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Your FREE ACS General Chemistry Exam Practice Test 2026 – 240+ Q&A

Prepare with realistic, ACS-style general chemistry questions — take a full practice test or drill a single content area.

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ACS General Chemistry Exam exam by the numbersStandard mode

Where the ACS General Chemistry Exam exam's points come from

ACS Exams Institute's official outline weights, the exam rules and our 246 free practice questions mapped domain by domain. Use it to plan your study hours.

  • Question type:Four-option multiple choice, no penalty for guessing
  • Scoring / result:Raw score converted to a national percentile rank; instructors set the grade scale
  • Administered by:ACS Exams Institute (ACS Division of Chemical Education) via your college / instructor
  • Eligibility:Enrollment in a general chemistry course; ordered by the instructor, not the student
  • Cost:Set by the institution; ACS exams are billed to departments (often built into course fees)
  • Aids allowed:Non-programmable calculator and the ACS periodic table; policy set by the instructor
Facts from ACS Exams Institute's official exam outline and rules
70
Questions
110 min
Time limit

Where the ACS General Chemistry Exam points are

ACS Exams Institute's official weight for each of the ten domains. Hover or tap a domain to see how many questions that means on your exam.

See these numbers as a table
Weights from ACS Exams Institute's ACS General Chemistry Exam exam outline. Questions on your exam = weight × 70 questions, rounded. Practice questions: Career Employer's ACS General Chemistry Exam bank.
DomainOfficial weightQuestions on your examOur practice questions
Atoms10%725
Bonding10%725
Structure and Function10%725
Intermolecular Forces10%725
Reactions10%725
Energy and Thermodynamics10%725
Kinetics10%725
Equilibrium10%725
Measurement and Data10%727
Visualization and Scale10%719

What to do: Atoms is the biggest domain at 10%, which means 7 of your questions.

Career Employer study data · ACS General Chemistry Exam exam

What ACS General Chemistry Exam studiers got right (and wrong) so far

2,749 first-try answers on our free ACS General Chemistry Exam practice questions. Each part below switched on by itself once it had enough people behind it.[7]

Data through Nov 10, 2026 · updates daily
82%
accuracy on the second try, up from 55.6%
23%
of people who start a full exam finish it

Where ACS General Chemistry Exam points are lost

Out of 100 questions on a real exam, how many a typical studier would miss in each section. Accuracy alone hides this: a big section with average accuracy costs more points than a small, hard one.

Not shown yet (below our sample-size minimum): Bonding; Structure and Function; Intermolecular Forces; Reactions; Energy and Thermodynamics; Kinetics; Equilibrium; Measurement and Data; Visualization and Scale.

See these numbers as a table
First-try answers from ACS General Chemistry Exam studiers on Career Employer, through Nov 10, 2026. Weights from ACS Exams Institute (ACS Division of Chemical Education) via your college / instructor's ACS General Chemistry Exam content outline.
SectionExam weightFirst-try accuracyPoints lost per 100First-try answersStudiers
Atoms10%57.5%4.342863

Split your study time

Your hours, divided by ACS Exams Institute's domain weights.

Atoms
6.0 hrs
Bonding
6.0 hrs
Structure and Function
6.0 hrs
Intermolecular Forces
6.0 hrs
Reactions
6.0 hrs
Energy and Thermodynamics
6.0 hrs
Kinetics
6.0 hrs
Equilibrium
6.0 hrs
Measurement and Data
6.0 hrs
Visualization and Scale
6.0 hrs

More ACS General Chemistry Exam student data is on its way

We’ve logged 2,749 first-try answers on our ACS General Chemistry Exam questions so far. This section switches to real ACS General Chemistry Exam student results by itself once each part has enough people behind it:

What switches onNeeds
Headline numbers150 studiers
Accuracy by domain300 answers + 50 people per domain
First full exam score100 full exams

Then it shows you vs everyone and question difficulty.

ACS General Chemistry Exam study activity, week by week

How much ACS General Chemistry Exam studying happens on Career Employer each week. Hover or tap a week for details.

See these numbers as a table
Site analytics, week of Jul 6 through Nov 8, 2026.
Week ofQuestions answeredPractice tests startedFlashcard sessions
Nov 2912591
Oct 26341361
Oct 19126210
Oct 12122190
Oct 5129201
Sep 28471
Sep 21194100
Sep 14140180
Sep 7571411
Aug 31332261
Aug 24946560
Aug 172,2642470
Aug 103,5291698
Aug 34,31623417
Jul 272,6261234
Jul 201,56757–
Jul 13879–
Jul 6664–

Source: anonymous first-try answers on Career Employer ACS General Chemistry Exam practice tests, Aug 29, 2026 – Nov 10, 2026. Staff traffic, repeats and peeked answers excluded. Our practice questions are written to the official outline, not the official exam; self-selected sample; a studier is one browser.

Weights and rules from ACS Exams Institute's published ACS General Chemistry Exam exam outline and certification pages. Practice-question counts from Career Employer's ACS General Chemistry Exam bank. Fees and requirements can change; check ACS Exams Institute before you register.

The ACS General Chemistry Exam is a standardized end-of-course exam written and nationally normed by the American Chemical Society’s Division of Chemical Education Examinations Institute (ACS Exams).[1] Colleges use it as a cumulative final to benchmark students against a national sample.

The most common form combines first- and second-term content into 70 multiple-choice questions in 110 minutes;[4] separate first-term and second-term forms also exist, so confirm the exact version with your professor before you study.

For complete prep, pair these with our free study guide, flashcards, and cheat sheet.

What Is on the ACS General Chemistry Exam?

ACS Exams organizes its general chemistry content around 10 official Anchoring Concepts (the ACS Undergraduate Chemistry Anchoring Concepts Content Map): Atoms; Bonding; Structure and Function; Intermolecular Forces; Reactions; Energy and Thermodynamics; Kinetics; Equilibrium; Measurement and Data; and Visualization and Scale.[6]

ACS Exams does not publish fixed public percentage weights for each concept; on the full-year exam the ~70 questions are spread broadly across these categories.[4] The even ~10% targets below are the modeling assumption we use to stratify our full-length practice test — not an official ACS blueprint.

Use the per-area drills to find and close your weakest topics.

ACS General Chemistry Exam practice test — practice questions by domain with answer explanations

Practice Questions by Content Area

Use Start Test for a full weighted ACS simulation, or open the hub and pick a single content area to drill your weak spot. After each full exam, your results show a per-area breakdown so you know exactly where to focus — most students need the most reps on reactions, equilibrium, and energy/thermodynamics calculations.

Who Can Take the ACS General Chemistry Exam?

Anyone enrolled in a general chemistry course whose professor or department uses an ACS standardized exam can take the ACS General Chemistry Exam — there is no formal eligibility application.

It is an instructor-ordered, course-based exam, most often given as the cumulative final.[1] The exam is not open to the public for individual purchase the way a licensing exam is — access is controlled by the ACS Exams Institute and distributed to instructors.

Confirm with your instructor which form you’ll take (first-term, second-term, or full-year) and when.

How Do You Register for the ACS Exam?

You do not register for the ACS General Chemistry Exam yourself — your instructor or chemistry department orders the secure exam from ACS Exams, schedules the test session (a proctored 110-minute window for the full-year form), and administers it in class or a testing center.[3]

Your only step is to show up prepared with any permitted aids — typically a non-programmable calculator and the ACS-provided periodic table. Because each institution administers its own session, there is no national test date or candidate portal.

What Is the Passing Score for the ACS Exam?

There is no official passing score for the ACS General Chemistry Exam — your raw score is converted to a national percentile rank, and each instructor decides how that percentile or raw score maps to a course grade.[5]

Each four-option item is scored right/wrong on the number of questions answered correctly; there is no penalty for guessing, so answer everything. The percentile conversion uses norms ACS builds from thousands of students who took the same form.

Some instructors set an informal benchmark (commonly answering at least about 50% of items correctly), but that is a course policy, not an ACS standard. A newer General Chemistry form also offers an optional partial-credit / modeled-norm scoring method.

How Hard Is the ACS Exam?

The ACS General Chemistry Exam is considered tough because it is cumulative, fast-paced, and conceptual: 70 questions in 110 minutes (~95 seconds each) covering an entire year of chemistry.[4]Many items emphasize conceptual reasoning and multi-step problem solving over plug-and-chug recall, and the tight time limit punishes students who haven’t drilled calculations to automaticity. The breadth is the real challenge — you can’t cram a single unit.

~95s
Per question
fast, cumulative pace

ACS does not publish a single national pass rate, because the exam has no fixed pass/fail standard — outcomes are reported as percentile ranks and converted to grades at the instructor’s discretion. Raw scores around the 50% range often land near the middle of the national distribution. The takeaway: do timed, mixed-topic practice until you’re consistently scoring above your instructor’s target before exam day.

On Career Employer, ACS General Chemistry Exam students get 58% of Atoms questions right on the first try[7] — see the ACS General Chemistry Exam student data above.

What to Expect on Exam Day

The ACS General Chemistry Exam is proctored by your instructor or department in a classroom or testing center, not a commercial test center. For the full-year form you’ll have 110 minutes to answer 70 four-option multiple-choice questions — about 95 seconds each, with no scheduled breaks.

[4] Bring (and practice with) the aids your instructor permits: typically a non-programmable scientific calculator and the ACS-provided periodic table; confirm whether a formula sheet is allowed. There is no penalty for guessing, so answer every question even when you have to estimate.

Pace yourself — flag hard items and return to them rather than burning the clock early. Having rehearsed the full timing with practice tests makes that 110-minute window feel routine.

How to Use This ACS Practice Test

  • Recreate exam conditions. Take the full test timed, with only your permitted calculator and periodic table.[2]
  • Diagnose, then drill. Use a full simulation to find weak content areas, then drill them one at a time.
  • Prioritize the math. Reactions, equilibrium, and energy/thermodynamics calculations move your score most.
  • Learn the why. Read every rationale — conceptual understanding beats memorizing on this exam.
  • Answer everything. There’s no guessing penalty, so never leave a question blank.

Plan for the full sitting. Only 23% of ACS General Chemistry Exam students on Career Employer who start a full-length practice exam finish one (50 of 220)[7] — set aside the full sitting before you press Start Test.

Why the ACS General Chemistry Exam Matters

A strong ACS percentile demonstrates that you’ve mastered general chemistry against a national benchmark — and because it often counts as a cumulative final, it can swing your course grade and set up later coursework like organic chemistry.[1]These free ACS practice questions and test prep mirror the exam’s conceptual style and content areas, making them the most efficient way to walk in ready.[5]

Conclusion

Passing the ACS General Chemistry Exam comes down to recalling a full year of chemistry fast and reasoning through multi-step problems under time pressure. Use this free ACS practice test to find your weakest content areas and drill them to mastery. For complete prep, pair it with our free study guide, flashcards, and cheat sheet. Start with one full-length practice test to find your weakest section, then drill that section first.[7]

ACS Practice Test FAQ

The ACS General Chemistry Exam's most common version, the full-year form, has 70 four-option multiple-choice questions with a 110-minute time limit — about 95 seconds per question. ACS Exams also publishes separate first-term and second-term general chemistry forms whose length and timing can differ, so confirm exactly which form your instructor is giving before you study.

What changed on this page

Every real change, with the date.

  1. Interactive charts added. Built from the official outline and our question bank.
  2. 246 questions rewritten.
  3. 3 questions corrected.
  4. 62 new practice questions. 4 questions retired. 73 questions corrected, including 26 answer keys. The bank now has 246 questions.
  5. 96 new practice questions. 1 question retired. 35 questions corrected, including 10 answer keys. The bank now has 188 questions.
Career Employer ACS General Chemistry Exam practice-test data, through Nov 10, 2026 · 220+ students
Every published Career Employer ACS General Chemistry Exam practice-test number, with its sample size, source and date
MetricValuenStudentsSourceData through
First-try accuracy: Atoms (10% of the exam; costs 4.3 of every 100 exam points)57.5%428 answers63current question setNov 10, 2026
Started a full-length practice exam220—220all question versionsNov 10, 2026
Finished a full-length practice exam50of 220 starters50all question versionsNov 10, 2026
Full-length practice exam finish rate22.7%220 starters220all question versionsNov 10, 2026

Sections below our sample-size minimum (not published yet): Bonding; Structure and Function; Intermolecular Forces; Reactions; Energy and Thermodynamics; Kinetics; Equilibrium; Measurement and Data; Visualization and Scale.

First attempt at each question only; repeats, answers after revealing the explanation, bots and staff excluded. Aug 29, 2026 – Nov 10, 2026. Our practice questions written to the official outline, not the official exam; self-selected sample; a student is one browser. Free to reuse under CC BY 4.0 — cite “Career Employer practice-test data, careeremployer.com/data”.

ACS General Chemistry Exam question bank

All 246 questions, by domain

A reference copy of every question in this practice test. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To practice with scoring, timing and your readiness score, use Start Test at the top of the page.

Atoms (25)

  1. Which electronic transition in a hydrogen atom emits the highest energy photon?

    • A.n = 7 to n = 2
    • B.n = 2 to n = 1
    • C.n = 9 to n = 3
    • D.n = 6 to n = 4
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: n = 2 to n = 1

    A hydrogen atom emits a photon when its electron drops to a lower level, and the photon's energy is proportional to 1/n_f^2 - 1/n_i^2, where n_f is the final level and n_i the starting level. For n = 2 to n = 1 that difference is 1 - 1/4 = 0.75, the largest of the four. The other drops are bigger jumps in n but end on higher levels, where the levels crowd closer together: n = 7 to n = 2 gives 1/4 - 1/49, about 0.23; n = 9 to n = 3 gives 1/9 - 1/81, about 0.099; and n = 6 to n = 4 gives 1/16 - 1/36, about 0.035. A larger change in n does not mean a larger energy change.

  2. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy a single orbital?

    • A.2
    • B.6
    • C.14
    • D.18
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2

    An orbital can hold at most 2 electrons, and those two must have opposite spins. This is the Pauli exclusion principle: no two electrons in an atom can share all four quantum numbers, and within one orbital only the spin is left to differ. 6 is the capacity of a whole p sublevel, which has three orbitals. 14 is the capacity of an f sublevel, which has seven orbitals. 18 is the capacity of the entire third shell (2n^2 with n = 3). Each of those counts the electrons in a group of orbitals, not in a single orbital.

  3. In a multielectron atom, which electron transition corresponds to the absorption of the lowest energy photon?

    • A.From 1s to 2p
    • B.From 2s to 3p
    • C.From 2s to 2p
    • D.From 1s to 3p
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: From 2s to 2p

    From 2s to 2p absorbs the lowest-energy photon: in a multielectron atom the 2s and 2p sublevels belong to the same shell and lie close together in energy. From 2s to 3p starts in the same place but must also climb into the next shell, which costs much more energy. From 1s to 2p starts from the tightly held 1s level, far below 2s, so it needs more energy than any jump out of 2s. From 1s to 3p combines both, the deepest starting level and the higher finishing level, so it is the largest gap of the four.

  4. What is the electron configuration for a CaX2+\ce{Ca^2+} ion?

    • A.[Ar] 4s^2
    • B.[Ne]
    • C.[Ne] 3s^2
    • D.[Ar]
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: [Ar]

    Neutral calcium (Z = 20) is [Ar] 4s^2. A 2+ ion has lost two electrons, and they come from the outermost 4s orbital, so Ca^2+ keeps 18 electrons arranged exactly like argon: [Ar]. [Ar] 4s^2 still counts all 20 electrons, so it describes neutral calcium before ionization. [Ne] keeps only 10 electrons; it uses the neon core from one period too early and is really the configuration of Mg^2+, calcium's lighter group 2 neighbor. [Ne] 3s^2 makes both mistakes at once: it is the configuration of a neutral magnesium atom.

  5. Which statement about isotopes is correct?

    • A.Their atoms are charged forms of the same element.
    • B.Their nuclei contain different numbers of protons.
    • C.Their nuclei contain different numbers of neutrons.
    • D.Their atoms are radioactive forms of the same element.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Their nuclei contain different numbers of neutrons.

    Isotopes are atoms of the same element whose nuclei hold the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, so the correct statement is "Their nuclei contain different numbers of neutrons."; carbon-12 has 6 neutrons and carbon-14 has 8, while both have 6 protons. "Their atoms are charged forms of the same element." confuses isotopes with ions: an ion has gained or lost electrons, but every isotope of an element has the same number of protons, and a neutral atom of any isotope has just as many electrons, so its net charge is zero. "Their nuclei contain different numbers of protons." describes atoms of different elements: the number of protons is the atomic number, so a different proton count makes a different element, not another isotope of the same one. "Their atoms are radioactive forms of the same element." mistakes a property of some isotopes for the definition: carbon-12 and carbon-13 are stable, and only some isotopes, such as carbon-14, are radioactive.

  6. Which quantum number determines the shape of an electron orbital?

    • A.Principal quantum number (n)
    • B.Magnetic quantum number (m_l)
    • C.Spin quantum number (m_s)
    • D.Azimuthal quantum number (l)
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Azimuthal quantum number (l)

    The azimuthal quantum number (l), also called the angular momentum quantum number, sets the shape of an orbital: l = 0 gives a spherical s orbital, l = 1 a dumbbell-shaped p orbital, and l = 2 the d orbitals. The principal quantum number (n) sets the orbital's size and main energy level, not its shape. The magnetic quantum number (m_l) sets how an orbital of a given shape is oriented in space. The spin quantum number (m_s) describes the electron's own spin, +1/2 or -1/2, and says nothing about the orbital.

  7. The Aufbau principle states that:

    • A.Electrons complete the orbitals of each shell first.
    • B.Electrons pair up in the orbitals of equal energy first.
    • C.Electrons fill the orbitals of lowest energy first.
    • D.Electrons enter the p orbitals of each shell first.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Electrons fill the orbitals of lowest energy first.

    The Aufbau ("building up") principle is the rule "Electrons fill the orbitals of lowest energy first.": each added electron goes into the lowest-energy orbital still available. "Electrons complete the orbitals of each shell first." describes shell-by-shell filling, which is not what happens: 4s fills before 3d because 4s is lower in energy, even though it belongs to a higher shell. "Electrons pair up in the orbitals of equal energy first." contradicts Hund's rule, which says electrons occupy orbitals of equal energy singly before any pairing. "Electrons enter the p orbitals of each shell first." reverses the order within a shell: the s sublevel is lower in energy than the p sublevel, so s fills before p.

  8. What is the total number of orbitals in the third energy level (n=3n=3) of an atom?

    • A.4
    • B.16
    • C.9
    • D.18
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 9

    The third energy level has three sublevels: 3s with 1 orbital, 3p with 3, and 3d with 5, so it holds 1 + 3 + 5 = 9 orbitals (n^2 with n = 3). 4 leaves out the 3d sublevel and counts only 3s and 3p; 3d fills after 4s, but it still belongs to the third level. 16 adds a 3f sublevel of 7 orbitals, but no such sublevel exists: l can only go up to n - 1 = 2, so f orbitals first appear in the fourth level. 18 counts electrons instead of orbitals (2 per orbital, or 2n^2).

  9. Which electron configuration is possible for an atom in an excited state?

    • A.1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^1
    • B.1s^2 2s^2 2p^5 3s^3
    • C.1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^3
    • D.1s^2 2s^2 2p^5 3s^1
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5 3s^1

    An excited state has an electron in a higher orbital while a lower one is left partly empty, and it must still respect orbital capacities. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5 3s^1 has neon's ten electrons, but one has been promoted from 2p to 3s, leaving 2p one short, so it is a possible excited state. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^1 is the ground state of sodium: every lower sublevel is full before 3s begins. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5 3s^3 and 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^3 are not possible at all, because an s sublevel holds at most two electrons.

  10. Which is the correct electron configuration for the outer shell of a bromine atom in the ground state?

    • A.4s^2 4d^10 4p^5
    • B.4s^2 3d^10 4p^5
    • C.4s^2 3d^10 4p^6
    • D.4s^2 4d^10 4p^6
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 4s^2 3d^10 4p^5

    Bromine (Z = 35) has the ground-state configuration [Ar] 4s^2 3d^10 4p^5, so the part written after the argon core is 4s^2 3d^10 4p^5: 2 + 10 + 5 = 17 electrons, which with argon's 18 makes 35. 4s^2 4d^10 4p^5 puts the ten d electrons in 4d, but the d sublevel that fills across period 4 is 3d; 4d does not begin filling until period 5. 4s^2 3d^10 4p^6 has 18 electrons beyond argon, which is krypton, the noble gas after bromine. 4s^2 4d^10 4p^6 makes both of those errors.

  11. Which element has the highest first ionization energy in Period 2?

    • A.Fluorine
    • B.Neon
    • C.Carbon
    • D.Oxygen
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Neon

    First ionization energy rises across Period 2 as nuclear charge grows while electrons stay in the same shell, and neon, with its filled 2s^2 2p^6 shell, has the highest value (about 2081 kJ/mol). Fluorine is the strongest pull among the reactive elements (about 1681 kJ/mol) but still falls short of the noble gas that follows it. Oxygen (about 1314 kJ/mol) is lower still, since its first paired 2p electron is repelled by its partner and is easier to remove. Carbon (about 1086 kJ/mol), in the middle of the period, has a smaller nuclear charge holding its outer electrons and is lower again.

  12. Which of the following elements is most likely to form a +1 oxidation state?

    • A.Calcium
    • B.Gallium
    • C.Zinc
    • D.Sodium
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Sodium

    Sodium is in Group 1, with a single 3s electron outside a neon core, so it readily loses one electron to form Na+, a +1 oxidation state. Calcium is in Group 2 and loses both 4s electrons to form Ca^2+. Gallium is in Group 13 and is normally +3, as in Ga2O3. Zinc gives up both of its 4s electrons and is found almost only as Zn^2+, so none of these forms a +1 state as readily as sodium.

  13. What is the most common oxidation state of elements in Group 16 (the Chalcogens)?

    • A.-3
    • B.0
    • C.-6
    • D.-2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: -2

    Group 16 elements have six valence electrons (ns^2 np^4), so gaining two electrons completes an octet, and -2 is their most common oxidation state, as in oxides (O^2-) and sulfides (S^2-). '-3' is the typical state one group to the left, in Group 15, where five valence electrons need three more, as in nitrides (N^3-) and ammonia (NH3). '0' is the state of the uncombined elements, such as O2 and S8, not of these elements in compounds. '-6' counts all six valence electrons as if each atom gained six more, but an atom with six valence electrons needs only two to complete its octet.

  14. Transition metals show variable oxidation states. Which of the following transition metals exhibits the highest oxidation state?

