − 84 = 756). 840 never takes the extra mints off, 798 takes off only 42, one extra mint per pack (840 − 42), and 714 takes off 126, three mints per pack instead of two (840 − 126).

  148. What is 1224\frac{12}{24} in its simplest form?

    • A.1/2
    • B.2/4
    • C.1/4
    • D.1/6
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1/2

    The greatest common factor of 12 and 24 is 12: 12 ÷ 12 = 1 and 24 ÷ 12 = 2, so 1/2 is correct. 2/4 divides both parts by 6 and stops; it has the same value but is not in simplest form, because 2 and 4 still share a factor of 2. 1/4 crosses out the matching digit 2 in 12 and 24, which is not division and changes the value. 1/6 divides the numerator by 12 but the denominator by only 4; both parts must be divided by the same number.

  149. 27×56=\frac{2}{7} \times \frac{5}{6} =

    • A.5/42
    • B.5/7
    • C.5/21
    • D.7/42
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 5/21

    Cross-simplify the 2 and the 6 to 1 and 3, then multiply: (1 × 5)/(7 × 3) = 5/21, which is correct (10/42 also reduces to 5/21). 5/42 cancels the 2 but forgets to divide the 6 by 2. 5/7 cancels the 2 and the 6 completely instead of reducing the 6 to 3. 7/42 adds the numerators (2 + 5) while multiplying the denominators.

  150. Joy, Marcy, Lily, and Ivy ran in a relay race. Marcy ran her leg in the race in 32 seconds. Joy ran her leg in 38.63 seconds, and Lily ran hers in 38.25 seconds. It took Ivy 1.2 times longer to run her leg than it took for Marcy to run hers. What is the average time it took for each person to run each leg of the race?

    • A.35.52
    • B.36.82
    • C.38.33
    • D.33.89
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 36.82

    Ivy took 1.2 × 32 = 38.4 seconds, so the total is 32 + 38.63 + 38.25 + 38.4 = 147.28 and the mean is 147.28 ÷ 4 = 36.82, which is correct. 33.89 divides 32 by 1.2 for Ivy (about 26.67 seconds), using the wrong operation. 35.52 adds 1.2 seconds to Marcy's time (33.2) instead of multiplying it by 1.2. 38.33 is the median, the middle of the four times ((38.25 + 38.4) ÷ 2, rounded), not the mean.

  151. Solve 58+15\frac{5}{8} + \frac{1}{5}

    • A.26/40
    • B.33/40
    • C.6/40
    • D.13/40
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 33/40

    The least common denominator of 8 and 5 is 40: 5/8 = 25/40 and 1/5 = 8/40, so the sum is 33/40, which is correct. 6/40 changes both denominators to 40 without changing either numerator (5 + 1). 13/40 rewrites only the second fraction and keeps 5 as the first numerator (5 + 8). 26/40 rewrites only the first fraction and keeps 1 as the second numerator (25 + 1).

  152. Dr. Harris prescribed 60 milligrams of medication. Upon further review, Dr. Harris decided to reduce the amount of medication by 25%. How many milligrams of medication are in the new prescription?

    • A.15 milligrams
    • B.45 milligrams
    • C.35 milligrams
    • D.48 milligrams
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 45 milligrams

    Reducing the dose by 25% leaves 75% of it: 0.75 × 60 = 45, so 45 milligrams is correct (25% of 60 is 15, and 60 − 15 = 45). 15 milligrams is the 25% that was taken off, not the dose that remains. 35 milligrams subtracts 25 milligrams, treating 25% as 25 of the 60. 48 milligrams divides 60 by 1.25, which undoes a 25% increase instead of applying a 25% decrease.

  153. Write 8.02 as a fraction.

    • A.8 1/500
    • B.8 2/50
    • C.8 1/100
    • D.8 1/50
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 8 1/50

    8.02 is eight and two hundredths, 8 2/100, and dividing 2 and 100 by 2 gives 8 1/50, which is correct. 8 1/100 halves the numerator but leaves the denominator at 100, so it equals 8.01. 8 1/500 reads the 2 as two thousandths, which is 8.002. 8 2/50 halves the denominator but not the numerator, so it equals 8.04.

  154. What is the fractional equivalent to 334%3\frac{3}{4}\%?

    • A.3/80
    • B.3/8
    • C.12/400
    • D.13/400
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3/80

    Write 3 3/4% as 15/4%, then divide by 100 to remove the percent sign: 15/4 ÷ 100 = 15/400, which reduces by 5 to 3/80, so 3/80 is correct. 12/400 multiplies 3 × 4 but forgets to add the numerator 3 when making the improper fraction. 13/400 multiplies the whole number by the numerator and adds the denominator (3 × 3 + 4). 3/8 converts the mixed number correctly but divides by 10 instead of 100 (15/40, which reduces to 3/8).

  155. Solve for x: 3x + 10 + x – 2 = 20

    • A.8
    • B.12
    • C.-3
    • D.3
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3

    Combine like terms: 3x + x = 4x and 10 − 2 = 8, so 4x + 8 = 20; subtract 8 from both sides to get 4x = 12, then divide by 4: x = 3, which is correct (3 × 3 + 10 + 3 − 2 = 20). -3 divides the 4x and the 20 by 4 but leaves the 8 undivided (x + 8 = 5); dividing every term by 4 gives x + 2 = 5, which also leads to x = 3. 8 subtracts 4 from 12 instead of dividing by 4. 12 stops at 4x = 12 and never divides by the coefficient.

  156. 118 is what percent of 780?

    • A.15.1%
    • B.661%
    • C.17.8%
    • D.84.9%
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 15.1%

    Divide the part by the whole and multiply by 100: 118 ÷ 780 is about 0.1513, which rounds to 15.1%, so 15.1% is correct. 17.8% divides 118 by the rest of the total (780 − 118 = 662) instead of by 780. 84.9% is the share of 780 that is not 118, the complement. 661% divides the whole by the part (780 ÷ 118) instead of the part by the whole.

  157. Order from least to greatest: 23\frac{2}{3}, 0.71, 3143\frac{1}{4}, 331%

    • A.2/3, 0.71, 3 1/4, 331%
    • B.331%, 3 1/4, 0.71, 2/3
    • C.2/3, 0.71, 331%, 3 1/4
    • D.0.71, 2/3, 3 1/4, 331%
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2/3, 0.71, 3 1/4, 331%

    As decimals, 2/3 is about 0.667, 0.71 stays 0.71, 3 1/4 = 3.25 and 331% = 3.31, so least to greatest is 2/3, 0.71, 3 1/4, 331%, which is correct. 331%, 3 1/4, 0.71, 2/3 lists the right values from greatest to least. 2/3, 0.71, 331%, 3 1/4 writes the 1/4 in 3 1/4 as 0.4, so it compares 3.4 with 3.31 instead of 3.25 with 3.31. 0.71, 2/3, 3 1/4, 331% divides 3 by 2 instead of 2 by 3, treating 2/3 as 1.5, which puts it after 0.71.

  158. x + 10 = 13

    • A.-3
    • B.3
    • C.-23
    • D.1.3
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3

    Undo adding 10 by subtracting 10 from both sides: x = 13 − 10 = 3, which is correct because 3 + 10 = 13. 1.3 divides 13 by 10, treating the equation as a division problem. -3 subtracts in the wrong order (10 − 13 instead of 13 − 10). -23 moves both numbers and flips both signs (x = −10 − 13), when only the 10 changes sides.

  159. Write 48% as a decimal.

    • A.4,800
    • B.0.048
    • C.48.0
    • D.0.48
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.48

    Percent means per hundred, so divide by 100 by moving the decimal point two places to the left: 48% = 48 ÷ 100 = 0.48, which is correct. 0.048 moves the point three places (48 ÷ 1000). 48.0 drops the percent sign and rewrites 48 as a decimal without dividing by 100. 4,800 moves the point two places to the right, multiplying by 100 instead of dividing.

  160. The girl collected 152 mushrooms. 38\frac{3}{8} of them turned out to be wormy. How many worm-eaten mushrooms did this girl collect?

    • A.38
    • B.76
    • C.57
    • D.95
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 57

    Find 3/8 of 152: 152 ÷ 8 = 19 and 19 × 3 = 57, so 57 is correct. 38 multiplies the one eighth by 2 instead of 3, which is only 2/8 (one fourth) of the mushrooms. 76 takes half of 152, treating 3/8 as if it were 4/8. 95 is the 5/8 that were not wormy (152 − 57).

  161. 60 is 40% of what number?

    • A.84
    • B.1,500
    • C.150
    • D.2,400
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 150

    Write 40% as the decimal 0.4 and divide the part by it: 60 ÷ 0.4 = 150. Check: 0.4 × 150 = 60, so 150 is correct. 84 adds 40% of 60 back onto 60 (60 × 1.4), which finds the number 40% larger than 60, not the whole that 60 is 40% of. 1,500 writes 40% as 0.04 instead of 0.40, so 60 ÷ 0.04 comes out ten times too large. 2,400 multiplies 60 × 40 without ever turning the percent into a decimal.

  162. Order the following fractions from least to greatest: 1581\frac{5}{8} ; 1671\frac{6}{7} ; 25\frac{2}{5}

    • A.1 6/7, 1 5/8, 2/5
    • B.2/5, 1 5/8, 1 6/7
    • C.2/5, 1 6/7, 1 5/8
    • D.1 5/8, 1 6/7, 2/5
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2/5, 1 5/8, 1 6/7

    2/5 is less than one whole, so it comes first. Both mixed numbers have the whole number 1, so compare the fractional parts over the common denominator 56: 5/8 = 35/56 and 6/7 = 48/56, which makes 1 5/8 the smaller of the two. The order from least to greatest is 2/5, 1 5/8, 1 6/7, which is correct. 1 6/7, 1 5/8, 2/5 is the right comparison written from greatest to least, the reverse of what the stem asks for. 2/5, 1 6/7, 1 5/8 assumes the fraction with the larger denominator (eighths) is the larger fraction, but 35/56 is less than 48/56. 1 5/8, 1 6/7, 2/5 puts 2/5 last as if its 2 were a whole number greater than 1, but 2/5 is less than one whole.

  163. A remote farming community has a population of 260 people. If 25% of the people in the village are seniors, how many seniors live in this community?

    • A.104 people
    • B.65 people
    • C.195 people
    • D.235 people
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 65 people

    25% is 0.25 (one fourth), and 0.25 × 260 = 260 ÷ 4 = 65, so 65 people is correct. 104 people writes 25% as 2.5 and divides 260 by it, misplacing the decimal point and using the wrong operation. 195 people is 75% of 260, the residents who are not seniors. 235 people subtracts 25 from 260, treating the percent as a count of people rather than a share of the population.

  164. If two even integers are multiplied together, which of the following could be the product?

    • A.2,012
    • B.1,035
    • C.1,206
    • D.1,503
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2,012

    Each even integer has a factor of 2, so the product of two even integers has a factor of 2 × 2 = 4: it must be even and a multiple of 4. 2,012 = 4 × 503 (for example, 2 × 1,006), so 2,012 is correct. 1,035 and 1,503 end in odd digits, and an odd number can never be the product of two even integers. 1,206 is even but is not a multiple of 4 (1,206 ÷ 4 = 301.5); it equals 2 × 603 with 603 odd, so it cannot be split into two even factors.

  165. If two even integers and one odd integer are multiplied together, which of the following could be the product?

    • A.110
    • B.100
    • C.125
    • D.135
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 100

    Two even integers multiply to a multiple of 4, and multiplying by an odd integer keeps that factor of 4, so the product must be a multiple of 4. 100 = 2 × 10 × 5 (two even integers and one odd integer), so 100 is correct. 125 and 135 are odd, but any product with an even factor is even. 110 is even, yet 110 ÷ 4 = 27.5: it equals 2 × 55 with 55 odd, so it holds only one factor of 2 and cannot come from two even integers.

  166. 5×8÷4×2÷55 \times 8 \div 4 \times 2 \div 5

    • A.1
    • B.10
    • C.64
    • D.4
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 4

    With only multiplication and division, work strictly from left to right: 5 × 8 = 40, 40 ÷ 4 = 10, 10 × 2 = 20, and 20 ÷ 5 = 4, so 4 is correct. 1 does all the multiplication before any division, 5 × 8 = 40 and 4 × 2 = 8, then 40 ÷ 8 ÷ 5 = 1; multiplication and division have equal priority, so neither goes first. 10 stops after 40 ÷ 4 and leaves the last two operations undone. 64 misreads the ÷ 4 as × 4, so it works out 5 × 8 × 4 × 2 ÷ 5 instead.

  167. 5×9÷3÷3×75 \times 9 \div 3 \div 3 \times 7

    • A.5/7
    • B.35
    • C.5
    • D.105
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 35

    Work left to right: 5 × 9 = 45, 45 ÷ 3 = 15, 15 ÷ 3 = 5, and 5 × 7 = 35, so 35 is correct. 5/7 does every multiplication first, 45 ÷ 3 ÷ 21 = 15/21, which reduces to 5/7; multiplication does not take priority over division. 5 stops before the final × 7. 105 skips one of the two divisions by 3 and works out 45 ÷ 3 × 7.

  168. A poultry farmer buys 15 crates of one-day-old chicks. Each crate contains 26 chicks. How many chicks did the farmer buy?

    • A.156
    • B.230
    • C.390
    • D.360
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 390

    This is a multiplication problem: 26 × 15 = 26 × 10 + 26 × 5 = 260 + 130 = 390, so 390 is correct. 156 adds 130 and 26 without shifting the second partial product one place to the left, so 26 × 10 is counted as 26 instead of 260. 230 multiplies only the matching place values, 20 × 10 + 6 × 5, and leaves out 6 × 10 and 20 × 5. 360 drops the carried 3 in 26 × 5, writing 100 instead of 130 before adding the 260.

Science (250)

  1. Dissolved oxygen (DO) is an important indicator of water quality, and oxygen levels that are too high or too low can harm aquatic ecosystems. A biologist noticed that fish were dying in a local lake and was concerned that the DO levels were too low to support aquatic life due to extremely high temperatures that summer. To measure the DO levels, she brought back several lake water samples to her laboratory to measure the DO concentration as a function of temperature. To do this, she heated several samples of lake water to various temperatures and then measured the DO concentration in each sample. Some samples were kept at the outdoors temperature.

    • A.Experimental water temperature
    • B.Predetermined specimen volumes
    • C.Lakeshore collection locations
    • D.Dissolved oxygen concentration
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Dissolved oxygen concentration

    The dependent variable is the one that is measured to see how it responds when the independent variable is changed. Here the biologist changes the temperature of the samples and then measures how much oxygen is dissolved in each one, so Dissolved oxygen concentration is correct. Experimental water temperature is the independent variable: it is the factor she deliberately sets by heating the samples. Predetermined specimen volumes would be a controlled variable, kept the same so that it does not affect the result. Lakeshore collection locations are not something the biologist varies or measures; the only factor she changes is temperature, and the only result she records is dissolved oxygen.

  2. A group of students was studying the effects of drinking 8 oz. of milk at 9 p.m. on the amount of sleep they got. Which is the dependent variable?

    • A.The amount of sleep
    • B.The amount of milk
    • C.The amount of caffeine
    • D.The amount of exercise
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The amount of sleep

    The dependent variable is the outcome that is measured to see whether it changes, so The amount of sleep is correct: the students record how long they sleep after drinking milk. The amount of milk is the independent variable, the factor the students change (8 oz. at 9 p.m. or none). The amount of caffeine and The amount of exercise are controlled variables: they should be kept the same for everyone, because either one could change how long a person sleeps and hide the effect of the milk.

  3. When going to the grocery store, you need to purchase some vegetables, which are sold by weight. Which of the following units would the weight of the vegetables be expressed in?

    • A.Kilograms
    • B.Kilowatts
    • C.Kilovolts
    • D.Kilohertz
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Kilograms

    Produce sold by weight is priced by its mass, and the kilogram is the metric (SI) unit of mass, so Kilograms is correct. Kilowatts measure power, the rate at which energy is used, as on an electric bill. Kilovolts measure electric potential, the push that drives a current through a power line. Kilohertz measure frequency, how many times per second something repeats, as with radio signals.

  4. Which of the following is not an SI base unit?

    • A.Mole
    • B.Kelvin
    • C.Ampere
    • D.Liter
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Liter

    There are seven SI base units: the meter (length), kilogram (mass), second (time), ampere (electric current), kelvin (temperature), mole (amount of substance), and candela (luminous intensity). The liter is a metric unit of volume, but it is derived from length (1 L is one cubic decimeter), so Liter is correct. Mole is the base unit for amount of substance. Kelvin is the base unit for temperature, even though everyday temperatures are often given in degrees Celsius. Ampere is the base unit for electric current; units such as the volt and the coulomb are derived from it.

  5. Which of the following units is derived from SI base units?

    • A.Gallon
    • B.Tablespoon
    • C.Fahrenheit
    • D.Kilometer
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Kilometer

    A kilometer is 1,000 meters, and the meter is the SI base unit of length, so Kilometer is correct. Gallon is a US customary unit of liquid volume, not part of the metric system. Tablespoon is a customary kitchen measure of volume. Fahrenheit is a customary temperature scale; the SI base unit of temperature is the kelvin.

  6. In an experiment, a reaction requires 0.006 kg of KCl, but the scale used to measure the mass only reports masses in grams (g). Which of the following values would the scale read if the exact mass of KCl was measured?

    • A.0.006 g
    • B.0.06 g
    • C.6 g
    • D.6,000 g
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 6 g

    One kilogram equals 1,000 grams, so multiply: 0.006 kg × 1,000 = 6 g, which is correct. 0.006 g changes the unit label without converting the number at all; a gram is smaller than a kilogram, so the number of grams must be larger. 0.06 g moves the decimal point only one place to the right instead of three. 6,000 g multiplies by 1,000,000, the factor for converting kilograms to milligrams, not to grams.

  7. Which of the following prefixes would likely be the most appropriate for measuring the weight of a 2,500 g kitten?

    • A.Mega
    • B.Deka
    • C.Deci
    • D.Kilo
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Kilo

    The most appropriate prefix gives a number that is neither very large nor very small. 2,500 g is 2.5 kilograms, so Kilo is correct. Mega means one million, giving 0.0025 megagrams, an awkwardly small decimal. Deka means ten, giving 250 dekagrams, a larger number in a unit that is almost never used for body weight. Deci means one tenth, giving 25,000 decigrams, a very large number.

  8. Which of the following would be the best choice to measure 0.0015 grams of a chemical reagent?

    • A.Analytical balance
    • B.Graduated cylinder
    • C.Triple beam scale
    • D.Graduated pipette
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Analytical balance

    0.0015 g is 1.5 milligrams, so the tool must measure mass to a fraction of a milligram. An analytical balance reads to 0.0001 g, so Analytical balance is correct. Triple beam scale readings are good only to about 0.1 g, far too coarse for 0.0015 g. Graduated cylinder and Graduated pipette are both glassware for measuring the volume of a liquid in milliliters, not mass in grams.

  9. A book weighs 2.2 kg. How much does it weigh in grams?

    • A.0.0022 g
    • B.2,002 g
    • C.22,000 g
    • D.2,200 g
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2,200 g

    The prefix kilo- means 1,000, so 1 kg = 1,000 g, and 2.2 × 1,000 = 2,200 g, which is correct. 0.0022 g divides by 1,000, converting in the wrong direction; a gram is smaller than a kilogram, so there must be more grams than kilograms. 22,000 g multiplies by 10,000, adding one zero too many. 2,002 g reads 2.2 kg as 2 kg plus 2 g, but the 0.2 is two tenths of a kilogram, which is 200 g.

  10. Which of the following is the correct formula to measure volume?

    • A.Volume = base perimeter x height
    • B.Volume = 2 x pi x radius x depth
    • C.Volume = 1/2 x base x height
    • D.Volume = length x width x height
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Volume = length x width x height

    Volume measures three-dimensional space, so for a box it is the product of all three dimensions, and its unit is cubed (for example, cubic centimeters). Volume = length x width x height is correct. Volume = base perimeter x height is the formula for the lateral surface area of a prism, the area of its side faces, in square units. Volume = 2 x pi x radius x depth is the curved surface area of a cylinder; a cylinder volume needs pi x radius x radius x depth. Volume = 1/2 x base x height is the area of a triangle, a flat two-dimensional shape with no volume.

  11. The International Space Station orbits earth at a distance of 408 km. Sunlight reflects off it and travels to Earth at a speed of 299,792 km/s. How long does it take the light to reach the Earth?

    • A.0.0014 s
    • B.0.0027 s
    • C.1.4 s
    • D.735 s
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.0014 s

    Time = distance ÷ speed. Both values use kilometers, so 408 km ÷ 299,792 km/s = 0.00136 s, which rounds to 0.0014 s; that is correct. 0.0027 s doubles the distance as if the light made a round trip, but it travels from the station to Earth only once. 1.4 s changes 408 km to 408,000 m but leaves the speed in km/s, so the mixed units make the answer 1,000 times too large. 735 s inverts the division (299,792 ÷ 408), which gives units of 1/s rather than seconds.

  12. A well-controlled experiment was conducted where researchers noted that a new antibiotic eliminated a bacterial sinus infection. Which of the following can be inferred from this result?

    • A.The medication removed the viruses responsible for the sinus infection.
    • B.The medication killed the bacteria responsible for the sinus infection.
    • C.The medication destroyed the fungi responsible for the sinus infection.
    • D.The medication cured the allergies responsible for the sinus infection.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The medication killed the bacteria responsible for the sinus infection.

    Antibiotics kill bacteria or stop them from growing, and the stem says the infection was bacterial, so The medication killed the bacteria responsible for the sinus infection. is correct. The medication removed the viruses responsible for the sinus infection. is a common misconception: antibiotics have no effect on viruses, and this infection was bacterial. The medication destroyed the fungi responsible for the sinus infection. names the wrong kind of microbe; fungal infections need antifungal drugs. The medication cured the allergies responsible for the sinus infection. confuses an allergic reaction, treated with antihistamines, with a bacterial infection, which antibiotics treat.

  13. Which of the following describes a ‘control variable’ in an experiment?

    • A.The variable that is purposely changed
    • B.The variable that is held constant
    • C.The variable that is directly measured
    • D.The variable that is randomly assigned
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The variable that is held constant

    A control variable is a factor kept the same in every trial so that it cannot affect the outcome, so The variable that is held constant is correct. The variable that is purposely changed describes the independent variable, the one the researcher manipulates. The variable that is directly measured describes the dependent variable, the outcome that responds to the change. The variable that is randomly assigned confuses control variables with random assignment, a method for placing subjects into the control and experimental groups.

  14. Which of the following is true about control variables?

    • A.Control variables are changed purposely to directly measure the effects of other variables.
    • B.Control variables are kept constant to help understand the relationship of other variables.
    • C.Control variables are recorded outcomes gathered to gauge the responses of other variables.
    • D.Control variables are untreated samples needed to compare the treatment of other variables.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Control variables are kept constant to help understand the relationship of other variables.

    Holding control variables steady means any change in the results can be traced to the variable being tested, so Control variables are kept constant to help understand the relationship of other variables. is correct. Control variables are changed purposely to directly measure the effects of other variables. describes the independent variable, the one factor the researcher changes. Control variables are recorded outcomes gathered to gauge the responses of other variables. describes the dependent variable, which is measured rather than held steady. Control variables are untreated samples needed to compare the treatment of other variables. confuses control variables with the control group, the samples or subjects that receive no treatment.

  15. Which is the most appropriate unit to measure the weight of groceries in a store?

    • A.Megagrams
    • B.Kilograms
    • C.Decigrams
    • D.Nanograms
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Kilograms

    Most groceries weigh somewhere between a fraction of a kilogram and a few kilograms, so Kilograms gives easy-to-read numbers and is correct. Megagrams are millions of grams (one megagram is a metric ton), a scale for trucks and livestock; a 2 kg bag of rice would be 0.002 Mg. Decigrams are tenths of a gram, so the same bag would be 20,000 dg, an unwieldy number for an everyday weight. Nanograms are billionths of a gram, a scale for trace amounts measured in a laboratory.

  16. Which of the following are likely the causes of diabetes type 2?

    • A.Loss of weight, excessive daytime thirst, fatigue
    • B.Onset of autoimmunity, early viral illness, youth
    • C.Lack of exercise, unhealthy food choices, obesity
    • D.Damage of nerves, severe renal disease, blindness
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Lack of exercise, unhealthy food choices, obesity

    Type 2 diabetes develops mainly through lifestyle risk factors that lead to insulin resistance, so Lack of exercise, unhealthy food choices, obesity is correct. Loss of weight, excessive daytime thirst, fatigue lists symptoms of diabetes, which appear after the disease develops rather than causing it. Onset of autoimmunity, early viral illness, youth describes type 1 diabetes, in which the immune system destroys the insulin-making cells of the pancreas. Damage of nerves, severe renal disease, blindness lists complications that long-term high blood sugar causes, not causes of the disease.

  17. Which of the following is a hypothesis?

    • A.Will a student earn a higher class grade if they take more naps?
    • B.If a pupil naps more often, will they earn a higher quiz score?
    • C.Recently, a student slept more hours and got a higher exam score
    • D.If a student gets more sleep, they will get a higher test score
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: If a student gets more sleep, they will get a higher test score

    A hypothesis is a testable statement that predicts how one variable affects another, so If a student gets more sleep, they will get a higher test score is correct. Will a student earn a higher class grade if they take more naps? is a research question; it asks about a relationship but makes no prediction. If a pupil naps more often, will they earn a higher quiz score? is also a question rather than a statement that can be supported or refuted. Recently, a student slept more hours and got a higher exam score is an observation of something that already happened, the kind of fact a hypothesis is built from.

  18. A hypothesis must be which of the following?

    • A.Testable
    • B.Verified
    • C.Numeric
    • D.Original
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Testable

    A hypothesis must be something an experiment or observation can check, so Testable is correct. Verified is wrong because a hypothesis is a proposal that has not yet been tested; the results may support it or reject it. Numeric is wrong because a hypothesis can predict a qualitative outcome, such as a color change, as well as a measured number. Original is wrong because scientists often test or retest an idea someone else has already proposed.

  19. A biologist hypothesized that zebras and horses evolved from the same common ancestor 4 million years ago. Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports this hypothesis?

    • A.The genomes of zebras and horses are very similar to the common ancestor
    • B.The diets of zebras and horses are mostly similar to the common ancestor
    • C.The habits of zebras and horses are truly similar to the common ancestor
    • D.The bodies of zebras and horses are quite similar to the common ancestor
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The genomes of zebras and horses are very similar to the common ancestor

    DNA comparison is the strongest evidence of shared ancestry, because genetic similarity reveals how recently two species split from one lineage, so The genomes of zebras and horses are very similar to the common ancestor is correct. The diets of zebras and horses are mostly similar to the common ancestor shows only that they eat the same kind of food, which unrelated grazers also do. The habits of zebras and horses are truly similar to the common ancestor describes behavior, which can be learned or shaped by the environment. The bodies of zebras and horses are quite similar to the common ancestor relies on appearance, which can be similar in species that are not closely related.

  20. HX2OX2\ce{H2O2} is a strong oxidizer that is used to degrade a variety of compounds. Ultraviolet-visible (UV-Vis) spectroscopy is a measurement technique that correlates the amount of UV light a substance absorbs with its concentration. The above is background information, and the information below is the abstract of a scientific paper. Identify the hypothesis. Pharmaceuticals have been detected in wastewaters worldwide and have the potential to harm both aquatic and human life. Traditional water treatment technologies are unable to remove these compounds from water, so various methods have been developed to degrade these compounds, including oxidation. In this paper, HX2OX2\ce{H2O2} is proposed to oxidatively degrade the anti-inflammatory drug, naproxen when it is dissolved in water. UV-Vis spectroscopy is used to measure the concentration of naproxen in water after samples are treated with hydrogen peroxide (HX2OX2\ce{H2O2}). Experiments were conducted to test the influence of HX2OX2\ce{H2O2} concentration, reaction time, and temperature on the degradation of naproxen. The results showed that 98% of naproxen could be degraded by 0.25 M HX2OX2\ce{H2O2} within 2 hours at 30 oC. Thus, we can conclude that hydrogen peroxide can be used to degrade naproxen in wastewaters. What is the the hypothesis proposed in the experiment above?

    • A.The results showed that 98% of naproxen could be degraded by 0.25 M H2O2 within 2 hours at 30 oC.
    • B.In this paper, H2O2 is proposed to oxidatively degrade the anti-inflammatory drug, naproxen when it is dissolved in water.
    • C.Experiments were conducted to test the influence of H2O2 concentration, reaction time, and temperature on the degradation of naproxen.
    • D.Thus, we can conclude that hydrogen peroxide can be used to degrade naproxen in wastewaters.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: In this paper, H2O2 is proposed to oxidatively degrade the anti-inflammatory drug, naproxen when it is dissolved in water.

    A hypothesis is the testable proposal an experiment sets out to check. The sentence In this paper, H2O2 is proposed to oxidatively degrade the anti-inflammatory drug, naproxen when it is dissolved in water. states that proposal, so it is correct. The results showed that 98% of naproxen could be degraded by 0.25 M H2O2 within 2 hours at 30 oC. reports the data the experiments produced, not the proposal they tested. Experiments were conducted to test the influence of H2O2 concentration, reaction time, and temperature on the degradation of naproxen. describes the method, the variables the experiments changed, rather than the proposal those experiments were designed to check. Thus, we can conclude that hydrogen peroxide can be used to degrade naproxen in wastewaters. is the conclusion drawn after testing, not the proposal that was tested.

  21. Dissolved oxygen (DO) is an important indicator of water quality, and oxygen levels that are too high or too low can harm aquatic ecosystems. A biologist noticed that fish were dying in a local lake and was concerned that the DO levels were too low to support aquatic life due to extremely high temperatures that summer. To measure the DO levels, she brought back several lake water samples to her laboratory to measure the DO concentration as a function of temperature. To do this, she heated several samples of lake water to various temperatures and then measured the DO concentration in each sample. Some samples were kept at the outdoors temperature. Which of the following is the independent variable?

    • A.Oxygen content
    • B.Container size
    • C.Temperature
    • D.Lake depth
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Temperature

    The independent variable is the one the researcher deliberately changes. The biologist heats samples to different temperatures to see how dissolved oxygen responds, so Temperature is correct. Oxygen content is the dependent variable, the outcome she measures in each sample. Container size would be a controlled variable that should stay the same for every sample. Lake depth is not something the biologist varies or records; the only factor she changes on purpose is temperature.

  22. A biologist hypothesized that high humidity environments increased the growth rate of certain bacteria. Which of the following observations refutes this hypothesis?

    • A.Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Amazon Rainforest compared with the Sahara.
    • B.Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Congo Rainforest compared with the Atacama.
    • C.Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Mojave Desert compared with the Everglades.
    • D.Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Florida Marshes compared with the Kalahari.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Mojave Desert compared with the Everglades.

    To refute the hypothesis, an observation must show more growth in the drier place. The Mojave Desert is very dry and the Everglades is a humid swamp, so Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Mojave Desert compared with the Everglades. is correct. Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Amazon Rainforest compared with the Sahara. supports the hypothesis, because the humid rainforest had more growth than the dry desert. Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Congo Rainforest compared with the Atacama. also supports it, since the Atacama is one of the driest deserts on Earth. Higher bacteria growth was observed in the Florida Marshes compared with the Kalahari. supports it as well, with more growth in the wet marshes than in the arid Kalahari.

  23. Which of the following options is a valid conclusion about the data below?

    • A.Gender is a significant determinant of depressive illness
    • B.Gender is a significant determinant of medication dosages
    • C.Gender is a significant determinant of antidepressant use
    • D.Gender is a significant determinant of treatment outcomes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Gender is a significant determinant of antidepressant use

    The data show how many people take antidepressants, and in every age group women take them more often than men, so Gender is a significant determinant of antidepressant use is the valid conclusion. Gender is a significant determinant of depressive illness goes beyond the data: they count prescriptions, not illness, and men may be depressed as often but seek treatment less. Gender is a significant determinant of medication dosages cannot be concluded, because the data say nothing about how large a dose anyone takes. Gender is a significant determinant of treatment outcomes also goes beyond the data, which do not show whether the drugs worked for anyone.

  24. A chemist successfully synthesized an antimicrobial compound and showed that it effectively killed bacteria. The chemist then repeated this experiment two more times. What was the most likely reason for conducting this experiment three times?

    • A.To demonstrate the reproducibility of the results
    • B.To measure the concentration of the antimicrobial
    • C.To investigate the mechanism of the antimicrobial
    • D.To recalibrate the instruments of the experiments
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To demonstrate the reproducibility of the results

    Running the same experiment again under the same conditions checks whether it gives the same outcome each time, so To demonstrate the reproducibility of the results is correct. To measure the concentration of the antimicrobial would call for an analysis of the compound, not a repeat of the killing test. To investigate the mechanism of the antimicrobial would need different experiments that probe how the compound acts on the cells; repeating the same test only shows again that it works. To recalibrate the instruments of the experiments is done with known standards before testing, not by repeating the whole experiment.

  25. A class of students wanted to assess the effects of coffee on test scores. What would be an appropriate control?

    • A.Prohibiting gum during the test
    • B.Drinking flavored coffee during the test
    • C.Drinking coffee after finishing the test
    • D.Avoiding coffee during the test
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Avoiding coffee during the test

    A control group is identical except that it does not receive the factor being tested, here coffee, so Avoiding coffee during the test is correct. Prohibiting gum during the test removes a different factor, not coffee, so it controls nothing about the variable being tested. Drinking flavored coffee during the test is still drinking coffee, so it is an experimental condition that also adds flavorings and sugar. Drinking coffee after finishing the test still gives the group coffee, only at a different time, so it adds a second difference instead of leaving the one factor out; a true control group receives no coffee at all.

  26. Japan’s population has been declining in recent years. For this decline, which of the following must be true?

    • A.Immigration + Births > Emigration + Deaths
    • B.Immigration + Births = Emigration + Deaths
    • C.Emigration + Deaths > Immigration + Births
    • D.Emigration + Immigration > Deaths + Births
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Emigration + Deaths > Immigration + Births

    People leave a population by emigrating or dying and join it by immigrating or being born, so a declining population must lose more than it gains: Emigration + Deaths > Immigration + Births is correct. Immigration + Births > Emigration + Deaths describes a growing population, the opposite of a decline. Immigration + Births = Emigration + Deaths describes a stable population that neither grows nor shrinks. Emigration + Immigration > Deaths + Births compares total movement with total natural change, which puts gains and losses on the same side and says nothing about whether the population is shrinking.

  27. Dissolved oxygen (DO) is an important indicator of water quality, and oxygen levels that are too high or too low can harm aquatic ecosystems. A biologist noticed that fish were dying in a local lake and was concerned that the DO levels were too low to support aquatic life due to extremely high temperatures that summer. To measure the DO levels, she brought back several lake water samples to her laboratory to measure the DO concentration as a function of temperature. To do this, she heated several samples of lake water to various temperatures and then measured the DO concentration in each sample. Some samples were kept at the outdoors temperature. Why were some samples kept outdoors?

    • A.To act as a replicate set
    • B.To act as a measured outcome
    • C.To act as a control group
    • D.To act as a thermal standard
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To act as a control group

    The unheated samples give a baseline to compare the heated samples against, so To act as a control group is correct. To act as a replicate set is wrong because replicates repeat the same treatment, while these samples were deliberately left untreated. To act as a measured outcome confuses the samples with the dependent variable; the outcome is the oxygen concentration measured in every sample. To act as a thermal standard is wrong because a standard is a sample of known value used to calibrate a thermometer, and outdoor lake water has no fixed known temperature.

  28. A chemist needs to add 5 µL of a reagent to a reaction solution. Which of the following is the best tool to accomplish this?

    • A.A micropipette
    • B.A medicine dropper
    • C.A volumetric pipet
    • D.A graduated pipet
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A micropipette

    5 µL is five millionths of a liter, and a micropipette is built to measure and dispense volumes on the microliter scale, so A micropipette is correct. A medicine dropper releases drops of roughly 50 µL each and cannot measure a set volume accurately. A volumetric pipet delivers one fixed, larger volume, such as 1, 5, or 10 mL. A graduated pipet is marked in tenths or hundredths of a milliliter, far too coarse for 5 µL.

  29. Which of the following is the approximate change in medical school enrollment between the years 1858 and 1861?

    • A.A decrease of 1
    • B.A decrease of 30
    • C.A decrease of 10
    • D.A decrease of 50
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A decrease of 10

    On the medical school line, enrollment is about 30 students in 1858 and about 20 students in 1861. The change is 20 − 30 = −10, so A decrease of 10 is correct. A decrease of 1 counts the single grid line the value dropped and forgets that each line on the y-axis stands for 10 students. A decrease of 30 reports the 1858 enrollment itself instead of the change between the two years. A decrease of 50 adds the two readings, 30 + 20, instead of subtracting one from the other.

  30. Based on this table, which of the following statements is true?

    • A.Congenital anomalies claimed more victims in 5 to 9-year-olds than in 1 to 4-year-olds.
    • B.Unintentional injuries caused more deaths in 1 to 4-year-olds than in 5 to 9-year-olds.
    • C.Intentional killings claimed more lives in 1 to 4-year-olds than birth defects did.
    • D.Homicides ended more young lives in 5 to 9-year-olds than congenital anomalies did.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Unintentional injuries caused more deaths in 1 to 4-year-olds than in 5 to 9-year-olds.

    The table (CDC, 10 Leading Causes of Death by Age Group, United States, 2016) lists 1,261 unintentional injury deaths among children aged 1 to 4 and 787 among children aged 5 to 9, so Unintentional injuries caused more deaths in 1 to 4-year-olds than in 5 to 9-year-olds. is correct. Congenital anomalies claimed more victims in 5 to 9-year-olds than in 1 to 4-year-olds. reverses the table, which shows 433 deaths from congenital anomalies at ages 1 to 4 and only 203 at ages 5 to 9. Intentional killings claimed more lives in 1 to 4-year-olds than birth defects did. is false because at ages 1 to 4 homicide caused 339 deaths, fewer than the 433 from congenital anomalies (birth defects). Homicides ended more young lives in 5 to 9-year-olds than congenital anomalies did. is false because at ages 5 to 9 homicide caused 139 deaths, fewer than the 203 from congenital anomalies.

  31. Why is it important to keep most variables constant between experimental and control groups?

    • A.Keeping most variables constant allows the effects of a single variable to be determined more accurately.
    • B.Keeping most variables constant allows the results of a laboratory sample to be generalized more broadly.
    • C.Keeping most variables constant allows the timeline of a research project to be shortened more quickly.
    • D.Keeping most variables constant allows the outcome of a hypothesis test to be confirmed more frequently.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Keeping most variables constant allows the effects of a single variable to be determined more accurately.

    If everything except one variable is the same in both groups, any difference in the results can be traced to that one variable, so Keeping most variables constant allows the effects of a single variable to be determined more accurately. is correct. Keeping most variables constant allows the results of a laboratory sample to be generalized more broadly. is backward: tightly controlled conditions make results harder to apply to other settings. Keeping most variables constant allows the timeline of a research project to be shortened more quickly. is wrong because control is about valid comparisons, not speed. Keeping most variables constant allows the outcome of a hypothesis test to be confirmed more frequently. is wrong because a fair test can just as easily reject a hypothesis.

  32. A study draws the conclusion that obesity is a significant cause of Type 2 diabetes. Which of the following experimental parameters would not build confidence that such a cause and effect relationship is likely true?

    • A.Random cohort assignment
    • B.Small participant sample
    • C.Blinded outcome measures
    • D.Replicated trial results
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Small participant sample

    Small participant sample is the parameter that would not build confidence: with few people studied, chance alone can create or hide an apparent link between obesity and diabetes, so the result is not statistically convincing. Random cohort assignment does build confidence, because it spreads unknown risk factors evenly between the groups being compared. Blinded outcome measures build confidence by keeping the assessors' expectations from coloring the diagnoses. Replicated trial results build confidence, since the same link found again in independent studies is unlikely to be a fluke.

  33. When studying the effects of sunlight on a person’s mood, scientists asked one group of patients to remain outside for one hour and a control group to remain inside all day. At the end of the experiment, 75% of the group that had received sunlight had a better mood. What can be concluded from these results?

    • A.Insufficient data prevents sound conclusions
    • B.Sunlight exposure improved participant moods
    • C.Indoor confinement worsened emotional health
    • D.Outdoor physical activity improved attitudes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Insufficient data prevents sound conclusions

    Insufficient data prevents sound conclusions is correct. Nobody checked that either group actually stayed outdoors or indoors as told, mood was judged only at the end, and other influences on mood were not controlled, so the 75% figure cannot support a firm claim. Sunlight exposure improved participant moods is the tempting overreach: the sunlight group reported better moods, but without controls the study cannot show that sunlight caused the change. Indoor confinement worsened emotional health is unsupported, since the control group's mood was never shown to decline. Outdoor physical activity improved attitudes names a cause the study never measured; the subjects were only asked to stay outside.

  34. Which of the following is an example of empirical data?

    • A.Hearing 52-degree forecast
    • B.Assuming 12-egg containers
    • C.Multiplying recipe amounts
    • D.Counting refrigerated eggs
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Counting refrigerated eggs

    Counting refrigerated eggs is correct: empirical data come from your own direct observation or measurement, and counting the eggs observes a quantity first-hand. Hearing 52-degree forecast supplies a number, but it is someone else's prediction, not an observation you made. Assuming 12-egg containers takes a number from the label on the carton instead of counting what is actually inside. Multiplying recipe amounts is a calculation from written instructions; nothing is observed or measured.

