Your FREE GMAT (Graduate Management Admission Test) Practice Test 2026 – 420+ Q&A

GMAT Practice Questions

1. The product of any two consecutive integers is always which of the following?
   • Odd
   • Prime
   • Even
   • A perfect square

   Correct answer: Even

   The product is always even. Among any two consecutive integers, one must be even, and a product that includes an even factor is itself even; it need not be prime or a perfect square.

2. Which of the following integers is prime?
   • 91
   • 87
   • 99
   • 97

   Correct answer: 97

   The prime number is 97. The value 91 equals $7 \cdot 13$, 87 equals $3 \cdot 29$, and 99 equals $9 \cdot 11$, so each is composite, while 97 has no divisors other than 1 and itself.

3. If $n$ is an odd integer, which of the following must also be odd?
   • $n + 1$
   • $n^2$
   • $2n$
   • $3n + 1$

   Correct answer: $n^2$

   The expression $n^2$ must be odd. The square of an odd number is odd, while $n + 1$ turns it even, $2n$ is even, and $3n + 1$ becomes even when $n$ is odd.

4. When a positive integer is divided by 9, the remainder is 5. What is the remainder when 4 is added to that integer and the result is divided by 9?
   • 9
   • 0
   • 1
   • 4

   Correct answer: 0

   The remainder is 0. The integer equals $9q + 5$, so adding 4 gives $9q + 9 = 9(q + 1)$, which is a multiple of 9 and therefore leaves no remainder.

5. Which of the following numbers is divisible by both 6 and 8?
   • 48
   • 36
   • 56
   • 60

   Correct answer: 48

   The number 48 is divisible by both. A number divisible by 6 and 8 must be a multiple of their least common multiple, 24, and only 48 among the choices is a multiple of 24.

6. How many positive divisors does 100 have?
   • 6
   • 8
   • 10
   • 9

   Correct answer: 9

   The answer is 9. The prime factorization of 100 is $2^2 \cdot 5^2$, and the divisor count equals $(2 + 1)(2 + 1) = 9$.

7. Expressed as a product of primes, what is 90?
   • $2 \cdot 3^2 \cdot 5$
   • $2 \cdot 45$
   • $2 \cdot 3 \cdot 15$
   • $3 \cdot 30$

   Correct answer: $2 \cdot 3^2 \cdot 5$

   The prime factorization is $2 \cdot 3^2 \cdot 5$. Breaking 90 down into primes gives $2 \cdot 3 \cdot 3 \cdot 5$; the other options still contain composite numbers such as 15, 45, or 30.

8. Using prime factorization, what is the least common multiple of 8 and 20?
   • 4
   • 40
   • 80
   • 160

   Correct answer: 40

   The least common multiple is 40. Factoring gives $8 = 2^3$ and $20 = 2^2 \cdot 5$; taking the highest power of each prime yields $2^3 \cdot 5 = 40$.

9. What is $\frac{5}{6}$ minus $\frac{1}{4}$ written as a single fraction in lowest terms?
   • $\frac{4}{2}$
   • $\frac{6}{10}$
   • $\frac{7}{12}$
   • $\frac{1}{2}$

   Correct answer: $\frac{7}{12}$

   The result is $\frac{7}{12}$. Converting to a common denominator of 12 gives $\frac{10}{12}$ minus $\frac{3}{12} = \frac{7}{12}$, which cannot be reduced further because 7 is prime and does not divide 12.

10. What is 0.6 expressed as a fraction in lowest terms?
    • $\frac{6}{10}$
    • $\frac{2}{3}$
    • $\frac{3}{5}$
    • $\frac{1}{6}$

    Correct answer: $\frac{3}{5}$

    The fraction is $\frac{3}{5}$. Writing 0.6 as $\frac{6}{10}$ and dividing numerator and denominator by their common factor of 2 gives $\frac{3}{5}$.

11. What percent of 250 is 40?
    • 12 percent
    • 40 percent
    • 25 percent
    • 16 percent

    Correct answer: 16 percent

    The answer is 16 percent. Dividing 40 by 250 gives 0.16, which converts to 16 percent.

12. A jacket originally priced at 80 dollars is marked down by 25 percent. What is the sale price?
    • 55 dollars
    • 65 dollars
    • 60 dollars
    • 75 dollars

    Correct answer: 60 dollars

    The sale price is 60 dollars. A 25 percent markdown removes $0.25 \cdot 80$, which is 20 dollars, leaving $80 - 20 = 60$ dollars.

13. A merchant sells an item for 150 dollars at a 50 percent profit over cost. What was the cost?
    • 75 dollars
    • 112.50 dollars
    • 100 dollars
    • 125 dollars

    Correct answer: 100 dollars

    The cost was 100 dollars. A 50 percent profit means the selling price equals $1.5$ times the cost, so dividing 150 by 1.5 gives a cost of 100 dollars.

14. If 2,500 dollars earns 200 dollars in simple interest over 2 years, what is the annual interest rate?
    • 4 percent
    • 2 percent
    • 8 percent
    • 10 percent

    Correct answer: 4 percent

    The rate is 4 percent. Simple interest equals principal times rate times time, so $200 = 2500 \cdot r \cdot 2$, giving $r = 200 \div 5000 = 0.04$, or 4 percent.

15. The ratio of red to blue tiles is 4 to 7. If there are 35 blue tiles, how many red tiles are there?
    • 20
    • 15
    • 28
    • 49

    Correct answer: 20

    There are 20 red tiles. Each ratio unit equals $35 \div 7$, which is 5 tiles, so the 4 units of red tiles equal $4 \cdot 5 = 20$.

16. If 6 pens cost 9 dollars, how much do 10 pens cost at the same rate?
    • 12 dollars
    • 13.50 dollars
    • 16.50 dollars
    • 15 dollars

    Correct answer: 15 dollars

    Ten pens cost 15 dollars. The unit price is $9 \div 6$, which is 1.50 dollars per pen, and $10 \cdot 1.50$ equals 15 dollars.

17. In a ratio of 2 to 3 to 5, the three parts of a 60-unit total are split. What is the size of the largest part?
    • 12
    • 30
    • 18
    • 36

    Correct answer: 30

    The largest part is 30. The ratio has $2 + 3 + 5 = 10$ units, so each unit equals $60 \div 10 = 6$, and the largest share of 5 units equals $5 \cdot 6 = 30$.

18. What is the value of $3^3 \cdot 3^2$?
    • $3^6$
    • $3^5$
    • $9^5$
    • 27

    Correct answer: $3^5$

    The value is $3^5$. When multiplying powers with the same base, add the exponents, so $3^{(3 + 2)}$ equals $3^5$.

19. What is $\sqrt[3]{64}$?
    • 2
    • 4
    • 8
    • 16

    Correct answer: 4

    $\sqrt[3]{64}$ is 4. Since $4 \cdot 4 \cdot 4$ equals 64, the number whose cube is 64 is 4.

20. What is the value of $10^0$?
    • 0
    • Undefined
    • 10
    • 1

    Correct answer: 1

    The value is 1. Any nonzero base raised to the zero power equals 1 by the rules of exponents.

21. If $4x + 9$ equals 33, what is the value of $x$?
    • 4
    • 10.5
    • 8
    • 6

    Correct answer: 6

    The value of $x$ is 6. Subtracting 9 from both sides gives $4x = 24$, and dividing both sides by 4 yields $x = 6$.

22. A gym charges a 30-dollar sign-up fee plus 25 dollars per month. After how many months does the total cost reach 180 dollars?
    • 5 months
    • 6 months
    • 7 months
    • 8 months

    Correct answer: 6 months

    The total reaches 180 dollars after 6 months. Setting up $30 + 25m = 180$ and subtracting 30 gives $25m = 150$, so $m = 6$.

23. If $2x - 3y$ equals 12 and $x$ equals 9, what is the value of $y$?
    • 9
    • 3
    • 6
    • 2

    Correct answer: 2

    The value of $y$ is 2. Substituting $x = 9$ gives $18 - 3y = 12$, so $3y = 6$ and $y = 2$.

24. What are the solutions to $x^2 + 2x - 15 = 0$?
    • $x = 3$ and $x = 5$
    • $x = -3$ and $x = 5$
    • $x = 3$ and $x = -5$
    • $x = -3$ and $x = -5$

    Correct answer: $x = 3$ and $x = -5$

    The solutions are $x = 3$ and $x = -5$. The expression factors as $(x - 3)(x + 5)$, whose roots multiply to $-15$ and add to 2.

25. If $x^2 - 8x = 0$, what are the solutions for $x$?
    • $x = 0$ and $x = -8$
    • $x = 8$ only
    • $x = -8$ and $x = 8$
    • $x = 0$ and $x = 8$

    Correct answer: $x = 0$ and $x = 8$

    The solutions are $x = 0$ and $x = 8$. Factoring gives $x(x - 8) = 0$, so either $x = 0$ or $x = 8$ satisfies the equation.

26. The product of two numbers is 24 and their sum is 11. What are the two numbers?
    • 2 and 12
    • 3 and 8
    • 4 and 6
    • 1 and 24

    Correct answer: 3 and 8

    The two numbers are 3 and 8. They are roots of $x^2 - 11x + 24 = 0$, which factors as $(x - 3)(x - 8)$, and only 3 and 8 both sum to 11 and multiply to 24.

27. Which of the following describes the solution to $5x - 4 \le 16$?
    • $x \le 4$
    • $x \ge 4$
    • $x \le 20$
    • $x \ge 20$

    Correct answer: $x \le 4$

    The solution is $x \le 4$. Adding 4 to both sides gives $5x \le 20$, and dividing by the positive 5 keeps the direction, yielding $x \le 4$.

28. If $7 - 2x > 1$, which of the following describes $x$?
    • $x > 4$
    • $x > 3$
    • $x < 4$
    • $x < 3$

    Correct answer: $x < 3$

    The solution is $x < 3$. Subtracting 7 gives $-2x > -6$, and dividing by $-2$ reverses the inequality to $x < 3$.

29. For which values of $x$ is the statement $4x > 2x + 10$ true?
    • $x < 5$
    • $x > 5$
    • $x > 10$
    • $x < 10$

    Correct answer: $x > 5$

    The statement is true when $x > 5$. Subtracting $2x$ from both sides gives $2x > 10$, and dividing by 2 yields $x > 5$.

30. What is the value of the absolute value of (negative 7) plus the absolute value of 3?
    • 4
    • Negative 4
    • 10
    • Negative 10

    Correct answer: 10

    The value is 10. The absolute value of $-7$ is 7 and the absolute value of 3 is 3, and adding these nonnegative distances gives 10.

31. Which values of $x$ satisfy the equation $|x - 2| = 5$?
    • $x = 7$ and $x = -3$
    • $x = 3$ and $x = -7$
    • $x = 7$ only
    • $x = -3$ only

    Correct answer: $x = 7$ and $x = -3$

    The solutions are $x = 7$ and $x = -3$. The expression inside can equal either 5 or $-5$, so $x - 2 = 5$ gives $x = 7$ and $x - 2 = -5$ gives $x = -3$.

32. Simplify the expression $3(x - 2) + 2(x + 4)$.
    • $6x + 2$
    • $5x - 2$
    • $5x + 14$
    • $5x + 2$

    Correct answer: $5x + 2$

    The simplified form is $5x + 2$. Distributing gives $3x - 6 + 2x + 8$, and combining like terms produces $5x + 2$.

33. Which of the following is the expanded form of $(x + 4)^2$?
    • $x^2 + 16$
    • $x^2 + 4x + 16$
    • $x^2 + 8x + 16$
    • $x^2 + 8x + 8$

    Correct answer: $x^2 + 8x + 16$

    The expansion is $x^2 + 8x + 16$. Squaring a binomial gives the first term squared, twice the product of the terms, and the last term squared, so the middle term is $2 \cdot 4 \cdot x = 8x$.

34. Which expression is equivalent to $(6x^2 + 9x) \div 3x$, for $x \ne 0$?
    • $6x + 9$
    • $2x^2 + 3$
    • $2x + 3$
    • $2x + 9$

    Correct answer: $2x + 3$

    The simplified expression is $2x + 3$. Dividing each term by $3x$ gives $6x^2 \div 3x = 2x$ and $9x \div 3x = 3$, so the result is $2x + 3$.

35. If $h(x) = x^2 + 2x$, what is the value of $h(4)$?
    • 24
    • 20
    • 16
    • 32

    Correct answer: 24

    The value is 24. Substituting 4 for $x$ gives $16 + 8$, which equals 24.

36. If $f(x) = 3x - 5$ and $g(x) = x + 2$, what is the value of $f(g(3))$?
    • 10
    • 4
    • 14
    • 16

    Correct answer: 10

    The value is 10. First $g(3) = 3 + 2 = 5$, then $f(5) = 3 \cdot 5 - 5 = 15 - 5 = 10$.

37. If $f(x) = 2x + 1$, what is the value of $f(a + 1)$ in terms of $a$?
    • $2a + 1$
    • $2a + 3$
    • $2a + 2$
    • $2a$

    Correct answer: $2a + 3$

    The value is $2a + 3$. Substituting $a + 1$ for $x$ gives $2(a + 1) + 1 = 2a + 2 + 1 = 2a + 3$.

38. A printer can print 50 pages in 2 minutes. How many minutes does it take to print 375 pages at the same rate?
    • 12 minutes
    • 18 minutes
    • 15 minutes
    • 20 minutes

    Correct answer: 15 minutes

    It takes 15 minutes. The printer's rate is $50 \div 2 = 25$ pages per minute, and $375 \div 25$ equals 15 minutes.

39. If 3 workers can complete a task in 8 hours, how long would it take 6 workers to complete the same task, assuming equal work rates?
    • 2 hours
    • 16 hours
    • 12 hours
    • 4 hours

    Correct answer: 4 hours

    It takes 4 hours. Doubling the number of workers halves the time, so 8 hours divided by 2 equals 4 hours.

40. One pipe drains a pool in 4 hours while a second pipe drains it in 6 hours. Working together, how long does it take to drain the pool?
    • 2 hours
    • 10 hours
    • 5 hours
    • 2.4 hours

    Correct answer: 2.4 hours

    It takes 2.4 hours. The combined draining rate is $\frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{6} = \frac{3}{12} + \frac{2}{12} = \frac{5}{12}$ of the pool per hour, so the time is the reciprocal, $\frac{12}{5} = 2.4$ hours.

41. A cyclist rides 45 miles in 3 hours. What is the cyclist's average speed?
    • 12 miles per hour
    • 15 miles per hour
    • 18 miles per hour
    • 135 miles per hour

    Correct answer: 15 miles per hour

    The average speed is 15 miles per hour. Dividing distance by time gives $45 \div 3$, which equals 15 miles per hour.

42. A runner travels at 8 miles per hour for 45 minutes. How many miles does the runner cover?
    • 6 miles
    • 4 miles
    • 8 miles
    • 12 miles

    Correct answer: 6 miles

    The runner covers 6 miles. Converting 45 minutes to 0.75 hours and multiplying by the speed gives $8 \cdot 0.75 = 6$ miles.

43. Two cars leave the same point traveling toward each other from 300 miles apart, one at 40 miles per hour and the other at 60 miles per hour. After how many hours do they meet?
    • 2 hours
    • 5 hours
    • 3 hours
    • 6 hours

    Correct answer: 3 hours

    They meet after 3 hours. Moving toward each other, they close the gap at the combined speed of 100 miles per hour, so $300 \div 100$ equals 3 hours.

44. How many liters of pure water must be added to 12 liters of a 40 percent salt solution to dilute it to a 30 percent salt solution?
    • 4 liters
    • 3 liters
    • 6 liters
    • 8 liters

    Correct answer: 4 liters

    You must add 4 liters. The amount of salt stays at $0.40 \cdot 12 = 4.8$ liters, so $4.8 = 0.30(12 + x)$ gives $12 + x = 16$, meaning $x = 4$ liters of water.

45. A 60-pound trail mix is 30 percent raisins by weight. How many pounds of raisins does it contain?
    • 18 pounds
    • 12 pounds
    • 20 pounds
    • 24 pounds

    Correct answer: 18 pounds

    It contains 18 pounds of raisins. Taking 30 percent of 60 pounds gives $0.30 \cdot 60$, which equals 18 pounds.

46. A 20 percent alcohol solution is mixed with a 60 percent alcohol solution to make 20 liters of a 45 percent solution. How many liters of the 60 percent solution are used?
    • 5 liters
    • 7.5 liters
    • 15 liters
    • 12.5 liters

    Correct answer: 12.5 liters

    The mixture uses 12.5 liters of the 60 percent solution. With $x$ liters at 60 percent and $(20 - x)$ at 20 percent, the balance $0.60x + 0.20(20 - x) = 0.45(20)$ gives $0.40x = 5$, so $x = 12.5$ liters.

47. In a group of 40 employees, 25 speak English and 18 speak Spanish, while every employee speaks at least one of the two languages. How many speak both?
    • 7
    • 5
    • 3
    • 13

    Correct answer: 3

    Three employees speak both. Since everyone speaks at least one language, the overlap equals $25 + 18 - 40 = 3$.

48. In how many distinct ways can the letters of the word LOGIC be arranged, given that all five letters are different?
    • 120
    • 60
    • 25
    • 625

    Correct answer: 120

    There are 120 arrangements. Ordering 5 distinct letters is $5!$, which equals $5 \cdot 4 \cdot 3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1 = 120$.

49. A bag holds 3 green, 2 yellow, and 5 black marbles. If one marble is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is not black?
    • $\frac{2}{5}$
    • $\frac{1}{2}$
    • $\frac{1}{5}$
    • $\frac{3}{10}$

    Correct answer: $\frac{1}{2}$

    The probability is $\frac{1}{2}$. There are 10 marbles and 5 are not black (3 green plus 2 yellow), so $\frac{5}{10}$ reduces to $\frac{1}{2}$.

50. On the GMAT Verbal Reasoning section, which two question types make up the section under the current exam design?
    • Critical Reasoning and Reading Comprehension
    • Sentence Correction and Analytical Writing
    • Data Sufficiency and Reading Comprehension
    • Critical Reasoning and Sentence Correction

    Correct answer: Critical Reasoning and Reading Comprehension

    The two question types are Critical Reasoning and Reading Comprehension. The current Verbal Reasoning section tests these two skills only; Sentence Correction and Analytical Writing are no longer part of the exam.

51. In a Critical Reasoning item, a word such as 'therefore,' 'thus,' or 'consequently' most often signals which part of the argument?
    • The conclusion
    • An irrelevant detail
    • A supporting statistic
    • The background context

    Correct answer: The conclusion

    Such words most often signal the conclusion. Terms like 'therefore' and 'thus' introduce the claim drawn from the evidence, so spotting them helps the reader locate what the argument is trying to establish.

52. Words such as 'because,' 'since,' and 'as a result of' within a Critical Reasoning argument typically introduce which element?
    • The conclusion the author wants accepted
    • A premise that provides support
    • A grammatical error
    • The question stem

    Correct answer: A premise that provides support

    These words typically introduce a premise that provides support. Terms like 'because' and 'since' precede evidence offered to back the conclusion, marking the supporting role of that statement.

53. Operations lead: 'We should route all customer complaints through the new online portal, because complaints submitted online are resolved faster than those made by phone.' Which sentence is the conclusion of this Critical Reasoning argument?
    • Complaints submitted online are resolved faster than those made by phone
    • That all customer complaints should be routed through the new online portal
    • The portal is described as new
    • The reference to phone complaints

    Correct answer: That all customer complaints should be routed through the new online portal

    The conclusion is that all customer complaints should be routed through the new online portal. It is the recommendation the speaker wants accepted, while the observation about faster online resolution serves as the supporting premise.

54. A strengthen question asks for an answer choice that affects the argument in which way?
    • It proves the premises are false
    • It rewrites the conclusion as a question
    • It removes a premise from the argument
    • It makes the conclusion more likely to be true

    Correct answer: It makes the conclusion more likely to be true

    A strengthen question asks for a choice that makes the conclusion more likely to be true. The correct answer adds support or closes a gap so the conclusion follows more securely from the evidence.

55. Marketing director: 'After we redesigned our packaging, monthly sales of the snack rose by 30 percent, so the redesign caused the sales increase.' Which statement, if true, most weakens this conclusion?
    • The redesign used brighter colors
    • During the same month, a major competitor's product was recalled, leaving shoppers with fewer alternatives
    • The snack is sold in supermarkets nationwide
    • The packaging redesign took several months to complete

    Correct answer: During the same month, a major competitor's product was recalled, leaving shoppers with fewer alternatives

    The conclusion is most weakened by the competitor's recall during the same month, which left shoppers with fewer alternatives. That recall offers an alternative cause for the higher sales, undercutting the claim that the redesign was responsible.

56. School board: 'Since we introduced free after-school tutoring, average test scores have improved, so the tutoring raised the scores.' Which finding, if true, most strengthens this argument?
    • Neighboring districts without new tutoring saw flat test scores over the same period
    • The tutoring sessions are held in the school library
    • Many students said they enjoyed the tutoring
    • The tutors are certified teachers

    Correct answer: Neighboring districts without new tutoring saw flat test scores over the same period

    The argument is most strengthened by neighboring districts without new tutoring seeing flat scores over the same period. This comparison rules out a regionwide trend, making the tutoring the most plausible cause of the improvement.

57. Manufacturer: 'Switching our packaging to recycled cardboard will reduce our shipping damage rates.' Which statement, if true, most weakens this claim?
    • Recycled cardboard is less expensive than the current material
    • In controlled drop tests, the recycled cardboard tore more easily and crushed under lighter loads than the current packaging
    • Customers say they prefer recycled materials
    • The recycled cardboard is sourced locally

    Correct answer: In controlled drop tests, the recycled cardboard tore more easily and crushed under lighter loads than the current packaging

    The claim is most weakened by drop tests showing the recycled cardboard tore more easily and crushed under lighter loads. If the new material protects goods less well, switching to it would likely raise, not reduce, shipping damage, undermining the prediction.

58. City planner: 'Adding bike-share stations will reduce downtown car congestion.' Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen this argument?
    • Bike-share stations are inexpensive to maintain
    • Many residents already own bicycles
    • The stations would be painted in bright colors
    • In comparable cities, downtown car traffic fell noticeably in the months after bike-share stations were added

    Correct answer: In comparable cities, downtown car traffic fell noticeably in the months after bike-share stations were added

    The argument is most strengthened by evidence that in comparable cities, downtown car traffic fell after bike-share stations were added. This real-world parallel supports the prediction that the same measure would ease congestion locally.

59. When the GMAT asks for the assumption 'on which the argument depends,' it is asking for a statement that fits which description?
    • A fact that, if untrue, would not affect the argument
    • A claim the author explicitly states twice
    • An unstated premise the conclusion needs in order to follow
    • The most surprising piece of evidence

    Correct answer: An unstated premise the conclusion needs in order to follow

    It is asking for an unstated premise the conclusion needs in order to follow. A necessary assumption is the implicit bridge between evidence and conclusion that must hold for the reasoning to work.

60. Owner: 'We should open our next coffee shop near the university, because students drink a lot of coffee.' This argument assumes which of the following?
    • The university has more than 10,000 students
    • A meaningful number of those students would buy coffee from this particular shop rather than existing options
    • The coffee shop will serve pastries
    • Coffee prices have risen recently

    Correct answer: A meaningful number of those students would buy coffee from this particular shop rather than existing options

    The argument assumes that a meaningful number of those students would buy coffee from this particular shop rather than from existing options. High overall student demand justifies the location only if this shop can actually capture that business.

61. Director: 'Installing solar panels on our warehouse roof will lower the company's energy bills, so we should install them.' Which of the following is an assumption the argument depends on?
    • The warehouse roof receives enough sunlight to generate meaningful electricity
    • Solar panels are popular with the public
    • The warehouse was built within the last decade
    • The company has multiple warehouses

    Correct answer: The warehouse roof receives enough sunlight to generate meaningful electricity

    The argument depends on the assumption that the warehouse roof receives enough sunlight to generate meaningful electricity. If the roof is shaded or poorly oriented, the panels would not lower bills, so adequate sunlight is a required condition.

62. An argument concludes that a new bonus plan will increase sales. Negating which of the following would most clearly break the argument, marking it as a necessary assumption?
    • The bonus plan is described in the employee handbook
    • Salespeople are motivated by the prospect of earning the bonus
    • The company has more than fifty salespeople
    • The bonus plan was approved by the board

    Correct answer: Salespeople are motivated by the prospect of earning the bonus

    Negating the claim that salespeople are motivated by the prospect of earning the bonus would break the argument, marking it as necessary. If the bonus does not motivate them, there is no reason to expect higher sales, so the conclusion collapses without this assumption.

63. Publisher: 'Translating our bestselling novel into Spanish will expand our readership, so we should translate it.' Which assumption is required for this conclusion to hold?
    • The novel won a literary prize
    • The translation will be completed within a year
    • There are Spanish-speaking readers interested in the novel who are not already reading it in its current language
    • The author approves of translations

    Correct answer: There are Spanish-speaking readers interested in the novel who are not already reading it in its current language

    The required assumption is that there are Spanish-speaking readers interested in the novel who are not already reading it in its current language. The translation expands readership only if it reaches new readers, making this the necessary link.