    • A.Chromium
    • B.Zirconium
    • C.Manganese
    • D.Palladium
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Manganese

    Manganese can use all seven of its 4s and 3d electrons and reaches +7 in permanganate, MnO4-, the highest state of these metals. Chromium tops out one step lower, at +6 in chromate and dichromate. Zirconium has only four valence electrons and stops at +4, as in ZrO2. Palladium is found mainly as +2 and at most +4, as in K2PdCl6, so it falls well short of manganese.

  15. Which element has the smallest atomic radius in the 3rd period?

    • A.Phosphorus
    • B.Silicon
    • C.Magnesium
    • D.Argon
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Argon

    Across the third period the nuclear charge climbs from 11 to 18 while the added electrons enter the same n = 3 shell, so each electron is pulled in more tightly and atomic radius shrinks; argon, at the end of the period, is the smallest. Magnesium, only one step into the period, is among its largest atoms, so choosing it runs against the trend. Silicon and phosphorus sit toward the middle of the period and are smaller than magnesium, but with fewer protons than argon (14 and 15 against 18) both are still larger.

  16. Which group in the periodic table is known for having elements that are all gases at room temperature?

    • A.Group 18
    • B.Group 17
    • C.Group 16
    • D.Group 15
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Group 18

    Group 18, the noble gases (helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon and radon), is the only group whose members are all gases at room temperature. Group 17 begins with two gases, fluorine and chlorine, but bromine is a liquid and iodine a solid. Group 16 begins with oxygen gas, but sulfur, selenium and tellurium are solids. Group 15 begins with nitrogen gas, but phosphorus, arsenic, antimony and bismuth are solids.

  17. Which of the following elements exhibits the highest electronegativity?

    • A.Fluorine
    • B.Oxygen
    • C.Hydrogen
    • D.Nitrogen
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Fluorine

    Fluorine has the highest electronegativity of any element (3.98 on the Pauling scale): it is small, with a high effective nuclear charge acting on bonding electrons that sit close to its nucleus. Oxygen is second (3.44) but has one less proton in the same shell. Hydrogen (2.20) forms polar bonds with most elements and is often thought to pull electrons strongly, but with a single electron shell and one proton its pull is far weaker than fluorine's. Nitrogen (3.04) is lower again, two protons short of fluorine in the same shell.

  18. What is the typical oxidation state of elements in Group 1 when they form compounds?

    • A.1
    • B.-1
    • C.2
    • D.-7
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1

    Group 1 elements (the alkali metals) have a single ns^1 valence electron, which they lose easily, so in compounds they are +1, as in NaCl and K2O. '-1' reverses the sign, as if the metal gained an electron; that is hydrogen's state in metal hydrides such as NaH, not the typical state of the alkali metals. '2' is the typical state of the Group 2 alkaline earth metals, as in Mg^2+ and CaCl2, which have two valence electrons to lose; an alkali metal has only one. '-7' imagines the atom gaining seven electrons to complete an octet, which would cost far more energy than losing the one electron it has.

  19. What is the electron configuration of the outer shell of a typical element in Group 13?

    • A.s^2 p^1
    • B.s^2 p^2
    • C.s^2 d^1
    • D.s^2 d^2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: s^2 p^1

    Group 13 elements (boron, aluminum, gallium) have three valence electrons, arranged as s^2 p^1 in the outer shell; aluminum, for example, is [Ne] 3s^2 3p^1. 's^2 p^2' is the Group 14 pattern of carbon and silicon, one electron too many. 's^2 d^1' is the Group 3 pattern of scandium (4s^2 3d^1), a mix-up between Group 13 and Group 3 that the older IIIA and IIIB labels invite. 's^2 d^2' is the Group 4 pattern of titanium, which makes both slips at once: a d electron in place of p and one electron too many.

  20. An element has the ground-state electron configuration [Ar]3d104s24p3[\ce{Ar}]3d^{10} 4s^2 4p^3. In which group of the periodic table is this element located?

    • A.Group 13 (the boron group)
    • B.Group 15 (the nitrogen group)
    • C.Group 5 (the vanadium group)
    • D.Group 2 (the beryllium group)
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Group 15 (the nitrogen group)

    This element is in Group 15 (the nitrogen group). In [Ar] 3d^10 4s^2 4p^3 the outermost shell (n = 4) holds 4s^2 4p^3, five valence electrons, so this p-block element (arsenic) sits in Group 15; the filled 3d^10 subshell belongs to the core and is not counted. Group 13 (the boron group) counts only the three 4p electrons and leaves out the two 4s electrons, which are valence electrons too. Group 5 (the vanadium group) puts the five valence electrons into the transition-metal column, the old VA versus VB mix-up. Group 2 (the beryllium group) counts only the two 4s electrons.

  21. According to Hund's rule, how are the three 2p electrons of a ground-state nitrogen atom arranged among the 2p orbitals?

    • A.One electron in each 2p orbital, the three spins parallel
    • B.One electron in each 2p orbital, the middle spin reversed
    • C.Two paired electrons in one 2p orbital, the third alone
    • D.Two spin-up electrons in one 2p orbital, the third alone
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: One electron in each 2p orbital, the three spins parallel

    Hund's rule puts one electron in each 2p orbital, the three spins parallel, before any 2p orbital takes a second electron, so ground-state nitrogen has three unpaired electrons with parallel spins (↑ ↑ ↑). One electron in each 2p orbital, the middle spin reversed (↑ ↓ ↑) fills the orbitals singly but breaks the parallel-spin part of the rule. Two paired electrons in one 2p orbital, the third alone (↑↓ ↑ _) pairs electrons while an empty 2p orbital is still available, which Hund's rule rules out for the ground state. Two spin-up electrons in one 2p orbital, the third alone also breaks the Pauli exclusion principle, because two electrons sharing one orbital must have opposite spins.

  22. An atom contains 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 16 electrons. What is the identity and net charge of this species?

    • A.A chloride anion with charge -1
    • B.A sulfur anion with a -1 charge
    • C.A chlorine ion with a +1 charge
    • D.A bromine ion with charge +1
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A chlorine ion with a +1 charge

    The species is a chlorine ion with a +1 charge. The proton count (17) fixes the element as chlorine whatever the electron count, and the net charge is protons minus electrons: 17 - 16 = +1, so this is the cation Cl^+. A chloride anion with charge -1 subtracts in the wrong order (electrons minus protons) and lands on the familiar chloride ion. A sulfur anion with a -1 charge names the element from its 16 electrons and also reverses the subtraction. A bromine ion with charge +1 gets the charge right but adds the protons and neutrons (17 + 18 = 35) and reads that mass number as the atomic number, which is bromine's.

  23. Which set of four quantum numbers (n,l,ml,ms)(n, l, m_l, m_s) is NOT allowed for an electron in an atom?

    • A.n = 2, l = 2, m_l = 0, m_s = +1/2
    • B.n = 3, l = 1, m_l = 0, m_s = -1/2
    • C.n = 4, l = 3, m_l = 0, m_s = +1/2
    • D.n = 1, l = 0, m_l = 0, m_s = -1/2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: n = 2, l = 2, m_l = 0, m_s = +1/2

    The forbidden set is n = 2, l = 2, m_l = 0, m_s = +1/2. The angular momentum quantum number l can take only the values 0 through n - 1, so the n = 2 shell has l = 0 or 1 (the 2s and 2p subshells) and no l = 2 (d) subshell. The other three sets obey every rule (l less than n, m_l from -l to +l, m_s = +1/2 or -1/2): n = 3, l = 1, m_l = 0, m_s = -1/2 describes a 3p electron; n = 4, l = 3, m_l = 0, m_s = +1/2 describes a 4f electron, with the largest l that n = 4 allows; and n = 1, l = 0, m_l = 0, m_s = -1/2 describes a 1s electron.

  24. Chlorine's standard atomic weight is approximately 35.45 amu, yet no single chlorine atom has that mass. Why is the listed atomic weight a non-integer value?

    • A.The unweighted average of the isotope mass numbers
    • B.The weighted average of the natural isotope masses
    • C.The loss of mass as binding energy in each isotope
    • D.The mean of repeated readings taken on one isotope
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The weighted average of the natural isotope masses

    The atomic weight is the weighted average of the natural isotope masses. Natural chlorine is about 76% chlorine-35 (34.97 u) and 24% chlorine-37 (36.97 u), and weighting each mass by its abundance gives about 35.45 u, a value no single atom has. The unweighted average of the isotope mass numbers counts 35 and 37 equally and gives 36, not 35.45. The loss of mass as binding energy in each isotope is real, but it is already built into each isotope's mass: chlorine-35 has a mass of 34.97 u, within about 0.03 u of a whole number, and no such effect can produce 35.45, a value that lies between the masses of the two isotopes. The mean of repeated readings taken on one isotope would cluster around that isotope's own mass; measurement scatter does not create the 0.45 offset.

  25. Moving from left to right across a period in the periodic table, electron affinity generally becomes more negative (atoms release more energy when gaining an electron). What is the primary reason for this trend?

    • A.Covalent atomic radius increases across the period
    • B.Core-electron shielding decreases across the period
    • C.Outer electron repulsion decreases across the period
    • D.Effective nuclear charge increases across the period
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Effective nuclear charge increases across the period

    The primary reason is that effective nuclear charge increases across the period. Each step to the right adds a proton while the new electron enters the same shell, and electrons in the same shell shield one another poorly, so the net positive charge felt by an incoming electron grows and more energy is released when it is captured. Covalent atomic radius increases across the period has the trend backward: radius shrinks from left to right because of that rising effective nuclear charge. Core-electron shielding decreases across the period is false, since the inner shells stay the same within a period and shield about equally. Outer electron repulsion decreases across the period is also false: each step adds another valence electron, so repulsion within the outer shell grows, which works against electron affinity rather than explaining it.

Bonding (25)

  1. Which hybridization corresponds to the central atom in a molecule with a square planar geometry?

    • A.sp^2
    • B.sp^3d^2
    • C.sp^3d
    • D.sp^3
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: sp^3d^2

    A square planar molecule such as XeF4 has four bonding pairs and two lone pairs on the central atom: six electron domains in an octahedral arrangement, with the lone pairs opposite each other. Six domains need six hybrid orbitals, built from one s, three p and two d orbitals: sp^3d^2. sp^3d gives only five hybrid orbitals, the set for a steric number of 5 (trigonal bipyramidal). sp^3 gives four, which fits the four bonded atoms but leaves no room for the two lone pairs. sp^2 is what the word "planar" suggests, but it gives only three hybrid orbitals, the set for a trigonal planar atom with a steric number of 3.

  2. Which of the following molecules has resonance structures?

    • A.OF2
    • B.IF5
    • C.SO2
    • D.H2S
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: SO2

    Resonance structures exist when a molecule's electrons can be arranged in two or more valid Lewis structures that differ only in where the electrons sit. In SO2, the S=O double bond can be drawn to either oxygen, giving two equivalent structures, and the real molecule is a blend with two identical S-O bonds. OF2 has only O-F single bonds and fixed lone pairs, so there is one Lewis structure. IF5 has five I-F single bonds and one lone pair on iodine; there is no double bond to move. H2S also has just two single bonds, so it has no resonance structures.

  3. What type of orbital overlap occurs in the formation of a sigma bond between hydrogen and carbon in methane (CHX4\ce{CH4})?

    • A.s-s
    • B.s-p
    • C.s-d
    • D.p-d
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: s-p

    Each C-H sigma bond in methane forms where a hydrogen 1s orbital overlaps head-on with an orbital on carbon. Carbon's bonding orbitals are sp^3 hybrids, three-quarters p in character, so the overlap is classed as s-p (more precisely, s with sp^3). s-s would mean carbon bonds through its 2s orbital alone, which could not give four equivalent bonds at 109.5 degrees. s-d and p-d both require d orbitals, but neither carbon nor hydrogen has d orbitals in its valence shell.

  4. What best describes the bonding in benzene, CX6HX6\ce{C6H6}?

    • A.Sigma and delocalized pi bonding
    • B.Sigma and localized pi bonding
    • C.Ionic and polar covalent bonding
    • D.Metallic and covalent bonding
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Sigma and delocalized pi bonding

    Each carbon in benzene is sp^2 hybridized: sigma bonds join it to its two carbon neighbors and to a hydrogen, and the six leftover p orbitals overlap all around the ring, so the six pi electrons are shared by all six carbons. That is sigma and delocalized pi bonding, and it is why every C-C bond in benzene has the same length, between that of a single and a double bond. Sigma and localized pi bonding describes fixed, alternating double bonds (a single Kekulé structure), which would give two different bond lengths. Ionic and polar covalent bonding is wrong because carbon and hydrogen have similar electronegativities, so benzene's bonds are essentially nonpolar and no ions form. Metallic and covalent bonding misreads delocalization: benzene's pi electrons spread over one ring of six atoms, not through a metal lattice.

  5. Which element in the second period forms a diatomic molecule with a triple bond in its most stable form?

    • A.Beryllium
    • B.Nitrogen
    • C.Oxygen
    • D.Boron
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Nitrogen

    Nitrogen exists as N2, in which the two atoms share three pairs of electrons in a triple bond (bond order 3), one of the strongest bonds known at about 945 kJ/mol. Oxygen is also diatomic in its stable form, but O2 is held by a double bond (bond order 2), not a triple bond. Boron is a tempting choice because each atom has three valence electrons, but boron is a network solid in its stable form, and even the B2 molecule seen in the gas phase has a bond order of only 1. Beryllium is a metal, and a Be2 pair has a bond order of 0 by molecular orbital theory, so it forms no stable diatomic molecule at all.

  6. Using the formal charge formula FC = (valence electrons) - (lone-pair electrons) - (1/2 x bonding electrons), what is the formal charge on the nitrogen atom in the ammonium ion, NHX4X+\ce{NH4+}, where nitrogen forms four single bonds and has no lone pairs?

    • A.-3
    • B.+1
    • C.+4
    • D.+5
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: +1

    Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons; in NH4+ it has no lone-pair electrons and 8 bonding electrons in four N-H bonds, so FC = 5 - 0 - (1/2)(8) = 5 - 4 = +1, which accounts for the ion's overall +1 charge. '-3' comes from subtracting all 8 bonding electrons instead of half of them (5 - 0 - 8). '+5' leaves the bonding electrons out of the formula entirely and reports nitrogen's valence electron count. '+4' takes the number of bonds as the charge.

  7. Which set of statements correctly describes resonance structures of a molecule or polyatomic ion?

    • A.The contributors are separate molecules, and the actual molecule is one that flips back and forth between them rapidly
    • B.The contributors differ in electron placement, and the actual molecule is simply the single most stable one among them
    • C.The contributors share nuclear positions and differ in electron placement, and the actual molecule is a hybrid of them
    • D.The contributors are separate isomers with their atoms moved around, and the actual molecule is a mere mixture of them
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The contributors share nuclear positions and differ in electron placement, and the actual molecule is a hybrid of them

    Resonance structures differ only in where electrons (lone pairs and pi bonds) are drawn: the contributors share nuclear positions and differ in electron placement, and the actual molecule is a hybrid of them, one structure with delocalized electrons. That is why the nitrate ion has three equal N-O bonds rather than one double and two single bonds. 'The contributors are separate molecules, and the actual molecule is one that flips back and forth between them rapidly' describes an equilibrium between real species, which resonance is not. 'The contributors differ in electron placement, and the actual molecule is simply the single most stable one among them' is wrong because the hybrid is a weighted blend; the most stable contributor counts the most, but the molecule is not that one structure. 'The contributors are separate isomers with their atoms moved around, and the actual molecule is a mere mixture of them' describes isomers, since moving atoms makes a different compound, not a resonance form.

  8. In a sigma bond versus a pi bond, which statement correctly distinguishes the two?

    • A.A sigma bond forms by head-on overlap along the bond axis, while a pi bond forms by sideways overlap off the axis
    • B.A sigma bond forms by parallel p orbitals overlapping off the bond axis, while a pi bond forms by head-on contact
    • C.A sigma bond forms from the overlap of two s orbitals, while a pi bond forms from the overlap of two p orbitals
    • D.A sigma bond forms as the weaker second bond between two nuclei, while a pi bond forms as the stronger first bond
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A sigma bond forms by head-on overlap along the bond axis, while a pi bond forms by sideways overlap off the axis

    A sigma bond forms by head-on overlap along the bond axis, while a pi bond forms by sideways overlap off the axis: sigma electron density lies directly between the two nuclei, and pi density sits in two lobes above and below the bond axis. 'A sigma bond forms by parallel p orbitals overlapping off the bond axis, while a pi bond forms by head-on contact' swaps the two descriptions. 'A sigma bond forms from the overlap of two s orbitals, while a pi bond forms from the overlap of two p orbitals' is too narrow, because sigma bonds also form when p orbitals or hybrid orbitals overlap end to end, as in F2 or the C-H bonds of methane. 'A sigma bond forms as the weaker second bond between two nuclei, while a pi bond forms as the stronger first bond' reverses the order: the first bond between two atoms is always a sigma bond, and the weaker pi bonds are added in double and triple bonds.

  9. A nitrogen-nitrogen triple bond, as found in NX2\ce{N2}, consists of how many sigma bonds and how many pi bonds?

    • A.2 sigma and 1 pi
    • B.0 sigma and 3 pi
    • C.1 sigma and 2 pi
    • D.3 sigma and 0 pi
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1 sigma and 2 pi

    A triple bond is 1 sigma and 2 pi. The first bond between two atoms is always a sigma bond, formed by head-on overlap along the axis between the nuclei; every additional bond in a double or triple bond is a pi bond, formed by side-by-side overlap of parallel p orbitals. The triple bond in N2 therefore has one sigma bond and two pi bonds, three bonds in all and a bond order of 3. 2 sigma and 1 pi swaps the two counts, but a triple bond has only one sigma bond, the first bond between the two atoms, and its second and third bonds are both pi bonds. 0 sigma and 3 pi treats all three bonds as pi bonds, but the first bond between two atoms is the sigma bond, and pi bonds are only the second and third bonds added to it. 3 sigma and 0 pi treats all three bonds as sigma bonds, but only one head-on overlap fits along the axis between two nuclei, so the second and third bonds must be pi bonds.

  10. When drawing a Lewis structure for a neutral molecule, which sequence of steps follows the standard rules?

    • A.Add up the total valence electrons, make the least electronegative atom except hydrogen central, join the atoms with single bonds, then complete octets with lone pairs, adding multiple bonds if needed
    • B.Assign each atom its formal charge, make the atom having the greatest electronegativity central, join the atoms with single bonds, then complete octets with lone pairs, adding multiple bonds if needed
    • C.Assign each atom its formal charge, make the least electronegative atom except hydrogen central, join the atoms with single bonds, then create as many multiple bonds as possible, ignoring octet limits
    • D.Add up the total valence electrons, make the atom having the greatest electronegativity central, join the atoms with single bonds, then create as many multiple bonds as possible, ignoring octet limits
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Add up the total valence electrons, make the least electronegative atom except hydrogen central, join the atoms with single bonds, then complete octets with lone pairs, adding multiple bonds if needed

    The standard sequence is: Add up the total valence electrons, make the least electronegative atom except hydrogen central, join the atoms with single bonds, then complete octets with lone pairs, adding multiple bonds if needed. The electron count comes first because it fixes how many electrons the finished structure may show (adjusted for any charge). The central atom is the least electronegative one because it shares electrons with the most neighbors, and hydrogen is never central because it can form only one bond. Leftover electrons go on as lone pairs, and a lone pair is turned into a double or triple bond only when an atom is still short of an octet. Assign each atom its formal charge, make the atom having the greatest electronegativity central, join the atoms with single bonds, then complete octets with lone pairs, adding multiple bonds if needed is wrong on two counts: formal charges can only be worked out after a structure exists, and the most electronegative atoms (such as O, F and Cl) normally sit on the outside, not in the middle. Assign each atom its formal charge, make the least electronegative atom except hydrogen central, join the atoms with single bonds, then create as many multiple bonds as possible, ignoring octet limits skips the electron count and piles on extra bonds; multiple bonds are added only as needed to complete octets. Add up the total valence electrons, make the atom having the greatest electronegativity central, join the atoms with single bonds, then create as many multiple bonds as possible, ignoring octet limits starts correctly but then picks the wrong central atom and ignores the octet rule.

  11. Which guideline is part of the standard rules for writing valid Lewis structures?

    • A.Hydrogen atoms normally take terminal positions and hold a maximum of 2 electrons
    • B.Hydrogen atoms normally occupy central positions and share a total of 4 electrons
    • C.Hydrogen atoms frequently form double bonds and share a total of 4 electrons
    • D.Hydrogen atoms satisfy the octet rule and hold a complete set of 8 electrons
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Hydrogen atoms normally take terminal positions and hold a maximum of 2 electrons

    Hydrogen atoms normally take terminal positions and hold a maximum of 2 electrons. Hydrogen has only a 1s orbital, so it is complete with a duet of 2 electrons, which means it forms just one bond and sits on the outside of a Lewis structure. Hydrogen atoms normally occupy central positions and share a total of 4 electrons applies the least-electronegative-atom-in-the-center rule to hydrogen, but a central atom needs at least two bonds and hydrogen can form only one; the rule always excludes hydrogen. Hydrogen atoms frequently form double bonds and share a total of 4 electrons is wrong for the same reason: a double bond would put 4 electrons around hydrogen. Hydrogen atoms satisfy the octet rule and hold a complete set of 8 electrons stretches the octet rule to hydrogen, the best-known exception to it; the octet rule also has other exceptions, such as boron with 6 electrons and expanded octets on sulfur and phosphorus.

  12. In molecular orbital theory, bond order = (bonding electrons - antibonding electrons) / 2. If the molecular oxygen OX2\ce{O2} has 8 electrons in valence bonding orbitals and 4 electrons in valence antibonding orbitals, what is its bond order?

    • A.6
    • B.4
    • C.2
    • D.1.5
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2

    The bond order of O2 is 2. Bond order = (bonding electrons - antibonding electrons)/2 = (8 - 4)/2 = 2, which matches the O=O double bond; the same molecular orbital picture also leaves two unpaired electrons, which is why O2 is paramagnetic. 4 comes from stopping at 8 - 4 and forgetting to divide by 2. 6 comes from adding the antibonding electrons instead of subtracting them: (8 + 4)/2. 1.5 is the bond order of the superoxide ion, O2-, whose extra electron goes into an antibonding orbital, (8 - 5)/2; neutral O2 has only 4 antibonding electrons.