  35. Why are control groups used in experiments?

    • A.To evaluate additional treatment factors
    • B.To reduce extraneous variable influences
    • C.To confirm predicted hypothesis outcomes
    • D.To ensure statistically significant data
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To reduce extraneous variable influences

    To reduce extraneous variable influences is correct. A control group experiences the same conditions as the test group except the independent variable, so comparing the two separates the variable's effect from outside influences. To evaluate additional treatment factors is wrong, because the control group receives no treatment, and adding factors would make the results harder to interpret. To confirm predicted hypothesis outcomes is wrong, because a control group lets a hypothesis be tested, and the data may reject it. To ensure statistically significant data is wrong, because significance depends on the size of the effect and the sample, which a control group cannot promise.

  36. Which of the following is necessary to reach a sound conclusion?

    • A.Expected and hypothesized outcomes
    • B.Costly and sophisticated equipment
    • C.Dramatic and instantaneous effects
    • D.Accurate and unbiased measurements
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Accurate and unbiased measurements

    Accurate and unbiased measurements are what a sound conclusion requires: if the data contain errors or bias, their validity cannot be judged, and a conclusion drawn from them cannot be trusted. Expected and hypothesized outcomes are not required, because a sound conclusion can reject the hypothesis. Costly and sophisticated equipment is not required, because simple tools give valid data when they are used carefully. Dramatic and instantaneous effects are not required, because a small or gradual effect, or no effect, can still be concluded soundly.

  37. Which of the following would an electron microscope be used to measure?

    • A.10-cm autumn leaf colors
    • B.15-mm live mayfly nymphs
    • C.12-mg sand grain weights
    • D.20-nm thin polymer films
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 20-nm thin polymer films

    20-nm thin polymer films is correct. Electron microscopes resolve features a few nanometers across, far below the limit of light microscopes, and a dry, solid film holds up in the instrument's vacuum. 10-cm autumn leaf colors cannot be recorded, because electron images are grayscale; any color in them is added afterward. 15-mm live mayfly nymphs cannot be examined alive, since specimens must be fixed and placed in a vacuum, and an insect that size is easily seen with a light microscope. 12-mg sand grain weights are masses, which a balance measures; a microscope images structure and size, not mass.

  38. Which of the following statements is false?

    • A.Single-blind experiments mask subject group allocation
    • B.Double-blind experiments keep research team uninformed
    • C.Double-blind experiments involve two control variables
    • D.Double-blind experiments curb subject expectation bias
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Double-blind experiments involve two control variables

    Double-blind experiments involve two control variables is the false statement: blinding describes who knows the treatment assignments, not how many control variables an experiment has. Single-blind experiments mask subject group allocation is true, since in a single-blind design the participants do not know which treatment they receive. Double-blind experiments keep research team uninformed is true, because the researchers who give the treatments and record the results are also unaware of the assignments. Double-blind experiments curb subject expectation bias is true, since participants who do not know their group cannot shape their responses around it, as in the placebo effect.

  39. When two plants, A and B, were planted together in a field outdoors, plant A produced vegetables, and plant B produced flowers which attracted pollinators. It was noted that when they were grown apart from each other, plant A did not produce vegetables, but plant B still produced flowers. Which of the following is the most likely reason plant A did not produce vegetables when planted away from plant B?

    • A.Plant B nitrogen nodules nourished plant A
    • B.Plant B insect visitors pollinated plant A
    • C.Plant B windbreak leaves sheltered plant A
    • D.Plant B dense groundcover hydrated plant A
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Plant B insect visitors pollinated plant A

    Plant B insect visitors pollinated plant A is the most likely reason. Plant A must be pollinated to set the fruit that forms its vegetables; plant B's flowers drew pollinators into the field, and those insects carried pollen among plant A's flowers as well. Grown alone, plant A attracted no pollinators, so no vegetables formed, while plant B kept flowering. Plant B nitrogen nodules nourished plant A is unlikely, because extra soil nitrogen changes growth and yield but does not decide whether fruit forms. Plant B windbreak leaves sheltered plant A does not fit, since shelter from wind would not stop a plant from fruiting. Plant B dense groundcover hydrated plant A is also unlikely, because soil moisture affects plant vigor, not whether flowers are fertilized.

  40. Correctly order the following prefixes from smallest to largest: milli, kilo, deci, micro, nano.

    • A.Micro, nano, milli, deci, kilo
    • B.Nano, micro, deci, milli, kilo
    • C.Nano, micro, milli, deci, kilo
    • D.Kilo, deci, milli, micro, nano
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Nano, micro, milli, deci, kilo

    Nano, micro, milli, deci, kilo is correct. Each prefix stands for a power of ten: nano is 10^-9, micro is 10^-6, milli is 10^-3, deci is 10^-1, and kilo is 10^3, and the more negative the exponent, the smaller the unit. Micro, nano, milli, deci, kilo swaps the two smallest prefixes; nano (10^-9) is smaller than micro (10^-6). Nano, micro, deci, milli, kilo swaps milli and deci; a milli is a thousandth, which is smaller than a deci, a tenth. Kilo, deci, milli, micro, nano runs from largest to smallest, the reverse of the order asked for.

  41. Which tool is best suited to measure the length of a bedroom?

    • A.Graduated meter stick
    • B.Steel vernier caliper
    • C.Outdoor trundle wheel
    • D.Retractable tape rule
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Retractable tape rule

    Retractable tape rule is correct: a tape measure (also called a tape rule) is long enough to span a bedroom in one pass and is made for room-scale lengths. Graduated meter stick is too short to measure a room efficiently; it has to be moved repeatedly, which adds error. Steel vernier caliper is built for small objects that fit in the hand, read to fractions of a millimeter. Outdoor trundle wheel is suited to long distances such as yards, fields, and roads, and is too coarse for a room.

  42. Which would be the approximate mass of a car?

    • A.1,800 kg
    • B.650 kg
    • C.4,000 kg
    • D.9,500 kg
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1,800 kg

    1,800 kg is correct: a typical passenger car has a mass of roughly 1,000 to 2,000 kg, about the mass of 25 to 30 adults. 650 kg is closer to the mass of a horse, far too light for a car. 4,000 kg comes from mixing up units: a car weighs about 4,000 pounds, which is only about 1,800 kg. 9,500 kg is the scale of a heavy truck such as a loaded garbage truck.

  43. During a study, scientists noted that people with more self-esteem tend to not be depressed and vice versa. Which of the following types of relationships did they observe?

    • A.Causation
    • B.Independence
    • C.Correlation
    • D.Happenstance
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Correlation

    Correlation is correct: the scientists observed that self-esteem and depression vary together (as one rises, the other tends to fall), which is a negative correlation, and they did not test what causes what. Causation would require an experiment showing that changing self-esteem changes depression, which an observational study cannot show. Independence would mean the two measures do not vary together, which contradicts the pattern the scientists noted. Happenstance would mean the link is a coincidence with no consistent pattern, but the scientists noted a consistent tendency in both directions.

  44. A chemist was performing a spectroscopy experiment on a fluorescent dye to examine the influence of concentration on absorbance. To accomplish this, the chemist created a stock solution of a certain concentration of dye using 10 mL of water (HX2O\ce{H2O}). Then, a serial dilution was performed by taking 1 mL of the stock solution and diluting it with 9 mL of water for a total solution volume of 10 mL. 1 mL was taken from Solution 2 and diluted with 9 mL water to create Solution 3. The serial dilution was performed through Solution 5, as shown in the diagram below. If the dye concentration in Solution 5 was 0.5 g/mL, what was the concentration of the dye in Solution 2?

    • A.0.0005 g/mL
    • B.500 g/mL
    • C.50 g/mL
    • D.50,000 g/mL
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 500 g/mL

    500 g/mL is correct. Each step mixes 1 mL of solution with 9 mL of water for 10 mL in total, a tenfold dilution, so working backward from Solution 5 means multiplying by 10 at each step: 0.5 g/mL (Solution 5), 5 g/mL (Solution 4), 50 g/mL (Solution 3), 500 g/mL (Solution 2). 50 g/mL stops one step short; it is the concentration of Solution 3. 50,000 g/mL comes from multiplying by 10 once for every solution in the series, five times, instead of once for each of the 3 dilutions that separate Solution 5 from Solution 2. 0.0005 g/mL comes from dividing by 10 three times, which moves forward through the series instead of backward to the more concentrated Solution 2.

  45. Which of the following statements is true about understanding magnitude when describing relationships?

    • A.Coefficient magnitude indicates trend directionality
    • B.Coefficient magnitude indicates causation likelihood
    • C.Coefficient magnitude indicates regression steepness
    • D.Coefficient magnitude indicates correlation strength
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Coefficient magnitude indicates correlation strength

    Coefficient magnitude indicates correlation strength is correct: the closer a correlation coefficient is to +1 or -1, the stronger the relationship, and the closer it is to 0, the weaker. Coefficient magnitude indicates trend directionality is wrong, because direction comes from the sign of the coefficient, positive or negative, not from the size of the number. Coefficient magnitude indicates causation likelihood is wrong, because even a very strong correlation does not show that one variable causes the other. Coefficient magnitude indicates regression steepness is wrong, because the coefficient measures how tightly the points cluster around a line, not how steep the line is; a shallow line can still have a coefficient near 1.

  46. Choose the best conclusion based upon the following information: Hypothesis: caffeinated beverages reduce the amount of sleep individuals receive. Experimental design: Measure regular amount of sleep. Administer 8 oz. of caffeinated (green tea and coffee) and non-caffeinated beverages (milk and water). Measure amount of sleep after.

    • A.Caffeinated beverages decreased sleep duration
    • B.Caffeinated coffee lengthened sleep duration
    • C.Caffeinated beverages preserved slumber length
    • D.Noncaffeinated beverages eroded sleep duration
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Caffeinated beverages decreased sleep duration

    Caffeinated beverages decreased sleep duration is the conclusion the study supports: sleep was measured before and after each drink, and in the results this item was written for, both caffeinated drinks (green tea and coffee) cut sleep, while milk lengthened it and water left it unchanged. Caffeinated coffee lengthened sleep duration reverses that result for coffee. Caffeinated beverages preserved slumber length is wrong, because the caffeinated drinks changed sleep rather than leaving it the same. Noncaffeinated beverages eroded sleep duration is wrong, because milk increased sleep and water had no effect.

  47. Which of the following is not an example of empirical data?

    • A.Reading courtyard rain gauge measurements
    • B.Recording afternoon pulse rates carefully
    • C.Measuring classroom air temperature daily
    • D.Hearing heavy overnight snowfall reported
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Hearing heavy overnight snowfall reported

    Hearing heavy overnight snowfall reported is not empirical data, because the listener neither observed the snow nor measured it; the information is secondhand. Reading courtyard rain gauge measurements is empirical, since a gauge directly measures rainfall. Recording afternoon pulse rates carefully is empirical, since counting a pulse is a direct measurement. Measuring classroom air temperature daily is empirical, since a thermometer reading is a direct measurement.

  48. Which of the following is the most plausible sequence of events?

    • A.Musical household; early immersion; guitar lessons; public concert
    • B.Seeds sown; irrigation withheld; seedlings flourish; ample harvest
    • C.Skipped lectures; failed exams; flawless grades; scholarship award
    • D.Daily cigarettes; stronger lungs; faster sprints; marathon victory
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Musical household; early immersion; guitar lessons; public concert

    Musical household; early immersion; guitar lessons; public concert is the most plausible sequence: a child born into a musical family grows up around music, starts learning an instrument, and after years of practice performs in concert, with each step making the next more likely. Seeds sown; irrigation withheld; seedlings flourish; ample harvest breaks down at the third step, because seedlings deprived of water wilt rather than flourish. Skipped lectures; failed exams; flawless grades; scholarship award breaks down because failed exams pull grades down rather than producing flawless ones. Daily cigarettes; stronger lungs; faster sprints; marathon victory breaks down because smoking damages the lungs and reduces endurance.

  49. Which of the following is the correct order of structures from simple to most complex?

    • A.Neurons, mitochondria, nerve tissues, brain
    • B.Mitochondria, neurons, brain, nerve tissues
    • C.Brain, nerve tissues, neurons, mitochondria
    • D.Mitochondria, neurons, nerve tissues, brain
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Mitochondria, neurons, nerve tissues, brain

    Mitochondria, neurons, nerve tissues, brain is correct. The levels of organization run organelle, cell, tissue, organ: mitochondria are organelles inside neurons, neurons are the cells that make up nerve tissue, and nerve tissue forms the brain, an organ. Neurons, mitochondria, nerve tissues, brain puts the cell before the organelle it contains. Mitochondria, neurons, brain, nerve tissues puts the organ before the tissue that builds it. Brain, nerve tissues, neurons, mitochondria runs from most complex to simplest, the reverse of the order asked for.

  50. A scientist collected the following set of data to examine the effects of exercise on patients’ heart rates. Patients were tasked with running 1 mile everyday for three days in the presence of the scientists. They were required to run the entire mile and were not allowed to walk. At the end of each mile run, the scientists measured the heart rates of the patients. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this data?

    • A.Afternoon humidity elevated participant heart rates
    • B.Physical exertion increased participant heart rates
    • C.Accumulated fitness lowered participant heart rates
    • D.Fluid depletion accelerated participant heart rates
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Physical exertion increased participant heart rates

    Physical exertion increased participant heart rates is the conclusion the data support: the heart rates measured at the end of each mile were well above the participants' resting rates. Afternoon humidity elevated participant heart rates is unsupported, because the weather and the time of day were not recorded. Accumulated fitness lowered participant heart rates is unsupported, because no measure of fitness was taken and the study did not set out to track training effects. Fluid depletion accelerated participant heart rates is unsupported, because hydration was never measured.

  51. During which year did the number of dracunculiasis cases first fall below the number of poliomyelitis cases?

    • A.2013
    • B.2012
    • C.2014
    • D.2015
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2013

    2013 is correct: on the graph this item was written for, the dracunculiasis line (orange) first drops below the poliomyelitis line (blue) in 2013, so that is the first year with fewer dracunculiasis cases than polio cases. 2012 is the year before the lines cross, when dracunculiasis cases still outnumbered polio cases; it is the classic misreading of where the lines meet. 2014 comes one year after the crossing, so by then the count had already fallen below. 2015 is later still, so it cannot be the first year either.

  52. Which of the following is true about SI Units?

    • A.SI units regard grams as fundamental quantities
    • B.SI units designate liters as primary dimensions
    • C.SI units classify seconds as derived quantities
    • D.SI units serve researchers as standard measures
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: SI units serve researchers as standard measures

    SI units serve researchers as standard measures is correct: the International System of Units is the measurement system scientists share around the world, so results can be compared without converting between systems. SI units regard grams as fundamental quantities is wrong, because the base unit of mass is the kilogram, not the gram. SI units designate liters as primary dimensions is wrong, because volume is a derived quantity built from length (the cubic meter), and the liter is not a base unit. SI units classify seconds as derived quantities is wrong, because the second is one of the seven base units: meter, kilogram, second, ampere, kelvin, mole, and candela.

  53. Review the data in this table, and then choose the statement that draws the best conclusion?

    • A.Sleep hours and test scores display correlation
    • B.Sleep hours and test scores fluctuate inversely
    • C.Sleep hours and test scores rise proportionally
    • D.Test scores and deadlines determine sleep hours
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Sleep hours and test scores display correlation

    Sleep hours and test scores display correlation is the best conclusion: in the table, students who slept longer tended to score higher, so the two variables rise together, a positive correlation. Sleep hours and test scores fluctuate inversely describes a negative correlation, the opposite of the pattern in the data. Sleep hours and test scores rise proportionally overstates the pattern, since students who slept 8 and 8.2 hours earned the same score. Test scores and deadlines determine sleep hours claims a cause running the other way, and the table records nothing about deadlines; a correlation by itself cannot show what causes what.

  54. Dandelions → Snail → Frog → Bird → Fox. Using the food chain above, which of the following terms best describes the trophic level of frogs?

    • A.Tertiary consumer
    • B.Quaternary consumer
    • C.Secondary consumer
    • D.Decomposer organism
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Secondary consumer

    Secondary consumer is correct: dandelions are the producers, snails eat the dandelions and are primary consumers, and frogs eat snails, which makes frogs secondary consumers. Tertiary consumer describes the bird, which eats the frog. Quaternary consumer describes the fox, at the top of this chain. Decomposer organism describes fungi and bacteria that break down dead matter, which is not how a frog gets its energy.

  55. To determine if tap water was making people sick, scientists asked one group of people to drink tap water for a week and another group to drink only bottled water. The results showed that the group that drank the tap water were sick after a week. What can be concluded from this experiment?

    • A.Tap water harbored infectious bacteria
    • B.Bottled water prevented stomach upsets
    • C.Tap water findings remain inconclusive
    • D.Municipal pipes contaminated tap water
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Tap water findings remain inconclusive

    Tap water findings remain inconclusive is correct: the two groups may have differed in more than their water, since nobody recorded or controlled the participants' diets or surroundings, so the illness cannot be traced to the tap water. Tap water harbored infectious bacteria names a specific cause that was never tested, because no water samples were analyzed. Bottled water prevented stomach upsets is unsupported, because staying well while drinking bottled water does not show that the water protected anyone. Municipal pipes contaminated tap water is unsupported, because the pipes were never examined.

  56. Which of the following statements correctly describes “sublimation”?

    • A.Vapor deposits quickly into solid
    • B.Solid changes directly into vapor
    • C.Solid melts gradually into liquid
    • D.Liquid boils gradually into vapor
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Solid changes directly into vapor

    Solid changes directly into vapor is correct: sublimation is the phase change in which a solid turns into a gas without passing through the liquid state, as dry ice does. Vapor deposits quickly into solid is deposition, the reverse process, as when frost forms from water vapor. Solid melts gradually into liquid is melting. Liquid boils gradually into vapor is vaporization, which starts from a liquid rather than a solid.

  57. Correctly identify X in the reaction below: 84210Po^{210}_{84}\text{Po} → X + 24He^{4}_{2}\text{He}

    • A.Polonium 206 (84 protons)
    • B.Lead 206 (82 protons)
    • C.Mercury 206 (80 protons)
    • D.Polonium 208 (84 protons)
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Lead 206 (82 protons)

    Lead 206 (82 protons) is correct. In alpha decay the nucleus emits an alpha particle, a helium-4 nucleus of 2 protons and 2 neutrons, so the mass number drops by 4 and the atomic number by 2: 210 minus 4 is 206, and 84 minus 2 is 82, and element 82 is lead. Polonium 206 (84 protons) subtracts the mass correctly but leaves the atomic number unchanged, so the element would still be polonium. Mercury 206 (80 protons) subtracts 4 from the atomic number as well as from the mass number, but an alpha particle carries only 2 protons. Polonium 208 (84 protons) takes only the alpha particle's 2 protons off the mass number and nothing off the atomic number.

  58. Which of the following substances will not dissolve in water?

    • A.Ca(NO3)2
    • B.Mg(OH)2
    • C.Mg(NO3)2
    • D.MgSO4
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Mg(OH)2

    Mg(OH)2 is correct: magnesium hydroxide is insoluble in water, because most hydroxides are insoluble except those of the group 1 metals and a few heavier group 2 metals. Ca(NO3)2 dissolves, because nitrate compounds are soluble. Mg(NO3)2 contains the same magnesium ion as the key but pairs it with nitrate, and nitrates are soluble. MgSO4 (Epsom salt) also contains magnesium and dissolves readily, because magnesium sulfate is one of the soluble sulfates.

  59. Which of the following traits are inherited from parents to offspring?

    • A.Dyed hair
    • B.Tanned skin
    • C.Eye color
    • D.Broken nose
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Eye color

    Eye color is correct: it is set by genes that pass from the biological parents to their offspring. Dyed hair is an acquired change; the dye alters the hair shaft, not the genes, so a child inherits the parents' natural hair color, not the dye. Tanned skin is acquired from sun exposure; natural skin color is inherited, but a tan is not passed on. Broken nose is an injury, and any change to the nose's shape comes from trauma, not from genetics.

  60. Predict the missing product of the following reaction: Zn+2 AgNOX3→2 Ag+?\ce{Zn + 2AgNO3 -> 2Ag + ?}

    • A.Zinc nitrate
    • B.Zinc nitride
    • C.Zinc nitrite
    • D.Nitric oxide
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Zinc nitrate

    Zinc nitrate is correct: this is a single replacement reaction in which zinc replaces silver, so the nitrate ions (NO3-) pair with zinc to form Zn(NO3)2. Zinc nitride (Zn3N2) is made of nitride ions (N3-), but no nitride is present; the nitrogen arrives as part of nitrate ions. Zinc nitrite, Zn(NO2)2, would need nitrite ions with one fewer oxygen, and the nitrate ions are not changed in this reaction. Nitric oxide is a gas that forms when nitric acid attacks some metals, and no acid or gas appears in this equation.

  61. Atomic mass does not include ________ in its calculation. The atomic number of an element is the number of ___________.

    • A.Electrons, neutrons
    • B.Electrons, protons
    • C.Neutrons, electrons
    • D.Protons, protons
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Electrons, protons

    Electrons, protons is correct: atomic mass counts the protons and neutrons in the nucleus, while electrons have so little mass that they are left out, and the atomic number is defined as the number of protons. Electrons, neutrons gets the first blank right but confuses the atomic number with the neutron count. Neutrons, electrons is wrong on the first blank, because neutrons make up much of an atom's mass, and the atomic number counts protons, which equal the electrons only in a neutral atom. Protons, protons is wrong on the first blank, because protons are counted in atomic mass.

  62. Which of these functions is NOT carried out by proteins?

    • A.Insulating internal body organs
    • B.Carrying blood oxygen molecules
    • C.Sending peptide hormone signals
    • D.Forming collagen support fibers
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Insulating internal body organs

    Insulating internal body organs is the function proteins do not carry out: fat tissue insulates and cushions the internal organs. Carrying blood oxygen molecules is a protein function, performed by hemoglobin in red blood cells. Sending peptide hormone signals is a protein function, since hormones such as insulin are proteins. Forming collagen support fibers is a protein function, because collagen is the main structural protein of skin, tendons, and bone.

  63. Enzymes are biological catalysts that ___________.

    • A.Elevate the barrier of any given reaction
    • B.Set the equilibrium of any given reaction
    • C.Accelerate the rate of any given reaction
    • D.Become the products of any given reaction
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Accelerate the rate of any given reaction

    Accelerate the rate of any given reaction is the keyed answer: enzymes speed up the reactions they catalyze by lowering the activation energy, and they are not used up in the process. Elevate the barrier of any given reaction is the reverse, because enzymes lower the energy barrier rather than raise it. Set the equilibrium of any given reaction is wrong, because an enzyme speeds the forward and reverse reactions equally and leaves the equilibrium point where it was. Become the products of any given reaction is wrong, because an enzyme comes out of the reaction unchanged and can be used again.

  64. Which of these statements best reflects the role of genes?

    • A.Genes code for antibodies, glycogen molecules, and ATP
    • B.Genes code for hormones, stored triglycerides, and RNA
    • C.Genes code for enzymes, nonenzymatic proteins, and RNA
    • D.Genes code for collagen, cholesterol droplets, and RNA
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Genes code for enzymes, nonenzymatic proteins, and RNA

    Genes code for enzymes, nonenzymatic proteins, and RNA is correct: a gene is a DNA sequence whose product is either a protein, which may be an enzyme or a nonenzymatic protein such as hemoglobin, or a functional RNA such as rRNA or tRNA. Genes code for antibodies, glycogen molecules, and ATP is wrong, because glycogen and ATP are built by enzymes from smaller molecules rather than encoded by genes. Genes code for hormones, stored triglycerides, and RNA is wrong, because triglycerides are lipids assembled by enzymes, not gene products. Genes code for collagen, cholesterol droplets, and RNA is wrong, because cholesterol is a lipid made through an enzyme pathway, not encoded directly.

  65. Which of these units code for a protein?

    • A.Codon triplet
    • B.Ribosomal subunit
    • C.Single nucleotide
    • D.Gene sequence
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Gene sequence

    Gene sequence is correct: a gene is a stretch of DNA whose sequence codes for a specific protein. Codon triplet codes for a single amino acid, so it is one small part of a gene's instructions rather than the unit for a whole protein. Ribosomal subunit is part of the machinery that reads the code and builds the protein, but it does not carry the code. Single nucleotide is one building block of DNA, and it takes three nucleotides to specify even one amino acid.

  66. Which of the following statements best describes the function of mRNA?

    • A.mRNA carries the coded sequence that guides translation
    • B.mRNA catalyzes the peptide bonds that assemble proteins
    • C.mRNA removes the intronic segments that interrupt genes
    • D.mRNA provides the anticodon loops that recognize codons
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: mRNA carries the coded sequence that guides translation

    mRNA carries the coded sequence that guides translation is correct: messenger RNA is transcribed from a gene and carries its codons to the ribosome, where they set the order of the amino acids. mRNA catalyzes the peptide bonds that assemble proteins describes rRNA, the catalytic RNA of the ribosome. mRNA removes the intronic segments that interrupt genes describes splicing, which the spliceosome performs on the pre-mRNA rather than mRNA doing it. mRNA provides the anticodon loops that recognize codons describes tRNA, which reads each mRNA codon with its anticodon.

  67. rRNA is responsible for which of the following functions?

    • A.rRNA binds mRNA, tRNA, and helper proteins to build polypeptides
    • B.rRNA moves serine, lysine, and valine to ribosome acceptor sites
    • C.rRNA removes introns, joins exons, and adds tails to transcripts
    • D.rRNA stores genes, alleles, and point mutations to retain traits
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: rRNA binds mRNA, tRNA, and helper proteins to build polypeptides

    rRNA binds mRNA, tRNA, and helper proteins to build polypeptides is correct: ribosomal RNA forms the core of the ribosome, holds the mRNA and the tRNAs in place together with accessory proteins, and catalyzes the peptide bonds that join amino acids into a protein. rRNA moves serine, lysine, and valine to ribosome acceptor sites describes tRNA, which carries each amino acid to the ribosome. rRNA removes introns, joins exons, and adds tails to transcripts describes RNA processing, done by the spliceosome and processing enzymes before an mRNA leaves the nucleus. rRNA stores genes, alleles, and point mutations to retain traits describes DNA, the molecule that stores hereditary information.

  68. Which of the following correctly defines genotype?

    • A.Genotype is the observable expression of traits an individual reveals
    • B.Genotype is the specific combination of alleles an individual carries
    • C.Genotype is the chromosomal location of genes an individual possesses
    • D.Genotype is the photographed array of chromosomes an individual bears
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Genotype is the specific combination of alleles an individual carries

    Genotype is the specific combination of alleles an individual carries is correct: an organism's genotype is the pair of alleles it has for a gene, such as Ee. Genotype is the observable expression of traits an individual reveals defines the phenotype, the traits that the genotype produces. Genotype is the chromosomal location of genes an individual possesses defines a locus, the position of a gene on a chromosome. Genotype is the photographed array of chromosomes an individual bears defines a karyotype, an image of the chromosomes arranged in pairs.

  69. The presence of two varying alleles of a gene is called a ____________ individual.

    • A.Homozygous
    • B.Multiallelic
    • C.Heterozygous
    • D.Pleiotropic
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Heterozygous

    Heterozygous is correct: an individual with two different alleles of a gene, such as Ee, is heterozygous. Homozygous describes an individual with two identical alleles, such as EE or ee. Multiallelic describes a gene that has more than two alleles in a population, while any one individual still carries only two. Pleiotropic describes a single gene that affects several traits, not the pairing of two alleles in one individual.

  70. An atom has 5 protons, 2 neutrons, and 5 electrons. Which of the following is the atom’s mass number?

    • A.2
    • B.10
    • C.7
    • D.11
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 7

    7 is correct: the mass number is the number of protons plus the number of neutrons, 5 + 2 = 7, and electrons have so little mass that they are not counted. 10 adds the protons and the electrons instead of the protons and the neutrons. 11 is the mass number of boron-11, the most common isotope of boron (the element with 5 protons), but this atom has only 2 neutrons, not 6. 2 is the number of neutrons alone.

  71. The number of ________ is the same across a period but increases when moving down a group?

    • A.Atomic diameter
    • B.Neutron numbers
    • C.Atomic numbers
    • D.Electron shells
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Electron shells

    "Electron shells" is correct: every element in one period fills the same number of occupied shells, and each step down a group adds one more shell. "Atomic diameter" does grow down a group, but it shrinks across a period as nuclear charge rises, so it is not the same across a period. "Atomic numbers" rise by one with each element across a period, so they are not constant there. "Neutron numbers" generally climb across a period as the elements get heavier, so they are not constant there either.

  72. Which of the following characteristics applies to the bonds holding together nonpolar covalent molecules?

    • A.Two atoms share a pair of electrons
    • B.One atom yields a pair of electrons
    • C.Many metals pool a sea of electrons
    • D.One proton ties a pair of molecules
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Two atoms share a pair of electrons

    "Two atoms share a pair of electrons" is correct: the bonds inside a nonpolar covalent molecule such as H2 or Cl2 are shared electron pairs, held equally by both atoms. "One atom yields a pair of electrons" describes electron transfer, which forms an ionic bond, not a shared covalent one. "Many metals pool a sea of electrons" describes metallic bonding, where valence electrons are delocalized across a lattice of metal cations. "One proton ties a pair of molecules" describes a hydrogen bond, in which a hydrogen nucleus bridges two separate molecules; it is a weak attraction between molecules, not the bond that holds a molecule together.

  73. Which of the following statements about osmosis is true?

    • A.Osmosis involves a selectively permeable membrane
    • B.Osmosis involves a substantial energy expenditure
    • C.Osmosis involves a phagocytic particle engulfment
    • D.Osmosis involves a hypertonic compartment outflow
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Osmosis involves a selectively permeable membrane

    "Osmosis involves a selectively permeable membrane" is correct: osmosis is the passive movement of water across a membrane that lets water through but holds back many solutes. "Osmosis involves a substantial energy expenditure" confuses it with active transport; osmosis is passive and uses no ATP. "Osmosis involves a phagocytic particle engulfment" describes phagocytosis, in which a cell wraps its membrane around a solid particle. "Osmosis involves a hypertonic compartment outflow" reverses the direction: water moves from the side with less solute into the hypertonic side, the one with more solute, not out of it.

  74. Which of the following components can be found in a phase graph?

    • A.Temperature and pressure as its axes
    • B.Altitude and temperature as its axes
    • C.Density and temperature as its axes
    • D.Volume and temperature as its axes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Temperature and pressure as its axes

    "Temperature and pressure as its axes" is correct: a phase diagram plots pressure against temperature and shows where the solid, liquid and gas phases exist, including the triple point and the critical point. "Altitude and temperature as its axes" describes an atmospheric temperature profile, which shows how air temperature changes with height. "Density and temperature as its axes" describes a density curve, such as the one showing water densest near 4 degrees Celsius. "Volume and temperature as its axes" describes a Charles's law graph for a gas, not a phase diagram.

  75. The amount of movement within a substance:

    • A.Depends on the substance's number of grams
    • B.Depends on the substance's pull of gravity
    • C.Depends on the substance's state of matter
    • D.Depends on the substance's material of jar
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Depends on the substance's state of matter

    "Depends on the substance's state of matter" is correct: particles in a solid only vibrate in place, particles in a liquid slide past one another, and particles in a gas move freely and rapidly. "Depends on the substance's number of grams" is wrong because a 5-gram sample and a 500-gram sample in the same state and at the same temperature have the same particle motion. "Depends on the substance's pull of gravity" is wrong because gravity acts on the sample as a whole, not on the random motion of its particles. "Depends on the substance's material of jar" is wrong because whether the container is glass or plastic does not change how the particles inside move.

  76. How many moles of OX2\ce{O2} will be produced when the reaction below is properly balanced? HX2OX2→HX2O+OX2\ce{H2O2 -> H2O + O2}

    • A.2 mol
    • B.1 mol
    • C.5 mol
    • D.8 mol
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1 mol

    Balancing the equation gives 2 H2O2 -> 2 H2O + O2, so 1 mol of O2 is produced, which is correct. 2 mol copies the coefficient of H2O2 or H2O onto O2, but O2 keeps the implied coefficient of 1. 5 mol adds every coefficient in the equation (2 + 2 + 1) instead of reading the one in front of O2. 8 mol counts the atoms on one side of the balanced equation (4 hydrogen and 4 oxygen), which is a count of atoms, not of moles of O2.

  77. Which of the following is an example of a redox reaction?

    • A.Neutralization
    • B.Combustion
    • C.Polymerization
    • D.Precipitation
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Combustion

    "Combustion" is correct: in combustion, oxygen gas (oxidation state 0) is reduced to oxide in the products (oxidation state -2) while the fuel is oxidized, so electrons are transferred. "Neutralization" is an acid-base reaction in which a proton moves from the acid to the base, and no oxidation state changes. "Polymerization" links monomers into a chain, as when ethylene becomes polyethylene, without any atom being oxidized or reduced. "Precipitation" is a double-replacement reaction in which ions swap partners and form an insoluble solid, with every ion keeping its charge.

  78. Which of the following statements is true?

    • A.A field-site experiment is always more accurate than a lab-controlled experiment.
    • B.A few-subject experiment is always more reliable than a multi-subject experiment.
    • C.A one-trial experiment is always more accurate than a repeated-trials experiment.
    • D.A double-blind experiment is always more accurate than a single-blind experiment.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A double-blind experiment is always more accurate than a single-blind experiment.

    "A double-blind experiment is always more accurate than a single-blind experiment." is the keyed answer: hiding the treatment from both the subjects and the researchers removes researcher bias that a single-blind design leaves in place. "A field-site experiment is always more accurate than a lab-controlled experiment." is false because a field site gives up the control over variables that a lab provides. "A few-subject experiment is always more reliable than a multi-subject experiment." is false because testing more subjects reduces the effect of chance and gives more reliable results. "A one-trial experiment is always more accurate than a repeated-trials experiment." is false because repeating trials is what averages out random error; a single run is more easily thrown off by chance.

  79. Which of the following correctly describes a conclusion?

    • A.An untested-idea statement
    • B.An instrument-logged value
    • C.An evidence-based judgment
    • D.An unaided-eye observation
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: An evidence-based judgment

    "An evidence-based judgment" is correct: a conclusion states, after the data are analyzed, whether the evidence supports or refutes the hypothesis. "An untested-idea statement" describes the hypothesis, which is written before the experiment is run. "An instrument-logged value" is a single data point, raw material for a conclusion rather than the conclusion itself. "An unaided-eye observation" describes an observation, the starting point that prompts a question and a hypothesis, not the judgment reached at the end.

  80. Steps involved in natural selection include: 1. Differing survival rates when faced with environmental challenges. 2. Preservation of genetic traits of best-adapted offspring. 3. Overproduction of offspring that have different variations in genetic traits. Which of the following is the sequence in which these steps take place?

    • A.3,2,1
    • B.2,3,1
    • C.3,1,2
    • D.1,3,2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3,1,2

    "3,1,2" is correct: a population first overproduces offspring that vary in their traits (step 3), those variations then lead to different survival rates under environmental challenges (step 1), and the survivors pass on and preserve the traits of the best-adapted offspring (step 2). "3,2,1" has traits preserved before any challenge has sorted the survivors. "2,3,1" starts with preserved traits before the variation they come from exists. "1,3,2" has the environmental challenge come first and cause the variation, which is the inheritance-of-acquired-traits error; variation exists before selection acts on it.

  81. A nurse has to give a patient a tablet drug. Which of the following are the best units to use when writing in the chart how much of the drug was delivered?

    • A.mg of drug/kg of body weight
    • B.mL of drug/kg of actual mass
    • C.mg of dose/lbs of total mass
    • D.mg of drug/kg of fat tissues
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: mg of drug/kg of body weight

    "mg of drug/kg of body weight" is correct: a tablet is a solid, so the drug is measured by mass in milligrams, and weight-based doses are written against the patient's body weight in kilograms. "mL of drug/kg of actual mass" uses a volume unit, which fits a liquid preparation, not a tablet. "mg of dose/lbs of total mass" uses pounds, but clinical weight-based dosing is charted in metric kilograms to avoid conversion errors. "mg of drug/kg of fat tissues" bases the dose on fat alone instead of the patient's whole body weight.

  82. Proper design of an experiment must maximize _______ and minimize ________.

    • A.Variables and precision; bias
    • B.Accuracy and precision; tests
    • C.Accuracy and precision; bias
    • D.Variables and accuracy; bias
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Accuracy and precision; bias

    "Accuracy and precision; bias" is correct: a well-designed experiment uses controls and careful measurement so its results are accurate and precise, and it minimizes bias that would skew them. "Variables and precision; bias" is wrong because a good experiment changes only one independent variable at a time; adding variables makes the cause of a result impossible to identify. "Accuracy and precision; tests" is wrong because cutting the number of tests or trials makes results less reliable; repeated trials are part of good design. "Variables and accuracy; bias" makes the same many-variables error, even though it pairs it with accuracy.

  83. Movement of molecules in a substance depends on _______ energy.

    • A.Chemical
    • B.Electric
    • C.Thermal
    • D.Magnetic
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Thermal

    "Thermal" is correct: thermal (heat) energy is the energy of moving particles, so as a substance gains heat its molecules move faster, and as it loses heat they slow down. "Chemical" energy is stored in the bonds between atoms and is released when those bonds change in a reaction. "Electric" energy is carried by moving charges in a circuit, not by the random motion of molecules in a substance. "Magnetic" energy is stored in magnetic fields, such as those around a magnet or a coil carrying current.

  84. Which of the following carry the genetic code for all the functioning and characteristics of a cell?

    • A.Nucleic acids
    • B.Simple sugars
    • C.Fat molecules
    • D.Cell proteins
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Nucleic acids

    "Nucleic acids" is correct: DNA and RNA are nucleic acids, and their base sequences carry the genetic code for all of a cell's functions and traits. "Cell proteins" are built according to the genetic code and carry out the work it specifies, but they do not store the code themselves. "Fat molecules" are lipids used for energy storage, insulation and cell membranes. "Simple sugars" such as glucose are carbohydrate monomers that supply quick energy.

  85. Which of the following statements is true about covalent bonds?

    • A.Covalent bonds form when metals shed electrons
    • B.Covalent bonds form when atoms share electrons
    • C.Covalent bonds form when electrons roam freely
    • D.Covalent bonds form when opposite ions attract
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Covalent bonds form when atoms share electrons

    "Covalent bonds form when atoms share electrons" is correct: in a covalent bond two atoms, usually nonmetals, hold one or more pairs of electrons in common. "Covalent bonds form when metals shed electrons" describes the electron transfer that produces ions for an ionic bond. "Covalent bonds form when electrons roam freely" describes metallic bonding, where delocalized electrons move through a lattice of metal cations. "Covalent bonds form when opposite ions attract" describes the electrostatic attraction that holds an ionic compound together.

  86. Which of these is an example of a monosaccharide?

    • A.Sucrose
    • B.Lactose
    • C.Maltose
    • D.Glucose
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Glucose

    "Glucose" is correct: it is a single six-carbon sugar unit, a monosaccharide that cells use directly for energy. "Sucrose" is a disaccharide, table sugar, made of glucose joined to fructose. "Lactose" is a disaccharide, milk sugar, made of glucose joined to galactose. "Maltose" is a disaccharide made of two glucose units joined together.

  87. Which of the following compounds contains ionic bonds?

    • A.BrCl
    • B.NaBr
    • C.HOCl
    • D.HOBr
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: NaBr

    "NaBr" is correct: sodium is a metal and bromine is a nonmetal, so sodium transfers an electron to bromine and the ions are held by ionic bonds. "BrCl" joins two nonmetals, bromine and chlorine, which share electrons in a covalent bond. "HOCl" and "HOBr" are built only from nonmetals (hydrogen, oxygen and a halogen), so their atoms are held by covalent bonds even though both are weak acids that release a few ions in water.

  88. Which type of chemical reaction is demonstrated by the reaction below? Ba(NOX3)X2+NaX2SOX4→BaSOX4+2 NaNOX3\ce{Ba(NO3)2 + Na2SO4 -> BaSO4 + 2NaNO3}

    • A.Metal displacement
    • B.Synthesis reaction
    • C.Double replacement
    • D.Combustion process
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Double replacement

    "Double replacement" is correct: the barium and sodium cations trade anions, so barium nitrate and sodium sulfate become barium sulfate and sodium nitrate. "Metal displacement" is a single-displacement reaction in which a free metal pushes another metal out of its compound, but no free metal appears here. "Synthesis reaction" would combine simpler substances into one product, but two compounds react to give two products. "Combustion process" needs a fuel reacting with oxygen gas to release energy, and no oxygen gas is involved.

  89. Which of these nitrogenous bases are present in RNA?

    • A.Adenine, thymine, cytosine, and ribose
    • B.Adenine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine
    • C.Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine
    • D.Guanine, cytosine, phosphate, and sugar
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Adenine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine

    "Adenine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine" is correct: these are the four nitrogenous bases of RNA, with uracil taking the place that thymine holds in DNA. "Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine" is the base set of DNA; RNA has no thymine. "Adenine, thymine, cytosine, and ribose" includes thymine, a DNA-only base, and ribose, which is RNA's sugar rather than a base. "Guanine, cytosine, phosphate, and sugar" names parts of the RNA backbone, which are not nitrogenous bases, and leaves out adenine and uracil.

  90. Which of the following correct states the role of DNA?

    • A.Translation of messenger RNA into polypeptide
    • B.Conversion of carbohydrate molecules into ATP
    • C.Transcription of genetic information into RNA
    • D.Exportation of RNA transcripts into cytoplasm
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Transcription of genetic information into RNA

    "Transcription of genetic information into RNA" is correct: DNA serves as the template that is copied into RNA, mostly messenger RNA, during transcription. "Translation of messenger RNA into polypeptide" is carried out by ribosomes and transfer RNA, after the message has left the DNA. "Conversion of carbohydrate molecules into ATP" is cellular respiration, which takes place largely in the mitochondria. "Exportation of RNA transcripts into cytoplasm" is done by nuclear pore proteins that move finished RNA out of the nucleus, not by the DNA itself.