64. Passage: 'Every applicant who was offered an interview submitted a portfolio. Lena did not submit a portfolio.' Which conclusion can be properly inferred?
    • Lena was not offered an interview
    • Lena was unqualified for the position
    • Lena applied after the deadline
    • Lena submitted a resume instead

    Correct answer: Lena was not offered an interview

    It can be inferred that Lena was not offered an interview. Since everyone offered an interview submitted a portfolio and Lena did not submit one, she cannot have been among those offered an interview; the other choices add unsupported details.

65. Passage: 'No product manufactured before 2020 carries the new safety seal. The kettle on this shelf carries the new safety seal.' Which of the following must be true?
    • The kettle was the most expensive product made
    • The kettle was manufactured in 2020 or later
    • The kettle is the safest product on the shelf
    • The kettle will soon be discontinued

    Correct answer: The kettle was manufactured in 2020 or later

    It must be true that the kettle was manufactured in 2020 or later. Since no product made before 2020 carries the seal and this kettle carries it, the kettle cannot have been made before 2020; the other options are not supported.

66. Passage: 'The greenhouse opens its doors only on days when the humidity sensor reports a safe level. On Thursday, the humidity sensor did not report a safe level.' What can be inferred about Thursday?
    • The greenhouse hired extra staff that day
    • The plants were watered manually
    • The greenhouse did not open its doors
    • The sensor was replaced

    Correct answer: The greenhouse did not open its doors

    It can be inferred that the greenhouse did not open its doors on Thursday. The greenhouse opens only when the sensor reports a safe level, and on Thursday it did not, so the necessary condition for opening was not met.

67. Passage: 'Whenever the server load exceeds its limit, the backup system activates automatically. Last night the backup system did not activate.' Which statement must be true about last night?
    • The server load did not exceed its limit
    • The backup system was turned off
    • The network was disconnected
    • The server was being upgraded

    Correct answer: The server load did not exceed its limit

    It must be true that the server load did not exceed its limit. Because exceeding the limit always activates the backup system, the absence of activation means the limit was not exceeded; the other choices speculate beyond the passage.

68. Passage: 'Only volunteers who completed the certification course were assigned to the emergency response team. Omar was assigned to the emergency response team.' What can be properly inferred about Omar?
    • Omar has prior emergency experience
    • Omar completed the certification course
    • Omar volunteered most often
    • Omar leads the response team

    Correct answer: Omar completed the certification course

    It can be inferred that Omar completed the certification course. Because only volunteers who completed the course were assigned to the team and Omar was assigned, he must have completed it; the other choices add unstated information.

69. An evaluate-the-argument question is best answered by an answer choice that does which of the following?
    • Restates the conclusion using stronger language
    • Lists the premises in the order they appear
    • Identifies the field the author works in
    • Identifies a piece of information whose value would help determine whether the argument holds up

    Correct answer: Identifies a piece of information whose value would help determine whether the argument holds up

    It is best answered by a choice that identifies a piece of information whose value would help determine whether the argument holds up. Such a choice, often phrased as a question, would either strengthen or weaken the argument once resolved.

70. Owner: 'We should replace our delivery bikes with electric scooters because scooters are faster, which will let us complete more deliveries per day.' Answering which of the following would be most useful in evaluating this argument?
    • What color the scooters would be
    • How many employees can ride a scooter
    • When the delivery service was founded
    • Whether the current delivery limit is set by travel speed rather than by order volume or preparation time

    Correct answer: Whether the current delivery limit is set by travel speed rather than by order volume or preparation time

    It would be most useful to learn whether the current delivery limit is set by travel speed rather than by order volume or preparation time. Faster scooters increase deliveries only if speed is the bottleneck; if orders or prep time limit output, the switch would not help.

71. Director: 'Our museum's new evening lecture series caused attendance to rise, so we should expand it.' Which question would be most relevant to evaluating this conclusion?
    • Whether attendance also rose at other museum events that had no new programming
    • What topics the lectures cover
    • How many seats the lecture hall holds
    • Who introduces each speaker

    Correct answer: Whether attendance also rose at other museum events that had no new programming

    The most relevant question is whether attendance also rose at other museum events that had no new programming. If overall museum attendance increased regardless, the lecture series may not deserve the credit, so resolving this is key to evaluating the claim.

72. Analyst: 'Employees who use the new ergonomic chairs report fewer back complaints, so the chairs reduce back pain.' Answering which of the following would be most useful in evaluating this argument?
    • Whether the employees who received the new chairs were also given guidance on posture and movement that the others did not receive
    • What material the chairs are made of
    • How much the chairs cost
    • Which department received the chairs first

    Correct answer: Whether the employees who received the new chairs were also given guidance on posture and movement that the others did not receive

    It would be most useful to learn whether the employees who received the new chairs were also given posture and movement guidance the others did not receive. If they got additional help, that, not the chairs, could explain the fewer complaints, making this central to evaluation.

73. A resolve-the-discrepancy question presents two facts that seem to conflict. The correct answer choice typically does which of the following?
    • Demonstrates that one of the facts is mistaken
    • Provides information showing why both facts can hold true at the same time
    • States the author's recommendation
    • Repeats both facts in reverse order

    Correct answer: Provides information showing why both facts can hold true at the same time

    The correct answer typically provides information showing why both facts can hold true at the same time. It reconciles the apparent conflict with a missing piece of context rather than rejecting a fact or drawing a conclusion.

74. A bookstore expanded its hours to stay open late every night, yet its total monthly sales declined compared with the previous month. Which of the following, if true, best resolves this apparent discrepancy?
    • The store is located in a shopping district
    • A long-running street construction project blocked the store's entrance for most of that month, deterring shoppers
    • The store sells both new and used books
    • The owner enjoys staying open late

    Correct answer: A long-running street construction project blocked the store's entrance for most of that month, deterring shoppers

    The discrepancy is best resolved by the street construction project that blocked the store's entrance for most of the month, deterring shoppers. The drop in access could lower sales despite longer hours, reconciling the two facts.

75. A vineyard adopted a new irrigation system shown in trials to improve grape quality, yet wine critics rated this year's vintage lower than last year's. Which of the following, if true, best explains this surprising result?
    • The irrigation system was installed by an outside contractor
    • An early frost damaged many of the grapes before harvest, lowering their quality regardless of irrigation
    • The vineyard uses oak barrels for aging
    • The new system is more water-efficient

    Correct answer: An early frost damaged many of the grapes before harvest, lowering their quality regardless of irrigation

    The result is best explained by an early frost that damaged many grapes before harvest. Even though the irrigation system improves quality under normal conditions, frost damage could lower the vintage's quality enough to outweigh that benefit.

76. An online course platform lowered its subscription price, yet its total subscription revenue increased that quarter. Which of the following, if true, best resolves this apparent discrepancy?
    • The platform offers courses in many subjects
    • The platform's servers are reliable
    • Course completion rates stayed the same
    • The price cut attracted so many new subscribers that the larger subscriber base more than offset the lower per-subscription price

    Correct answer: The price cut attracted so many new subscribers that the larger subscriber base more than offset the lower per-subscription price

    The discrepancy is best resolved by the price cut attracting so many new subscribers that the larger base more than offset the lower per-subscription price. A surge in volume can raise total revenue even when each subscription costs less, reconciling the two facts.

77. A logical flaw question in Critical Reasoning asks the test taker to identify which of the following?
    • The most quotable line in the argument
    • The specific reasoning error that weakens the argument
    • An additional fact supporting the conclusion
    • The author's area of expertise

    Correct answer: The specific reasoning error that weakens the argument

    A logical flaw question asks the test taker to identify the specific reasoning error that weakens the argument. The correct answer names the mistake, such as overlooking an alternative cause or generalizing from too little evidence.

78. Speaker: 'Our most profitable quarter followed our move to the new office, so moving to the new office made us more profitable.' Which flaw does this argument commit?
    • It treats a sequence of events as proof that the first caused the second
    • It relies on an anonymous source
    • It defines profit too narrowly
    • It uses a sample that is too small

    Correct answer: It treats a sequence of events as proof that the first caused the second

    The flaw is treating a sequence of events as proof that the first caused the second. The move preceding the profitable quarter does not establish that it caused the profit; other factors could be responsible, so the causal leap is unjustified.

79. Argument: 'No one has proven that the additive is harmful, so the additive must be safe.' Which flaw does this argument commit?
    • It cites an unrepresentative survey
    • It treats the absence of evidence of harm as if it were proof of safety
    • It defines safety too broadly
    • It relies on outdated research

    Correct answer: It treats the absence of evidence of harm as if it were proof of safety

    The flaw is treating the absence of evidence of harm as if it were proof of safety. Not having proven something harmful does not establish that it is safe, since the matter may simply be untested, so the conclusion does not follow.

80. Argument: 'The proposal claims the merger will create jobs. But the executives backing it stand to earn large bonuses if it goes through. Therefore, the merger will not create jobs.' Which flaw does this argument commit?
    • It generalizes from a single case
    • It uses circular reasoning
    • It assumes that the backers' self-interest shows their claim about jobs is false
    • It misinterprets a statistic

    Correct answer: It assumes that the backers' self-interest shows their claim about jobs is false

    The flaw is assuming that the backers' self-interest shows their claim about jobs is false. Even if the executives benefit personally, that does not establish that the merger will fail to create jobs, so rejecting the claim on those grounds is unwarranted.

81. Argument: 'The new bridge has been blamed for increased traffic noise downtown. Yet noise readings taken before and after the bridge opened show no measurable change. Therefore, the bridge is not responsible for any noise increase.' What is the role of the statement that noise readings show no measurable change?
    • It is the main conclusion of the argument
    • It is a claim the author rejects
    • It is evidence the author uses to reject the view that the bridge increased noise
    • It is an unrelated observation

    Correct answer: It is evidence the author uses to reject the view that the bridge increased noise

    The statement that noise readings show no measurable change is evidence the author uses to reject the view that the bridge increased noise. It functions as the premise leading to the conclusion that the bridge is not responsible, not as the conclusion itself.

82. In a boldface Critical Reasoning question, the test taker is asked to determine which of the following about the two boldface portions?
    • Which portion is grammatically correct
    • How many words each portion contains
    • The logical function each portion serves within the argument
    • Which portion is more interesting

    Correct answer: The logical function each portion serves within the argument

    The test taker is asked to determine the logical function each portion serves within the argument, such as whether it is the conclusion, supporting evidence, or a consideration the author opposes. The task concerns the role of each portion, not grammar or length.

83. Reading Comprehension passages on the GMAT are best characterized as which of the following?
    • Self-contained written passages whose related questions are answered from the passage itself
    • Audio recordings of academic talks
    • Lists of vocabulary words to define
    • Numeric data sets to calculate from

    Correct answer: Self-contained written passages whose related questions are answered from the passage itself

    They are self-contained written passages whose related questions are answered from the passage itself. Correct answers must be supported by what the passage states or implies, not by outside knowledge or calculation.

84. A Reading Comprehension question that asks 'According to the passage, which of the following is true of X?' is testing the reader's ability to do which of the following?
    • Recall outside facts about X
    • Locate and accurately report information the passage states about X
    • Predict the author's next topic
    • Evaluate whether X is morally good

    Correct answer: Locate and accurately report information the passage states about X

    It is testing the reader's ability to locate and accurately report information the passage states about X. 'According to the passage' signals a detail question whose answer must come directly from the text, not from outside knowledge or judgment.

85. Passage: 'Until recently, archaeologists assumed the ancient city was abandoned because of war. New excavations, however, reveal evidence of a prolonged drought that likely forced residents to leave in search of water.' A detail question about this passage might ask which of the following?
    • What the new excavations reveal about why residents may have left
    • How many archaeologists worked at the site
    • Whether the author has visited the site
    • Which ancient city is the most famous

    Correct answer: What the new excavations reveal about why residents may have left

    A detail question might ask what the new excavations reveal about why residents may have left, namely evidence of a prolonged drought. Detail questions target information stated in the passage, unlike the other options, which call for outside or unstated facts.

86. Passage: 'For years, doctors recommended complete bed rest after minor surgery. More recent studies, however, show that gentle movement speeds recovery and reduces complications.' What is the function of the second sentence?
    • It defines the term minor surgery
    • It restates the recommendation in the first sentence
    • It presents newer findings that revise the recommendation in the first sentence
    • It introduces an unrelated medical topic

    Correct answer: It presents newer findings that revise the recommendation in the first sentence

    The second sentence presents newer findings that revise the recommendation in the first sentence. After noting the old advice of complete bed rest, the passage uses 'however' to show recent studies favoring gentle movement, revising the earlier guidance.

87. Passage: 'The reviewer notes the film's stunning visuals but spends most of the review criticizing its thin plot and wooden dialogue, ultimately advising readers to skip it.' The reviewer's overall attitude toward the film is best described as which of the following?
    • Enthusiastic
    • Mostly negative
    • Neutral
    • Confused

    Correct answer: Mostly negative

    The reviewer's overall attitude is best described as mostly negative. Although the review praises the visuals, it dwells on serious faults and advises readers to skip the film, signaling disapproval rather than enthusiasm or neutrality.

88. A primary purpose question in Reading Comprehension asks the reader to identify which of the following?
    • The single most technical term in the passage
    • The overall reason the author wrote the passage
    • A minor statistic from the middle paragraph
    • The longest sentence in the passage

    Correct answer: The overall reason the author wrote the passage

    It asks the reader to identify the overall reason the author wrote the passage. The correct answer captures the author's main goal, such as to explain, argue, or contrast, rather than a single detail or stylistic feature.

89. Passage: 'It is commonly believed that reading speed and comprehension are at odds. Yet a study of trained readers found that those who read fastest also scored highest on comprehension tests, suggesting the two skills can develop together.' Which of the following best states the main idea?
    • Reading speed and comprehension can improve together rather than working against each other
    • Slow readers always understand more
    • Comprehension cannot be measured by tests
    • Only trained readers can comprehend text

    Correct answer: Reading speed and comprehension can improve together rather than working against each other

    The main idea is that reading speed and comprehension can improve together rather than working against each other. The passage counters the belief that the two are at odds by citing a study in which the fastest readers also comprehended best.

90. Passage: 'Conventional accounts credited the printing press alone with spreading literacy. Newer historical work, however, emphasizes that rising literacy also depended on cheaper paper, expanding schools, and growing demand for written records. Historians now view the rise of literacy as the product of several converging forces.' What is the primary purpose of this passage?
    • To explain how a printing press works
    • To broaden the explanation of rising literacy beyond the printing press alone
    • To argue that the printing press was unimportant
    • To list every type of book printed historically

    Correct answer: To broaden the explanation of rising literacy beyond the printing press alone

    The primary purpose is to broaden the explanation of rising literacy beyond the printing press alone. The passage replaces the single-cause account with one that adds cheaper paper, more schools, and greater demand as converging forces.

91. Passage: 'Although electric vehicles produce no tailpipe emissions, their overall environmental benefit depends heavily on how the electricity used to charge them is generated. In regions powered largely by coal, the advantage shrinks considerably.' Which of the following best expresses the main point?
    • Electric vehicles never benefit the environment
    • Coal is the cleanest source of electricity
    • The environmental benefit of electric vehicles depends on how the charging electricity is produced
    • Tailpipe emissions are the only source of pollution

    Correct answer: The environmental benefit of electric vehicles depends on how the charging electricity is produced

    The main point is that the environmental benefit of electric vehicles depends on how the charging electricity is produced. The passage notes that despite zero tailpipe emissions, the advantage shrinks where coal generates the power, making electricity source the key variable.

92. Brand manager: 'Customers who joined our loyalty program spent more per visit than non-members, so the loyalty program increased their spending.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this conclusion?
    • The loyalty program is free to join
    • The customers who chose to join were already the store's heaviest spenders before the program existed
    • The program offers points for each purchase
    • Many stores offer loyalty programs

    Correct answer: The customers who chose to join were already the store's heaviest spenders before the program existed

    The conclusion is most weakened by the fact that customers who joined were already the heaviest spenders before the program existed. Their higher spending may reflect pre-existing habits rather than any effect of the program, breaking the causal claim.

93. Manager: 'Holding our team meetings in the morning will boost attendance, so we should schedule them in the morning.' Which of the following is an assumption the argument depends on?
    • The meeting room is available in the morning
    • Fewer scheduling conflicts or obstacles keep team members away in the morning than at other times
    • Morning meetings are shorter
    • The team prefers coffee in the morning

    Correct answer: Fewer scheduling conflicts or obstacles keep team members away in the morning than at other times

    The argument depends on the assumption that fewer scheduling conflicts or obstacles keep team members away in the morning than at other times. Morning meetings boost attendance only if mornings genuinely have fewer barriers, making this the required link.

94. Passage: 'Every report flagged by the audit software contains at least one error. The quarterly summary was not flagged by the audit software.' Which of the following can be properly inferred?
    • The quarterly summary contains no errors
    • The quarterly summary was reviewed by a human
    • It cannot be determined from this alone whether the quarterly summary contains an error
    • The audit software is unreliable

    Correct answer: It cannot be determined from this alone whether the quarterly summary contains an error

    It can be inferred that it cannot be determined from this alone whether the quarterly summary contains an error. The software flags reports that contain errors, but not being flagged does not guarantee error-free status, since the rule does not say every error is caught.

95. Pundit: 'The senator voted for the popular new park, so the senator clearly cares about the environment.' Which of the following best describes a flaw in this reasoning?
    • It cites an unrepresentative poll
    • It defines environment too narrowly
    • It relies on outdated voting records
    • It assumes that one favorable vote, which could be politically motivated, reflects genuine environmental concern

    Correct answer: It assumes that one favorable vote, which could be politically motivated, reflects genuine environmental concern

    The flaw is assuming that one favorable vote, which could be politically motivated, reflects genuine environmental concern. A single popular vote may stem from a desire for popularity rather than conviction, so the conclusion does not follow from the premise.

96. A theater raised its membership fee but saw the number of members grow that year. Which of the following, if true, best resolves this apparent discrepancy?
    • The theater is located near a train station
    • Membership cards were redesigned that year
    • The fee increase was announced in advance
    • Along with the fee increase, the theater added popular new benefits that drew many people to join

    Correct answer: Along with the fee increase, the theater added popular new benefits that drew many people to join

    The discrepancy is best resolved by the popular new benefits added along with the fee increase. If the added value attracted enough new members, membership could grow even as the fee rose, reconciling the two facts.

97. Director: 'Offering free parking will increase attendance at our events, so we should offer free parking.' Answering which of the following would be most useful in evaluating this argument?
    • What surface the parking lot is paved with
    • Whether parking cost is currently a significant reason people choose not to attend
    • How many spaces the lot contains
    • Who manages the parking lot

    Correct answer: Whether parking cost is currently a significant reason people choose not to attend

    It would be most useful to learn whether parking cost is currently a significant reason people choose not to attend. Free parking raises attendance only if the parking fee is a real deterrent, making this the decisive evaluative question.

98. Passage: 'Tardigrades, microscopic animals, can survive extreme cold, intense radiation, and even the vacuum of space by entering a dormant state in which their metabolism nearly stops. When favorable conditions return, they revive and resume normal activity.' Which of the following can be most properly inferred from the passage?
    • Tardigrades are the largest animals on Earth
    • A dormant state can help an organism endure conditions that would otherwise be lethal
    • Tardigrades cannot survive in ordinary environments
    • Radiation has no effect on any living thing

    Correct answer: A dormant state can help an organism endure conditions that would otherwise be lethal

    It can be inferred that a dormant state can help an organism endure conditions that would otherwise be lethal. Since tardigrades survive extreme cold, radiation, and vacuum by nearly halting their metabolism and then revive, the dormant state enables survival under harsh conditions.

99. A Critical Reasoning argument predicts that a new training program will reduce workplace injuries. To weaken this argument, an answer choice would most effectively do which of the following?
    • Describe the schedule of the training sessions
    • Restate the program's injury-reduction goal
    • Show that most workplace injuries arise from causes the training does not address
    • Name the consultant who designed the program

    Correct answer: Show that most workplace injuries arise from causes the training does not address

    To weaken the argument, the answer choice should show that most workplace injuries arise from causes the training does not address. If the training targets behaviors unrelated to the actual sources of injury, it is unlikely to reduce injuries, undercutting the prediction.

100. Argument: 'Some say our city's recycling program is a failure. Yet since the program began, the share of household waste diverted from landfills has more than doubled. Therefore, the claim that the program has failed is unjustified.' What is the role of the statement that the diverted share has more than doubled?
     • It is the conclusion the argument seeks to establish
     • It is evidence offered against the claim that the recycling program has failed
     • It is a claim the author ultimately rejects
     • It is an unrelated statistic

     Correct answer: It is evidence offered against the claim that the recycling program has failed

     The statement that the diverted share has more than doubled is evidence offered against the claim that the recycling program has failed. It functions as the premise supporting the author's conclusion that the failure claim is unjustified, not as the conclusion itself.

101. Passage: 'When the assembly line is running, the warning light stays on. The warning light is currently off.' Which of the following can be properly inferred?
     • The line was recently repaired
     • The light bulb has burned out
     • The assembly line is not running
     • The factory is closed for the day

     Correct answer: The assembly line is not running

     It can be inferred that the assembly line is not running. Because the light stays on whenever the line is running, and the light is off, the line cannot be running; the other choices introduce details the passage does not support.

102. Passage: 'Long dismissed as simple background players, fungi are now recognized as essential partners to most land plants, exchanging soil nutrients for sugars and linking separate plants through underground networks. Researchers increasingly view forest ecosystems as depending on these fungal connections.' What is the primary purpose of this passage?
     • To explain how to cultivate edible mushrooms
     • To argue that plants do not need soil nutrients
     • To compare fungi with bacteria
     • To revise the view of fungi as minor players by presenting their essential role in plant ecosystems

     Correct answer: To revise the view of fungi as minor players by presenting their essential role in plant ecosystems

     The primary purpose is to revise the view of fungi as minor players by presenting their essential role in plant ecosystems. The passage replaces the old dismissal of fungi with their function as nutrient partners and network builders that forests depend on.

103. Which three GMAT sections are each scored and reported separately, with Data Insights standing alongside the other two as a full section rather than a sub-part?
     • Quantitative Reasoning, Verbal Reasoning, and Data Insights
     • Quantitative Reasoning, Sentence Correction, and Data Insights
     • Verbal Reasoning, Analytical Writing, and Data Insights
     • Data Insights, Geometry, and Reading Comprehension

     Correct answer: Quantitative Reasoning, Verbal Reasoning, and Data Insights

     The three sections are Quantitative Reasoning, Verbal Reasoning, and Data Insights. On the current GMAT, Data Insights is a standalone, equally weighted section reported with its own score alongside the quantitative and verbal sections.

104. A candidate describes Data Insights as the section that asks test takers to combine numbers, words, and visuals to reach a business-style conclusion. Which phrase best captures the underlying ability being measured?
     • Memorization of vocabulary lists
     • Reasoning across multiple data formats to inform decisions
     • Handwriting legibility under time pressure
     • Recall of geometric proofs

     Correct answer: Reasoning across multiple data formats to inform decisions

     The ability measured is reasoning across multiple data formats to inform decisions. Data Insights was built to assess how well a candidate interprets and integrates data from text, tables, and graphics, mirroring real managerial judgment.

105. Among the question formats in Data Insights, which one does NOT appear in that section of the current GMAT?
     • Two-Part Analysis
     • Graphics Interpretation
     • Sentence Correction
     • Multi-Source Reasoning

     Correct answer: Sentence Correction

     Sentence Correction does not appear in Data Insights. The section's formats are Data Sufficiency, Multi-Source Reasoning, Table Analysis, Graphics Interpretation, and Two-Part Analysis, while Sentence Correction is no longer part of the current exam at all.

106. A first-time test taker wants to know how the time available for Data Insights compares with the other sections. Which statement reflects the current exam's design?
     • Data Insights has no time limit
     • Data Insights is given twice the time of the other sections
     • Data Insights is given roughly the same amount of time as each of the other two sections
     • Data Insights shares its time with Quantitative Reasoning

     Correct answer: Data Insights is given roughly the same amount of time as each of the other two sections

     Data Insights is given roughly the same amount of time as each of the other two sections. The current GMAT allots comparable time across all three sections, consistent with treating Data Insights as a full, equally weighted section.

107. What is the central purpose of the Data Insights section as defined by the exam's design?
     • To test the ability to interpret and analyze data presented in varied formats and use it to make sound decisions
     • To test spelling and punctuation
     • To test memorized trigonometric identities
     • To test reading speed alone

     Correct answer: To test the ability to interpret and analyze data presented in varied formats and use it to make sound decisions

     The central purpose is to test the ability to interpret and analyze data presented in varied formats and use it to make sound decisions. Data Insights is explicitly designed around data literacy, requiring candidates to draw conclusions from mixed-format information.

108. In Data Sufficiency, the answer choice indicating that BOTH statements together are sufficient but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient should be selected when which situation holds?
     • Statement (1) alone already answers the question
     • Statement (2) alone already answers the question
     • Only by using both statements together can the question be answered definitively
     • The question cannot be answered even using both statements

     Correct answer: Only by using both statements together can the question be answered definitively

     It should be selected when only by using both statements together can the question be answered definitively. This choice applies when each statement is inadequate on its own yet their combination pins down a single answer.

109. Question: What is the value of the integer $m$? Statement (1): $m$ is the smallest two-digit prime number. Statement (2): $m$ is even. Which Data Sufficiency evaluation is correct?
     • Statement (1) alone is sufficient
     • Statement (2) alone is sufficient
     • Both statements together are insufficient
     • Each statement alone is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (1) alone is sufficient

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient. The smallest two-digit prime is 11, a single fixed value, so statement (1) determines $m$; statement (2) says $m$ is even, which allows countless values and is not enough by itself.