  13. The carbon-carbon bonds in benzene (CX6HX6\ce{C6H6}) are all identical and intermediate between a single and a double bond. What is the carbon-carbon bond order in benzene?

    • A.1.3
    • B.1.25
    • C.0.5
    • D.1.5
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1.5

    Each carbon-carbon bond in benzene has a bond order of 1.5. Resonance spreads benzene's three pi bonds evenly over all six ring bonds, so each bond is one sigma bond plus half a pi bond: (6 sigma + 3 pi)/6 links = 9/6 = 1.5, the average of a single bond and a double bond, which is why all six bonds have the same length. 1.3 borrows the carbonate-ion average of 4/3, which applies when one double bond is shared over three positions, not when three double bonds are shared over six. 1.25 also counts the six C-H bonds and the six C-H links, (6 + 3 + 6)/12, although only the carbon-carbon bonds are being averaged. 0.5 counts only the pi bonds, 3 pi over 6 links, and leaves out the sigma bond that every ring link also has.

  14. A carbon atom in methane (CHX4\ce{CH4}) forms four equivalent single bonds directed toward the corners of a tetrahedron with 109.5-degree bond angles. What is the hybridization of this carbon atom?

    • A.sp^2
    • B.sp^3
    • C.sp^3d^2
    • D.dsp^2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: sp^3

    The carbon in methane is sp^3 hybridized. Mixing one 2s and three 2p orbitals gives four equivalent sp^3 hybrid orbitals that point to the corners of a tetrahedron, 109.5 degrees apart, one for each C-H bond (a steric number of 4 with no lone pairs). sp^2 gives only three hybrids, 120 degrees apart in a plane, as on the carbons of ethene. dsp^2 also gives four hybrids, but they point to the corners of a square, the flat picture a Lewis drawing of CH4 suggests; it uses a d orbital and describes square planar metal complexes, not carbon. sp^3d^2 gives six octahedral hybrids and likewise needs d orbitals, which a second-period atom such as carbon does not have.

  15. For an atom whose central atom has a steric number of 4 (four regions of electron density, whether bonds or lone pairs), what hybridization is assigned?

    • A.sp^3
    • B.sp^3d
    • C.sp^3d^3
    • D.dsp^2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: sp^3

    A steric number of 4 corresponds to sp^3 hybridization. Four regions of electron density need four hybrid orbitals, made from one s and three p orbitals, and they point to the corners of a tetrahedron. Lone pairs count as regions, so water (two bonds, two lone pairs) and ammonia (three bonds, one lone pair) are both sp^3 even though their molecular shapes are bent and trigonal pyramidal. The number of hybrid orbitals always equals the steric number: sp^3d gives five hybrids, for a steric number of 5, and sp^3d^3 gives seven. dsp^2 does give four hybrids, but they point to the corners of a square and use a d orbital; that set describes square planar metal complexes, while four regions of electron density around a main-group atom take a tetrahedral, sp^3 arrangement.

  16. In the molecule ethyne (acetylene, H−C≡C−H\ce{H-C{\equiv}C-H}), what is the hybridization of each carbon atom?

    • A.sp^3
    • B.sp
    • C.sp^3d^2
    • D.sp^2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: sp

    Each carbon in ethyne is sp hybridized. A carbon in a triple bond has a steric number of 2 (one sigma bond to hydrogen and one sigma bond to the other carbon), so it mixes one s and one p orbital into two sp hybrids 180 degrees apart; its two leftover p orbitals form the two pi bonds, and the molecule is linear. sp^3 comes from counting four bonds around each carbon (three to the other carbon and one to hydrogen), but the two pi bonds use unhybridized p orbitals and do not count as regions of electron density. sp^2 is the hybridization of the carbons in ethene, where a double bond leaves three regions of electron density 120 degrees apart; a triple-bonded carbon has only two. sp^3d^2 gives six octahedral hybrids and needs d orbitals that carbon does not have.

  17. Bond energy is the energy required to break one mole of a particular bond in the gas phase. Given approximate bond energies of C-C = 348 kJ/mol, C=C = 614 kJ/mol, and C≡C\ce{C{\equiv}C} = 839 kJ/mol, which statement about these carbon-carbon bonds is correct?

    • A.As bond order increases from single to triple, bond energy falls and bond length rises
    • B.As bond order increases from single to triple, bond energy rises and bond length falls
    • C.As bond order increases from single to triple, bond energy rises and bond length rises
    • D.As bond order increases from single to triple, bond energy falls and bond length falls
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: As bond order increases from single to triple, bond energy rises and bond length falls

    As bond order increases from single to triple, bond energy rises and bond length falls. The energies in the question climb from 348 to 614 to 839 kJ/mol as the bond order goes from 1 to 2 to 3, and each extra shared pair pulls the two nuclei closer together (roughly 154, 134 and 120 pm). As bond order increases from single to triple, bond energy falls and bond length rises is the classic reversal, the idea that a triple bond is the weakest and longest of the three, which the given energies rule out. As bond order increases from single to triple, bond energy rises and bond length rises gets the energy right but assumes that more electrons make a bigger bond; extra bonding pairs pull the atoms closer, so the stronger bond is also the shorter one. As bond order increases from single to triple, bond energy falls and bond length falls has the length trend right but contradicts the energies given.

  18. A covalent bond between two atoms is classified as polar covalent when the electronegativity difference between the bonded atoms falls within which approximate range?

    • A.About 0.4 to 1.7, so one atom pulls the pair harder
    • B.About 0.0 to 0.4, so both nuclei pull about equally
    • C.About 2.0 to 3.3, so the electrons are transferred
    • D.About 0.0 to 1.7, so like atoms also pull unequally
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: About 0.4 to 1.7, so one atom pulls the pair harder

    A polar covalent bond has an electronegativity difference of about 0.4 to 1.7, so one atom pulls the pair harder: the shared electrons sit closer to the more electronegative atom, which carries a partial negative charge while its partner carries a partial positive charge (the cutoffs are guidelines, not sharp borders). About 0.0 to 0.4, so both nuclei pull about equally describes a nonpolar covalent bond. About 2.0 to 3.3, so the electrons are transferred describes an ionic bond. About 0.0 to 1.7, so like atoms also pull unequally lumps nonpolar bonds in with polar ones, yet two identical atoms (a difference of 0.0) share their electrons equally.

  19. According to VSEPR theory, the water molecule (HX2O\ce{H2O}) has two bonding pairs and two lone pairs on the central oxygen atom. What is its resulting molecular geometry and approximate bond angle?

    • A.Tetrahedral, about 109.5 degrees, as four domains set the angle
    • B.Angular, about 115 degrees, as bonding pairs open the angle
    • C.Bent, about 104.5 degrees, as two lone pairs close the angle
    • D.Angular, about 106.7 degrees, as one lone pair closes the angle
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Bent, about 104.5 degrees, as two lone pairs close the angle

    Water is bent, about 104.5 degrees, as two lone pairs close the angle: oxygen's four electron domains are arranged roughly tetrahedrally, the shape is named from the atoms alone, and lone pairs repel bonding pairs more strongly than bonding pairs repel each other, so the H-O-H angle closes from 109.5 to about 104.5 degrees. Tetrahedral, about 109.5 degrees, as four domains set the angle gives the electron-domain geometry rather than the molecular shape, and it leaves out the lone-pair compression. Angular, about 115 degrees, as bonding pairs open the angle reverses the repulsion order: lone pairs repel most strongly, so the angle closes below 109.5 degrees instead of opening above it. Angular, about 106.7 degrees, as one lone pair closes the angle counts the squeeze of only one lone pair, the situation in a molecule with three bonds and one lone pair; water's second lone pair closes the angle further.

  20. A coordinate covalent (dative) bond differs from an ordinary covalent bond in which way?

    • A.A single atom supplies two bonding electrons
    • B.Each atom gives one electron to the shared pair
    • C.Electrons shift fully to one atom, forming ions
    • D.Each atom shares two pairs, like a double bond
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A single atom supplies two bonding electrons

    In a coordinate covalent bond, a single atom supplies two bonding electrons: a donor with a lone pair shares it with an acceptor that has an empty orbital, as when ammonia's lone pair bonds to H+ to form NH4+. Once formed, it behaves like any other covalent bond. Each atom gives one electron to the shared pair describes an ordinary covalent bond, which is the contrast the question asks about. Electrons shift fully to one atom, forming ions describes ionic bonding, where electrons are transferred rather than shared. Each atom shares two pairs, like a double bond confuses where the electrons come from with how many pairs are shared; a coordinate bond is a single shared pair.

  21. For molecules of the form ABXn\ce{AB_{n}}, an overall molecular dipole moment depends on both bond polarity and molecular geometry. Why is carbon dioxide (O=C=O\ce{O=C=O}) nonpolar even though each C=O bond is polar?

    • A.Polarity needs hydrogen, which carbon dioxide lacks
    • B.Its linear shape lets two equal bond dipoles cancel
    • C.Lone pairs on carbon cancel the pull of each oxygen
    • D.Both dipoles are too weak to create net polarity
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Its linear shape lets two equal bond dipoles cancel

    Carbon dioxide is nonpolar because its linear shape lets two equal bond dipoles cancel: each C=O dipole points from carbon toward oxygen, and with the two bonds 180 degrees apart the dipoles are equal in size and opposite in direction, so their vector sum is zero. Polarity needs hydrogen, which carbon dioxide lacks: that claim confuses polarity with hydrogen bonding, and many molecules with no hydrogen, such as SO2 and COCl2, are polar. Lone pairs on carbon cancel the pull of each oxygen is wrong because the carbon atom in CO2 has no lone pairs. Both dipoles are too weak to create net polarity is also wrong: the C=O bond dipoles are large, and they cancel only because of the geometry.

  22. Boron trifluoride (BFX3\ce{BF3}) is an example of an exception to the octet rule. Which statement correctly describes the bonding around the central boron atom?

    • A.Eight electrons, as a lone pair completes its octet
    • B.Ten electrons, as empty d orbitals expand its shell
    • C.Three electrons, which sit one in each B-F bond
    • D.Six electrons, which leaves the octet unfilled
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Six electrons, which leaves the octet unfilled

    Boron is surrounded by six electrons, which leaves the octet unfilled: it brings three valence electrons and forms three single B-F bonds, so six electrons surround it, and this electron deficiency makes BF3 a Lewis acid that readily accepts an electron pair. Eight electrons, as a lone pair completes its octet assumes boron also carries a lone pair, but all three of its valence electrons are used in the bonds. Ten electrons, as empty d orbitals expand its shell describes an expanded octet, which needs an element in period 3 or beyond; boron is in period 2. Three electrons, which sit one in each B-F bond counts only boron's own valence electrons; each B-F bond is a shared pair, with one electron from boron and one from fluorine, so the three bonds place six electrons around boron.

  23. Lattice energy is the energy released when gaseous ions combine to form one mole of a solid ionic compound. Based on Coulomb's law, which pair of factors increases the magnitude of lattice energy?

    • A.Smaller charges on the ions and a longer distance between them
    • B.Larger charges on the ions and a shorter distance between them
    • C.Heavier ions, which hold more electrons for the attraction
    • D.Bigger ions, which offer more surface area for the attraction
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Larger charges on the ions and a shorter distance between them

    Lattice energy grows with larger charges on the ions and a shorter distance between them: by Coulomb's law the attraction is proportional to the product of the ionic charges divided by the distance between the ion centers, which is why MgO (small 2+ and 2- ions) has a far larger lattice energy than NaCl. Smaller charges on the ions and a longer distance between them reverses both factors. Heavier ions, which hold more electrons for the attraction treats mass and electron count as the drivers; heavier ions are usually larger, which lowers the lattice energy. Bigger ions, which offer more surface area for the attraction gets the size effect backward, because larger ions sit farther apart and attract each other less strongly.

  24. For a given pair of bonded atoms, how does bond length generally relate to bond order (single versus double versus triple bond)?

    • A.Higher bond orders force the two nuclei apart
    • B.Bond polarity, not order, sets the length
    • C.Higher bond orders pull the two nuclei closer
    • D.The heavier atom sets the bond length alone
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Higher bond orders pull the two nuclei closer

    For a given pair of atoms, higher bond orders pull the two nuclei closer: more shared electron pairs between the nuclei hold them together more tightly, so a triple bond is shorter than a double bond, which is shorter than a single bond (C≡C about 120 pm, C=C about 134 pm, C-C about 154 pm). Higher bond orders force the two nuclei apart has the trend reversed. Bond polarity, not order, sets the length cannot explain the trend, because the polarity barely changes for a fixed pair of atoms while the length drops sharply from single to triple bond. The heavier atom sets the bond length alone cannot apply here, because for a fixed pair of atoms the atoms stay the same and the bond order is what changes the length.

  25. Phosphorus pentachloride (PClX5\ce{PCl5}) is a molecule in which the central phosphorus atom holds more than eight valence electrons. This expanded octet is possible because phosphorus is in which situation?

    • A.It sits in group 15, with its s and p electrons for five bonds
    • B.It is a nonmetal more electronegative than each chlorine atom
    • C.It is a compact atom, so five chlorines pack closely around it
    • D.It sits in period 3, with empty d orbitals for extra electrons
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It sits in period 3, with empty d orbitals for extra electrons

    The expanded octet is possible because it sits in period 3, with empty d orbitals for extra electrons: in the traditional description, phosphorus's valence shell (n = 3) includes an empty 3d set, so it can hold ten electrons in five P-Cl bonds, while second-period atoms such as nitrogen have no d orbitals in their valence shell. It sits in group 15, with its s and p electrons for five bonds fails because nitrogen is also in group 15 and never forms NCl5; one s and three p orbitals can hold only eight electrons. It is a nonmetal more electronegative than each chlorine atom is false, since chlorine (3.16) is more electronegative than phosphorus (2.19). It is a compact atom, so five chlorines pack closely around it gets size backward: phosphorus is larger than nitrogen, and that extra room helps it bond to five atoms.

Structure and Function (25)

  1. What molecular geometry is exhibited by a molecule with a steric number of 5 and one lone pair?

    • A.Seesaw
    • B.Trigonal bipyramidal
    • C.Tetrahedral
    • D.Trigonal pyramidal
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Seesaw

    A steric number of 5 means five electron domains arranged as a trigonal bipyramid. The single lone pair takes an equatorial position, where it has only two neighbors at 90 degrees, and the four bonded atoms form a seesaw shape, as in SF4. Trigonal bipyramidal is the electron-domain geometry, which counts the lone pair as one of the five domains; the molecular geometry names only the arrangement of the atoms, and that is the seesaw. Tetrahedral counts only the four bonded atoms and ignores the lone pair, but four atoms around a five-domain center cannot spread out tetrahedrally. Trigonal pyramidal puts the lone pair in an axial position, where it would have three neighbors at 90 degrees, a higher-repulsion arrangement than the equatorial one.

  2. What is the bond angle in a molecule with a T-shaped molecular geometry based on a trigonal bipyramidal electron pair geometry?

    • A.72 degrees
    • B.104.5 degrees
    • C.107 degrees
    • D.90 degrees
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 90 degrees

    In a T-shaped molecule such as ClF3, the five electron domains form a trigonal bipyramid and the two lone pairs take equatorial positions. The three bonded atoms then sit in the two axial positions and one equatorial position, so each axial bond is at 90 degrees to the equatorial bond (slightly less in real molecules, because the lone pairs push the bonds together; the two axial bonds are nearly 180 degrees apart). 104.5 degrees is the angle in water, which also has two lone pairs, but on a tetrahedral framework of four domains, not five. 107 degrees is the angle in ammonia, a trigonal pyramidal molecule with one lone pair and four domains. 72 degrees would come from spreading five domains evenly around a flat pentagon, which is not how five domains arrange in three dimensions.

  3. In terms of molecular polarity, which molecule below is nonpolar despite having polar bonds?

    • A.Carbon dioxide (CO2)
    • B.Sulfur dioxide (SO2)
    • C.Hydrogen bromide (HBr)
    • D.Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Carbon dioxide (CO2)

    A molecule with polar bonds is nonpolar only if its shape makes the bond dipoles cancel. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is linear (O=C=O), and its two identical C=O dipoles point in opposite directions, so they cancel and the molecule has no net dipole. Sulfur dioxide (SO2) is bent because of the lone pair on sulfur, so its S-O dipoles do not cancel. Hydrogen bromide (HBr) has a single polar H-Br bond and nothing to cancel it. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN) is linear, but its two bonds are different (H-C and C≡N) and their dipoles point the same way along the axis, so they add instead of canceling.

  4. What electronic effect does the nitro group (−NOX2\ce{-NO2}) have when attached to a benzene ring?

    • A.Withdraws electrons by hyperconjugation
    • B.Donates electrons by resonance
    • C.Withdraws electrons by resonance
    • D.Donates electrons by hyperconjugation
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Withdraws electrons by resonance

    The nitro group pulls electron density out of a benzene ring. Its N=O pi system conjugates with the ring, and resonance structures put positive charge on the ring carbons, especially at the ortho and para positions, so it withdraws electrons by resonance (its electronegative nitrogen and oxygens also withdraw electrons by induction). Donates electrons by resonance describes groups with a lone pair next to the ring, such as -OH and -NH2, not the nitro group. Donates electrons by hyperconjugation describes alkyl groups, whose C-H sigma bonds feed electron density into the ring; the nitro group has no such bonds. Withdraws electrons by hyperconjugation is not how the nitro group acts either: its withdrawal comes from resonance and induction, not from hyperconjugation.

  5. According to VSEPR theory, what is the molecular geometry of a central atom that is surrounded by four bonding pairs and no lone pairs?

    • A.Seesaw
    • B.Trigonal pyramidal
    • C.Tetrahedral
    • D.Square pyramidal
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Tetrahedral

    Tetrahedral is correct. VSEPR theory spreads four electron domains as far apart as possible, toward the corners of a tetrahedron with 109.5-degree angles, and when all four domains are bonding pairs the molecular shape is tetrahedral too, as in methane (CH4). Seesaw is the shape for four bonding pairs plus one lone pair, five domains in all, as in SF4. Trigonal pyramidal is the shape for three bonding pairs and one lone pair, as in ammonia. Square pyramidal is the shape for five bonding pairs and one lone pair, as in BrF5. Each of these needs a lone pair, and this central atom has none.

  6. A central atom has a steric number of 3, made up of three bonding domains and zero lone pairs. According to a standard VSEPR chart, what is its electron-domain geometry and bond angle?

    • A.Tetrahedral, 109.5 degrees
    • B.Trigonal pyramidal, 107 degrees
    • C.Square pyramidal, 90 degrees
    • D.Trigonal planar, 120 degrees
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Trigonal planar, 120 degrees

    Trigonal planar, 120 degrees is correct. Three electron domains with no lone pairs spread out in a flat triangle around the central atom, so the electron-domain geometry is trigonal planar and the bond angles are 120 degrees, as in BF3. Trigonal pyramidal, 107 degrees is a molecular shape rather than an electron-domain geometry: it is the shape of a center with four domains, one of them a lone pair, as in NH3. Tetrahedral, 109.5 degrees is the arrangement for four electron domains, as if every central atom had four. Square pyramidal, 90 degrees comes from six electron domains, one of them a lone pair, as in BrF5, not from three.

  7. Using a molecular geometry chart, what shape does a molecule like carbon dioxide (COX2\ce{CO2}) adopt, given the central carbon has two bonding domains and no lone pairs?

    • A.Bent
    • B.Square planar
    • C.Tetrahedral
    • D.Linear
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Linear

    Linear is correct. The carbon in CO2 has two electron domains, one for each C=O double bond (a double bond counts as one domain), and two domains get as far apart as possible on opposite sides of the carbon, 180 degrees apart. Bent is the classic mix-up with water, but the oxygen in water carries two lone pairs while the carbon in CO2 has none. Tetrahedral comes from counting each C=O double bond as two separate bonding domains, four in all; a multiple bond occupies a single domain, so the carbon has only two. Square planar makes the same miscount and then lays the four bonds flat, as a Lewis drawing looks on paper; even four bonding domains would be tetrahedral, and a square planar shape needs six domains, two of them lone pairs.

  8. The experimentally measured H-O-H bond angle in a water molecule is approximately which value, and why is it less than the ideal tetrahedral angle?

    • A.106.7 degrees, because one lone pair on oxygen squeezes both bonds a bit closer
    • B.104.5 degrees, because two lone pairs on oxygen push both bonds closer together
    • C.104.5 degrees, because one lone pair on oxygen squeezes both bonds a bit closer
    • D.106.7 degrees, because two lone pairs on oxygen push both bonds closer together
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 104.5 degrees, because two lone pairs on oxygen push both bonds closer together

    104.5 degrees, because two lone pairs on oxygen push both bonds closer together, is correct. Oxygen in water has four electron domains (two bonding pairs and two lone pairs), so its electron geometry is tetrahedral, but lone pairs repel more strongly than bonding pairs and close the H-O-H angle from the ideal 109.5 degrees to about 104.5 degrees. 104.5 degrees, because one lone pair on oxygen squeezes both bonds a bit closer, has the right angle for the wrong reason: the oxygen in water carries two lone pairs, not one. 106.7 degrees, because two lone pairs on oxygen push both bonds closer together, gives the right reason but ammonia's angle; two lone pairs squeeze the bonds more than one does, so water's angle is smaller than ammonia's. 106.7 degrees, because one lone pair on oxygen squeezes both bonds a bit closer, describes ammonia (about 107 degrees), whose nitrogen has only one lone pair; the oxygen in water has two.

  9. To determine the molecular geometry of a molecule using VSEPR, which two quantities must first be established for the central atom?

    • A.How many neighboring atoms and how many pi bonds it has
    • B.How many bonding domains and how many lone pairs it has
    • C.How many polar bonds and how many nonpolar bonds it has
    • D.How many protons and how many unpaired electrons it has
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: How many bonding domains and how many lone pairs it has

    How many bonding domains and how many lone pairs it has are the two things VSEPR starts from. From the Lewis structure you count the electron domains around the central atom (a single, double or triple bond each counts as one bonding domain) and sort them into bonding domains and lone pairs; the total sets the electron-domain geometry, and the number of lone pairs decides which molecular shape results. How many neighboring atoms and how many pi bonds it has leaves out the lone pairs, which change the shape (water and carbon dioxide both have two neighboring atoms but different shapes), and pi bonds do not add domains, because a double or triple bond still counts as one. How many polar bonds and how many nonpolar bonds it has describes polarity, which follows from the shape rather than setting it. How many protons and how many unpaired electrons it has identifies the element but does not fix how the electron domains are arranged.

  10. A central atom has four electron domains: three bonding pairs and one lone pair. What is the resulting molecular geometry?