  91. Which of these are the nitrogenous bases present in DNA?

    • A.Adenine, guanine, uracil, and phosphate
    • B.Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine
    • C.Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil
    • D.Guanine, cytosine, sugar, and phosphate
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine

    "Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine" is correct: these are the four nitrogenous bases of DNA, with adenine pairing with thymine and guanine pairing with cytosine. "Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil" is the base set of RNA; DNA uses thymine instead of uracil. "Adenine, guanine, uracil, and phosphate" swaps in uracil, an RNA base, and phosphate, which is part of the backbone rather than a base. "Guanine, cytosine, sugar, and phosphate" names the sugar-phosphate backbone, which is not made of nitrogenous bases, and leaves out adenine and thymine.

  92. Isotopes are __________.

    • A.Species of one element with a different number of electrons
    • B.Solids of one element with a different arrangement of atoms
    • C.Particles of one element with a different number of protons
    • D.Versions of one element with a different number of neutrons
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Versions of one element with a different number of neutrons

    "Versions of one element with a different number of neutrons" is correct: isotopes share the same number of protons, so they are the same element, but differ in neutrons and therefore in mass number, as carbon-12 and carbon-14 do. "Species of one element with a different number of electrons" describes ions, which carry a charge because electrons were gained or lost. "Solids of one element with a different arrangement of atoms" describes allotropes, such as diamond and graphite. "Particles of one element with a different number of protons" is impossible, because changing the number of protons changes the atomic number and makes a different element.

  93. Which of the following statements correctly describes the inheritance of traits in humans?

    • A.Both the parents produce different haploid gametes via meiosis that fertilize to form a diploid zygote.
    • B.Both the parents generate different diploid gametes via meiosis that merge to form a tetraploid embryo.
    • C.Both the parents generate different haploid spores via meiosis that unite to form a diploid individual.
    • D.Both the parents make different haploid gametes via meiosis that combine to form a triploid individual.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Both the parents produce different haploid gametes via meiosis that fertilize to form a diploid zygote.

    "Both the parents produce different haploid gametes via meiosis that fertilize to form a diploid zygote." is correct: each diploid parent makes haploid sperm or eggs by meiosis, and the union of one gamete from each parent restores the diploid number in the zygote. "Both the parents generate different diploid gametes via meiosis that merge to form a tetraploid embryo." is wrong because meiosis halves the chromosome number, so gametes are haploid, not diploid, and the zygote is diploid. "Both the parents generate different haploid spores via meiosis that unite to form a diploid individual." is wrong because humans do not make spores; the haploid cells that join in human reproduction are gametes, the sperm and the egg. "Both the parents make different haploid gametes via meiosis that combine to form a triploid individual." is wrong because two haploid sets add up to a diploid set, not a triploid one.

  94. In a redox reaction, oxidation is the _______ of electrons and reduction is the _______ of electrons.

    • A.Gain, release
    • B.Gain, gain
    • C.Loss, gain
    • D.Share, uptake
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Loss, gain

    "Loss, gain" is correct: oxidation is the loss of electrons and reduction is the gain of electrons, remembered as OIL RIG (Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain). "Gain, release" reverses the two, since gaining electrons is reduction and releasing them is oxidation. "Gain, gain" makes both processes the same, but in a redox reaction one species must lose the electrons that the other gains. "Share, uptake" describes reduction correctly as an uptake of electrons but calls oxidation a sharing of electrons, which is covalent bonding rather than a loss.

  95. Which of the following can be classified as an intensive property?

    • A.Volume
    • B.Enthalpy
    • C.Momentum
    • D.Density
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Density

    "Density" is correct: an intensive property does not depend on how much of the substance is present, and a drop of water and a gallon of water have the same density. "Volume" doubles when the amount of the substance doubles, so it is extensive. "Enthalpy" is the total heat content of a sample, which grows with the amount of material. "Momentum" is mass times velocity, so a larger sample moving at the same speed has more of it.

  96. Which of these statements is true about pH?

    • A.A pH of 9 is more sour than a pH of 4
    • B.A pH of 6 is more acidic than a pH of 8
    • C.A pH of 5 is more caustic than a pH of 9
    • D.A pH of 1 is more neutral than a pH of 5
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A pH of 6 is more acidic than a pH of 8

    "A pH of 6 is more acidic than a pH of 8" is correct: a lower pH means a higher hydrogen ion concentration, so 6 is more acidic than 8. "A pH of 9 is more sour than a pH of 4" makes the classic error of reading a higher pH as more hydrogen ions; sourness comes from acids, and a pH of 9 is basic, with far fewer hydrogen ions than a pH of 4. "A pH of 5 is more caustic than a pH of 9" is false because caustic means strongly basic, and 9 is basic while 5 is slightly acidic. "A pH of 1 is more neutral than a pH of 5" is false because neutral is 7, and 5 is two units away while 1 is six.

  97. Which of the following is a unique property of water?

    • A.When heating, water molecules can gain temperature far more easily
    • B.When mixing, water molecules can surround oily solutes more easily
    • C.When boiling, water molecules can yield oxygen bubbles more easily
    • D.When freezing, water molecules can form hydrogen bonds more easily
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: When freezing, water molecules can form hydrogen bonds more easily

    "When freezing, water molecules can form hydrogen bonds more easily" is correct: as water cools toward freezing its molecules slow down, so the hydrogen bonds between them hold long enough to lock the molecules into an open hexagonal lattice. "When heating, water molecules can gain temperature far more easily" is wrong because water has a high specific heat and warms slowly. "When mixing, water molecules can surround oily solutes more easily" is wrong because water is polar and does not dissolve nonpolar, oily substances well. "When boiling, water molecules can yield oxygen bubbles more easily" is wrong because boiling only separates whole water molecules from one another; the bubbles are water vapor, and the molecules themselves stay intact.

  98. Which of the following is an example of a macromolecule that acts as a catalyst in biochemical reactions?

    • A.Amylase
    • B.Insulin
    • C.Keratin
    • D.Albumin
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Amylase

    "Amylase" is correct: it is an enzyme, a protein that speeds up the breakdown of starch into sugars without being used up, and most enzyme names end in -ase. "Insulin" is a protein hormone that signals cells to take up glucose; it does not catalyze a reaction. "Keratin" is a structural protein found in hair, skin and nails. "Albumin" is a blood protein that carries substances and helps maintain fluid balance.

  99. Which of these is the start codon?

    • A.AUG
    • B.UAC
    • C.TAC
    • D.UGA
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: AUG

    "AUG" is correct: it is the start codon on messenger RNA, and it also codes for methionine. "UAC" is the anticodon on the transfer RNA that pairs with AUG, not the codon itself. "TAC" is the triplet on the DNA template strand that is transcribed into AUG, and DNA uses thymine where RNA uses uracil. "UGA" is one of the three stop codons, which end translation.

  100. Which of these is NOT a role of chromosomes?

    • A.It inhibits the cell processes.
    • B.It packages the genetic matter.
    • C.It carries the inherited genes.
    • D.It encodes the physical traits.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It inhibits the cell processes.

    "It inhibits the cell processes." is correct because it is NOT a role of chromosomes: chromosomes direct cell processes through the proteins their genes encode rather than shutting those processes down. "It packages the genetic matter." is a real role, since a chromosome is DNA coiled tightly around proteins. "It carries the inherited genes." is a real role, since each chromosome holds genes passed down from a parent. "It encodes the physical traits." is a real role, since genes on chromosomes code for traits such as height and eye color.

  101. Which of the hereditary units is responsible for carrying genetic information from parents to offspring?

    • A.DNA
    • B.RNA
    • C.ATP
    • D.ADP
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: DNA

    "DNA" is correct: genes are segments of DNA, and copies of a parent's DNA passed on in the egg and sperm carry genetic information to the offspring. "RNA" is made from DNA inside each cell and carries its instructions to the ribosomes, but it is not the molecule passed from parent to offspring. "ATP" is the cell's energy carrier, made and spent constantly, and it holds no genetic code. "ADP" is what remains after ATP gives up a phosphate to release energy; it is recharged to ATP and carries no inherited information either.

  102. The presence of genes contributes to the entire cell functioning and unique character traits. How are these genes inherited?

    • A.The two alleles in a complementary gene group are averaged, one from the mother and one from the father, during conception.
    • B.The two alleles in a complementary gene segment are inherited, one from the mother and one from the father, during mitosis.
    • C.The two alleles in a particular gene pair are inherited, one from the mother and one from the father, during fertilization.
    • D.The two alleles in a chromosomal gene location are inherited, one from the egg and one from the sperm, during implantation.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The two alleles in a particular gene pair are inherited, one from the mother and one from the father, during fertilization.

    "The two alleles in a particular gene pair are inherited, one from the mother and one from the father, during fertilization." is correct: each gamete carries one allele of every gene, so the zygote formed at fertilization receives one allele from each parent. "The two alleles in a complementary gene group are averaged, one from the mother and one from the father, during conception." is wrong because alleles stay separate and distinct rather than averaging out; Mendel showed that a hidden recessive allele can reappear unchanged in a later generation. "The two alleles in a complementary gene segment are inherited, one from the mother and one from the father, during mitosis." is wrong because mitosis only copies a body cell's existing alleles; the parents' alleles come together at fertilization. "The two alleles in a chromosomal gene location are inherited, one from the egg and one from the sperm, during implantation." is wrong because implantation happens days after fertilization, when the embryo attaches to the uterus; both alleles are already in place by then.

  103. What are alleles?

    • A.Alleles are an observed trait of a gene.
    • B.Alleles are an exact position of a gene.
    • C.Alleles are an encoded enzyme of a gene.
    • D.Alleles are an alternate form of a gene.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Alleles are an alternate form of a gene.

    "Alleles are an alternate form of a gene." is correct: a gene for a trait such as hair color can exist in different versions, and each version is an allele; a person inherits one allele from each parent. "Alleles are an observed trait of a gene." describes the phenotype, the trait that is expressed. "Alleles are an exact position of a gene." describes the gene's locus on a chromosome. "Alleles are an encoded enzyme of a gene." describes a gene product, the protein made from the gene's instructions.

  104. Which of these acts as the first source of energy in the human body?

    • A.Triglycerides
    • B.Carbohydrates
    • C.Phospholipids
    • D.Glycoproteins
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Carbohydrates

    "Carbohydrates" is correct: the body breaks carbohydrates down to glucose and uses them first because they release energy quickly. "Triglycerides" are fats, which the body draws on as a second, slower source of energy when carbohydrates run low. "Phospholipids" are built into cell membranes as structural molecules rather than burned for fuel. "Glycoproteins" are proteins with sugar chains attached that act as cell-surface markers and receptors, and proteins are used for energy only as a last resort.

  105. The same single-replacement reaction is run in two different beakers. The beakers are labeled as Beaker A and B and are heated to 75oC and 100oC, respectively. If the reactions are run for 15 minutes each, which of the following results would you expect to observe?

    • A.Beaker A reacts more violently than Beaker B
    • B.Beaker B expends more catalyst than Beaker A
    • C.Beaker A shows more collisions than Beaker B
    • D.Beaker B produces more product than Beaker A
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Beaker B produces more product than Beaker A

    "Beaker B produces more product than Beaker A" is correct: at the higher temperature particles move faster and collide more often and with more energy, so the reaction runs faster and makes more product in the same 15 minutes. "Beaker A reacts more violently than Beaker B" reverses the effect of temperature on reaction rate. "Beaker B expends more catalyst than Beaker A" is wrong because a catalyst is not used up in a reaction, and none is described here. "Beaker A shows more collisions than Beaker B" is wrong because the cooler beaker has slower particles and therefore fewer collisions.

  106. BrX2\ce{Br2} is classified as which of the following?

    • A.Compound
    • B.Anion
    • C.Isotope
    • D.Molecule
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Molecule

    "Molecule" is correct: Br2 is two bromine atoms joined by a covalent bond, and any particle of two or more bonded atoms is a molecule. "Compound" requires two or more different elements, but Br2 contains only bromine. "Anion" is a negatively charged ion such as Br-, but Br2 has no charge. "Isotope" refers to a single atom with a particular number of neutrons, while Br2 is two atoms bonded together.

  107. Which of the following correctly describes the function of codons?

    • A.Codons transport the amino acid that docks into ribosomes.
    • B.Codons unwind the double helix that separates into halves.
    • C.Codons encode the amino acid that translates into protein.
    • D.Codons attach the amino acid that bonds into polypeptides.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Codons encode the amino acid that translates into protein.

    "Codons encode the amino acid that translates into protein." is correct: each three-base codon on messenger RNA specifies one amino acid, so the codon sequence sets the order of amino acids in the protein. "Codons transport the amino acid that docks into ribosomes." describes transfer RNA, which carries amino acids to the ribosome. "Codons unwind the double helix that separates into halves." describes the enzyme helicase during DNA replication. "Codons attach the amino acid that bonds into polypeptides." describes the ribosome, which forms the peptide bonds that link amino acids.

  108. Which of the following statements is true about hydrogen bonds?

    • A.They form between persistent electrical charges on adjacent ions
    • B.They form between opposite partial charges on separate molecules
    • C.They form between shared valence electrons on isolated molecules
    • D.They form between temporary induced charges on neutral molecules
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: They form between opposite partial charges on separate molecules

    "They form between opposite partial charges on separate molecules" is correct: a hydrogen bond is the attraction between the slightly positive hydrogen of one polar molecule and a slightly negative atom such as oxygen on another. "They form between persistent electrical charges on adjacent ions" describes ionic bonding between fully charged ions. "They form between shared valence electrons on isolated molecules" describes covalent bonds inside a molecule, which are much stronger than hydrogen bonds. "They form between temporary induced charges on neutral molecules" describes London dispersion forces, the weakest attractions between nonpolar molecules.

  109. Which of the following definitions is correct?

    • A.Solids have a constant weight but not a constant volume.
    • B.Liquids have a constant volume but not a constant shape.
    • C.Gases have a constant volume but not a constant density.
    • D.Gases have a constant density but not a constant weight.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Liquids have a constant volume but not a constant shape.

    "Liquids have a constant volume but not a constant shape." is correct: liquid particles stay close together, so the volume resists change, but they slide past one another and take the shape of the container. "Solids have a constant weight but not a constant volume." is wrong because a solid keeps both a definite volume and a definite shape. "Gases have a constant volume but not a constant density." is wrong because a gas spreads out to fill its container, so it has no constant volume. "Gases have a constant density but not a constant weight." is wrong because a gas's density changes as it expands or compresses, while its weight stays the same.

  110. Which of these is responsible for determining the sex of an individual?

    • A.Gonadotropin
    • B.Testosterone
    • C.Mitochondria
    • D.Chromosomes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Chromosomes

    Chromosomes is correct: sex is set at fertilization by the sex chromosomes, XX in a female and XY in a male, and a gene on the Y chromosome directs the gonads to become testes. Gonadotropin is wrong because this pituitary hormone (FSH or LH) only stimulates gonads that already exist; it does not decide whether they become testes or ovaries. Testosterone is wrong because the testes make it only after sex has already been set; it shapes male traits rather than deciding sex. Mitochondria is wrong because these organelles produce ATP and carry a small amount of maternal DNA that plays no part in setting sex.

  111. Which of the following is not true about the lymphatic system?

    • A.Lymph nodes catch both bacteria and stray viral debris
    • B.Gut lacteals take up both dietary fats and cholesterol
    • C.Lymph vessels transport both red and white blood cells
    • D.Lymph flow drains both tissue fluid and plasma protein
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Lymph vessels transport both red and white blood cells

    Lymph vessels transport both red and white blood cells is the statement that is not true: lymph carries white blood cells such as lymphocytes, but red blood cells stay inside the blood vessels and are not a normal part of lymph. Lymph nodes catch both bacteria and stray viral debris is true, because the macrophages and lymphocytes packed into each node filter pathogens out of the lymph passing through. Gut lacteals take up both dietary fats and cholesterol is true, because these lymphatic capillaries in the intestinal villi absorb chylomicrons that carry triglycerides and cholesterol. Lymph flow drains both tissue fluid and plasma protein is true, because lymphatic vessels collect the fluid and proteins that leak out of capillaries and return them to the bloodstream.

  112. Which of the following describes the function of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum?

    • A.Manufacture and release of steroids
    • B.Formation and delivery of ribosomes
    • C.Breakdown and removal of organelles
    • D.Synthesis and transport of proteins
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Synthesis and transport of proteins

    Synthesis and transport of proteins is correct: rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes that build proteins, which the reticulum folds and ships in vesicles toward the Golgi apparatus. Manufacture and release of steroids describes smooth endoplasmic reticulum, which has no ribosomes and makes lipids and steroid hormones. Formation and delivery of ribosomes is the work of the nucleolus; rough endoplasmic reticulum only hosts finished ribosomes on its surface. Breakdown and removal of organelles is carried out by lysosomes, whose digestive enzymes recycle worn-out cell parts.

  113. In the digestive system, the function of the ____________ is to ______________.

    • A.Gallbladder; manufacture bile for lipid digestion
    • B.Liver; secrete lipases for triglyceride digestion
    • C.Stomach; secrete pepsinogen for protein digestion
    • D.Pancreas; secrete glucagon for glucose absorption
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Stomach; secrete pepsinogen for protein digestion

    Stomach; secrete pepsinogen for protein digestion is correct: chief cells in the gastric glands release pepsinogen, which stomach acid converts to pepsin, the enzyme that begins protein digestion. Gallbladder; manufacture bile for lipid digestion is wrong because the liver makes bile, and the gallbladder only stores and concentrates it. Liver; secrete lipases for triglyceride digestion is wrong because the digestive secretion of the liver is bile; the lipase that digests dietary fat comes from the pancreas. Pancreas; secrete glucagon for glucose absorption is wrong because glucagon is a hormone that raises blood glucose by acting on the liver; glucose is absorbed from the small intestine by carrier proteins in its lining cells, with no help from glucagon.

  114. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is primarily responsible for stimulating activities that would increase alertness during periods of stress and anxiety. Which of the following activities is not a sympathetic response?

    • A.Accelerated heartbeat
    • B.Inhibited peristalsis
    • C.Heightened salivation
    • D.Glycogen mobilization
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Heightened salivation

    Heightened salivation is not a sympathetic response: a flow of watery saliva is a rest-and-digest effect of the parasympathetic division, while sympathetic stimulation leaves the mouth dry. Accelerated heartbeat is sympathetic, since norepinephrine speeds the heart to pump more blood under stress. Inhibited peristalsis is sympathetic, because fight-or-flight slows digestive motility and diverts blood to the skeletal muscles. Glycogen mobilization is sympathetic, because epinephrine makes the liver break down glycogen and release glucose for fuel.

  115. The primary function of _____________ is _____________________.

    • A.Lactase; starch hydrolysis in the small intestine
    • B.Bile; lipid emulsification in the small intestine
    • C.Pepsin; protein hydrolysis in the small intestine
    • D.Amylase; protein digestion in the large intestine
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Bile; lipid emulsification in the small intestine

    Bile; lipid emulsification in the small intestine is correct: bile made by the liver and stored in the gallbladder breaks large fat globules into small droplets in the duodenum so that lipase can reach them. Lactase; starch hydrolysis in the small intestine is wrong because lactase splits the milk sugar lactose, while starch is digested by amylase. Pepsin; protein hydrolysis in the small intestine is wrong because pepsin works in the acidic stomach and is inactivated by the alkaline contents of the intestine. Amylase; protein digestion in the large intestine is wrong because amylase digests starch, and protein digestion is completed in the small intestine, not the large intestine.

  116. Which of the following lists the blood vessels in the order of blood flow from the left ventricle back to the heart at the right atrium?

    • A.Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, veins, venules, vena cava
    • B.Aorta, arteries, capillaries, arterioles, venules, veins, vena cava
    • C.Aorta, arteries, capillaries, arterioles, veins, venules, vena cava
    • D.Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava

    Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava is correct: the left ventricle ejects blood into the aorta, which branches into arteries and then smaller arterioles; exchange happens in the capillaries, and blood returns through venules that merge into veins and finally the vena cava, which empties into the right atrium. Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, veins, venules, vena cava is wrong because venules come first after the capillaries and join to form veins. Aorta, arteries, capillaries, arterioles, venules, veins, vena cava is wrong because arterioles feed the capillaries, so they come before them. Aorta, arteries, capillaries, arterioles, veins, venules, vena cava makes both errors, placing arterioles after the capillaries and veins ahead of venules.

  117. Voluntarily holding your breath will eventually result in:

    • A.An innate reflex to start breathing due to depleted arterial oxygen levels
    • B.An innate reflex to start breathing due to raised plasma alkalinity levels
    • C.An innate reflex to start breathing due to heightened blood lactate levels
    • D.An innate reflex to start breathing due to increased carbon dioxide levels
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: An innate reflex to start breathing due to increased carbon dioxide levels

    An innate reflex to start breathing due to increased carbon dioxide levels is correct: carbon dioxide that is not exhaled forms carbonic acid, and central chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata sense the rising acidity and override the voluntary breath-hold. An innate reflex to start breathing due to depleted arterial oxygen levels is the common misconception; oxygen falls too slowly during a breath-hold to be the main trigger, and low oxygen drives breathing strongly only once it drops far below normal. An innate reflex to start breathing due to raised plasma alkalinity levels is wrong because retained carbon dioxide makes the blood more acidic, not more alkaline. An innate reflex to start breathing due to heightened blood lactate levels is wrong because lactate comes from anaerobic muscle work and is not the signal that ends a breath-hold.

  118. Which of the following statements is correct?

    • A.Gonads yield diploid gametes in males and in females.
    • B.Gonads comprise testes in males and uteri in females.
    • C.Gonads produce semen in males and zygotes in females.
    • D.Gonads manufacture sperm in males and ova in females.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Gonads manufacture sperm in males and ova in females.

    Gonads manufacture sperm in males and ova in females. That is correct: the gonads are the testes and the ovaries, where meiosis produces the gametes. Gonads yield diploid gametes in males and in females. That is wrong, because meiosis halves the chromosome number, so sperm and ova are haploid. Gonads comprise testes in males and uteri in females. That is wrong, because the female gonads are the ovaries; the uterus is the organ where an embryo implants. Gonads produce semen in males and zygotes in females. That is wrong, because most of the fluid in semen comes from the seminal vesicles and prostate, and a zygote forms only when a sperm fertilizes an ovum, usually in a uterine tube.

  119. Function of male and female reproductive system is regulated by hormones. Which of the following is not correct?

    • A.Ovarian follicles secrete estrogen.
    • B.Luteal cells generate progesterone.
    • C.Pituitary hormones cause ovulation.
    • D.Cowper glands produce testosterone.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cowper glands produce testosterone.

    Cowper glands produce testosterone. That statement is not correct: the Cowper (bulbourethral) glands secrete a clear mucus that lubricates the urethra, while testosterone comes from the interstitial (Leydig) cells of the testes. Ovarian follicles secrete estrogen. That is true, since the granulosa cells of growing follicles produce estrogen. Luteal cells generate progesterone. That is true, because the corpus luteum left behind after ovulation secretes progesterone. Pituitary hormones cause ovulation. That is true, because a surge of luteinizing hormone from the anterior pituitary triggers release of the oocyte.

  120. Which of the following anatomical structures prevents food from entering the respiratory system?

    • A.Epiglottis
    • B.Nasopharynx
    • C.Bronchioles
    • D.Esophagus
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    Correct answer: Epiglottis

    Epiglottis is correct: this leaf-shaped flap of elastic cartilage folds down over the opening of the larynx during swallowing, steering food into the esophagus instead of the trachea. Nasopharynx is wrong because it is an air passage behind the nasal cavity, a space food is kept out of rather than a structure that does the guarding. Bronchioles is wrong because these small airways lie deep in the lungs, far below the point where the food and air passages divide. Esophagus is wrong because it is the food tube itself and has no flap that closes the airway.

  121. A lung with a low level of compliance could be best described as _____________.

    • A.A floppy hyperinflated lung trapping air owing to slackened recoil
    • B.A twitchy lung resisting incoming air to inflamed narrowed bronchi
    • C.A stiff lung requiring extra work to accomplish ordinary breathing
    • D.A lung diffusing oxygen slowly owing to scant alveolar capillaries
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A stiff lung requiring extra work to accomplish ordinary breathing

    A stiff lung requiring extra work to accomplish ordinary breathing is correct: compliance measures how easily the lung stretches, so low compliance, as in pulmonary fibrosis, means the respiratory muscles must work harder for each breath. A floppy hyperinflated lung trapping air owing to slackened recoil describes high compliance, as seen in emphysema. A twitchy lung resisting incoming air to inflamed narrowed bronchi describes increased airway resistance, as in asthma, which is a different property from compliance. A lung diffusing oxygen slowly owing to scant alveolar capillaries describes impaired gas exchange, not a change in how easily the lung expands.

  122. Which of the following terms correctly describes the movement of air in and out of the lungs?

    • A.Inspiration
    • B.Respiration
    • C.Oxygenation
    • D.Ventilation
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    Correct answer: Ventilation

    Ventilation is correct: it is the bulk movement of air into and out of the lungs, made up of inspiration and expiration. Inspiration is wrong because it names only the inward half of that cycle. Respiration is wrong because it refers to gas exchange and to the use of oxygen by cells to release energy, not to moving air. Oxygenation is wrong because it is the loading of oxygen onto hemoglobin in the blood, which happens after air has reached the alveoli.

  123. Which of the following functions in producing sperm?

    • A.Seminiferous tubules
    • B.Bulbourethral glands
    • C.Epididymal ducts
    • D.Ejaculatory ducts
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    Correct answer: Seminiferous tubules

    Seminiferous tubules is correct: these tightly coiled tubules inside each testis are where spermatogenesis takes place. Bulbourethral glands is wrong because these small glands secrete a clear mucus that lubricates the urethra before ejaculation. Epididymal ducts is wrong because the epididymis stores sperm and lets them mature after they have already been produced. Ejaculatory ducts is wrong because these short passages only carry sperm and seminal fluid into the urethra.

  124. Which of the following is true about thermoregulation?

    • A.Eccrine perspiration carries heat off through the skin
    • B.Constricted dermal vessels expel heat through the skin
    • C.Rhythmic muscle tremors disperse heat through the skin
    • D.Contracted arrector pili vent warmth through the hairs
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Eccrine perspiration carries heat off through the skin

    Eccrine perspiration carries heat off through the skin is correct: in hot conditions the eccrine glands release watery sweat, and as it evaporates from the skin surface it carries body heat away and cools the body. Constricted dermal vessels expel heat through the skin is wrong because narrowing the dermal vessels keeps warm blood away from the surface and so conserves heat. Rhythmic muscle tremors disperse heat through the skin is wrong because shivering generates heat that warms the body rather than releasing it. Contracted arrector pili vent warmth through the hairs is wrong because raised hairs trap a layer of air that insulates the skin, a response that conserves heat.

  125. Which of the following structures is not correctly matched with its function?

    • A.Cervix/ site of zygote implantation
    • B.Oviduct/ site of ovum fertilization
    • C.Ovary/ site of follicle development
    • D.Uterus/ site of placental formation
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    Correct answer: Cervix/ site of zygote implantation

    Cervix/ site of zygote implantation is the incorrect match: the cervix is the narrow neck that joins the uterus to the vagina, and implantation normally takes place in the wall of the uterus. Oviduct/ site of ovum fertilization is correctly matched, since fertilization usually occurs in the uterine tube. Ovary/ site of follicle development is correctly matched, because follicles and the oocytes inside them mature in the ovary. Uterus/ site of placental formation is correctly matched, because the placenta develops where the embryo implants in the uterine wall.

  126. Which of the following statements is not true about accessory structures in the skin?

    • A.Arrector pili muscles are anchored to hair follicles and dermis
    • B.Eccrine sweat glands are confined to armpit and genital regions
    • C.Sebaceous glands are joined to hair follicles and secrete sebum
    • D.Ceruminous glands are limited to ear canals and produce cerumen
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    Correct answer: Eccrine sweat glands are confined to armpit and genital regions

    Eccrine sweat glands are confined to armpit and genital regions is the statement that is not true: eccrine glands are spread over nearly the whole body surface, most densely on the palms, soles and forehead, while the glands concentrated in the armpits and genital region are apocrine sweat glands. Arrector pili muscles are anchored to hair follicles and dermis is true, since each small muscle runs from a follicle to the upper dermis and raises the hair when it contracts. Sebaceous glands are joined to hair follicles and secrete sebum is true, because most sebaceous glands empty their oily sebum into a follicle. Ceruminous glands are limited to ear canals and produce cerumen is true, because these modified sweat glands occur only in the external ear canal, where they make earwax.

  127. Which of the following is true of the function sebaceous glands?

    • A.Moisten palms and foot soles with watery sweat
    • B.Lubricate hair and outer skin with fatty sebum
    • C.Harden finger and toe nails with tough keratin
    • D.Scent armpits and pubic areas with musky fluid
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    Correct answer: Lubricate hair and outer skin with fatty sebum

    Lubricate hair and outer skin with fatty sebum is correct: sebaceous glands release sebum, usually into hair follicles, which keeps hair and skin supple and helps prevent drying. Moisten palms and foot soles with watery sweat describes eccrine sweat glands; the palms and soles have no sebaceous glands. Harden finger and toe nails with tough keratin describes the nail matrix, whose cells fill with hard keratin as they build the nail. Scent armpits and pubic areas with musky fluid describes apocrine sweat glands, whose secretion becomes odorous once skin bacteria break it down.

  128. Which of the following is the largest organ of the human body?

    • A.Liver
    • B.Brain
    • C.Skin
    • D.Heart
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    Correct answer: Skin

    Skin is correct: it covers the whole body with a surface area of about 1.5 to 2 square meters and accounts for around 15 percent of body weight, more than any other organ. Liver is wrong because it is the largest internal organ but is still much smaller than the skin. Brain is wrong because it weighs about 1.4 kilograms, far less than the skin. Heart is wrong because it is roughly the size of a fist and weighs only about 300 grams.

  129. Which of the following processes reduces heat loss and warms the body via integumental thermoregulation?

    • A.Peripheral vasodilation
    • B.Evaporative diaphoresis
    • C.Dermal vasoconstriction
    • D.Apocrine hypersecretion
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    Correct answer: Dermal vasoconstriction

    Dermal vasoconstriction is correct: in the cold, the arterioles of the dermis narrow, so less warm blood flows near the surface and less heat escapes through the skin. Peripheral vasodilation is wrong because widening the skin vessels sends more blood to the surface and releases heat, which cools the body. Evaporative diaphoresis is wrong because sweating removes heat as the sweat evaporates. Apocrine hypersecretion is wrong because the apocrine glands of the armpits and groin respond mainly to emotional stress and do nothing to hold in body heat.

  130. Which of the following is true of insulin and glucagon?

    • A.Insulin and glucagon play opposite roles to steady blood glucose
    • B.Insulin and glucagon digest dietary starch to release free sugar
    • C.Insulin and glucagon jointly reduce plasma sugar to store energy
    • D.Adrenal cells secrete insulin and glucagon to fight acute stress
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    Correct answer: Insulin and glucagon play opposite roles to steady blood glucose

    Insulin and glucagon play opposite roles to steady blood glucose is correct: insulin from the pancreatic beta cells lowers blood glucose and glucagon from the alpha cells raises it, and together they hold glucose within a narrow range. Insulin and glucagon digest dietary starch to release free sugar is wrong because both are hormones carried in the blood, while starch is digested by amylase. Insulin and glucagon jointly reduce plasma sugar to store energy is wrong because insulin alone lowers blood sugar; glucagon raises it. Adrenal cells secrete insulin and glucagon to fight acute stress is wrong because both hormones come from the pancreatic islets, not the adrenal glands.

  131. The response elicited by signals coming from endocrine glands is characterized by which of the following?

    • A.Sudden onset and extended effect
    • B.Immediate onset and brief effect
    • C.Tardy onset and transient effect
    • D.Gradual onset and lengthy effect
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Gradual onset and lengthy effect

    Gradual onset and lengthy effect is correct: hormones must travel through the bloodstream and then change gene expression or enzyme activity in their target cells, so endocrine responses take longer to begin and last longer than nervous responses. Sudden onset and extended effect is wrong because an endocrine response cannot begin suddenly; the hormone must first reach its target through the blood. Immediate onset and brief effect describes a nervous system response, which begins within milliseconds and ends quickly. Tardy onset and transient effect is wrong because, although the onset is slow, an endocrine response lasts for minutes to days rather than being brief.

  132. The folds that make up the shape of the villi and microvilli:

    • A.Push chyme onward through wavelike muscle contractions
    • B.Aid nutrient absorption through increased surface area
    • C.Neutralize gastric acid through alkaline mucus release
    • D.Filter ingested microbes through dense lymphoid tissue
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    Correct answer: Aid nutrient absorption through increased surface area

    Aid nutrient absorption through increased surface area is correct: villi and the microvilli on their cells multiply the surface area of the small intestine many times over, giving nutrients far more membrane to cross. Push chyme onward through wavelike muscle contractions describes peristalsis, which is produced by the muscularis layer, not by the villi. Neutralize gastric acid through alkaline mucus release describes the duodenal glands and pancreatic bicarbonate, not the villi and microvilli. Filter ingested microbes through dense lymphoid tissue describes the Peyer patches of the ileum, which are lymphoid nodules rather than villi.

  133. Which of the following describes the contraction of the smooth muscle in order to move food down the esophagus to the stomach?

    • A.Deglutition
    • B.Haustration
    • C.Peristalsis
    • D.Lubrication
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    Correct answer: Peristalsis

    Peristalsis is correct: waves of contraction in the circular and longitudinal smooth muscle of the esophageal wall squeeze food downward into the stomach. Deglutition is wrong because it names the whole act of swallowing, which begins as a voluntary push by skeletal muscles of the tongue and pharynx; the smooth muscle wave itself is peristalsis. Haustration is wrong because it describes the slow churning contractions of the pouches of the large intestine, far from the esophagus. Lubrication is wrong because the mucus and saliva that coat a swallowed bolus only ease its passage; the muscle contractions are what actually move it.

  134. Which of the following steps of protein synthesis occurs in the nucleus?

    • A.Translation of mRNA to protein
    • B.Transport of mRNA to ribosomes
    • C.Transcription of genes to mRNA
    • D.Elongation of chain to protein
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    Correct answer: Transcription of genes to mRNA

    Transcription of genes to mRNA is correct: inside the nucleus, RNA polymerase copies the DNA sequence of a gene into messenger RNA, which then leaves through the nuclear pores. Translation of mRNA to protein is wrong because ribosomes read the mRNA codons and assemble the polypeptide in the cytoplasm, not in the nucleus. Transport of mRNA to ribosomes is wrong because the mRNA meets ribosomes only after it has passed out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm. Elongation of chain to protein is wrong because the growing amino acid chain is lengthened on ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

  135. Which of the following is the name of the imaginary vertical plane that equally divides the body into left and right?

    • A.Coronal plane
    • B.Transverse plane
    • C.Horizontal plane
    • D.Sagittal plane
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    Correct answer: Sagittal plane

    Sagittal plane is correct: a sagittal plane is vertical and runs from front to back, and the one through the midline, the midsagittal plane, splits the body into equal left and right halves. Coronal plane is wrong because this vertical plane divides the body into anterior and posterior parts. Transverse plane is wrong because it is horizontal and separates superior from inferior parts. Horizontal plane is wrong for the same reason, since it is another name for the transverse plane.

  136. Which of the following refers to the process of nerve stimulation wherein the action potential is generated through several stimulations released in rapid succession by a single source?

    • A.Temporal summation
    • B.Spatial summation
    • C.Wave summation
    • D.Neural convergence
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    Correct answer: Temporal summation

    Temporal summation is correct: one presynaptic neuron fires repeatedly in rapid succession, and the graded potentials add together before they fade until the membrane reaches threshold. Spatial summation is wrong because it adds inputs that arrive at the same time from several different neurons. Wave summation is wrong because it is the adding together of skeletal muscle twitches when a muscle fiber is stimulated again before it relaxes, a muscle event rather than the generation of a nerve action potential. Neural convergence is wrong because it describes many presynaptic neurons sending input to one neuron, the wiring that makes spatial summation possible.

  137. Which of the following parts of neurons is correctly paired with its function?

    • A.Dendrites/ conduct impulses toward nearby neurons
    • B.Cell body/ emits neurotransmitters toward targets
    • C.Axon/ conducts impulses toward synaptic terminals
    • D.Myelin sheath/ produces impulses toward effectors
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    Correct answer: Axon/ conducts impulses toward synaptic terminals

    Axon/ conducts impulses toward synaptic terminals is correct: the axon carries the action potential away from the cell body to the axon terminals, where neurotransmitter is released. Dendrites/ conduct impulses toward nearby neurons is wrong because dendrites receive signals from other neurons and carry them toward the cell body. Cell body/ emits neurotransmitters toward targets is wrong because neurotransmitters are released from the axon terminals; the cell body holds the nucleus and carries out most of the metabolic work of the cell. Myelin sheath/ produces impulses toward effectors is wrong because myelin produces no impulses; it insulates the axon so the impulse jumps from node to node faster.

  138. In order for the heart to contract, an action potential must be generated at the sinoatrial node. If this signal fails to reach the Purkinje fibers, what will be the result?

    • A.Purkinje fibers will push ventricles faster
    • B.Purkinje fibers will await cerebral signals
    • C.Purkinje fibers will become slow pacemakers
    • D.Stalled ventricles will pool stagnant blood
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    Correct answer: Purkinje fibers will become slow pacemakers

    Purkinje fibers will become slow pacemakers is correct: conducting cells below the block can fire on their own, so the Purkinje fibers take over as pacemaker, but at only about 20 to 40 beats per minute instead of the 60 to 100 set by the sinoatrial node. Purkinje fibers will push ventricles faster is wrong because the intrinsic rate of the Purkinje fibers is the slowest in the conduction system. Purkinje fibers will await cerebral signals is wrong because the heart generates its own beat; the brain only speeds or slows it through autonomic nerves. Stalled ventricles will pool stagnant blood is wrong because the backup pacemaker activity of the Purkinje fibers keeps the ventricles contracting.

  139. Which of the following correctly pairs an action with the nervous system that controls it?

    • A.Food digestion/ autonomic
    • B.Wrist rotation/ autonomic
    • C.Sweat production/ somatic
    • D.Finger flexion/ autonomic
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Food digestion/ autonomic

    Food digestion/ autonomic is correct: the movements and secretions of the digestive tract are involuntary and are regulated by the autonomic nervous system. Wrist rotation/ autonomic is wrong because turning the wrist is a voluntary skeletal muscle action controlled by the somatic nervous system. Sweat production/ somatic is wrong because sweat glands are stimulated by sympathetic fibers, which belong to the autonomic nervous system. Finger flexion/ autonomic is wrong because bending the fingers is also a voluntary skeletal muscle action under somatic control.

  140. Which of the following substances is produced by the lung for the purpose of reducing surface tension?

    • A.Airway mucus
    • B.Surfactant
    • C.Serous fluid
    • D.Lysozyme
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Surfactant

    Surfactant is correct: type II alveolar cells secrete this mixture of phospholipids and proteins, which lowers the surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli so they do not collapse. Airway mucus is wrong because goblet cells produce mucus to trap inhaled particles, not to change surface tension inside the alveoli. Serous fluid is wrong because the pleural membranes produce it to reduce friction between the lungs and the chest wall, outside the alveoli. Lysozyme is wrong because it is an antibacterial enzyme in airway secretions with no effect on surface tension.

  141. Which of the following processes correctly describe the formation of new cells in order to replace worn-out and damaged cells during injury?

    • A.Meiosis
    • B.Mitosis
    • C.Fission
    • D.Osmosis
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    Correct answer: Mitosis

    Mitosis is correct: it divides one cell into two genetically identical daughter cells, which is how the body replaces worn-out and injured cells. Meiosis is wrong because it produces haploid gametes for reproduction, not replacement body cells. Fission is wrong because binary fission is the way bacteria divide, not human tissue cells. Osmosis is wrong because it is the movement of water across a membrane and forms no new cells.

  142. Which of the following is not a function of pulmonary surfactant?

    • A.Averted alveolar collapse
    • B.Decreased lung compliance
    • C.Minimized surface tension
    • D.Stabilized alveolar sizes
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    Correct answer: Decreased lung compliance

    Decreased lung compliance is not a function of surfactant: by lowering surface tension, surfactant makes the lungs easier to inflate, so it raises compliance rather than reducing it. Averted alveolar collapse is a real function, because lower surface tension keeps small alveoli open at the end of expiration. Minimized surface tension is its primary action, since its phospholipids weaken the attraction between the water molecules lining the alveoli. Stabilized alveolar sizes is also a function, because surfactant keeps small and large alveoli at similar pressures so the small ones do not empty into the large ones.

  143. Which of the following is not located on the anterior region of the human body?

    • A.Vertebral column
    • B.Costal cartilage
    • C.Clavicular shaft
    • D.Pectoral muscles
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    Correct answer: Vertebral column

    Vertebral column is correct: the spine runs along the posterior, or dorsal, side of the trunk. Costal cartilage is anterior, joining the front ends of the ribs to the sternum. Clavicular shaft is anterior, since the collarbone runs across the front of the upper chest. Pectoral muscles are anterior, covering the front of the chest wall.

  144. ______________ is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the alveolar membrane.