110. Question: Is the product of two integers $r$ and $s$ positive? Statement (1): $r$ is negative. Statement (2): $s$ is negative. Which Data Sufficiency evaluation is correct?
     • Statement (1) alone is sufficient
     • Statement (2) alone is sufficient
     • Both statements together are sufficient
     • Neither statement together is sufficient

     Correct answer: Both statements together are sufficient

     Both statements together are sufficient. A negative times a negative yields a positive product, so knowing both $r$ and $s$ are negative guarantees a positive product; each statement alone leaves the other factor's sign unknown.

111. A Data Sufficiency choice states that EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. Selecting this option means the test taker has concluded which of the following?
     • Only the combination of statements works
     • Statement (1) by itself and statement (2) by itself each independently answer the question
     • Neither statement is useful
     • The statements contradict one another

     Correct answer: Statement (1) by itself and statement (2) by itself each independently answer the question

     It means statement (1) by itself and statement (2) by itself each independently answer the question. This choice is correct when either statement, used alone, is enough to determine a definite answer.

112. Question: What is the perimeter of rectangle ABCD? Statement (1): The length of the rectangle is 8. Statement (2): The width of the rectangle is 5. Which Data Sufficiency evaluation is correct?
     • Statement (1) alone is sufficient
     • Statement (2) alone is sufficient
     • Both statements together are sufficient
     • Each statement alone is sufficient

     Correct answer: Both statements together are sufficient

     Both statements together are sufficient. Perimeter equals twice the sum of length and width, so knowing length 8 and width 5 gives a perimeter of 26; either dimension alone leaves the other unknown, so neither statement suffices by itself.

113. In a Data Sufficiency problem, a test taker simplifies statement (1) and finds it leads to two possible values, 4 and $-4$, for the unknown asked. For a question seeking a single numeric value, how should statement (1) be judged?
     • Sufficient, because it narrows to two values
     • Insufficient, because it does not pin down a single value
     • Sufficient, because both values are even
     • Identical to statement (2)

     Correct answer: Insufficient, because it does not pin down a single value

     It should be judged insufficient, because it does not pin down a single value. When a value question allows more than one possible answer, the statement fails to determine the unique value required and is therefore not sufficient.

114. Question: Is $x$ divisible by 12? Statement (1): $x$ is divisible by 4. Statement (2): $x$ is divisible by 3. Which Data Sufficiency evaluation is correct?
     • Statement (1) alone is sufficient
     • Statement (2) alone is sufficient
     • Each statement alone is sufficient
     • Both statements together are sufficient

     Correct answer: Both statements together are sufficient

     Both statements together are sufficient. Being divisible by both 4 and 3 means $x$ is divisible by their least common multiple, 12, so combining the statements answers yes; alone, divisibility by 4 or by 3 does not guarantee divisibility by 12.

115. Why does Data Sufficiency use the very same set of answer choices for every question regardless of the topic?
     • Because the choices describe which statements are sufficient, a structure that applies to any data-adequacy question
     • Because the topics are always identical
     • Because the choices give the numeric answer
     • Because grammar rules require it

     Correct answer: Because the choices describe which statements are sufficient, a structure that applies to any data-adequacy question

     It uses the same choices because the choices describe which statements are sufficient, a structure that applies to any data-adequacy question. Since every Data Sufficiency item asks about the adequacy of two statements, one fixed framework of options fits them all.

116. Question: How old is Maria now? Statement (1): In 5 years Maria will be 30. Statement (2): Maria is older than 20. Which Data Sufficiency evaluation is correct?
     • Statement (2) alone is sufficient
     • Both statements together are insufficient
     • Statement (1) alone is sufficient
     • Neither statement helps

     Correct answer: Statement (1) alone is sufficient

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient. If Maria will be 30 in five years, she is 25 now, a single value; statement (2) only says she is older than 20, which allows many ages and is not enough by itself.

117. A test taker realizes that confirming a statement is sufficient does not require finding the answer's exact number, only confirming a unique answer exists. This principle most helps the test taker do what?
     • Memorize the answer choices
     • Save time by stopping once uniqueness is established
     • Ignore both statements
     • Convert the question to an essay

     Correct answer: Save time by stopping once uniqueness is established

     This principle most helps the test taker save time by stopping once uniqueness is established. Because Data Sufficiency credits judging adequacy, recognizing that a single answer is guaranteed lets the candidate move on without completing unnecessary calculation.

118. In Multi-Source Reasoning, the information needed to answer a set of questions is organized into what kind of layout that the test taker navigates?
     • A single continuous paragraph
     • A single static image with no labels
     • A spoken audio recording
     • Two or three clickable tabs holding related materials

     Correct answer: Two or three clickable tabs holding related materials

     It is organized into two or three clickable tabs holding related materials. Multi-Source Reasoning spreads connected information across tabs that the test taker clicks through, then integrates to answer the accompanying questions.

119. A Multi-Source Reasoning set contains a tab of customer complaints, a tab of repair logs, and a tab of warranty terms. A question asks whether a particular complaint qualifies for free repair. What does answering correctly require?
     • Reading only the complaint tab
     • Counting the tabs
     • Assuming every complaint qualifies
     • Combining the complaint details with the repair log and the warranty terms to decide eligibility

     Correct answer: Combining the complaint details with the repair log and the warranty terms to decide eligibility

     It requires combining the complaint details with the repair log and the warranty terms to decide eligibility. Because eligibility depends on the complaint, the service history, and the warranty rules together, the test taker must integrate all three tabs.

120. What is the chief reason Multi-Source Reasoning is considered to mirror real-world business analysis?
     • Because it relies on a single perfect source
     • Because real decisions often require pulling together scattered, sometimes incomplete information
     • Because business never uses tables
     • Because it forbids the use of charts

     Correct answer: Because real decisions often require pulling together scattered, sometimes incomplete information

     It mirrors real-world analysis because real decisions often require pulling together scattered, sometimes incomplete information. Multi-Source Reasoning recreates that reality by distributing relevant data across tabs the candidate must locate and combine.

121. A Multi-Source Reasoning question lists several statements and, for each, asks the test taker to mark whether it can be inferred from the sources. A statement is partly supported by one tab but goes beyond what any tab states. How should it be marked?
     • Inferable, because part of it is supported
     • Not inferable, because the sources do not fully establish it
     • Inferable, because it sounds reasonable
     • Not relevant to the task

     Correct answer: Not inferable, because the sources do not fully establish it

     It should be marked not inferable, because the sources do not fully establish it. A claim that extends beyond what the tabs support cannot be inferred from the data, so even partial support is insufficient to justify it.

122. During a Multi-Source Reasoning set, a test taker who tries to memorize every figure on every tab before reading any question is likely to face which problem?
     • Spending excessive time on details that may never be needed
     • Running out of tabs to read
     • Finding the answers automatically filled in
     • Being unable to sort a table

     Correct answer: Spending excessive time on details that may never be needed

     The likely problem is spending excessive time on details that may never be needed. Multi-Source Reasoning rewards locating the specific information each question requires, so attempting to memorize everything upfront wastes scarce time.

123. A Multi-Source Reasoning set provides a sales tab and a costs tab. One question depends only on sales, while another depends only on costs. What is the efficient way to handle this?
     • Answer each question using just the tab that holds its relevant data
     • Always read both tabs fully for every question
     • Guess without reading either tab
     • Sort both tabs alphabetically first

     Correct answer: Answer each question using just the tab that holds its relevant data

     The efficient way is to answer each question using just the tab that holds its relevant data. Because the two questions draw on different tabs, the test taker saves time by going straight to the source each one actually needs.

124. In a Multi-Source Reasoning set, which skill matters most when a question's wording does not name which tab to consult?
     • Typing quickly
     • Choosing the shortest tab
     • Memorizing the tab order
     • Identifying which source contains the data the question requires

     Correct answer: Identifying which source contains the data the question requires

     The skill that matters most is identifying which source contains the data the question requires. When the prompt does not specify a tab, the test taker must judge which material is relevant and navigate to it to answer correctly.

125. A Table Analysis item displays a spreadsheet-style table and a drop-down letting the test taker pick a column to sort by. Sorting is provided primarily to help the test taker do what?
     • Change the underlying values
     • Translate the headers
     • Add new rows to the table
     • Organize the data to evaluate statements such as rankings, thresholds, and order

     Correct answer: Organize the data to evaluate statements such as rankings, thresholds, and order

     Sorting is provided primarily to help the test taker organize the data to evaluate statements such as rankings, thresholds, and order. Reordering rows by a chosen column makes it far easier to verify claims about the data without altering any values.

126. A Table Analysis table of 40 students lists test scores and study hours. A statement claims the top three scorers each studied more than 10 hours. What sequence of actions verifies this most directly?
     • Sort by score to find the top three, then read each of their study-hours entries
     • Sort by study hours, then ignore scores
     • Add scores and hours together
     • Delete students who scored low

     Correct answer: Sort by score to find the top three, then read each of their study-hours entries

     The most direct sequence is to sort by score to find the top three, then read each of their study-hours entries. Sorting by score isolates the three highest scorers, and inspecting their study hours confirms whether all exceed 10.

127. A Table Analysis statement asks whether more than half of the listed products fall below a certain price. Which feature of the table is most useful here?
     • The ability to rename columns
     • The ability to add a chart
     • The ability to change cell colors
     • The sort feature, which groups prices so the count below the threshold can be tallied

     Correct answer: The sort feature, which groups prices so the count below the threshold can be tallied

     The most useful feature is the sort feature, which groups prices so the count below the threshold can be tallied. Ordering the price column clusters the values around the cutoff, letting the test taker count how many fall below it.

128. A Table Analysis table reports each salesperson's total revenue and number of deals closed. A statement concerns average revenue per deal. Why can the test taker not answer simply by sorting one existing column?
     • Because sorting is disabled in this table
     • Because average revenue per deal must be computed by dividing revenue by deals, a value not shown directly
     • Because revenue is always equal to deals
     • Because the table has only one column

     Correct answer: Because average revenue per deal must be computed by dividing revenue by deals, a value not shown directly

     The test taker cannot answer by sorting one column because average revenue per deal must be computed by dividing revenue by deals, a value not shown directly. The statement targets a derived ratio, so a single sort of an existing column is not enough.

129. After sorting a Table Analysis column from highest to lowest, what stays true about the relationship between each value and the other entries in its row?
     • The row's other values are erased
     • The values switch to a different row
     • Each value remains paired with the rest of its original row
     • The headers disappear

     Correct answer: Each value remains paired with the rest of its original row

     After sorting, each value remains paired with the rest of its original row. Sorting reorders entire rows so that every record's data stays together; only the order of records changes, not their internal pairings.

130. A Table Analysis table lists 60 housing units with columns for square footage and monthly rent. A statement claims the largest unit by square footage also has the highest rent. How should the test taker check this?
     • Sort by square footage to find the largest unit, then confirm whether that unit also has the highest rent
     • Assume larger always means more expensive
     • Sort only by rent and stop
     • Add square footage and rent

     Correct answer: Sort by square footage to find the largest unit, then confirm whether that unit also has the highest rent

     The test taker should sort by square footage to find the largest unit, then confirm whether that unit also has the highest rent. This verifies whether the size leader is truly the rent leader rather than assuming the two rankings match.

131. A Table Analysis statement asserts that a particular numeric column has a mode, meaning a value that repeats more than any other. How can sorting that column help confirm the mode?
     • By changing the values until they repeat
     • By converting the column to text
     • By removing all duplicates
     • By grouping identical values next to each other so repeated entries are easy to count

     Correct answer: By grouping identical values next to each other so repeated entries are easy to count

     Sorting helps by grouping identical values next to each other so repeated entries are easy to count. When the column is ordered, equal values cluster together, letting the test taker spot which value appears most often.

132. A Graphics Interpretation question pairs a chart with statements that contain drop-down blanks. Correctly answering depends most on which action?
     • Selecting the option that sounds most sophisticated
     • Choosing the option that uses the largest number
     • Always selecting the first option listed
     • Choosing the drop-down option that makes each statement an accurate description of the chart

     Correct answer: Choosing the drop-down option that makes each statement an accurate description of the chart

     It depends most on choosing the drop-down option that makes each statement an accurate description of the chart. The blanks must be filled so every completed sentence truthfully reflects what the graphic shows.

133. A Graphics Interpretation scatterplot shows points scattered with no discernible upward or downward pattern. To complete 'The two variables appear to have ____ correlation,' which choice fits?
     • Strong positive
     • Strong negative
     • Little or no
     • Perfect

     Correct answer: Little or no

     The choice that fits is little or no. When points are scattered without any consistent direction, neither variable reliably rises or falls with the other, indicating little or no correlation between them.

134. A Graphics Interpretation bar chart shows four divisions' expenses, and Division B's bar is exactly half the height of Division D's bar. To complete 'Division B's expenses were ____ those of Division D,' which phrase is correct?
     • Half
     • Double
     • Equal to
     • Triple

     Correct answer: Half

     The correct phrase is half. Because bar height is proportional to the quantity shown, a bar half as tall represents half the value, so Division B's expenses were half those of Division D.

135. A Graphics Interpretation chart presents two y-axes with different scales, one on the left and one on the right. Why must the test taker note which axis each plotted series uses?
     • Because both axes are always identical
     • Because only the left axis has numbers
     • Because the axes change the chart title
     • Because reading a series against the wrong axis produces a wrong value

     Correct answer: Because reading a series against the wrong axis produces a wrong value

     The test taker must note which axis each series uses because reading a series against the wrong axis produces a wrong value. With two differently scaled axes, matching each line or bar to its proper axis is essential for accurate interpretation.

136. A Graphics Interpretation pie chart shows four market-share slices: 40 percent, 30 percent, 20 percent, and 10 percent. To complete 'The two largest competitors together hold ____ of the market,' which value is correct?
     • 50 percent
     • 60 percent
     • 70 percent
     • 90 percent

     Correct answer: 70 percent

     The correct value is 70 percent. The two largest slices are 40 percent and 30 percent, and their sum is 70 percent, so together those two competitors hold 70 percent of the market.

137. A Graphics Interpretation chart plots cumulative sales that only rise or stay flat over time, never falling. What does the never-falling shape of a cumulative chart indicate?
     • That sales were sometimes negative
     • That sales doubled each period
     • That the data is incorrect
     • That each period adds a non-negative amount to a running total

     Correct answer: That each period adds a non-negative amount to a running total

     It indicates that each period adds a non-negative amount to a running total. A cumulative chart sums values over time, so as long as each period's contribution is zero or positive, the running total can only rise or stay level, never decline.

138. A Graphics Interpretation bubble chart uses the size of each bubble to encode a third variable beyond the x and y positions. What does a larger bubble represent?
     • A position further left
     • A larger value of the third variable being encoded by size
     • A negative x-value
     • A missing data point

     Correct answer: A larger value of the third variable being encoded by size

     A larger bubble represents a larger value of the third variable being encoded by size. In a bubble chart, area carries a third dimension of data, so a bigger bubble signals a greater amount of whatever quantity size is mapped to.

139. A Two-Part Analysis question presents a table with two answer columns and one shared list of options. Completing it correctly requires the test taker to do what?
     • Mark exactly one option in each of the two columns from the shared list
     • Mark every option in both columns
     • Mark one option total across both columns
     • Leave one column unmarked

     Correct answer: Mark exactly one option in each of the two columns from the shared list

     It requires the test taker to mark exactly one option in each of the two columns from the shared list. Two-Part Analysis always asks for one selection per column, both drawn from the same set of options.

140. A Two-Part Analysis scenario states that a budget is split between research and marketing, with research receiving twice marketing, and the two totaling 90,000 dollars. Selecting one value for research and one for marketing, which pair is correct?
     • Research 30,000 and marketing 60,000
     • Research 45,000 and marketing 45,000
     • Research 60,000 and marketing 30,000
     • Research 70,000 and marketing 20,000

     Correct answer: Research 60,000 and marketing 30,000

     The correct pair is research 60,000 and marketing 30,000. Research must be twice marketing and the two must total 90,000, so marketing is 30,000 and research is twice that, 60,000, summing to 90,000.

141. In a Two-Part Analysis question, why does the shared single list of options distinguish the format from ordinary multiple choice?
     • Because both selections are drawn from the same set, requiring two interrelated choices rather than one
     • Because the list is always numeric
     • Because no answer is ever correct
     • Because the list changes after each click

     Correct answer: Because both selections are drawn from the same set, requiring two interrelated choices rather than one

     It is distinguished because both selections are drawn from the same set, requiring two interrelated choices rather than one. Unlike standard multiple choice with a single answer, Two-Part Analysis asks for two responses from one shared list.

142. A Two-Part Analysis question gives the relationship that a number $x$ satisfies $3x + 6 = 24$, and asks the test taker to select $x$ in one column and $2x$ in the other from a shared list. Which pair is correct?
     • $x$ equals 6 and $2x$ equals 12
     • $x$ equals 4 and $2x$ equals 8
     • $x$ equals 9 and $2x$ equals 18
     • $x$ equals 12 and $2x$ equals 24

     Correct answer: $x$ equals 6 and $2x$ equals 12

     The correct pair is $x$ equals 6 and $2x$ equals 12. Solving $3x + 6 = 24$ gives $x$ equal to 6, so $2x$ is 12; the two selections must reflect this single consistent solution.

143. A Two-Part Analysis case asks the test taker to choose, from one list, an action most likely to increase revenue and an action most likely to decrease cost. What does this design require the test taker to do?
     • Pick the same action for both goals always
     • Evaluate each candidate action against its own goal while drawing from the shared list
     • Choose only the revenue action
     • Pick two actions at random

     Correct answer: Evaluate each candidate action against its own goal while drawing from the shared list

     It requires the test taker to evaluate each candidate action against its own goal while drawing from the shared list. One column targets raising revenue and the other lowering cost, so each selection is judged against its respective objective.

144. A Two-Part Analysis question provides a list of weights and asks the test taker to choose one item for a box that must weigh under 10 pounds and one for a box that must weigh over 20 pounds, from the shared list. What must hold for the answer to be correct?
     • Both items must be the same weight
     • The first selection must be under 10 pounds and the second over 20 pounds
     • Only the heavier item matters
     • Both selections must exceed 20 pounds

     Correct answer: The first selection must be under 10 pounds and the second over 20 pounds

     For the answer to be correct, the first selection must be under 10 pounds and the second over 20 pounds. Each column carries its own constraint, so the two items chosen must individually satisfy the under-10 and over-20 conditions.

145. A Two-Part Analysis question states that two products' combined production must equal 100 units, with product X at least double product Y, and asks for one value for X and one for Y from a shared list. Which pair satisfies both conditions?
     • X equals 40 and Y equals 60
     • X equals 50 and Y equals 50
     • X equals 80 and Y equals 20
     • X equals 90 and Y equals 30

     Correct answer: X equals 80 and Y equals 20

     The pair that satisfies both is X equals 80 and Y equals 20. They sum to 100, and X at 80 is exactly four times Y at 20, meeting the at-least-double requirement; the other pairs either fail to total 100 or violate the doubling condition.

146. A Two-Part Analysis prompt asks the test taker to identify, from one shared list, a statement that, if true, would best support a manager's plan and one that, if true, would most undermine it. What is essential about these two selections?
     • They must be identical statements
     • Each plays a distinct role, support or undermine, and must be judged against the plan's logic
     • Only the supporting statement is scored
     • They are unrelated to the plan

     Correct answer: Each plays a distinct role, support or undermine, and must be judged against the plan's logic

     It is essential that each plays a distinct role, support or undermine, and must be judged against the plan's logic. The two columns capture opposite effects on the plan, so the test taker weighs each candidate against how it would influence the plan.

147. Question: Is the integer $n$ greater than 0? Statement (1): $n^3$ is greater than 0. Statement (2): $n + 4$ is greater than 4. Which Data Sufficiency evaluation is correct?
     • Statement (1) alone is sufficient
     • Statement (2) alone is sufficient
     • Both statements together are insufficient
     • Each statement alone is sufficient

     Correct answer: Each statement alone is sufficient

     Each statement alone is sufficient. A positive cube means $n$ itself is positive, so statement (1) alone answers yes; and $n + 4$ greater than 4 means $n$ is greater than 0, so statement (2) alone also answers yes, making either statement enough on its own.

148. If $k$ is a positive integer, which of the following expressions is always odd?
     • $k^2 + k$
     • $2k + 1$
     • $4k - 2$
     • $k \cdot (k + 1)$

     Correct answer: $2k + 1$

     The expression $2k + 1$ is always odd. The term $2k$ is even for any integer $k$, and adding 1 makes it odd; the other expressions are even because each contains a guaranteed even factor or sum.

149. How many prime numbers are there between 20 and 30, inclusive?
     • 2
     • 1
     • 3
     • 4

     Correct answer: 2

     There are 2 primes in that range, namely 23 and 29. The remaining values from 20 to 30 are all composite, so exactly two qualify.

150. What is the units digit of $7^4$?
     • 3
     • 7
     • 9
     • 1

     Correct answer: 1

     The units digit is 1. Powers of 7 cycle through units digits 7, 9, 3, 1, and the 4th power lands on 1.

151. If the product of two positive integers is odd, what must be true of the two integers?
     • Both are even
     • Both are odd
     • One is even and one is odd
     • Both are prime

     Correct answer: Both are odd

     Both integers must be odd. A product is odd only when no factor is even, so each of the two integers has to be odd.

152. When a positive integer is divided by 5, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder when 7 is added to that integer and the result is divided by 5?
     • 0
     • 1
     • 2
     • 3

     Correct answer: 0

     The remainder is 0. The integer equals $5q + 3$, so adding 7 gives $5q + 10$, which is $5 \cdot (q + 2)$ and leaves no remainder.

153. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 12?
     • 66
     • 90
     • 108
     • 138

     Correct answer: 108

     The number 108 is divisible by 12, since 108 equals $12 \cdot 9$. The others are not multiples of 12 because they fail the test for divisibility by 4 or by 3.

154. How many positive divisors does 48 have?
     • 8
     • 9
     • 12
     • 10

     Correct answer: 10

     The number 48 has 10 positive divisors. Since 48 equals $2^4 \cdot 3$, the count is $(4 + 1) \cdot (1 + 1)$, which is 10.

155. What is the greatest common divisor of 54 and 72?
     • 6
     • 9
     • 12
     • 18

     Correct answer: 18

     The greatest common divisor is 18. Both numbers share the factors 2 and $3^2$, whose product 18 is the largest integer dividing both.

156. Expressed as a product of primes, what is 126?
     • $2 \cdot 63$
     • $2 \cdot 3^2 \cdot 7$
     • $2 \cdot 3 \cdot 21$
     • $6 \cdot 21$

     Correct answer: $2 \cdot 3^2 \cdot 7$

     The prime factorization is $2 \cdot 3^2 \cdot 7$. Only this option lists primes exclusively, and their product equals 126.

157. How many distinct prime factors does 210 have?
     • 2
     • 3
     • 4
     • 5

     Correct answer: 4

     The number 210 has 4 distinct prime factors. Since 210 equals $2 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdot 7$, the distinct primes are 2, 3, 5, and 7.

158. Using prime factorization, what is the least common multiple of 12 and 18?
     • 6
     • 24
     • 36
     • 72

     Correct answer: 36

     The least common multiple is 36. Factoring gives 12 equal to $2^2 \cdot 3$ and 18 equal to $2 \cdot 3^2$, so the highest powers give $2^2 \cdot 3^2$, which is 36.

159. What is $\frac{2}{3} + \frac{1}{5}$ written as a single fraction in lowest terms?
     • $\frac{3}{8}$
     • $\frac{11}{15}$
     • $\frac{13}{15}$
     • $\frac{2}{8}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{13}{15}$

     The sum is $\frac{13}{15}$. Using a common denominator of 15, $\frac{2}{3}$ is $\frac{10}{15}$ and $\frac{1}{5}$ is $\frac{3}{15}$, which add to $\frac{13}{15}$ and cannot be reduced.

160. What is 0.45 expressed as a fraction in lowest terms?
     • $\frac{9}{20}$
     • $\frac{45}{10}$
     • $\frac{4}{9}$
     • $\frac{9}{25}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{9}{20}$

     The value equals $\frac{9}{20}$. Writing 0.45 as $\frac{45}{100}$ and dividing numerator and denominator by 5 gives $\frac{9}{20}$.

161. What percent of 60 is 27?
     • 35 percent
     • 40 percent
     • 50 percent
     • 45 percent

     Correct answer: 45 percent

     The answer is 45 percent. Dividing 27 by 60 gives 0.45, which converts to 45 percent.

162. A shirt regularly priced at 45 dollars is marked down by 40 percent. What is the sale price?
     • 18 dollars
     • 25 dollars
     • 27 dollars
     • 30 dollars

     Correct answer: 27 dollars

     The sale price is 27 dollars. A 40 percent markdown removes $0.40 \cdot 45$, which is 18 dollars, leaving $45 - 18 = 27$ dollars.

163. A dealer sells a bicycle for 270 dollars at a 35 percent loss on cost. What was the cost?
     • 365 dollars
     • 400 dollars
     • 420 dollars
     • 415 dollars

     Correct answer: 415 dollars

     The cost was about 415 dollars. A 35 percent loss means the selling price is 65 percent of cost, so $270 \div 0.65$ is approximately 415 dollars.