    • A.Trigonal bipyramidal
    • B.Tetrahedral
    • C.Trigonal pyramidal
    • D.Square planar
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Trigonal pyramidal

    Trigonal pyramidal is correct. The four electron domains take a tetrahedral arrangement, but a molecular shape is named for the positions of the atoms only, so with a lone pair at one corner the three bonded atoms and the central atom form a three-sided pyramid, as in ammonia (NH3), with bond angles near 107 degrees. Tetrahedral is the electron-domain geometry, which matches the molecular shape only when all four domains are bonding pairs. Trigonal bipyramidal is the arrangement for five electron domains, not four. Square planar is the shape of four bonded atoms around a center with six electron domains, two of them lone pairs, as in XeF4.

  11. Which statement best explains the difference between electron-domain geometry and molecular geometry?

    • A.Electron-domain geometry includes lone pairs, and molecular geometry excludes them
    • B.Electron-domain geometry excludes lone pairs, and molecular geometry includes them
    • C.Electron-domain geometry includes lone pairs, and molecular geometry includes them
    • D.Electron-domain geometry excludes lone pairs, and molecular geometry excludes them
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Electron-domain geometry includes lone pairs, and molecular geometry excludes them

    Electron-domain geometry includes lone pairs, and molecular geometry excludes them. The electron-domain geometry is set by every electron domain around the central atom, bonding pairs and lone pairs alike, while the molecular geometry describes only where the bonded atoms are. Water shows the difference: its electron-domain geometry is tetrahedral but its molecular geometry is bent, because two of the four positions are lone pairs rather than atoms. Electron-domain geometry excludes lone pairs, and molecular geometry includes them swaps the two definitions. Electron-domain geometry includes lone pairs, and molecular geometry includes them would make the two geometries identical for every molecule, so water would have a tetrahedral shape. Electron-domain geometry excludes lone pairs, and molecular geometry excludes them would also make the two identical, and neither would account for the lone pairs that push the bonded atoms closer together.

  12. In a polar covalent bond, in which direction does the bond dipole moment vector point?

    • A.Toward the more electronegative atom
    • B.Toward the atom with more total mass
    • C.Toward the atom taking up more space
    • D.Toward the more centrally placed atom
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Toward the more electronegative atom

    Toward the more electronegative atom is correct. The more electronegative atom pulls the shared electrons closer and carries a partial negative charge, leaving the other atom partially positive, and in general chemistry the bond dipole is drawn as an arrow running from the partially positive atom to the partially negative one. Toward the atom with more total mass ties the direction to mass, but mass does not decide it: in an S-O bond the arrow points to the lighter oxygen atom. Toward the atom taking up more space ties it to size, but in a C-O bond the arrow points to oxygen, the smaller atom. Toward the more centrally placed atom ties it to position, but in CF4 every C-F dipole points away from the central carbon, toward the outer fluorine atoms.

  13. The dipole moment of a molecule is commonly reported in which unit?

    • A.Coulomb
    • B.Angstrom
    • C.Volt
    • D.Debye
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Debye

    The debye is the unit chemists use. A dipole moment is the size of the separated charge multiplied by the distance between the charges, and molecular values are conveniently expressed in debyes (1 D is about 3.34 × 10^-30 coulomb-meters); water, for example, has a dipole moment of about 1.85 D. The coulomb measures charge alone and the angstrom measures distance alone; a dipole moment combines the two, so neither unit by itself can express it. The volt measures electric potential, not a separation of charge.

  14. A molecule contains only polar bonds yet has a net dipole moment of zero. Which factor is responsible for this result?

    • A.Lone pairs that offset the central atom's bond dipoles
    • B.Resonance that spreads the bond dipoles over the molecule
    • C.Symmetric geometry that lets the bond dipoles cancel out
    • D.Rapid electron motion that averages the bond dipoles away
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Symmetric geometry that lets the bond dipoles cancel out

    Symmetric geometry that lets the bond dipoles cancel out is correct. Each polar bond has a dipole, but when identical bonds point in balanced directions, such as the three B-F bonds of trigonal planar BF3 set 120 degrees apart or the two opposed C=O bonds of linear CO2, the bond dipoles add up to zero and the molecule is nonpolar overall. Lone pairs that offset the central atom's bond dipoles gets the effect of lone pairs backward: lone pairs usually break the symmetry and create a net dipole, as in water and ammonia. Resonance that spreads the bond dipoles over the molecule does not remove a net dipole; ozone has resonance and is still polar. Rapid electron motion that averages the bond dipoles away confuses a permanent bond dipole with the fleeting dipoles behind dispersion forces; the electronegativity difference keeps each bond polar all the time.

  15. To decide whether a molecule is polar, which two-part test should be applied?

    • A.Check whether oxygen atoms are present, then whether the molecule mixes with water
    • B.Check whether lone pairs are present, then whether the octet rule is satisfied
    • C.Check whether the bond energies are very high, then whether the substance is ionic
    • D.Check whether the bonds are polar, then whether the shape lets bond dipoles cancel
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Check whether the bonds are polar, then whether the shape lets bond dipoles cancel

    Check whether the bonds are polar, then whether the shape lets bond dipoles cancel is the standard two-step test. A molecule can be polar only if it has polar bonds, and even then it is nonpolar when its shape arranges the bond dipoles symmetrically so that they cancel: water is polar because its bent shape leaves a net dipole, while CO2 is nonpolar because its linear shape cancels its two bond dipoles. Check whether oxygen atoms are present, then whether the molecule mixes with water confuses polarity with composition and solubility; CO2 contains oxygen and dissolves in water, yet it is nonpolar. Check whether lone pairs are present, then whether the octet rule is satisfied never looks at the bonds; XeF4 has lone pairs on xenon but is nonpolar, and the octet rule says nothing about polarity. Check whether the bond energies are very high, then whether the substance is ionic tests bond strength and bond type, neither of which decides whether the whole molecule has a net dipole.

  16. Which of the following molecules is nonpolar overall because its symmetric shape causes the bond dipoles to cancel?

    • A.Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)
    • B.Nitrogen trichloride (NCl3)
    • C.Dichloromethane (CH2Cl2)
    • D.Hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)

    Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) is correct. Each C-Cl bond is polar, but the four identical bonds point to the corners of a regular tetrahedron, so their dipoles cancel and the molecule is nonpolar. Nitrogen trichloride (NCl3) has a lone pair on nitrogen that makes it trigonal pyramidal, so its bond dipoles do not cancel. Dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) is tetrahedral, but its two C-H bonds and two C-Cl bonds are not identical, so their dipoles do not cancel and the molecule is polar. Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) is bent like water, so its two bond dipoles add up to a net dipole.

  17. A central atom is bonded to two atoms and also carries two lone pairs, giving a bent molecular shape. How does the presence of the lone pairs affect the molecule's overall polarity compared with a linear molecule of the same atoms?

    • A.The bent shape makes the bond dipoles balance, so it is nonpolar
    • B.The bent shape lets the lone pairs cancel out, so it is nonpolar
    • C.The bent shape makes the bonds ionic, so it is polar
    • D.The bent shape keeps the bond dipoles uncanceled, so it is polar
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The bent shape keeps the bond dipoles uncanceled, so it is polar

    The bent shape keeps the bond dipoles uncanceled, so it is polar. In a linear AB2 molecule such as CO2 the two bond dipoles point in exactly opposite directions and cancel. Two lone pairs on the central atom bend the molecule, as in water, so the bond dipoles no longer oppose each other directly and they add up to a net dipole moment. The bent shape makes the bond dipoles balance, so it is nonpolar reverses this: only a straight, symmetric arrangement cancels them. The bent shape lets the lone pairs cancel out, so it is nonpolar misreads the geometry; both lone pairs sit on the side of the central atom away from the bonded atoms, so they add to the polarity rather than canceling. The bent shape makes the bonds ionic, so it is polar is wrong about the bonding: bending the molecule does not turn its covalent bonds into ionic ones, lone pairs stay as unshared (nonbonding) electron pairs, the molecule remains neutral and covalent, and its polarity comes from the partial charges set up by the polar bonds.

  18. A central sulfur atom in SFX6\ce{SF6} is bonded to six fluorine atoms with no lone pairs on sulfur. According to VSEPR theory, what is the molecular geometry of SFX6\ce{SF6}?

    • A.Hexagonal planar, with 60-degree angles around a flat ring
    • B.Trigonal prismatic, with 60-degree angles in two triangles
    • C.Octahedral, with 90-degree angles in three square planes
    • D.Seesaw, with 90-degree and 120-degree angles on its axes
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Octahedral, with 90-degree angles in three square planes

    SF6 is octahedral, with 90-degree angles in three square planes: six bonding domains and no lone pairs point to the six corners of an octahedron, so each S-F bond is 90 degrees from four neighbors and 180 degrees from the bond opposite it, and the fluorine atoms lie in three mutually perpendicular square planes. Hexagonal planar, with 60-degree angles around a flat ring would crowd all six bonds into one plane only 60 degrees apart, far closer than VSEPR allows. Trigonal prismatic, with 60-degree angles in two triangles is a real six-coordinate shape, but it holds the bonding pairs closer together than the octahedron does, so VSEPR does not predict it for SF6. Seesaw, with 90-degree and 120-degree angles on its axes is the shape of SF4, which has four bonds and a lone pair, not six bonds.

  19. A central atom has a steric number of 5 with two of its five electron domains being lone pairs. According to VSEPR theory, what molecular geometry results?

    • A.Trigonal planar, with both lone pairs placed axially
    • B.Trigonal pyramidal, with the lone pairs below the atoms
    • C.Bent, with the two lone pairs taking the place of bonds
    • D.T-shaped, with both lone pairs taking equatorial sites
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: T-shaped, with both lone pairs taking equatorial sites

    The molecule is T-shaped, with both lone pairs taking equatorial sites: a steric number of 5 gives a trigonal bipyramidal electron arrangement, and the two lone pairs take equatorial sites, where they have fewer neighbors at 90 degrees, which leaves the three bonded atoms in a T, as in ClF3. Trigonal planar, with both lone pairs placed axially is what axial lone pairs would give, but each axial lone pair would sit at 90 degrees to three bonding pairs, a higher-energy arrangement. Trigonal pyramidal, with the lone pairs below the atoms describes a central atom with four domains and one lone pair, such as NH3. Bent, with the two lone pairs taking the place of bonds borrows the shape of water, yet here three atoms are bonded to the central atom.

  20. Within a single period of the periodic table, how does increasing electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms generally affect the polarity of the covalent bond between them?

    • A.It becomes more polar, with larger partial charges
    • B.It becomes less polar, with smaller partial charges
    • C.Its polarity stays fixed, then the bond turns ionic
    • D.The less electronegative atom ends up more negative
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It becomes more polar, with larger partial charges

    As the electronegativity difference grows, the bond changes in one direction: it becomes more polar, with larger partial charges. The more electronegative atom pulls the shared pair closer, so the partial negative charge on that atom and the partial positive charge on its partner both grow. It becomes less polar, with smaller partial charges reverses the relationship. Its polarity stays fixed, then the bond turns ionic treats polarity as an on-off switch, but it grows steadily with the electronegativity difference, and the polar-covalent to ionic border is a gradual one. The less electronegative atom ends up more negative puts the negative end on the wrong atom; the shared pair shifts toward the more electronegative atom.

  21. The ammonia molecule (NHX3\ce{NH3}) has a central nitrogen with three bonding pairs and one lone pair. What is its molecular geometry and approximate bond angle?

    • A.Trigonal pyramidal, about 107 degrees, as a lone pair closes the angle
    • B.Tetrahedral, about 109.5 degrees, as its four electron domains spread out
    • C.Trigonal pyramidal, about 109.5 degrees, as a lone pair repels like a bond pair
    • D.Tetrahedral, about 107 degrees, as its four electron domains define it
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Trigonal pyramidal, about 107 degrees, as a lone pair closes the angle

    Ammonia is trigonal pyramidal, about 107 degrees, as a lone pair closes the angle: nitrogen's four electron domains are arranged roughly tetrahedrally, the shape is named from the three hydrogen atoms, and the lone pair repels the bonding pairs more strongly than they repel each other, narrowing the H-N-H angle from 109.5 to about 107 degrees. Tetrahedral, about 109.5 degrees, as its four electron domains spread out gives the electron-domain geometry rather than the molecular shape. Trigonal pyramidal, about 109.5 degrees, as a lone pair repels like a bond pair names the shape correctly but keeps the ideal tetrahedral angle, as if the lone pair repelled no more strongly than the bonding pairs; in fact it repels more strongly, so the angle closes to about 107 degrees. Tetrahedral, about 107 degrees, as its four electron domains define it has the right angle but names the shape from all four domains, counting the lone pair as if it were an atom.

  22. When a methoxy group (−OCHX3\ce{-OCH3}) is attached to a benzene ring, how does it primarily influence the ring through resonance?

    • A.It acts by hyperconjugation, as a methyl group does
    • B.It pulls density away by induction, deactivating it
    • C.It moves density to its meta sites, activating them
    • D.It donates electrons to the ring, activating it
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It donates electrons to the ring, activating it

    Through resonance the methoxy oxygen acts as a donor: it donates electrons to the ring, activating it. A lone pair on the oxygen overlaps with the ring's pi system and raises the electron density, especially at the ortho and para positions, so -OCH3 is an activating, ortho/para-directing group. It acts by hyperconjugation, as a methyl group does: that borrows the mechanism of an alkyl group, but the methyl in -OCH3 is bonded to the oxygen rather than to the ring, so no C-H hyperconjugation reaches the ring; the oxygen donates through its lone pair, a much stronger resonance effect. It pulls density away by induction, deactivating it names oxygen's real but weaker inductive pull; resonance donation outweighs it, so the ring ends up activated. It moves density to its meta sites, activating them misplaces the effect, because resonance adds density at the ortho and para positions rather than the meta positions.

  23. How does the molecular shape of carbon dioxide (COX2\ce{CO2}) result in a nonpolar molecule even though each C=O bond is polar?

    • A.Its quick tumbling in the gas averages the dipoles out
    • B.Its equal bond dipoles cancel by facing opposite ways
    • C.Its gas molecules sit too far apart to show polarity
    • D.Lone pairs on its oxygens offset the pull of each bond
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Its equal bond dipoles cancel by facing opposite ways

    The linear shape makes CO2 nonpolar because its equal bond dipoles cancel by facing opposite ways: the two C=O dipoles are equal in size, and with an O=C=O angle of 180 degrees they point in exactly opposite directions, so their vector sum is zero; a linear molecule with unequal bond dipoles, such as OCS, is still polar. Its quick tumbling in the gas averages the dipoles out is wrong because polarity belongs to the structure of each molecule; rotation does not remove a dipole, and polar gases such as water vapor keep theirs. Its gas molecules sit too far apart to show polarity confuses the spacing between molecules with the charge distribution inside one molecule. Lone pairs on its oxygens offset the pull of each bond is not the reason either: those lone pairs are part of the same symmetric charge distribution, and the cancellation comes from the linear geometry.

  24. Two molecules have the same atoms but different three-dimensional shapes, giving them different chemical and physical properties. This relationship between three-dimensional structure and behavior is best described by which principle?

    • A.Function determines structure: atoms shift to fit a role
    • B.Like dissolves like: matching polarity lets liquids mix
    • C.Structure determines function: shape guides interactions
    • D.VSEPR theory: electron pairs keep bonded atoms far apart
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Structure determines function: shape guides interactions

    The relationship is the principle that structure determines function: shape guides interactions. Two molecules with the same atoms but different three-dimensional shapes differ in polarity, in how they fit binding sites, and in their intermolecular contacts, so their properties differ. Function determines structure: atoms shift to fit a role reverses cause and effect, since a molecule does not rearrange itself to perform a task. Like dissolves like: matching polarity lets liquids mix is a solubility guideline, not the general link between shape and behavior. VSEPR theory: electron pairs keep bonded atoms far apart predicts the shape of a molecule but does not explain how that shape governs its properties.

  25. A central atom is surrounded by five bonding pairs and no lone pairs, as in phosphorus pentachloride (PClX5\ce{PCl5}). What molecular geometry and set of bond angles does VSEPR predict?

    • A.Square pyramidal, with 90-degree and 180-degree angles
    • B.Pentagonal planar, with 72- and 144-degree bond angles
    • C.Seesaw, with 120-degree and 180-degree ideal angles
    • D.Trigonal bipyramidal, with 120- and 90-degree angles
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Trigonal bipyramidal, with 120- and 90-degree angles

    PCl5 is trigonal bipyramidal, with 120- and 90-degree angles: five bonding domains and no lone pairs place three chlorine atoms in an equatorial triangle 120 degrees apart and two axial chlorine atoms at 90 degrees to that plane (and 180 degrees from each other). Square pyramidal, with 90-degree and 180-degree angles is the shape for six domains when one is a lone pair, as in BrF5. Pentagonal planar, with 72- and 144-degree bond angles would crowd all five bonds into one plane, much closer together than the trigonal bipyramid allows. Seesaw, with 120-degree and 180-degree ideal angles is the shape for five domains when one of them is a lone pair, as in SF4, and phosphorus in PCl5 has no lone pair.

Intermolecular Forces (25)

  1. Which intermolecular force is primarily responsible for the high boiling point of water compared to hydrogen sulfide?

    • A.O-H covalent bonding
    • B.London dispersion forces
    • C.Hydrogen bonding
    • D.Ion-dipole forces
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Hydrogen bonding

    Water molecules form hydrogen bonds: a hydrogen attached to a small, highly electronegative oxygen is strongly attracted to a lone pair on a neighboring oxygen. H2S cannot do this to any real extent, because sulfur is larger and far less electronegative, so water boils at 100 °C while H2S boils near -60 °C. That difference comes from hydrogen bonding. O-H covalent bonding holds the atoms together inside each water molecule; boiling separates whole molecules from each other and breaks no O-H bonds. London dispersion forces act in both substances and are actually larger for H2S, which has more electrons, so they cannot explain why water boils so much higher. Ion-dipole forces need ions, and pure water and H2S are molecular substances with essentially no ions present.

  2. Which property is NOT characteristic of gases compared to liquids and solids?

    • A.Negligible cohesion
    • B.Rapid diffusibility
    • C.Low compressibility
    • D.Total miscibility
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Low compressibility

    Low compressibility is correct, because it is the property gases lack: gas particles are far apart, so a gas can be squeezed into a much smaller volume, while liquids and solids are nearly incompressible. Negligible cohesion does describe gases, whose particles attract one another so weakly that they spread out to fill any container instead of clumping together as a liquid does. Rapid diffusibility describes them too, since widely spaced gas particles move past one another with little hindrance and mix quickly. Total miscibility is also typical of gases: any two gases mix in all proportions, which is not true of many pairs of liquids.

  3. What will increase the solubility of a gas in a liquid?

    • A.Cooling the solution
    • B.Heating the liquid
    • C.Agitating the mixture
    • D.Reducing the pressure
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cooling the solution

    Cooling the solution is correct: gas molecules with less kinetic energy are less able to escape from the liquid, so more gas stays dissolved at a lower temperature; cold water holds more dissolved oxygen than warm water. Heating the liquid does the opposite, which is why a warm soda goes flat faster; the rule that solids dissolve better when hot does not hold for gases. Agitating the mixture only changes how fast equilibrium is reached, and shaking helps dissolved gas escape rather than adding more. Reducing the pressure lowers solubility, because by Henry's law the amount of dissolved gas is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas above the liquid.

  4. Which factor does NOT affect the rate of dissolution of a solute in a solvent?

    • A.Grain size of the solute
    • B.Agitation of the solvent
    • C.Heating of the solvent
    • D.Color of the solute
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Color of the solute

    Color of the solute is correct: a solute's color comes from which wavelengths of light it absorbs and has no bearing on how fast its particles break away from the surface and spread into the solvent. Grain size of the solute does affect the rate, since smaller grains expose more surface area to the solvent. Agitation of the solvent affects it as well, because stirring carries dissolved solute away from the surface and brings fresh solvent into contact with it. Heating of the solvent speeds dissolving too, because faster solvent particles strike the surface more often and with more energy.

  5. Raoult's Law applies to which type of solutions?

    • A.Ionic solutions
    • B.Real solutions
    • C.Ideal solutions
    • D.Polar solutions
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ideal solutions

    Ideal solutions is correct: Raoult's law, P(solvent) = X(solvent) × P°(solvent), holds exactly only when the attractions between unlike molecules match those between like molecules, which is what defines an ideal solution. Real solutions deviate from it, positively or negatively, because those attractions differ. Ionic solutions deviate strongly, since ions attract water far more than water attracts itself and each formula unit breaks into several particles. Polar solutions are not a category the law is written for; mixtures of polar substances often deviate from it, because hydrogen bonding and dipole attractions make unlike molecules attract each other more or less strongly than like ones.

  6. What is the effect of adding a non-volatile solute to a solvent on the boiling point of the solvent?

    • A.The boiling point falls
    • B.The boiling point rises
    • C.The boiling point is unchanged
    • D.The boiling point is uncertain
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The boiling point rises

    The boiling point rises is correct: a non-volatile solute lowers the solvent's vapor pressure, so the solution must be heated to a higher temperature before its vapor pressure reaches the outside pressure; this is boiling point elevation, ΔTb = Kb × m. The boiling point falls mixes this up with freezing point depression, the companion colligative effect. The boiling point is unchanged assumes that a solute which never evaporates cannot matter, but it still dilutes the solvent at the surface. The boiling point is uncertain treats the outcome as depending on which solute is used; for any non-volatile solute the boiling point goes up, by an amount set by the concentration of dissolved particles.

  7. In terms of molecular movement, how do gases differ from liquids?

    • A.They move faster and are farther apart
    • B.They move slower and are widely spaced
    • C.They move faster and are closer together
    • D.They move slower and are packed together
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: They move faster and are farther apart

    They move faster and are farther apart is correct: gas molecules fly in straight lines between collisions and are separated by distances many times their own size, while liquid molecules stay in contact and slide past one another. They move slower and are widely spaced gets the speed backward. They move faster and are closer together gets the spacing backward, since a liquid, not a gas, is the closely packed fluid. They move slower and are packed together describes a liquid compared with a gas, the reverse of what is asked.