    • A.Vesicular uptake
    • B.Simple diffusion
    • C.Osmotic movement
    • D.Fluid filtration
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Simple diffusion

    Simple diffusion is correct: oxygen moves from the alveoli, where its concentration is high, into the pulmonary capillaries, where it is low, while carbon dioxide moves the opposite way down its own gradient, with no energy spent. Vesicular uptake is wrong because engulfing material in membrane vesicles is used for large particles, while small gas molecules pass straight through the membrane. Osmotic movement is wrong because osmosis is the diffusion of water across a membrane, not of gases. Fluid filtration is wrong because filtration is pushed by hydrostatic pressure, as in the kidney, rather than driven by concentration differences.

  145. Which of the types of tissue is responsible for providing the matrix that supports and connects other tissues of the body?

    • A.Connective tissue
    • B.Simple epithelium
    • C.Muscle tissue
    • D.Nervous tissue
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Connective tissue

    Connective tissue is correct: its cells are scattered through an extracellular matrix of fibers and ground substance that supports and binds other tissues, as in bone, cartilage, tendons and blood. Simple epithelium is wrong because epithelial tissue covers surfaces and lines cavities, with very little matrix between its cells. Muscle tissue is wrong because it is specialized to contract and produce movement. Nervous tissue is wrong because it is specialized to generate and conduct electrical signals.

  146. Which of the following conditions would exhibit an increase in lung compliance?

    • A.Emphysema
    • B.Pneumonia
    • C.Silicosis
    • D.Scoliosis
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Emphysema

    Emphysema is correct: destruction of the alveolar walls and their elastic fibers leaves the lungs floppy, so they inflate easily but recoil poorly, which is an increase in compliance. Pneumonia is wrong because fluid and inflammatory cells fill the alveoli and make the lungs harder to inflate. Silicosis is wrong because inhaled silica dust scars the lung tissue, and the fibrosis stiffens the lungs and lowers compliance. Scoliosis is wrong because the curved spine deforms the chest wall and restricts expansion rather than increasing lung compliance.

  147. Which of the following correctly describes the flow of blood through the heart’s primary chambers?

    • A.Right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, and left ventricle
    • B.Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle
    • C.Left atrium, left ventricle, right atrium, and right ventricle
    • D.Left atrium, right atrium, left ventricle, and right ventricle
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle

    Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle is correct: blood returning from the body enters the right atrium, passes to the right ventricle, is pumped to the lungs, returns to the left atrium and is then pumped out to the body by the left ventricle. Right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, and left ventricle is wrong because in the adult heart blood cannot pass from the right atrium to the left atrium; the interatrial septum separates them. Left atrium, left ventricle, right atrium, and right ventricle is wrong because the passage through the heart begins on the right side, where blood returns from the body. Left atrium, right atrium, left ventricle, and right ventricle is wrong because blood does not cross directly between the left and right chambers after birth.

  148. Which of the following lists the heart’s primary valves in the order in which blood passes through them?

    • A.Bicuspid, aortic semilunar valve, tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar valve
    • B.Tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar valve, bicuspid, aortic semilunar valve
    • C.Tricuspid, bicuspid, pulmonary semilunar valve, aortic semilunar valve
    • D.Bicuspid, tricuspid, aortic semilunar valve, pulmonary semilunar valve
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar valve, bicuspid, aortic semilunar valve

    Tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar valve, bicuspid, aortic semilunar valve is correct: blood passes from the right atrium through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, leaves through the pulmonary semilunar valve to the lungs, returns to the left atrium, crosses the bicuspid (mitral) valve into the left ventricle and exits through the aortic semilunar valve. Bicuspid, aortic semilunar valve, tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar valve is wrong because it starts on the left side, while blood returning from the body enters the right side first. Tricuspid, bicuspid, pulmonary semilunar valve, aortic semilunar valve is wrong because blood must leave the right ventricle through the pulmonary valve before it can reach the left side of the heart. Bicuspid, tricuspid, aortic semilunar valve, pulmonary semilunar valve is wrong because each semilunar valve is passed right after the atrioventricular valve on its own side, not after both atrioventricular valves.

  149. Which of the following describes the role of acetylcholine in muscle contraction?

    • A.Acetylcholine binds sarcolemma receptors and opens sodium channels
    • B.Acetylcholine binds troponin proteins and shifts tropomyosin aside
    • C.Acetylcholine binds myosin crossbridges and slides actin filaments
    • D.Acetylcholine binds sarcoplasmic reticulum and frees bound calcium
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Acetylcholine binds sarcolemma receptors and opens sodium channels

    Acetylcholine binds sarcolemma receptors and opens sodium channels is correct. When a motor neuron fires, it releases acetylcholine into the neuromuscular junction; the transmitter binds receptors on the sarcolemma and opens their sodium channels, so sodium rushes in and depolarizes the muscle fiber. Acetylcholine binds troponin proteins and shifts tropomyosin aside is wrong, because that is the role of calcium, which binds troponin only after it has been released inside the fiber. Acetylcholine binds myosin crossbridges and slides actin filaments is wrong, because ATP, not acetylcholine, powers the myosin heads that pull the thin filaments. Acetylcholine binds sarcoplasmic reticulum and frees bound calcium is wrong: acetylcholine acts at the outer surface of the fiber, and the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases its calcium later, when the depolarization spreads inward along the T-tubules.

  150. Dopamine is one of the neurotransmitters in the nervous system. What happens when dopamine is released into the nerve synapse?

    • A.Dopamine migrates bloodborne toward peripheral targets
    • B.Dopamine binds postsynaptic membrane receptor proteins
    • C.Dopamine undergoes fast cholinesterase enzyme cleavage
    • D.Dopamine traverses intercellular gap junction channels
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Dopamine binds postsynaptic membrane receptor proteins

    Dopamine binds postsynaptic membrane receptor proteins is what happens. The presynaptic terminal releases dopamine into the synaptic cleft, and the molecules diffuse across the cleft and bind receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, which changes the activity of that cell. Dopamine migrates bloodborne toward peripheral targets describes a hormone; a neurotransmitter released at a synapse acts locally across the cleft. Dopamine undergoes fast cholinesterase enzyme cleavage is wrong, because cholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine; dopamine is cleared mainly by reuptake into the presynaptic terminal and by the enzymes MAO and COMT. Dopamine traverses intercellular gap junction channels confuses the two kinds of synapse: gap junctions pass ions directly from cell to cell at electrical synapses, while dopamine signals chemically across a cleft.

  151. Which of the following types of muscles are involuntary?

    • A.Skeletal and cardiac
    • B.Cardiac tissue alone
    • C.Cardiac and visceral
    • D.Skeletal and smooth
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cardiac and visceral

    Cardiac and visceral is correct. Cardiac muscle in the heart and visceral (smooth) muscle in the walls of hollow organs and blood vessels contract without conscious control, while skeletal muscle is voluntary. Skeletal and cardiac pairs the two striated types, but striations do not make a muscle involuntary; skeletal muscle moves the limbs when we decide to move them. Cardiac tissue alone leaves out visceral muscle, which also works involuntarily, for example when it pushes food along the gut by peristalsis. Skeletal and smooth wrongly includes skeletal muscle and leaves out the heart.

  152. Which of the following functional types of nerves is correctly paired with the impulse it carries?

    • A.Afferent / send impulses from receptors to the CNS
    • B.Efferent / convey impulses from sensors to the CNS
    • C.Afferent / pass impulses from the CNS to effectors
    • D.Efferent / deliver impulses from glands to the CNS
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Afferent / send impulses from receptors to the CNS

    Afferent / send impulses from receptors to the CNS is correct: afferent (sensory) nerves carry signals inward from receptors to the central nervous system, the brain and spinal cord. Efferent / convey impulses from sensors to the CNS gives the sensory route to the wrong nerve type; efferent nerves carry motor signals outward. Afferent / pass impulses from the CNS to effectors reverses the afferent direction, since signals going out to muscles and glands travel on efferent (motor) nerves. Efferent / deliver impulses from glands to the CNS is also reversed: efferent nerves carry commands from the central nervous system out to glands and muscles, not back from them.

  153. Which of the following glands are not found in both males and females?

    • A.Bulbourethral glands
    • B.Mammary gland tissue
    • C.Sebaceous oil glands
    • D.Ceruminous glands
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Bulbourethral glands

    Bulbourethral glands, also called Cowper's glands, are the answer: they occur only in males, where they sit beside the urethra and secrete mucus that lubricates it. Mammary gland tissue is present in both sexes; it stays rudimentary in males and develops in females at puberty. Sebaceous oil glands open into hair follicles over the skin of males and females alike. Ceruminous glands, which make earwax in the ear canal, are present in everyone.

  154. Which of the following is the process by which gametes divide and produce half the number of chromosomes found in a somatic cell?

    • A.Mitosis
    • B.Fission
    • C.Meiosis
    • D.Fusion
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Meiosis

    Meiosis is correct. In meiosis a germ cell divides twice, so the gametes it produces carry half the chromosome number of a somatic (body) cell, and fertilization later restores the full set in the zygote. Mitosis produces daughter cells with the same chromosome number as the parent cell; it is the division used for growth and repair. Fission, as in the binary fission of bacteria, copies the cell's DNA and splits it into two identical cells, so it does not halve the chromosomes. Fusion of two gametes at fertilization doubles the chromosome number back to the full set rather than halving it, and it is not a division at all.

  155. Which of the following organs functions as both the implantation site of a fertilized ovum and the pathway for sperm to reach the uterine tubes?

    • A.Ovary
    • B.Placenta
    • C.Oviducts
    • D.Uterus
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Uterus

    Uterus is correct: a fertilized ovum normally implants in the uterine lining, and sperm swim up through the uterine cavity to reach the uterine tubes. Ovary is wrong, because the ovary releases the ovum but neither receives the embryo nor carries sperm. Placenta is wrong; it forms from embryonic and maternal tissue after implantation, so it is not the site where implantation takes place. Oviducts is wrong: the oviducts are the uterine tubes themselves, where fertilization usually happens, and an embryo that implants there is an ectopic pregnancy, not a normal one.

  156. Which of the following is not a part of the male reproductive system?

    • A.Bladder
    • B.Prostate
    • C.Vas deferens
    • D.Cowper gland
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Bladder

    Bladder is correct: the urinary bladder stores urine and belongs to the urinary system, not the male reproductive system, even though it sits right beside the reproductive glands. Prostate is wrong, because the prostate gland wraps around the urethra just below the bladder and adds a milky fluid to semen. Vas deferens is wrong; it is the duct that carries sperm from the epididymis up over the bladder toward the urethra. Cowper gland is wrong, because the Cowper (bulbourethral) gland secretes mucus that lubricates the urethra before ejaculation.

  157. Which of the following glands is correctly paired with its secretion?

    • A.Sebaceous glands / protective cerumen that may act as a barrier
    • B.Apocrine glands / odoriferous fluid that may act as a pheromone
    • C.Ceruminous glands / evaporative sweat that may act as a coolant
    • D.Eccrine glands / waterproof sebum that may act as a moisturizer
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Apocrine glands / odoriferous fluid that may act as a pheromone

    Apocrine glands / odoriferous fluid that may act as a pheromone is the correct pairing: apocrine sweat glands in the armpits and groin release a thicker secretion that bacteria break down into odor, and it may serve a pheromone role in humans. Sebaceous glands / protective cerumen that may act as a barrier is wrong, because cerumen (earwax) comes from ceruminous glands in the ear canal; sebaceous glands make sebum. Ceruminous glands / evaporative sweat that may act as a coolant is wrong, because cooling sweat comes from eccrine glands; ceruminous glands make earwax. Eccrine glands / waterproof sebum that may act as a moisturizer is wrong, because sebum, the oil that softens hair and skin, comes from sebaceous glands; eccrine glands make watery sweat.

  158. The condition ________________ can often lead to ________________ due to buildup and blockage of coronary arteries, preventing blood flow to the myocardium.

    • A.Atherosclerosis; myocardial infarction
    • B.Cardiomyopathy; myocardial infarction
    • C.Arteriosclerosis; renal artery stenosis
    • D.Atherosclerosis; pulmonary hypertension
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Atherosclerosis; myocardial infarction

    Atherosclerosis; myocardial infarction is correct. Atherosclerosis is the buildup of fatty plaque inside artery walls; when plaque narrows or blocks a coronary artery, or ruptures and sets off a clot there, the heart muscle beyond it is starved of blood and dies, which is a myocardial infarction (heart attack). Cardiomyopathy; myocardial infarction names the right outcome but the wrong condition: cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart muscle itself, not a buildup inside the coronary arteries. Arteriosclerosis; renal artery stenosis describes narrowing of the arteries to the kidneys, not blockage of the coronary arteries that feed the myocardium. Atherosclerosis; pulmonary hypertension names high pressure in the arteries of the lungs, which does not come from blocked coronary arteries and does not cut off blood to the heart muscle.

  159. Which of the following is the middle, vascular layer of the skin?

    • A.Epithelium
    • B.Hypodermis
    • C.Dermis
    • D.Myocardium
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Dermis

    Dermis is correct: the dermis lies between the epidermis and the hypodermis, and it is the thick, vascular layer whose blood vessels nourish the avascular epidermis above it. Epithelium is wrong, because the epithelium of the skin forms the epidermis, the outermost layer, which has no blood vessels of its own. Hypodermis is wrong; it is the layer beneath the dermis, made largely of fat and loose connective tissue. Myocardium is wrong: it is the middle, well-vascularized layer of the heart wall, not a layer of the skin.

  160. Blood pressure is recorded as two numbers, for example 110/70. The top number (110) represents ___________ blood pressure which is ____________________________.

    • A.Systolic; pressure at contraction
    • B.Diastolic; pressure at contraction
    • C.Systolic; pressure at refill time
    • D.Diastolic; pressure at refill time
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Systolic; pressure at contraction

    Systolic; pressure at contraction is correct: the top number is the systolic pressure, the peak pressure in the arteries while the ventricles contract and eject blood. Diastolic; pressure at contraction gives the wrong name, because diastole is the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle. Systolic; pressure at refill time gives the right name but the wrong phase: refill time is when the ventricles relax and fill, which is diastole. Diastolic; pressure at refill time correctly describes the bottom number (70), the lowest arterial pressure while the heart relaxes and refills, so it does not describe the top number.

  161. In which layer of the skin are the subcutaneous fat stores found?

    • A.Dermal layer
    • B.Epidermis
    • C.Basal lamina
    • D.Hypodermis
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Hypodermis

    Hypodermis is correct: the hypodermis, also called the subcutaneous layer, lies beneath the dermis and is made largely of adipose tissue, so it holds the body's subcutaneous fat stores. Dermal layer is wrong, because the dermis is the vascular connective tissue layer that carries blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, and glands; the fat lies beneath it. Epidermis is wrong, because it is the outer, avascular layer of keratinized epithelium. Basal lamina is wrong; it is the thin sheet that anchors the epidermis to the dermis, not a fat store.

  162. The ______________ is an extension off of the large intestine that is often referred to as a vestigial organ.

    • A.Cecum
    • B.Adenoids
    • C.Appendix
    • D.Duodenum
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Appendix

    Appendix is correct: the appendix is a small, finger-like tube that extends from the large intestine, and because its function is unclear (it may hold a reserve of gut bacteria), it is often called vestigial. Cecum is wrong, because the cecum is the pouch at the start of the large intestine that the appendix hangs from; it receives material from the ileum and is part of the intestine itself. Adenoids is wrong; adenoids are lymphatic tissue at the back of the nasal cavity, not part of the intestine. Duodenum is wrong, because it is the first part of the small intestine, where much of chemical digestion takes place.

  163. Which layers of the skin are affected by a third-degree burn?

    • A.Epidermis and full dermis
    • B.Epidermis and upper dermis
    • C.Outer and inner epidermis
    • D.Skin and deep muscle layer
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Epidermis and full dermis

    Epidermis and full dermis is correct: a third-degree (full-thickness) burn destroys the epidermis and the whole depth of the dermis, including its nerve endings, so the burned area may feel numb. Epidermis and upper dermis describes a second-degree (partial-thickness) burn, which spares the deeper dermis. Outer and inner epidermis describes a first-degree burn, which stays within the epidermis. Skin and deep muscle layer describes a fourth-degree burn, which extends through the skin into muscle and even bone.

  164. Melatonin is the hormone that regulates sleep-and-wake rhythm. Which of the following endocrine glands is responsible for producing melatonin?

    • A.Parathyroid
    • B.Pineal body
    • C.Hypothalamus
    • D.Thymus gland
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Pineal body

    Pineal body is correct: the pineal body, or pineal gland, in the brain secretes melatonin, mostly at night, to set the sleep-wake rhythm. Parathyroid is wrong, because the parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone, which raises blood calcium. Hypothalamus is wrong; it houses the body's master clock and signals the pineal gland when to release melatonin, but it does not produce the hormone itself. Thymus gland is wrong, because the thymus secretes thymosins that help T cells mature.

  165. In the digestive system, bile is manufactured by the ______________ and stored in the ______________.

    • A.Liver; small bowel
    • B.Pancreas; gallbladder
    • C.Liver; gallbladder
    • D.Pancreas; small bowel
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Liver; gallbladder

    Liver; gallbladder is correct: liver cells continuously make bile, and the gallbladder stores and concentrates it until a fatty meal triggers its release into the duodenum. Liver; small bowel names the right source but the wrong store; bile is released into the small bowel to emulsify fats, but it is not stored there. Pancreas; gallbladder is wrong, because the pancreas makes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate, not bile. Pancreas; small bowel is wrong on both counts: the pancreas does not make bile, and the small bowel does not store it.

  166. Which of the following endocrine glands has an exocrine function that aids in regulating levels of glucose in the blood?

    • A.Pancreas
    • B.Adrenal gland
    • C.Thyroid gland
    • D.Parathyroid
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Pancreas

    Pancreas is correct: it is both an exocrine gland, which releases digestive enzymes and bicarbonate through ducts into the small intestine, and an endocrine gland whose islet cells secrete insulin and glucagon to regulate blood glucose. Adrenal gland is wrong; its hormones, such as cortisol and epinephrine, raise blood glucose, but the adrenal glands have no exocrine function. Thyroid gland is wrong, because its hormones set the metabolic rate and it releases nothing through ducts. Parathyroid is wrong, because the parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone, which regulates blood calcium, and they have no exocrine role.

  167. The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the _________________.

    • A.Esophageal wall
    • B.Small intestine
    • C.Stomach mucosa
    • D.Large bowel
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Small intestine

    Small intestine is correct: its length, circular folds, villi, and microvilli give it an enormous surface area, so most digested nutrients are absorbed there. Esophageal wall is wrong, because the esophagus moves food to the stomach by peristalsis and absorbs essentially nothing. Stomach mucosa is wrong; the stomach absorbs small amounts of substances such as water, alcohol, and some drugs, but not most nutrients. Large bowel is wrong, because by the time material reaches the large intestine most nutrients are gone, and it absorbs mainly water and electrolytes.

  168. The function of the pyloric sphincter is to ______________.

    • A.Block the backflow of acid into the esophagus
    • B.Control the passage of food into the duodenum
    • C.Govern the release of bile into the intestine
    • D.Prevent the reflux of residues into the ileum
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Control the passage of food into the duodenum

    Control the passage of food into the duodenum is correct: the pyloric sphincter is the ring of muscle at the lower end of the stomach, and it opens in small bursts to let chyme pass into the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine. Block the backflow of acid into the esophagus is the job of the lower esophageal sphincter at the top of the stomach. Govern the release of bile into the intestine is the job of the hepatopancreatic sphincter (sphincter of Oddi), where the bile duct opens into the duodenum. Prevent the reflux of residues into the ileum is the job of the ileocecal valve, where the small intestine meets the large intestine.

  169. Which of the following organ systems is correctly paired with its function?

    • A.Lymphatic / distribution of oxygen through capillary networks
    • B.Endocrine / regulation of homeostasis through hormone signals
    • C.Respiratory / removal of nitrogenous waste through exhalation
    • D.Muscular / production of erythrocytes through cancellous bone
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Endocrine / regulation of homeostasis through hormone signals

    Endocrine / regulation of homeostasis through hormone signals is the correct pairing: endocrine glands release hormones into the blood, and those chemical signals adjust growth, metabolism, fluid balance, and other conditions to keep the internal environment stable. Lymphatic / distribution of oxygen through capillary networks is wrong, because oxygen is carried by red blood cells in the cardiovascular system; the lymphatic system returns tissue fluid to the blood and supports immunity. Respiratory / removal of nitrogenous waste through exhalation is wrong, because the lungs remove carbon dioxide, while nitrogenous wastes such as urea leave through the urinary system. Muscular / production of erythrocytes through cancellous bone is wrong, because red blood cells are made in the red marrow inside cancellous bone, which belongs to the skeletal system, not the muscular system.

  170. Which of the following correctly describes anatomical position?

    • A.Upright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly
    • B.Erect, hands at sides, palms facing medially
    • C.Supine, limbs at sides, palms facing anteriorly
    • D.Seated, hands at sides, palms facing anteriorly
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Upright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly

    Upright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly is correct: in anatomical position the body stands erect, facing forward, with the arms at the sides and the palms turned forward, so the forearm bones lie parallel. Erect, hands at sides, palms facing medially describes a relaxed standing posture; with the palms turned toward the thighs, the forearm bones cross, so it is not anatomical position. Supine, limbs at sides, palms facing anteriorly describes a body lying face up; supine and prone are positions for a body lying down, while anatomical position is upright. Seated, hands at sides, palms facing anteriorly is wrong, because anatomical position is standing, not sitting.

  171. One of the primary functions of blood is to deliver oxygen-rich blood to the body’s tissues. This is accomplished by ________________, which contain the oxygen-carrying protein called ___________________.

    • A.Red blood cells; myoglobin
    • B.White blood cells; ferritin
    • C.Blood platelets; myoglobin
    • D.Red blood cells; hemoglobin
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Red blood cells; hemoglobin

    Red blood cells; hemoglobin is correct: erythrocytes (red blood cells) are packed with hemoglobin, an iron-containing protein that binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the tissues. Red blood cells; myoglobin names the right cells but the wrong protein; myoglobin stores oxygen inside muscle fibers, not in blood. White blood cells; ferritin is wrong, because white blood cells defend against infection, and ferritin stores iron rather than carrying oxygen. Blood platelets; myoglobin is wrong on both counts: platelets are cell fragments that form clots, and they carry no oxygen-binding protein at all.

  172. Which of the following statements regarding digestion is false?

    • A.The hormone gastrin is secreted from the stomach and stimulates intragastric digestion.
    • B.The hormone secretin is secreted from the duodenum and stimulates bicarbonate delivery.
    • C.The hormone glucagon is secreted from the pancreas and stimulates mechanical digestion.
    • D.The hormone cholecystokinin is secreted from the duodenum and stimulates fat digestion.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The hormone glucagon is secreted from the pancreas and stimulates mechanical digestion.

    The hormone glucagon is secreted from the pancreas and stimulates mechanical digestion. is the false statement: glucagon does come from the pancreas, but it raises blood glucose by having the liver break down glycogen and release glucose; it plays no part in mechanical digestion, the chewing, churning, and segmentation done by muscle. The other three are true. The hormone gastrin is secreted from the stomach and stimulates intragastric digestion. is true, because gastrin from the stomach wall drives the parietal cells to secrete hydrochloric acid and the chief cells to release pepsinogen, which together begin protein digestion inside the stomach. The hormone secretin is secreted from the duodenum and stimulates bicarbonate delivery. is true: when acidic chyme enters the duodenum, secretin signals the pancreas to release bicarbonate that neutralizes it. The hormone cholecystokinin is secreted from the duodenum and stimulates fat digestion. is true, because when fats arrive, cholecystokinin makes the gallbladder release bile and the pancreas release lipase, both needed to digest fats.

  173. In the respiratory system, the majority of gas exchange takes place ___________________.

    • A.In the bronchioles
    • B.In the pleural sac
    • C.In the larynx
    • D.In the alveoli
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: In the alveoli

    In the alveoli is correct: the alveoli are millions of tiny, thin-walled air sacs wrapped in capillaries, and oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across their walls. In the bronchioles is wrong, because most bronchioles are conducting airways that carry air to the alveoli; only the smallest respiratory bronchioles take part in a little gas exchange. In the pleural sac is wrong; the pleura is the double membrane around each lung, and its thin layer of fluid reduces friction during breathing, with no air exchanged there. In the larynx is wrong, because the larynx, or voice box, only conducts air and produces sound.

  174. Which of the following describes the volume of air associated with a normal breath?

    • A.Residual air
    • B.Minute volume
    • C.Tidal volume
    • D.Stroke volume
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Tidal volume

    Tidal volume is correct: it is the volume of air moved in or out with one normal, relaxed breath, about 500 mL in an adult. Residual air (residual volume) is wrong, because it is the air that stays in the lungs even after a forced exhalation and keeps the alveoli from collapsing. Minute volume is wrong; it is the total air breathed in one minute, the tidal volume multiplied by the breathing rate, not the air of a single breath. Stroke volume is wrong, because it is the volume of blood the left ventricle pumps out with each heartbeat, a cardiovascular measure rather than a volume of air.

  175. Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia (HED) is a rare disorder characterized by partial or complete absence of sweat glands. Which of the following would occur if sweat glands are absent or its function is inhibited?

    • A.Loss of ability to excrete metabolic poisons
    • B.Loss of ability to regulate body temperature
    • C.Loss of ability to retain internal hydration
    • D.Loss of ability to adjust blood electrolytes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Loss of ability to regulate body temperature

    Loss of ability to regulate body temperature is what would occur: the main job of eccrine sweat is cooling, since sweat evaporating from the skin carries heat away, so a person without working sweat glands overheats easily in warm conditions or during exercise. Loss of ability to excrete metabolic poisons is wrong, because the liver and kidneys clear wastes and toxins; sweat removes only trace amounts. Loss of ability to retain internal hydration is the reverse of what happens: without sweat the body loses less water, not more, so it holds on to its internal fluids. Loss of ability to adjust blood electrolytes is wrong, because the kidneys, under hormones such as aldosterone, control blood sodium and potassium; sweat glands do not regulate them.

  176. HIV is a virus that destroys the body’s defense against diseases by inserting itself into the host’s DNA. In which part of the infected host cell will HIV virus be found?

    • A.Ribosomes
    • B.Mitochondria
    • C.Nucleus
    • D.Golgi bodies
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Nucleus

    Nucleus is correct: HIV is a retrovirus, so after it enters a cell it copies its RNA into DNA, and that viral DNA is carried into the nucleus and spliced into the host's chromosomes, where it stays as a provirus. Ribosomes is wrong, because ribosomes read messenger RNA to build proteins; they hold no DNA, so the inserted viral genome cannot sit there. Mitochondria is wrong: mitochondria do carry their own small DNA, but HIV inserts its DNA into the chromosomes of the nucleus, not into mitochondrial DNA. Golgi bodies is wrong, because the Golgi apparatus modifies and packages proteins for transport and contains no DNA for the virus to join.

  177. Which of the following parts of the brain is responsible for posture, balance and movement coordination?

    • A.Cerebellum
    • B.Cerebrum
    • C.Frontal lobe
    • D.Motor cortex
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cerebellum

    Cerebellum is correct: the cerebellum, at the back of the brain beneath the cerebrum, compares intended movements with what the body is actually doing and fine-tunes them, which keeps posture, balance, and coordination smooth. Cerebrum is wrong, because the cerebrum is the large upper brain that handles thought, sensation, and the start of voluntary movement, not balance. Frontal lobe is wrong; it plans and starts voluntary movements and governs reasoning and personality, but it does not coordinate them. Motor cortex is wrong, because it sends the commands that start voluntary movements, while the cerebellum is what smooths and coordinates them.

  178. Skeletal muscle contraction is stimulated by the release of which neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?

    • A.Norepinephrine (NE)
    • B.Epinephrine (Epi)
    • C.Glutamate (Glu)
    • D.Acetylcholine (ACh)
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Acetylcholine (ACh)

    Acetylcholine (ACh) is correct: motor neurons release acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, where it binds receptors on the muscle fiber and triggers the action potential that leads to contraction. Norepinephrine (NE) is wrong, because it is the transmitter of most sympathetic nerve endings, acting on the heart, blood vessels, and glands, not on skeletal muscle fibers. Epinephrine (Epi) is wrong; it is released mainly as a hormone from the adrenal medulla during the fight-or-flight response, not by motor neurons. Glutamate (Glu) is wrong, because glutamate is the main excitatory transmitter in the brain and spinal cord, but it is not the transmitter at human skeletal muscle.

  179. If villi in the small intestine were to become damaged, which of the following would likely occur?

    • A.Hyperglycemia would result due to a decreased ability to release insulin.
    • B.Ulceration would result due to a decreased ability to neutralize acidity.
    • C.Jaundice would result due to a decreased ability to metabolize bilirubin.
    • D.Malnutrition would result due to a decreased ability to absorb nutrients.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Malnutrition would result due to a decreased ability to absorb nutrients.

    Malnutrition would result due to a decreased ability to absorb nutrients. is correct: villi and their microvilli multiply the surface area of the small intestine, where most nutrients are absorbed, so damaged villi (as in celiac disease) let nutrients pass unabsorbed. Hyperglycemia would result due to a decreased ability to release insulin. is wrong, because insulin comes from the islet cells of the pancreas, not from villi, and poorer absorption would lower, not raise, the glucose entering the blood. Ulceration would result due to a decreased ability to neutralize acidity. is wrong, because stomach acid is neutralized by bicarbonate from the pancreas and the duodenal glands, not by the villi. Jaundice would result due to a decreased ability to metabolize bilirubin. is wrong, because the liver processes bilirubin; villi have no role in it.

  180. Which of the following statements is true about protein digestion?

    • A.Digestion of protein concludes primarily in the gastric lumen.
    • B.Hydrolysis of protein originates primarily in the oral cavity.
    • C.Absorption of protein occurs primarily in the small intestine.
    • D.Emulsification of protein proceeds primarily in the bile duct.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Absorption of protein occurs primarily in the small intestine.

    Absorption of protein occurs primarily in the small intestine. is true: pancreatic and brush-border enzymes finish breaking proteins into amino acids and small peptides there, and the intestinal villi absorb them into the blood. Digestion of protein concludes primarily in the gastric lumen. is false, because the stomach only begins protein digestion with pepsin; it is completed in the small intestine. Hydrolysis of protein originates primarily in the oral cavity. is false, because saliva contains no protein-digesting enzyme; chewing breaks food up mechanically, and chemical digestion of protein begins in the stomach. Emulsification of protein proceeds primarily in the bile duct. is false: emulsification is what bile does to fats, not proteins, and it takes place in the duodenum, not in the bile duct.

  181. Which of the following best describes the mechanical process of normal breathing during expiration?

    • A.The diaphragm contracts and descends as the intercostals contract and the ribs rise.
    • B.The diaphragm relaxes and rises as the intercostals relax and the ribs descend.
    • C.The diaphragm relaxes and rises as the intercostals contract and the ribs rise.
    • D.The diaphragm contracts and descends as the intercostals relax and the ribs descend.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The diaphragm relaxes and rises as the intercostals relax and the ribs descend.

    The diaphragm relaxes and rises as the intercostals relax and the ribs descend. is correct: normal, quiet expiration is passive, so the diaphragm relaxes and domes upward while the external intercostal muscles relax and the rib cage drops, shrinking the chest cavity and pushing air out. The diaphragm contracts and descends as the intercostals contract and the ribs rise. describes inspiration, the opposite phase, when the chest cavity enlarges to draw air in. The diaphragm relaxes and rises as the intercostals contract and the ribs rise. is wrong, because raising the ribs enlarges the chest, which belongs to inspiration, not expiration. The diaphragm contracts and descends as the intercostals relax and the ribs descend. is wrong, because a contracting, descending diaphragm enlarges the chest cavity and draws air in.

  182. Which of the following is not a function of the integumentary system?

    • A.Function in touch as part of the peripheral nervous system
    • B.Function in hydration as part of the moisture loss barrier
    • C.Function in protection as part of the innate immune system
    • D.Function in immunity as part of the adaptive immune system
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Function in immunity as part of the adaptive immune system

    Correct answer: Function in immunity as part of the adaptive immune system. Explanation: The skin's main defensive role is innate: intact keratinized skin and acidic secretions block microbes before they enter. The skin's Langerhans cells capture antigens, but the targeted adaptive response is carried out by lymphocytes in lymphatic tissue, not by the skin itself. Sensing touch through peripheral nerve receptors, preventing water loss, and acting as an innate barrier are all true functions of the integumentary system.

  183. Which of the following hormones is responsible for increasing calcium levels in the blood by stimulating bone resorption?

    • A.Antidiuretic hormone
    • B.Human growth hormone
    • C.Thyroid calcitonin
    • D.Parathyroid hormone
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Parathyroid hormone

    Parathyroid hormone is correct: when blood calcium falls, the parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone, which stimulates osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium into the blood. Antidiuretic hormone is wrong, because it makes the kidneys retain water and has no role in bone resorption. Human growth hormone is wrong; it promotes growth of bone and other tissues rather than breaking bone down to raise blood calcium. Thyroid calcitonin is wrong, because calcitonin from the thyroid does the opposite: it inhibits osteoclasts and lowers blood calcium.

  184. Which of the following is true about hormones?

    • A.Lack or insufficiency of cortisol produced by the adrenals can lead to obesity.
    • B.Lack or insufficiency of insulin produced by the pancreas can lead to diabetes.
    • C.Lack or insufficiency of thyroxine produced by the thyroid can lead to tremors.
    • D.Lack or insufficiency of aldosterone produced by the adrenal can lead to edema.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Lack or insufficiency of insulin produced by the pancreas can lead to diabetes.

    Lack or insufficiency of insulin produced by the pancreas can lead to diabetes. is true: without enough insulin from the pancreatic beta cells, glucose cannot enter the cells and builds up in the blood, which is diabetes mellitus. Lack or insufficiency of cortisol produced by the adrenals can lead to obesity. is false, because too little cortisol (Addison disease) causes weight loss and fatigue; excess cortisol is what leads to weight gain. Lack or insufficiency of thyroxine produced by the thyroid can lead to tremors. is false, because hypothyroidism slows metabolism and causes sluggishness; tremors come from too much thyroid hormone. Lack or insufficiency of aldosterone produced by the adrenal can lead to edema. is false, because without aldosterone the kidneys lose sodium and water, which lowers fluid volume and blood pressure rather than causing fluid retention.

  185. Gastric reflux occurs as a result of an improper closing of the ________________.

    • A.Pyloric sphincter
    • B.Cardiac sphincter
    • C.Ileocecal valve
    • D.Oddi sphincter
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cardiac sphincter

    Cardiac sphincter is correct: the cardiac sphincter is another name for the lower esophageal sphincter, the ring of muscle where the esophagus joins the cardiac region of the stomach (the name refers to that region, not to the heart). When it fails to close properly, acidic stomach contents flow back into the esophagus as gastric reflux. Pyloric sphincter is wrong, because it sits at the other end of the stomach and controls the passage of chyme into the duodenum; it does not guard the esophagus. Ileocecal valve is wrong; it lies where the small intestine meets the large intestine and keeps colon contents from flowing back into the ileum. Oddi sphincter is wrong, because the sphincter of Oddi (hepatopancreatic sphincter) controls the flow of bile and pancreatic juice into the duodenum.

  186. Which of the following organs is correctly paired with the hormone it produces?

    • A.Kidneys / aldosterone
    • B.Uterus / progesterone
    • C.Ovaries / estrogen
    • D.Liver / glucagon
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ovaries / estrogen

    Ovaries / estrogen is the correct pairing: the follicles of the ovaries secrete estrogen, which drives the female secondary sex characteristics and the menstrual cycle. Kidneys / aldosterone is wrong, because aldosterone comes from the adrenal cortex, which sits on top of the kidneys; the kidneys respond to it but do not make it. Uterus / progesterone is wrong, because progesterone is made by the corpus luteum of the ovary and, in pregnancy, by the placenta; the uterine lining responds to it. Liver / glucagon is wrong, because glucagon is made by the alpha cells of the pancreas; the liver is its main target, where it triggers glycogen breakdown.

  187. Which of the following structures is the female gonads?

    • A.Uterus
    • B.Oviducts
    • C.Placenta
    • D.Ovaries
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ovaries

    Ovaries is correct: gonads are the organs that produce gametes, and the female gonads, the ovaries, produce ova as well as the hormones estrogen and progesterone. Uterus is wrong, because the uterus is where a fertilized ovum implants and develops; it makes no gametes. Oviducts is wrong; the oviducts (uterine tubes) carry the ovum toward the uterus and are the usual site of fertilization, but they do not produce ova. Placenta is wrong, because the placenta is a temporary organ of pregnancy that exchanges materials between mother and fetus and secretes hormones, but it is not a gonad.

  188. Which of the following conditions occurs when a blood vessel in the brain becomes blocked?

    • A.Aneurysm
    • B.Edema
    • C.Hematoma
    • D.Stroke
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Stroke

    A stroke occurs when blood flow to part of the brain is cut off, most often because a clot blocks a cerebral artery, so Stroke is correct. Aneurysm is a weakened, bulging section of an artery wall; it can rupture and bleed into the brain, but it is not a blockage. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid leaking into the tissues; brain edema can follow a stroke or an injury, but it is not a blocked vessel. Hematoma is a pool of blood that collects outside a vessel after the vessel breaks, which is bleeding rather than a blocked vessel.

  189. Osteoblasts are specialized cells that secrete the protein collagen and other substances necessary for bone formation. Which of the following organelles is more likely to be predominant in osteoblasts?

    • A.Mitochondria
    • B.Microtubules
    • C.Peroxisomes
    • D.Ribosomes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ribosomes

    Osteoblasts build bone by making and secreting large amounts of collagen, which is a protein, and proteins are assembled on ribosomes (many of them attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum). A cell whose main job is making protein for export is packed with ribosomes, so Ribosomes is correct. Mitochondria supply ATP to every active cell, but their number does not reflect the job of manufacturing a secreted protein. Microtubules are part of the cytoskeleton that gives a cell its shape and moves organelles and chromosomes; they do not make protein. Peroxisomes break down fatty acids and toxic hydrogen peroxide, a detoxifying role unrelated to collagen production.

  190. Which of the following comparisons between arteries and veins is true?

    • A.Veins contain valves, and arteries do not.
    • B.Veins generate pulses, and arteries do not.
    • C.Veins supply oxygen, and arteries do not.
    • D.Veins recoil strongly, and arteries do not.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Veins contain valves, and arteries do not.

    Blood returns to the heart through the veins under low pressure, often against gravity, so many veins (especially in the limbs) contain one-way valves that stop blood from flowing backward. Arteries carry blood under high pressure straight from the heart and have no such valves, so "Veins contain valves, and arteries do not." is correct. "Veins generate pulses, and arteries do not." reverses the facts: the pulse felt at the wrist or neck is the pressure surge in an artery with each heartbeat, while venous flow is steady. "Veins supply oxygen, and arteries do not." is false because systemic arteries carry the most oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the tissues. "Veins recoil strongly, and arteries do not." is false because elastic recoil is a feature of arteries: the aorta and other large arteries stretch with each beat and spring back, while thin-walled veins have little recoil.

  191. Which of the following is responsible for producing progesterone in preparation for pregnancy?

    • A.Mature follicle
    • B.Pituitary gland
    • C.Endometrium
    • D.Corpus luteum
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Corpus luteum

    After ovulation, the ruptured follicle becomes the corpus luteum, a temporary endocrine structure that secretes progesterone to thicken and maintain the uterine lining for a possible pregnancy, so Corpus luteum is correct. Mature follicle is the structure before ovulation, and its cells secrete mainly estrogen, not progesterone. Pituitary gland releases FSH and LH, which control the ovary, but it does not make progesterone itself. Endometrium is the uterine lining that responds to progesterone by thickening; it is the target of the hormone, not its source.

  192. Which of the following accessory structures is not correctly paired with its function?

    • A.Sebaceous glands / oil production
    • B.Eccrine glands / sweat production
    • C.Arrector pili / odor production
    • D.Nail matrix / keratin production
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Arrector pili / odor production

    Arrector pili are small bands of smooth muscle attached to hair follicles; when they contract they pull the hair upright and raise goose bumps. They produce no odor (body odor comes from skin bacteria breaking down apocrine sweat), so Arrector pili / odor production is the incorrect pairing and is the answer. Sebaceous glands / oil production is a correct pairing: sebaceous glands secrete sebum, an oily substance that softens hair and skin. Eccrine glands / sweat production is a correct pairing: eccrine glands make the watery sweat that cools the body. Nail matrix / keratin production is a correct pairing: the nail matrix is the growth zone that produces the keratin-filled cells of the nail plate.

  193. Which of the following proteins makes up the hair and nails?

    • A.Keratin
    • B.Collagen
    • C.Globulin
    • D.Myosin
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Keratin

    Hair and nails are made of dead, tightly packed cells filled with the tough structural protein keratin, so Keratin is correct. Collagen is the main structural protein of the dermis, bone, tendons and cartilage, not of hair or nails. Globulin is a family of blood plasma proteins that includes the antibodies and several transport proteins. Myosin is the motor protein of the thick filaments that pull on actin when a muscle contracts.

  194. Which of the following structures divide and multiply in cases of injury or disease?

    • A.Dendrites
    • B.Myelin sheaths
    • C.Axon terminals
    • D.Glial cells
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Glial cells

    Mature neurons rarely divide, so when nervous tissue is injured or diseased the supporting glial cells multiply and fill the space left by lost neurons, forming a glial scar; Glial cells is correct. Dendrites are the branched parts of a neuron that receive signals, and they cannot divide because the neuron they belong to does not. Myelin sheaths are layers of membrane that glial cells wrap around axons; a sheath is not a cell and cannot divide. Axon terminals are the ends of a neuron's axon that release neurotransmitter, and like the rest of the neuron they do not undergo cell division.