164. A deposit of 6,000 dollars earns simple interest at 4 percent per year. How much interest accrues in 5 years?
     • 900 dollars
     • 1,000 dollars
     • 1,200 dollars
     • 1,500 dollars

     Correct answer: 1,200 dollars

     The interest is 1,200 dollars. Simple interest equals principal times rate times time, so $6000 \cdot 0.04 \cdot 5 = 1200$ dollars.

165. The ratio of pencils to erasers in a box is 7 to 4. If there are 28 pencils, how many erasers are there?
     • 16
     • 12
     • 18
     • 20

     Correct answer: 16

     There are 16 erasers. Each ratio unit equals $28 \div 7$, which is 4, so the 4 units of erasers equal $4 \cdot 4$, or 16.

166. If 5 notebooks cost 12 dollars, how much do 15 notebooks cost at the same rate?
     • 30 dollars
     • 32 dollars
     • 36 dollars
     • 40 dollars

     Correct answer: 36 dollars

     Fifteen notebooks cost 36 dollars. Fifteen is three times five, so the cost scales to $3 \cdot 12$, which is 36 dollars.

167. A sum of 120 dollars is split in the ratio 3 to 5 to 4. What is the smallest share?
     • 24 dollars
     • 30 dollars
     • 36 dollars
     • 40 dollars

     Correct answer: 30 dollars

     The smallest share is 30 dollars. The ratio has $3 + 5 + 4$ equal to 12 units, each worth 10 dollars, so the smallest share of 3 units equals 30 dollars.

168. What is the value of 2 to the fourth power times 2 cubed?
     • 2 to the seventh
     • 2 to the twelfth
     • 4 to the seventh
     • 2 to the first

     Correct answer: 2 to the seventh

     The value is $2^7$. Multiplying powers with the same base adds the exponents, giving $2^{4 + 3}$.

169. What is the value of $\sqrt{196}$?
     • 12
     • 13
     • 14
     • 16

     Correct answer: 14

     The value is 14, because $14 \cdot 14 = 196$.

170. What is the value of 3 to the negative second power?
     • $\frac{1}{9}$
     • $\frac{1}{6}$
     • Minus 9
     • 9

     Correct answer: $\frac{1}{9}$

     The value is $\frac{1}{9}$. A negative exponent means the reciprocal, so $3^{-2}$ equals 1 over $3^2$, which is $\frac{1}{9}$.

171. If 7x plus 5 equals 47, what is the value of x?
     • 5
     • 6
     • 7
     • 8

     Correct answer: 6

     The value of $x$ is 6. Subtracting 5 from both sides gives $7x = 42$, and dividing by 7 yields $x = 6$.

172. A streaming service charges a 12 dollar setup fee plus 8 dollars per month. After how many months does the total cost reach 84 dollars?
     • 7 months
     • 8 months
     • 9 months
     • 10 months

     Correct answer: 9 months

     The total reaches 84 dollars after 9 months. Setting up $12 + 8m = 84$ and subtracting 12 gives $8m = 72$, so $m = 9$.

173. If 3x plus 7 equals 2x plus 15, what is the value of x?
     • 6
     • 7
     • 9
     • 8

     Correct answer: 8

     The value of $x$ is 8. Subtracting $2x$ from both sides gives $x + 7 = 15$, so $x = 8$.

174. What are the solutions to x squared plus x minus 20 equals 0?
     • X equals 4 or minus 5
     • X equals minus 4 or 5
     • X equals 2 or minus 10
     • X equals minus 2 or 10

     Correct answer: X equals 4 or minus 5

     The solutions are $x = 4$ or $x = -5$. The expression factors as $(x - 4)(x + 5) = 0$, whose roots multiply to $-20$ and add to 1, giving $x = 4$ or $x = -5$.

175. If x squared minus 6x equals 0, what are the solutions for x?
     • X equals 0 or 6
     • X equals 6 only
     • X equals minus 6 or 6
     • X equals 0 or minus 6

     Correct answer: X equals 0 or 6

     The solutions are $x = 0$ or $x = 6$. Factoring gives $x(x - 6) = 0$, so $x$ is 0 or 6.

176. The sum of two numbers is 13 and their product is 40. What are the two numbers?
     • 4 and 9
     • 5 and 8
     • 6 and 7
     • 3 and 10

     Correct answer: 5 and 8

     The two numbers are 5 and 8. They are roots of $x^2 - 13x + 40 = 0$, which factors as $(x - 5)(x - 8)$, and only 5 and 8 sum to 13 and multiply to 40.

177. Which of the following describes the solution to 4x plus 3 is less than 19?
     • X is less than 4
     • X is greater than 4
     • X is less than 16
     • X is greater than 16

     Correct answer: X is less than 4

     The solution is $x < 4$. Subtracting 3 gives $4x < 16$, and dividing by the positive 4 gives $x < 4$.

178. If 9 minus 3x is greater than or equal to 0, which of the following describes x?
     • X is greater than or equal to 3
     • X is less than or equal to 3
     • X is greater than or equal to minus 3
     • X is less than or equal to minus 3

     Correct answer: X is less than or equal to 3

     The solution is $x \le 3$. Subtracting 9 gives $-3x \ge -9$, and dividing by $-3$ reverses the inequality to $x \le 3$.

179. If x is an integer and minus 1 is less than x and x is less than 4, what is the sum of all possible values of x?
     • 3
     • 4
     • 6
     • 10

     Correct answer: 6

     The sum is 6. The integers strictly between $-1$ and 4 are 0, 1, 2, and 3, which add to 6.

180. What is the value of the absolute value of (minus 12) plus the absolute value of (minus 5)?
     • 7
     • 17
     • Minus 7
     • Minus 17

     Correct answer: 17

     The value is 17. The absolute value of $-12$ is 12 and of $-5$ is 5, and adding these nonnegative distances gives 17.

181. Which values of x satisfy the equation absolute value of (x minus 4) equals 6?
     • X equals 10 or minus 2
     • X equals 2 or minus 10
     • X equals 10 only
     • X equals minus 2 only

     Correct answer: X equals 10 or minus 2

     The solutions are $x = 10$ or $x = -2$. The expression inside can equal 6 or $-6$, so $x - 4 = 6$ gives 10 and $x - 4 = -6$ gives $-2$.

182. Simplify the expression 4(x plus 3) minus 2(x minus 1).
     • 2x plus 10
     • 2x plus 14
     • 6x plus 10
     • 2x plus 11

     Correct answer: 2x plus 14

     The simplified form is $2x + 14$. Distributing gives $4x + 12 - 2x + 2$, and combining like terms produces $2x + 14$.

183. Factor the expression x squared minus 5x minus 14.
     • (x minus 2)(x plus 7)
     • (x plus 2)(x minus 7)
     • (x minus 1)(x plus 14)
     • (x plus 1)(x minus 14)

     Correct answer: (x plus 2)(x minus 7)

     The factorization is $(x + 2)(x - 7)$. These binomials multiply to give a constant of $-14$ and a middle term of $-5x$.

184. If p(x) equals x squared plus 3x minus 2, what is the value of p(4)?
     • 22
     • 24
     • 28
     • 26

     Correct answer: 26

     The value is 26. Substituting 4 for $x$ gives $16 + 12 - 2$, which equals 26.

185. If f(x) equals 2x minus 3 and g(x) equals x plus 5, what is the value of g(f(4))?
     • 8
     • 10
     • 12
     • 14

     Correct answer: 10

     The value is 10. First $f(4) = 2 \cdot 4 - 3$, which is 5, then $g(5) = 5 + 5$, which is 10.

186. A copier prints 80 pages in 5 minutes. How many minutes does it take to print 400 pages at the same rate?
     • 20 minutes
     • 25 minutes
     • 30 minutes
     • 35 minutes

     Correct answer: 25 minutes

     It takes 25 minutes. The rate is $80 \div 5$, which is 16 pages per minute, and $400 \div 16 = 25$ minutes.

187. A car travels at 60 miles per hour for 2 hours and 30 minutes. How far does it travel?
     • 120 miles
     • 135 miles
     • 150 miles
     • 165 miles

     Correct answer: 150 miles

     The distance is 150 miles. Two hours and 30 minutes is 2.5 hours, and $60 \cdot 2.5 = 150$ miles.

188. If k is an odd integer, which of the following must be even?
     • K + 2
     • K squared
     • K + k
     • 5k

     Correct answer: K + k

     The expression $k + k$ must be even. Adding any integer to itself doubles it, producing an even result, while $k + 2$, $k^2$, and $5k$ all stay odd when $k$ is odd.

189. What is the units digit of 7 raised to the fourth power?
     • 1
     • 3
     • 7
     • 9

     Correct answer: 1

     The units digit is 1. Powers of 7 cycle through units digits 7, 9, 3, 1, and the fourth power lands on 1.

190. If the product of two integers is odd, which of the following must be true?
     • One integer is zero
     • Both integers are even
     • Their sum is odd
     • Both integers are odd

     Correct answer: Both integers are odd

     Both integers must be odd. A product is odd only when every factor is odd; if either factor were even the product would be even.

191. When a positive integer is divided by 5, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder when that integer is multiplied by 3 and divided by 5?
     • 1
     • 2
     • 4
     • 3

     Correct answer: 4

     The remainder is 4. The integer equals $5q + 3$, so tripling gives $15q + 9$, and $9 \div 5$ leaves a remainder of 4.

192. What is $\frac{2}{3}$ plus $\frac{3}{4}$ written as a single fraction in lowest terms?
     • $\frac{5}{7}$
     • $\frac{5}{12}$
     • $\frac{11}{12}$
     • $\frac{17}{12}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{17}{12}$

     The sum is $\frac{17}{12}$. Using a common denominator of 12, $\frac{2}{3}$ is $\frac{8}{12}$ and $\frac{3}{4}$ is $\frac{9}{12}$; adding gives $\frac{17}{12}$, which is already in lowest terms.

193. What is 0.125 expressed as a fraction in lowest terms?
     • $\frac{1}{8}$
     • $\frac{1}{4}$
     • $\frac{1}{16}$
     • $\frac{125}{100}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{1}{8}$

     The fraction is $\frac{1}{8}$. Writing 0.125 as $\frac{125}{1000}$ and dividing numerator and denominator by 125 gives $\frac{1}{8}$.

194. What percent of 80 is 28?
     • 28 percent
     • 35 percent
     • 30 percent
     • 40 percent

     Correct answer: 35 percent

     The answer is 35 percent. Dividing 28 by 80 gives 0.35, which converts to 35 percent.

195. A shirt originally priced at 50 dollars is marked up by 20 percent. What is the new price?
     • 60 dollars
     • 55 dollars
     • 62 dollars
     • 70 dollars

     Correct answer: 60 dollars

     The new price is 60 dollars. A 20 percent markup adds $0.20 \cdot 50$, which is 10 dollars, giving $50 + 10 = 60$ dollars.

196. A store buys a lamp for 40 dollars and sells it at a 35 percent profit. What is the selling price?
     • 52 dollars
     • 56 dollars
     • 58 dollars
     • 54 dollars

     Correct answer: 54 dollars

     The selling price is 54 dollars. A 35 percent profit adds $0.35 \cdot 40$, which is 14 dollars, to the 40 dollar cost.

197. A sum of 1,500 dollars earns simple interest at 6 percent per year. How much interest accrues in 4 years?
     • 240 dollars
     • 300 dollars
     • 360 dollars
     • 420 dollars

     Correct answer: 360 dollars

     The interest is 360 dollars. Simple interest equals principal times rate times time: $1500 \cdot 0.06 \cdot 4 = 360$.

198. The ratio of pens to pencils in a drawer is 5 to 3. If there are 15 pens, how many pencils are there?
     • 6
     • 9
     • 12
     • 25

     Correct answer: 9

     There are 9 pencils. Each ratio unit equals $15 \div 5$, or 3 items, so the 3 units of pencils equal $3 \cdot 3 = 9$.

199. If 5 identical chairs cost 200 dollars, how much do 8 such chairs cost at the same rate?
     • 280 dollars
     • 320 dollars
     • 300 dollars
     • 360 dollars

     Correct answer: 320 dollars

     Eight chairs cost 320 dollars. The unit price is $200 \div 5$, which is 40 dollars per chair, and $8 \cdot 40 = 320$.

200. A prize of 120 dollars is split among three people in the ratio 3 to 4 to 5. How much does the person with the smallest share receive?
     • 30 dollars
     • 20 dollars
     • 40 dollars
     • 50 dollars

     Correct answer: 30 dollars

     The smallest share is 30 dollars. The ratio has $3 + 4 + 5 = 12$ units, so each unit equals $120 \div 12 = 10$ dollars, and the smallest share of 3 units is 30 dollars.

201. What is the value of 6 squared times 6?
     • 6 to the second power
     • 36
     • 42
     • 6 to the third power

     Correct answer: 6 to the third power

     The value is $6^3$. When multiplying powers of the same base, add the exponents, so $6^2 \cdot 6^1 = 6^3$.

202. What is the value of $\sqrt{169}$?
     • 11
     • 13
     • 12
     • 14

     Correct answer: 13

     The value is 13, because $13 \cdot 13 = 169$.

203. If 7x minus 4 equals 31, what is the value of x?
     • 4
     • 6
     • 7
     • 5

     Correct answer: 5

     The value of $x$ is 5. Adding 4 to both sides gives $7x = 35$, and dividing by 7 yields $x = 5$.

204. A subscription costs a 12 dollar setup fee plus 8 dollars per month. After how many months does the total reach 76 dollars?
     • 6 months
     • 7 months
     • 8 months
     • 9 months

     Correct answer: 8 months

     The total reaches 76 dollars after 8 months. Setting up $12 + 8m = 76$ and subtracting 12 gives $8m = 64$, so $m = 8$.

205. If 3x + 7 equals 5x minus 3, what is the value of x?
     • 3
     • 4
     • 5
     • 6

     Correct answer: 5

     The value of $x$ is 5. Subtracting $3x$ and adding 3 to both sides gives $10 = 2x$, so $x = 5$.

206. What are the solutions to x squared minus 7x + 10 equals 0?
     • X equals 2 or x equals 5
     • X equals 1 or x equals 10
     • X equals minus 2 or minus 5
     • X equals 5 or x equals 10

     Correct answer: X equals 2 or x equals 5

     The solutions are $x = 2$ or $x = 5$. The expression factors as $(x - 2)(x - 5)$, whose roots add to 7 and multiply to 10.

207. If x squared equals 64, what are the possible values of x?
     • 8 only
     • Minus 8 only
     • 8 or minus 8
     • 0 or 8

     Correct answer: 8 or minus 8

     The values are 8 or $-8$. Both $8^2$ and $(-8)^2$ equal 64.

208. Which of the following describes the solution to 4x + 5 is greater than or equal to 17?
     • X is greater than or equal to 3
     • X is less than or equal to 3
     • X is less than or equal to 12
     • X is greater than or equal to 12

     Correct answer: X is greater than or equal to 3

     The solution is $x \ge 3$. Subtracting 5 gives $4x \ge 12$, and dividing by the positive 4 keeps the direction, yielding $x \ge 3$.

209. What is the value of the absolute value of (negative 12) plus the absolute value of (negative 5)?
     • 7
     • Minus 7
     • Minus 17
     • 17

     Correct answer: 17

     The value is 17. The absolute value of $-12$ is 12 and of $-5$ is 5, and adding these nonnegative distances gives 17.

210. Simplify the expression 5(x + 1) minus 2(x minus 3).
     • 3x + 11
     • 3x minus 1
     • 7x + 11
     • 3x + 1

     Correct answer: 3x + 11

     The simplified form is $3x + 11$. Distributing gives $5x + 5 - 2x + 6$, and combining like terms produces $3x + 11$.

211. Which of the following is the expanded form of (x + 6) squared?
     • X squared plus 36
     • X squared plus 6x plus 36
     • X squared plus 12x plus 36
     • X squared plus 12x plus 12

     Correct answer: X squared plus 12x plus 36

     The expansion is $x^2 + 12x + 36$. Squaring a binomial gives the first term squared, twice the product of the terms, and the last term squared, so the middle term is $2 \cdot 6 \cdot x = 12x$.

212. Which expression is equivalent to (8x squared minus 12x) divided by 4x, for x not equal to 0?
     • 2x minus 3
     • 2x squared minus 3
     • 2x minus 12
     • 4x minus 3

     Correct answer: 2x minus 3

     The simplified expression is $2x - 3$. Dividing each term by $4x$ gives $8x^2 \div 4x = 2x$ and $12x \div 4x = 3$, so the result is $2x - 3$.

213. If f(x) equals x squared minus 2x + 1, what is the value of f(4)?
     • 7
     • 11
     • 13
     • 9

     Correct answer: 9

     The value is 9. Substituting 4 for $x$ gives $16 - 8 + 1$, which equals 9.

214. If f(x) equals 2x minus 3 and g(x) equals x + 5, what is the value of g(f(4))?
     • 8
     • 10
     • 14
     • 12

     Correct answer: 10

     The value is 10. First $f(4) = 2 \cdot 4 - 3 = 5$, then $g(5) = 5 + 5 = 10$.

215. A copier makes 80 copies in 5 minutes. How many minutes does it take to make 400 copies at the same rate?
     • 20 minutes
     • 30 minutes
     • 32 minutes
     • 25 minutes

     Correct answer: 25 minutes

     It takes 25 minutes. The rate is $80 \div 5 = 16$ copies per minute, and $400 \div 16 = 25$ minutes.

216. A swimmer covers 1,200 meters in 30 minutes. What is the swimmer's speed in meters per minute?
     • 30 meters per minute
     • 36 meters per minute
     • 40 meters per minute
     • 45 meters per minute

     Correct answer: 40 meters per minute

     The speed is 40 meters per minute. Dividing 1,200 meters by 30 minutes gives 40 meters per minute.

217. If $n$ is a positive integer, which of the following expressions always represents an odd number?
     • $2n$
     • $n + n$
     • $2n + 1$
     • $4n$

     Correct answer: $2n + 1$

     The expression $2n + 1$ is always odd. Twice any integer is even, and adding 1 to an even number produces an odd result; the other choices are all even.

218. What is the smallest prime number greater than 50?
     • 51
     • 53
     • 55
     • 57

     Correct answer: 53

     The smallest prime greater than 50 is 53. The value 51 equals $3 \cdot 17$, 55 equals $5 \cdot 11$, and 57 equals $3 \cdot 19$, so each is composite, while 53 has no divisors other than 1 and itself.

219. The units digit of 7 raised to a positive integer power repeats in a cycle of which length?
     • 2
     • 3
     • 4
     • 1

     Correct answer: 4

     The units digit of powers of 7 repeats in a cycle of length 4, following the pattern 7, 9, 3, 1 before repeating, so the cycle length is 4.

220. When a positive integer is divided by 5, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder when three times that integer is divided by 5?
     • 4
     • 3
     • 1
     • 2

     Correct answer: 4

     The remainder is 4. Multiplying the integer by 3 gives a remainder of 9 when divided by 5, and $9 - 5$ leaves 4.

221. What is the greatest common divisor of 84 and 126?
     • 14
     • 42
     • 21
     • 28

     Correct answer: 42

     The greatest common divisor is 42. Since 84 equals $2^2 \cdot 3 \cdot 7$ and 126 equals $2 \cdot 3^2 \cdot 7$, the shared factors are 2, 3, and 7, whose product is 42.

222. What is $\frac{2}{5}$ plus $\frac{1}{3}$ written as a single fraction in lowest terms?
     • $\frac{3}{8}$
     • $\frac{11}{15}$
     • $\frac{3}{15}$
     • $\frac{2}{15}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{11}{15}$

     The sum is $\frac{11}{15}$. Using a common denominator of 15, $\frac{2}{5}$ becomes $\frac{6}{15}$ and $\frac{1}{3}$ becomes $\frac{5}{15}$, and adding gives $\frac{11}{15}$, which cannot be reduced.

223. What is 0.24 expressed as a fraction in lowest terms?
     • $\frac{6}{25}$
     • $\frac{24}{100}$
     • $\frac{12}{25}$
     • $\frac{1}{4}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{6}{25}$

     The value equals $\frac{6}{25}$. Writing 0.24 as $\frac{24}{100}$ and dividing numerator and denominator by their common factor of 4 gives $\frac{6}{25}$.

224. A television priced at 450 dollars is discounted by 20 percent. What is the sale price?
     • 340 dollars
     • 350 dollars
     • 360 dollars
     • 380 dollars

     Correct answer: 360 dollars

     The sale price is 360 dollars. A 20 percent discount removes $0.20 \cdot 450$, which is 90 dollars, leaving $450 - 90$, or 360 dollars.

225. A quantity decreases from 250 to 200. What is the percent decrease?
     • 20 percent
     • 25 percent
     • 15 percent
     • 50 percent

     Correct answer: 20 percent

     The decrease is 20 percent. The change of 50 is divided by the original 250, giving 0.20, or 20 percent.

226. A principal of 6,000 dollars earns simple interest at 4 percent per year. How much interest accrues in 5 years?
     • 1,000 dollars
     • 1,200 dollars
     • 1,500 dollars
     • 2,400 dollars

     Correct answer: 1,200 dollars

     The interest is 1,200 dollars. Simple interest equals principal times rate times time, so $6000 \cdot 0.04 \cdot 5$ equals 1,200 dollars.

227. The ratio of teachers to students at a school is 2 to 25. If there are 16 teachers, how many students are there?
     • 180
     • 200
     • 225
     • 150

     Correct answer: 200

     There are 200 students. Each ratio unit equals $16 \div 2$, which is 8, so the 25 units of students equal $25 \cdot 8$, or 200.

228. If 9 identical tickets cost 36 dollars, how much do 13 such tickets cost at the same rate?
     • 48 dollars
     • 50 dollars
     • 52 dollars
     • 56 dollars

     Correct answer: 52 dollars

     They cost 52 dollars. Each ticket costs $36 \div 9$, which is 4 dollars, and $13 \cdot 4$ equals 52 dollars.

229. What is the value of $6^2$ minus $\sqrt{49}$?
     • 29
     • 31
     • 36
     • 43

     Correct answer: 29

     The value is 29. Six squared equals 36 and $\sqrt{49}$ equals 7, so $36 - 7$ equals 29.

230. If $7x + 5$ equals $3x + 29$, what is the value of $x$?
     • 4
     • 5
     • 7
     • 6

     Correct answer: 6

     The value of $x$ is 6. Subtracting $3x$ and 5 from both sides gives $4x$ equals 24, and dividing by 4 yields $x$ equals 6.

231. For which values of $x$ is the statement $6x - 5 \ge 2x + 7$ true?
     • $x \le 3$
     • $x \ge 3$
     • $x \le 12$
     • $x \ge 12$

     Correct answer: $x \ge 3$

     The solution is $x \ge 3$. Subtracting $2x$ and adding 5 gives $4x \ge 12$, and dividing by the positive 4 keeps the direction, yielding $x \ge 3$.

232. Botanist: 'Greenhouses that play classical music to their plants report taller seedlings than silent greenhouses, so the music must stimulate plant growth.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?
     • The greenhouses that play music also keep their indoor temperature several degrees higher than silent greenhouses
     • Some workers find the classical music pleasant during their shifts
     • Classical music has been played in greenhouses for several decades
     • The seedlings in both types of greenhouse are watered on the same schedule

     Correct answer: The greenhouses that play music also keep their indoor temperature several degrees higher than silent greenhouses

     The choice noting that musical greenhouses also keep higher temperatures most weakens the argument, because warmth is a well-known driver of seedling growth and offers an alternative cause unrelated to the music itself.

233. Bike shop manager: 'We should start selling electric bikes, because the shop across town added them last year and saw its revenue climb.' Which of the following is an assumption on which this argument depends?
     • The manager has personally ridden an electric bike
     • Electric bikes are heavier than standard bikes
     • Conditions affecting the shop across town's success with electric bikes are similar enough to apply to this shop
     • The shop across town did not raise its prices on regular bikes during the same period

     Correct answer: Conditions affecting the shop across town's success with electric bikes are similar enough to apply to this shop

     The argument assumes the rival shop's situation is comparable enough that the same result would follow here; if the two shops faced very different conditions, the analogy collapses, so this is the required assumption.

234. A camping-gear retailer noticed that the months when it sold the most sunscreen were also the months when it sold the most insulated jackets, even though the two products serve opposite climates. Which of the following, if true, best resolves this apparent discrepancy?
     • The retailer advertises both products on its website
     • Some customers buy both sunscreen and jackets in a single visit
     • The retailer's busiest sales months are the start of summer and the start of winter, when customers stock up for opposite upcoming seasons
     • Sunscreen is generally cheaper than insulated jackets

     Correct answer: The retailer's busiest sales months are the start of summer and the start of winter, when customers stock up for opposite upcoming seasons

     The choice explaining that peak sales occur at the starts of both summer and winter resolves the discrepancy, because shoppers prepare for an upcoming season, putting sunscreen and jackets in demand during the same busy preparation months.

235. Passage: 'Every grant recipient submitted a final report. The Hartwell Foundation did not submit a final report.' Which of the following must be true based on the passage?
     • All foundations that submit reports are grant recipients
     • The Hartwell Foundation will receive a grant next year
     • The Hartwell Foundation submitted a report late
     • The Hartwell Foundation was not a grant recipient

     Correct answer: The Hartwell Foundation was not a grant recipient

     It must be true that the Hartwell Foundation was not a grant recipient, because every recipient submitted a report, and a party that did not submit one therefore cannot belong to the group of recipients.