  8. What is true about the vapor pressure of a solution containing a non-volatile solute?

    • A.It is increased by the dissolved particles
    • B.It is decreased by the dissolved particles
    • C.It is set by the amount of solution
    • D.It is unchanged by the amount of solute
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It is decreased by the dissolved particles

    It is decreased by the dissolved particles is correct: the solute particles dilute the solvent, so fewer solvent molecules escape from the surface each second and the vapor pressure falls below that of the pure solvent; by Raoult's law it equals the solvent's mole fraction times the pure solvent's vapor pressure. It is increased by the dissolved particles reverses the effect, as if the solute added vapor of its own, but a non-volatile solute contributes essentially none. It is unchanged by the amount of solute assumes that a solute which never evaporates cannot affect the vapor pressure; the solute does not evaporate, but it still lowers the solvent's mole fraction at the surface, so the more solute is dissolved, the lower the vapor pressure. It is set by the amount of solution treats vapor pressure as an extensive property. It is intensive: a cup and a tank of the same solution at the same temperature have the same vapor pressure.

  9. What describes the critical point on a phase diagram?

    • A.The temperature and pressure at which the solid, liquid and vapor can coexist
    • B.The boiling temperature of a substance under standard pressure
    • C.The highest temperature and pressure at which liquid and vapor can coexist
    • D.The melting temperature of a solid under standard pressure
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The highest temperature and pressure at which liquid and vapor can coexist

    The highest temperature and pressure at which liquid and vapor can coexist is correct: the critical point is the upper end of the liquid–vapor curve on a phase diagram. Beyond it, liquid and gas are no longer separate phases and the substance is a supercritical fluid, so above the critical temperature no amount of compression produces a distinct liquid. The temperature and pressure at which the solid, liquid and vapor can coexist is the triple point, at the opposite, lower end of the liquid–vapor curve. The boiling temperature of a substance under standard pressure is the normal boiling point, one ordinary point on the liquid–vapor curve, well below the critical point. The melting temperature of a solid under standard pressure is the normal melting point, which lies on the solid–liquid line rather than at the end of the liquid–vapor curve.

  10. Which list correctly ranks intermolecular forces from strongest to weakest for comparably sized molecules?

    • A.Dipole-dipole > hydrogen bonding > ion-dipole > London dispersion
    • B.Hydrogen bonding > ion-dipole > dipole-dipole > London dispersion
    • C.Ion-dipole > hydrogen bonding > dipole-dipole > London dispersion
    • D.Hydrogen bonding > dipole-dipole > ion-dipole > London dispersion
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ion-dipole > hydrogen bonding > dipole-dipole > London dispersion

    Ion-dipole > hydrogen bonding > dipole-dipole > London dispersion is the order for molecules of similar size. Ion-dipole forces act between the full charge of an ion and a polar molecule, as when NaCl dissolves in water, so they are the strongest; hydrogen bonding is the strongest attraction between neutral molecules; ordinary dipole-dipole forces are weaker; and London dispersion forces, present in every substance, are the weakest when sizes are comparable. Hydrogen bonding > ion-dipole > dipole-dipole > London dispersion and Hydrogen bonding > dipole-dipole > ion-dipole > London dispersion both put hydrogen bonding at the top, stretching 'the strongest force between neutral molecules' to cover ions as well; a hydrogen bond is an attraction between partial charges, while an ion carries a full charge, and the second ordering also ranks ion-dipole forces below ordinary dipole-dipole forces. Dipole-dipole > hydrogen bonding > ion-dipole > London dispersion ranks ordinary dipole-dipole forces above hydrogen bonds, which are the strongest kind of dipole-dipole attraction, and puts ion-dipole forces below both.

  11. Hydrogen bonding occurs only when a hydrogen atom is directly bonded to which set of atoms?

    • A.Fluorine, chlorine, or sulfur
    • B.Oxygen, chlorine, or carbon
    • C.Nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine
    • D.Nitrogen, sulfur, or carbon
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine

    Nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine is correct. These three atoms are both small and highly electronegative, so an N-H, O-H or F-H bond leaves the hydrogen strongly positive and nearly bare, able to attract a lone pair on an N, O or F atom of a neighboring molecule. Fluorine, chlorine, or sulfur includes fluorine, but chlorine and sulfur are larger atoms whose charge is too spread out, so HCl and H2S show only ordinary dipole-dipole attractions. Oxygen, chlorine, or carbon includes oxygen, but a C-H bond is barely polar, which is why CH4 cannot hydrogen bond. Nitrogen, sulfur, or carbon includes nitrogen, but sulfur and carbon fail for the same reasons, so every option except Nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine includes at least one atom that does not form hydrogen bonds.

  12. Two nonpolar substances, FX2\ce{F2} and IX2\ce{I2}, are compared at room temperature. Why is IX2\ce{I2} a solid while FX2\ce{F2} is a gas?

    • A.I2 has much stronger I-I bonds, so its crystal resists melting and boiling
    • B.F2 is much lighter, so its molecules are too fast to settle into a solid
    • C.F2 is far more electronegative, so its molecules repel each other as a gas
    • D.I2 has many more electrons, so its London dispersion forces are stronger
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: I2 has many more electrons, so its London dispersion forces are stronger

    I2 has many more electrons, so its London dispersion forces are stronger, and that is why it is a solid. Both halogens are nonpolar, so London dispersion forces are the only attractions between their molecules, and those forces grow with the number of electrons and the size of the electron cloud: an I2 molecule has 106 electrons against 18 for F2, and its larger, more polarizable cloud holds the molecules together strongly enough to make a solid at room temperature. I2 has much stronger I-I bonds, so its crystal resists melting and boiling confuses the bond inside each molecule with the attractions between molecules; melting and boiling do not break the I-I bond, which is in fact slightly weaker than the F-F bond. F2 is much lighter, so its molecules are too fast to settle into a solid credits mass alone; at the same temperature both substances have the same average kinetic energy, and what decides the phase is how strongly the molecules attract one another. F2 is far more electronegative, so its molecules repel each other as a gas misapplies electronegativity, which matters only between unlike atoms; the two identical F atoms share their electrons equally, and F2 molecules do not repel one another.

  13. Acetone (CHX3COCHX3\ce{CH3COCH3}) has no N-H, O-H, or F-H bonds yet boils well above similar-mass nonpolar molecules. Which intermolecular force best explains this?

    • A.Hydrogen bonds arising from its partly negative oxygen atom
    • B.Dipole-dipole attractions arising from its polar C=O bond
    • C.London dispersion forces arising from its C-H and C-C bonds
    • D.Covalent bonding arising from its shared electron pairs
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Dipole-dipole attractions arising from its polar C=O bond

    Dipole-dipole attractions arising from its polar C=O bond explain the high boiling point. The C=O bond in acetone (CH3COCH3) is strongly polar, so each molecule has a permanent dipole, and the partially positive carbon end of one molecule attracts the partially negative oxygen end of the next. Hydrogen bonds arising from its partly negative oxygen atom would need a hydrogen attached to N, O or F on the neighboring molecule; all of acetone's hydrogens are bonded to carbon, so pure acetone cannot hydrogen bond with itself. London dispersion forces arising from its C-H and C-C bonds are present, but they are about the same as in nonpolar molecules of similar mass, so they cannot explain the difference. Covalent bonding arising from its shared electron pairs holds the atoms within each molecule together; boiling separates whole molecules from one another and breaks no covalent bonds.

  14. Comparing two liquids of similar molar mass, the one with stronger intermolecular forces will generally show which combination of properties?

    • A.Lower vapor pressure and higher viscosity
    • B.Higher vapor pressure and higher viscosity
    • C.Lower vapor pressure and lower viscosity
    • D.Higher vapor pressure and lower boiling point
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Lower vapor pressure and higher viscosity

    Lower vapor pressure and higher viscosity both follow from stronger intermolecular forces. Strong attractions hold molecules in the liquid, so fewer escape into the vapor (low vapor pressure), and they make the molecules resist sliding past one another, so the liquid flows slowly (high viscosity). Higher vapor pressure and higher viscosity gets the viscosity right but the vapor pressure backward; molecules that are held more tightly escape less, not more. Lower vapor pressure and lower viscosity gets the vapor pressure right but the viscosity backward; stronger attractions make a liquid flow more slowly, not more easily. Higher vapor pressure and lower boiling point describes the liquid with the weaker intermolecular forces; stronger attractions lower the vapor pressure and raise the boiling point.

  15. Why does water exhibit an unusually high surface tension compared with most other common liquids of similar molar mass?

    • A.Covalent bonds clamp the surface molecules inward
    • B.Ionic forces hold the surface molecules together
    • C.Hydrogen bonds draw the surface molecules inward
    • D.High density packs the surface molecules together
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Hydrogen bonds draw the surface molecules inward

    Water's surface tension is high because hydrogen bonds draw the surface molecules inward: each surface molecule has hydrogen-bonded neighbors beside and below it but none above, so the net pull is inward, and the strength of the hydrogen bonds makes that pull unusually large. Covalent bonds clamp the surface molecules inward confuses the O-H bonds inside each molecule with the attractions between molecules. Ionic forces hold the surface molecules together is wrong because liquid water is molecular; only a tiny fraction of it is ionized. High density packs the surface molecules together does not explain it either, since denser liquids such as dichloromethane have a much lower surface tension than water.

  16. Water rises higher in a narrow glass capillary tube than a wide one. This capillary action depends on which combination of forces?

    • A.Adhesion of the water to the walls, without cohesion
    • B.Adhesion to the glass and cohesion of the water
    • C.Air pressure and suction raising the water up a tube
    • D.Evaporation at the top pulling the water up the tube
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Adhesion to the glass and cohesion of the water

    Capillary rise depends on adhesion to the glass and cohesion of the water: water molecules are attracted to the polar glass surface (adhesion) and creep up the walls, while hydrogen bonding among the water molecules (cohesion) pulls the rest of the column up behind them; the narrower the tube, the higher the column rises. Adhesion of the water to the walls, without cohesion leaves out the cohesive forces that lift the bulk of the liquid; without cohesion there would be no surface tension to pull the column up. Air pressure and suction raising the water up a tube describes drinking through a straw, not capillary action, which happens in a tube open to the air at both ends. Evaporation at the top pulling the water up the tube is not needed, because capillary rise also occurs in a closed, saturated tube where no water evaporates.

  17. Among the noble gases He\ce{He}, Ne\ce{Ne}, Ar\ce{Ar}, and Xe\ce{Xe}, why does xenon have the highest boiling point?

    • A.Its heavier atoms move too slowly to escape into the gas
    • B.Its atoms couple through weak covalent bonds in the liquid
    • C.Its electron cloud sits closer to its nucleus than in neon
    • D.Its larger electron cloud gives stronger dispersion forces
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Its larger electron cloud gives stronger dispersion forces

    Xenon boils highest because its larger electron cloud gives stronger dispersion forces: all four noble gases are nonpolar single atoms held together only by London dispersion forces, and xenon's large electron cloud is the most easily distorted (the most polarizable), so its temporary dipoles are the strongest. Its heavier atoms move too slowly to escape into the gas treats mass as the cause, but at the same temperature every gas has the same average kinetic energy; what holds atoms in the liquid is the attraction between them. Its atoms couple through weak covalent bonds in the liquid is false, because liquid xenon contains no Xe-Xe bonds. Its electron cloud sits closer to its nucleus than in neon gets the size backward: xenon's outer electrons are much farther from the nucleus, which is exactly why they are so easily distorted.

  18. n-Pentane and neopentane (2,2-dimethylpropane) have identical molar masses, yet n-pentane boils higher. What is the best explanation?

    • A.Its carbon-carbon bonds are stronger and must break to boil
    • B.Its C-H bonds let its molecules hydrogen bond to one another
    • C.Its linear shape gives dispersion forces more surface area
    • D.Neopentane's branches let its molecules move faster when hot
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Its linear shape gives dispersion forces more surface area

    n-Pentane boils higher because its linear shape gives dispersion forces more surface area: the extended chains can lie side by side along their whole length, giving a large contact area, while compact, nearly spherical neopentane molecules touch over a much smaller area, so their dispersion forces are weaker. Its carbon-carbon bonds are stronger and must break to boil is wrong because boiling separates whole molecules and breaks no covalent bonds. Its C-H bonds let its molecules hydrogen bond to one another is false, since C-H bonds are not polar enough for hydrogen bonding. Neopentane's branches let its molecules move faster when hot also fails: at the same temperature both compounds have the same average kinetic energy, and their molar masses are identical.

  19. Iodine readily dissolves in nonpolar carbon tetrachloride but only sparingly in water. Which principle best explains this observation?

    • A.Iodine and the solvent are both polar, so polar binds with polar
    • B.Iodine reacts with carbon tetrachloride, so a new compound forms
    • C.Iodine is a heavy solid, so it sinks into carbon tetrachloride
    • D.Iodine and the solvent are both nonpolar, so like dissolves like
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Iodine and the solvent are both nonpolar, so like dissolves like

    The principle is like dissolves like. Iodine and the solvent are both nonpolar, so like dissolves like: nonpolar I2 molecules and nonpolar CCl4 molecules attract each other through dispersion forces of similar strength, so iodine mixes in readily, whereas iodine cannot break into water's strong hydrogen-bonding network. Iodine and the solvent are both polar, so polar binds with polar misclassifies both substances: I2 has no polar bond, and the four polar C-Cl bonds of CCl4 cancel in its tetrahedral shape. Iodine reacts with carbon tetrachloride, so a new compound forms confuses dissolving with a chemical reaction; the iodine is recovered unchanged when the solvent evaporates. Iodine is a heavy solid, so it sinks into carbon tetrachloride mistakes sinking for dissolving; dense solid iodine also sinks in water without dissolving much.

  20. Why does dissolving sodium chloride in water release energy as the ions become surrounded by water molecules?

    • A.Hydrogen bonds develop between the sodium ions and the chloride ions
    • B.Ionic bonds break down between the sodium ions and the chloride ions
    • C.Ion-dipole attractions form between the ions and the polar water molecules
    • D.Electrons transfer directly between the ions and the polar water molecules
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ion-dipole attractions form between the ions and the polar water molecules

    Ion-dipole attractions form between the ions and the polar water molecules. Each Na+ ion attracts the partially negative oxygen ends of nearby water molecules and each Cl- ion attracts their partially positive hydrogen ends; building these hydration shells gives off energy, the hydration energy. Hydrogen bonds develop between the sodium ions and the chloride ions is wrong because neither ion carries a hydrogen atom, and the two ions attract each other ionically, not by hydrogen bonding. Ionic bonds break down between the sodium ions and the chloride ions is the classic bond-breaking error: pulling the ions out of the crystal lattice absorbs energy, so it cannot be the source of the energy released. Electrons transfer directly between the ions and the polar water molecules describes a redox change, but dissolving moves no electrons; each ion keeps its charge throughout.

  21. Ethanol (CX2HX5OH\ce{C2H5OH}) and dimethyl ether (CHX3OCHX3\ce{CH3OCH3}) share the same molecular formula, yet ethanol boils far higher. Why?

    • A.Ethanol has ionic attraction, which the ether lacks
    • B.Ethanol has a polar group, which the ether lacks
    • C.Ethanol has a straight chain, which the ether lacks
    • D.Ethanol has hydrogen bonds, which the ether lacks
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ethanol has hydrogen bonds, which the ether lacks

    Ethanol has hydrogen bonds, which the ether lacks: one hydrogen in ethanol is bonded directly to oxygen (its O-H group), so ethanol molecules hydrogen bond to one another, while every hydrogen in dimethyl ether is bonded to carbon, so ether molecules cannot hydrogen bond to each other. That extra attraction is why ethanol boils near 78 °C and the ether near -24 °C even though the two share a formula and a molar mass. Ethanol has ionic attraction, which the ether lacks is wrong because the O-H in ethanol is a covalent group, not a hydroxide ion; both compounds are molecular. Ethanol has a polar group, which the ether lacks is wrong because the bent C-O-C group of the ether is also polar and gives it dipole-dipole forces of its own. Ethanol has a straight chain, which the ether lacks is wrong because both molecules are unbranched three-atom chains, C-C-O and C-O-C; the name dimethyl does not mean branched.

  22. According to Henry's law, how does the solubility of a gas in a liquid change when the partial pressure of that gas above the liquid is increased?

    • A.Solubility declines in inverse proportion to the partial pressure
    • B.Solubility increases in direct proportion to the partial pressure
    • C.Solubility stays constant, as the temperature alone can change it
    • D.Solubility rises, then stays constant as the liquid saturates
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Solubility increases in direct proportion to the partial pressure

    Solubility increases in direct proportion to the partial pressure. Henry's law states that the concentration of a dissolved gas equals a constant times the partial pressure of that gas above the liquid, so doubling the pressure doubles the solubility; that is why a sealed bottle of soda holds far more CO2 than an open one. Solubility declines in inverse proportion to the partial pressure reverses the relationship, as if dissolved gas behaved like gas volume in Boyle's law. Solubility stays constant, as the temperature alone can change it is wrong because temperature is not the only factor: pressure changes gas solubility too, which is why bubbles appear the moment a bottle is opened. Solubility rises, then stays constant as the liquid saturates misreads saturation, because the saturation concentration is itself what rises with the partial pressure; there is no fixed ceiling.

  23. Adding antifreeze (ethylene glycol) to a car radiator lowers the freezing point of the water. This colligative effect occurs because the dissolved solute does what?

    • A.Gives off heat as it dissolves, so the water stays too warm to freeze
    • B.Raises the vapor pressure of water, so ice crystals form less readily
    • C.Hinders crystal formation, so it takes lower temperatures to freeze
    • D.Reacts in solution, so a compound with a lower melting point appears
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Hinders crystal formation, so it takes lower temperatures to freeze

    Hinders crystal formation, so it takes lower temperatures to freeze. Dissolved solute particles get in the way of water molecules settling into the ordered ice lattice, so the solution must be cooled below 0 °C before ice forms; the size of the drop depends on how many particles are dissolved, not on what they are, which is what makes the effect colligative. Gives off heat as it dissolves, so the water stays too warm to freeze confuses a one-time heat of mixing with an equilibrium property: any heat released soon escapes, yet the lower freezing point remains. Raises the vapor pressure of water, so ice crystals form less readily has the direction wrong, because a nonvolatile solute lowers the vapor pressure of the solvent. Reacts in solution, so a compound with a lower melting point appears is wrong because ethylene glycol does not react with water; it simply dissolves.

  24. Dry ice (solid COX2\ce{CO2}) converts directly to a gas at room pressure rather than melting to a liquid first. What does this behavior reveal about COX2\ce{CO2}'s intermolecular forces?

    • A.They are strong polar dipole-dipole forces, preventing melting at ordinary pressure
    • B.They are covalent bonds within each molecule, breaking apart at ordinary pressure
    • C.They are weak nonpolar dispersion forces, allowing sublimation at ordinary pressure
    • D.They are hydrogen bonds through its oxygen atoms, holding firm at ordinary pressure
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: They are weak nonpolar dispersion forces, allowing sublimation at ordinary pressure

    They are weak nonpolar dispersion forces, allowing sublimation at ordinary pressure. CO2 is linear, so its two C=O bond dipoles cancel and the only attractions between molecules are weak London dispersion forces; at 1 atm the solid passes straight into the gas at -78 °C, because the triple point of CO2 lies near 5.1 atm, above ordinary pressure. They are strong polar dipole-dipole forces, preventing melting at ordinary pressure is wrong: each C=O bond is polar but the molecule is not, and strong attractions would not let the solid vaporize at such a low temperature. They are covalent bonds within each molecule, breaking apart at ordinary pressure is wrong because sublimation separates whole CO2 molecules and leaves their C=O bonds intact. They are hydrogen bonds through its oxygen atoms, holding firm at ordinary pressure is wrong because hydrogen bonding needs a hydrogen atom bonded to N, O, or F, and CO2 contains no hydrogen at all.

  25. Honey is far more viscous than water at the same temperature. What is the primary reason for honey's high viscosity?

    • A.Dispersion attraction among its nonpolar sugar molecules resists flow
    • B.Strong covalent bonding among its linked sugar molecules resists flow
    • C.Strong ion-ion attraction among its sugar molecules resists flow
    • D.Extensive hydrogen bonding among its sugar molecules resists flow
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Extensive hydrogen bonding among its sugar molecules resists flow

    Extensive hydrogen bonding among its sugar molecules resists flow. Glucose and fructose each carry several O-H groups, so the dissolved sugars form a dense network of hydrogen bonds with one another and with water, and that network strongly resists molecules sliding past one another. Dispersion attraction among its nonpolar sugar molecules resists flow is wrong because sugars are highly polar; dispersion forces are present but are not what makes honey thick. Strong covalent bonding among its linked sugar molecules resists flow is wrong because the sugars in honey are separate molecules, not covalently joined to one another, and a flowing liquid never breaks covalent bonds. Strong ion-ion attraction among its sugar molecules resists flow is wrong because sugars are molecular nonelectrolytes that dissolve without forming ions.

Reactions (25)

  1. What is the mass in grams of sodium chloride that can be produced from the complete reaction of 85 grams of sodium with chlorine gas?

    • A.33 grams
    • B.108 grams
    • C.131 grams
    • D.216 grams
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 216 grams

    The reaction is 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl, so each mole of sodium gives one mole of sodium chloride. 85 g of Na is 85/22.99 = 3.70 mol, which forms 3.70 mol of NaCl; at 58.44 g/mol that is 3.70 × 58.44 = 216 grams. 108 grams halves the mole ratio, as if 2 mol of Na gave only 1 mol of NaCl. 131 grams is the mass of Cl2 that reacts (1.85 mol × 70.90 g/mol), not the mass of product. 33 grams turns the molar-mass ratio upside down, multiplying 85 g by 22.99/58.44 instead of 58.44/22.99.

  2. A reaction requires 0.75 moles of copper (II) sulfate. How many grams of copper (II) sulfate are necessary?

    • A.167 grams
    • B.187 grams
    • C.213 grams
    • D.120 grams
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 120 grams

    Copper(II) sulfate is CuSO4, with molar mass 63.55 + 32.07 + 4(16.00) = 159.6 g/mol, so 0.75 mol has a mass of 0.75 × 159.6 = 120 grams. 187 grams uses the blue pentahydrate, CuSO4·5H2O (249.7 g/mol), but the reaction calls for copper(II) sulfate itself. 167 grams reads the (II) as two copper atoms and uses Cu2SO4 (223.2 g/mol); the Roman numeral gives copper's charge, 2+, not a subscript. 213 grams divides 159.6 by 0.75 instead of multiplying.

  3. If 5.0 moles of propane (CX3HX8\ce{C3H8}) are burned completely in excess oxygen, how many moles of carbon dioxide are produced?