  195. Which of the following is the basic contractile unit of the skeletal muscle?

    • A.Sarcomere
    • B.Fascicle
    • C.Sarcolemma
    • D.Motor unit
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Sarcomere

    The sarcomere, the segment between two Z-discs built from overlapping thin (actin) and thick (myosin) filaments, is the smallest unit that shortens when skeletal muscle contracts, so Sarcomere is correct. Fascicle is a bundle of whole muscle fibers wrapped in connective tissue, a much larger structure built from many contractile units. Sarcolemma is the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber; it carries the electrical signal but does not contract. Motor unit is one motor neuron plus all the muscle fibers it controls, a unit of nervous control rather than the basic contractile unit.

  196. Gas exchange between the blood and alveoli would be enhanced by ______________, but impeded by __________________.

    • A.Increased alveolar surface area; thicker diffusion barrier
    • B.Increased membrane thickness; decreased pressure gradient
    • C.Weaker pressure gradient; increased alveolar surface area
    • D.Reduced alveolar surface area; lessened membrane thickness
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Increased alveolar surface area; thicker diffusion barrier

    Gases diffuse faster across a larger surface, down a steeper partial pressure gradient, and through a thinner barrier (Fick's law of diffusion). More alveolar surface area therefore enhances exchange, and a thicker respiratory membrane, as with fluid or scar tissue in the lungs, slows it, so Increased alveolar surface area; thicker diffusion barrier is correct. Increased membrane thickness; decreased pressure gradient gets the first half wrong: a thicker membrane impedes diffusion, even though a smaller gradient does impede it. Weaker pressure gradient; increased alveolar surface area reverses both halves: a smaller gradient slows diffusion and a larger surface speeds it. Reduced alveolar surface area; lessened membrane thickness also reverses both halves: losing surface area (as in emphysema) slows exchange, while a thinner membrane speeds it.

  197. A decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood would result in __________________.

    • A.Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
    • B.Decreased blood-clotting potential
    • C.Decreased plasma-protein synthesis
    • D.Decreased resting cardiac output
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity

    Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that binds oxygen, so less hemoglobin means each volume of blood can carry less oxygen (anemia); Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity is correct. Decreased blood-clotting potential confuses hemoglobin with platelets and clotting factors, which are what control clotting. Decreased plasma-protein synthesis confuses hemoglobin with plasma proteins such as albumin, which the liver makes independently of hemoglobin. Decreased resting cardiac output is the reverse of what happens: the heart usually pumps more blood, with a faster heart rate, to make up for the lower oxygen content.

  198. Which of the following parts of the male reproductive system is not correctly paired with its function?

    • A.Vas deferens/ muscular duct that pushes the sperm upward
    • B.Seminal vesicles/ secrete fluid that nourishes the sperm
    • C.Testes/ paired gonads that produce the male gametes
    • D.Epididymis/ secretes mucus that lubricates the urethra
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Epididymis/ secretes mucus that lubricates the urethra

    The epididymis is the coiled tube on the back of each testis where sperm mature and are stored; it does not secrete lubricating mucus. That job belongs to the bulbourethral (Cowper's) glands, so Epididymis/ secretes mucus that lubricates the urethra is the incorrect pairing and is the answer. Vas deferens/ muscular duct that pushes the sperm upward is a correct pairing: its smooth muscle propels sperm from the epididymis up through the spermatic cord into the pelvis toward the ejaculatory duct. Seminal vesicles/ secrete fluid that nourishes the sperm is a correct pairing: their fructose-rich fluid supplies energy to sperm. Testes/ paired gonads that produce the male gametes is a correct pairing: sperm are made in the seminiferous tubules of the testes.

  199. Overproduction of thyroid hormone due to a malfunction of the negative feedback loop would result in which of the following conditions?

    • A.Hyperparathyroidism
    • B.Hyperthyroidism
    • C.Pituitary gigantism
    • D.Hyperaldosteronism
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Hyperthyroidism

    Thyroid hormone output is normally held steady by negative feedback: rising T3 and T4 suppress the release of TRH and TSH. If that loop fails and the thyroid keeps overproducing its hormone, the result is hyperthyroidism, so Hyperthyroidism is correct. Hyperparathyroidism is overproduction of parathyroid hormone by the separate parathyroid glands, which raises blood calcium; it is not caused by excess thyroid hormone. Pituitary gigantism results from excess growth hormone before the growth plates close. Hyperaldosteronism is overproduction of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex, which causes sodium retention and high blood pressure.

  200. What is the role of the myelin sheath in the nervous system?

    • A.Relay impulses
    • B.Receive stimuli
    • C.Insulate axons
    • D.Engulf microbes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Insulate axons

    The myelin sheath is a fatty, multilayered wrapping made by Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes that electrically insulates the axon, so impulses jump from node to node and travel much faster; Insulate axons is correct. Relay impulses describes the axon itself; the myelin around it carries no impulse, it only speeds conduction along the axon. Receive stimuli is the job of dendrites and sensory receptors. Engulf microbes describes microglia, the immune cells of the central nervous system.

  201. The term _________________ refers to the contraction of smooth muscle in the digestive system that moves food along the GI tract.

    • A.Segmentation
    • B.Swallowing
    • C.Peristalsis
    • D.Vasodilation
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Peristalsis

    Peristalsis is the wave of smooth muscle contraction that squeezes behind a mass of food and pushes it in one direction along the GI tract, from the esophagus to the rectum, so Peristalsis is correct. Segmentation is the back-and-forth contraction of separate rings of the small intestine that mixes chyme with digestive juices rather than moving it steadily forward. Swallowing (deglutition) starts as a voluntary skeletal muscle action in the mouth and pharynx before peristalsis takes over in the esophagus. Vasodilation is the widening of blood vessels when their smooth muscle relaxes; it changes blood flow and does not move food.

  202. Which of the following terms is alternatively called the “voice box”?

    • A.Pharynx
    • B.Palate
    • C.Larynx
    • D.Sinuses
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Larynx

    The larynx sits between the pharynx and the trachea and holds the vocal folds, which vibrate to produce sound, so it is called the voice box and Larynx is correct. Pharynx is the throat, the shared passage for air and food behind the nose and mouth; it shapes sound but does not produce it. Palate is the roof of the mouth, which helps form speech sounds but is not the voice box. Sinuses are air-filled spaces in the skull bones around the nose that add resonance to the voice; the sound itself is made in the larynx.

  203. Which of the following does not describe the dermis?

    • A.The layer of the skin where the nerve receptors sensing touch are situated
    • B.The layer of the skin where cells containing the pigment melanin are found
    • C.The layer of the skin where the follicles producing hair shafts are rooted
    • D.The layer of the skin where vessels feeding the outer epidermis are housed
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The layer of the skin where cells containing the pigment melanin are found

    Melanocytes, the cells that make the pigment melanin, sit in the deepest layer of the epidermis (the stratum basale), not in the dermis, so "The layer of the skin where cells containing the pigment melanin are found" does not describe the dermis and is the answer. The other three are true of the dermis. "The layer of the skin where the nerve receptors sensing touch are situated" is true: touch and pressure receptors such as Meissner and Pacinian corpuscles lie in the dermis. "The layer of the skin where the follicles producing hair shafts are rooted" is true: hair follicles are rooted in the dermis. "The layer of the skin where vessels feeding the outer epidermis are housed" is true: the epidermis has no blood vessels and is nourished by diffusion from capillaries in the dermis.

  204. White blood cells contain many _________ because they need to dispose of harmful intruders such as bacteria and viruses. Which of the following options correctly completes the statement above?

    • A.Nucleoli
    • B.Lysosomes
    • C.Peroxisomes
    • D.Centrosomes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Lysosomes

    White blood cells such as neutrophils and macrophages engulf bacteria and viruses and then fuse the engulfed material with lysosomes, whose digestive enzymes break it down, so Lysosomes is correct. Nucleoli are dense regions inside the nucleus that assemble ribosome subunits; they do not digest anything. Peroxisomes break down fatty acids and detoxify hydrogen peroxide and alcohol, not engulfed microbes. Centrosomes organize the microtubules that pull chromosomes apart during cell division.

  205. Which of the following lists the respiratory passageways in order from largest diameter to smallest diameter?

    • A.Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
    • B.Bronchioles, bronchi, trachea
    • C.Bronchi, bronchioles, trachea
    • D.Bronchioles, trachea, bronchi
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

    Air enters the single, wide trachea, which divides into the two primary bronchi, which branch again and again into ever narrower bronchioles, so Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles is correct. Bronchioles, bronchi, trachea lists the right passages from smallest to largest, the reverse of the order asked for. Bronchi, bronchioles, trachea puts the trachea last, but it is the widest airway and the one the bronchi branch from. Bronchioles, trachea, bronchi starts with the narrowest airways and places the bronchi after the trachea, although bronchi are narrower than the trachea.

  206. Which of the following incorrectly describes neurons?

    • A.Sensory neurons conduct impulses inward from the skin.
    • B.Motor neurons send signals out from the spinal cord.
    • C.Sensory neurons carry information away from the brain.
    • D.Interneurons integrate input from the sensory neurons.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Sensory neurons carry information away from the brain.

    Sensory (afferent) neurons carry impulses from receptors toward the brain and spinal cord, not away from them, so "Sensory neurons carry information away from the brain." is the incorrect description and is the answer. "Sensory neurons conduct impulses inward from the skin." is true: touch, pain and temperature signals travel inward to the central nervous system. "Motor neurons send signals out from the spinal cord." is true: motor (efferent) neurons carry commands outward to muscles and glands. "Interneurons integrate input from the sensory neurons." is true: interneurons in the brain and spinal cord receive sensory input and link it to motor output.

  207. Of the following organs, which has both endocrine and digestive functions?

    • A.Spleen
    • B.Gallbladder
    • C.Pancreas
    • D.Parathyroid
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Pancreas

    The pancreas is both a digestive and an endocrine organ: its acinar cells release digestive enzymes (amylase, lipase and proteases) into the duodenum, and its islets release the hormones insulin and glucagon into the blood, so Pancreas is correct. Spleen lies beside the pancreas but belongs to the lymphatic system, where it filters blood and recycles old red blood cells; it has no digestive role. Gallbladder stores and concentrates bile for fat digestion but secretes no hormones. Parathyroid is an endocrine gland whose hormone raises blood calcium; it plays no part in digestion.

  208. Which of the following is not true about reproductive hormones?

    • A.FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is detected by the ovarian follicle.
    • B.LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland.
    • C.FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is inhibited by the protein inhibin.
    • D.LH (luteinizing hormone) is amplified by the midcycle estrogen surge.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland.

    Both FSH and LH are made and released by the anterior pituitary gland, while the posterior pituitary releases oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, so "LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland." is not true and is the answer. "FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is detected by the ovarian follicle." is true: cells of the developing follicles carry FSH receptors, and FSH drives their growth. "FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is inhibited by the protein inhibin." is true: inhibin from the ovaries and testes feeds back to lower FSH release. "LH (luteinizing hormone) is amplified by the midcycle estrogen surge." is true: high estrogen near midcycle switches to positive feedback and triggers the LH surge that causes ovulation.

  209. Which of the following is not true about thermoregulation?

    • A.Contraction of arrector pili muscles promotes vasodilation.
    • B.Constriction of cutaneous arterioles conserves core warmth.
    • C.Evaporation of eccrine sweat dissipates excess body heat.
    • D.Dilation of superficial skin vessels radiates excess heat.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Contraction of arrector pili muscles promotes vasodilation.

    When the body is cold, sympathetic signals contract the arrector pili muscles (goose bumps) and at the same time constrict blood vessels in the skin to hold heat in; arrector pili contraction goes with vasoconstriction, not vasodilation, so "Contraction of arrector pili muscles promotes vasodilation." is not true and is the answer. "Constriction of cutaneous arterioles conserves core warmth." is true: less blood flows near the surface, so less heat is lost. "Evaporation of eccrine sweat dissipates excess body heat." is true: evaporating sweat carries heat away from the skin. "Dilation of superficial skin vessels radiates excess heat." is true: more warm blood near the surface lets heat radiate away from the skin.

  210. Which blood vessel delivers blood directly into the right atrium?

    • A.Jugular vein
    • B.Pulmonary vein
    • C.Vena cava
    • D.Carotid artery
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Vena cava

    The superior and inferior venae cavae return oxygen-poor blood from the body and empty it directly into the right atrium, so Vena cava is correct. Jugular vein drains blood from the head, but it empties into larger veins that lead to the superior vena cava rather than into the heart itself. Pulmonary vein carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs into the left atrium, not the right. Carotid artery carries blood away from the aortic arch up to the head, so blood leaves the heart through it rather than entering an atrium.

  211. Which of the following is happening during a contraction of the diaphragm?

    • A.A rise in intrapleural pressure
    • B.A decrease in alveolar pressure
    • C.A buildup in airway pressure
    • D.A reduction in thoracic volume
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A decrease in alveolar pressure

    When the diaphragm contracts it flattens and moves down, enlarging the thoracic cavity. The lungs expand with it, and by Boyle's law the larger volume lowers the pressure inside the alveoli below atmospheric pressure, so air flows in; A decrease in alveolar pressure is correct. A rise in intrapleural pressure is wrong: as the chest wall pulls away from the lungs, intrapleural pressure becomes more negative, which is a drop. A buildup in airway pressure is wrong: pressure in the airways and alveoli falls during inhalation and rises only during exhalation. A reduction in thoracic volume is wrong: a contracting diaphragm flattens and enlarges the thoracic cavity; the volume shrinks only when the diaphragm relaxes during exhalation.

  212. The ______________ is a double layered membrane that lines the lungs.

    • A.Fascia
    • B.Pericardium
    • C.Mediastinum
    • D.Pleura
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Pleura

    The pleura is a serous membrane with two layers: the visceral pleura covers each lung and the parietal pleura lines the chest wall, with a thin film of fluid in the pleural cavity between them, so Pleura is correct. Fascia is a sheet of dense connective tissue that wraps muscles and organs; it is not the double serous lining of the lungs. Pericardium is the double-layered sac around the heart, not the lungs. Mediastinum is the central space between the two lungs that holds the heart, trachea and esophagus; it is a region, not a membrane.

  213. Which of the following types of tissues functions in the covering, lining, and protection of surfaces and body cavities?

    • A.Connective tissue
    • B.Epithelial tissue
    • C.Muscular tissue
    • D.Nervous tissue
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Epithelial tissue

    Epithelial tissue forms sheets of tightly joined cells that cover the body surface, line hollow organs and body cavities, and form glands, so Epithelial tissue is correct. Connective tissue, such as bone, blood, fat and tendons, supports, binds and protects other tissues rather than covering surfaces. Muscular tissue contracts to produce movement. Nervous tissue carries electrical signals between the brain, the spinal cord and the rest of the body.

  214. Which of the following is the result of deficient production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone?

    • A.Pituitary hormone secretion will become augmented
    • B.Basal metabolic activity will become elevated
    • C.Thyroid gland secretion will become inadequate
    • D.Growth hormone secretion will become insufficient
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Thyroid gland secretion will become inadequate

    Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus signals the anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), and TSH signals the thyroid gland to secrete T3 and T4. Too little TRH means too little TSH, so Thyroid gland secretion will become inadequate is correct. Pituitary hormone secretion will become augmented is the reverse: without TRH the pituitary releases less TSH, not more. Basal metabolic activity will become elevated is also reversed: low thyroid hormone slows the metabolic rate. Growth hormone secretion will become insufficient confuses TRH with growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), the separate hypothalamic hormone that controls growth hormone release; a lack of TRH does not cut growth hormone output.

  215. Which of the following structures is correctly paired with its function?

    • A.Gallbladder- bile synthesis
    • B.Stomach- glucose absorption
    • C.Mouth- mechanical digestion
    • D.Pancreas- bile secretion
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Mouth- mechanical digestion

    Digestion starts in the mouth, where the teeth and tongue break food into smaller pieces (mechanical digestion) while salivary amylase begins breaking down starch, so Mouth- mechanical digestion is correct. Gallbladder- bile synthesis is wrong: the liver makes bile, and the gallbladder stores and concentrates it. Stomach- glucose absorption is wrong: the stomach churns food and begins protein digestion, but sugars and other nutrients are absorbed in the small intestine. Pancreas- bile secretion is wrong: the pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate, while bile comes from the liver.

  216. Diastole is the term that describes _________, while systole represents_____________.

    • A.Pumping and outflow; resting and replenishment
    • B.Squeezing and inflow; recovery and emptying
    • C.Firing and conduction; recharging and rest
    • D.Relaxing and filling; contraction and ejection
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Relaxing and filling; contraction and ejection

    During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the chambers fill with blood; during systole the ventricles contract and eject blood into the arteries, so Relaxing and filling; contraction and ejection is correct. Pumping and outflow; resting and replenishment reverses the two phases. Squeezing and inflow; recovery and emptying mixes them up: the heart fills while it is relaxed, not while it squeezes, and it empties by contracting, not by recovering. Firing and conduction; recharging and rest describes electrical events rather than the mechanical phases: the SA node's impulse and its conduction trigger contraction, and the muscle recharges (repolarizes) before it relaxes, so neither phase is named correctly.

  217. Which of the following structures is correctly paired with its description?

    • A.Epididymis/ makes testosterone that drives sperm formation and libido
    • B.Prostate gland/ adds fluid that supports sperm motility and viability
    • C.Bulbourethral gland/ holds sperm that await transport and ejaculation
    • D.Seminal gland/ matures young sperm that become mobile and fertile
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Prostate gland/ adds fluid that supports sperm motility and viability

    The prostate gland adds a milky fluid containing enzymes, citrate and other substances that help sperm move and survive, so Prostate gland/ adds fluid that supports sperm motility and viability is correct. Epididymis/ makes testosterone that drives sperm formation and libido is wrong: testosterone is made by the interstitial (Leydig) cells of the testes, while the epididymis stores sperm as they mature. Bulbourethral gland/ holds sperm that await transport and ejaculation is wrong: the bulbourethral glands secrete a lubricating, alkaline mucus, and sperm are stored in the epididymis. Seminal gland/ matures young sperm that become mobile and fertile is wrong: sperm mature in the epididymis, and the seminal glands (seminal vesicles) secrete the fructose-rich fluid that makes up most of the volume of semen.

  218. Which of the following structures is responsible for the transport of female gametes?

    • A.Fallopian tube
    • B.Uterine cavity
    • C.Ovarian cortex
    • D.Vas deferens
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Fallopian tube

    After ovulation, the fimbriae sweep the egg into the fallopian (uterine) tube, whose cilia and smooth muscle move it toward the uterus; fertilization usually happens there, so Fallopian tube is correct. Uterine cavity is where an embryo implants after it has already traveled down the tube; it does not carry the egg away from the ovary. Ovarian cortex is the region of the ovary where follicles and eggs develop; it produces female gametes but does not transport them. Vas deferens carries sperm, the male gametes, not eggs.

  219. Which of the following is not part of the small intestine?

    • A.Duodenum
    • B.Lacteals
    • C.Villi
    • D.Colon
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Colon

    The small intestine has three segments, the duodenum, jejunum and ileum, and its lining is folded into villi that contain lacteals; the colon is the main part of the large intestine, so Colon is correct. Duodenum is the first segment of the small intestine, where bile and pancreatic juice enter. Lacteals are the lymphatic capillaries inside each villus of the small intestine that absorb dietary fat. Villi are the finger-like projections of the small intestine lining that increase its surface area for absorption.

  220. The primary function of the ________________ is to deliver blood to the brain.

    • A.Coronary artery
    • B.Jugular vein
    • C.Brachial artery
    • D.Carotid artery
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Carotid artery

    The right and left carotid arteries run up the sides of the neck, and their internal branches supply most of the blood to the brain, so Carotid artery is correct. Coronary artery supplies the heart muscle itself. Jugular vein runs beside the carotid in the neck but drains blood away from the head and back toward the heart. Brachial artery carries blood down the upper arm to the forearm and hand.

  221. The respiratory system is composed of organs that facilitate gas exchange between the blood and the external environment. Which of the following describes the group of organs that function during gas exchange?

    • A.Single organ
    • B.Organ system
    • C.Organism
    • D.Tissues
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Organ system

    The levels of organization run from cells to tissues to organs to organ systems to the whole organism. The trachea, bronchi, lungs and other respiratory organs work together as a group, which makes the respiratory system an organ system, so Organ system is correct. Single organ is one structure, such as a lung, built from several tissues; the question describes a group of organs. Organism is the whole living individual, made of all of its organ systems working together. Tissues are groups of similar cells that perform one function, a level below the organ.

  222. Which of following glands in the skin is not correctly paired with its secretion?

    • A.Mammary glands/ breast milk
    • B.Ceruminous glands/ sebum
    • C.Eccrine glands/ clear sweat
    • D.Sebaceous glands/ oils
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ceruminous glands/ sebum

    Ceruminous glands are modified sweat glands in the ear canal that produce cerumen (earwax), while sebum is the oily secretion of sebaceous glands, so Ceruminous glands/ sebum is the incorrect pairing and is the answer. Mammary glands/ breast milk is correct: mammary glands are modified sweat glands of the skin that secrete milk. Eccrine glands/ clear sweat is correct: eccrine glands release a watery, salty sweat that cools the body as it evaporates. Sebaceous glands/ oils is correct: sebaceous glands secrete sebum, an oily mixture that softens skin and hair.

  223. Which of the following parts and divisions of the nervous system is correctly paired?

    • A.Somatic motor division/ central nervous system
    • B.Spinal interneurons/ peripheral nervous system
    • C.Autonomic division/ peripheral nervous system
    • D.Afferent division/ central nervous system
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Autonomic division/ peripheral nervous system

    The nervous system has two main parts: the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) and the peripheral nervous system (cranial and spinal nerves and their ganglia). The peripheral nervous system includes the somatic and autonomic divisions, so Autonomic division/ peripheral nervous system is correct. Somatic motor division/ central nervous system is wrong: the somatic division, which controls skeletal muscle, is part of the peripheral nervous system. Spinal interneurons/ peripheral nervous system is wrong: interneurons inside the spinal cord belong to the central nervous system. Afferent division/ central nervous system is wrong: the afferent (sensory) division is the part of the peripheral nervous system that carries signals toward the central nervous system.

  224. Which of the following is true?

    • A.The male gametes are called sperm and contain a haploid set of chromosomes.
    • B.The female gametes are called ova and hold a diploid number of chromosomes.
    • C.The male gametes are called testes and hold a haploid set of chromosomes.
    • D.The male gametes are called sperm and carry a diploid set of chromosomes.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The male gametes are called sperm and contain a haploid set of chromosomes.

    Gametes are made by meiosis, so each one carries a single (haploid) set of chromosomes, half the number in a body cell (23 rather than 46 in humans). The male gametes are sperm, so "The male gametes are called sperm and contain a haploid set of chromosomes." is true. "The female gametes are called ova and hold a diploid number of chromosomes." is false: ova are haploid, just like sperm. "The male gametes are called testes and hold a haploid set of chromosomes." is false: the testes are the male gonads, the organs that make sperm, not the gametes themselves. "The male gametes are called sperm and carry a diploid set of chromosomes." is false: a diploid sperm joining an egg would give the embryo too many chromosomes.

  225. Which of the following does not describe the epidermis?

    • A.The outermost layer of the skin
    • B.The deepest layer of the skin
    • C.The thinnest layer of the skin
    • D.The pigmented layer of the skin
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The deepest layer of the skin

    The epidermis is the outer layer of the skin, with the dermis beneath it and the hypodermis below that, so "The deepest layer of the skin" does not describe the epidermis and is the answer. "The outermost layer of the skin" is true of the epidermis. "The thinnest layer of the skin" is true: the epidermis is much thinner than the dermis beneath it. "The pigmented layer of the skin" is true: melanocytes in the basal part of the epidermis make the melanin that colors the skin.

  226. Which of the following describes cellular respiration?

    • A.Oxidative and catabolic
    • B.Oxidative and anabolic
    • C.Reductive and anabolic
    • D.Reductive and catabolic
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Oxidative and catabolic

    Cellular respiration breaks glucose down into carbon dioxide and water and captures the released energy as ATP, so it is catabolic; glucose is oxidized as it loses electrons, which are finally passed to oxygen, so it is oxidative. Oxidative and catabolic is correct. Oxidative and anabolic is wrong because anabolic pathways use energy to build large molecules rather than release energy by breaking them down. Reductive and anabolic describes photosynthesis, which reduces carbon dioxide to build sugar. Reductive and catabolic is wrong because respiration oxidizes its fuel: electrons are removed from glucose, not added to it.

  227. Which of the following statements is not true regarding hormones and their target sites?

    • A.Follicle stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary drives egg and sperm maturation
    • B.Luteinizing hormone from the posterior pituitary spurs ovulation and testosterone output
    • C.Growth hormone from the anterior pituitary stimulates bone lengthening and lipolysis
    • D.Melatonin from the pineal gland induces evening drowsiness and governs circadian rhythms
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Luteinizing hormone from the posterior pituitary spurs ovulation and testosterone output

    The statement that is not true is "Luteinizing hormone from the posterior pituitary spurs ovulation and testosterone output": luteinizing hormone does trigger ovulation and testosterone production, but it is made by the anterior pituitary, not the posterior pituitary, which releases only oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone. The other three are true. "Follicle stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary drives egg and sperm maturation" is accurate, since FSH promotes follicle development in the ovary and sperm production in the testes. "Growth hormone from the anterior pituitary stimulates bone lengthening and lipolysis" is accurate, since growth hormone acts on the growth plates and also mobilizes stored fat. "Melatonin from the pineal gland induces evening drowsiness and governs circadian rhythms" is accurate, since the pineal gland secretes melatonin in darkness to promote sleep and set the body clock.

  228. Which of the following is the correct order of structures that transport urine from the collecting ducts to the urethra?

    • A.Collecting ducts, minor calyces, renal pelvis, major calyces, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
    • B.Collecting ducts, minor calyces, major calyces, ureter, renal pelvis, urinary bladder, urethra
    • C.Collecting ducts, minor calyces, major calyces, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
    • D.Collecting ducts, minor calyces, major calyces, renal pelvis, urinary bladder, ureter, urethra
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Collecting ducts, minor calyces, major calyces, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra

    "Collecting ducts, minor calyces, major calyces, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra" is correct: collecting ducts empty at the renal papillae into the minor calyces, several minor calyces merge into each major calyx, the major calyces join to form the renal pelvis, the pelvis narrows into the ureter, and the ureter carries urine to the bladder, which empties through the urethra. "Collecting ducts, minor calyces, renal pelvis, major calyces, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra" places the renal pelvis between the two sets of calyces, but the major calyces drain into the pelvis, so the pelvis comes after them. "Collecting ducts, minor calyces, major calyces, ureter, renal pelvis, urinary bladder, urethra" sends urine into the ureter before the pelvis, but the ureter begins where the pelvis ends. "Collecting ducts, minor calyces, major calyces, renal pelvis, urinary bladder, ureter, urethra" puts the bladder before the ureter, but the ureters are the tubes that carry urine from each kidney down to the bladder.

  229. The basic function of the renal system includes filtration, secretion, reabsorption, and excretion. Which of the following substances is secreted by the nephrons and can be found in the filtrate that is eventually excreted?

    • A.Dextrose
    • B.Sodium ions
    • C.Amino acids
    • D.Creatinine
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Creatinine

    "Creatinine" is correct: creatinine, a waste product of muscle metabolism, is filtered at the glomerulus and is also actively secreted into the tubules, so it stays in the filtrate and leaves in the urine. "Amino acids" are filtered but almost entirely reabsorbed in the proximal tubule, and the nephron does not secrete them. "Sodium ions" are filtered freely, but most are reabsorbed along the tubule under hormonal control; the nephron reclaims sodium rather than secreting it. "Dextrose" (glucose) is filtered and then completely reabsorbed in the proximal tubule in a healthy person, so it is neither secreted nor normally found in urine.

  230. Certain food sources provide more urea than others. Which of the following foods would provide the most urea that would have to be filtered out of the blood via the kidneys?

    • A.Proteins, such as meats and eggs
    • B.Starches, such as rice and bread
    • C.Sugars, such as honey and sweets
    • D.Fats, such as margarine and lard
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Proteins, such as meats and eggs

    "Proteins, such as meats and eggs" is correct: urea is made in the liver when the amino groups stripped from amino acids are converted from toxic ammonia, so a protein-rich diet produces the most urea for the kidneys to clear. "Starches, such as rice and bread" are carbohydrates that break down to glucose, which contains no nitrogen and yields carbon dioxide and water, not urea. "Sugars, such as honey and sweets" are also carbohydrates without nitrogen, so their breakdown adds no urea. "Fats, such as margarine and lard" are lipids made of glycerol and fatty acids, which likewise lack the nitrogen that ends up in urea.

  231. Which of the following is responsible for destroying various unhealthy host cells, including those infected with a virus or bacteria?

    • A.Activated mast cells
    • B.Natural killer cells
    • C.Mature plasma cells
    • D.Dendritic cells
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Natural killer cells

    "Natural killer cells" is correct: these innate lymphocytes recognize stressed host cells, such as virus-infected or tumor cells, and kill them by releasing perforin and granzymes. "Activated mast cells" release histamine and other mediators that drive allergy and inflammation; they do not destroy infected host cells. "Mature plasma cells" are differentiated B cells whose job is to secrete antibodies, not to kill cells directly. "Dendritic cells" capture antigens and present them to T cells to start an adaptive response, rather than destroying infected cells themselves.

  232. Which of the following causes bone matrix synthesis and calcification?

    • A.Osteocytes
    • B.Osteoblasts
    • C.Fibroblasts
    • D.Osteoclasts
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Osteoblasts

    "Osteoblasts" is correct: osteoblasts secrete osteoid, the collagen-rich bone matrix, and drive its calcification by depositing calcium phosphate crystals. "Osteocytes" are former osteoblasts trapped in lacunae; they maintain and monitor existing bone but no longer build new matrix. "Fibroblasts" make collagen fibers in ordinary connective tissue such as tendons and dermis, but they do not form calcified bone. "Osteoclasts" do the opposite job, dissolving and resorbing bone matrix during remodeling.

  233. The adrenal glands, which are primarily responsible for producing the hormones cortisol and aldosterone, are located where?

    • A.Posterior to the thyroid
    • B.Posterior to the sternum
    • C.Lateral to the uterus
    • D.Superior to the kidneys
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Superior to the kidneys

    "Superior to the kidneys" is correct: the adrenal glands sit on top of each kidney, against its upper pole, which is why they are also called suprarenal glands. "Posterior to the thyroid" is the location of the parathyroid glands, which are embedded in the back of the thyroid in the neck. "Posterior to the sternum" is the location of the thymus, which sits in the upper chest behind the breastbone. "Lateral to the uterus" is the location of the ovaries, which lie in the pelvis on either side of the uterus.

  234. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is essential in regulating blood pressure. Which of the following hormones involved in RAAS is produced by the kidney?

    • A.Aldosterone, which promotes sodium retention
    • B.Vasopressin, which increases water retention
    • C.Angiotensinogen, which forms active peptides
    • D.Renin, which spurs vasoconstrictor formation
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Renin, which spurs vasoconstrictor formation

    "Renin, which spurs vasoconstrictor formation" is correct: juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney's afferent arterioles release renin when blood pressure or sodium delivery falls, and renin starts the cascade by cutting angiotensinogen into angiotensin I, which is then converted to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. "Aldosterone, which promotes sodium retention" is produced by the adrenal cortex, not the kidney, even though its target is the kidney's distal tubule. "Vasopressin, which increases water retention" is made by the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary, again acting on the kidney rather than coming from it. "Angiotensinogen, which forms active peptides" is a plasma protein made by the liver; the kidney supplies the enzyme that acts on it, not the protein itself.

  235. Which of the following is a substance that the kidneys remove from the blood during filtration?

    • A.Plasma proteins
    • B.Mineral salts
    • C.Blood platelets
    • D.Carbon dioxide
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Mineral salts

    "Mineral salts" is correct: electrolytes such as sodium and chloride pass freely through the glomerular membrane into the filtrate, and whatever the body does not reabsorb leaves in the urine. "Plasma proteins" such as albumin are too large to cross a healthy filtration barrier, so they stay in the blood. "Blood platelets" are cell fragments, and like other formed elements they are held back by the glomerulus. "Carbon dioxide" is a gas carried to the lungs and exhaled; the kidneys do not remove it from the blood.

  236. Where are the glomeruli and Bowman’s capsules found?

    • A.Renal cortex
    • B.Renal medulla
    • C.Renal papilla
    • D.Renal sinus
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Renal cortex

    "Renal cortex" is correct: every renal corpuscle, the glomerulus inside its Bowman's capsule, sits in the outer cortex of the kidney, including those of juxtamedullary nephrons near the cortex's inner edge. "Renal medulla" holds the loops of Henle and collecting ducts that dip down from the cortex, but no glomeruli. "Renal papilla" is the tip of a medullary pyramid where collecting ducts empty urine into a minor calyx. "Renal sinus" is the fat-filled cavity at the hilum that houses the renal pelvis, calyces and vessels, with no nephrons in it.

  237. Newborn babies are given several types of vaccines in order to protect them from acquiring diseases. Which of the following is responsible for this immunity process?

    • A.Passive immunity
    • B.Active immunity
    • C.Natural immunity
    • D.Herd immunity
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Active immunity

    "Active immunity" is correct: a vaccine exposes the baby's own immune system to a killed, weakened or partial form of a pathogen, so the baby makes its own antibodies and memory cells; this is artificially acquired active immunity. "Passive immunity" comes from receiving antibodies made by someone else, such as maternal antibodies across the placenta, and it fades within months instead of building memory. "Natural immunity" is protection gained by catching the actual disease (or, in some texts, the body's inborn defenses), not by vaccination. "Herd immunity" is a community-level effect in which enough people are immune that a disease cannot spread easily; it is not the process happening inside the vaccinated baby.

  238. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between compact bone and spongy bone?

    • A.Spongy bone is stiffer in texture than compact bone
    • B.Spongy bone is lighter in weight than compact bone
    • C.Compact bone is richer in marrow than spongy bone
    • D.Spongy bone is slower in turnover than compact bone
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Spongy bone is lighter in weight than compact bone

    "Spongy bone is lighter in weight than compact bone" is correct: spongy bone is a lattice of thin trabeculae with marrow-filled spaces between them, so it weighs far less than solid compact bone of the same size. "Spongy bone is stiffer in texture than compact bone" is false because the dense, tightly packed osteons of compact bone make it the stiffer and harder tissue. "Compact bone is richer in marrow than spongy bone" is false because red marrow fills the spaces of spongy bone, while compact bone is solid apart from its narrow canals. "Spongy bone is slower in turnover than compact bone" is false because spongy bone, with its large surface area, is remodeled several times faster than compact bone.

  239. Which of the following endocrine glands is not correctly paired with the hormone it produces?

    • A.Thyroid follicular cells: thyroxine
    • B.Hypothalamus: somatotropin releasing hormone
    • C.Ovary: follicle stimulating hormone
    • D.Pituitary gland: adrenocorticotropic hormone
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ovary: follicle stimulating hormone

    "Ovary: follicle stimulating hormone" is the incorrect pairing: follicle stimulating hormone is made by the anterior pituitary and acts on the ovary, which in turn produces estrogen and progesterone. "Thyroid follicular cells: thyroxine" is a correct pairing, since the follicular cells of the thyroid make thyroxine (T4). "Hypothalamus: somatotropin releasing hormone" is correct, since hypothalamic neurons secrete growth hormone (somatotropin) releasing hormone, which signals the anterior pituitary to release growth hormone. "Pituitary gland: adrenocorticotropic hormone" is correct, since the anterior pituitary secretes ACTH to stimulate the adrenal cortex.

  240. ________ is not normally found in urine, and its presence may indicate a problem with the kidneys.

    • A.Albumin
    • B.Creatinine
    • C.Phosphates
    • D.Uric acid
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Albumin

    "Albumin" is correct: albumin is a large plasma protein that a healthy glomerulus holds back, so albumin in the urine (albuminuria) is an early sign of kidney damage. "Creatinine" is a normal waste product of muscle metabolism that is filtered and secreted into urine every day. "Phosphates" are normally excreted in urine as the kidneys balance blood phosphate levels. "Uric acid" is a normal end product of purine breakdown that the kidneys excrete daily.

  241. Which of the following is true of the vasculature of kidneys?

    • A.Renal arteries and veins arise off the inferior vena cava
    • B.Renal veins cross the arteries and pelvis posteriorly
    • C.Renal vessels and the ureter share one concave hilum
    • D.Renal sinus lies laterally and the convex border medially
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Renal vessels and the ureter share one concave hilum

    "Renal vessels and the ureter share one concave hilum" is correct: the renal artery enters, and the renal vein and ureter leave, through the hilum, the notch on the kidney's concave medial border where the renal pelvis narrows into the ureter. "Renal arteries and veins arise off the inferior vena cava" is false because the renal arteries branch from the abdominal aorta; only the renal veins connect to the inferior vena cava, and they drain into it. "Renal veins cross the arteries and pelvis posteriorly" is false because at the hilum the renal vein lies most anterior, the artery behind it, and the pelvis most posterior. "Renal sinus lies laterally and the convex border medially" reverses the anatomy: the convex border faces laterally, while the renal sinus opens through the hilum on the concave medial side.

  242. One of the primary functions of the kidney is to filter blood in order to remove substances that have no useful function in the body. Which of the following is the correct path of blood from the abdominal aorta to the inferior vena cava (IVC)?

    • A.Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
    • B.Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – interlobular arteries – arcuate arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
    • C.Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – peritubular capillaries – efferent arteries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
    • D.Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobar veins – arcuate veins – interlobular veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava

    "Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava" is correct: the renal artery divides into segmental, then interlobar, then arcuate, then interlobular (cortical radiate) arteries; each afferent arteriole feeds a glomerulus, the efferent arteriole leaves it and becomes the peritubular capillaries, and the veins retrace the arterial route in reverse, interlobular to arcuate to interlobar to renal vein, ending in the inferior vena cava. "Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – interlobular arteries – arcuate arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava" is wrong because it puts the interlobular arteries before the arcuate arteries, yet the interlobular arteries branch off the arcuate arteries that arch over the pyramids. "Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – peritubular capillaries – efferent arteries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava" is wrong because it sends blood into the peritubular capillaries before the efferent arteries, yet the peritubular capillaries arise from the efferent arterioles. "Abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobar veins – arcuate veins – interlobular veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava" is wrong because it reverses the veins, sending blood to the interlobar veins first, yet blood from the peritubular capillaries drains into the interlobular veins first and reaches the interlobar veins last.

  243. Which of the following is a nonspecific response to tissue damage characterized by redness, pain, heat, swelling and loss of function in the injured area?

    • A.Inflammation
    • B.Phagocytosis
    • C.Anaphylaxis
    • D.Coagulation
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Inflammation

    "Inflammation" is correct: inflammation is the innate, nonspecific response to injury, and its cardinal signs are redness, heat, swelling, pain and loss of function as vessels dilate and leak fluid and white cells into the tissue. "Phagocytosis" is one nonspecific defense in which cells engulf microbes and debris, but it is a cellular process, not the whole response marked by those five signs. "Anaphylaxis" is a severe, body-wide allergic reaction driven by IgE antibodies against a specific allergen, not a local response to tissue damage. "Coagulation" is the clotting cascade that turns fibrinogen into a fibrin mesh to stop bleeding; it follows vessel injury but is not defined by redness, heat, swelling and pain.

  244. ______ is an inflammatory conditions of the joints brought on by the gradual wear-and-tear of cartilage that lines the articular ends of bones.

    • A.Gouty arthritis
    • B.Rheumatic fever
    • C.Osteomyelitis
    • D.Osteoarthritis
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Osteoarthritis

    "Osteoarthritis" is correct: osteoarthritis is degenerative joint disease in which the articular cartilage covering the bone ends wears away over years of use, leaving painful, stiff and often inflamed joints. "Gouty arthritis" is joint inflammation caused by uric acid crystals deposited in the joint, not by gradual cartilage wear. "Rheumatic fever" is an inflammatory reaction that follows an untreated strep throat infection and can inflame the joints and heart; it is not caused by wear and tear. "Osteomyelitis" is an infection of the bone itself, usually bacterial, rather than a breakdown of joint cartilage.

  245. Which of the following are chemical signals that are secreted by endocrine glands and travel via circulation to their target organs?

    • A.Neurotransmitters, such as dopamine
    • B.Local mediators, such as bradykinin
    • C.Hormones, such as glucocorticoids
    • D.Cytokines, such as interleukins
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Hormones, such as glucocorticoids

    "Hormones, such as glucocorticoids" is correct: hormones are chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands (glucocorticoids such as cortisol come from the adrenal cortex) directly into the blood, which carries them to distant target organs that have matching receptors. "Neurotransmitters, such as dopamine" are chemical signals of the nervous system, released by neurons across a synapse to act on the very next cell rather than traveling through the blood. "Local mediators, such as bradykinin" are paracrine signals that act on nearby cells in the same tissue and are broken down before they can circulate. "Cytokines, such as interleukins" are chemical messengers released mainly by immune cells to coordinate immune responses, not hormones secreted by endocrine glands.

  246. What is the upper expanded region of the ureter called?

    • A.Renal capsule
    • B.Renal calyces
    • C.Renal sinus
    • D.Renal pelvis
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Renal pelvis

    "Renal pelvis" is correct: the renal pelvis is the funnel-shaped, expanded upper end of the ureter inside the kidney, where the major calyces empty. "Renal capsule" is the tough fibrous layer that covers the outside of the kidney. "Renal calyces" are the cup-shaped chambers that collect urine from the papillae and drain into the pelvis; they feed the expanded region rather than form it. "Renal sinus" is the fat-filled cavity that houses the pelvis, calyces and vessels, not part of the ureter itself.