236. Pundit: 'The new transit chief used to work for a bus manufacturer, so any plan she proposes to expand bus service should be dismissed.' The reasoning in this argument is most vulnerable to the criticism that it does which of the following?
     • Confuses a cause with an effect
     • Relies on a sample that is too small to support a conclusion
     • Assumes that what is true of a group is true of each member
     • Attacks the source of a proposal rather than addressing the merits of the proposal itself

     Correct answer: Attacks the source of a proposal rather than addressing the merits of the proposal itself

     The argument commits an ad hominem flaw: it rejects the transit chief's plan by attacking her background rather than evaluating whether the plan to expand bus service is actually sound on its merits.

237. Passage: 'For much of the twentieth century, scholars treated folk songs as anonymous products of whole communities. More recent archival research, however, has traced many such songs to identifiable individual composers whose names were simply lost over time.' The passage as a whole serves primarily to do which of the following?
     • Compare two composers from the same era
     • Revise a long-held view in light of newer evidence
     • List the steps required to archive a song
     • Argue that folk songs have little artistic value

     Correct answer: Revise a long-held view in light of newer evidence

     The passage's primary purpose is to revise a long-held view, contrasting the older belief that folk songs were anonymous community products with newer archival findings that attribute many to identifiable individuals.

238. Operations manager: 'After we switched our trucks to a new route-planning app, our average delivery time dropped, so the app made our deliveries faster.' Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument?
     • No other changes that could affect delivery speed, such as new vehicles or hires, occurred when the app was adopted
     • Drivers found the app easy to learn
     • The company had considered adopting the app for several years
     • The app is also used by several other delivery companies

     Correct answer: No other changes that could affect delivery speed, such as new vehicles or hires, occurred when the app was adopted

     The choice ruling out other simultaneous changes most strengthens the argument, because it eliminates alternative explanations and leaves the new route-planning app as the most plausible cause of the faster deliveries.

239. Passage: 'No painting in the locked vault is a forgery. The portrait recently appraised by the museum is a forgery.' Which of the following must be true based on the passage?
     • The portrait was painted recently
     • The locked vault contains only authentic masterpieces by famous artists
     • All forgeries are eventually appraised
     • The recently appraised portrait is not in the locked vault

     Correct answer: The recently appraised portrait is not in the locked vault

     It must be true that the appraised portrait is not in the locked vault, because no painting in the vault is a forgery, and a painting known to be a forgery therefore cannot be among those in the vault.

240. Festival organizer: 'Selling tickets online instead of at the gate will increase our attendance, so we should move entirely to online sales.' Which of the following is an assumption on which this argument depends?
     • Most attendees own smartphones
     • The festival has been held at the same location for many years
     • Online tickets cost less to process than gate tickets
     • A meaningful number of potential attendees are not deterred by an online-only ticketing requirement

     Correct answer: A meaningful number of potential attendees are not deterred by an online-only ticketing requirement

     The argument assumes that requiring online purchase will not turn away enough would-be attendees to cancel out the expected gains; if many people are deterred by online-only sales, attendance could fall rather than rise.

241. Passage: 'A flagship store opened in the city's downtown to great fanfare, yet the company's total citywide sales fell during the months that followed the opening.' Which of the following, if true, best resolves this apparent discrepancy?
     • The new flagship store drew so many shoppers away from the company's nearby branches that those branches lost more sales than the flagship gained
     • Downtown rents rose during the same period
     • The company advertised the flagship opening heavily on social media
     • The flagship store is larger than any of the company's other stores

     Correct answer: The new flagship store drew so many shoppers away from the company's nearby branches that those branches lost more sales than the flagship gained

     The choice describing cannibalization resolves the discrepancy: the flagship pulled customers away from the company's nearby branches, so citywide totals fell even as the flagship itself attracted shoppers.

242. Columnist: 'The committee's report on housing must be flawed, since not a single major newspaper has praised it.' The reasoning in this argument is most vulnerable to the criticism that it does which of the following?
     • Draws a conclusion about a part from a fact about the whole
     • Mistakes a necessary condition for a sufficient one
     • Treats the absence of endorsement as proof that a claim is false
     • Generalizes from an unrepresentative example

     Correct answer: Treats the absence of endorsement as proof that a claim is false

     The argument treats the mere lack of newspaper praise as evidence that the report is flawed, but the absence of endorsement does not establish that the report's contents are actually wrong.

243. Passage: 'The biography opens by repeating the popular image of the inventor as a lone genius, then devotes its remaining chapters to documenting the many collaborators whose contributions that image overlooks.' The passage suggests the author's main goal is to do which of the following?
     • Complicate a familiar image by highlighting overlooked contributors
     • Compare the inventor to a rival of the same period
     • Provide a step-by-step guide to the inventor's process
     • Prove that the inventor deserves no credit at all

     Correct answer: Complicate a familiar image by highlighting overlooked contributors

     The author's main goal is to complicate the familiar lone-genius image, first stating it and then devoting the rest of the work to the collaborators that image leaves out.

244. Researcher: 'In our study, gardens watered with collected rainwater grew more vegetables than gardens watered with tap water, so rainwater is better for vegetable growth.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?
     • Rainwater is free to collect, unlike tap water
     • Both groups of gardens were planted with the same vegetable varieties
     • The gardens watered with rainwater happened to receive more total hours of sunlight than the tap-water gardens
     • The study lasted a full growing season

     Correct answer: The gardens watered with rainwater happened to receive more total hours of sunlight than the tap-water gardens

     The choice noting that the rainwater gardens received more sunlight most weakens the argument, because sunlight strongly affects vegetable growth and provides an alternative explanation for the difference unrelated to the water source.

245. An argument concludes that hiring a second pastry chef will increase a bakery's profits. Negating which of the following statements would most undermine the argument?
     • The bakery currently turns away customers because it cannot bake enough to meet demand
     • The bakery has been open for more than ten years
     • The bakery sells both bread and pastries
     • The bakery's current chef enjoys her work

     Correct answer: The bakery currently turns away customers because it cannot bake enough to meet demand

     Negating the statement that the bakery turns away customers for lack of supply most undermines the argument, because if unmet demand does not exist, a second chef would add cost without generating the extra sales needed to raise profits.

246. Passage: 'Only researchers who had published in a peer-reviewed journal were invited to the symposium. Dr. Okafor was invited to the symposium.' Which of the following must be true based on the passage?
     • Dr. Okafor had published in a peer-reviewed journal
     • Dr. Okafor is the most accomplished researcher present
     • Dr. Okafor presented a paper at the symposium
     • Every peer-reviewed author was invited to the symposium

     Correct answer: Dr. Okafor had published in a peer-reviewed journal

     It must be true that Dr. Okafor had published in a peer-reviewed journal, because only such researchers were invited, and Dr. Okafor's invitation means that necessary condition was met.

247. Zoo director: 'Adding a nighttime safari tour will bring in visitors who cannot come during the day, so it will raise our total attendance.' Which of the following is an assumption on which this argument depends?
     • The nighttime tour will not simply draw visitors who would otherwise have come during the day
     • Nighttime tours are more expensive to operate than daytime visits
     • The zoo has hosted special events before
     • The zoo's most popular animals are active at night

     Correct answer: The nighttime tour will not simply draw visitors who would otherwise have come during the day

     The argument assumes the nighttime tour will attract genuinely new visitors rather than shifting existing daytime visitors to a different time, since only new visitors would actually raise total attendance.

248. Passage: 'Despite cutting its product catalog nearly in half, the kitchenware company saw its total annual sales rise compared with the prior year.' Which of the following, if true, best resolves this apparent result?
     • Kitchenware sales generally rise in years with many new home purchases
     • The company employs hundreds of workers
     • The discontinued products were rarely purchased, and removing them let the company focus marketing on its bestsellers, whose sales surged
     • The company's headquarters relocated during the year

     Correct answer: The discontinued products were rarely purchased, and removing them let the company focus marketing on its bestsellers, whose sales surged

     The choice explaining that the cut products were low sellers, while focused marketing boosted bestsellers, resolves the result: trimming weak items did not hurt sales, and the surge in popular items lifted the annual total.

249. Advertisement: 'Nine out of ten chefs we surveyed use Coppertop pans, so Coppertop pans are the best choice for home cooks.' The reasoning in this advertisement is most vulnerable to the criticism that it does which of the following?
     • Relies on a definition that is never made clear
     • Rejects a claim solely because of its source
     • Assumes that what suits professionals must be the best option for a different group of users
     • Treats two unrelated events as cause and effect

     Correct answer: Assumes that what suits professionals must be the best option for a different group of users

     The advertisement assumes that because professional chefs favor the pans, they must be best for home cooks, ignoring that the needs of professionals and home cooks can differ substantially.

250. Passage: 'The chapter first lays out the standard economic model of consumer choice, then presents a series of experiments whose results the standard model cannot easily explain, and closes by sketching an alternative model.' Which of the following best describes the structure of the chapter?
     • A single experiment is described in exhaustive technical detail
     • Two competing models are described and then declared equally valid
     • A historical figure's life is narrated in chronological order
     • An established model is presented, challenged by evidence, and followed by a proposed alternative

     Correct answer: An established model is presented, challenged by evidence, and followed by a proposed alternative

     The chapter's structure presents an established model, challenges it with experimental evidence the model cannot explain, and then proposes an alternative, matching this description of build-then-challenge-then-replace.

251. Clinic manager: 'After we began sending text reminders, our rate of missed appointments dropped, so the reminders reduced no-shows.' Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument?
     • Patients generally prefer text messages to phone calls
     • The text reminders are sent the day before each appointment
     • The clinic treats both adults and children
     • During the same period, the clinic made no other changes, and a nearby clinic that sent no reminders saw its no-show rate hold steady

     Correct answer: During the same period, the clinic made no other changes, and a nearby clinic that sent no reminders saw its no-show rate hold steady

     The choice noting no other changes plus a comparison clinic without reminders that saw no improvement most strengthens the argument, because it isolates the reminders as the likely cause of the drop in no-shows.

252. Passage: 'All members of the senior design team were given access to the prototype lab. Renata was not given access to the prototype lab.' Which of the following must be true based on the passage?
     • Renata works in a different department
     • Only senior design team members have lab access
     • Renata will join the team next quarter
     • Renata is not a member of the senior design team

     Correct answer: Renata is not a member of the senior design team

     It must be true that Renata is not a member of the senior design team, because all members were given lab access, and someone without access therefore cannot belong to that team.

253. Editor: 'We should publish the manuscript, because its author has a large social-media following.' Which of the following is an assumption on which this argument depends?
     • The manuscript is shorter than the publisher's previous titles
     • The author's social-media following will translate into enough book sales to justify publishing
     • The author has published a book before
     • The manuscript is written in the author's native language

     Correct answer: The author's social-media following will translate into enough book sales to justify publishing

     The argument assumes the author's online following will convert into sufficient book sales; if followers do not buy the book, the size of the following gives no reason to publish.

254. Passage: 'A regional bank closed a quarter of its branches over two years, yet the total number of customers visiting its remaining branches each month increased.' Which of the following, if true, best resolves this apparent result?
     • The bank's headquarters is in the regional capital
     • The bank offers a mobile app for deposits
     • Branch closures are common in the banking industry
     • The closed branches were located near the remaining ones, so their former customers simply began visiting the nearest open branch

     Correct answer: The closed branches were located near the remaining ones, so their former customers simply began visiting the nearest open branch

     The choice explaining that displaced customers shifted to nearby open branches resolves the result: closing branches concentrated existing customers into the remaining ones, raising their monthly visit totals.

255. Speaker: 'The last two governors who raised the gas tax both lost reelection, so raising the gas tax always costs a governor the next election.' The reasoning in this argument is most vulnerable to the criticism that it does which of the following?
     • Assumes that a whole has the properties of its parts
     • Draws a sweeping conclusion from only two instances
     • Confuses a sufficient condition with a necessary one
     • Attacks the character of the governors rather than their policies

     Correct answer: Draws a sweeping conclusion from only two instances

     The argument draws a sweeping always conclusion from just two cases, an overgeneralization, since two examples cannot establish that raising the gas tax invariably leads to election defeat.

256. Passage: 'The article begins by celebrating the convenience of streaming music, but its longer second half catalogs the small payments artists actually receive and questions whether the system is fair to them.' The passage suggests the author's attitude toward streaming is best described as which of the following?
     • Entirely enthusiastic about every aspect of streaming
     • Appreciative of its convenience but critical of how it compensates artists
     • Convinced that streaming should be banned
     • Indifferent to the topic of music distribution

     Correct answer: Appreciative of its convenience but critical of how it compensates artists

     The author's attitude is appreciative of streaming's convenience yet critical of artist pay, since the piece praises convenience first but devotes its longer half to questioning the fairness of artist compensation.

257. Warehouse supervisor: 'Installing brighter lighting in the loading area will reduce workplace accidents there, so we should upgrade the lights.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?
     • The current lights have been in place for several years
     • Workers have requested brighter lighting in the past
     • Most accidents in the loading area occur because workers rush to meet quotas, not because of poor visibility
     • Brighter lighting would slightly increase the warehouse's electricity costs

     Correct answer: Most accidents in the loading area occur because workers rush to meet quotas, not because of poor visibility

     The choice revealing that most accidents stem from rushing rather than poor visibility most weakens the argument, because better lighting would not address the actual cause of the accidents.

258. An argument concludes that opening a downtown branch will expand a credit union's membership. Negating which of the following statements would most undermine the argument?
     • The credit union offers competitive savings rates
     • The credit union has operated for several decades
     • There are many potential members downtown who do not already belong to the credit union
     • The downtown location has ample parking

     Correct answer: There are many potential members downtown who do not already belong to the credit union

     Negating the statement that many potential members exist downtown most undermines the argument, because if the downtown area holds few new prospects, a branch there would not expand membership.

259. Passage: 'Every shipment cleared by the inspector received a blue seal. The crate in bay four has no blue seal.' Which of the following must be true based on the passage?
     • The inspector overlooked the crate by mistake
     • The crate in bay four contains damaged goods
     • All crates without seals are eventually destroyed
     • The crate in bay four was not cleared by the inspector

     Correct answer: The crate in bay four was not cleared by the inspector

     It must be true that the crate in bay four was not cleared by the inspector, because every cleared shipment received a blue seal, and a crate lacking one cannot have been cleared.

260. Co-op board: 'We should plant a community garden on the empty lot, because residents have said they want more green space.' Which of the following is an assumption on which this argument depends?
     • A community garden would satisfy the residents' desire for more green space
     • The empty lot is owned by the co-op
     • Most residents have gardened before
     • Community gardens require regular watering

     Correct answer: A community garden would satisfy the residents' desire for more green space

     The argument assumes a community garden would actually fulfill the stated wish for more green space; if residents wanted a different kind of green space, such as a park lawn, the garden would not address their desire.

261. Passage: 'A publisher raised the cover price of its flagship magazine, yet that magazine's total revenue from sales increased the following year.' Which of the following, if true, best resolves this apparent result?
     • Magazine prices generally rise over time
     • The magazine's loyal readers continued buying it at nearly the same rate despite the higher price, so the extra per-copy revenue outweighed the few lost sales
     • The publisher also produces several other magazines
     • The magazine added a crossword puzzle that year

     Correct answer: The magazine's loyal readers continued buying it at nearly the same rate despite the higher price, so the extra per-copy revenue outweighed the few lost sales

     The choice explaining that loyal readers kept buying at the higher price resolves the result: with few lost sales, the increased revenue per copy more than offset the small drop in volume, raising total revenue.

262. Critic: 'Anyone who truly cared about the environment would never fly on airplanes; the senator flies often, so the senator does not truly care about the environment.' The reasoning in this argument is most vulnerable to the criticism that it does which of the following?
     • Relies on an unsupported claim that any single behavior settles whether someone cares about the environment
     • Confuses the cause of an event with its effect
     • Generalizes from a sample that is too small
     • Treats a correlation between two variables as proof of causation

     Correct answer: Relies on an unsupported claim that any single behavior settles whether someone cares about the environment

     The argument rests on the unsupported premise that a single behavior, flying, is enough to judge whether someone cares about the environment, ignoring that environmental concern can be expressed in many other ways.

263. Passage: 'Long dismissed as crude tourist souvenirs, the carved wooden masks sold in the coastal market are now studied by anthropologists as evidence of a living craft tradition that has adapted across generations.' The passage primarily aims to do which of the following?
     • Warn tourists against buying counterfeit souvenirs
     • Reframe items once dismissed as trivial as objects of genuine scholarly interest
     • Compare two unrelated craft traditions
     • Explain how to carve a wooden mask

     Correct answer: Reframe items once dismissed as trivial as objects of genuine scholarly interest

     The passage's primary aim is to reframe the masks, presenting items once dismissed as trivial souvenirs as objects now valued by anthropologists as evidence of a living craft tradition.

264. Florist: 'Customers who buy our premium bouquets also tend to buy our scented candles, so displaying candles next to the premium bouquets will increase candle sales.' Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument?
     • The shop has sold scented candles for several years
     • Some customers buy candles without buying any flowers
     • In a trial display, placing candles beside the premium bouquets led many bouquet buyers to add a candle to their purchase
     • Premium bouquets are the shop's most expensive product

     Correct answer: In a trial display, placing candles beside the premium bouquets led many bouquet buyers to add a candle to their purchase

     The choice describing a trial in which placement next to bouquets actually prompted buyers to add candles most strengthens the argument, because it offers direct evidence that the proposed display boosts candle sales.

265. Passage: 'No volunteer who skipped the orientation was assigned to the front desk. Marisol was assigned to the front desk.' Which of the following must be true based on the passage?
     • Marisol prefers working at the front desk
     • Marisol did not skip the orientation
     • Everyone who attended the orientation works the front desk
     • Marisol is the most experienced volunteer

     Correct answer: Marisol did not skip the orientation

     It must be true that Marisol did not skip the orientation, because no volunteer who skipped it was assigned to the front desk, and Marisol's front-desk assignment means she could not have skipped it.

266. Theater director: 'Adding subtitles to our foreign-language film screenings will fill more seats, so we should add subtitles.' Which of the following is an assumption on which this argument depends?
     • The theater has shown foreign-language films before
     • A meaningful number of potential attendees are currently kept away by the lack of subtitles
     • Subtitles can be projected without damaging the film print
     • Most of the theater's regular patrons speak only one language

     Correct answer: A meaningful number of potential attendees are currently kept away by the lack of subtitles

     The argument assumes that the absence of subtitles is currently keeping enough people away that adding them would noticeably increase attendance; without that unmet demand, subtitles would not fill more seats.

267. Passage: 'A city doubled the number of public recycling bins on its streets, yet the share of recyclable material that ended up in regular trash bins did not fall.' Which of the following, if true, best resolves this apparent result?
     • The city employs many sanitation workers
     • Most recyclable waste in the city is generated inside homes and offices, where the number of recycling options did not change
     • The new bins were a different color from the old ones
     • Recycling rates generally vary from city to city

     Correct answer: Most recyclable waste in the city is generated inside homes and offices, where the number of recycling options did not change

     The choice explaining that most recyclables come from homes and offices, where recycling options were unchanged, resolves the result: adding street bins would not affect waste generated where the new bins were unavailable.

268. Speaker: 'This investment fund has beaten the market for five years running, so it is sure to beat the market again next year.' The reasoning in this argument is most vulnerable to the criticism that it does which of the following?
     • Rejects a claim merely because of who made it
     • Assumes that a past pattern guarantees a future outcome
     • Relies on the testimony of a biased source
     • Mistakes a part of a group for the whole group

     Correct answer: Assumes that a past pattern guarantees a future outcome

     The argument assumes that the fund's past streak guarantees future success, but a record of past performance does not ensure the same outcome will continue in the next year.

269. Passage: 'The essay opens by acknowledging a serious objection to the author's thesis, then devotes its body to evidence the author believes overcomes that objection.' Which of the following best describes the role of the opening in the passage?
     • It provides a humorous anecdote unrelated to the thesis
     • It restates the thesis in different words for emphasis
     • It summarizes the conclusions reached later in the essay
     • It raises a counterargument that the rest of the essay attempts to answer

     Correct answer: It raises a counterargument that the rest of the essay attempts to answer

     The opening's role is to raise a counterargument, an objection to the thesis, which the body of the essay then attempts to answer with supporting evidence.

270. Manufacturing lead: 'Our defect rate fell after we began inspecting every tenth unit, so the new inspections caused the improvement.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?
     • The company also replaced its oldest assembly machine in the same week the inspections began
     • Defect rates are tracked monthly
     • The inspections add a small amount of time to the production process
     • The inspected units are chosen at random

     Correct answer: The company also replaced its oldest assembly machine in the same week the inspections began

     The choice noting that an old machine was replaced in the same week most weakens the argument, because the new machine offers an alternative explanation for the drop in defects that has nothing to do with the inspections.

271. Passage: 'Every device that passed the safety review was logged in the registry. The thermostat in suite seven is not in the registry.' Which of the following must be true based on the passage?
     • The thermostat in suite seven will be replaced soon
     • All registered devices are thermostats
     • The thermostat in suite seven did not pass the safety review
     • The thermostat in suite seven is broken

     Correct answer: The thermostat in suite seven did not pass the safety review

     It must be true that the thermostat in suite seven did not pass the safety review, because every device that passed was logged in the registry, and a device absent from the registry therefore cannot have passed.

272. Logistics director: 'After we rerouted our trucks to avoid the highway, fuel costs dropped 15 percent, so the new route is more fuel-efficient.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?
     • Drivers preferred the new route to the old one
     • The new route passes through several small towns
     • The company owns more trucks than its competitors
     • Fuel prices across the region fell sharply during the same period

     Correct answer: Fuel prices across the region fell sharply during the same period

     The choice stating that regional fuel prices fell sharply most weakens the argument, because it offers an alternative explanation for the lower fuel costs that has nothing to do with the new route.

273. Farm manager: 'We planted a cover crop this season and our soil retained more moisture, so cover crops improve moisture retention.' Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument?
     • The cover crop seed was inexpensive to purchase
     • Neighboring farms also experimented with new methods
     • The farm has used cover crops once before, years ago
     • Rainfall this season matched the long-term average for the area

     Correct answer: Rainfall this season matched the long-term average for the area

     The choice noting that rainfall matched the long-term average most strengthens the argument, because it rules out unusually heavy rain as the cause and isolates the cover crop as the reason for the improved moisture retention.

274. Operations head: 'Branches that introduced a customer feedback kiosk saw satisfaction scores climb, so installing kiosks at all branches will raise satisfaction.' This argument depends on which of the following assumptions?
     • The kiosks are inexpensive to maintain
     • Customers enjoy using touchscreen devices
     • The branches that installed kiosks did not improve satisfaction through some other change made at the same time
     • All branches currently have low satisfaction scores

     Correct answer: The branches that installed kiosks did not improve satisfaction through some other change made at the same time

     The correct assumption is that no other simultaneous change drove the satisfaction gains, because the recommendation to install kiosks everywhere only follows if the kiosks themselves, not some coincidental factor, produced the higher scores.

275. Festival organizer: 'We should book more local bands next year, because the sets featuring local bands had the largest crowds this year.' Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
     • Local bands charge less than touring acts
     • Audiences always prefer live music to recorded music
     • The large crowds at those sets were drawn by the local bands rather than by their convenient time slots
     • The festival can secure enough local bands for next year

     Correct answer: The large crowds at those sets were drawn by the local bands rather than by their convenient time slots

     The argument assumes the local bands, not factors like favorable time slots, drew the large crowds, because the plan to book more local bands only makes sense if the bands themselves caused the higher attendance.

276. Pet store owner: 'Selling premium pet food will increase our profits, because premium food has a higher markup than standard food.' The argument relies on which assumption?
     • Premium food does not spoil faster than standard food
     • Premium pet food is more nutritious for animals
     • Customers will continue to buy at least as much food once premium options are added, rather than buying less or shopping elsewhere
     • The store has space to stock additional products

     Correct answer: Customers will continue to buy at least as much food once premium options are added, rather than buying less or shopping elsewhere

     The argument assumes customers will keep buying comparable volumes once premium food is added, because a higher markup raises profits only if it does not drive customers to buy less or shop elsewhere.

277. Spokesperson: 'No independent study has ever shown our energy drink to be unsafe, so it must be completely safe to consume.' This argument is most vulnerable to which criticism?
     • It relies on the testimony of a single expert
     • It draws a conclusion about all drinks from one example
     • It confuses a cause with an effect
     • It treats a lack of evidence of harm as if it were proof of safety

     Correct answer: It treats a lack of evidence of harm as if it were proof of safety

     The argument is most vulnerable because it treats a lack of evidence of harm as proof of safety, an appeal to ignorance, since no study showing harm does not establish that the drink is actually safe.

278. Speaker: 'The two best-selling phones this year both have large screens, so large screens are what make a phone sell well.' This reasoning is most flawed because it does which of the following?
     • Assumes the conclusion it is trying to prove
     • Relies on an emotional appeal rather than evidence
     • Attacks the character of phone manufacturers
     • Generalizes about all phones from only two examples that may share other relevant features

     Correct answer: Generalizes about all phones from only two examples that may share other relevant features

     The reasoning is most flawed because it generalizes from only two phones that may share many other selling points, so it cannot establish that large screens specifically are responsible for strong sales.