    • A.3 moles
    • B.15 moles
    • C.25 moles
    • D.1.7 moles
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 15 moles

    The balanced equation is C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O, so each mole of propane gives 3 moles of CO2, and 5.0 mol of propane gives 5.0 × 3 = 15 moles of CO2. 3 moles is just the coefficient of CO2, the amount from one mole of propane, not from 5.0 mol. 25 moles multiplies by the coefficient of oxygen (5) instead of carbon dioxide (3). 1.7 moles inverts the mole ratio: it divides 5.0 by 3 instead of multiplying, as if 3 mol of propane gave only 1 mol of CO2.

  4. What is the limiting reagent when 3.0 grams of Al\ce{Al} react with 4.0 grams of OX2\ce{O2} to form aluminum oxide?

    • A.O2
    • B.Al2O3
    • C.Al
    • D.Neither
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Al

    The balanced equation is 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3. 3.0 g of Al is 3.0/26.98 = 0.111 mol, and 4.0 g of O2 is 4.0/32.00 = 0.125 mol. Reacting all of the aluminum needs 0.111 × 3/4 = 0.083 mol of O2, less than the 0.125 mol present, so oxygen is left over and Al runs out first: Al is the limiting reagent. O2 would be limiting only if it ran out first; choosing it usually comes from inverting the 4:3 ratio (0.111 × 4/3 = 0.148 mol of O2 "needed"). Al2O3 is the product, and a product cannot limit a reaction. Neither would require the two reactants to be in exactly the 4:3 mole ratio, and they are not.

  5. How many grams of FeX2OX3\ce{Fe2O3} can be formed from the reaction of 8.4 grams of iron with excess oxygen?

    • A.12.0 grams
    • B.3.6 grams
    • C.4.2 grams
    • D.10.8 grams
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 12.0 grams

    The balanced equation is 4Fe + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3. 8.4 g of iron is 8.4/55.85 = 0.150 mol, which gives 0.150 × 2/4 = 0.0752 mol of Fe2O3; at 159.7 g/mol that is 12.0 grams. 10.8 grams assumes the oxide is FeO (71.85 g/mol, one mole per mole of iron), the wrong formula. 3.6 grams is only the mass of oxygen that combines with the iron (12.0 - 8.4), not the mass of the oxide. 4.2 grams multiplies the 0.0752 mol of Fe2O3 by iron's molar mass (55.85 g/mol) instead of the oxide's.

  6. What volume of carbon dioxide at STP is produced from the combustion of 100 grams of butane (CX4HX10\ce{C4H10})?

    • A.154.2 L
    • B.38.5 L
    • C.89.6 L
    • D.192.7 L
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 154.2 L

    The balanced equation is 2C4H10 + 13O2 → 8CO2 + 10H2O, so each mole of butane gives 8/2 = 4 mol of CO2. 100 g of butane is 100/58.12 = 1.7206 mol, which gives 4 × 1.7206 = 6.882 mol of CO2; at STP that occupies 6.882 × 22.4 L/mol = 154.2 L. 38.5 L skips the 4:1 mole ratio and counts one mole of CO2 per mole of butane. 89.6 L treats the 100 g of butane as if it were 1 mol, skipping the molar mass. 192.7 L uses the water ratio, 10/2 = 5 mol per mole of butane, instead of the CO2 ratio.

  7. A mixture of 5.0 grams of HX2\ce{H2} and 20.0 grams of OX2\ce{O2} is ignited. What is the mass of water vapor formed?

    • A.22.5 grams
    • B.2.5 grams
    • C.25.0 grams
    • D.44.7 grams
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 22.5 grams

    The balanced equation is 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. 5.0 g of H2 is 5.0/2.016 = 2.48 mol, and 20.0 g of O2 is 20.0/32.00 = 0.625 mol. Using all the hydrogen would need 1.24 mol of O2, but only 0.625 mol is present, so O2 is the limiting reagent. It forms 2 × 0.625 = 1.25 mol of water, and 1.25 × 18.02 = 22.5 grams. 44.7 grams treats hydrogen as the limiting reagent (2.48 mol of water), which would need more oxygen than is there. 25.0 grams simply adds the two starting masses; mass is conserved only for the material that reacts, and about 2.5 g of hydrogen is left over. 2.5 grams is that leftover hydrogen, not the water formed.

  8. If 7.0 grams of nitrogen reacts with 3.0 grams of hydrogen, how many grams of ammonia are produced?

    • A.8.5 grams
    • B.7.5 grams
    • C.3.8 grams
    • D.17.0 grams
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 8.5 grams

    8.5 grams is correct. In N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, 7.0 g of N2 is 7.0/28.0 = 0.25 mol and 3.0 g of H2 is 3.0/2.0 = 1.5 mol. Using up 0.25 mol of N2 takes only 0.75 mol of H2, so nitrogen is the limiting reactant, and 0.25 mol of N2 gives 2 × 0.25 = 0.50 mol of NH3, or 0.50 × 17.0 = 8.5 g. 17.0 grams treats hydrogen as the limiting reactant (1.5 mol H2 × 2/3 = 1.0 mol NH3), but hydrogen is in excess. 7.5 grams finds the right 0.50 mol of NH3 but takes the molar mass of ammonia as 15.0 g/mol, counting one hydrogen atom instead of three (14.0 + 1.0), so 0.50 × 15.0 = 7.5 g. 3.8 grams ignores the 2 in 2NH3, taking only 0.25 mol of NH3, and also uses 15.0 g/mol for ammonia: 0.25 × 15.0 ≈ 3.8 g.

  9. In the reaction where calcium carbonate decomposes into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide, how much carbon dioxide can be produced from 50 grams of calcium carbonate?

    • A.44 grams
    • B.28 grams
    • C.14 grams
    • D.22 grams
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 22 grams

    22 grams is correct. CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 has a 1:1 mole ratio between calcium carbonate and carbon dioxide, so 50 g ÷ 100 g/mol = 0.50 mol of CaCO3 releases 0.50 mol of CO2, and 0.50 mol × 44 g/mol = 22 g. 44 grams is the mass of a whole mole of CO2; it skips converting the 50 g of calcium carbonate to 0.50 mol. 28 grams is the mass of the other product, calcium oxide (0.50 mol × 56 g/mol). 14 grams takes the molar mass of CO2 as 28 g/mol, counting only one oxygen atom (12 + 16), so 0.50 mol × 28 g/mol = 14 g.

  10. At which electrode does the reduction reaction occur in a galvanic cell?

    • A.Anode
    • B.Solution
    • C.Cathode
    • D.Membrane
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cathode

    Reduction takes place at the cathode, the electrode where electrons arriving through the external wire are taken up by ions from the solution (for example, Cu^2+ + 2e- → Cu). The anode is where oxidation happens, the opposite half-reaction, so 'Anode' swaps the two electrodes. 'Solution' names the electrolyte that supplies the reacting ions, but the electron transfer itself happens on the electrode surface, not out in the bulk liquid. 'Membrane' names the porous barrier (or salt bridge) that only lets ions drift between the half-cells to keep each side electrically neutral; no electrons are gained or lost there.

  11. Which statement is true for the standard electrode potentials in electrochemistry?

    • A.A more positive potential means an easier loss of electrons
    • B.Doubling a half-reaction doubles its standard potential
    • C.A catalyst raises the standard potential of a half-reaction
    • D.A more positive potential means a stronger oxidizing agent
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A more positive potential means a stronger oxidizing agent

    A standard reduction potential measures how strongly a species pulls electrons toward itself, so a more positive potential means a stronger oxidizing agent: the species is more easily reduced (F2, at +2.87 V, is the strongest common oxidant). That same pull makes the species harder to oxidize, so 'A more positive potential means an easier loss of electrons' runs the relationship backward. Standard potentials are intensive, so the claim that doubling a half-reaction doubles its standard potential is false: the coefficients change but E° does not. The claim that a catalyst raises the standard potential of a half-reaction is also false, because a catalyst only changes how fast equilibrium is reached and leaves every thermodynamic quantity, E° included, unchanged.

  12. Which reaction correctly represents the oxidation that occurs in a standard hydrogen electrode?

    • A.2H+ + 2e- → H2
    • B.H2 → 2H + 2e-
    • C.H2 → 2H+ + 2e-
    • D.2H + 2e- → H2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: H2 → 2H+ + 2e-

    When the standard hydrogen electrode is the anode, hydrogen gas is oxidized: H2 → 2H+ + 2e-, with each hydrogen going from 0 to +1 and two electrons released so the charge balances (0 on each side). '2H+ + 2e- → H2' is the same half-reaction run as a reduction, which is what happens when the hydrogen electrode serves as the cathode, so it is not the oxidation. 'H2 → 2H + 2e-' drops the positive charge on the hydrogen ions, leaving the equation unbalanced in charge (0 on the left, -2 on the right). '2H + 2e- → H2' makes both slips at once: it is written as a reduction and its hydrogen carries no charge.

  13. What is the oxidation state of chromium in KX2CrX2OX7\ce{K2Cr2O7}?

    • A.2
    • B.5
    • C.6
    • D.8
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 6

    Potassium is +1 and oxygen is -2, and the oxidation states in neutral K2Cr2O7 must add up to zero: 2(+1) + 2x + 7(-2) = 0, so 2x = 12 and each chromium is +6. '5' treats potassium as +2 by reading its subscript as a charge, so 2(+2) + 2x - 14 = 0 gives 2x = 10. '8' comes from moving the potassium term across the equals sign without changing its sign, which gives 2x = 14 + 2 = 16. '2' reads the subscript in Cr2 as if it were the oxidation state; a subscript only counts atoms.

  14. Which species is reduced in the reaction 2 Al(s)+3 MnOX2(s)→AlX2OX3(s)+3 Mn(s)\ce{2Al(s) + 3MnO2(s) -> Al2O3(s) + 3Mn(s)}?

    • A.Al^3+
    • B.O^2-
    • C.Al
    • D.Mn
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Mn

    Manganese is the element that is reduced: it is +4 in the reactant MnO2 (each oxygen is -2) and 0 in the product Mn, so each manganese gains four electrons. 'Al' is the species oxidized: aluminum metal goes from 0 to +3 and loses electrons, so it is the reducing agent, not the species reduced. 'Al^3+' is the form aluminum takes in the product Al2O3 after that oxidation; it is produced by losing electrons, and nothing in this reaction adds electrons to it. 'O^2-', the oxide ion, stays at an oxidation state of -2 on both sides of the equation, in MnO2 and in Al2O3, so oxygen is neither oxidized nor reduced here.

  15. How many electrons are transferred in the balanced redox reaction involving the conversion of Cu\ce{Cu} to CuX2+\ce{Cu^2+} and AgX+\ce{Ag+} to Ag\ce{Ag}?

    • A.2
    • B.4
    • C.3
    • D.6
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2

    Each copper atom loses two electrons (Cu → Cu^2+ + 2e-) and each silver ion gains one (Ag+ + e- → Ag), so the silver half-reaction is doubled to balance: Cu + 2Ag+ → Cu^2+ + 2Ag, and 2 electrons pass from one copper atom to two silver ions. '4' counts each transferred electron twice, once as lost by copper and once as gained by silver, but the two electrons copper gives up are the same two that the silver ions take. '3' adds the electrons in the two half-reactions before balancing them (2 + 1). '6' adds up the coefficients of the balanced equation (1 + 2 + 1 + 2), which counts particles, not electrons.

  16. When the equation CX3HX8+OX2→COX2+HX2O\ce{C3H8 + O2 -> CO2 + H2O} is balanced with the smallest whole-number coefficients, what coefficient appears in front of OX2\ce{O2}?

    • A.2
    • B.10
    • C.7
    • D.5
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 5

    The coefficient on O2 is 5. Balance carbon first (3 C atoms need 3 CO2), then hydrogen (8 H atoms need 4 H2O), then oxygen: the products contain 3 × 2 + 4 × 1 = 10 O atoms, which is 5 O2 molecules, so the balanced equation is C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O. 10 is the number of oxygen atoms, not O2 molecules; each O2 supplies two atoms. 7 forgets the second oxygen in each CO2: counting 3 + 4 = 7 oxygen atoms calls for 3.5 O2, which becomes 7 when every coefficient is doubled to clear the fraction. 2 copies the subscript in O2 as if it were the coefficient; a subscript is part of the formula and is never changed or read as a coefficient.

  17. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.50 mol of NaCl\ce{NaCl} in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. What is the molarity of the solution?

    • A.4.0 M
    • B.0.0020 M
    • C.2.0 M
    • D.0.0040 M
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2.0 M

    The molarity is 2.0 M. Molarity is moles of solute per liter of solution: 0.50 mol ÷ 0.250 L = 2.0 mol/L. 0.0020 M comes from dividing by 250 without first converting milliliters to liters. 4.0 M counts the Na+ and Cl- ions separately, but the molarity of an NaCl solution counts formula units of NaCl, not the ions they release. 0.0040 M makes both mistakes, doubling for the ions and skipping the unit conversion.

  18. Nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to NX2+3 HX2→2 NHX3\ce{N2 + 3H2 -> 2NH3}. If a reaction theoretically should produce 34.0 g of NHX3\ce{NH3} but only 27.2 g is actually collected, what is the percent yield?

    • A.20%
    • B.6.8%
    • C.93%
    • D.80%
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 80%

    The percent yield is 80%. Percent yield = (actual yield ÷ theoretical yield) × 100 = (27.2 g ÷ 34.0 g) × 100 = 80%. 20% is the percent lost, (34.0 - 27.2) ÷ 34.0 × 100, not the percent of the theoretical yield that was obtained. 6.8% reports the 6.8 g difference between the two masses as if it were a percentage. 93% reads the 6.8 g lost as 6.8% lost and subtracts that from 100% (100 - 6.8 = 93.2, about 93%); 6.8 g is 20% of the 34.0 g theoretical yield, not 6.8% of it.

  19. Aqueous silver nitrate is mixed with aqueous sodium chloride, forming a white precipitate. What is the correct net ionic equation for this reaction?

    • A.Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → AgCl(s)
    • B.Ag+(aq) + Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → AgCl(s) + Na+(aq)
    • C.Na+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → NaNO3(s)
    • D.Ag+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → AgNO3(s)
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → AgCl(s)

    Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → AgCl(s) is the net ionic equation. Silver chloride is insoluble, so the white precipitate is AgCl, while Na+ and NO3- stay dissolved on both sides as spectator ions and are left out. Ag+(aq) + Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → AgCl(s) + Na+(aq) shows the right precipitate but still carries the spectator ion Na+ on both sides; a net ionic equation cancels every spectator ion. Na+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → NaNO3(s) shows sodium nitrate coming out of solution, but sodium salts and nitrates are soluble. Ag+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → AgNO3(s) shows silver nitrate precipitating, but nitrates are soluble; silver nitrate was one of the dissolved starting materials.

  20. For the reaction 2 Al+3 ClX2→2 AlClX3\ce{2Al + 3Cl2 -> 2AlCl3}, a mixture contains 0.20 mol Al\ce{Al} and 0.20 mol ClX2\ce{Cl2}. Which substance is the limiting reactant?

    • A.Cl2
    • B.Al
    • C.Al2Cl6
    • D.Neither, since equal moles of Al and Cl2 react completely
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cl2

    Cl2 is the limiting reactant. Dividing each amount by its coefficient gives 0.20/2 = 0.10 for Al and 0.20/3 = 0.067 for Cl2, and the smaller value marks the reactant that runs out first; put another way, 0.20 mol Al would need 0.30 mol Cl2, but only 0.20 mol is present. Al is the excess reactant: the 0.20 mol of Cl2 uses up only about 0.13 mol of it. Neither, since equal moles of Al and Cl2 react completely ignores the 2:3 mole ratio; equal amounts would react completely only if the two coefficients were equal. Al2Cl6, the form aluminum chloride takes as a vapor, is a product, so it cannot limit the reaction.

  21. What is the oxidation number of sulfur in the sulfate ion, SOX4X2−\ce{SO4^2-}?

    • A.+8
    • B.+6
    • C.-6
    • D.-2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: +6

    The oxidation number of sulfur in SO4^2- is +6. Each oxygen is -2, so four oxygens contribute -8, and the oxidation numbers must add up to the ion's charge of -2: S + (-8) = -2, so S = +6. +8 comes from setting the sum to zero, as if SO4 were a neutral molecule rather than an ion with a 2- charge. -2 gives the whole ion's charge to sulfur, as if the four oxygens contributed nothing; -2 is sulfur's oxidation number in sulfides such as H2S, not in sulfate. -6 has the right size but the wrong sign, from subtracting in the wrong order, -8 - (-2) = -6.

  22. Zinc displaces copper from solution by the reaction Zn(s)+CuX2+(aq)→ZnX2+(aq)+Cu(s)\ce{Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) -> Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s)}. Which species is the oxidizing agent?

    • A.Zn
    • B.Cu^2+
    • C.Zn^2+
    • D.Cu
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Cu^2+

    Cu^2+ is the oxidizing agent. An oxidizing agent is the species that is reduced: Cu^2+ gains two electrons to become copper metal, and in doing so it takes electrons away from the zinc. Zn is the reducing agent, the species that loses electrons and is itself oxidized. Zn^2+ is what zinc becomes once it has been oxidized, and Cu is what the copper ion becomes once it has been reduced; both are products, not the species that takes electrons from zinc.

  23. A chemist needs 100.0 mL of 3.0 M HCl\ce{HCl} and has a 12.0 M HCl\ce{HCl} stock solution. Using C1V1=C2V2C_1 V_1 = C_2 V_2, what volume of the stock should be diluted to make the new solution?

    • A.75.0 mL
    • B.33.3 mL
    • C.25.0 mL
    • D.66.7 mL
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 25.0 mL

    The stock volume is 25.0 mL. Dilution keeps the moles of HCl the same, so concentration times volume is equal before and after: 12.0 M × (stock volume) = 3.0 M × 100.0 mL, which gives a stock volume of (3.0 × 100.0) ÷ 12.0 = 25.0 mL. That 25.0 mL of stock is then diluted with water to a total of 100.0 mL. 75.0 mL is the volume of water to add, not the volume of stock. 33.3 mL comes from dividing 100.0 mL by 3.0 M and leaving the stock concentration out. 66.7 mL makes both mistakes: it leaves the stock concentration out (100.0 ÷ 3.0 = 33.3 mL) and then reports the water, 100.0 - 33.3 mL, instead of the stock.

  24. Zinc reacts with excess hydrochloric acid: Zn+2 HCl→ZnClX2+HX2\ce{Zn + 2HCl -> ZnCl2 + H2}. If 2.0 mol of Zn\ce{Zn} reacts completely, what volume does the HX2\ce{H2} gas occupy at 1.00 atm and 300 K? (R = 0.0821 L*atm/mol*K)

    • A.44.8 L
    • B.49.3 L
    • C.22.4 L
    • D.24.6 L
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 49.3 L

    The hydrogen occupies 49.3 L. The 1:1 mole ratio of Zn to H2 gives 2.0 mol of H2, and V = nRT/P = (2.0 mol × 0.0821 L·atm/(mol·K) × 300 K) ÷ 1.00 atm = 49.3 L. 24.6 L uses 1.0 mol of H2, as if the 2 in front of HCl halved the hydrogen produced; each mole of Zn gives one mole of H2. 44.8 L is the volume of 2.0 mol at STP (22.4 L per mole), but this gas is at 300 K, not 273 K. 22.4 L is the molar volume at STP, the volume of just 1.0 mol at 273 K, so it makes both of those mistakes.

  25. When excess aqueous lead(II) nitrate is added to a solution containing 0.40 mol of potassium iodide, the reaction is 2 KI+Pb(NOX3)X2→PbIX2+2 KNOX3\ce{2KI + Pb(NO3)2 -> PbI2 + 2KNO3}. How many moles of lead(II) iodide precipitate form?

    • A.0.40 mol
    • B.0.20 mol
    • C.0.10 mol
    • D.1.6 mol
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.20 mol

    0.20 mol. The balanced equation 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → PbI2 + 2KNO3 shows that 2 mol of KI produce 1 mol of PbI2, and KI limits the reaction because lead(II) nitrate is present in excess: 0.40 mol KI × (1 mol PbI2 / 2 mol KI) = 0.20 mol PbI2. 0.40 mol skips the 2:1 mole ratio and assumes one mole of precipitate per mole of KI. 0.10 mol divides by 2 for the coefficient of KI and again by 2 for the iodide subscript in PbI2, counting the same 2:1 relationship twice. 1.6 mol multiplies by 2 for the coefficient of KI and again by 2 for the iodide subscript in PbI2 instead of dividing.

Energy and Thermodynamics (25)

  1. Which expression correctly describes the change in entropy (ΔS\Delta S) of a reaction that forms a complex molecule from simpler molecules?

    • A.ΔS > 0
    • B.ΔS = 0
    • C.ΔS < 0
    • D.ΔS ≥ 0
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: ΔS < 0

    ΔS < 0 is correct: joining several simpler molecules into one more complex molecule leaves fewer independent particles that can move and arrange themselves, so the system becomes more ordered and its entropy decreases. ΔS > 0 assumes that a bigger, more complicated molecule means more disorder, but fewer molecules have fewer possible arrangements. ΔS = 0 assumes entropy cannot change because the same atoms are present before and after. ΔS ≥ 0 applies the second law to the system alone; it is the entropy of the universe, not of the reacting system, that cannot decrease in a spontaneous change.

  2. Which condition is not necessary for a reaction to be considered spontaneous under standard conditions?

    • A.Negative free energy change
    • B.Positive total entropy change
    • C.Product-favored equilibrium
    • D.Temperature independent
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Temperature independent

    Temperature independent is correct, because a reaction does not have to be spontaneous at every temperature to be spontaneous under standard conditions; many reactions are spontaneous only above or only below some temperature, as ΔG = ΔH − TΔS shows. Negative free energy change is required: ΔG < 0 is the test for spontaneity at constant temperature and pressure. Positive total entropy change is required as well, since the second law demands that the entropy of the system plus its surroundings increase in any spontaneous change. Product-favored equilibrium is required too, because ΔG° = −RT ln K is negative only when K is greater than 1.

  3. What is the enthalpy change (ΔH\Delta H) for a reaction that is exothermic and results in the formation of gases from solids?

    • A.Greater than zero
    • B.Less than zero
    • C.Equal to zero
    • D.Equal to the change in internal energy
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Less than zero

    Less than zero is correct: an exothermic reaction releases heat to the surroundings, and by the sign convention heat leaving the system makes its enthalpy change negative (ΔH < 0), whatever the states of the reactants and products. Greater than zero describes an endothermic reaction; it reverses the sign convention, or lets the gases being formed override the word exothermic. Equal to zero would mean no heat is exchanged at constant pressure, which contradicts a reaction that releases heat. Equal to the change in internal energy ignores the work of expansion: forming gases from solids makes the change in moles of gas positive, so ΔH is larger than ΔU, not equal to it.