  247. ___________ is the site of blood filtration in the human body.

    • A.The bladder
    • B.The urethra
    • C.The lung
    • D.The kidney
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The kidney

    "The kidney" is correct: in each kidney's nephrons, blood pressure forces water and small solutes out of the glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule, which is blood filtration. "The bladder" only stores urine that the kidneys have already made; it does not filter blood. "The urethra" is the tube that carries urine out of the body and has no filtering role. "The lung" exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide between air and blood, which is gas exchange, not filtration.

  248. Which of the following secretes the antidiuretic hormone?

    • A.Parathyroid gland
    • B.Pancreatic islets
    • C.Pituitary gland
    • D.Adrenal gland
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Pituitary gland

    "Pituitary gland" is correct: antidiuretic hormone is made by hypothalamic neurons and released into the blood from the posterior pituitary when blood osmolality rises, prompting the kidneys to conserve water. "Parathyroid gland" secretes parathyroid hormone, which raises blood calcium. "Pancreatic islets" secrete insulin and glucagon to regulate blood glucose. "Adrenal gland" secretes aldosterone, which also affects water balance by retaining sodium, but it does not secrete antidiuretic hormone.

  249. T-lymphocytes mature and become functional in which of the following organs?

    • A.The thymus
    • B.The bone marrow
    • C.The lymph nodes
    • D.The tonsils
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The thymus

    "The thymus" is correct: T lymphocytes are produced in the red bone marrow but migrate to the thymus, where they mature and learn to tell self from nonself before becoming functional. "The bone marrow" is where all lymphocytes are made and where B lymphocytes mature, but immature T cells leave it before maturing. "The lymph nodes" are secondary lymphoid organs where mature T and B cells meet antigens, not where T cells first mature. "The tonsils" are lymphoid tissue in the throat that trap pathogens entering the mouth and nose; they house mature lymphocytes rather than training new T cells.

  250. Which of the following is a flat bone?

    • A.Scapulae
    • B.Clavicles
    • C.Vertebrae
    • D.Femurs
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Scapulae

    "Scapulae" is correct: the shoulder blades are thin, broad, plate-like bones, which is the definition of flat bones, along with the sternum, ribs and skull bones. "Clavicles" look slender and somewhat flat, but they are classified as long bones because they have a shaft with two ends. "Vertebrae" are irregular bones, with complex shapes that fit no other category. "Femurs" are long bones, longer than they are wide, with a shaft and two expanded ends.

English & Language Usage (157)

  1. The patient’s MRI revealed a massive subdural hemorrhage. Which of the following defines the prefix “sub-” as used in the word subdural in the sentence above?

    • A.Beneath
    • B.Between
    • C.Outside
    • D.Through
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Beneath

    “Beneath” is correct: “sub-” means under or beneath, and a subdural hemorrhage collects beneath the dura, the tough outer membrane that covers the brain. “Between” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “inter-” (as in intercostal, between the ribs). “Outside” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “extra-” (as in extracellular). “Through” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “trans-” (as in transdermal, through the skin).

  2. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “micro-”?

    • A.Sound
    • B.Light
    • C.Large
    • D.Small
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Small

    “Small” is correct: “micro-” means small, as in microscope (an instrument for viewing small things) and microorganism. “Sound” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “phono-” (as in phonics); in microphone, the “phone” part carries the sound meaning, not “micro-”. “Light” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “photo-” (as in photograph). “Large” is incorrect because large is the meaning of “macro-” (as in macroscopic, large enough to see unaided), the prefix paired against “micro-”.

  3. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “auto-”?

    • A.Life
    • B.Self
    • C.Fast
    • D.Mind
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Self

    “Self” is correct: “auto-” means self, as in autograph (a person’s own signature) and automatic (working by itself). “Life” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “bio-”; in autobiography, “bio-” supplies life and “auto-” supplies self. “Fast” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “tachy-” (as in tachycardia). “Mind” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “psych-” (as in psychology).

  4. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “poly-”?

    • A.Half
    • B.Four
    • C.Huge
    • D.Many
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Many

    “Many” is correct: “poly-” means many, as in polygon (a figure with many sides) and polyglot (a person who speaks many languages). “Half” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “hemi-” or “semi-” (as in semicircle). “Four” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “tetra-” or “quadri-” (as in quadrilateral). “Huge” is incorrect because great size is the meaning of “mega-” (as in megaphone), not “poly-”.

  5. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “inter-”?

    • A.Between
    • B.Within
    • C.Through
    • D.Outside
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Between

    “Between” is correct: “inter-” means between, as in interstate (running between states) and intercostal (between the ribs). “Within” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “intra-” (an intrastate highway stays within one state), the prefix most often confused with “inter-”. “Through” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “trans-” (as in transdermal). “Outside” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “extra-” (as in extracurricular).

  6. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “pre-”?

    • A.Behind
    • B.Beyond
    • C.Before
    • D.Across
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Before

    “Before” is correct: “pre-” means before, as in pretest (a test given before instruction) and prenatal (before birth). “Behind” is incorrect because backward or behind is the meaning of “retro-” (as in retrograde). “Beyond” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “ultra-” (as in ultraviolet, beyond violet light). “Across” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “trans-” (as in transatlantic).

  7. Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix “super-”?

    • A.Among
    • B.After
    • C.Above
    • D.Apart
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Above

    “Above” is correct: “super-” means above or over, as in superscript (written above the line) and supersonic (above the speed of sound). “Among” is incorrect because that is a meaning of “inter-” (as in intermingle). “After” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “post-” (as in postoperative). “Apart” is incorrect because that is a meaning of “dis-” (as in dissect, to cut apart).

  8. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-genesis”?

    • A.The separation of
    • B.The deficiency of
    • C.The production of
    • D.The inspection of
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The production of

    “The production of” is correct: “-genesis” means the production or formation of something, as in osteogenesis, the production of bone. “The separation of” is incorrect because breaking down or separation is the meaning of “-lysis” (as in hemolysis). “The deficiency of” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “-penia” (as in leukopenia, a deficiency of white blood cells). “The inspection of” is incorrect because visual examination is the meaning of “-scopy” (as in endoscopy).

  9. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-phobe”?

    • A.One who likes
    • B.One who rules
    • C.One who heals
    • D.One who fears
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: One who fears

    “One who fears” is correct: “-phobe” names a person with a fear, as in arachnophobe, one who fears spiders. “One who likes” is incorrect because liking or attraction is the meaning of “-phile” (as in bibliophile, a book lover), the suffix usually set against “-phobe”. “One who rules” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “-crat” (as in autocrat). “One who heals” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “-iatrist” (as in psychiatrist, a healer of the mind).

  10. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-ic”?

    • A.Characteristic of
    • B.Quality or state of
    • C.Practitioner of
    • D.In the direction of
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Characteristic of

    “Characteristic of” is correct: “-ic” forms adjectives meaning having the character of or characteristic of, as in artistic (characteristic of an artist) and poetic. “Quality or state of” is incorrect because that is the meaning of the noun suffix “-ness” (as in kindness); “-ic” makes describing words, not nouns that name a state. “In the direction of” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “-ward” (as in homeward). “Practitioner of” is incorrect because one who practices is the meaning of “-ist” (as in pianist).

  11. A patient was diagnosed with tachycardia because his heart rate was more than 100 beats per minute. Which of the following defines the suffix “-cardia” as used in the word tachycardia in the sentence above?

    • A.Heart
    • B.Rapid
    • C.Chest
    • D.Blood
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Heart

    “Heart” is correct: “-cardia” refers to the heart, and the context clues “heart rate” and “beats per minute” confirm that tachycardia is an overly fast heart rate. “Rapid” is incorrect because rapid or fast is the meaning of the prefix “tachy-”, the other part of the word. “Chest” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “thorac-” (as in thoracic). “Blood” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “hem-” (as in hemorrhage).

  12. I am looking for a good filter to purify our drinking water. Which of the following defines the suffix “-ify” as used in the word purify in the sentence above?

    • A.To view
    • B.To flow
    • C.To make
    • D.To kill
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To make

    “To make” is correct: “-ify” means to make or cause to become, so purify means to make pure, which is what a good filter does to drinking water. “To view” is incorrect because viewing is the meaning of “-scope” (as in microscope). “To flow” is incorrect because flow or discharge is the meaning of “-rrhea” (as in diarrhea). “To kill” is incorrect because killing is the meaning of “-cide” (as in germicide); a filter may remove germs, but purify means to make pure.

  13. A low lymphocyte, or white blood cell, count often causes damage to the autoimmune system. Which of the following defines the suffix “-cyte” as used in the word lymphocyte in the sentence above?

    • A.Cell
    • B.Body
    • C.Vein
    • D.Clot
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cell

    “Cell” is correct: “-cyte” means cell, and the context clue “white blood cell” shows that a lymphocyte is a type of cell. “Body” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “-some” (as in chromosome, literally a colored body). “Vein” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “phleb-” (as in phlebotomy). “Clot” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “thromb-” (as in thrombosis).

  14. My mother has suffered from hypoglycemia (low blood sugar level) since she was very young. Which of the following defines the suffix “-emia” as used in the word hypoglycemia in the sentence above?

    • A.Presence in the blood
    • B.Shortage in the blood
    • C.Pressure in the blood
    • D.Bacteria in the blood
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Presence in the blood

    “Presence in the blood” is correct: “-emia” means a condition of having something present in the blood, so hypoglycemia is glucose (“glyc-”) present at a low (“hypo-”) level in the blood. “Shortage in the blood” is incorrect because the shortage comes from the prefix “hypo-”, not from “-emia”; hyperglycemia uses the same suffix for an excess. “Pressure in the blood” is incorrect because pressure is the meaning of “-tension” (as in hypertension). “Bacteria in the blood” is incorrect because bacteria comes from the root “bacter-” in bacteremia; “-emia” itself names no particular substance.

  15. Based on an examination of the word parts, which of the following means “the process of examining the colon”?

    • A.Colonoscope
    • B.Colonoscopy
    • C.Proctoscopy
    • D.Colostomy
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Colonoscopy

    “Colonoscopy” is correct: “colono-” names the colon, “-scop-” means to view or examine, and the ending “-y” means the process or act of, so a colonoscopy is the process of examining the colon. “Colonoscope” is incorrect because “-scope” names the instrument used for the examination, not the process. “Proctoscopy” is incorrect because “procto-” refers to the rectum and anus, so it is the examination of a different organ. “Colostomy” is incorrect because “-stomy” means a surgical opening, so it names an operation, not an examination.

  16. Using your knowledge of word parts, which of the following means “bone disease”?

    • A.Osteoporosis
    • B.Osteogenesis
    • C.Dermatopathy
    • D.Arthropathy
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Osteoporosis

    “Osteoporosis” is correct: “osteo-” means bone and “-osis” means an abnormal condition or disease, so osteoporosis is a bone disease (one in which bone becomes porous). “Osteogenesis” is incorrect because “-genesis” means production, so it is the normal production of bone, not a disease. “Dermatopathy” is incorrect because “dermato-” means skin, so it names a skin disease. “Arthropathy” is incorrect because “arthro-” means joint, so it names a joint disease rather than a bone disease.

  17. Using your knowledge of word parts, which of the following means “characterized by low heat levels”?

    • A.Hypotensive
    • B.Hypothermic
    • C.Endothermic
    • D.Hyperactive
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Hypothermic

    “Hypothermic” is correct: “hypo-” means low or below, “therm” means heat, and “-ic” means characterized by, so hypothermic means characterized by low heat. “Hypotensive” is incorrect because “tens” refers to pressure, so it means characterized by low blood pressure. “Endothermic” is incorrect because “endo-” means within, so it describes a process that takes heat in, not a low heat level. “Hyperactive” is incorrect because “hyper-” means above normal, so it means characterized by excess activity.

  18. Using your knowledge of word parts, which of the following means “one who studies the heart”?

    • A.Hematologist
    • B.Cardiomegaly
    • C.Cardiologist
    • D.Cardiologic
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cardiologist

    “Cardiologist” is correct: “cardio-” means heart, “-logy” means study of, and “-ist” means one who, so a cardiologist is one who studies the heart. “Hematologist” is incorrect because “hemato-” means blood, so it names one who studies blood. “Cardiomegaly” is incorrect because “-megaly” means enlargement, so it names an enlarged heart, not a person. “Cardiologic” is incorrect because “-ic” makes an adjective meaning relating to cardiology; it describes the field but does not name the person.

  19. Using your knowledge of word parts, which of the following means “characterized by diseased behaviors toward society”?

    • A.Sociopathic
    • B.Psychopathic
    • C.Sociological
    • D.Psychiatrist
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Sociopathic

    “Sociopathic” is correct: “socio-” means society, “path” means disease, and “-ic” means characterized by, so sociopathic means characterized by diseased behavior toward society. “Psychopathic” is incorrect because “psycho-” means mind, so it means characterized by disease of the mind rather than diseased behavior toward society. “Sociological” is incorrect because “-logy” means study of, so it means relating to the study of society, not to disease. “Psychiatrist” is incorrect because “psych-” means mind, “iatr” means treatment, and “-ist” means one who, so it names one who treats the mind.

  20. My father suffered from hypertension all of his adult life until he had a fatal heart attack at 48. Based on your analysis of word parts, what is the meaning of the word “hypertension” in the sentence?

    • A.High blood pressure
    • B.Stiff blood vessels
    • C.Excess blood volume
    • D.Very fast heartbeat
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: High blood pressure

    “High blood pressure” is correct: “hyper-” means above normal and “tension” here refers to the pressure of blood against the artery walls, so hypertension is high blood pressure, a long-term risk for a fatal heart attack. “Stiff blood vessels” is incorrect because hardened arteries are named by arteriosclerosis (“sclero-” means hard). “Excess blood volume” is incorrect because that is hypervolemia, which adds “vol-” (volume) to “-emia” (blood). “Very fast heartbeat” is incorrect because that is tachycardia, from “tachy-” (fast) and “-cardia” (heart).

  21. I have trouble hearing the television, so next week I have an appointment with an audiologist. Based on your analysis of word parts, what is the meaning of the word “audiologist” in the sentence?

    • A.One who records sound
    • B.One who loathes sound
    • C.The science of sounds
    • D.One who studies sound
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: One who studies sound

    “One who studies sound” is correct: “audio-” means sound or hearing, “-logy” means study of, and “-ist” means one who, so an audiologist is one who studies sound and hearing, the right specialist for trouble hearing the television. “One who records sound” is incorrect because recording is the meaning of “-grapher” (as in photographer). “One who loathes sound” is incorrect because hatred is the meaning of “miso-” (as in misophonia, a hatred of certain sounds). “The science of sounds” is incorrect because that is what “-logy” alone names, the field of audiology; the added “-ist” turns the field into the person, so audiologist means one who studies it.

  22. Good periodontal care is essential to healthy gums. Based on your analysis of word parts, what is the meaning of the word “periodontal” in the sentence?

    • A.In the area within the teeth
    • B.In the area across the teeth
    • C.In the area behind the teeth
    • D.In the area around the teeth
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: In the area around the teeth

    “In the area around the teeth” is correct: “peri-” means around and “odont” means tooth, so periodontal care protects the gums and other tissue around the teeth. “In the area within the teeth” is incorrect because within is the meaning of “endo-” (as in endodontic, work inside a tooth). “In the area across the teeth” is incorrect because across is the meaning of “trans-”. “In the area behind the teeth” is incorrect because behind is the meaning of “retro-”.

  23. Claire thought she could get away with her deceptive antics, but little did she know, Gina would seek retribution. Which of the following best defines the word retribution based on its use in the sentence?

    • A.Apology
    • B.Revenge
    • C.Closure
    • D.Respect
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Revenge

    “Revenge” is correct: retribution is punishment given in return for a wrong, and the context clue “deceptive antics” shows Gina was wronged and would seek to pay Claire back. “Apology” is incorrect because an apology is an expression of regret from Claire, while retribution is a penalty imposed on her. “Closure” is incorrect because closure is a sense of resolution for Gina herself, not a penalty aimed at the wrongdoer. “Respect” is incorrect because respect is regard Gina might want restored, while retribution means punishing the person who did wrong.

  24. The administration encouraged teachers to provide students with tasks that challenged their cognitive skills rather than simple tasks of repetition. Which of the following is an antonym for the word cognitive as it is used in the sentence?

    • A.Deliberation
    • B.Memorization
    • C.Intelligence
    • D.Productivity
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Memorization

    “Memorization” is the keyed answer as the sentence uses the word: “cognitive” skills are set against “simple tasks of repetition,” and memorization by repetition is the rote activity the sentence contrasts with challenging thinking. “Deliberation” is incorrect because careful reasoning is cognitive activity, so it is closer to a synonym. “Intelligence” is incorrect because intelligence is the capacity for cognitive work, again closer to a synonym. “Productivity” is incorrect because productivity measures how much work gets done, not what kind of thinking the tasks demand, so it is not set against cognitive skills.

  25. Moriah was privy to the surprise party and knew she couldn’t let the cat out of the bag to Heather. Which of the following is an antonym for the word privy as it is used in the sentence?

    • A.Astonished
    • B.Implicated
    • C.Determined
    • D.Uninformed
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Uninformed

    “Uninformed” is correct: “privy” means sharing in secret knowledge, and the sentence shows Moriah knew about the surprise party, so the opposite is being uninformed about it. “Astonished” is incorrect because astonishment is how Heather, the person kept in the dark, will react at the party; it names a feeling, not a lack of knowledge. “Implicated” is incorrect because being implicated means being involved in the plan, which is close to a synonym of privy. “Determined” is incorrect because determination describes Moriah’s resolve to keep the secret, not whether she knows it.

  26. The elaborate architecture of the cathedral inspired architects of later generations to incorporate even more detail into their designs. Which of the following is an antonym for the word elaborate as it is used in the sentence?

    • A.Ornate
    • B.Lavish
    • C.Simple
    • D.Sacred
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Simple

    “Simple” is correct: “elaborate” means marked by complex detail, and the sentence says later architects added “even more detail,” so the opposite is simple. “Ornate” is incorrect because ornate means richly decorated, a synonym of elaborate. “Lavish” is incorrect because lavish means rich and abundant, which is also close to elaborate. “Sacred” is incorrect because sacred describes the religious purpose of a cathedral, not its level of detail.

  27. Angela found it extremely morbid that Daisy had written her husband’s obituary years before he passed away. Which of the following is an antonym for the word morbid as it is used in the sentence?

    • A.Ghoulish
    • B.Pleasant
    • C.Peculiar
    • D.Thorough
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Pleasant

    “Pleasant” is correct: “morbid” means gruesome or unhealthily focused on death, as in writing an obituary for a husband who is still alive, so the opposite is pleasant. “Ghoulish” is incorrect because ghoulish means delighting in death or horror, a synonym of morbid. “Peculiar” is incorrect because peculiar means odd, which describes Daisy’s act but is not the opposite of morbid. “Thorough” is incorrect because thoroughness describes how carefully the obituary was written, not whether the act was gloomy.

  28. Though the Blues viewed the Bruins as formidable opponents because of their previous battles, they developed a game plan to ensure they wouldn’t lose again. Which of the following is an antonym for the word formidable as it is used in the sentence?

    • A.Bold
    • B.Slow
    • C.Weak
    • D.Huge
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Weak

    “Weak” is correct: “formidable” means causing fear or hard to defeat, which is why the Blues needed a game plan to avoid losing again, so the opposite is weak. “Bold” is incorrect because bold means daring, a quality that fits a formidable opponent rather than opposing it. “Slow” is incorrect because slowness describes a team’s pace, and a slow team can still be hard to beat, so it is not the opposite of formidable. “Huge” is incorrect because great size suggests strength, so it leans toward formidable instead of away from it.

  29. Too much screen time can be detrimental to children’s development, so parents may want to consider limiting the exposure to electronics throughout the day. Which of the following is an antonym for the word detrimental as it is used in the sentence?

    • A.Disruptive
    • B.Widespread
    • C.Compulsive
    • D.Beneficial
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Beneficial

    “Beneficial” is correct: “detrimental” means causing harm, and the sentence advises limiting screen time because of that harm, so the opposite is beneficial. “Disruptive” is incorrect because disruptive means causing disorder, which is close to detrimental. “Widespread” is incorrect because widespread describes how common screen time is, not whether it helps or harms. “Compulsive” is incorrect because compulsive describes a hard-to-control habit, which is a source of harm, not the opposite of it.

  30. George attempted to gain leverage in his race for mayor by discussing the improvements he planned to bring to town. Which of the following is a synonym for the word leverage as it is used in the sentence?

    • A.Friction
    • B.Humility
    • C.Sympathy
    • D.Momentum
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Momentum

    “Momentum” is the keyed answer as the sentence uses the word: “leverage” here means power or advantage that moves George’s race forward, and gaining momentum is gaining that kind of driving force. “Friction” is incorrect because friction is resistance or conflict that slows a campaign down. “Humility” is incorrect because humility is modesty, which is not a source of power in a race. “Sympathy” is incorrect because sympathy is shared feeling for someone’s trouble, and talking up planned improvements is a bid for strength, not pity.

  31. Since he didn’t have much of a backbone, Bryan was susceptible to peer pressure. Which of the following best defines the word susceptible based on its use in the sentence?

    • A.Opposed to a force or influence
    • B.Devoted to a force or influence
    • C.Subject to a force or influence
    • D.Partial to a force or influence
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Subject to a force or influence

    “Subject to a force or influence” is correct: “susceptible” means easily affected, and Bryan’s lack of a “backbone” left him open to peer pressure. “Opposed to a force or influence” is incorrect because opposing pressure is resistance, which is exactly what a person without a backbone fails to show. “Devoted to a force or influence” is incorrect because devoted means loyal or committed by choice, while susceptible means easily swayed. “Partial to a force or influence” is incorrect because partial to means fond of; Bryan gives in to peer pressure, which is not the same as liking it.

  32. My doctor prescribed an antibiotic to fight my infection. Which of the following defines the prefix “anti-“ as used in the word antibiotic in the sentence above?

    • A.Without
    • B.Outside
    • C.Against
    • D.Through
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Against

    “Against” is correct: “anti-” means against, and the context clue “fight” shows that an antibiotic works against the infection. “Without” is incorrect because without is the meaning of “a-” or “an-” (as in anemia). “Outside” is incorrect because outside is the meaning of “extra-” (as in extracellular). “Through” is incorrect because through is the meaning of “trans-” (as in transfusion).

  33. After surgery, the patient was fed by intravenous tubes. Which of the following defines the prefix “intra-” as used in the word intravenous in the sentence above?

    • A.Within
    • B.Between
    • C.Through
    • D.Beneath
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Within

    “Within” is correct: “intra-” means within, and intravenous feeding delivers fluid within a vein. “Between” is incorrect because between is the meaning of “inter-” (as in intercellular), the prefix most often confused with “intra-”. “Through” is incorrect because through is the meaning of “trans-” (as in transdermal). “Beneath” is incorrect because beneath is the meaning of “sub-” (as in subcutaneous).

  34. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-algia”?

    • A.Having to do with fear
    • B.Having to do with flow
    • C.Having to do with skin
    • D.Having to do with pain
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Having to do with pain

    “Having to do with pain” is correct: “-algia” means pain, as in neuralgia (nerve pain) and fibromyalgia (pain in muscle and fibrous tissue). “Having to do with fear” is incorrect because fear is the meaning of “-phobia” (as in claustrophobia). “Having to do with flow” is incorrect because flow or discharge is the meaning of “-rrhea” (as in rhinorrhea). “Having to do with skin” is incorrect because skin is the meaning of “-derma” (as in scleroderma).

  35. The outstanding ER staff put forth extraordinary efforts during the disease outbreak. Which of the following defines the prefix “extra-” as used in the word extraordinary in the sentence above?

    • A.Before
    • B.Beyond
    • C.Across
    • D.Behind
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Beyond

    “Beyond” is correct: “extra-” means outside or beyond, and the context clue “outstanding” shows that extraordinary efforts went beyond the ordinary. “Before” is incorrect because before is the meaning of “pre-” (as in preoperative). “Across” is incorrect because across is the meaning of “trans-” (as in transfer). “Behind” is incorrect because backward or behind is the meaning of “retro-” (as in retrospect).

  36. In which of the following does the suffix create a word that has a different meaning than the root word?

    • A.Prescribed
    • B.Intestinal
    • C.Diaphragms
    • D.Appendixes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Intestinal

    “Intestinal” is correct: the suffix “-al” turns the noun intestine into an adjective meaning relating to the intestine, a word with a different meaning and a different job in a sentence. “Prescribed” is incorrect because “-d” only marks the past tense of prescribe; the action itself is unchanged. “Diaphragms” is incorrect because “-s” only makes diaphragm plural. “Appendixes” is incorrect because “-es” only makes appendix plural.

  37. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-ize”?

    • A.Repeat or redo
    • B.Make or render
    • C.Split or sever
    • D.Cancel or undo
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Make or render

    “Make or render” is correct: “-ize” means to make or cause to be, so sterilize means to make or render sterile and immunize means to make immune. “Repeat or redo” is incorrect because that is the meaning of the prefix “re-” (as in rewrite). “Split or sever” is incorrect because splitting apart is the meaning of “dis-” (as in dissect, to cut apart). “Cancel or undo” is incorrect because reversing an action is the meaning of “un-” or “de-” (as in untie and deactivate).

  38. Health professionals work together with clear communication to avoid the misdiagnosis of illnesses. Which of the following defines the prefix “mis-” as used in the word misdiagnosis in the sentence above?

    • A.Again
    • B.Wrong
    • C.Under
    • D.Apart
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Wrong

    “Wrong” is correct: “mis-” means wrong or wrongly, and the sentence says a misdiagnosis is something health professionals work to avoid, so it is a wrong diagnosis. “Again” is incorrect because again is the meaning of “re-” (as in reexamine). “Under” is incorrect because under is the meaning of “sub-” (as in subdural), not “mis-”. “Apart” is incorrect because apart is a meaning of “dis-” (as in dissect).

  39. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-less”?

    • A.Afraid of
    • B.Worthy of
    • C.Devoid of
    • D.Result of
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Devoid of

    “Devoid of” is correct: “-less” means without or devoid of, so symptomless means devoid of symptoms and careless means devoid of care. “Afraid of” is incorrect because fear is the meaning of “-phobic” (as in claustrophobic). “Worthy of” is incorrect because that is the meaning of “-worthy” (as in trustworthy, worthy of trust). “Result of” is incorrect because the result of an action is a meaning of “-ment” (as in settlement).

  40. Nana was your quintessential grandma who absolutely adored her grandchildren as you might expect from most grandparents. Which of the following best defines the word quintessential based on its use in the sentence?

    • A.Truly exceptional
    • B.Overly protective
    • C.Sweetly nostalgic
    • D.Perfectly typical
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Perfectly typical

    Perfectly typical is correct. The sentence says Nana adored her grandchildren “as you might expect from most grandparents,” so quintessential means being the perfect, typical example of a kind. Truly exceptional is incorrect; it reverses the clue, since behavior you would expect from most grandparents is ordinary, not unusual. Overly protective is incorrect; adoring her grandchildren is not the same as guarding them too closely, and the sentence never mentions protection. Sweetly nostalgic is incorrect; the sentence says nothing about Nana longing for the past, only that she acts the way grandparents usually do.

  41. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-itis”?

    • A.Inflammation of
    • B.Visualization of
    • C.Infection of
    • D.Proliferation of
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Inflammation of

    Inflammation of is correct. The suffix “-itis” means inflammation of, as in tonsillitis (inflammation of the tonsils) and dermatitis (inflammation of the skin). Infection of is incorrect; an infection can cause inflammation, but conditions such as arthritis and dermatitis often involve no infection, so “-itis” names the inflammation, not its cause. Visualization of is incorrect; looking inside the body is shown by “-scopy,” as in endoscopy. Proliferation of is incorrect; growth or formation of cells is shown by “-plasia,” as in hyperplasia.

  42. Based on an examination of the word parts, which of the following means “one who studies very small life forms”?

    • A.Microbiologist
    • B.Neurobiologist
    • C.Paleobiologist
    • D.Micropathology
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Microbiologist

    Microbiologist is correct: “micro-” means small, “bio” means life, “-ology” means study of, and “-ist” means one who, so the word names one who studies very small life forms. Neurobiologist is incorrect; “neuro-” means nerve, so this is one who studies the biology of the nervous system, not tiny organisms. Paleobiologist is incorrect; “paleo-” means ancient, so this is one who studies ancient or fossil life. Micropathology is incorrect; it begins with “micro-,” but “path” means disease and the word ends in “-ology” with no “-ist,” so it names a field that studies disease, not a person who studies life.

  43. A very capricious teenager, Louie rarely took the time to weigh the consequences of his actions. Which of the following best defines the word capricious based on its use in the sentence?

    • A.Obstinate
    • B.Judicious
    • C.Steadfast
    • D.Impulsive
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Impulsive

    Impulsive is correct. Louie “rarely took the time to weigh the consequences of his actions,” which describes someone who acts on sudden whims without thinking. Obstinate is incorrect; it means stubborn, and the sentence is about acting without thought, not refusing to change one’s mind. Judicious is incorrect; it means showing good judgment, the opposite of someone who does not weigh consequences. Steadfast is incorrect; it means firm and unchanging, which contradicts capricious, a word for someone whose behavior shifts suddenly.

  44. The patient opted for the noninvasive laser surgery, which does not involve incisions, to remove her gallstones. Which of the following defines the prefix “non-” as used in the word noninvasive in the sentence above?

    • A.Not
    • B.Less
    • C.Under
    • D.Above
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Not

    Not is correct. The context clue “does not involve incisions” shows that “non-” means not, so noninvasive means not invasive. Less is incorrect; a procedure that is only less invasive would still require some cutting, but this one involves no incisions, and “non-” does not mean less. Under is incorrect; that is the meaning of “sub-” or “hypo-,” as in subcutaneous. Above is incorrect; that is the meaning of “super-” or “supra-,” as in suprarenal.

  45. After winning a state championship, the team reacted effusively, jumping up and down and crying tears of happiness together. Which of the following best defines the word effusively based on its use in the sentence?

    • A.With raw grief
    • B.With great joy
    • C.With wild rage
    • D.With shy pride
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: With great joy

    With great joy is correct. The team was “jumping up and down and crying tears of happiness together,” so effusively describes an unrestrained, joyful reaction. With raw grief is incorrect; the crying is described as “tears of happiness,” not sorrow. With wild rage is incorrect; jumping up and down can signal anger in another setting, but nothing about a championship win and tears of happiness points to fury. With shy pride is incorrect; pride suits a win, but a shy, quiet response contradicts the jumping and crying that effusively describes.

  46. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-ectomy”?

    • A.The incision of
    • B.The fixation of
    • C.The suture of
    • D.The removal of
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The removal of

    The removal of is correct. The suffix “-ectomy” means surgical removal, as in tonsillectomy (removal of the tonsils) and appendectomy (removal of the appendix). The incision of is incorrect; cutting into a body part is “-otomy,” as in tracheotomy, which opens the trachea without removing it. The fixation of is incorrect; surgically fastening an organ in place is “-pexy,” as in nephropexy. The suture of is incorrect; surgical stitching is “-rrhaphy,” as in herniorrhaphy.

  47. All through grade school, the girls were adversaries, but when they reached high school, they shockingly became best friends. Which of the following best defines the word adversaries based on its use in the sentence?

    • A.Buddies
    • B.Cousins
    • C.Bullies
    • D.Enemies
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Enemies

    Enemies is correct. The girls “shockingly became best friends” in high school, and that change is shocking only if they began as adversaries, or enemies. Buddies is incorrect; the word “but” signals a contrast, and girls who were already friends becoming best friends would not be shocking. Cousins is incorrect; the sentence says nothing about family, and cousins growing close would not be shocking either. Bullies is incorrect; bullies pick on other people, while the sentence contrasts how the two girls felt about each other with their later friendship.

  48. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-ologist”?

    • A.One who studies
    • B.One who records
    • C.One who admires
    • D.One who teaches
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: One who studies

    One who studies is correct. The suffix “-ologist” combines “-ology” (study of) and “-ist” (one who), as in biologist and neurologist. One who records is incorrect; that is the sense of “-grapher,” as in photographer. One who admires is incorrect; fondness or love is “-phile,” as in bibliophile. One who teaches is incorrect; neither “-ology” nor “-ist” refers to teaching, so the suffix names the person doing the studying, not instructing others.

  49. Based on an examination of the word parts, which of the following means “characteristic of a diseased mind”?

    • A.Sociopathic
    • B.Cardiopathic
    • C.Psychopathic
    • D.Psychiatrist
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Psychopathic

    Psychopathic is correct: “psych” means mind, “path” means disease, and “-ic” means characteristic of, so the word means characteristic of a diseased mind. Sociopathic is incorrect; it has “path” and “-ic,” but “socio” means society, so it describes disordered social behavior rather than the mind. Cardiopathic is incorrect; it also ends in “-pathic,” but “cardio” means heart, so it means characteristic of heart disease. Psychiatrist is incorrect; “iatr” means healing and “-ist” means one who, so it names a person who treats the mind rather than describing a diseased one.

  50. The new multifunction equipment, with a large variety of purposes, is amazingly innovative. Which of the following defines the prefix “multi-” as used in the word multifunction in the sentence above?

    • A.Many
    • B.Dual
    • C.Half
    • D.Self
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Many

    Many is correct. The context clue “with a large variety of purposes” shows that “multi-” means many, so multifunction equipment has many functions. Dual is incorrect; two is the meaning of “bi-” or “di-,” and a large variety of purposes means more than two. Half is incorrect; that is the meaning of “semi-” or “hemi-,” as in semicircle. Self is incorrect; that is the meaning of “auto-,” as in automatic, and the sentence is about how many purposes the equipment serves, not who runs it.

  51. Based on an examination of the word parts, which of the following means “the state of being infected”?

    • A.Infectious
    • B.Infection
    • C.Uninfected
    • D.Infector
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Infection

    Infection is correct. The suffix “-ion” means the state or condition of, so infection is the state of being infected. Infectious is incorrect; “-ious” forms an adjective meaning having the quality of, so it describes something able to spread infection, not the state itself. Uninfected is incorrect; “un-” means not, so it means not infected, the opposite of the definition. Infector is incorrect; “-or” means one who or that which, so it names the person or agent that infects, not the condition.

  52. Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix “-ate”?

    • A.Cause to be
    • B.Able to be
    • C.Unable to be
    • D.Appear to be
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cause to be

    Cause to be is correct. As a verb suffix, “-ate” means to cause to be or to make, as in activate (cause to be active) and validate (cause to be valid). Able to be is incorrect; that is the meaning of “-able” or “-ible,” as in readable. Unable to be is incorrect; that sense belongs to “-less” in words such as countless, meaning unable to be counted. Appear to be is incorrect; seeming like or resembling is the meaning of “-oid” or “-esque,” as in humanoid.

  53. Though they hated to cancel, the bank had to rescind their loan offer after discovering the fraudulent activity. Which of the following best defines the word rescind based on its use in the sentence?

    • A.To postpone
    • B.To finalize
    • C.To withdraw
    • D.To reassess
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To withdraw

    To withdraw is correct. The sentence says the bank “hated to cancel” but had to rescind its loan offer, so rescind means to take away, or withdraw, something already offered. To postpone is incorrect; delaying the offer would not be canceling it, and the sentence says the bank had to cancel. To finalize is incorrect; completing the loan is the opposite of canceling it, and discovering fraud would not lead a bank to close the deal. To reassess is incorrect; reviewing the offer again is not the same as canceling it, which is what the sentence says the bank did.

  54. When preparing for the county band competition, Mr. Kesterson ran us through the gamut of pieces, with everything from classical to hard rock. Which of the following best defines the word gamut based on its use in the sentence?

    • A.A sequence
    • B.A practice
    • C.A spectrum
    • D.A workshop
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A spectrum

    A spectrum is correct. Mr. Kesterson ran the band through “everything from classical to hard rock,” so the gamut is the full range of pieces. A sequence is incorrect; the sentence stresses the range of styles, not the order in which the pieces were played. A practice is incorrect; the band was preparing for a competition, but gamut describes the pieces, not the rehearsal session itself. A workshop is incorrect; nothing suggests a training class, and “everything from classical to hard rock” describes variety, not a kind of event.

  55. The new director of the university museum is a famous author and anthropologist, focusing on the whole human experience. Which of the following defines the prefix “anthrop-” as used in the word anthropologist in the sentence above?

    • A.Culture
    • B.Society
    • C.Fossils
    • D.Mankind
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Mankind

    Mankind is correct. The context clue “the whole human experience” shows that “anthrop-” means human, or mankind, as in anthropology and philanthropy. Culture is incorrect; culture is one subject anthropologists study, but the prefix itself refers to human beings, not their customs. Society is incorrect; that is the meaning of “soci-,” as in sociology. Fossils is incorrect; ancient and fossil life is signaled by “paleo-,” as in paleontology.

  56. A good, strong disinfectant is vital to stopping the spread of infections. Which of the following defines the prefix “dis-” as used in the word disinfectant in the sentence above?

    • A.Badly
    • B.Again
    • C.Less
    • D.Not
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Not

    Not is correct. A disinfectant works by “stopping the spread of infections,” leaving a surface not infected; “dis-” means not or the reverse of, as in dislike and disagree. Badly is incorrect; bad or badly is the meaning of “mal-” or “dys-,” as in malfunction and dysfunction, and “dys-” only looks like “dis-.” Again is incorrect; that is the meaning of “re-,” and a disinfectant does the reverse of infecting, not infecting again. Less is incorrect; lessening is not a meaning of “dis-,” and the sentence describes stopping infections, not reducing them a little.

  57. The scientist cut the worm into three sections: the anterior, the midsection and the posterior. Which of the following defines the prefix “mid-” as used in the word midsection in the sentence above?

    • A.Through
    • B.Without
    • C.Forward
    • D.Between
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Between

    Between is correct. The worm was cut into the anterior, the midsection, and the posterior, so the midsection lies between the front and back sections. Forward is incorrect; the forward or front section is the anterior, from “ante-,” meaning before, and the midsection lies behind it. Through is incorrect; that is the meaning of “trans-” or “per-,” as in transparent. Without is incorrect; that is the meaning of “a-” or “an-,” as in anemia.

  58. You’ll stay here until you’re old to pay for all the untruths you told. Which of the following publications would most likely contain this sentence?

    • A.Historical novel
    • B.Newspaper column
    • C.Science textbook
    • D.Poetry anthology
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Poetry anthology

    Poetry anthology is correct. The sentence rhymes (“old” with “told”) and has a steady beat, the marks of a line of verse, which would be collected in a poetry anthology. Historical novel is incorrect; a novel tells its story in prose paragraphs, and nothing in this rhyming line points to a historical setting. Newspaper column is incorrect; a column reports news or opinion in plain prose and would not address someone in rhyme. Science textbook is incorrect; a textbook explains facts in formal, informative language, not with a rhyming threat aimed at a liar.

  59. The head of those two departments ______________ with pneumonia last night. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?

    • A.Were hospitalized
    • B.Been hospitalized
    • C.Was hospitalized
    • D.Gets hospitalized
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Was hospitalized

    Was hospitalized is correct. The subject is “head,” which is singular; “of those two departments” is a prepositional phrase that does not change the subject, and “last night” calls for the past tense. Were hospitalized is incorrect; “were” is plural, so it agrees with “departments,” the object of the preposition, instead of the singular subject. Been hospitalized is incorrect; “been” needs a helping verb such as “has” or “had,” so it leaves the sentence without a complete verb. Gets hospitalized is incorrect; “gets” agrees with the singular subject, but it is present tense, which clashes with “last night.”

  60. The country singer and the banker, who have three children in common, allegedly got married at the beginning of June in a private ceremony in Belize. Which of the following publications would most likely contain this sentence?

    • A.Pop culture magazine
    • B.Holiday travel guide
    • C.Finance trade review
    • D.Town marriage record
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Pop culture magazine

    Pop culture magazine is correct. The sentence passes along gossip about a country singer’s private life, including a wedding that “allegedly” took place, which is the kind of celebrity news such magazines feature. Holiday travel guide is incorrect; Belize is mentioned only as the place of the ceremony, and a travel guide would describe places to visit, not a couple’s rumored marriage. Finance trade review is incorrect; one of the pair is a banker, but a finance trade review covers banking and markets, not someone’s personal life. Town marriage record is incorrect; an official record states facts with certainty, so it would not say the couple “allegedly” got married.

  61. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

    • A.Joe truly regretted the spat, he apologized to his cousins.
    • B.Hoping to end it, Joe and his sister apologizes to them.
    • C.Trying to make things right, Joe apologized to his cousins.
    • D.Joe apologized for the feud to his cousins that he started.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Trying to make things right, Joe apologized to his cousins.

    Trying to make things right, Joe apologized to his cousins. is correct because the opening phrase describes Joe, “Joe” is the subject that comes right after the comma, and the singular subject takes the verb “apologized.” Joe truly regretted the spat, he apologized to his cousins. is incorrect; it is a comma splice, joining two complete sentences with only a comma, so it needs a period, a semicolon, or a conjunction such as “so.” Hoping to end it, Joe and his sister apologizes to them. is incorrect; the compound subject “Joe and his sister” is plural, so the verb must be “apologize,” not the singular “apologizes.” Joe apologized for the feud to his cousins that he started. is incorrect; the clause “that he started” is misplaced next to “cousins,” so it seems to say Joe started his cousins rather than the feud.