279. Commentator: 'We should ignore the scientist's warning about the chemical, because she was paid by an environmental group to conduct her research.' This argument is flawed primarily because it does which of the following?
     • Mistakes correlation for causation
     • Generalizes from an unrepresentative sample
     • Appeals to popular opinion
     • Attacks the source of the claim instead of addressing the claim's merits

     Correct answer: Attacks the source of the claim instead of addressing the claim's merits

     The argument is flawed because it attacks the scientist's funding source rather than the substance of her warning, an ad hominem move that does nothing to show the warning itself is mistaken.

280. Argument: 'Some critics claim our city's transit system is inefficient. But ridership has grown every year for the past decade.' The reasoning in this argument is questionable because growing ridership does which of the following?
     • Proves that fares have been kept low
     • Does not by itself address whether the system operates efficiently
     • Shows that critics are dishonest
     • Establishes that the transit system is profitable

     Correct answer: Does not by itself address whether the system operates efficiently

     The reasoning is questionable because growing ridership does not by itself address efficiency; a system can carry more riders while still wasting resources, so the response misses the critics' actual point.

281. Argument: 'In boldface, the first portion presents the position the argument opposes, and the second portion presents the conclusion the author endorses.' In a boldface Critical Reasoning question, the test taker must determine which of the following about the highlighted portions?
     • Which portion is grammatically correct
     • How long each portion is
     • The logical role each portion plays in the argument
     • Whether the author wrote the passage personally

     Correct answer: The logical role each portion plays in the argument

     In a boldface question the test taker must determine the logical role each highlighted portion plays, such as whether a portion is a premise, a conclusion, or a position the author rejects.

282. Passage: 'Every consultant assigned to the merger project signed a confidentiality agreement. Owen did not sign a confidentiality agreement.' Which of the following must be true based on the passage?
     • Owen was assigned to the merger project
     • Owen was not assigned to the merger project
     • Some consultants on the merger project did not sign the agreement
     • Owen signed a different agreement instead

     Correct answer: Owen was not assigned to the merger project

     It must be true that Owen was not assigned to the merger project, because every consultant on the project signed the agreement, and Owen did not sign, so he cannot have been on the project.

283. Passage: 'No software released before the security update contains the new encryption. The app on this device contains the new encryption.' Which of the following can be properly concluded?
     • The app was released before the security update
     • The app was not released before the security update
     • All apps contain the new encryption
     • The device has no other apps installed

     Correct answer: The app was not released before the security update

     It can be concluded that the app was not released before the security update, because no software from before the update has the new encryption, yet this app has it, so it must postdate the update.

284. Passage: 'Whenever the irrigation timer is set correctly, the lawn receives water at dawn. This morning the lawn received no water at dawn.' Which of the following must be true?
     • The irrigation timer was set correctly
     • The irrigation timer was not set correctly
     • The lawn will receive water in the evening instead
     • The timer is broken beyond repair

     Correct answer: The irrigation timer was not set correctly

     It must be true that the timer was not set correctly, because a correctly set timer guarantees dawn watering, and since the lawn got no water at dawn, the timer cannot have been set correctly.

285. Passage: 'Only researchers who completed the ethics training were permitted to access the patient database. Dr. Vance accessed the patient database.' Which of the following must be true?
     • Dr. Vance did not complete the ethics training
     • Some researchers without training accessed the database
     • Dr. Vance is not a researcher
     • Dr. Vance completed the ethics training

     Correct answer: Dr. Vance completed the ethics training

     It must be true that Dr. Vance completed the ethics training, because only those who completed it were allowed access, and Dr. Vance gained access, so he must have completed the training.

286. Passage: 'Every parcel routed through the central hub received a tracking barcode. The package from the eastern warehouse received no tracking barcode.' Which of the following can be properly inferred?
     • The package was routed through the central hub
     • The package was not routed through the central hub
     • All packages from the eastern warehouse lack barcodes
     • The central hub stopped using barcodes

     Correct answer: The package was not routed through the central hub

     It can be inferred that the package was not routed through the central hub, because every parcel that went through the hub received a barcode, and this package received none, so it bypassed the hub.

287. Town engineer: 'Adding a roundabout at the busy intersection will reduce collisions there.' Which of the following, if true, would be most useful in evaluating this prediction?
     • How much the roundabout will cost to build
     • Whether residents find roundabouts confusing to navigate at first
     • Whether intersections of similar traffic volume that added roundabouts saw collisions fall
     • How long the construction is expected to take

     Correct answer: Whether intersections of similar traffic volume that added roundabouts saw collisions fall

     The most useful information for evaluating the prediction is whether comparable intersections that added roundabouts saw fewer collisions, because that evidence directly tests whether the proposed change is likely to achieve its safety goal.

288. Product manager: 'Launching a mobile version of our service will increase total users, so we should build the mobile app.' Answering which of the following questions would be most helpful in evaluating this argument?
     • How many employees the company has
     • Whether competitors already offer mobile apps
     • Whether the people who would use the mobile app are mostly new users or simply current users switching platforms
     • How much the desktop version cost to develop

     Correct answer: Whether the people who would use the mobile app are mostly new users or simply current users switching platforms

     The most helpful question is whether mobile users would be new or merely current users switching, because the app increases total users only if it attracts people who were not already using the service.

289. Brewmaster: 'Switching to locally grown hops will improve our beer's flavor, so we should make the switch.' Which of the following would be most important to determine in evaluating this argument?
     • Whether local hops are cheaper than imported hops
     • How far the local hop farms are from the brewery
     • Whether tasters can actually distinguish and prefer the flavor produced by local hops over the current hops
     • Whether the brewery has won awards in the past

     Correct answer: Whether tasters can actually distinguish and prefer the flavor produced by local hops over the current hops

     The most important point to determine is whether tasters actually prefer the flavor from local hops, because the claim of improved flavor stands only if the switch produces a taste that people detect and favor.

290. Passage: 'For generations, scholars assumed the remote islands were settled by accidental drift voyages. Recent analysis of ancient navigation tools, however, suggests the settlers made deliberate, planned journeys.' The passage is structured primarily to do which of the following?
     • Compare two islands that were settled differently
     • List the steps required for ocean navigation
     • Present a long-held view and then offer evidence that challenges it
     • Argue that the islands should never have been settled

     Correct answer: Present a long-held view and then offer evidence that challenges it

     The passage is structured to present a long-held view, that settlement was accidental, and then introduce navigation-tool evidence that challenges it by suggesting the voyages were deliberate.

291. Passage: 'Although the new policy reduced paperwork, the author spends most of the discussion warning that it also weakened important oversight safeguards.' The author's attitude toward the new policy can best be described as which of the following?
     • Wholly enthusiastic
     • Largely critical despite acknowledging a benefit
     • Completely indifferent
     • Confused and uncertain

     Correct answer: Largely critical despite acknowledging a benefit

     The author's attitude is best described as largely critical despite acknowledging a benefit, because while the policy reduced paperwork, the bulk of the discussion warns about weakened oversight.

292. Passage: 'It is widely assumed that taller buildings are more energy-efficient per resident. Yet a survey of 200 apartment towers found that mid-rise buildings consumed less energy per resident than the tallest towers.' The primary purpose of the passage is to do which of the following?
     • Explain how skyscrapers are constructed
     • Recommend that cities ban tall buildings
     • Challenge a common assumption with survey findings
     • Describe the history of apartment living

     Correct answer: Challenge a common assumption with survey findings

     The primary purpose is to challenge the common assumption that taller buildings are more energy-efficient by presenting survey findings showing mid-rise towers used less energy per resident.

293. Passage: 'Conventional accounts attribute the village's prosperity solely to its fertile soil. New economic records, however, reveal that a nearby trade route contributed at least as much to its wealth.' According to the passage, the conventional accounts did which of the following?
     • Ignored the village's existence entirely
     • Claimed the trade route was the only cause of prosperity
     • Credited the village's prosperity solely to its fertile soil
     • Denied that the village was ever prosperous

     Correct answer: Credited the village's prosperity solely to its fertile soil

     According to the passage, the conventional accounts credited the village's prosperity solely to its fertile soil, a view the new economic records complicate by pointing to the nearby trade route.

294. Passage: 'The article opens by describing a striking decline in honeybee populations, then surveys several proposed causes, and finally argues that habitat loss is the most significant factor.' Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
     • It states a problem, reviews possible causes, and singles out one as most important
     • It compares two unrelated phenomena throughout
     • It tells a personal story from beginning to end
     • It refutes every explanation it considers

     Correct answer: It states a problem, reviews possible causes, and singles out one as most important

     The best description is that the passage states a problem, the bee decline, reviews possible causes, and then singles out habitat loss as the most significant, matching its open-survey-argue structure.

295. Passage: 'Despite predictions that streaming would end concert attendance, live music revenue has reached record highs in recent years.' The author most likely includes this statement in order to do which of the following?
     • Highlight a result that runs counter to an earlier prediction
     • Prove that streaming services are unprofitable
     • List the most popular concert venues
     • Explain how streaming technology works

     Correct answer: Highlight a result that runs counter to an earlier prediction

     The author most likely includes the statement to highlight a result that runs counter to the earlier prediction, contrasting the forecast that streaming would end concerts with record live-music revenue.

296. Gym chain: 'Members who book sessions with a personal trainer attend the gym more frequently, so assigning a personal trainer to every member will boost overall attendance.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?
     • Members who already plan to attend frequently are the ones who choose to book personal trainers
     • Personal trainers are popular among gym members
     • The gym has multiple locations in the city
     • Some members prefer group classes to one-on-one sessions

     Correct answer: Members who already plan to attend frequently are the ones who choose to book personal trainers

     The first choice most weakens the argument, because it shows that frequent attendance leads members to hire trainers rather than the reverse, undermining the claim that assigning trainers will increase attendance.

297. Retail analyst: 'Stores that play upbeat music report higher average purchase amounts, so playing upbeat music causes shoppers to spend more.' Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument?
     • In a controlled trial, the same store had higher purchases on days it played upbeat music than on otherwise identical days without it
     • Upbeat music is inexpensive to license
     • Many shoppers say they enjoy background music
     • The stores with upbeat music are located in malls

     Correct answer: In a controlled trial, the same store had higher purchases on days it played upbeat music than on otherwise identical days without it

     The first choice most strengthens the argument, because a controlled trial within the same store, comparing otherwise identical days, isolates upbeat music as the cause of the higher purchase amounts.

298. Passage: 'No batch that failed the purity test was approved for shipment. The batch from line three was approved for shipment.' Which of the following must be true?
     • The batch from line three failed the purity test
     • The batch from line three did not fail the purity test
     • All batches from line three are approved
     • Line three produces the purest batches

     Correct answer: The batch from line three did not fail the purity test

     It must be true that the batch from line three did not fail the purity test, because no failing batch is approved for shipment, yet this batch was approved, so it could not have failed.

299. Investor: 'The fund has outperformed the market for the past five years, so it is guaranteed to outperform the market next year.' This reasoning is most flawed because it does which of the following?
     • Treats a past trend as a certainty about a future event
     • Relies on the opinion of an unqualified source
     • Confuses two different funds
     • Appeals to the reader's emotions

     Correct answer: Treats a past trend as a certainty about a future event

     The reasoning is most flawed because it treats a past trend as a guarantee about the future; five years of outperformance does not ensure the fund will outperform the market next year.

300. Nonprofit director: 'Volunteers who attend our orientation stay with us longer, so requiring orientation for all volunteers will improve retention.' The argument assumes which of the following?
     • Orientation is enjoyable for volunteers
     • The longer tenure of those who attended orientation results from the orientation itself rather than from their being more committed to begin with
     • The nonprofit has enough staff to run orientations
     • Most volunteers live near the organization

     Correct answer: The longer tenure of those who attended orientation results from the orientation itself rather than from their being more committed to begin with

     The argument assumes the orientation itself, not the prior commitment of those who chose to attend, produced the longer tenure, because requiring orientation improves retention only if the session causes the effect.

301. A clothing brand cut the price of its flagship jacket by 20 percent, but its total revenue from that jacket increased afterward. Which of the following, if true, best explains this result?
     • The lower price attracted enough additional buyers that the larger sales volume more than offset the smaller margin per jacket
     • The jacket comes in several colors
     • The brand advertises mainly on social media
     • The jacket is manufactured overseas

     Correct answer: The lower price attracted enough additional buyers that the larger sales volume more than offset the smaller margin per jacket

     The first choice best explains the result, because the price cut attracted so many additional buyers that the greater volume more than compensated for the lower margin, raising total revenue despite the lower price.

302. Passage: 'The chapter first lays out a popular theory of memory, then describes an experiment whose results the theory cannot account for, and closes by proposing a revised theory.' Which of the following best describes the structure of the chapter?
     • It presents a theory, introduces evidence the theory fails to explain, and offers a revised theory
     • It compares three competing theories without favoring any
     • It tells the history of memory research chronologically
     • It argues that memory cannot be studied scientifically

     Correct answer: It presents a theory, introduces evidence the theory fails to explain, and offers a revised theory

     The best description is that the chapter presents a theory, introduces evidence it cannot explain, and then offers a revised theory, matching its lay-out, challenge, revise progression.

303. Passage: 'Although the report praises the program's quick rollout, it devotes its final and longest section to documenting the program's high error rate.' The author's overall assessment of the program is best described as which of the following?
     • Predominantly favorable
     • Mixed, leaning negative because of the emphasis on errors
     • Entirely neutral with no judgment
     • Strongly enthusiastic

     Correct answer: Mixed, leaning negative because of the emphasis on errors

     The author's assessment is best described as mixed but leaning negative, because although the report praises the quick rollout, its longest and final section emphasizes the program's high error rate.

304. Auto manufacturer: 'Owners of our electric model report lower fuel costs than owners of our gas model, so our electric model is cheaper to own overall.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?
     • The electric model's higher purchase price and battery replacement costs exceed the fuel savings over the car's life
     • The electric model is available in fewer colors
     • Many owners charge their cars at home
     • The gas model has been on the market longer

     Correct answer: The electric model's higher purchase price and battery replacement costs exceed the fuel savings over the car's life

     The first choice most weakens the argument, because higher purchase and battery-replacement costs that exceed the fuel savings would make the electric model more expensive to own overall, contradicting the conclusion drawn solely from fuel costs.

305. Passage: 'Once dismissed as ecological nuisances, beavers are now recognized by ecologists as keystone engineers whose dams restore wetlands and increase biodiversity.' The primary purpose of the passage is to do which of the following?
     • Present a shift in how experts regard beavers, from nuisance to beneficial engineer
     • Explain the anatomy of beaver teeth
     • Argue that all wetlands should be drained
     • Compare beavers with other rodents

     Correct answer: Present a shift in how experts regard beavers, from nuisance to beneficial engineer

     The primary purpose is to present a shift in expert opinion about beavers, from viewing them as nuisances to recognizing them as keystone engineers that restore wetlands and boost biodiversity.

306. Manager: 'Teams that use the new project-tracking dashboard complete their tasks ahead of schedule, so requiring all teams to use the dashboard will speed up task completion.' Which of the following would be most useful in evaluating this argument?
     • Whether the teams that adopted the dashboard were already faster than other teams before adopting it
     • Whether the dashboard is visually appealing
     • How many teams currently exist in the company
     • Whether the dashboard was built in-house or purchased

     Correct answer: Whether the teams that adopted the dashboard were already faster than other teams before adopting it

     The most useful information is whether the dashboard-using teams were already faster beforehand, because if they were, the dashboard may not be the cause of the early completions, undercutting the case for requiring it everywhere.

307. Passage: 'Only documents stamped by the registrar are considered official. The transcript in the file is not stamped by the registrar.' Which of the following must be true?
     • The transcript is considered official
     • The transcript is not considered official
     • All transcripts must be stamped twice
     • The registrar stamped a different document instead

     Correct answer: The transcript is not considered official

     It must be true that the transcript is not considered official, because only documents stamped by the registrar count as official, and this transcript lacks that stamp, so it cannot be official.

308. Ferry operator: 'Switching our ferries to a faster engine will let us add a fifth daily crossing, which will increase our annual passenger revenue.' Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
     • The faster engines cost more to maintain than the current engines.
     • Competing ferry lines have not added crossings of their own.
     • Enough additional passengers will travel on the fifth crossing to raise total revenue.
     • The current four crossings are already filled to capacity.

     Correct answer: Enough additional passengers will travel on the fifth crossing to raise total revenue.

     The assumption is that enough additional passengers will travel on the fifth crossing to raise total revenue. The conclusion that adding a crossing will increase revenue collapses if the extra crossing draws too few riders, so the argument must take adequate demand for granted.

309. Bakery chain: 'After we began posting calorie counts beside each pastry, sales of our low-calorie muffins rose. Therefore, customers prefer lower-calorie options.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this conclusion?
     • Sales of high-calorie pastries also rose slightly during the period.
     • The calorie counts were printed in a clearly readable font.
     • The bakery introduced three new low-calorie muffin flavors in the same week the calorie counts appeared.
     • The bakery has posted calorie counts at all of its locations.

     Correct answer: The bakery introduced three new low-calorie muffin flavors in the same week the calorie counts appeared.

     The choice about three new low-calorie flavors launching the same week most weakens the conclusion. It offers an alternative cause for the sales rise unrelated to a preference revealed by the calorie labels, undermining the claim that customers prefer lower-calorie options.

310. Researcher: 'Cities that planted more street trees recorded lower summer hospital visits for heat-related illness, so planting street trees reduces heat-related illness.' Which of the following would be most useful to know in evaluating this argument?
     • How many species of trees were planted in each city.
     • How long each city's tree-planting program had been running.
     • Whether the tree-planting cities also expanded public cooling centers during the same summers.
     • Whether residents preferred shade trees to flowering trees.

     Correct answer: Whether the tree-planting cities also expanded public cooling centers during the same summers.

     It would be most useful to know whether the tree-planting cities also expanded public cooling centers. If they did, the drop in heat-related illness might stem from the cooling centers rather than the trees, so this information directly tests the causal claim.

311. Passage: 'Long viewed merely as pests that damage crops, certain beetle species are now understood by ecologists to accelerate decomposition and enrich soil, making them valuable to the very farms they were thought to harm.' The primary purpose of the passage is to do which of the following?
     • Argue that all insects benefit agriculture.
     • Explain the chemical process by which soil is enriched.
     • Revise a negative view of certain beetles in light of their ecological benefits.
     • Recommend that farmers introduce beetles into their fields.

     Correct answer: Revise a negative view of certain beetles in light of their ecological benefits.

     The primary purpose is to revise a negative view of certain beetles in light of their ecological benefits. The passage moves from a former perception of beetles as pests to a newer understanding of their value, which is a correction of an established view.

312. Consultant: 'Stores that moved their checkout counters to the rear of the shop reported higher average purchase totals, so relocating checkout counters to the rear increases what each customer spends.' Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument?
     • The relocated stores kept the same number of staff at the checkout counters.
     • Customers in the relocated stores walked past more merchandise on their way to pay, and stores that left counters near the entrance saw no change in purchase totals.
     • The relocation required several weeks of construction in each store.
     • Some customers said they found the new layout confusing at first.

     Correct answer: Customers in the relocated stores walked past more merchandise on their way to pay, and stores that left counters near the entrance saw no change in purchase totals.

     The strongest support is that customers passed more merchandise on the way to pay while stores keeping counters near the entrance saw no change. This both supplies a mechanism for the increase and rules out a general trend, reinforcing that the relocation caused the higher totals.

313. Passage: 'No file stored on the secure server may be edited from a personal laptop. The budget spreadsheet was edited from a personal laptop.' Which of the following must be true?
     • The budget spreadsheet is stored on the secure server.
     • Some files on the secure server can be edited from personal laptops.
     • The budget spreadsheet is not stored on the secure server.
     • The personal laptop is connected to the secure server.

     Correct answer: The budget spreadsheet is not stored on the secure server.

     It must be true that the budget spreadsheet is not stored on the secure server. Since no secure-server file may be edited from a personal laptop, and this file was so edited, it cannot be on the secure server.

314. Editor: 'Our readers say they want more in-depth investigative pieces, so devoting a third of each issue to long investigations will raise our subscription renewals.' Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
     • Investigative pieces are more expensive to produce than other articles.
     • Readers' stated desire for more investigative pieces reflects what will actually keep them subscribing.
     • Competing magazines publish few investigative pieces.
     • The magazine currently devotes less than a third of each issue to investigations.

     Correct answer: Readers' stated desire for more investigative pieces reflects what will actually keep them subscribing.

     The argument assumes that readers' stated desire reflects what will actually keep them subscribing. The leap from what readers say they want to higher renewals fails if the stated preference does not translate into renewal behavior, so this bridge must be assumed.

315. Passage: 'The essay begins by celebrating a city's ambitious new library, but its remaining pages dwell on cost overruns, delayed opening dates, and shrinking book budgets, closing with a call for tighter oversight.' The author's overall attitude toward the library project is best described as which of the following?
     • Largely critical despite initial praise.
     • Wholly enthusiastic.
     • Completely indifferent.
     • Confused and self-contradictory.

     Correct answer: Largely critical despite initial praise.

     The author's attitude is best described as largely critical despite initial praise. The opening celebration is brief, while most of the essay catalogs problems and ends with a call for oversight, so the dominant tone is critical.

316. Pundit: 'The new trade policy was introduced last year, and exports have risen since then, so the policy increased exports.' This reasoning is most vulnerable to which of the following criticisms?
     • It relies on the testimony of an interested party.
     • It attacks the character of those who oppose the policy.
     • It draws a conclusion about all exports from a single product category.
     • It assumes that because one event followed another, the first caused the second.

     Correct answer: It assumes that because one event followed another, the first caused the second.

     The reasoning is most vulnerable to the criticism that it assumes that because one event followed another, the first caused the second. Exports rising after the policy does not establish that the policy caused the rise, a classic post hoc error.

317. Passage: 'Although smartphone cameras have made high-quality photography accessible to nearly everyone, professional photographers argue that technical skill matters less than the trained eye for composition and timing that experience provides.' Which of the following best states the main idea?
     • Smartphone cameras have made professional photographers unnecessary.
     • Professional cameras produce sharper images than smartphones.
     • Composition is the only skill that matters in photography.
     • Wide access to capable cameras has not eliminated the value of a photographer's experienced judgment.

     Correct answer: Wide access to capable cameras has not eliminated the value of a photographer's experienced judgment.

     The main idea is that wide access to capable cameras has not eliminated the value of a photographer's experienced judgment. The passage concedes that smartphones democratized photography but stresses that experience and an eye for composition still matter.

318. Operations manager: 'We should adopt the supplier in the neighboring country because its parts cost less than our current supplier's.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this recommendation?
     • The neighboring supplier has been in business for over a decade.
     • Shipping the parts across the border adds delays and fees that exceed the savings on the parts themselves.
     • The current supplier raised its prices two years ago.
     • Other companies have switched to the neighboring supplier.

     Correct answer: Shipping the parts across the border adds delays and fees that exceed the savings on the parts themselves.

     The recommendation is most weakened by the fact that border shipping delays and fees exceed the savings on the parts. This shows the cheaper parts do not actually reduce total cost, defeating the rationale for switching.

319. Argument: 'Some say our new fee structure has driven away customers. Yet our customer count has grown every month since the fees took effect. Therefore, the claim that the fees drove customers away is unfounded.' In this argument, what is the role of the statement that the customer count has grown every month?
     • It is evidence offered to rebut a claim the author rejects.
     • It is the main conclusion the argument seeks to establish.
     • It is an objection the author goes on to concede.
     • It is an assumption the argument leaves unstated.

     Correct answer: It is evidence offered to rebut a claim the author rejects.

     The statement about monthly growth in customer count is evidence offered to rebut a claim the author rejects. The author cites the rising count as support against the assertion that the fees drove customers away, which is the conclusion.

320. Passage: 'Every shipment cleared for export carries a stamped certificate. The container at dock six has no stamped certificate.' Which of the following must be true?
     • The container at dock six was cleared for export.
     • Some cleared shipments lack stamped certificates.
     • All containers without certificates are at dock six.
     • The container at dock six was not cleared for export.

     Correct answer: The container at dock six was not cleared for export.

     It must be true that the container at dock six was not cleared for export. Every cleared shipment carries a stamped certificate, so a container lacking one cannot have been cleared.

321. Nutritionist: 'People who eat breakfast at home tend to weigh less than those who skip it, so encouraging employees to eat breakfast at home will lower their weight.' Which of the following would be most useful to evaluate this argument?
     • Whether the company cafeteria serves breakfast.
     • How many employees currently eat breakfast at home.
     • Whether people who eat breakfast at home also tend to follow other healthy habits that lower weight.
     • What foods are most commonly eaten at breakfast.

     Correct answer: Whether people who eat breakfast at home also tend to follow other healthy habits that lower weight.

     It would be most useful to know whether home-breakfast eaters also follow other healthy habits that lower weight. If they do, those habits, not the breakfast itself, could explain the lower weight, which directly tests the causal claim.

322. Passage: 'The chapter first lays out the standard model of how memories are stored, then presents recent experiments that the model cannot account for, and finally sketches a revised model that fits the new findings.' The passage is organized in which of the following ways?
     • By presenting an established account, introducing evidence that challenges it, and proposing a revision.
     • By comparing two equally supported theories without favoring either.
     • By describing an experiment and listing its practical applications.
     • By tracing the historical careers of several scientists.

     Correct answer: By presenting an established account, introducing evidence that challenges it, and proposing a revision.