  4. Which statement about endothermic reactions is correct?

    • A.Heat is released, so ΔH is negative
    • B.Heat is absorbed, so ΔH is negative
    • C.Heat is absorbed, so ΔH is positive
    • D.Heat is released, so ΔH is positive
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Heat is absorbed, so ΔH is positive

    Heat is absorbed, so ΔH is positive is correct: an endothermic reaction takes in heat from its surroundings, and by convention heat gained by the system makes the enthalpy change positive. Heat is released, so ΔH is negative describes an exothermic reaction instead. Heat is absorbed, so ΔH is negative has the direction of heat flow right but the sign convention backward. Heat is released, so ΔH is positive gets the direction of heat flow wrong and also breaks the convention, since heat leaving a system makes ΔH negative.

  5. What is the sign of ΔG\Delta G for a reaction where ΔH=−150\Delta H = -150 kJ and ΔS=−100\Delta S = -100 J/K at 298 K?

    • A.Positive
    • B.Variable
    • C.Negative
    • D.Unknown
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Negative

    Negative is correct: with ΔS converted to kilojoules, ΔG = ΔH − TΔS = −150 kJ − (298 K)(−0.100 kJ/K) = −150 kJ + 29.8 kJ = −120.2 kJ. Positive is what results from leaving ΔS in joules while ΔH is in kilojoules: −150 − (298)(−100) = +29,650, a units error. Variable suggests the sign could go either way under these conditions, but at a fixed 298 K it is fixed; with ΔH and ΔS both negative, it would turn positive only above T = ΔH/ΔS = 1500 K. Unknown is wrong because ΔH, ΔS and T are all given, so the sign can be calculated.

  6. If a reaction's entropy change (ΔS) is negative and its enthalpy change (ΔH) is positive, under what conditions might the reaction be spontaneous?

    • A.Always spontaneous at any temperature
    • B.Spontaneous only at high temperatures
    • C.Spontaneous only at low temperatures
    • D.Never spontaneous at any temperature
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Never spontaneous at any temperature

    Never spontaneous at any temperature is correct: in ΔG = ΔH − TΔS, a positive ΔH contributes a positive term, and a negative ΔS makes −TΔS positive at every temperature above absolute zero, so ΔG stays positive and the reaction is never spontaneous; it can be made to occur only by continuously supplying energy from outside. Always spontaneous at any temperature describes the opposite case, a negative ΔH with a positive ΔS. Spontaneous only at high temperatures fits a positive ΔH with a positive ΔS, where a large TΔS eventually outweighs ΔH. Spontaneous only at low temperatures fits a negative ΔH with a negative ΔS, where ΔH dominates while T is small.

  7. For a process that absorbs 40 kJ of heat and does 15 kJ of work on the surroundings, what is the change in internal energy of the system?

    • A.+55 kJ
    • B.-40 kJ
    • C.+25 kJ
    • D.-25 kJ
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: +25 kJ

    +25 kJ is correct. By the first law, ΔU = q + w, with q positive for heat absorbed by the system and w negative for work the system does on its surroundings: ΔU = (+40 kJ) + (−15 kJ) = +25 kJ. +55 kJ treats the work done on the surroundings as energy gained, adding 15 kJ instead of subtracting it. -40 kJ counts the absorbed heat as heat released (q = −40 kJ) and leaves out the work entirely. -25 kJ reverses both signs, treating the heat as released and the work as done on the system; that is the energy change of the surroundings, not of the system.

  8. For a reaction with a ΔG\Delta G of +30 kJ/mol at 298 K, what can be said about the spontaneity of the reaction?

    • A.The reaction is favored overall.
    • B.The reaction is non-spontaneous.
    • C.The reaction is heat-absorbing.
    • D.The reaction is inherently slow.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The reaction is non-spontaneous.

    A positive ΔG of +30 kJ/mol means the reaction as written cannot proceed on its own at 298 K: the reaction is non-spontaneous. Reading a positive ΔG as favorable reverses the sign convention and leads to the claim that the reaction is favored overall. In fact a positive standard free energy change corresponds to K less than 1, so reactants dominate at equilibrium. ΔG does not reveal ΔH, and a positive ΔG can come from an unfavorable entropy change, so nothing shows that the reaction is heat-absorbing. ΔG also says nothing about speed, so it cannot show that the reaction is inherently slow. How fast a reaction goes depends on its activation energy, not on the sign of ΔG.

  9. What is the effect of increasing the concentration of the cathodic reactant in a voltaic cell?

    • A.The cell potential goes down
    • B.The cell potential becomes larger
    • C.The standard cell potential rises
    • D.The standard cell potential falls
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    Correct answer: The cell potential becomes larger

    By the Nernst equation, E = E° − (RT/nF) ln Q, and the cathodic reactant sits in the denominator of Q. Raising its concentration lowers Q, so the cell potential becomes larger; Le Chatelier's principle points the same way, since more reactant pushes the cell reaction forward. 'The cell potential goes down' gets the direction of the change in Q backward. 'The standard cell potential rises' and 'The standard cell potential falls' both confuse E with E°: the standard potential is fixed by the 1 M, 1 bar reference state, so changing an actual concentration moves E but leaves E° where it was.

  10. A cell consists of a magnesium electrode in a 1 M MgX2+\ce{Mg^2+} solution and a copper electrode in a 1 M CuX2+\ce{Cu^2+} solution. What is the standard cell potential?

    • A.0.34 V
    • B.-2.03 V
    • C.2.71 V
    • D.2.03 V
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2.71 V

    Magnesium has the more negative reduction potential (Mg^2+/Mg = -2.37 V), so it is the anode, and copper (Cu^2+/Cu = +0.34 V) is the cathode: E°cell = E°cathode − E°anode = 0.34 − (−2.37) = 2.71 V. '-2.03 V' adds the two tabulated reduction potentials as listed, 0.34 + (−2.37), without reversing the magnesium half-reaction, which runs as an oxidation at the anode. '2.03 V' subtracts the smaller magnitude from the larger (2.37 − 0.34), ignoring the signs altogether. '0.34 V' reports only the copper half-cell, as if the magnesium electrode contributed nothing.

  11. The Nernst equation is used to calculate the cell potential under non-standard conditions. What key variable does this equation introduce that is not considered in the standard cell potential?

    • A.Conductivity
    • B.Electrode area
    • C.Concentration
    • D.Electrode mass
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    Correct answer: Concentration

    The Nernst equation, E = E° − (RT/nF) ln Q, corrects the standard potential through the reaction quotient Q, which is built from the actual concentrations (or partial pressures) of reactants and products; concentration is what standard conditions fix at 1 M and what the Nernst equation lets vary. 'Conductivity' governs how easily current passes through the solution, not the equilibrium voltage, and it appears nowhere in the equation. 'Electrode area' and 'Electrode mass' change how much current or total charge a cell can supply, but neither enters E, which is an intensive quantity.

  12. A reaction releases heat to its surroundings, and a thermometer placed in the reaction mixture reads a rising temperature. How should this reaction be classified, and what is the sign of its enthalpy change?

    • A.Endothermic; ΔH is positive
    • B.Exothermic; ΔH is negative
    • C.Exothermic; ΔH is positive
    • D.Endothermic; ΔH is negative
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Exothermic; ΔH is negative

    The correct answer is "Exothermic; ΔH is negative". The reaction gives heat to its surroundings (the solution and the thermometer), so the temperature reading rises while the enthalpy of the reacting system falls, which makes ΔH negative. "Endothermic; ΔH is positive" describes the opposite process, a reaction that absorbs heat and makes the thermometer reading drop. "Exothermic; ΔH is positive" names the process correctly but flips the sign convention, treating the heat given off as a gain for the system. "Endothermic; ΔH is negative" keeps the right sign but mislabels the process; an endothermic reaction always has a positive ΔH, so the two halves contradict each other.

  13. Given C(s)+OX2(g)→COX2(g)\ce{C(s) + O2(g) -> CO2(g)} with ΔH=−393.5\Delta H = -393.5 kJ and CO(g)+12 OX2(g)→COX2(g)\ce{CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) -> CO2(g)} with ΔH=−283.0\Delta H = -283.0 kJ, what is the enthalpy change for C(s)+12 OX2(g)→CO(g)\ce{C(s) + 1/2 O2(g) -> CO(g)}?

    • A.-110.5 kJ
    • B.-676.5 kJ
    • C.-252.0 kJ
    • D.-221.0 kJ
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    Correct answer: -110.5 kJ

    The enthalpy change is -110.5 kJ. By Hess's law, keep the first equation as written (ΔH = -393.5 kJ) and reverse the second, CO2 → CO + 1/2 O2, which changes its sign to ΔH = +283.0 kJ. Adding the two cancels CO2 and leaves C + 1/2 O2 → CO, so ΔH = -393.5 + 283.0 = -110.5 kJ. "-676.5 kJ" adds the second equation without reversing it, so its ΔH keeps the wrong sign (-393.5 - 283.0). "-252.0 kJ" reverses the second equation but also halves it to match the 1/2 O2, which is not needed because the CO coefficients already match (-393.5 + 141.5). "-221.0 kJ" doubles both equations to clear the 1/2 and then forgets to halve the result: 2(-393.5) + 2(283.0) = -221.0 kJ, which is the enthalpy change for forming 2 mol of CO.

  14. A 50.0 g metal sample absorbs 1200 J of heat, and its temperature rises from 25.0 C to 49.0 C. Using the calorimetry equation q=mcΔTq = mc\Delta T, what is the specific heat capacity of the metal?

    • A.0.49 J/(g*C)
    • B.0.32 J/(g*C)
    • C.24 J/(g*C)
    • D.1.0 J/(g*C)
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1.0 J/(g*C)

    The specific heat capacity is 1.0 J/(g*C). Rearranging q = mcΔT gives c = q/(mΔT) = 1200 J / (50.0 g × 24.0 C) = 1200/1200 = 1.0 J/(g*C), where ΔT = 49.0 - 25.0 = 24.0 C. "0.49 J/(g*C)" uses the final temperature, 49.0 C, in place of the temperature change (1200 / (50.0 × 49.0)). "0.32 J/(g*C)" adds the two temperatures instead of subtracting them (1200 / (50.0 × 74.0)). "24 J/(g*C)" divides the heat by the mass only and leaves out the temperature change (1200 / 50.0).

  15. How much heat is absorbed when 250.0 g of liquid water is warmed from 20.0 C to 30.0 C? (specific heat of water = 4.18 J/(g*C))

    • A.31,350 J
    • B.10,450 J
    • C.598 J
    • D.1,794 J
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 10,450 J

    The water absorbs 10,450 J (about 10.45 kJ). Using q = mcΔT with m = 250.0 g, c = 4.18 J/(g*C) and ΔT = 30.0 - 20.0 = 10.0 C gives q = 250.0 × 4.18 × 10.0 = 10,450 J. "31,350 J" uses the final temperature, 30.0 C, in place of the temperature change (250.0 × 4.18 × 30.0). "598 J" divides by the specific heat instead of multiplying by it (250.0 × 10.0 / 4.18). "1,794 J" makes both slips, dividing by the specific heat and using the final temperature (250.0 × 30.0 / 4.18).

  16. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of OX2(g)\ce{O2(g)}, NX2(g)\ce{N2(g)}, or any other element in its most stable form at 25 C and 1 bar?

    • A.Negative, because the element releases bond energy
    • B.Variable, because the value depends on the element
    • C.Zero, because the element provides the reference
    • D.Undefined, because the element is already formed
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Zero, because the element provides the reference

    The standard enthalpy of formation of an element in its most stable form is zero: "Zero, because the element provides the reference". ΔHf° is defined as the enthalpy change for making one mole of a substance from its elements in their standard states, so an element already in that state needs no formation step; it is itself the reference against which the formation enthalpies of compounds are measured, and its value is fixed at exactly zero by definition. "Negative, because the element releases bond energy" treats the element as if it were assembled from free atoms; a formation reaction starts from the elements themselves, so no bonds are made and no bond energy is released. "Variable, because the value depends on the element" treats elements like compounds, whose formation enthalpies differ from one substance to the next; every element in its reference form has the same defined value, zero. "Undefined, because the element is already formed" draws the wrong conclusion from a correct idea: because the element needs no formation step, its value is defined as zero rather than left undefined.

  17. For the combustion CHX4(g)+2 OX2(g)→COX2(g)+2 HX2O(l)\ce{CH4(g) + 2O2(g) -> CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)}, use these standard enthalpies of formation (kJ/mol): CHX4\ce{CH4} = -74.8, COX2\ce{CO2} = -393.5, HX2O(l)\ce{H2O(l)} = -285.8, OX2\ce{O2} = 0. What is the standard enthalpy of reaction?

    • A.-965.1 kJ
    • B.-679.3 kJ
    • C.-890.3 kJ
    • D.-754.1 kJ
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: -890.3 kJ

    The standard enthalpy of reaction is -890.3 kJ. Using ΔH° = (sum for products) - (sum for reactants): products = (-393.5) + 2(-285.8) = -965.1 kJ; reactants = (-74.8) + 2(0) = -74.8 kJ; so ΔH° = -965.1 - (-74.8) = -890.3 kJ. "-965.1 kJ" stops at the products total and never subtracts the reactants, as if CH4, like O2, had a formation enthalpy of zero. "-679.3 kJ" also drops the coefficient of 2 on water, so the products total only -393.5 + (-285.8) = -679.3 kJ, and again nothing is subtracted. "-754.1 kJ" drops the coefficient of 2 and then adds the reactant term instead of subtracting it (-679.3 - 74.8).

  18. A reaction has ΔH=+120\Delta H = +120 kJ and ΔS=+250\Delta S = +250 J/K. Using ΔG=ΔH−TΔS\Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S, what is ΔG\Delta G at 350 K, and is the reaction spontaneous?

    • A.ΔG = +32.5 kJ; non-spontaneous
    • B.ΔG = +32.5 kJ; spontaneous
    • C.ΔG = +45.5 kJ; non-spontaneous
    • D.ΔG = +45.5 kJ; spontaneous
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: ΔG = +32.5 kJ; non-spontaneous

    The answer is "ΔG = +32.5 kJ; non-spontaneous". Convert ΔS to kJ/K (250 J/K = 0.250 kJ/K) and substitute: ΔG = 120 - (350)(0.250) = 120 - 87.5 = +32.5 kJ. A positive ΔG means the forward reaction is non-spontaneous at 350 K; with both ΔH and ΔS positive, it becomes spontaneous only above T = ΔH/ΔS = 480 K. "ΔG = +32.5 kJ; spontaneous" has the right value but reads the sign backward, since a positive ΔG means non-spontaneous. "ΔG = +45.5 kJ; non-spontaneous" plugs in 298 K out of habit instead of the stated 350 K (120 - 74.5). "ΔG = +45.5 kJ; spontaneous" makes both mistakes.

  19. At constant temperature and pressure, what condition on the Gibbs free energy change indicates that a reaction is spontaneous in the forward direction?

    • A.ΔG is negative
    • B.ΔG is positive
    • C.ΔG is zero
    • D.ΔG is below ΔH
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: ΔG is negative

    A reaction is spontaneous in the forward direction when ΔG is negative, that is, less than zero, at constant temperature and pressure; the process can then proceed without a continuous input of outside energy. "ΔG is positive" describes a non-spontaneous forward reaction, for which the reverse reaction is favored. "ΔG is zero" describes a system at equilibrium, with no net change in either direction. "ΔG is below ΔH" only says that TΔS is positive, meaning the entropy of the system increases; ΔG can be below ΔH and still be positive, so it is not the test for spontaneity.

  20. For the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g), what is the expected sign of the entropy change of the system, and why?

    • A.Negative, because the loss of heat lowers disorder
    • B.Negative, because the number of gas molecules drops
    • C.Positive, because the size of product molecules grows
    • D.Positive, because the breaking of bonds adds disorder
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Negative, because the number of gas molecules drops

    The answer is "Negative, because the number of gas molecules drops": four moles of gas (one N2 and three H2) become two moles of NH3 gas, so fewer gas particles share the energy and the number of available microstates drops. "Negative, because the loss of heat lowers disorder" has the right sign for the wrong reason; heat released by the reaction raises the entropy of the surroundings and does not set the sign of the system's entropy change. "Positive, because the size of product molecules grows" overlooks that halving the moles of gas outweighs the slightly more complex NH3 molecule. "Positive, because the breaking of bonds adds disorder" ignores that new N-H bonds form as the N2 and H2 bonds break; the net change in moles of gas decides the sign.

  21. Using average bond enthalpies (in kJ/mol): H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 243, and H-Cl = 431, estimate the enthalpy change for the reaction HX2(g)+ClX2(g)→2 HCl(g)\ce{H2(g) + Cl2(g) -> 2HCl(g)}.

    • A.+183 kJ
    • B.+1541 kJ
    • C.-183 kJ
    • D.-1541 kJ
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: -183 kJ

    -183 kJ. Using bond enthalpies, ΔH equals the energy of bonds broken minus the energy of bonds formed. Breaking one H-H bond (436 kJ) and one Cl-Cl bond (243 kJ) costs 679 kJ, and forming two H-Cl bonds releases 2 × 431 = 862 kJ, so ΔH = 679 - 862 = -183 kJ and the reaction is exothermic. +183 kJ subtracts the bonds broken from the bonds formed (862 - 679), which reverses the sign of ΔH. +1541 kJ adds the energy of the bonds broken to the energy of the bonds formed (679 + 862) instead of subtracting one from the other. -1541 kJ treats breaking bonds as if it released energy too, adding -679 kJ to -862 kJ; breaking a bond always absorbs energy, and only forming one releases it.

  22. How much heat is required to completely melt 18.0 g of ice at 0 C, given that the molar enthalpy of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol and the molar mass of water is 18.0 g/mol?

    • A.6.01 kJ
    • B.3.00 kJ
    • C.0.334 kJ
    • D.0.000 kJ
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 6.01 kJ

    6.01 kJ. The sample is 18.0 g ÷ 18.0 g/mol = 1.00 mol of ice, and melting at 0 °C absorbs the molar enthalpy of fusion for each mole: q = 1.00 mol × 6.01 kJ/mol = 6.01 kJ. 3.00 kJ divides the mass by the enthalpy of fusion (18.0 ÷ 6.01) instead of converting grams to moles and multiplying. 0.334 kJ divides the enthalpy of fusion by the molar mass (6.01 ÷ 18.0), which is the heat per gram, and stops before multiplying by the 18.0 g. 0.000 kJ applies q = mcΔT with ΔT = 0, but a phase change at constant temperature still absorbs heat; that latent heat is exactly what the enthalpy of fusion measures.

  23. At a fixed temperature, a chemical reaction has a standard Gibbs free energy change (ΔG\Delta G) that is large and negative. What does this indicate about the equilibrium constant K for the reaction?

    • A.K is small, so reactants are favored
    • B.K is large, so reactants are favored
    • C.K is small, so products are favored
    • D.K is large, so products are favored
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: K is large, so products are favored

    K is large, so products are favored. ΔG° = -RT ln K, so a large negative ΔG° makes ln K large and positive, which means K is much greater than 1 and the equilibrium mixture is mostly products. K is small, so reactants are favored drops the minus sign in that relationship, turning a negative ΔG° into a K below 1. K is large, so reactants are favored reads K upside down; K places products over reactants, so a large K means products dominate. K is small, so products are favored makes both of those slips at once.

  24. A reaction is exothermic (ΔH\Delta H negative) and has a positive entropy change (ΔS\Delta S positive). According to ΔG=ΔH−TΔS\Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S, how does temperature affect the spontaneity of this reaction?

    • A.It is spontaneous only at high temperatures
    • B.It is spontaneous only at low temperatures
    • C.It is spontaneous at all temperatures
    • D.It is nonspontaneous at all temperatures
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It is spontaneous at all temperatures

    It is spontaneous at all temperatures. With ΔH negative and ΔS positive, the -TΔS term is negative at every temperature above absolute zero, so ΔG = ΔH - TΔS stays negative; both the enthalpy and the entropy terms favor the reaction. It is spontaneous only at high temperatures describes a reaction with ΔH and ΔS both positive. It is spontaneous only at low temperatures describes ΔH and ΔS both negative. It is nonspontaneous at all temperatures describes ΔH positive with ΔS negative, where both terms oppose the reaction.

  25. For any spontaneous process, what must be true about the total entropy change of the universe, defined as the sum of the entropy change of the system and the entropy change of the surroundings?

    • A.The total entropy of the universe stays fixed
    • B.The entropy of the system by itself must rise
    • C.The entropy of the surroundings must rise
    • D.The total entropy of the universe increases
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The total entropy of the universe increases

    The total entropy of the universe increases. The second law states that ΔS(universe) = ΔS(system) + ΔS(surroundings) is greater than zero for every spontaneous process. The total entropy of the universe stays fixed treats entropy like energy: energy is conserved, but entropy is created in every spontaneous, irreversible change and stays constant only in an idealized reversible process. The entropy of the system by itself must rise is wrong because the system can lose entropy, as when water freezes below 0 °C, provided the surroundings gain more. The entropy of the surroundings must rise is wrong for the reverse reason: when ammonium nitrate dissolves spontaneously and endothermically, the surroundings lose entropy while the system gains more.

Kinetics (25)

  1. A reaction has a rate constant k=4.5×10−3k = 4.5 \times 10^{-3} s−1^{-1} at 300 K. If the activation energy is 75 kJ/mol, what is the rate constant at 350 K? (R = 8.314 J/mol⋅\cdotK)

    • A.0.33 s^-1
    • B.0.14 s^-1
    • C.0.0053 s^-1
    • D.0.0045 s^-1
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.33 s^-1

    0.33 s^-1 is correct. The two-point Arrhenius equation gives ln(k2/k1) = (Ea/R)(1/T1 − 1/T2) = (75,000 J/mol ÷ 8.314 J/(mol·K)) × (1/300 K − 1/350 K) = 9021 K × 0.000476 K^-1 = 4.30, so k2/k1 = e^4.30 = 73 and k2 = (4.5 × 10^-3 s^-1)(73) = 0.33 s^-1. 0.14 s^-1 applies the rule of thumb that a rate doubles for every 10 K rise (2^5 = 32) instead of using the given activation energy. 0.0053 s^-1 scales k in direct proportion to the absolute temperature (350/300), which is not how rate constants respond. 0.0045 s^-1 enters Ea as 75 instead of 75,000 J/mol while R is in joules, so the exponent shrinks to 0.0043 and k barely changes.

  2. What is the half-life of a second-order reaction with a rate constant of 0.1 M−1^{-1}s−1^{-1} and an initial concentration of 0.05 M?