  62. Which of the following steps in the writing process comes before drafting?

    • A.Brainstorming
    • B.Citing sources
    • C.Peer reviewing
    • D.Publishing
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Brainstorming

    Brainstorming is correct. It is the planning stage of the writing process, when the writer gathers and organizes ideas before drafting a first version. Peer reviewing is incorrect; classmates or colleagues can only review and comment on a draft that already exists, so it follows drafting. Citing sources is incorrect; giving credit to sources happens in and after the draft, once the borrowed material has been written in. Publishing is incorrect; it is the last stage, when the completed piece is shared with readers.

  63. Erin sat in the airport coffee shop solemnly sipping earl grey tea. She took a moment to double-check her boarding pass — outbound from Philly, inbound to Dallas. The wedding had been worth the trip, of course, but Erin was dejected to return home where her only friends were from work. She was reminiscing about the past weekend when a woman asked her to sit down. Erin nodded, offering a fleeting, polite smile. They made some small talk; the acquaintance, Jenny, was flying home to Dallas too. Jenny had grown up there, but most of her good friends had relocated after school. The two exchanged pleasantries before parting ways. A half hour later, Erin had found her seat at 26B, and was waiting for take-off. She heard her name and looked up, confused. There was Jenny, standing in the aisle, grinning and displaying her ticket — ‘26A.’ Erin returned an enthusiastic smile. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?

    • A.Fictional story
    • B.Personal memoir
    • C.Short biography
    • D.Feature article
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Fictional story

    Fictional story is correct. The passage follows a character, Erin, through a single scene, shows her private feelings (“Erin was dejected”), and builds to a small surprise when Jenny turns up holding the ticket for 26A, which is how a fictional story works. Personal memoir is incorrect; a memoir is the writer’s own experience told in the first person, but this passage tells about “she” and “Erin.” Short biography is incorrect; a biography sums up the facts of a real person’s life over time, not one afternoon in an airport. Feature article is incorrect; a feature reports on real people or events for a newspaper or magazine, with facts and sources, while this passage narrates a private moment and a character’s inner feelings.

  64. It’s no secret that I do most of the work around here. Compared to Branden, I mean. Look at just what I got done today: I washed the dishes, cleaned my room, and organized the playroom. What did Branden do? NOTHING! Absolutely nothing. I’m pretty sure he was just sitting in front of his PlayStation all day. Is that really the type of behavior you want to reward? I don’t think so. For whom is this passage probably being written?

    • A.Friends
    • B.Mentors
    • C.Parents
    • D.Cousins
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Parents

    Parents is correct. The child lists household chores (“I washed the dishes, cleaned my room, and organized the playroom”) and asks, “Is that really the type of behavior you want to reward?”, a question aimed at the people who reward children at home. Friends is incorrect; friends do not hand out rewards for household chores, so the closing question would make no sense addressed to them. Mentors is incorrect; a mentor guides someone’s growth or career and does not decide rewards for a sibling’s chores. Cousins is incorrect; cousins are relatives, but they do not run the household or decide whether Branden is rewarded.

  65. The Carter Bowen Arena, previously known as Central Arena, is a sports and entertainment arena in Tampa, Florida. Its construction started in 1998, and it cost $213 million. It was designed by a team that included George Heinlein, Cristian Petschen, and other renowned architects. For its inauguration, it hosted a concert by Cuban-American singer Gloria Stefan. What is the author’s tone in this passage?

    • A.Impressed
    • B.Objective
    • C.Nostalgic
    • D.Skeptical
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Objective

    Objective is correct. The passage lists facts (the arena’s former name, its location, when construction began, its cost, its designers, and its first concert) without the author’s feelings or opinions. Impressed is incorrect; the passage calls the architects “renowned,” but it reports that reputation as a fact and never expresses the author’s own admiration. Nostalgic is incorrect; the arena’s earlier name is given as a fact, not as something the author misses. Skeptical is incorrect; the author reports the arena’s cost and history without questioning or doubting any of it.

  66. Which of the following sentences would most likely act as a supporting detail?

    • A.Monkey and human diets, indeed, differ widely.
    • B.Monkeys primarily eat fruits, nuts, and seeds.
    • C.Diet, range, and behavior split monkey groups.
    • D.Diet affects primate growth, health, and mood.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Monkeys primarily eat fruits, nuts, and seeds.

    Monkeys primarily eat fruits, nuts, and seeds. is correct because it gives specific, concrete facts (the actual foods) that would back up a broader point about monkey diets. Monkey and human diets, indeed, differ widely. is incorrect; it is a general claim that the rest of a paragraph would have to prove, so it works as a topic sentence. Diet, range, and behavior split monkey groups. is incorrect; it previews three broad subjects that a whole essay could cover, which makes it a thesis or topic statement, not a detail. Diet affects primate growth, health, and mood. is incorrect; it states a broad conclusion about why diet matters without giving any specific evidence, so it would sum up a paragraph rather than support one.

  67. In the sport of golf, various clubs assist players in performing their best. Most often, players start from the tee using a driver. This club provides power to hit the ball longer distances with less loft than other clubs. Seriously, it shoots like a rocket! If the tee is considerably closer to the green, some golfers may consider using a wood instead. This type of club also has more of a low hit with little loft, but it can be used at shorter distances. As they work their way through the fairway and closer to the green, an iron is typically the club of choice. Irons range from three to nine, with each number representing a different loft capability. When the ball sets a short distance off of the green, a wedge might be the best option. This club can be especially helpful to work out of a sandpit or add significant loft over a short distance. Finally, once a golfer enters the green, the club selected would be a putter, which is used for closer, low-speed hits that require no loft. All golfers must continuously practice in order to learn which clubs work best for them from certain distances. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?

    • A.In the sport of golf, various clubs assist players in performing their best.
    • B.Irons range from three to nine, with each number representing a different loft capability.
    • C.Seriously, it shoots like a rocket!
    • D.All golfers must continuously practice in order to learn which clubs work best for them from certain distances.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Seriously, it shoots like a rocket!

    Seriously, it shoots like a rocket! is correct because its casual, joking tone breaks from the rest of the paragraph, which explains each club in formal, informative language; it adds an exclamation, not information. In the sport of golf, various clubs assist players in performing their best. is incorrect; it is the topic sentence that introduces the paragraph’s subject, the different clubs, in a formal tone. Irons range from three to nine, with each number representing a different loft capability. is incorrect; it gives a technical fact about irons in the same formal tone. All golfers must continuously practice in order to learn which clubs work best for them from certain distances. is incorrect; it shifts from the clubs themselves to practice, but it serves as the paragraph’s concluding sentence and keeps the formal tone.

  68. All employees at Memorial Hospital _____________________ in their field annually. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?

    • A.Has to recertify
    • B.Have to recertify
    • C.Needs to recertify
    • D.Having recertified
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Have to recertify

    Have to recertify is correct because the subject, “employees,” is plural, and “have” is the plural verb form; “at Memorial Hospital” is a prepositional phrase that does not change the subject. Has to recertify is incorrect; “has” is singular and does not agree with the plural subject. Needs to recertify is incorrect; “needs” is also a singular form, as in “she needs,” so it does not agree with “employees.” Having recertified is incorrect; an “-ing” form cannot serve as the main verb by itself, so the sentence would be left without a complete verb.

  69. The board of directors __________________ Dr. Smith’s resignation. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?

    • A.Have demanded
    • B.Are demanding
    • C.Is demanding
    • D.Do demand
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Is demanding

    Is demanding is correct because the subject is “board,” a collective noun acting as one unit, so in standard American English it takes the singular verb “is”; “of directors” is a prepositional phrase and does not change the subject. Are demanding is incorrect; it keeps the present tense but uses the plural “are,” matching “directors,” the object of the preposition, instead of the singular subject. Have demanded is incorrect; “have” is the plural helping verb, so it agrees with “directors” rather than “board,” which would need “has demanded.” Do demand is incorrect; “do” is the plural form of the helping verb, so the singular “board” would need “does demand.”

  70. From the porch of Isabela’s cigar shop, the strain from the past month was a distant memory. The air was already hot, even here in the shade. A breeze awakened the dewy beads of moisture appearing on Elena’s face. She watched the wind animate Spanish moss dangling over the narrow street and brushed a wisp of hair away from her eyes. She raised a tiny porcelain teacup of Cuban coffee to her lips, and closed her eyes to inhale its bittersweet aroma. The taste was deep and rich, softened by a caramel smooth finish from the brown sugar Isabela had mixed with the fresh grounds. No one was out on the St. Augustine streets yet this morning. When Elena placed the cup back down on the saucer beside her, the only sound was the delicate clink amidst birds’ chirping. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?

    • A.Fictional descriptive
    • B.Personal recollection
    • C.Tourism advertisement
    • D.Expository nonfiction
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Fictional descriptive

    Fictional descriptive is correct. The passage follows a character, Elena, and is built almost entirely from sensory imagery: the hot air, the “dewy beads of moisture,” the coffee’s “bittersweet aroma,” and the “delicate clink” of the cup. Personal recollection is incorrect; a recollection is the writer’s own memory told in the first person, but this passage describes “she” and “Elena.” Tourism advertisement is incorrect; St. Augustine and Cuban coffee appear as the setting, but the passage never urges readers to visit, buy, or book anything. Expository nonfiction is incorrect; expository writing explains or informs about a topic, while this passage creates a mood around a character instead of teaching facts.

  71. ‘Smokin’ Joe Frazier (1944-2011) was an American boxer from 1965 to 1981. As an amateur, he was awarded the gold medal at the 1964 Summer Olympics, then rose in the ranks during the late ‘60s. In 1971, Frazier beat Muhammad Ali by unanimous decision in what was heralded as the ‘Fight of the Century.’ He held onto his title as undisputed heavyweight champion until 1973. Frazier’s only losses (four total) were to to Muhammad Ali and George Foreman. The Ring Magazine and the Boxing Writers Association of America named him Fighter of the Year numerous times. In 1990, Frazier was inducted into the International Boxing Hall of Fame. After retiring, ‘Smokin’ Joe went on to train boxers from his gym in Philadelphia. After making his mark on the world of boxing, Joe Frazier died of liver cancer in November 2011. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?

    • A.Critique
    • B.Biography
    • C.Autobiography
    • D.Advertisement
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Biography

    Biography is correct. The passage is written in the third person and traces the facts of a real person’s life, from Joe Frazier’s Olympic gold medal through his title years and retirement to his death in 2011. Autobiography is incorrect; an autobiography is written by its subject in the first person, but this passage uses “he” and even reports Frazier’s death. Critique is incorrect; a critique judges the strengths and weaknesses of a work or performance, while this passage reports dates, titles, and honors without evaluating anything. Advertisement is incorrect; nothing in the passage promotes a product or urges readers to buy or attend anything.

  72. The American Psychological Association includes opioid use disorder in the DSM-V. The American Society of Addiction Medicine considers it “a brain disorder that can range in severity from mild to severe.” Those suffering from addiction “use substances or engage in behaviors that become compulsive and often continue despite harmful consequences.” Opioid use disorder is a complex and variable problem that warrants complex and individualized solutions. “Biological, psychological, and social” factors impact “the development of, and recovery from” addiction. Opioid use disorder constitutes a fast-growing mental health crisis. Which of the following sentences uses ideas and language that fit the passage?

    • A.Psychiatric clinicians, including nurse practitioners, should hustle and scramble for whopping influxes in townsfolk or druggies suffering from opioid use disorder.
    • B.Psychiatric clinicians, including nurse practitioners, should expect and prepare for continuing increases in patients or clients suffering from opioid use disorder.
    • C.Psychiatric clinicians, including nurse practitioners, should forecast and budget for declining numbers in retirees or teenagers suffering from opioid use disorder.
    • D.Psychiatric clinicians, including nurse practitioners, should scold and discipline for lacking willpower in students or veterans suffering from opioid use disorder.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Psychiatric clinicians, including nurse practitioners, should expect and prepare for continuing increases in patients or clients suffering from opioid use disorder.

    Psychiatric clinicians, including nurse practitioners, should expect and prepare for continuing increases in patients or clients suffering from opioid use disorder. is correct because it follows from the passage’s closing point that opioid use disorder “constitutes a fast-growing mental health crisis,” and it keeps the passage’s formal, clinical language. Psychiatric clinicians, including nurse practitioners, should hustle and scramble for whopping influxes in townsfolk or druggies suffering from opioid use disorder. is incorrect; its idea fits, but slang such as “hustle,” “whopping,” “townsfolk,” and “druggies” clashes with the passage’s formal, scientific register. Psychiatric clinicians, including nurse practitioners, should forecast and budget for declining numbers in retirees or teenagers suffering from opioid use disorder. is incorrect; its language is formal, but declining numbers contradict the passage’s description of a “fast-growing” crisis. Psychiatric clinicians, including nurse practitioners, should scold and discipline for lacking willpower in students or veterans suffering from opioid use disorder. is incorrect; treating the disorder as a lack of willpower to be punished contradicts the passage, which calls it “a brain disorder” shaped by “biological, psychological, and social” factors.

  73. Beneath glaring lights, stands filled at the Pomeroy Pirates’ home field. It was time. Dad wasn’t there. Natasha gulped water and decided it was less pressure anyway. She approached the mound, ball in hand. The first three batters struck out on eleven pitches. In the next inning, three got on-base, and one scored off an RBI. By the sixth, the Pirates were up 3-1 with two outs and two runners on. Natasha stared down the Mustangs’ star hitter with the resolve of a bird of prey. She targeted the catcher’s mitt and let it fly – strike, ball, strike, ball. Natasha took a deep breath, swung another windmill, and launched her pitch- strike! Which of the following sentences uses ideas and language that fit the passage?

    • A.Dad sprinting over, she jumped and called to the thundering bleachers.
    • B.Teammates rushing over, she leaped and shouted to the erupting cheers.
    • C.Mustangs streaming over, she slumped and walked to the jeering stands.
    • D.Cohorts converging over, she rose and exulted to the resounding horde.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Teammates rushing over, she leaped and shouted to the erupting cheers.

    Teammates rushing over, she leaped and shouted to the erupting cheers. is correct because it follows the final strike with a celebration told in the passage’s short, plain, action-driven style, and it matches the filled stands at the Pirates’ home field. Dad sprinting over, she jumped and called to the thundering bleachers. is incorrect; the passage states plainly that “Dad wasn’t there.” Mustangs streaming over, she slumped and walked to the jeering stands. is incorrect; Natasha’s last pitch was a strike against the Mustangs’ star hitter, so a scene of the Mustangs celebrating while she walks off dejected reverses what happened. Cohorts converging over, she rose and exulted to the resounding horde. is incorrect; stiff, elevated words such as “cohorts,” “exulted,” and “horde” clash with the simple, everyday language of the rest of the passage.

  74. Many survivors find it incredibly difficult to share their stories because of the traumatic events that they faced. Most were young at the time of the Holocaust and were forced to become adults far sooner than they should have had to. Families were separated, some never to see one another again. Over the years, more survivors have been willing to open up, sharing their experiences with younger generations. Through this passing of historical accounts, it is the hope of survivors that no other people will have to experience such hate and brutality as they did. For whom is this passage probably being written?

    • A.Survivors
    • B.Accountants
    • C.Pharmacists
    • D.Historians
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Historians

    Historians is correct. The passage treats the Holocaust as a historical event and stresses “this passing of historical accounts” from survivors to later generations, information most useful to people who study and record history. Survivors is incorrect; the passage talks about survivors in the third person (“their stories,” “they faced”), so it is written about them, not to them. Accountants is incorrect; the passage does not discuss money, budgets, or finances. Pharmacists is incorrect; nothing in the passage deals with medicines or health care.

  75. The scientific method guides researchers through experiments and studies as they work to answer some of the most difficult questions. To begin, researchers must formulate a question, or figure out what information they want to learn. In order to determine this, they often must make observations about the world around them and take into account previous work done surrounding the topic that they are curious about. Once they have formulated a question, they make an educated guess, or a hypothesis, about what they predict could be the answer. This brings them to the experiment or study, which they conduct to gather data, allowing them to determine whether or not their hypothesis is correct. By following this process, researchers are able to learn and share their findings with others to prompt further exploration.For whom is this passage probably being written?

    • A.Expert reviewers
    • B.College students
    • C.Literary critics
    • D.Laboratory heads
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: College students

    College students is correct. The passage walks through the basic steps of the scientific method and defines its terms, such as a hypothesis as “an educated guess,” the kind of introduction used in a college science course. Expert reviewers is incorrect; experts who judge research already know the scientific method and would not need its steps defined. Laboratory heads is incorrect; people who run labs use this process every day, so a basic explanation would be aimed below their level. Literary critics is incorrect; critics study and judge works of literature, and the passage is about scientific research, not books.

  76. The herbaceous perennial plant has extensive and creeping rhizomes, and its stems can grow up to 3 ft. Its leaves are dark green, and its flowers measure up to 1 in across. It is possible that the plant originated as a hybrid between two other species, Hypericum maculatum and Hypericum attenuatum. What is the author’s tone in this passage?

    • A.Casual
    • B.Ironic
    • C.Formal
    • D.Somber
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Formal

    Formal is correct. The passage uses precise technical terms (“herbaceous perennial plant,” “rhizomes,” and the species names Hypericum maculatum and Hypericum attenuatum), complete sentences, and no contractions, slang, or personal comments. Casual is incorrect; a casual tone uses everyday words, contractions, and a chatty voice, none of which appear here. Ironic is incorrect; the author says exactly what is meant, with no gap between the words and the intended meaning. Somber is incorrect; the description is neutral and factual, with no gloomy or mournful feeling.

  77. Going to El Montecito, the city’s new and exclusive brunch spot, has been a waste of my time and money. I am livid they expected me to pay for that omelet. It was frozen! Who in their right mind would freeze an omelet? And the nerve of that server! She said that it’s normal that food cools a bit on its way from the kitchen, as if I’m a poor man who can’t make the difference between “cool” and frozen solid! What is the author’s tone in this passage?

    • A.Nostalgic
    • B.Impartial
    • C.Indignant
    • D.Contented
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Indignant

    Indignant is correct. The writer is “livid,” calls the visit “a waste of my time and money,” and is outraged at “the nerve of that server,” which is anger at being treated unfairly. Impartial is incorrect; the writer gives only his own heated side of the story and brushes aside the server’s explanation instead of weighing it fairly. Contented is incorrect; he calls the visit “a waste of my time and money,” the opposite of being satisfied. Nostalgic is incorrect; the passage is about one bad meal at a new restaurant, not a fond longing for the past.

  78. Which of the following steps in the writing process comes before writing?

    • A.Final proofing
    • B.Brainstorming
    • C.Peer reviewing
    • D.Composing
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Brainstorming

    Brainstorming is correct. It is the first stage of the writing process, when the writer generates and organizes ideas before any writing begins. Composing is incorrect; composing the first version is the drafting stage, which is the writing itself, so it cannot come before writing. Peer reviewing is incorrect; classmates or colleagues can only review a draft that already exists. Final proofing is incorrect; the final proofreading pass checks spelling and punctuation near the end, after the text is written.

  79. Which of the following steps in the writing process comes before citing sources?

    • A.Publishing the article
    • B.Outlining the argument
    • C.Drafting the paragraph
    • D.Proofreading the draft
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Proofreading the draft

    Proofreading the draft is the keyed answer because it is the step immediately before citing sources in the writing process this item follows: plan or outline, draft, revise and proofread, cite sources, publish. Read literally, though, several steps come before citing sources, so the question as worded does not pick out a single step, and it has been referred for review. Outlining the argument and Drafting the paragraph both happen before citing sources, but earlier in the process, not immediately before it. Publishing the article is incorrect on any reading because publishing is the final step and comes after sources are cited.

  80. Which of the following would most likely act as a topic sentence?

    • A.While ethanol works as a depressant, it can be enough to dampen braking reflexes.
    • B.While the liver treats alcohol as a harmful toxin, it can be scarred by overuse.
    • C.While many people view drinking as a fun pastime, it can be incredibly dangerous.
    • D.While blood alcohol climbs during a binge, it can be fatal above a certain level.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: While many people view drinking as a fun pastime, it can be incredibly dangerous.

    While many people view drinking as a fun pastime, it can be incredibly dangerous. This is correct because it states the broad main idea, that drinking is dangerous, and sets it against a common view, which is the job of a topic sentence. While ethanol works as a depressant, it can be enough to dampen braking reflexes. This is incorrect because it gives one specific effect, slower reflexes, which would support the main idea rather than introduce it. While the liver treats alcohol as a harmful toxin, it can be scarred by overuse. This is incorrect because liver damage is a single supporting detail. While blood alcohol climbs during a binge, it can be fatal above a certain level. This is incorrect because alcohol poisoning is another specific example that backs up the main idea.

  81. Which of the following would most likely act as a concluding sentence?

    • A.Overall, a majority of people surveyed preferred summer over winter.
    • B.Recently, a team of scientists polled adults about favorite seasons.
    • C.Notably, a handful of younger respondents favored the colder months.
    • D.Specifically, a sample of adults answered a short survey over email.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Overall, a majority of people surveyed preferred summer over winter.

    Overall, a majority of people surveyed preferred summer over winter. This is correct because the word "overall" signals a wrap-up, and the sentence sums up the main finding of the study, which is what a concluding sentence does. Recently, a team of scientists polled adults about favorite seasons. This is incorrect because it introduces the study, so it would open the paragraph. Notably, a handful of younger respondents favored the colder months. This is incorrect because it reports one detail about a small group rather than the overall result. Specifically, a sample of adults answered a short survey over email. This is incorrect because it describes how the survey was carried out, a supporting detail about method.

  82. Which of the following would most likely act as a transition sentence?

    • A.At its monthly session, the HOA debated a proposal that would allow residents to install solar panels on the rooftops of their homes.
    • B.Several residents worried that rows of dark panels, visible from the streets, could clash with the HOA rules for the colors of homes.
    • C.Furthermore, the HOA suggested that the installation of solar panels could potentially eliminate electric costs for the neighborhood.
    • D.Solar panels, which convert sunlight into usable electricity, have already been installed on dozens of Glendale roofs in the area.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Furthermore, the HOA suggested that the installation of solar panels could potentially eliminate electric costs for the neighborhood.

    Furthermore, the HOA suggested that the installation of solar panels could potentially eliminate electric costs for the neighborhood. This is correct because the transition word "furthermore" links what came before to an added point, a further benefit of solar panels, which is how a transition sentence moves a paragraph forward. At its monthly session, the HOA debated a proposal that would allow residents to install solar panels on the rooftops of their homes. This is incorrect because it introduces the meeting and the proposal, so it would serve as the topic sentence. Several residents worried that rows of dark panels, visible from the streets, could clash with the HOA rules for the colors of homes. This is incorrect because it gives one specific concern and has no transition word linking it to an earlier idea. Solar panels, which convert sunlight into usable electricity, have already been installed on dozens of Glendale roofs in the area. This is incorrect because it supplies background detail about the panels rather than moving between ideas.

  83. Any business with the desire to survive long-term focuses highly on customer service. When consumers purchase a product, they put their trust in the company supplying it. One negative customer service experience could break that trust, causing a company to lose at least one customer. Plus, that customer could potentially turn into multiple customers lost because of a bad review online or discussion with friends. However, if proper employee training is conducted, a business will be able to count on its customer service team to seamlessly solve any issues that may arise for any clientele. It’s really not a big deal, but companies could try it. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?

    • A.Any business with the desire to survive long-term focuses highly on customer service.
    • B.When consumers purchase a product, they put their trust in the company supplying it.
    • C.However, if proper employee training is conducted, a business will be able to count on its customer service team to seamlessly solve any issues that may arise for any clientele.
    • D.It’s really not a big deal, but companies could try it.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It’s really not a big deal, but companies could try it.

    It’s really not a big deal, but companies could try it. This is correct because the paragraph argues that customer service is crucial to a business that wants to survive, and this closing sentence suddenly downplays it, contradicting the main idea in a casual tone. Any business with the desire to survive long-term focuses highly on customer service. This is incorrect because it is the topic sentence that states the main idea. When consumers purchase a product, they put their trust in the company supplying it. This is incorrect because it introduces the customer trust that good service protects, which supports the main idea. However, if proper employee training is conducted, a business will be able to count on its customer service team to seamlessly solve any issues that may arise for any clientele. This is incorrect because it offers the solution the paragraph builds toward, employee training, and stays on topic.

  84. Many people in America might make the argument that dogs are man’s best friend. In countless towns and cities, one would struggle to take a trip out of the house without spotting one of these furry friends along the way. To many, dogs serve as the most loyal companions. Whether you’re feeling happy, sad, upset, or disappointed, a dog will always love you. They don’t judge us based on our appearance, and if we make mistakes, they continue to excitedly stand by us. On top of that, dogs are almost always up for an adventure, willing to join their humans for a walk, car ride, or hike at the drop of a hat. What would life be like without our four-legged besties? Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?

    • A.What would life be like without our four-legged besties?
    • B.Many people in America might make the argument that dogs are man’s best friend.
    • C.To many, dogs serve as the most loyal companions.
    • D.On top of that, dogs are almost always up for an adventure, willing to join their humans for a walk, car ride, or hike at the drop of a hat.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: What would life be like without our four-legged besties?

    What would life be like without our four-legged besties? This is correct because the slang word "besties" does not match the more formal vocabulary used in the rest of the paragraph. Many people in America might make the argument that dogs are man’s best friend. This is incorrect because it is the topic sentence that introduces the main idea. To many, dogs serve as the most loyal companions. This is incorrect because it directly supports the idea of dogs as friends, in the same tone as the paragraph. On top of that, dogs are almost always up for an adventure, willing to join their humans for a walk, car ride, or hike at the drop of a hat. This is incorrect because "at the drop of a hat" is a common idiom rather than slang, and the sentence adds one more reason dogs make good companions.

  85. There is a desperate need for more childcare providers in the area. Unfortunately, due to the recent pandemic, multiple local childcare facilities were forced to close their doors, leaving households lost and struggling to find care for their children during the workday. While the remaining childcare center in the area was able to make space for additional kids and staff members, it couldn’t take everyone. Some parents have been forced to work from home because we were unable to find anywhere for their child to go. Juggling work and parenting simultaneously is an incredible feat to accomplish and is one that cannot be maintained by many. The addition of a new childcare center would provide a much-needed resource for the parents and families in the community. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?

    • A.Some parents have been forced to work from home because we were unable to find anywhere for their child to go.
    • B.There is a desperate need for more childcare providers in the area.
    • C.While the remaining childcare center in the area was able to make space for additional kids and staff members, it couldn’t take everyone.
    • D.Juggling work and parenting simultaneously is an incredible feat to accomplish and is one that cannot be maintained by many.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Some parents have been forced to work from home because we were unable to find anywhere for their child to go.

    Some parents have been forced to work from home because we were unable to find anywhere for their child to go. This is correct because "we were unable" shifts into the first-person point of view, while the rest of the paragraph is written in the third person. There is a desperate need for more childcare providers in the area. This is incorrect because it is the topic sentence, stating the main idea in the third person. While the remaining childcare center in the area was able to make space for additional kids and staff members, it couldn’t take everyone. This is incorrect because it explains why care is still scarce and keeps the third-person point of view. Juggling work and parenting simultaneously is an incredible feat to accomplish and is one that cannot be maintained by many. This is incorrect because it describes the strain on parents, which supports the main idea, again in the third person.

  86. ____________________ want to order pizza for lunch. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?

    • A.Natalie, like the rest of the nursing staff,
    • B.Natalie and the rest of the nursing staff
    • C.The rest of the nursing staff or Natalie
    • D.Natalie, with the rest of the nursing staff,
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Natalie and the rest of the nursing staff

    Natalie and the rest of the nursing staff is correct because "and" joins Natalie and the staff into a compound subject, which is plural and agrees with the plural verb "want." Natalie, like the rest of the nursing staff, is incorrect because a phrase set off by commas does not add to the subject; the subject is Natalie alone, which would need "wants." Natalie, with the rest of the nursing staff, is incorrect for the same reason, because "with" introduces a phrase, not a second subject. The rest of the nursing staff or Natalie is incorrect because when subjects are joined by "or," the verb agrees with the nearer subject, Natalie, which is singular and would need "wants."

  87. The school, located atop one of the highest and most beautiful mountains of the area, witnessed snowy and long winters. During the cold days, all pupils, including myself, carried a couple of hot baked potatoes in our pockets and into the freezing classrooms. This way, we could keep ourselves warm in the morning and then have a delicious and ready-to-eat snack at noon. Modern heating has its advantages, but I have yet to find something that tastes as good and comforting as those potatoes did.What is the author’s tone in this passage?

    • A.Regretful
    • B.Apathetic
    • C.Nostalgic
    • D.Skeptical
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Nostalgic

    Nostalgic is correct because the author looks back fondly on snowy school winters and the hot potatoes, closing with "I have yet to find something that tastes as good and comforting as those potatoes did," a warm longing for the past. Regretful is incorrect because the author expresses no sorrow over anything done or left undone; the memory is a happy one. Apathetic is incorrect because the author clearly cares, calling the snack delicious and the potatoes comforting. Skeptical is incorrect because the author does not doubt modern heating, even granting that it "has its advantages," and the tone toward the past is affectionate, not doubtful.

  88. Freight train with your mile of cars Collecting eclectic graffiti like scars Ghosts of innumerable nameless places Seen but looked past by thousands of faces. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?

    • A.Poetry
    • B.Speech
    • C.Legend
    • D.Memoir
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Poetry

    Poetry is correct because the text is set in short lines with end rhymes (cars and scars, places and faces) and builds images instead of complete sentences. Speech is incorrect because, although the lines address the train as "your," there is no audience, purpose, or argument as there would be in a speech. Legend is incorrect because a legend tells a traditional story with characters and events, and these lines tell no story. Memoir is incorrect because a memoir recounts the writer's own life in prose, and these lines describe a freight train, not the writer's experiences.

  89. Summer is the hottest season of the year, and it’s important to know how to prepare properly when venturing outside in the heat. First and foremost, make sure you apply plenty of sunscreen. Any area of your skin that is exposed to the sun should have sunscreen. This includes your face even if you are wearing a hat or sunglasses. Additionally, drink plenty of water. Whether you’re inside or outside, always have water with you to drink. You could even make it a goal to drink so much every hour. Staying hydrated is key to good health and helps you avoid getting overheated. Last but not least, eat or snack frequently. When it’s hot out, it can be easy to lose your appetite or become so engulfed in your activities that you go longer between meals. It is a good idea to have a small snack, like a granola bar, with you at all times. Your body still needs nutrients, even in the heat! Make sure your family is prepared before spending the day outside this summer. For whom is this passage probably being written?

    • A.Parents
    • B.Coaches
    • C.Doctors
    • D.Farmers
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Parents

    Parents is correct because the passage gives tips for keeping a household safe in the heat and closes with "Make sure your family is prepared before spending the day outside this summer," which speaks to the people responsible for a family. Coaches is incorrect because the passage never mentions teams, practices, or athletes. Doctors is incorrect because the passage gives basic everyday tips, such as packing a granola bar, rather than medical information written for health professionals. Farmers is incorrect because nothing in the passage concerns crops, livestock, or outdoor work; the advice is aimed at a family's day outside.

  90. That team of doctors ___________ for their amazing diagnostic talents. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?

    • A.Are revered
    • B.Is reviled
    • C.Is renowned
    • D.Are famed
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Is renowned

    Is renowned is correct because the subject is "team," which is singular, so it takes the singular verb "is"; "of doctors" is a prepositional phrase that does not change the subject. "Renowned" means famous in a positive way, which fits "amazing diagnostic talents." Are revered is incorrect because "are" is plural and does not agree with the singular subject "team," even though "revered" fits the meaning. Is reviled is incorrect because, although "is" agrees, "reviled" means harshly criticized or hated, which contradicts "amazing" talents. Are famed is incorrect because "are" is plural and does not agree with "team."

  91. Which of the following is the first step of the writing process?

    • A.Drafting the paragraphs
    • B.Revising the conclusion
    • C.Brainstorming the topic
    • D.Citing the publications
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Brainstorming the topic

    Brainstorming the topic is correct because brainstorming is the first step of the writing process: a writer gathers and plans ideas before anything is drafted. The steps run plan or brainstorm, draft, revise and proofread, cite sources, and publish. Drafting the paragraphs is incorrect because drafting is the second step and depends on ideas already planned. Revising the conclusion is incorrect because revising happens only after a draft exists. Citing the publications is incorrect because sources are cited near the end, after revising and proofreading.

  92. In order to keep horses as domesticated animals, proper care and training are necessities from the beginning. A newborn horse, or foal, will often be hesitant to interact with humans. However, it is crucial to gently attempt this interaction starting in the first few days of life and continuing on a daily basis to familiarize the horse with humans. This helps make further training for specific skills, such as racing or working cattle, much easier because trust has been established. You should probably feed your horse. Depending on the available resources, horses may eat grass, hay, grain, oats, vegetables, or even a mixture of these through feed from a store. Though it is time-consuming, caring for and training a horse early on can have significant benefits for both the horse and owner. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?

    • A.However, it is crucial to gently attempt this interaction starting in the first few days of life and continuing on a daily basis to familiarize the horse with humans.
    • B.This helps make further training for specific skills, such as racing or working cattle, much easier because trust has been established.
    • C.A newborn horse, or foal, will often be hesitant to interact with humans.
    • D.You should probably feed your horse.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: You should probably feed your horse.

    You should probably feed your horse. This is correct because its casual, offhand wording does not match the formal, technical language of the rest of the paragraph. However, it is crucial to gently attempt this interaction starting in the first few days of life and continuing on a daily basis to familiarize the horse with humans. This is incorrect because it explains how early, gentle handling builds familiarity, which supports the main idea in the same formal style. This helps make further training for specific skills, such as racing or working cattle, much easier because trust has been established. This is incorrect because it explains the benefit of early handling and stays on topic and in tone. A newborn horse, or foal, will often be hesitant to interact with humans. This is incorrect because it introduces the point about early handling in the same formal register.

  93. That night, when Mia was quietly driving back home on an empty road, her eye caught the glimpse of what she thought could be a medium-sized dog, so she started pressing the brake pedal. While the car slowed down, she turned the full beam lights off to avoid scaring the animal. An animal that, now that she was closer, resembled a small doe. To her surprise, the doe made a sound that resulted in a cute baby deer appearing on the road and diligently crossing it with its mother, leaving Mia with an overwhelming feeling of awe at nature’s beauty. What is the author’s tone in this passage?

    • A.Indifferent
    • B.Sentimental
    • C.Melancholic
    • D.Pessimistic
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Sentimental

    Sentimental is correct because the passage centers on Mia's tender response to the doe and its baby, ending with "an overwhelming feeling of awe at nature’s beauty." Indifferent is incorrect because Mia slows down and turns off her lights to avoid scaring the animal, which shows care, not a lack of interest. Melancholic is incorrect because nothing in the scene is sad; it ends in awe and delight at "a cute baby deer." Pessimistic is incorrect because the passage expects no bad outcome; the encounter turns out to be a happy surprise.

  94. Recent efforts to replicate the experiment’s results have proved unsuccessful (Martin et al., 2017; Karpov, 2019). Which of the following publications would most likely contain this sentence?

    • A.Scientific journal
    • B.Political pamphlet
    • C.Regional newspaper
    • D.Fashion newsletter
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Scientific journal

    Scientific journal is correct because the sentence reports on attempts to replicate an experiment and uses parenthetical author-date citations (Martin et al., 2017; Karpov, 2019), which are features of academic research writing. Political pamphlet is incorrect because a pamphlet persuades readers on an issue and does not cite research with formal citations. Regional newspaper is incorrect because, although news articles can report on research, they name sources in the text rather than with formal parenthetical citations. Fashion newsletter is incorrect because it covers style and trends, not the replication of experimental results.

  95. Good morning, Bluejays! Today is Thursday, September 26, 2019. For lunch, you will have a choice of beef tacos, chicken salad, or cheese pizza. Remember, you can always bring extra money for ala-carte treats, too! During study hall time this morning, the photography club should meet in the library with Mrs. Kampwerth, and the scholar bowl team should report to Mr. Reinkensmeyer’s classroom. Photo club members, don’t forget to bring your entries with you for the fall contest! Next Friday will be the last day to bring yearbook order forms to the office. Of course, we will have some extras available when hard copies come in, but we cannot guarantee that we will have an extra copy for anyone. If you would like one, please ensure that you deliver your order form to the office by next Friday! For whom is this passage probably being written?

    • A.Cafeteria employees
    • B.Elementary students
    • C.Yearbook publishers
    • D.Community residents
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Elementary students

    Correct answer: Elementary students. Explanation: The passage is a morning announcement to the student body. It greets the school mascot ("Good morning, Bluejays!"), lists lunch choices, tells club members where to meet, and reminds students about the yearbook order deadline. It is not written for cafeteria employees, yearbook publishers, or community residents, because each of those groups is only mentioned in passing or not addressed at all. Students are the only intended audience among the choices.

  96. That was how it felt when Jack gazed up from the shadowy forest floor at the full splash of the Milky way, dripping down between treetops. He didn’t know the stars could be this luminous or the sky this velvety black. But if it was just Oregon or just one region suddenly without electricity, cell service, and functioning gas pumps, then where was the National Guard, coming with their military vehicles to save the day? Jack had been making his way along I-5, far enough from the road to evade lawless travelers, but still close enough to hear traffic. There was none. There was only mist, moss, green glow, the fragrance of Douglas firs, scampering wildlife, and wandering thoughts. During these solitary days in the woods, navigating and telling time by the sun, Jack had never felt more alive or free. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?

    • A.Survival instructions
    • B.Psychological horror
    • C.Regional news report
    • D.Fictional description
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Fictional description

    Fictional description is correct because the passage uses vivid imagery ("the full splash of the Milky way, dripping down between treetops") to describe the surroundings and thoughts of a character, Jack, rather than reporting real events. Survival instructions is incorrect because, although Jack tells time by the sun, the passage gives the reader no steps or advice to follow. Psychological horror is incorrect because the passage does not aim to frighten; it ends with Jack feeling "more alive or free." Regional news report is incorrect because, although it mentions Oregon and I-5, it narrates one character's inner experience instead of reporting facts about an event.

  97. MOLLY: Have you seen my new white boots? I thought I’d left them here.STEVIE: Yeah, I think your sister is wearing them. Which of the following publications would most likely contain these sentences?

    • A.Comic strip
    • B.Stage play
    • C.Short story
    • D.Newsletter
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Stage play

    Stage play is correct because the lines are dialogue labeled with each speaker's name in capital letters followed by a colon, the standard script format for a play. Comic strip is incorrect because comics place dialogue in speech balloons beside drawings rather than after a speaker's name. Short story is incorrect because a story places dialogue inside quotation marks with tags such as "she said," not after capitalized names. Newsletter is incorrect because a newsletter reports news and announcements to its readers in prose, not as a back-and-forth script between two speakers.

  98. Hummus is a simple, flavorful, and nourishing Middle-Eastern chickpea dip. To make it, you need boiled chickpeas, vegetable oil, tahini, water, a garlic clove, lemon juice, and cumin powder. Mix all the ingredients except the oil and blend them using a blender until they are well integrated. Add the oil and keep blending for another few minutes until creamy. Drizzle with olive oil, sweet paprika, and sesame seeds and serve with bread or vegetables. What is the author’s tone in this passage?

    • A.Enthusiastic
    • B.Disapproving
    • C.Objective
    • D.Informal
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Objective

    Objective is correct because the passage lists the ingredients and gives step-by-step instructions without personal feelings or opinions. Enthusiastic is incorrect because, beyond calling the dip "simple, flavorful, and nourishing," the writer shows no excitement; there are no exclamations or personal reactions. Disapproving is incorrect because nothing in the passage criticizes the dish or the reader. Informal is incorrect because the passage uses no slang, contractions, or chatty asides; it reads like a standard recipe.

  99. Which of the following is the last step of the writing process?

    • A.Citing the researchers
    • B.Publishing the article
    • C.Proofreading the draft
    • D.Revising the paragraph
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Publishing the article

    Publishing the article is correct because publishing, sharing the finished piece with readers, is the final step of the writing process: plan or brainstorm, draft, revise and proofread, cite sources, publish. Citing the researchers is incorrect because sources are cited just before publishing, not after it. Proofreading the draft is incorrect because proofreading happens during revision, before sources are cited. Revising the paragraph is incorrect because revising comes right after drafting, well before the final step.

  100. Surpassing the timberline had rid them of the mosquitos. As the two hikers drew closer to the silver dollar lake in the distance, a cabin and a campsite came into view. It was another half hour before they were upon it. There was nobody around the collapsed tent-poles; sleeping bags, clothes, and cooking supplies were strewn everywhere. At 12,000 feet, mountain lions make appearances and storms move in without warning. The pair exchanged concerned looks, approaching the cabin by the lakebed for help. A man with an unkempt grey beard answered the door, opening it just enough to peer at the strangers. The couple described the scene and asked to use the mountain man’s phone. Intense, ice-blue eyes pointed out at them, unblinking and expressionless as he gruffly turned them away. They rushed down the mountain to their car where there was reception, and called the park service from a cell phone instead. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?

    • A.Western
    • B.Mystery
    • C.Fantasy
    • D.Tragedy
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Mystery

    Mystery is correct because the passage builds an uneasy, eerie feeling around an abandoned campsite and a strange mountain man and leaves the central questions unanswered: where the campers went and why the man turned the hikers away. Western is incorrect because, although the setting is remote and the man is gruff, there are no cowboys, frontier towns, or Old West conflicts. Fantasy is incorrect because nothing impossible or magical occurs; the dangers named, mountain lions and storms, are real. Tragedy is incorrect because no character's downfall is shown; the hikers simply call the park service, and the outcome is left unknown.