     The passage is organized by presenting an established account, introducing challenging evidence, and proposing a revision. It moves from the standard model to experiments it cannot explain and then to a revised model, matching this structure.

323. App developer: 'Adding a dark-mode setting will increase the time users spend in our app, because many users have requested dark mode.' The argument assumes which of the following?
     • Dark mode is difficult to build into the existing app.
     • Competing apps do not yet offer dark mode.
     • Users who requested dark mode will spend more time in the app once it is available.
     • Dark mode reduces battery consumption on most phones.

     Correct answer: Users who requested dark mode will spend more time in the app once it is available.

     The argument assumes that users who requested dark mode will spend more time in the app once it is available. A request for a feature does not guarantee greater usage, so the argument depends on that connection holding.

324. Passage: 'Wind turbines generate electricity without burning fuel, but constructing and transporting their massive components consumes considerable energy, so a turbine must operate for months before it offsets the energy used to build it.' Which of the following can be most properly inferred?
     • Wind turbines never offset the energy used to build them.
     • A turbine that operates only briefly may not offset the energy used to build it.
     • Building turbines consumes more energy than they will ever produce.
     • Wind power is less efficient than fossil-fuel power.

     Correct answer: A turbine that operates only briefly may not offset the energy used to build it.

     The properly inferred statement is that a turbine operating only briefly may not offset the energy used to build it. Since offsetting takes months of operation, a turbine running for less time would not reach that break-even point.

325. Speaker: 'Our two top-performing salespeople both attended elite universities, so hiring graduates of elite universities will improve our sales team.' Which flaw does this argument commit?
     • It rejects a claim solely because of who made it.
     • It draws a broad conclusion from an unrepresentative sample of two cases.
     • It assumes a cause based merely on a sequence of events.
     • It treats the absence of disproof as proof.

     Correct answer: It draws a broad conclusion from an unrepresentative sample of two cases.

     The argument draws a broad conclusion from an unrepresentative sample of two cases. Two top performers from elite schools cannot support a general rule about all such graduates, so the sample is far too small to justify the hiring strategy.

326. Manager: 'We should switch our team to a four-day workweek because the design department tried it and reported higher output.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?
     • The design department has the fewest members of any team.
     • The four-day week is popular with employees across the company.
     • The design department's work differs greatly from other teams' work, and its output gains came from a temporary surge in design projects.
     • Other companies have adopted four-day weeks in recent years.

     Correct answer: The design department's work differs greatly from other teams' work, and its output gains came from a temporary surge in design projects.

     The argument is most weakened by the fact that the design department's work differs greatly and its gains came from a temporary project surge. This shows the result may not transfer to other teams and may not even reflect the schedule, undercutting the recommendation.

327. Passage: 'Only employees who completed the safety orientation were issued a building access card. Renata was issued a building access card.' What can be properly inferred about Renata?
     • Renata did not complete the safety orientation.
     • Renata completed the safety orientation.
     • Renata is a new employee.
     • Renata works in the building's safety department.

     Correct answer: Renata completed the safety orientation.

     It can be inferred that Renata completed the safety orientation. Since only those who completed it received an access card, and Renata received one, she must have completed the orientation.

328. Critic: 'The proposed novel cannot be worthwhile, because the publisher who is releasing it has put out several poorly reviewed books.' This reasoning is most vulnerable to which of the following criticisms?
     • It generalizes from too few examples.
     • It assumes a claim is true because it has not been disproved.
     • It confuses correlation with causation.
     • It judges the novel's merit solely by the reputation of its source rather than its own qualities.

     Correct answer: It judges the novel's merit solely by the reputation of its source rather than its own qualities.

     The reasoning is most vulnerable to the criticism that it judges the novel solely by the reputation of its source rather than its own qualities. The merit of a book cannot be settled by the publisher's track record, which is a source-based rather than a substantive judgment.

329. Passage: 'For years, planners assumed that wider roads would ease traffic congestion. Studies now show that wider roads often attract more drivers, leaving congestion as bad as before, a pattern researchers call induced demand.' What is the function of the second sentence?
     • It introduces evidence that overturns the assumption stated in the first sentence.
     • It restates the assumption described in the first sentence.
     • It offers a specific example supporting the first sentence.
     • It draws a practical recommendation from the first sentence.

     Correct answer: It introduces evidence that overturns the assumption stated in the first sentence.

     The second sentence introduces evidence that overturns the assumption stated in the first. It presents study findings about induced demand that contradict the long-held belief that wider roads ease congestion.

330. Logistics director: 'Routing our trucks through the new highway bypass will shorten delivery times because the bypass has a higher speed limit than the route we now use.' Which of the following is an assumption the argument depends on?
     • The bypass was built more recently than the current route.
     • The bypass is not so congested or longer in distance that it offsets the higher speed limit.
     • Drivers prefer the bypass to the current route.
     • The bypass charges no tolls.

     Correct answer: The bypass is not so congested or longer in distance that it offsets the higher speed limit.

     The argument assumes that the bypass is not so congested or longer in distance that it offsets the higher speed limit. A higher speed limit shortens travel only if heavier traffic or greater distance does not cancel out the benefit, so this must be assumed.

331. Passage: 'A reader might reasonably wonder whether the author's enthusiasm for renewable energy leads her to understate its costs. Throughout the article, however, she devotes equal space to subsidies, storage limits, and land use, presenting figures from sources on both sides of the debate.' The author's approach in this article is best described as which of the following?
     • One-sided advocacy for renewable energy.
     • A rejection of renewable energy on cost grounds.
     • A neutral list of facts with no analysis.
     • A balanced treatment that weighs both benefits and drawbacks.

     Correct answer: A balanced treatment that weighs both benefits and drawbacks.

     The author's approach is best described as a balanced treatment that weighs both benefits and drawbacks. Although the reader might suspect bias, the passage notes equal space given to costs and use of sources on both sides, indicating balance.

332. Health official: 'Counties that fluoridated their water supply reported fewer cavities among children, so fluoridating water reduces childhood cavities.' Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument?
     • Among counties with otherwise similar dental care and diet, only those that fluoridated their water saw cavity rates fall.
     • Fluoridation is inexpensive to implement at the county level.
     • Some parents in the fluoridated counties also gave their children fluoride tablets.
     • Dentists generally support water fluoridation.

     Correct answer: Among counties with otherwise similar dental care and diet, only those that fluoridated their water saw cavity rates fall.

     The argument is most strengthened by the finding that, among counties with similar dental care and diet, only the fluoridated ones saw cavity rates fall. By holding other factors constant, this isolates fluoridation as the likely cause of the decline.

333. Passage: 'No medication approved before 2015 is included in the updated treatment guidelines. The drug prescribed for this patient appears in the updated treatment guidelines.' Which of the following must be true?
     • The drug prescribed for this patient was approved before 2015.
     • The patient was treated before 2015.
     • All drugs approved after 2015 are in the guidelines.
     • The drug prescribed for this patient was not approved before 2015.

     Correct answer: The drug prescribed for this patient was not approved before 2015.

     It must be true that the drug was not approved before 2015. Since no pre-2015 medication is in the guidelines, and this drug appears in them, it cannot be one approved before 2015.

334. Marketing lead: 'Customers who follow our brand on social media spend more per year than those who do not, so persuading more customers to follow us on social media will raise their annual spending.' Which of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?
     • Customers who already spend the most are simply the most likely to follow brands they buy from often.
     • The brand posts to social media several times each day.
     • Some followers interact with the brand's posts more than others.
     • The brand has gained many new followers this year.

     Correct answer: Customers who already spend the most are simply the most likely to follow brands they buy from often.

     The argument is most weakened by the point that the highest-spending customers are the most likely to follow brands they buy from. This reverses the assumed causal direction, suggesting heavy spending leads to following rather than following leading to spending.

335. Passage: 'The lecture opens with a striking statistic about ocean plastic, uses it to pose the question of where the plastic originates, and devotes the rest of the talk to tracing the major sources.' Which of the following best describes the function of the opening statistic?
     • It serves as the conclusion the lecture defends.
     • It concedes a weakness in the lecturer's position.
     • It provides the final piece of evidence in the lecture's argument.
     • It captures attention and sets up the central question the lecture then answers.

     Correct answer: It captures attention and sets up the central question the lecture then answers.

     The opening statistic captures attention and sets up the central question the lecture then answers. It introduces the topic dramatically and frames the question about plastic's origins that the rest of the talk addresses.

336. Town council: 'Installing a roundabout at the busy intersection will reduce accidents there, because roundabouts force drivers to slow down.' Which of the following would be most useful to know in evaluating this plan?
     • Whether the types of accidents common at this intersection are the kind that slower speeds actually prevent.
     • How much the roundabout will cost to build.
     • How many other intersections in the town have roundabouts.
     • Whether drivers in the town favor roundabouts over traffic signals.

     Correct answer: Whether the types of accidents common at this intersection are the kind that slower speeds actually prevent.

     It would be most useful to know whether the accidents common at this intersection are the kind that slower speeds prevent. If the accidents stem from causes unaffected by speed, the roundabout may not reduce them, so this directly tests the plan's reasoning.

337. Question: What is the value of the integer $n$? Statement (1): $n$ is a multiple of 7 between 20 and 30. Statement (2): $n$ is odd.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient

     Both statements together are sufficient. Statement (1) alone allows 21 or 28, since both are multiples of 7 between 20 and 30, so it is not sufficient. Statement (2) alone permits countless odd values. Together, the only odd choice from 21 and 28 is 21, fixing $n$.

338. Question: Is the integer $t$ a multiple of 12? Statement (1): $t$ is a multiple of 6. Statement (2): $t$ is a multiple of 4.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient

     Both statements together are sufficient because a number that is a multiple of both 6 and 4 is a multiple of their least common multiple, 12, while each alone permits values such as 6 or 8 that are not multiples of 12.

339. Question: What is the value of $c$? Statement (1): $7c = 56$. Statement (2): $c$ lies between 4 and 12.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because $7c = 56$ gives $c$ equal to 8. Statement (2) alone only places $c$ between 4 and 12, allowing many values, so it is not sufficient.

340. Question: Is the integer $d$ positive? Statement (1): The absolute value of $d$ is 9. Statement (2): $d - 3$ is greater than zero.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not

     Statement (2) alone is sufficient because $d - 3$ greater than zero means $d$ exceeds 3 and is therefore positive. Statement (1) alone allows $d$ equal to 9 or negative 9, leaving the sign undetermined.

341. Question: How many chairs are in the room? Statement (1): There are 5 fewer chairs than tables. Statement (2): There are 18 tables and 13 chairs in the room.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not

     Statement (2) alone is sufficient because it states directly that there are 13 chairs. Statement (1) alone gives only a relationship to the number of tables, which is unknown, so it is not sufficient.

342. Question: What is the value of the integer $g$? Statement (1): $g$ is a cube of a positive integer between 5 and 30. Statement (2): $g$ is even.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient

     Both statements together are sufficient. Statement (1) alone allows 8 ($2^3$) or 27 ($3^3$), since both cubes lie between 5 and 30, so it is not sufficient. Statement (2) alone permits many even values. Together, the only even choice from 8 and 27 is 8, fixing $g$.

343. Question: Is the sum of two integers $a$ and $b$ odd? Statement (1): $a$ is even. Statement (2): $b$ is odd.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient

     Both statements together are sufficient because an even plus an odd integer is always odd, while each statement alone leaves the other addend's parity unknown.

344. Question: What is the value of the two-digit integer $h$? Statement (1): The units digit of $h$ is 6. Statement (2): $h$ is a multiple of 7 with units digit 6.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not

     Statement (2) alone is sufficient because the only two-digit multiple of 7 ending in 6 is 56, fixing $h$. Statement (1) alone permits 16, 26, 36, and more, so it is not sufficient.

345. Question: Is the fraction $\frac{x}{y}$ greater than 1? Statement (1): $x$ is greater than $y$. Statement (2): Both $x$ and $y$ are positive.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient

     Both statements together are sufficient because when both values are positive and $x$ exceeds $y$, dividing the larger by the smaller exceeds 1; alone, $x$ greater than $y$ could involve negatives that reverse the inequality, and positivity alone says nothing about which is larger.

346. Question: What is the value of $x$? Statement (1): $x + 9 = 14$. Statement (2): $x^2 = 25$ and $x$ is positive.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient

     Correct answer: EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Each statement alone is sufficient because the first gives $x$ equal to 5, and the second gives $x$ equal to 5 once the positive value is selected; either fact determines $x$.

347. Question: What is the area of a rectangle? Statement (1): The rectangle's length is 9 and its width is 4. Statement (2): The rectangle's diagonal is 5.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because area equals length times width, so $9 \cdot 4$ gives 36. Statement (2) alone gives only the diagonal, which does not determine the individual dimensions or the area.

348. A Graphics Interpretation chart displays two bars where the second bar reaches three times the height of the first. To complete 'The second value is ____ the first value,' which phrase is correct?
     • One third of
     • Equal to
     • Three times
     • Half of

     Correct answer: Three times

     The correct phrase is three times. Because bar height is proportional to the quantity shown, a bar three times as tall represents a value three times as large as the shorter bar.

349. A Graphics Interpretation scatterplot shows points falling consistently from the upper left to the lower right. To complete 'The two variables show a ____ relationship,' which phrase fits?
     • Negative
     • Positive
     • Perfectly random
     • Constant

     Correct answer: Negative

     The phrase that fits is negative. A downward pattern means that as one variable increases the other tends to decrease, which describes a negative relationship between the two variables.

350. A Graphics Interpretation pie chart shows segments of 45 percent, 35 percent, 12 percent, and 8 percent. To complete 'The two smallest segments together make up ____ of the whole,' which value is correct?
     • 12 percent
     • 20 percent
     • 35 percent
     • 80 percent

     Correct answer: 20 percent

     The correct value is 20 percent. The two smallest segments are 12 percent and 8 percent, and their sum is 20 percent, so together they make up one fifth of the whole.

351. A Graphics Interpretation bar chart shows four quarters of sales, and the fourth-quarter bar is the shortest of the four. To complete 'The quarter with the lowest sales was ____,' which value is correct?
     • The first quarter
     • The second quarter
     • The third quarter
     • The fourth quarter

     Correct answer: The fourth quarter

     The correct value is the fourth quarter. The shortest bar represents the smallest quantity, so the quarter with the lowest sales is the fourth quarter, where the bar is shortest.

352. A Graphics Interpretation chart plots a quantity that decreases by the same amount each year, producing a straight downward line. The constant year-to-year drop indicates which of the following?
     • The quantity is growing exponentially
     • The quantity is decreasing at a steady, linear rate
     • The quantity stays the same
     • The quantity increases then decreases

     Correct answer: The quantity is decreasing at a steady, linear rate

     It indicates that the quantity is decreasing at a steady, linear rate. A straight line with equal drops each year reflects a constant rate of decline, the hallmark of a linear decrease.

353. A Graphics Interpretation chart presents a line whose slope grows steeper each year as the value rises faster and faster. This accelerating rise is best described as which of the following?
     • A linear increase
     • A steady decrease
     • Exponential-style growth
     • No change over time

     Correct answer: Exponential-style growth

     It is best described as exponential-style growth. When a value rises by an ever-larger amount each period so the curve steepens, the pattern reflects growth that accelerates rather than a constant linear rate.

354. A Graphics Interpretation chart uses color shading on a map so that darker regions represent larger values. A region shaded the darkest therefore represents which of the following?
     • The smallest value on the map
     • A missing value
     • The largest value among the shaded regions
     • A negative value

     Correct answer: The largest value among the shaded regions

     It represents the largest value among the shaded regions. When darker shading is mapped to higher quantities, the darkest region corresponds to the greatest value shown on the map.

355. A Graphics Interpretation stacked area chart shows total subscriptions split among three plans over time, and the combined area widens each year. The widening total area indicates which of the following?
     • Total subscriptions are declining
     • Total subscriptions across all plans are growing over time
     • One plan replaced the others
     • The data is missing

     Correct answer: Total subscriptions across all plans are growing over time

     It indicates that total subscriptions across all plans are growing over time. In a stacked area chart the overall height represents the sum of all components, so a widening total area reflects a rising combined total.

356. A Table Analysis table lists 35 loans with columns for principal and interest rate. A statement claims that the loan with the largest principal also charges the highest interest rate. How should the test taker verify this?
     • Sort by principal to find the largest loan, then check whether that loan also has the highest interest rate
     • Add principal and interest rate together
     • Assume larger loans always cost more
     • Sort only by interest rate and stop

     Correct answer: Sort by principal to find the largest loan, then check whether that loan also has the highest interest rate

     The test taker should sort by principal to find the largest loan, then check whether that loan also has the highest interest rate. This confirms whether the size leader is truly the rate leader rather than assuming the two rankings coincide.

357. A Table Analysis table reports each factory's output and its number of workers. To compare factories on output per worker, the test taker should do which of the following?
     • Sort only by total output
     • Divide each factory's output by its number of workers and compare the results
     • Add output and workers together
     • Count the number of factories

     Correct answer: Divide each factory's output by its number of workers and compare the results

     The test taker should divide each factory's output by its number of workers and compare the results. Output per worker is that ratio, so it must be computed for each factory rather than read from a single sorted column.

358. A Table Analysis table has 49 numeric entries in one column. A statement concerns the median of that column. After sorting the column, the median is located at which position?
     • The first value
     • The 25th value, the middle of the 49 sorted values
     • The last value
     • The 49th value

     Correct answer: The 25th value, the middle of the 49 sorted values

     The median is the 25th value. With 49 sorted values the single middle position is the 25th, so that entry is the median of the column.

359. A Table Analysis table lists 28 vehicles with columns for price and mileage. A statement claims that at least three vehicles are priced under 5,000 dollars. To check this efficiently, the test taker should do which of the following?
     • Sort by price and count how many entries fall below 5,000 dollars
     • Sum all the prices together
     • Find the average price only
     • Sort by mileage instead

     Correct answer: Sort by price and count how many entries fall below 5,000 dollars

     The test taker should sort by price and count how many entries fall below 5,000 dollars. Sorting the price column groups the low values together, making it easy to count whether at least three fall under the threshold.

360. A Table Analysis statement claims that a numeric column has no value appearing more than once. Sorting that column helps confirm the claim because it does which of the following?
     • Changes any repeated values into unique ones
     • Places identical values next to each other so any repeats become easy to spot
     • Removes the duplicate entries automatically
     • Hides the column from view

     Correct answer: Places identical values next to each other so any repeats become easy to spot

     It places identical values next to each other so any repeats become easy to spot. After sorting, equal entries would sit adjacent, so the absence of neighboring matches confirms that no value repeats.

361. A Table Analysis table reports sales figures for 12 months across three years. A statement claims that total annual sales rose each year. The best way to check this is to do which of the following?
     • Read only the first month of each year
     • Sort the months alphabetically
     • Compute each year's twelve-month total and compare consecutive years
     • Find the single highest month overall

     Correct answer: Compute each year's twelve-month total and compare consecutive years

     The best way is to compute each year's twelve-month total and compare consecutive years. Year-over-year growth depends on the full annual totals, so the test taker must sum each year and check that each total exceeds the prior one.

362. A Table Analysis table includes a column of percentages and a column of raw counts. A statement claims the category with the highest percentage also has the highest raw count. Why might this fail even after sorting?
     • Percentages cannot appear in tables
     • Counts can never be sorted
     • A large percentage of a small group can be a smaller count than a modest percentage of a large group
     • Raw counts are always equal

     Correct answer: A large percentage of a small group can be a smaller count than a modest percentage of a large group

     It might fail because a large percentage of a small group can be a smaller count than a modest percentage of a large group. Percentage and raw count measure different bases, so the leader in one column need not lead in the other and must be checked.

363. A Table Analysis table lists 40 transactions with an amount column. A statement claims more than 75 percent of the transactions are below the mean amount. Why is this claim possible despite involving the mean?
     • Because the mean must always equal the median
     • Because amounts cannot be sorted
     • Because the mean is always the smallest value
     • Because a few very large amounts can pull the mean above most of the values

     Correct answer: Because a few very large amounts can pull the mean above most of the values

     It is possible because a few very large amounts can pull the mean above most of the values. Unlike the median, the mean is sensitive to extreme high values, so a right-skewed set can leave most entries below the mean.

364. A Two-Part Analysis question states that $x - y = 6$ and asks the test taker to select a value for $x$ and a value for $y$ from one shared list. If the list includes 4 and 10, which pairing satisfies the equation?
     • X equals 10 and y equals 4
     • X equals 4 and y equals 10
     • X equals 4 and y equals 4
     • X equals 10 and y equals 10

     Correct answer: X equals 10 and y equals 4

     The pairing $x$ equals 10 and $y$ equals 4 satisfies the equation, because $10 - 4 = 6$, meeting the stated difference.

365. A Two-Part Analysis problem gives the relationship that $p = 3q$ and asks for one value of $p$ and one value of $q$ from a shared list. If $q$ equals 5 is chosen, which value of $p$ is correct?
     • P equals 8
     • P equals 5
     • P equals 2
     • P equals 15

     Correct answer: P equals 15

     The correct value is $p$ equals 15, because $p = 3q$, and $3 \cdot 5 = 15$.

366. A Two-Part Analysis scenario states that a company makes two products totaling 150 units, with product M at least three times product N, and asks for one value for M and one for N from a shared list. Which pair satisfies both conditions?
     • M equals 50 and N equals 100
     • M equals 75 and N equals 75
     • M equals 120 and N equals 30
     • M equals 90 and N equals 40

     Correct answer: M equals 120 and N equals 30

     The pair M equals 120 and N equals 30 satisfies both conditions. They sum to 150, and M at 120 is four times N at 30, meeting the at-least-three-times requirement; the other pairs fail to total 150 or violate the ratio.

367. A Two-Part Analysis question asks the test taker to choose, from one shared list, an assumption the argument relies on and a fact that, if false, would break the argument. What does this design require?
     • Selecting the same option for both columns always
     • Choosing only the assumption
     • Picking two options at random
     • Evaluating each candidate against its distinct logical role within the same argument

     Correct answer: Evaluating each candidate against its distinct logical role within the same argument

     It requires evaluating each candidate against its distinct logical role within the same argument. The two columns ask about different logical functions, so each selection must be judged against the role its column specifies.

368. A Two-Part Analysis question provides a list of integers and asks the test taker to choose one value that is a perfect square and one value that is prime, from the shared list. What must hold for the answer to be correct?
     • Both selections must be the same number
     • Only the prime selection matters
     • Both selections must be prime
     • The first selection must be a perfect square and the second must be prime

     Correct answer: The first selection must be a perfect square and the second must be prime

     For the answer to be correct, the first selection must be a perfect square and the second must be prime. Each column carries its own property, so the two chosen values must individually satisfy the perfect-square and prime conditions.

369. A Two-Part Analysis problem gives the relationship $5x = y + 3$ and asks the test taker to choose a value of $x$ and a value of $y$ from one shared list so the equation holds. If $x$ equals 2 is chosen, which value of $y$ is correct?
     • Y equals 7
     • Y equals 10
     • Y equals 13
     • Y equals 5

     Correct answer: Y equals 7

     The correct value is $y$ equals 7, because $5 \cdot 2 = 10$, and 10 must equal $y + 3$, which gives $y$ equal to 7.

370. A Two-Part Analysis case asks the test taker to identify, from one shared list, the strongest reason to adopt a policy and the strongest reason to reject it. What is essential about these two selections?
     • They must be identical statements
     • Only the adopt reason is scored
     • They are unrelated to the policy
     • Each plays an opposite role, adopt or reject, and must be weighed against the policy's merits

     Correct answer: Each plays an opposite role, adopt or reject, and must be weighed against the policy's merits

     It is essential that each plays an opposite role, adopt or reject, and must be weighed against the policy's merits. The two columns capture opposing stances on the policy, so each candidate is judged by how strongly it supports its assigned role.

371. A Multi-Source Reasoning set provides an inventory tab and a supplier-lead-time tab. A question asks when a product will be back in stock. Answering correctly requires the test taker to do which of the following?
     • Read only the inventory tab
     • Use only the lead-time tab
     • Assume the product is already in stock
     • Combine the current inventory status with the supplier's lead time from the other tab

     Correct answer: Combine the current inventory status with the supplier's lead time from the other tab

     It requires the test taker to combine the current inventory status with the supplier's lead time from the other tab. Determining the restock date depends on both how much stock remains and how long replenishment takes, information split across the two tabs.

372. A Multi-Source Reasoning set has a tab of meeting minutes and a tab of project budgets. A question asks whether a decision recorded in the minutes stayed within budget. The test taker should do which of the following?
     • Read only the minutes tab
     • Assume every decision stayed within budget
     • Sort the minutes by date
     • Compare the decision's stated cost in the minutes against the budget figures on the other tab

     Correct answer: Compare the decision's stated cost in the minutes against the budget figures on the other tab

     The test taker should compare the decision's stated cost in the minutes against the budget figures on the other tab. Judging whether the decision stayed within budget requires checking the recorded cost against the relevant budget, drawing on both tabs.

373. A Multi-Source Reasoning set lists several conclusions and asks the test taker to mark each as supported or not supported by the sources. A conclusion is consistent with the sources but also requires an outside assumption the tabs never state. How should it be marked?
     • Supported, because it is consistent
     • Supported, because it sounds plausible
     • Not relevant to the task
     • Not supported, because it depends on information the sources do not provide

     Correct answer: Not supported, because it depends on information the sources do not provide

     It should be marked not supported, because it depends on information the sources do not provide. A conclusion that needs an unstated outside assumption is not established by the data alone, so the tabs do not support it.

374. A Multi-Source Reasoning set includes a tab of customer survey results and a tab of product specifications. A question asks whether customer complaints align with a known specification limitation. The best strategy is to do which of the following?
     • Read only the survey tab
     • Assume the complaints are unfounded
     • Average the survey scores and ignore the specs
     • Match the complaints in the survey tab against the relevant specification on the other tab

     Correct answer: Match the complaints in the survey tab against the relevant specification on the other tab

     The best strategy is to match the complaints in the survey tab against the relevant specification on the other tab. Determining alignment requires comparing what customers report with the actual product limits, which means integrating both tabs.

375. Question: What is the value of the integer $t$? Statement (1): $t$ is a positive multiple of 7 that is less than 15. Statement (2): $t$ is greater than 5.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because the only positive multiple of 7 below 15 is 7, fixing $t$. Statement (2) alone only says $t$ exceeds 5, which allows many values, so it is not sufficient.

376. Question: Is the integer $j$ divisible by 12? Statement (1): $j$ is divisible by 6. Statement (2): $j$ is divisible by 8.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient

     Both statements together are sufficient because a number divisible by both 6 and 8 is divisible by their least common multiple, 24, and hence by 12; each statement alone allows values such as 6 or 8 that are not divisible by 12.

377. Question: How many chairs are in the room? Statement (1): If 6 chairs are added, there will be 30 chairs. Statement (2): There are fewer than 40 chairs.
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because 30 chairs after adding 6 means the room started with 24. Statement (2) alone only gives an upper bound, which allows many counts, so it is not sufficient.

378. Question: What is the average (arithmetic mean) of $d$ and $e$? Statement (1): $d + e = 48$. Statement (2): $d$ is 6 more than $e$.
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because the average of $d$ and $e$ equals their sum divided by 2, which is 24. Statement (2) alone gives only a difference, not a sum, so it cannot determine the average.

379. Question: Is the product $hk$ positive? Statement (1): $h$ is less than 0. Statement (2): $k$ is less than 0.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient

     Both statements together are sufficient because a negative times a negative yields a positive product; each statement alone leaves the other factor's sign unknown, so neither alone settles the sign of the product.

380. Question: What is the value of $x$? Statement (1): $x$ is the largest prime less than 30. Statement (2): $x$ is odd.
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because the largest prime below 30 is 29, fixing $x$. Statement (2) alone says only that $x$ is odd, which permits many values, so it is not sufficient.

381. Question: What is the area of a square? Statement (1): The perimeter of the square is 32. Statement (2): One side of the square is 8.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient

     Correct answer: EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Each statement alone is sufficient because a perimeter of 32 gives a side of 8 and thus an area of 64, and a side of 8 directly gives an area of 64; either fact determines the answer.

382. Question: How old is Lena now? Statement (1): In 8 years Lena will be three times as old as she is now. Statement (2): Lena is younger than 10.
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because three times her current age equals her current age plus 8, giving an age of 4. Statement (2) alone only sets an upper bound, which allows several ages, so it is not sufficient.

383. Question: Is the number $s$ a multiple of 21? Statement (1): $s$ is a multiple of 7. Statement (2): $s$ is a multiple of 3.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient

     Both statements together are sufficient because a number that is a multiple of both 7 and 3 must be a multiple of 21; each statement alone permits values such as 7 or 3 that are not multiples of 21.

384. Question: Is $x$ negative? Statement (1): The absolute value of $x$ equals $-x$. Statement (2): $x$ is not zero, and the absolute value of $x$ equals $-x$.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not

     Statement (2) alone is sufficient because if the absolute value of $x$ equals $-x$ and $x$ is not zero, $x$ must be negative. Statement (1) alone allows $x = 0$, which is not negative, so it is not sufficient.

385. Question: Is the average (arithmetic mean) of $r$, $s$, and $t$ less than 20? Statement (1): $r + s + t$ equals 54. Statement (2): each of $r$, $s$, and $t$ is less than 25.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because the mean equals the sum divided by 3, giving 18, which is less than 20. Statement (2) alone only caps each value below 25, which allows a mean above 20, so it is not sufficient.

386. A Graphics Interpretation scatterplot shows points falling steadily from the upper left to the lower right. To complete the statement 'As one variable increases, the other tends to ____,' which choice is correct?
     • Increase
     • Decrease
     • Stay exactly constant
     • Double

     Correct answer: Decrease

     The correct choice is decrease. A downward pattern from upper left to lower right means that as one variable rises the other tends to fall, indicating a negative relationship between the two variables.

387. A Graphics Interpretation bar chart compares six teams' output, and the Delta team's bar is the shortest. To complete 'The team with the lowest output is ____,' which choice is correct?
     • Alpha
     • Beta
     • Delta
     • Gamma

     Correct answer: Delta

     The correct choice is Delta. Because bar height represents the quantity shown, the shortest bar marks the smallest value, so the Delta team has the lowest output among the six.

388. A Graphics Interpretation pie chart shows budget shares of 45 percent, 30 percent, 15 percent, and 10 percent. To complete 'The two smallest categories together make up ____ of the budget,' which value is correct?
     • 25 percent
     • 40 percent
     • 45 percent
     • 30 percent

     Correct answer: 25 percent

     The correct value is 25 percent. The two smallest slices are 15 percent and 10 percent, and their sum is 25 percent, so together those two categories make up 25 percent of the budget.

389. A Graphics Interpretation bar chart shows that the marketing budget bar is three times the height of the research budget bar. To complete 'The marketing budget is ____ the research budget,' which phrase is correct?
     • One-third of
     • Equal to
     • Triple
     • Half of

     Correct answer: Triple

     The correct phrase is triple. Because bar height is proportional to the amount shown, a bar three times as tall represents three times the value, so the marketing budget is triple the research budget.

390. A Graphics Interpretation box plot shows the median line positioned closer to the bottom of the box than to the top. To complete 'This placement suggests the data are ____,' which choice is correct?
     • Skewed toward higher values (right-skewed)
     • Perfectly symmetric
     • Skewed toward lower values (left-skewed)
     • Entirely identical

     Correct answer: Skewed toward higher values (right-skewed)

     The correct choice is skewed toward higher values. When the median sits low in the box, the upper portion of the data is more spread out, indicating a longer tail toward higher values and a right-skewed distribution.

391. A Graphics Interpretation chart plots a running total of complaints that stays flat for several weeks and never declines. To complete 'A flat stretch in a cumulative chart means that during those weeks ____,' which choice is correct?
     • The total decreased
     • No new complaints were added
     • Complaints doubled
     • The data is wrong

     Correct answer: No new complaints were added

     The correct choice is no new complaints were added. In a cumulative chart a flat segment means the running total did not change, so during that stretch no additional complaints were recorded.

392. A Graphics Interpretation chart uses a left axis for revenue in dollars and a right axis for units sold, each with a different scale. To complete 'To read units sold for a given month, the test taker should use ____,' which choice is correct?
     • The left axis
     • The right axis
     • Either axis interchangeably
     • Neither axis

     Correct answer: The right axis

     The correct choice is the right axis. Because units sold is mapped to the right axis, reading that series against its own scale on the right yields the accurate value, while the left axis would give a wrong number.

393. A Table Analysis table lists 18 suppliers with columns for unit price and lead time in days. A statement claims that the supplier with the lowest unit price also has the shortest lead time. What is the most efficient way to check this?
     • Sort by unit price to find the cheapest supplier, then check whether that supplier also has the shortest lead time
     • Add unit price and lead time for every supplier
     • Assume cheaper always means faster
     • Sort the supplier names alphabetically

     Correct answer: Sort by unit price to find the cheapest supplier, then check whether that supplier also has the shortest lead time

     The most efficient way is to sort by unit price to find the cheapest supplier, then check whether that supplier also has the shortest lead time. This isolates the price leader and verifies whether it is also the lead-time leader rather than assuming the rankings match.

394. A Table Analysis table of 36 listings includes columns for square footage and number of bedrooms. A statement claims that more than half the listings have at least three bedrooms. Which feature best helps verify this?
     • Renaming the bedroom column
     • Adding a chart to the table
     • Changing the cell background colors
     • The sort feature, which groups the bedroom counts so those with three or more can be tallied

     Correct answer: The sort feature, which groups the bedroom counts so those with three or more can be tallied

     The best feature is the sort feature, which groups the bedroom counts so those with three or more can be tallied. Ordering the bedroom column clusters the qualifying listings together, making it easy to count whether they exceed half of 36.

395. A Table Analysis table lists 22 athletes with columns for height and vertical jump. A statement claims the tallest athlete also has the highest vertical jump. How should the test taker check this?
     • Sort by height to find the tallest athlete, then confirm whether that athlete also has the highest vertical jump
     • Assume taller always jumps higher
     • Sort only by vertical jump and stop
     • Add height and vertical jump together

     Correct answer: Sort by height to find the tallest athlete, then confirm whether that athlete also has the highest vertical jump

     The test taker should sort by height to find the tallest athlete, then confirm whether that athlete also has the highest vertical jump. This verifies whether the height leader is truly the jump leader rather than assuming the two rankings coincide.

396. A Table Analysis table has 33 sorted numeric values, and a statement names the median. After sorting that column, the median sits at which position?
     • The first value
     • The last value
     • The 17th value, the middle of the 33 sorted values
     • The average of the first and last values

     Correct answer: The 17th value, the middle of the 33 sorted values

     The median sits at the 17th value, the middle of the 33 sorted values. With an odd count of 33 entries arranged in order, the single central position is the 17th, which holds the median.

397. A Table Analysis table reports monthly figures for several stores. A statement asks whether any store stayed below 500 in every month listed. To verify, the test taker should do which of the following?
     • Sum each store's monthly figures
     • For the relevant store, confirm its value is below 500 in each month listed
     • Compute each store's average only
     • Sort the months by name

     Correct answer: For the relevant store, confirm its value is below 500 in each month listed

     To verify, the test taker should confirm the store's value is below 500 in each month listed. The claim requires the threshold to hold for every month, so a single average or sum could mask a month that exceeded 500.

398. A Table Analysis table reports each branch's deposits and number of accounts. A statement concerns the average deposit per account. Why can the test taker not answer this by sorting a single existing column?
     • Because sorting is disabled for this table
     • Because average deposit per account is a derived value found by dividing deposits by accounts, which is not shown directly
     • Because deposits always equal accounts
     • Because the table has only one column

     Correct answer: Because average deposit per account is a derived value found by dividing deposits by accounts, which is not shown directly

     The test taker cannot answer by sorting one column because average deposit per account is a derived value found by dividing deposits by accounts, which is not shown directly. The statement targets a ratio, so a single sort of an existing column does not produce it.

399. A Two-Part Analysis question presents one shared list and asks the test taker to select a value for length in one column and a value for width in the other so that a rectangle's area equals 48. What must the two selections satisfy?
     • Their product must equal 48
     • Their sum must equal 48
     • They must be equal to each other
     • Only the length must be chosen

     Correct answer: Their product must equal 48

     The two selections must satisfy that their product equals 48. Because area equals length times width, the chosen length and width have to multiply to 48 for the answer to be correct.

400. A Two-Part Analysis question describes splitting a 240-unit production run between two lines, with Line A producing three times Line B. Selecting one value for Line A and one for Line B from a shared list, which pair is correct?
     • Line A 120 and Line B 120
     • Line A 60 and Line B 180
     • Line A 180 and Line B 60
     • Line A 200 and Line B 40

     Correct answer: Line A 180 and Line B 60

     The correct pair is Line A 180 and Line B 60. The two must total 240, and Line A at 180 is exactly three times Line B at 60; the other pairs either fail to total 240 or violate the three-times condition.

401. A Two-Part Analysis question gives the relationship that the ratio of $m$ to $n$ is 4 to 5 and asks for a value of $m$ in one column and a value of $n$ in the other from a shared list. If $m$ equals 8 is chosen, which value of $n$ is consistent?
     • N equals 5
     • N equals 10
     • N equals 12
     • N equals 4

     Correct answer: N equals 10

     The consistent value is $n$ equals 10. The ratio 4 to 5 means $n$ is $\frac{5}{4}$ of $m$, and $\frac{5}{4}$ of 8 equals 10, so $n$ equals 10 keeps the ratio 4 to 5.

402. A Two-Part Analysis question provides a list of lengths and asks the test taker to choose one piece shorter than 5 meters and one piece longer than 12 meters from the shared list. What must hold for the answer to be correct?
     • Both pieces must be the same length
     • The first selection must be shorter than 5 meters and the second longer than 12 meters
     • Only the longer piece matters
     • Both selections must exceed 12 meters

     Correct answer: The first selection must be shorter than 5 meters and the second longer than 12 meters

     For the answer to be correct, the first selection must be shorter than 5 meters and the second longer than 12 meters. Each column carries its own constraint, so the two chosen pieces must individually satisfy the under-5 and over-12 conditions.

403. A Two-Part Analysis question states that total revenue equals price times quantity and asks the test taker to select a price and a quantity from a shared list that yield a revenue of 600. What must the two selections satisfy?
     • Their product must equal 600
     • Their sum must equal 600
     • They must be equal
     • Only the price must be chosen

     Correct answer: Their product must equal 600

     The two selections must satisfy that their product equals 600. Because revenue equals price times quantity, the chosen price and quantity have to multiply to 600 for the answer to be correct.

404. A Two-Part Analysis prompt asks the test taker to identify, from one shared list, a finding that would confirm a hypothesis and a finding that would refute it. What is essential about these two selections?
     • They must be identical findings
     • Each plays a distinct role, confirm or refute, and must be judged against the hypothesis
     • Only the confirming finding is scored
     • They are unrelated to the hypothesis

     Correct answer: Each plays a distinct role, confirm or refute, and must be judged against the hypothesis

     It is essential that each plays a distinct role, confirm or refute, and must be judged against the hypothesis. The two columns capture opposite effects on the hypothesis, so the test taker weighs each candidate against how it would bear on it.

405. A Two-Part Analysis scenario states that $5x + 2$ equals 32 and asks the test taker to select a value for $x$ in one column and a value for $3x$ in the other from a shared list. Which pair is correct?
     • X equals 6 and 3x equals 18
     • X equals 5 and 3x equals 15
     • X equals 6 and 3x equals 12
     • X equals 4 and 3x equals 12

     Correct answer: X equals 6 and 3x equals 18

     The correct pair is $x$ equals 6 and $3x$ equals 18. Solving $5x + 2 = 32$ gives $x = 6$, so $3x$ is 18; the two selections must reflect this single consistent solution.

406. A Multi-Source Reasoning set has a tab listing each employee's start date and a tab listing each employee's certification expiration date. A question asks which employees need recertification before a stated deadline. Answering correctly depends on doing what?
     • Reading only the start-date tab
     • Assuming all certifications are current
     • Sorting the start dates alphabetically
     • Matching each employee's expiration date from one tab against the stated deadline

     Correct answer: Matching each employee's expiration date from one tab against the stated deadline

     It depends on matching each employee's expiration date from one tab against the stated deadline. Identifying who needs recertification requires comparing each expiration date with the deadline, information that lives on the relevant tab.

407. A Multi-Source Reasoning set provides a budget tab and an actual-spending tab. A question asks whether a department overspent. The best strategy is to do what?
     • Trust the budget figure without checking actuals
     • Read only the actual-spending tab
     • Sort the budget tab by department name
     • Compare the department's actual spending on one tab against its budget on the other

     Correct answer: Compare the department's actual spending on one tab against its budget on the other

     The best strategy is to compare the department's actual spending on one tab against its budget on the other. Judging whether spending exceeded the plan requires comparing the two figures, which are split across the tabs.

408. A Multi-Source Reasoning set lists several statements and asks the test taker to mark each as supported or not supported by the sources. A statement is consistent with one tab but directly contradicted by another. How should it be marked?
     • Supported, because one tab agrees
     • Supported, because it sounds plausible
     • Irrelevant to the task
     • Not supported, because the sources conflict on it

     Correct answer: Not supported, because the sources conflict on it

     It should be marked not supported, because the sources conflict on it. When one tab agrees and another contradicts, the data do not jointly establish the statement, so it cannot be treated as supported.

409. A Multi-Source Reasoning set presents three tabs, but a particular question can be fully answered using just one of them. Recognizing this allows the test taker to do what?
     • Read all three tabs in full regardless
     • Skip the question entirely
     • Choose the tab with the most data
     • Go directly to the one relevant tab and answer without consulting the others

     Correct answer: Go directly to the one relevant tab and answer without consulting the others

     It allows the test taker to go directly to the one relevant tab and answer without consulting the others. When a single source contains all the needed information, reading the unneeded tabs only wastes scarce time.

410. A Multi-Source Reasoning set provides a tab of project milestones and a tab of resource assignments. A question asks whether a milestone has enough assigned staff to finish on time. Answering correctly requires doing what?
     • Reading only the milestone tab
     • Assuming staffing is always adequate
     • Sorting the milestones by name
     • Combining the milestone's requirements from one tab with the staffing levels from the other

     Correct answer: Combining the milestone's requirements from one tab with the staffing levels from the other

     Answering correctly requires combining the milestone's requirements from one tab with the staffing levels from the other. Whether a milestone is adequately staffed depends on both its needs and the assigned resources, which are split across the tabs.

411. A Multi-Source Reasoning set contains a tab of product specifications and a tab of customer reviews. A question asks whether a complaint in a review is consistent with the stated specifications. The test taker should do what?
     • Accept the review without checking the specifications
     • Read only the review tab
     • Average the review ratings
     • Cross-check the complaint against the relevant specification figures

     Correct answer: Cross-check the complaint against the relevant specification figures

     The test taker should cross-check the complaint against the relevant specification figures. Determining consistency requires comparing what the review claims with the actual specifications on the other tab rather than relying on either source alone.

412. On the current GMAT, which statement about how the Data Insights section is delivered is accurate?
     • It is delivered as a take-home essay
     • It is delivered orally by a proctor
     • It is a computer-delivered section with interactive tools such as a sortable table and an on-screen calculator
     • It is delivered only on paper

     Correct answer: It is a computer-delivered section with interactive tools such as a sortable table and an on-screen calculator

     The accurate statement is that it is a computer-delivered section with interactive tools such as a sortable table and an on-screen calculator. Data Insights relies on on-screen features like sorting and a calculator that support its data-reasoning tasks.

413. Which pairing correctly matches a Data Insights format with what it primarily asks the test taker to do?
     • Two-Part Analysis primarily asks the test taker to correct grammar
     • Multi-Source Reasoning primarily asks the test taker to solve a single equation
     • Graphics Interpretation primarily asks the test taker to fill drop-down blanks so statements accurately describe a chart
     • Table Analysis primarily asks the test taker to write an essay

     Correct answer: Graphics Interpretation primarily asks the test taker to fill drop-down blanks so statements accurately describe a chart

     The correct pairing is that Graphics Interpretation primarily asks the test taker to fill drop-down blanks so statements accurately describe a chart. The format presents a graphic with sentences whose blanks must be completed to truthfully reflect the data.

414. Question: What is the value of the integer $t$? Statement (1): $t$ is the largest two-digit prime number. Statement (2): $t$ is greater than 90.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because the largest two-digit prime is 97, a single fixed value. Statement (2) alone allows many values above 90, so it does not pin down $t$.

415. Question: Is the integer $g$ a multiple of 12? Statement (1): $g$ is a multiple of 24. Statement (2): $g$ is a multiple of 6.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because every multiple of 24 is also a multiple of 12. Statement (2) alone fails, since 6 is a multiple of 6 but not of 12.

416. Question: What was the discounted price of a coat? Statement (1): The discount was 25 percent off the original price. Statement (2): The original price was 80 dollars and the discount was 25 percent.
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not

     Statement (2) alone is sufficient because 25 percent off 80 dollars gives a discounted price of 60 dollars. Statement (1) alone gives only the discount rate, not the original price, so the price cannot be found.

417. Question: Is the sum of two integers odd? Statement (1): One integer is even and the other is odd. Statement (2): Both integers are greater than 10.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because an even plus an odd integer always yields an odd sum. Statement (2) alone leaves the parities unknown, so the sum could be either odd or even.

418. Question: What is the value of the positive integer $d$? Statement (1): $d$ is a factor of 9. Statement (2): $d$ is a factor of 9 greater than 3.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not

     Statement (2) alone is sufficient because the only factor of 9 greater than 3 is 9 itself, fixing $d$. Statement (1) alone allows 1, 3, or 9, so it is not enough.

419. Question: Is $r$ greater than $s$? Statement (1): $r - s$ is positive. Statement (2): $r$ and $s$ are both negative.
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because $r - s$ being positive means $r$ exceeds $s$. Statement (2) alone tells only that both are negative, which does not establish which is larger.

420. Question: How many hours did the trip take? Statement (1): The distance was 240 miles at an average speed of 60 miles per hour. Statement (2): The average speed was 60 miles per hour.
     • Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
     • Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
     • BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER alone is sufficient
     • EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

     Correct answer: Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not

     Statement (1) alone is sufficient because 240 miles divided by 60 miles per hour gives a trip time of 4 hours. Statement (2) alone gives only the speed, with no distance, so the time cannot be determined.

421. In Data Sufficiency, a yes-or-no question is asked and a statement always produces the answer no. How should that statement be judged?
     • Insufficient, because the answer is not yes
     • Sufficient, because it consistently answers the question, even though the answer is no
     • Sufficient only if combined with the other statement
     • Insufficient, because no questions require both statements

     Correct answer: Sufficient, because it consistently answers the question, even though the answer is no

     The statement should be judged sufficient, because it consistently answers the question, even though the answer is no. In Data Sufficiency a definite no is just as decisive as a definite yes, so the statement settles the question.

422. A Graphics Interpretation chart shows a line that climbs steeply at first and then levels off into a nearly flat plateau. This shape is best described as which of the following?
     • A constant rate of increase throughout
     • Rapid early growth that slows toward a plateau
     • A steady decline over time
     • No change across the whole period

     Correct answer: Rapid early growth that slows toward a plateau

     The shape is best described as rapid early growth that slows toward a plateau, since the steep initial rise gives way to a flattening curve as the values approach a ceiling.

423. A Graphics Interpretation chart contains a legend that assigns a distinct color to each data series. The legend's purpose is to do which of the following?
     • Display the chart's title
     • Indicate which plotted series corresponds to each category
     • Show the numeric value of every point
     • Hide the least important series

     Correct answer: Indicate which plotted series corresponds to each category

     The legend's purpose is to indicate which plotted series corresponds to each category, mapping each color or symbol to the variable it represents so the chart can be read correctly.

424. A Graphics Interpretation bar chart shows quarterly sales, and the bar for the second quarter is exactly three times the height of the bar for the first quarter. To complete a sentence comparing the two, which phrase fits?
     • Second-quarter sales were one third of first-quarter sales
     • Second-quarter sales were triple first-quarter sales
     • Second-quarter sales equaled first-quarter sales
     • Second-quarter sales were double first-quarter sales

     Correct answer: Second-quarter sales were triple first-quarter sales

     The phrase that fits is that second-quarter sales were triple first-quarter sales, because bar height is proportional to value, so a bar three times as tall represents three times the amount.

425. A Table Analysis table lists 100 orders with a column for order value. A statement claims that at least 10 orders exceeded 500 dollars. The most efficient way to verify this is to do which of the following?
     • Sort by order value and count how many entries are above 500 dollars
     • Add all the order values together
     • Compute the average order value
     • Sort the orders by date instead

     Correct answer: Sort by order value and count how many entries are above 500 dollars

     The most efficient approach is to sort by order value and count how many entries exceed 500 dollars, because sorting groups the high values together so the count above the threshold is easy to tally.

426. A Table Analysis table reports each branch's profit and its total expenses. A statement concerns each branch's profit-to-expense ratio. Why can the test taker not answer by sorting a single existing column?
     • Because sorting is disabled for ratios
     • Because the profit-to-expense ratio is a derived value that must be computed from two columns
     • Because the table contains only one branch
     • Because profit always equals expenses

     Correct answer: Because the profit-to-expense ratio is a derived value that must be computed from two columns

     The test taker cannot answer by sorting one column because the profit-to-expense ratio is a derived value that must be computed by dividing profit by expenses, a figure not shown directly in any single column.

427. A Two-Part Analysis question gives the relationship that $p$ equals $3q - 5$ and asks the test taker to select a value of $q$ in one column and the matching $p$ in the other from a shared list. If $q$ equals 4 is chosen, which value of $p$ is correct?
     • P equals 7
     • P equals 12
     • P equals 17
     • P equals 1

     Correct answer: P equals 7

     The correct value is $p$ equals 7, because substituting $q = 4$ into $p = 3q - 5$ gives $12 - 5$, which equals 7.

428. A Multi-Source Reasoning set includes a tab listing employee start dates and a tab listing each employee's department. A question asks which department the longest-tenured employee belongs to. The test taker should do which of the following?
     • Use the start-date tab to identify the earliest hire, then read that person's department from the other tab
     • Use only the department tab
     • Use only the start-date tab
     • Assume the answer without consulting either tab

     Correct answer: Use the start-date tab to identify the earliest hire, then read that person's department from the other tab

     The test taker should use the start-date tab to identify the earliest hire, then read that person's department from the other tab, because answering requires linking tenure information from one source to the department information in the other.