  101. The Common Core State Standards have been implemented in numerous states across our nation. These standards provide Kindergarten through twelfth-grade teachers with specific goals to guide learning in mathematics and English language arts classrooms. At the end of each academic year, students should have reached mastery for each standard of both mathematics and English language arts in their respective grade level. Throughout the year, teachers provide students with instructional materials and experiences that best support all students in reaching mastery of the standards. This may look different for every student because teachers often differentiate instructional opportunities and curriculum to meet the needs of each specific student in the classroom. The Common Core State Standards have set expectations for both teachers and students to achieve their highest potential in science and social studies. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?

    • A.At the end of each academic year, students should have reached mastery for each standard of both mathematics and English language arts in their respective grade level.
    • B.Throughout the year, teachers provide students with instructional materials and experiences that best support all students in reaching mastery of the standards.
    • C.The Common Core State Standards have set expectations for both teachers and students to achieve their highest potential in science and social studies.
    • D.These standards provide Kindergarten through twelfth-grade teachers with specific goals to guide learning in mathematics and English language arts classrooms.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The Common Core State Standards have set expectations for both teachers and students to achieve their highest potential in science and social studies.

    The Common Core State Standards have set expectations for both teachers and students to achieve their highest potential in science and social studies. This is correct because the paragraph says the standards guide learning in "mathematics and English language arts classrooms," so a closing sentence about science and social studies does not fit. At the end of each academic year, students should have reached mastery for each standard of both mathematics and English language arts in their respective grade level. This is incorrect because it names the same two subjects and supports the topic. Throughout the year, teachers provide students with instructional materials and experiences that best support all students in reaching mastery of the standards. This is incorrect because it describes how teachers help students meet the standards, which stays on topic. These standards provide Kindergarten through twelfth-grade teachers with specific goals to guide learning in mathematics and English language arts classrooms. This is incorrect because it names the subjects the standards actually cover and sets up the rest of the paragraph.

  102. Marla had intended for things to turn out differently. Never in a million years had she imagined that her friendship with Clark would evolve into the bond they share today, but it was undeniable. They were made for one another, sharing the most genuine, passionate love either one of them had ever experienced. But how would she tell Darek? How would she go about breaking her family apart? Could she break her family apart? For whom is this passage probably being written?

    • A.Adults
    • B.Teens
    • C.Clergy
    • D.Judges
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Adults

    Adults is correct because the passage centers on a love affair that threatens a marriage and a family ("How would she go about breaking her family apart?"), mature content written for adult readers. Teens is incorrect because a story about a parent leaving her family for a new romance centers on adult concerns, marriage and family, rather than the experiences of teenage readers. Clergy is incorrect because, although the passage raises a moral dilemma, it is fiction, not religious guidance written for church leaders. Judges is incorrect because the passage is a story about the feelings of Marla, not a legal text about divorce or family law.

  103. In neurosurgical brain injury management, dehydration is a common goal. But, the target levels of dehydration in such protocols remain unclear. The Lund protocol recommendation of neutral to moderately negative fluid balance has at times been associated with reduced mortality. Otherwise, there does not appear to be any strong empirical evidence to support inducing dehydration to decrease cerebral edema or other complications from severe traumatic brain injury. Researchers urge trauma centers to focus on TBI patient fluid balance at neutral, as higher fluid balance has its own risks, such as leaky capillaries leading to pulmonary edema. Treatment should also include fluid replacement after mannitol and vasopressor therapy. Which of the following is likely the genre of the passage?

    • A.Opinion editorial
    • B.Hospital brochure
    • C.Medical thriller
    • D.Scholarly article
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Scholarly article

    Scholarly article is correct because the passage reviews research on fluid management after brain injury, cites a named protocol and the evidence for it, and reports what "Researchers urge," in technical language for professionals. Opinion editorial is incorrect because its recommendations come from researchers and evidence, not from a writer's personal argument aimed at the public. Hospital brochure is incorrect because brochures explain care to patients in plain language, while this passage uses specialist terms such as "mannitol and vasopressor therapy." Medical thriller is incorrect because, although the subject is medical, there are no characters, plot, or suspense; the passage presents evidence and clinical findings.

  104. The nurses and assistants ______________ a “meet and greet” for all of the new EMTs. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?

    • A.Has been hosting
    • B.Was busy hosting
    • C.Has to host
    • D.Are hosting
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Are hosting

    Are hosting is correct because the compound subject "The nurses and assistants" is plural and takes the plural verb "are," and the present progressive fits an event being put on now. Has been hosting is incorrect because "has" is singular; a plural subject needs "have." Was busy hosting is incorrect because "was" is singular and does not agree with a plural subject. Has to host is incorrect because "has" is singular, and it also changes the meaning to an obligation.

  105. The head of Pediatrics ________ four children of her own. Which of the following options completes the sentence above?

    • A.Has
    • B.Having
    • C.Have had
    • D.Have got
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Has

    Has is correct because the subject is "head," which is singular ("of Pediatrics" is a prepositional phrase), and the present tense "has" states a current fact. Have had is incorrect because "have" is a plural form and does not agree with the singular subject "head." Have got is incorrect for the same reason: "have" is plural, and the singular subject needs "has." Having is incorrect because a word ending in -ing cannot serve as the main verb on its own, which leaves the sentence without a complete verb.

  106. Fearing for his life, Raymond ran as fast as he could in a useless effort to get away from the furious dragon. Which of the following publications would most likely contain this sentence?

    • A.Memo
    • B.Novel
    • C.Memoir
    • D.Script
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Novel

    Novel is correct because the sentence is narrative prose about a fictional character, Raymond, fleeing "the furious dragon," which is the kind of fiction found in a novel. Memo is incorrect because a memo is a brief workplace message with To, From, and Subject lines, not a dramatic story about a dragon. Memoir is incorrect because a memoir recounts true events from the author's life, and a dragon chase is fantasy. Script is incorrect because a script presents dialogue under speakers' names with brief stage directions, not past-tense narration like this sentence.

  107. Volleyball is an incredibly complex sport with many rules and regulations that are important for players and coaches to know before stepping onto a court for competition, but knowing the court and rotation positions is key. First and foremost, the court is divided in half by a net. On either side, there are six rotation zones, one for each player on the team. Players start in one of the six zones, known as their base position depending on their placement in the lineup, and they cannot cross a player in a neighboring zone until the ball is served into play. If ya do cross, ya lose a point for your team. Every time the receiving team wins the serve back, their players rotate clockwise to the next zone, which restricts a player from playing from the same zone the entire game. Players and coaches must know their team’s rotation positions each and every play in order to be successful in volleyball. Which of the following sentences contains information that does not belong in the paragraph?

    • A.If ya do cross, ya lose a point for your team.
    • B.Every time the receiving team wins the serve back, their players rotate clockwise to the next zone, which restricts a player from playing from the same zone the entire game.
    • C.First and foremost, the court is divided in half by a net.
    • D.On either side, there are six rotation zones, one for each player on the team.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: If ya do cross, ya lose a point for your team.

    If ya do cross, ya lose a point for your team. This is correct because "ya" and the chatty wording sound like a casual conversation with a friend, while the rest of the paragraph uses formal, technical language. Every time the receiving team wins the serve back, their players rotate clockwise to the next zone, which restricts a player from playing from the same zone the entire game. This is incorrect because it explains the rotation rule in the same formal, technical language as the rest of the paragraph. First and foremost, the court is divided in half by a net. This is incorrect because "first and foremost" is a standard transition, and the sentence gives a basic fact about the court in a formal tone. On either side, there are six rotation zones, one for each player on the team. This is incorrect because it explains the zones in the same formal, informative style.

  108. The ___________ in my biology class is on the volleyball team. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Red-headed, sophomore girl
    • B.Red headed sophomore girl
    • C.Red-headed sophomore girl
    • D.Red-headed sophomore girl,
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Red-headed sophomore girl

    Red-headed sophomore girl is correct because "red-headed" and "sophomore" are cumulative adjectives: each builds on the noun phrase that follows, so no comma separates them, and the compound adjective "red-headed" takes a hyphen before the noun. Red-headed, sophomore girl is incorrect because a comma belongs only between coordinate adjectives, and these two cannot be reordered or joined with "and." Red headed sophomore girl is incorrect because a compound adjective placed before a noun needs a hyphen. Red-headed sophomore girl, is incorrect because that comma would separate the subject from the rest of the sentence, "in my biology class is on the volleyball team."

  109. The ________________________ squinted to read the note. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Librarian; who wasn’t wearing her glasses,
    • B.Librarian, who wasn’t wearing her glasses,
    • C.Librarian, who wasn’t wearing her glasses;
    • D.Librarian who wasn’t wearing her glasses,
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Librarian, who wasn’t wearing her glasses,

    Librarian, who wasn’t wearing her glasses, is correct because the clause adds extra, nonessential information about the librarian, so it is set off with a comma on both sides. Librarian; who wasn’t wearing her glasses, is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and "The librarian" is not one. Librarian, who wasn’t wearing her glasses; is incorrect because the semicolon would cut the subject off from its verb, "squinted." Librarian who wasn’t wearing her glasses, is incorrect because a nonessential clause needs a comma on both sides; with only the closing comma, the comma wrongly separates the subject from the verb.

  110. Which of the following sentences is punctuated correctly?

    • A.Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting.”
    • B.Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting”.
    • C.Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending todays meeting.”
    • D.Dr. Davis shared with his staff “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting.”
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting.”

    Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting.” is correct because a comma introduces the quotation, the period sits inside the closing quotation mark as American style requires, and the possessive "today’s" keeps its apostrophe. Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting”. is incorrect because in American usage the period goes inside the closing quotation mark, not after it. Dr. Davis shared with his staff, “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending todays meeting.” is incorrect because the possessive "today’s" needs an apostrophe. Dr. Davis shared with his staff “I think Mr. Bryant will be attending today’s meeting.” is incorrect because a comma is needed to introduce the quotation after "shared with his staff."

  111. Which of the following words is spelled correctly?

    • A.Independance
    • B.Acquaintance
    • C.Embarassment
    • D.Perseverence
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Acquaintance

    Acquaintance is spelled correctly: ac-quaint-ance, with a silent c before the q and the ending -ance. Independance is incorrect because the correct spelling is independence, which ends in -ence (think of independent). Embarassment is incorrect because the correct spelling is embarrassment, with a double r as well as a double s. Perseverence is incorrect because the correct spelling is perseverance, which ends in -ance.

  112. _______________ will probably request a close examination of the matter. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Furthermore; the board
    • B.Furthermore. The board
    • C.Furthermore the board,
    • D.Furthermore, the board
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Furthermore, the board

    Furthermore, the board is correct because an introductory adverb such as "furthermore" is followed by a comma that sets it off from the rest of the sentence. Furthermore; the board is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and "furthermore" is not a clause. Furthermore. The board is incorrect because the period would leave "furthermore" standing alone as a fragment. Furthermore the board, is incorrect because it leaves out the comma after the introductory word and wrongly places a comma between the subject "the board" and its verb "will probably request."

  113. Which of the following demonstrates correct punctuation?

    • A.The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before. (Stevenson, 1999)
    • B.The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before (Stevenson, 1999).
    • C.The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before (Stevenson, 1999.)
    • D.The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before [Stevenson, 1999].
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before (Stevenson, 1999).

    The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before (Stevenson, 1999). is correct because an in-text citation goes in parentheses with the author's name, a comma, and the year, and the sentence's period follows the closing parenthesis. The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before. (Stevenson, 1999) is incorrect because the period must come after the citation, not before it. The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before (Stevenson, 1999.) is incorrect because the period belongs outside the closing parenthesis, since the citation is part of the sentence. The technique has proved its efficacy in this kind of research before [Stevenson, 1999]. is incorrect because in-text citations use parentheses, not square brackets.

  114. Seeing that the discussion was becoming a sterile ________ decided to wrap things up. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Debate: the host
    • B.Debate the host,
    • C.Debate; the host
    • D.Debate, the host
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Debate, the host

    Debate, the host is correct because the opening clause "Seeing that the discussion was becoming a sterile debate" is introductory, so a comma separates it from the main clause that begins "the host decided." Debate: the host is incorrect because a colon must follow a complete independent clause, and the opening clause is dependent. Debate the host, is incorrect because it omits the needed comma after the introductory clause and wrongly puts a comma between the subject "the host" and its verb "decided." Debate; the host is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and the opening clause cannot stand alone.

  115. Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys wrinkled clothes and microscopic food crumbs. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?

    • A.Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys; wrinkled clothes; and microscopic food crumbs.
    • B.Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys wrinkled clothes, and microscopic food crumbs.
    • C.Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys, wrinkled clothes, and microscopic food crumbs.
    • D.Within the mess to clean up were scattered: toys, wrinkled clothes and microscopic food crumbs.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys, wrinkled clothes, and microscopic food crumbs.

    Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys, wrinkled clothes, and microscopic food crumbs. is correct because commas separate the three items in the series, including the comma before "and." Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys; wrinkled clothes; and microscopic food crumbs. is incorrect because semicolons separate list items only when the items already contain commas, and these do not. Within the mess to clean up were scattered toys wrinkled clothes, and microscopic food crumbs. is incorrect because it leaves out the comma between the first two items, "toys" and "wrinkled clothes." Within the mess to clean up were scattered: toys, wrinkled clothes and microscopic food crumbs. is incorrect because a colon must follow a complete independent clause, and "Within the mess to clean up were scattered" is not complete without the list.

  116. I wonder what time we need to arrive at the airport __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.In the morning?
    • B.In the morning,
    • C.In the morning;
    • D.In the morning.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: In the morning.

    In the morning. is correct because the sentence is a statement about what the speaker wonders, an indirect question, so it ends with a period. In the morning? is incorrect because "I wonder what time" reports a question rather than asking one directly, so no question mark is used. In the morning, is incorrect because a comma cannot end a sentence. In the morning; is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses and cannot end a sentence.

  117. Most businesses keep accurate assessments of their prophet margins and often require attendance at weekly meetings. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?

    • A.Replace require with requires
    • B.Replace margins with margin’s
    • C.Replace prophet with profit
    • D.Replace weekly with weakly
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Replace prophet with profit

    Replace prophet with profit is correct because a prophet is a person who predicts the future, while profit is financial gain, the word that fits "profit margins." Replace require with requires is incorrect because the subject "businesses" is plural and correctly takes "require." Replace margins with margin’s is incorrect because "margins" is a plural noun here, not a possessive, so no apostrophe is needed. Replace weekly with weakly is incorrect because "weekly" means once a week and correctly describes the meetings, while "weakly" means without strength.

  118. The modern pentathlon incorporates five skills considered essential to the late nineteenth-century __________ shooting, swimming, fencing, horsemanship, and cross-country running. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Soldier;
    • B.Soldier, which were:
    • C.Soldier:
    • D.Soldier, comprising:
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Soldier:

    Soldier: is correct because the words before the blank form a complete independent clause, and a colon after a complete clause introduces the list of five skills that follows. Soldier; is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and the list of skills that follows is not a clause. Soldier, which were: is incorrect because the colon would separate the verb were from its complement, and a colon must follow a complete clause. Soldier, comprising: is incorrect because comprising takes the list as its direct object, and a colon should not come between a verb form and its object.

  119. The antiquated machinery at the old steal mill is a danger to all of the factory’s employees. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?

    • A.Replace steal with steel
    • B.Replace is with are
    • C.Replace to with too
    • D.Replace factory’s with factories’
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Replace steal with steel

    Replace steal with steel is correct because steel is the metal produced at a mill, while steal is a verb meaning to take something without permission. Replace is with are is incorrect because machinery is a singular mass noun, so the singular verb is agrees with it. Replace to with too is incorrect because to is the preposition needed in a danger to all; too means also or excessively. Replace factory’s with factories’ is incorrect because the sentence describes one mill, so the singular possessive factory’s is right and the plural possessive factories’ is not.

  120. The exhausted firefighters we’re tremendously relieved when the other brigades arrived. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?

    • A.Replace brigades with brigade’s
    • B.Replace exhausted with exausted
    • C.Replace other with other’s
    • D.Replace we’re with were
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Replace we’re with were

    Replace we’re with were is correct because the sentence needs the past-tense verb were after the subject firefighters; we’re is a contraction of we are. Replace brigades with brigade’s is incorrect because brigades is a plain plural subject of arrived and owns nothing, so it takes no apostrophe. Replace exhausted with exausted is incorrect because exhausted is already spelled correctly; its h is silent but still written. Replace other with other’s is incorrect because other is an adjective describing brigades and owns nothing, so it takes no apostrophe either.

  121. May I please speak to the manager __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.On duty!
    • B.On duty;
    • C.On duty?
    • D.On duty,
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: On duty?

    On duty? is correct because May I please speak to the manager on duty is a direct question, and a direct question ends with a question mark. On duty! is incorrect because an exclamation point marks strong emotion, and this polite request is phrased as a question. On duty; is incorrect because a semicolon joins two clauses and cannot end a sentence. On duty, is incorrect because a comma cannot end a sentence either; the sentence needs end punctuation.

  122. I can’t believe you lied __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.To me?
    • B.To me!
    • C.To me!!
    • D.To me?!
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To me!

    To me! is correct because I can’t believe you lied to me is an emphatic outburst, and an exclamation point marks that strong emotion. To me? is incorrect because the sentence is a statement of disbelief, not a question. To me!! is incorrect because standard writing uses a single exclamation point; doubling the mark is not accepted in formal prose. To me?! is incorrect because the sentence asks nothing, so no question mark belongs in it, and formal writing uses only one end mark.

  123. _____________ should be noted that the student has consistently failed to attend class. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Moreover; it
    • B.Moreover. It
    • C.Moreover it,
    • D.Moreover, it
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Moreover, it

    Moreover, it is correct because a comma sets off the introductory adverb moreover from the rest of the sentence. Moreover; it is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and moreover by itself is not a clause. Moreover. It is incorrect because the period leaves moreover standing alone as a fragment. Moreover it, is incorrect because it leaves the introductory adverb unpunctuated and places a comma between the subject it and its verb should.

  124. __________ taking Arizona State Route 143. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Next; we're
    • B.Next, we're
    • C.Next. We're
    • D.Next we're,
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Next, we're

    Next, we're is correct because a comma sets off the introductory adverb next from the main clause. Next; we're is incorrect because a semicolon belongs between two independent clauses, and next is a single word, not a clause. Next. We're is incorrect because the period turns next into a one-word fragment. Next we're, is incorrect because it leaves next unpunctuated and puts a comma between we're and taking, splitting the verb phrase.

  125. Proving his absolute absence of _________ constantly eluded his responsibilities. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Commitment Jonah,
    • B.Commitment, Jonah
    • C.Commitment: Jonah
    • D.Commitment; Jonah
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Commitment, Jonah

    Commitment, Jonah is correct because the introductory participial phrase Proving his absolute absence of commitment is set off by a comma before the subject Jonah. Commitment Jonah, is incorrect because it leaves the introductory phrase unpunctuated and then puts a comma between the subject Jonah and its verb eluded. Commitment: Jonah is incorrect because a colon must follow a complete clause, and the introductory phrase is not one. Commitment; Jonah is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and the introductory phrase is not a clause.

  126. You say you agree with your colleague’s ____________ are sabotaging her research. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Point of view yet, you
    • B.Point of view yet you,
    • C.Point of view, yet you
    • D.Point of view: yet you
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Point of view, yet you

    Point of view, yet you is correct because two independent clauses joined by the coordinating conjunction yet take a comma before the conjunction. Point of view yet, you is incorrect because the comma belongs before yet, not after it. Point of view yet you, is incorrect because it leaves the clauses unseparated and puts a comma between the subject you and its verb are. Point of view: yet you is incorrect because a colon introduces an explanation or a list, not a second clause joined by a conjunction.

  127. __________________ was getting on the teacher’s nerves. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Harry, fidgeting with his pen
    • B.Harry, fidgeting with his pen,
    • C.Harry fidgeting with his pen,
    • D.Harry, fidgeting, with his pen
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Harry, fidgeting with his pen,

    Harry, fidgeting with his pen, is correct because the nonessential phrase fidgeting with his pen interrupts the sentence and is set off by a pair of commas, one before it and one after it. Harry, fidgeting with his pen is incorrect because it opens the interrupting phrase with a comma but never closes it before the verb was. Harry fidgeting with his pen, is incorrect because it closes the phrase without opening it, leaving a lone comma between the subject Harry and its verb was. Harry, fidgeting, with his pen is incorrect because it splits the phrase after fidgeting and leaves no comma before was, so the interruption is never closed.

  128. The interim _________________ assumed leadership after the president’s demise. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Prime minister, Yannick Marceau,
    • B.Prime minister. Yannick Marceau,
    • C.Prime minister: Yannick Marceau,
    • D.Prime minister, Yannick Marceau
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Prime minister, Yannick Marceau,

    Prime minister, Yannick Marceau, is correct because the name is a nonessential appositive that renames the interim prime minister, so it is set off by a pair of commas. Prime minister. Yannick Marceau, is incorrect because the period cuts off The interim prime minister as a fragment with no verb. Prime minister: Yannick Marceau, is incorrect because a colon must follow a complete clause, and The interim prime minister is only the start of the subject. Prime minister, Yannick Marceau is incorrect because it opens the appositive with a comma but leaves out the closing comma before assumed.

  129. The construction worker wore ___________ as he repaired the roadway. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.A bright; orange vest
    • B.A bright, orange, vest
    • C.A bright orange, vest,
    • D.A bright orange vest
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A bright orange vest

    A bright orange vest is correct because bright and orange are cumulative adjectives: bright describes the shade of orange, so no punctuation separates them. A bright; orange vest is incorrect because a semicolon separates independent clauses, not adjectives, and these two adjectives take no mark at all. A bright, orange, vest is incorrect because it adds a comma between the cumulative adjectives and another between orange and the noun vest. A bright orange, vest, is incorrect because a comma does not separate the last adjective from its noun, and no comma is needed before as he repaired the roadway.

  130. Mom spoke with ___________ as she recalled memories of her childhood. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.A quiet gentle voice
    • B.A quiet gentle, voice
    • C.A quiet, gentle voice
    • D.A quiet; gentle voice
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A quiet, gentle voice

    A quiet, gentle voice is correct because quiet and gentle are coordinate adjectives that each describe the voice equally; they could be reordered or joined by and, so a comma separates them. A quiet gentle voice is incorrect because it leaves out the comma that coordinate adjectives need. A quiet gentle, voice is incorrect because it puts the comma between the last adjective and the noun voice instead of between the two adjectives. A quiet; gentle voice is incorrect because a semicolon separates independent clauses, not two adjectives describing one noun.

  131. The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis San Francisco and New York. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?

    • A.The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like, St. Louis, San Francisco, and New York.
    • B.The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis, San Francisco, and, New York.
    • C.The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis San Francisco, and New York.
    • D.The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis, San Francisco, and New York.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis, San Francisco, and New York.

    The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis, San Francisco, and New York. is correct because commas separate the three cities in the series, with a serial comma before and. The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like, St. Louis, San Francisco, and New York. is incorrect because a comma should not separate the preposition like from its objects. The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis, San Francisco, and, New York. is incorrect because no comma follows the conjunction and in a series. The bus transports passengers daily throughout cities like St. Louis San Francisco, and New York. is incorrect because it leaves out the comma after St. Louis, so the first two cities run together.

  132. The toddler enjoyed a bath brushed his teeth and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?

    • A.The toddler enjoyed, a bath, brushed his teeth, and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed.
    • B.The toddler enjoyed a bath, brushed his teeth, and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed.
    • C.The toddler enjoyed a bath brushed his teeth, and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed.
    • D.The toddler, enjoyed a bath, brushed his teeth, and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The toddler enjoyed a bath, brushed his teeth, and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed.

    The toddler enjoyed a bath, brushed his teeth, and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed. is correct because commas separate the three actions in the series, with a serial comma before and. The toddler enjoyed, a bath, brushed his teeth, and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed. is incorrect because a comma should not separate the verb enjoyed from its object a bath. The toddler enjoyed a bath brushed his teeth, and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed. is incorrect because it leaves out the comma after the first action, a bath. The toddler, enjoyed a bath, brushed his teeth, and changed into pajamas before climbing into bed. is incorrect because a comma should not separate the subject The toddler from its verb enjoyed.

  133. After needing the dough, allow it to rise while flouring your pans. Don’t forget to allow enough time for cooling. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?

    • A.Replace needing with kneading
    • B.Replace rise with raise
    • C.Replace time with thyme
    • D.Replace flouring with floring
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Replace needing with kneading

    Replace needing with kneading is correct because kneading means working dough by pressing and folding it, while needing means requiring. Replace rise with raise is incorrect because rise is the verb used when the dough goes up by itself; raise needs an object. Replace time with thyme is incorrect because time means a period for cooling, while thyme is an herb. Replace flouring with floring is incorrect because flouring, meaning dusting with flour, is already spelled correctly, and floring is not a word.

  134. Which of the following sentences shows the correct use of punctuation marks?

    • A.“How did you become such a good cook,” Grandma asked Carley at dinner.
    • B.“How did you become such a good cook”? Grandma asked Carley at dinner.
    • C.“How did you become such a good cook.” Grandma asked Carley at dinner.
    • D.“How did you become such a good cook?” Grandma asked Carley at dinner.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: “How did you become such a good cook?” Grandma asked Carley at dinner.

    “How did you become such a good cook?” Grandma asked Carley at dinner. is correct because the quoted words are a question, so the question mark goes inside the closing quotation mark and no comma is added. “How did you become such a good cook,” Grandma asked Carley at dinner. is incorrect because a comma replaces the question mark that the quoted question requires. “How did you become such a good cook”? Grandma asked Carley at dinner. is incorrect because the question mark belongs to the quotation and must sit inside the closing quotation mark. “How did you become such a good cook.” Grandma asked Carley at dinner. is incorrect because a period cannot end a quoted question.

  135. To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil chicken and vegetables. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?

    • A.To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive, oil, chicken, and vegetables.
    • B.To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil, chicken, and vegetables.
    • C.To prepare, the entree, the chef mixed olive oil, chicken, and vegetables.
    • D.To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil chicken, and vegetables.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil, chicken, and vegetables.

    To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil, chicken, and vegetables. is correct because commas separate the three ingredients, olive oil, chicken, and vegetables, with a serial comma before and. To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive, oil, chicken, and vegetables. is incorrect because olive oil is one ingredient, so a comma between olive and oil wrongly splits it in two. To prepare, the entree, the chef mixed olive oil, chicken, and vegetables. is incorrect because a comma should not separate the verb prepare from its object the entree. To prepare the entree, the chef mixed olive oil chicken, and vegetables. is incorrect because it leaves out the comma after olive oil, so the first two ingredients run together.

  136. She baked the ___________ to perfection. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Soft, fluffy, biscuits
    • B.Soft, fluffy biscuits,
    • C.Soft, fluffy biscuits
    • D.Soft fluffy biscuits
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Soft, fluffy biscuits

    Soft, fluffy biscuits is correct because soft and fluffy are coordinate adjectives that each describe the biscuits equally; they could be reordered or joined by and, so a comma separates them. Soft, fluffy, biscuits is incorrect because a comma does not separate the last adjective from the noun it modifies. Soft, fluffy biscuits, is incorrect because a comma should not separate the object biscuits from the phrase to perfection. Soft fluffy biscuits is incorrect because it leaves out the comma that coordinate adjectives need.

  137. In “History of Turkey,” Porter refuted the notion that such a link exists________. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.(35-47)
    • B.[35-47]
    • C.“35-47”
    • D.:35-47
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: (35-47)

    (35-47) is correct because an in-text citation places the page range in parentheses at the end of the sentence, before the period. [35-47] is incorrect because square brackets mark editorial insertions inside quoted material, not page citations. “35-47” is incorrect because quotation marks enclose quoted words or titles, not page numbers. :35-47 is incorrect because a colon does not introduce an in-text page citation.

  138. My ______________________ has many tips on finding deals at the grocery store. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Sister, a single mother of two,
    • B.Sister; a single mother of two,
    • C.Sister: a single mother of two,
    • D.Sister, a single mother of two
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Sister, a single mother of two,

    Sister, a single mother of two, is correct because a single mother of two is a nonessential appositive that renames my sister, so it is set off by a pair of commas. Sister; a single mother of two, is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and My sister is only the start of the subject. Sister: a single mother of two, is incorrect because a colon must follow a complete clause, and My sister has no verb. Sister, a single mother of two is incorrect because it opens the appositive with a comma but leaves out the closing comma before has.

  139. Matthew struggled to open the ___________.Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Stiff heavy door
    • B.Stiff, heavy, door
    • C.Stiff; heavy, door
    • D.Stiff, heavy door
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Stiff, heavy door

    Stiff, heavy door is correct because stiff and heavy are coordinate adjectives that each describe the door equally; they could be reordered or joined by and, so a comma separates them. Stiff heavy door is incorrect because it leaves out the comma that coordinate adjectives need. Stiff, heavy, door is incorrect because the second comma separates the last adjective from the noun door it modifies. Stiff; heavy, door is incorrect because a semicolon separates independent clauses, not two adjectives, and it also puts a comma between heavy and the noun door.

  140. The principle of the high school was debating whether to pursue the issue any further. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?

    • A.Replace principle with principal
    • B.Replace whether with weather
    • C.Replace debating with debatting
    • D.Replace further with furthermore
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Replace principle with principal

    Replace principle with principal is correct because the principal is the person who heads a school, while a principle is a rule or belief. Replace whether with weather is incorrect because whether introduces the choice being debated, while weather refers to atmospheric conditions. Replace debating with debatting is incorrect because debate drops its final e before -ing and does not double the t, so debating is already spelled correctly. Replace further with furthermore is incorrect because any further uses further as an adverb meaning to a greater degree, while furthermore is a transition meaning in addition.

  141. __________ will be required to show your ID upon arrival. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Besides: you
    • B.Besides. You
    • C.Besides, you
    • D.Besides you,
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Besides, you

    Besides, you is correct because a comma sets off the introductory adverb besides from the main clause. Besides: you is incorrect because a colon must follow a complete clause, and besides alone is not one. Besides. You is incorrect because the period leaves besides standing alone as a fragment. Besides you, is incorrect because without a comma after besides the words read as besides you, meaning in addition to you, and the comma that follows then leaves the verb will be required with no subject.

  142. Some of the measures implemented to eradicate the disease could prove counterproductive ____________. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.[Salgado, 2012]
    • B.(Salgado, 2012)
    • C.(Salgado: 2012)
    • D.(Salgado), 2012
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: (Salgado, 2012)

    (Salgado, 2012) is correct because an author-date citation places the author and year together inside parentheses, separated by a comma. [Salgado, 2012] is incorrect because square brackets mark editorial insertions inside quoted material, not source citations. (Salgado: 2012) is incorrect because a comma, not a colon, separates the author from the year. (Salgado), 2012 is incorrect because the year belongs inside the parentheses with the author.

  143. Despite owning a _________ takes the bus to work every morning. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Car Michelle,
    • B.Car: Michelle
    • C.Car. Michelle
    • D.Car, Michelle
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Car, Michelle

    Car, Michelle is correct because the introductory phrase Despite owning a car is set off by a comma before the subject Michelle. Car Michelle, is incorrect because it leaves the introductory phrase unpunctuated and puts a comma between the subject Michelle and its verb takes. Car: Michelle is incorrect because a colon must follow a complete clause, and Despite owning a car is only an introductory phrase. Car. Michelle is incorrect because the period cuts off Despite owning a car as a fragment.

  144. ___________ should consider all possible outcomes. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Nevertheless, we
    • B.Nevertheless; we
    • C.Nevertheless we,
    • D.Nevertheless. We
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Nevertheless, we

    Nevertheless, we is correct because a comma sets off the introductory adverb nevertheless from the main clause. Nevertheless; we is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and nevertheless by itself is not a clause. Nevertheless we, is incorrect because it leaves the introductory adverb unpunctuated and places a comma between the subject we and its verb should. Nevertheless. We is incorrect because the period leaves nevertheless standing alone as a fragment.

  145. Next week, we are going to visit our family __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.In Wisconsin?
    • B.In Wisconsin;
    • C.In Wisconsin.
    • D.In Wisconsin,
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: In Wisconsin.

    In Wisconsin. is correct because the sentence is a plain statement about next week’s plans, and a statement ends with a period. In Wisconsin? is incorrect because the sentence does not ask a question. In Wisconsin; is incorrect because a semicolon joins two clauses and cannot end a sentence. In Wisconsin, is incorrect because a comma cannot end a sentence either; the sentence needs end punctuation.

  146. Riding a stationery bicycle is sufficient exercise, although it is not as effective as outside biking. Which of the following corrects an error in the sentence above?

    • A.Replace stationery with stationary
    • B.Replace sufficient with suficient
    • C.Replace exercise with excercise
    • D.Replace effective with effectively
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Replace stationery with stationary

    Replace stationery with stationary is correct because stationary means not moving, which describes an exercise bicycle, while stationery means writing paper and envelopes. Replace sufficient with suficient is incorrect because sufficient is spelled with a double f, so it is already correct. Replace exercise with excercise is incorrect because exercise has no c after the x, so it is already spelled correctly. Replace effective with effectively is incorrect because after the linking verb is, the sentence needs the adjective effective, not the adverb effectively.

  147. Many people experience fatigue bloating and nausea when pregnant. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?

    • A.Many people experience fatigue, bloating, and nausea when pregnant.
    • B.Many people experience, fatigue, bloating, and nausea when pregnant.
    • C.Many people, experience fatigue, bloating, and nausea when pregnant.
    • D.Many people experience fatigue bloating, and nausea when pregnant.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Many people experience fatigue, bloating, and nausea when pregnant.

    Many people experience fatigue, bloating, and nausea when pregnant. is correct because commas separate the three symptoms in the series, with a serial comma before and. Many people experience, fatigue, bloating, and nausea when pregnant. is incorrect because a comma should not separate the verb experience from its objects. Many people, experience fatigue, bloating, and nausea when pregnant. is incorrect because a comma should not separate the subject Many people from its verb experience. Many people experience fatigue bloating, and nausea when pregnant. is incorrect because it leaves out the comma after fatigue, so the first two symptoms run together.

  148. My ___________ became an entrepreneur at just nineteen years old. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Intelligent, older brother
    • B.Intelligent older, brother
    • C.Intelligent older brother
    • D.Intelligent; older brother
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Intelligent older brother

    Intelligent older brother is correct because intelligent and older are cumulative adjectives: older brother works as a unit, and intelligent describes that unit, so no punctuation separates them. Intelligent, older brother is incorrect because a comma belongs only between coordinate adjectives, and these two cannot be reordered or joined by and. Intelligent older, brother is incorrect because a comma does not separate the last adjective from the noun it modifies. Intelligent; older brother is incorrect because a semicolon separates independent clauses, not adjectives.

  149. chapters, write is correct because it separates the dependent clause from the independent clause with a comma, creating the correct structure. chapters write is incorrect because it combines the two clauses without any punctuation, which creates a run-on sentence. chapters; write is incorrect because it places a semicolon in between the two clauses, and semicolons are only used for two independent clauses with no linking or transition word. (chapters) write is incorrect because it uses parentheses incorrectly. We use parentheses around nonessential information or abrupt changes in thought.

    • A.Bar; where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails,
    • B.Bar. Where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails,
    • C.Bar: where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails,
    • D.Bar, where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails,
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Bar, where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails,

    Bar, where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails, is correct because the where clause adds nonessential information about the bar, so it is set off by a pair of commas. Bar; where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails, is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and the where clause cannot stand on its own. Bar. Where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails, is incorrect because the period cuts off the where clause as a fragment. Bar: where you’ll find the most delectable cocktails, is incorrect because a colon must follow a complete clause and introduce an explanation or a list, not a relative clause.

  150. I don’t think you get what this _________________ means to me. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Necklace, a family heirloom
    • B.Necklace; a family heirloom,
    • C.Necklace, a family heirloom,
    • D.Necklace: a family heirloom,
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Necklace, a family heirloom,

    Necklace, a family heirloom, is correct because a family heirloom is a nonessential appositive that renames the necklace, so it is set off by a pair of commas. Necklace, a family heirloom is incorrect because it opens the appositive with a comma but leaves out the closing comma before means. Necklace; a family heirloom, is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and this necklace is only part of a clause. Necklace: a family heirloom, is incorrect because a colon must follow a complete clause, and the words before it break off in the middle of a clause.

  151. _________ register with a valid email address. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.First, please
    • B.First: please
    • C.First. Please
    • D.First please,
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: First, please

    First, please is correct because a comma sets off the introductory adverb first from the request that follows. First: please is incorrect because a colon must follow a complete clause, and first alone is not one. First. Please is incorrect because the period leaves first standing alone as a fragment. First please, is incorrect because it leaves first unpunctuated and puts a comma between please and the verb register.

  152. I’m so excited for the birthday party __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.This weekend?
    • B.This weekend!
    • C.This weekend,
    • D.This weekend;
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: This weekend!

    This weekend! is correct because I’m so excited for the birthday party this weekend expresses strong emotion, and an exclamation point marks that excitement. This weekend? is incorrect because the sentence is a statement, not a question. This weekend, is incorrect because a comma cannot end a sentence; the sentence needs end punctuation. This weekend; is incorrect because a semicolon joins two clauses and cannot end a sentence.

  153. All hiking participants should bring portable, healthy food for their __________ dried fruits, nuts, or granola bars. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Snacks;
    • B.Snacks, such as:
    • C.Snacks, such as,
    • D.Snacks:
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Snacks:

    Snacks: is correct because the words before the blank form a complete independent clause, and a colon after a complete clause introduces the list of dried fruits, nuts, or granola bars. Snacks; is incorrect because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and the list that follows is not a clause. Snacks, such as: is incorrect because such as already introduces the examples, so no colon follows it. Snacks, such as, is incorrect because no comma comes between such as and the examples it introduces.

  154. Where do you recommend scheduling a pedicure appointment __________ Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Around here.
    • B.Around here?
    • C.Around here,
    • D.Around here;
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Around here?

    Around here? is correct because Where do you recommend scheduling a pedicure appointment is a direct question, and a direct question ends with a question mark. Around here. is incorrect because a period ends a statement, and this sentence asks a question. Around here, is incorrect because a comma cannot end a sentence; the sentence needs end punctuation. Around here; is incorrect because a semicolon joins two clauses and cannot end a sentence.

  155. After reading the first three ________ a two-page text summarizing the main points. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.Chapters write,
    • B.Chapters, write
    • C.Chapters: write
    • D.Chapters. Write
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Chapters, write

    Chapters, write is correct because the introductory phrase After reading the first three chapters is set off by a comma before the command write. Chapters write, is incorrect because it leaves the introductory phrase unpunctuated and puts a comma between the verb write and its object. Chapters: write is incorrect because a colon must follow a complete clause, and the introductory phrase is not one. Chapters. Write is incorrect because the period cuts off After reading the first three chapters as a fragment.

  156. At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence across the road and into a field to explore. Which of the following correctly punctuates the above sentence?

    • A.At the site of an open gate, the dog, darted through the fence, across the road, and into a field to explore.
    • B.At the site, of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence, across the road, and into a field to explore.
    • C.At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence, across the road, and into a field to explore.
    • D.At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through, the fence, across the road, and into a field to explore.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence, across the road, and into a field to explore.

    At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence, across the road, and into a field to explore. is correct because commas separate the three phrases in the series that tell where the dog darted, with a serial comma before and. At the site of an open gate, the dog, darted through the fence, across the road, and into a field to explore. is incorrect because a comma should not separate the subject the dog from its verb darted. At the site, of an open gate, the dog darted through the fence, across the road, and into a field to explore. is incorrect because a comma should not split the single introductory phrase At the site of an open gate. At the site of an open gate, the dog darted through, the fence, across the road, and into a field to explore. is incorrect because a comma should not separate the preposition through from its object the fence.

  157. Thinking nobody was ________ discreetly picked his nose. Which of the following options correctly completes the sentence above?

    • A.watching; Charlie
    • B.watching, Charlie
    • C.watching: Charlie
    • D.watching Charlie,
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: watching, Charlie

    "watching, Charlie" is correct: "Thinking nobody was watching" is an introductory participial phrase that describes Charlie, and a comma sets it off from the independent clause "Charlie discreetly picked his nose." "watching; Charlie" is wrong because a semicolon joins two independent clauses, and the opening phrase has no subject of its own, so it cannot stand as a clause. "watching: Charlie" is wrong because a colon must follow a complete independent clause and introduce a list, an explanation or a quotation. "watching Charlie," moves the comma to the wrong side of the name, so the sentence reads as "nobody was watching Charlie" and leaves the verb "discreetly picked his nose" with no subject.

References

  1. 1.ATI. “What is on the ATI TEAS, Version 7 Exam?.” ATITesting.com, 2026. ↑
  2. 2.ATI. “What are the ATI TEAS Sections?.” ATITesting.com. ↑
  3. 3.ATI. “What is the Time Limit for the ATI TEAS, Version 7?.” ATITesting.com. ↑
  4. 4.ATI. “Specific Content and Sub-Content Areas of the ATI TEAS Version 7.” ATITesting.com. ↑
  5. 5.ATI. “ATI TEAS Exam.” ATITesting.com. ↑
  6. 6.Nurse.org. “TEAS Test: Everything You Need to Know.” Nurse.org. ↑
  7. 7.Revise Online. “How Do Practice Exams Work Effectively?.” Revise Online. ↑
  8. 8.Mometrix. “TEAS 7 Test: The Definitive Guide.” Mometrix. ↑
  9. 9.Career Employer. “TEAS practice-test performance data.” careeremployer.com, updated daily, CC BY 4.0. ↑
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