    • A.6.9 s
    • B.200 s
    • C.10 s
    • D.139 s
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    Correct answer: 200 s

    200 s is correct: for a second-order reaction t1/2 = 1/(k[A]0) = 1/((0.1 M^-1 s^-1)(0.05 M)) = 1/(0.005 s^-1) = 200 s. 6.9 s uses the first-order formula, t1/2 = 0.693/k, which ignores the starting concentration. 139 s carries the 0.693 from the first-order formula into the second-order one, 0.693/(k[A]0). 10 s drops the initial concentration and takes t1/2 = 1/k, as if the half-life were independent of [A]0, which is true only of first-order reactions.

  3. A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by:

    • A.Lowering the activation energy.
    • B.Shifting the equilibrium mixture.
    • C.Raising the activation energy.
    • D.Raising the equilibrium constant.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Lowering the activation energy.

    A catalyst speeds up a reaction by lowering the activation energy. It provides an alternative pathway with a smaller energy barrier, so a larger fraction of collisions have enough energy to react. It does not work by shifting the equilibrium mixture. A catalyst speeds the forward and reverse reactions equally, so the system only reaches the same equilibrium sooner. Nor does it act by raising the activation energy. A higher barrier would leave fewer collisions energetic enough to react and would slow the reaction down. It also cannot work by raising the equilibrium constant. K depends only on temperature and is the same with or without a catalyst.

  4. The rate of disappearance of A in the reaction 2 A+B→C\ce{2A + B -> C} is given by −d[A]dt=k[A]2[B]-\frac{d[\mathrm{A}]}{dt} = k[\mathrm{A}]^2[\mathrm{B}]. If the concentration of A is halved, how does the rate of the reaction change?

    • A.The rate is cut to one-half
    • B.The rate is cut to one-quarter
    • C.The rate is multiplied by four
    • D.The rate is multiplied by eight
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    Correct answer: The rate is cut to one-quarter

    The rate is cut to one-quarter is correct: the rate law is second order in A, so halving [A] multiplies the rate by (1/2)^2 = 1/4. The rate is cut to one-half treats the reaction as first order in A and ignores the exponent of 2. The rate is multiplied by four uses the right exponent but the wrong direction; lowering the concentration of a reactant with a positive order slows the reaction. The rate is multiplied by eight reverses the direction and also uses the overall order of 3 (2 for A plus 1 for B) instead of the order in A.

  5. What is the effect of doubling the concentration of B in a reaction where the rate law is Rate =k[A][B]2= k[\mathrm{A}][\mathrm{B}]^2?

    • A.The rate doubles.
    • B.The rate increases eightfold.
    • C.The rate quadruples.
    • D.The rate stays the same.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The rate quadruples.

    'The rate quadruples.' is correct: the rate depends on [B]^2, so doubling [B] multiplies the rate by 2^2 = 4, while [A] and k are unchanged. 'The rate doubles.' would hold only if the reaction were first order in B. 'The rate increases eightfold.' raises 2 to the overall order of 3 (first order in A plus second order in B) instead of to the order in B alone. 'The rate stays the same.' confuses the rate with the rate constant k, which does not change when a concentration changes.

  6. A reaction mechanism consists of two steps: A→B\ce{A -> B} (slow) and B+C→D\ce{B + C -> D} (fast). What is the rate-determining step?

    • A.B + C → D
    • B.A + C → D
    • C.Each step
    • D.A → B
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A → B

    A → B is correct: the slowest step in a mechanism limits the overall rate, the way the slowest stage of an assembly line limits its output, and the stem labels A → B as the slow step. B + C → D is the fast step; it can consume B only as quickly as the slow first step produces it, so it does not set the rate. A + C → D is the overall reaction, found by adding the two steps and canceling the intermediate B; it is not itself a step of the mechanism. Each step would be the answer only if the two steps ran at comparable rates, but here one step is slow and the other fast.

  7. The activation energy for a reaction is 125 kJ/mol, and the reaction is first order. What would likely happen to the half-life of the reaction if the temperature is increased?

    • A.The half-life grows longer
    • B.The half-life cannot change
    • C.The half-life depends on ΔH
    • D.The half-life gets shorter
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    Correct answer: The half-life gets shorter

    The half-life gets shorter is correct: for a first-order reaction t1/2 = 0.693/k, and by the Arrhenius equation a higher temperature increases k, especially with an activation energy as large as 125 kJ/mol, so the half-life falls. The half-life grows longer reverses the effect of temperature on k. The half-life cannot change overextends the fact that a first-order half-life does not depend on concentration, or borrows from radioactive decay, whose half-life is unaffected by temperature; a chemical first-order half-life still depends on k, which rises with temperature. The half-life depends on ΔH applies equilibrium reasoning to kinetics; whether a reaction is exothermic or endothermic, its rate constant rises with temperature when the activation energy is positive.

  8. What is the effect of doubling the surface area of the electrodes in an electrochemical cell?

    • A.The redox reaction slows down
    • B.The cell potential is doubled
    • C.The cell potential drops
    • D.The redox reaction speeds up
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The redox reaction speeds up

    Electrode reactions happen at the surface where the metal meets the solution, so doubling the electrode area gives more sites for electron transfer and the redox reaction speeds up; the cell can deliver a larger current. 'The redox reaction slows down' reverses that effect. The cell potential depends on which half-reactions are paired and on the concentrations, not on how big the electrodes are, so 'The cell potential is doubled' wrongly treats voltage as if it scaled with electrode size, and 'The cell potential drops' is wrong for the same reason in the other direction.

  9. What does the activation energy of a chemical reaction represent?

    • A.The energy change that reactants undergo to form products
    • B.The minimum collision energy that molecules need to react
    • C.The extra energy that a catalyst contributes to molecules
    • D.The total bond energy that reactants need to break apart
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The minimum collision energy that molecules need to react

    Activation energy is the minimum collision energy that molecules need to react: the height of the energy barrier between the reactants and the transition state, so only collisions carrying at least this much energy can form the activated complex. "The energy change that reactants undergo to form products" is the enthalpy change, ΔH, the energy difference between reactants and products, which is a separate quantity that does not set the rate. "The extra energy that a catalyst contributes to molecules" reverses the role of a catalyst, which lowers the barrier by offering another pathway rather than supplying energy. "The total bond energy that reactants need to break apart" confuses the barrier with the full bond energy of the reactants; the transition state forms while old bonds are only partly broken and new ones partly formed, so the barrier is far smaller.

  10. The Arrhenius equation is written as k=Ae−Ea/(RT)k = A e^{-E_a/(RT)}. Based on this equation, what happens to the rate constant kk as the temperature TT increases?

    • A.k increases because heating reduces the activation energy
    • B.k increases because the magnitude of the exponent grows larger
    • C.k increases because the equilibrium constant also grows larger
    • D.k increases because the exponential factor approaches one
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: k increases because the exponential factor approaches one

    The correct statement is "k increases because the exponential factor approaches one". In k = A e^(-Ea/(RT)), a higher T makes Ea/(RT) smaller, so the exponent -Ea/(RT) becomes less negative and the factor e^(-Ea/(RT)) grows toward its upper limit of 1, which drives k up; A and Ea themselves are treated as constants. "k increases because heating reduces the activation energy" is a common misconception: Ea is a fixed property of the reaction pathway, and only a catalyst, not heating, provides a lower barrier. "k increases because the magnitude of the exponent grows larger" has the arithmetic backward; the size of Ea/(RT) shrinks as T rises, and a larger negative exponent would make k smaller. "k increases because the equilibrium constant also grows larger" confuses the rate constant k with the equilibrium constant K, which can rise or fall with temperature depending on ΔH and does not set the rate.

  11. A reaction has a rate constant k1=2.0×10−3k_1 = 2.0 \times 10^{-3} s−1^{-1} at 310 K and an activation energy of 50 kJ/mol. Using the two-point Arrhenius form ln⁡(k2/k1)=(Ea/R)(1/T1−1/T2)\ln(k_2/k_1) = (E_a/R)(1/T_1 - 1/T_2) with R=8.314R = 8.314 J/(mol⋅\cdotK), what is the approximate rate constant at 320 K?

    • A.8.1 × 10^-3 s^-1
    • B.2.0 × 10^-3 s^-1
    • C.3.7 × 10^-3 s^-1
    • D.1.2 × 10^-3 s^-1
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3.7 × 10^-3 s^-1

    The rate constant at 320 K is about 3.7 × 10^-3 s^-1. Ea/R = 50,000 J/mol ÷ 8.314 J/(mol·K) = 6014 K, and 1/310 - 1/320 = 1.008 × 10^-4 K^-1, so ln(k2/k1) = 6014 × 1.008 × 10^-4 = 0.606 and k2/k1 = e^0.606 = 1.83. Then k2 = 1.83 × 2.0 × 10^-3 s^-1 = 3.7 × 10^-3 s^-1; a 10 K rise nearly doubles k. "8.1 × 10^-3 s^-1" raises 10 rather than e to the power 0.606 (10^0.606 = 4.04), treating ln as log. "2.0 × 10^-3 s^-1" leaves Ea in kilojoules (50 instead of 50,000 J/mol), so ln(k2/k1) is only 0.0006 and k barely changes from its value at 310 K. "1.2 × 10^-3 s^-1" multiplies k1 by ln(k2/k1) = 0.606 instead of by e^0.606, forgetting to undo the natural logarithm.

  12. For the reaction A+B→products\ce{A + B -> products}, the experimentally determined rate law is rate=k[A][B]2\text{rate} = k[\ce{A}][\ce{B}]^2. What is the overall order of this reaction?

    • A.Second order
    • B.Third order
    • C.First order
    • D.Fourth order
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Third order

    The reaction is third order overall. The overall order is the sum of the exponents in the experimental rate law, rate = k[A][B]^2: 1 for A plus 2 for B gives 3, so the reaction is first order in A, second order in B and third order overall. "Second order" comes from adding the coefficients in the balanced equation (1 + 1) or from reading only the exponent on B; coefficients do not set the order, which is found by experiment. "First order" reports only the order in A. "Fourth order" mixes the two sources, adding the coefficient of B from the balanced equation to the rate-law exponents (1 + 2 + 1); only the exponents count.

  13. In a series of experiments, doubling the concentration of reactant X while holding all other concentrations constant causes the initial reaction rate to increase by a factor of 4. What is the order of the reaction with respect to X?

    • A.First order
    • B.Fourth order
    • C.Second order
    • D.Third order
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Second order

    The reaction is second order in X. Doubling [X] multiplies the rate by 4, so 2^n = 4 and n = 2; comparing initial rates while changing one concentration at a time is the standard way to find each exponent in a rate law. "First order" would only double the rate (2^1 = 2). "Fourth order" mistakes the factor of 4 for the order itself; a fourth-order dependence would raise the rate 16-fold (2^4). "Third order" would raise the rate 8-fold (2^3).

  14. The integrated rate law for a first-order reaction is ln⁡[A]=ln⁡[A]0−kt\ln[\ce{A}] = \ln[\ce{A}]_0 - kt. Which graph of experimental data would produce a straight line, confirming that a reaction is first order?

    • A.1/[A] versus time
    • B.[A] versus time
    • C.1/[A]^2 versus time
    • D.ln[A] versus time
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: ln[A] versus time

    A plot of ln[A] versus time gives a straight line for a first-order reaction, because ln[A] = ln[A]0 - kt has the form y = b + mx with slope -k. "1/[A] versus time" is linear for a second-order reaction, not a first-order one. "[A] versus time" is linear for a zero-order reaction, whose rate does not depend on concentration ([A] = [A]0 - kt). "1/[A]^2 versus time" is the straight-line plot for a third-order reaction. Testing which plot is straight is the standard way to find the order from concentration-time data, and for first order only the logarithmic plot is linear.

  15. A first-order reaction has a rate constant of 0.0231 s−1^{-1}. What is the half-life of this reaction?

    • A.13.0 s
    • B.30.0 s
    • C.62.5 s
    • D.99.7 s
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    Correct answer: 30.0 s

    The half-life is 30.0 s. For a first-order reaction t1/2 = ln 2 / k = 0.693/k, so 0.693 ÷ 0.0231 s^-1 = 30.0 s, and this value does not depend on the starting concentration. "13.0 s" uses log 2 = 0.301 instead of ln 2 = 0.693 (0.301 ÷ 0.0231). "62.5 s" puts 0.693 in the denominator alongside k, 1/(0.693 × 0.0231). "99.7 s" uses 2.303, the factor that converts natural logarithms to base-10 logarithms, in place of 0.693 (2.303 ÷ 0.0231).

  16. Which statement correctly describes the half-life of a first-order reaction?

    • A.It varies inversely with the starting concentration
    • B.It gets shorter as the reactant concentration falls
    • C.It depends on k and on the reactant concentration
    • D.It stays fixed whatever the starting concentration
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It stays fixed whatever the starting concentration

    For a first-order reaction the half-life is constant: "It stays fixed whatever the starting concentration". Because t1/2 = 0.693/k contains only the rate constant, each successive half-life takes the same time no matter how much reactant remains. "It varies inversely with the starting concentration" describes a second-order reaction, whose half-life is 1/(k[A]0). "It gets shorter as the reactant concentration falls" describes a zero-order reaction, whose half-life [A]0/(2k) shrinks as the reactant is used up. "It depends on k and on the reactant concentration" is true for zero- and second-order reactions, but the first-order half-life depends on k alone.

  17. According to collision theory, why do only a small fraction of molecular collisions actually lead to a chemical reaction?

    • A.Colliding molecules need enough energy and a catalyst present
    • B.Colliding molecules need high pressure and a suitable orientation
    • C.Colliding molecules need high pressure and a catalyst present
    • D.Colliding molecules need enough energy and a suitable orientation
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Colliding molecules need enough energy and a suitable orientation

    Collision theory says a collision is effective only when "Colliding molecules need enough energy and a suitable orientation": they must carry at least the activation energy and strike with the reacting atoms lined up. Collisions that are too gentle or wrongly angled bounce apart unchanged, which is why only a small fraction lead to reaction. "Colliding molecules need enough energy and a catalyst present" adds a requirement that does not exist; a catalyst speeds many reactions, but collisions can react without one. "Colliding molecules need high pressure and a suitable orientation" wrongly requires high pressure and drops the energy condition; pressure changes how often molecules collide, not whether a given collision succeeds. "Colliding molecules need high pressure and a catalyst present" makes both mistakes and leaves out energy and orientation altogether.

  18. How does raising the temperature increase reaction rate according to collision theory?

    • A.It chiefly raises the collision frequency that limits the rate
    • B.It improves the orientation that colliding molecules need to adopt
    • C.It improves the yield of products that the final equilibrium allows
    • D.It raises the share of collisions that exceed the activation energy
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It raises the share of collisions that exceed the activation energy

    Raising the temperature shifts the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution toward higher energies, so "It raises the share of collisions that exceed the activation energy": many more collisions are energetic enough to react, which is the main reason rates climb with temperature. "It chiefly raises the collision frequency that limits the rate" overstates a minor effect; collisions become only a few percent more frequent for a 10 K rise, far too little to explain rates that roughly double. "It improves the orientation that colliding molecules need to adopt" is wrong because the fraction of collisions with a suitable orientation does not depend on temperature. "It improves the yield of products that the final equilibrium allows" mixes kinetics with equilibrium; the equilibrium yield concerns how far a reaction goes, not how fast it gets there.

  19. A proposed reaction mechanism has two elementary steps: Step 1 (slow): A+A→C\ce{A + A -> C}, and Step 2 (fast): C+B→D\ce{C + B -> D}. Based on this mechanism, which expression is the predicted rate law?

    • A.rate = k[A]^2[B]
    • B.rate = k[2A]
    • C.rate = k[A]^2
    • D.rate = k[C][B]
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: rate = k[A]^2

    The predicted rate law is rate = k[A]^2. The overall rate is set by the slow, rate-determining step, A + A → C, which is bimolecular in A, so its rate law is second order in A. "rate = k[A]^2[B]" writes the rate law from the overall equation, 2A + B → D, and includes B, which reacts only in the fast step after the bottleneck. "rate = k[2A]" turns the two A particles into a coefficient inside the brackets instead of an exponent, which makes the rate first order in A. "rate = k[C][B]" writes the rate law of the fast second step instead of the slow first step; a fast step that follows the bottleneck cannot set the overall rate.

  20. In a multi-step reaction mechanism, which elementary step controls the overall rate of the reaction?

    • A.The final step, the one forming the overall final product
    • B.The most favorable step, the one with the largest K value
    • C.The slowest step, the one named the rate-determining step
    • D.The reversible step, the one that sets up the equilibrium
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The slowest step, the one named the rate-determining step

    The answer is "The slowest step, the one named the rate-determining step". Just as the narrowest section of a pipe limits the total flow, the slowest elementary step limits how fast products can form, so the observed rate law usually reflects that step. "The final step, the one forming the overall final product" assumes that position in the sequence matters, but the slow step can come first, last or in between. "The most favorable step, the one with the largest K value" confuses equilibrium with kinetics; how far a step lies toward products says nothing about how fast it goes. "The reversible step, the one that sets up the equilibrium" describes a fast pre-equilibrium in many mechanisms; such a step adjusts quickly and waits on the slow step that follows it.

  21. A catalyst is added to a reaction at constant temperature. What is its effect on the reaction?

    • A.It speeds the reaction by shifting the equilibrium to favor the products
    • B.It speeds the reaction by opening pathways with smaller activation energy
    • C.It speeds the reaction by supplying reactants with additional heat energy
    • D.It speeds the reaction by being used up as the new products are formed
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It speeds the reaction by opening pathways with smaller activation energy

    A catalyst works because "It speeds the reaction by opening pathways with smaller activation energy": with a smaller barrier, a larger fraction of collisions is effective at the same temperature, so both the forward and reverse reactions speed up. "It speeds the reaction by shifting the equilibrium to favor the products" is the classic misconception; because the forward and reverse rates rise by the same factor, the position of equilibrium and ΔH are unchanged, and equilibrium is simply reached sooner. "It speeds the reaction by supplying reactants with additional heat energy" is wrong because a catalyst adds no energy; it lowers the energy that is needed. "It speeds the reaction by being used up as the new products are formed" is wrong because a catalyst is regenerated at the end of the cycle and is not consumed.

  22. A reaction's rate constant doubles when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. Using ln⁡(k2/k1)=(Ea/R)(1/T1−1/T2)\ln(k_2/k_1) = (E_a/R)(1/T_1 - 1/T_2) with R=8.314R = 8.314 J/(mol⋅\cdotK), what is the approximate activation energy?

    • A.6.4 kJ/mol
    • B.54 kJ/mol
    • C.23 kJ/mol
    • D.2.8 kJ/mol
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 54 kJ/mol

    The activation energy is about 54 kJ/mol. With k2/k1 = 2, ln 2 = 0.693 and 1/300 - 1/310 = 1.075 × 10^-4 K^-1, so Ea = R ln 2 ÷ (1/T1 - 1/T2) = 8.314 × 0.693 ÷ (1.075 × 10^-4) = 53,600 J/mol, or 54 kJ/mol, in line with the rule of thumb that many rates roughly double for each 10 K rise near room temperature. "6.4 kJ/mol" leaves R out of the calculation (0.693 ÷ 1.075 × 10^-4 = 6450 J/mol). "23 kJ/mol" uses log 2 = 0.301 in place of ln 2 (8.314 × 0.301 ÷ 1.075 × 10^-4 = 23,300 J/mol). "2.8 kJ/mol" makes both slips, using log 2 and leaving out R (0.301 ÷ 1.075 × 10^-4 = 2800 J/mol).

  23. For a zero-order reaction A→products\ce{A -> products}, how does the reaction rate depend on the concentration of A?

    • A.The rate stays constant whatever [A] is, until A is consumed
    • B.The rate is directly proportional to [A], until A runs out
    • C.The rate is zero, since [A] raised to the power zero is zero
    • D.The rate is fixed by the starting [A], since k depends on it
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The rate stays constant whatever [A] is, until A is consumed

    For a zero-order reaction, rate = k[A]^0 = k, so "The rate stays constant whatever [A] is, until A is consumed": changing [A] has no effect until the reactant is essentially used up. This often happens when a catalyst surface or an enzyme is saturated, so adding more reactant cannot speed the process. "The rate is directly proportional to [A], until A runs out" describes a first-order reaction. "The rate is zero, since [A] raised to the power zero is zero" misapplies the exponent; any nonzero quantity raised to the power zero equals 1, so the rate equals k, not zero. "The rate is fixed by the starting [A], since k depends on it" is wrong because k depends on temperature, not on concentration; the constant rate equals k whatever [A] was at the start.

  24. What are the units of the rate constant k for a reaction whose overall rate law is rate=k[A][B]\text{rate} = k[\ce{A}][\ce{B}], when concentration is expressed in mol/L and time in seconds?

    • A.L mol^-1 s^-1
    • B.mol^3 L^-3 s^-1
    • C.L mol s^-1
    • D.mol L^-1 s^-1
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: L mol^-1 s^-1

    L mol^-1 s^-1. For rate = k[A][B] the rate has units of mol L^-1 s^-1 and [A][B] has units of mol^2 L^-2, so k = rate / ([A][B]) has units of mol L^-1 s^-1 divided by mol^2 L^-2, which is L mol^-1 s^-1, the units of every second-order rate constant. mol^3 L^-3 s^-1 multiplies the rate by the two concentrations instead of dividing by them. L mol s^-1 subtracts the mol exponents the wrong way round (2 - 1 instead of 1 - 2), leaving mol on top. mol L^-1 s^-1 gives k the units of the rate itself, which are the units of a zero-order rate constant, not of a k multiplied by two concentrations.

  25. Using the method of initial rates, doubling [A][\ce{A}] (with [B][\ce{B}] held constant) doubles the initial rate, while doubling [B][\ce{B}] (with [A][\ce{A}] held constant) leaves the initial rate unchanged. What is the rate law for the reaction?

    • A.rate = k[A]^2
    • B.rate = k[B]
    • C.rate = k[A]
    • D.rate = k[B]^2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: rate = k[A]

    rate = k[A]. Doubling [A] with [B] held constant doubles the rate, so the reaction is first order in A (2^1 = 2); doubling [B] with [A] held constant leaves the rate unchanged, so it is zero order in B (2^0 = 1) and [B] drops out of the rate law. rate = k[A]^2 mistakes the factor of 2 for the order; a second-order dependence would make the rate four times larger, since 2^2 = 4. rate = k[B] swaps the two experiments and attaches the dependence to the wrong reactant. rate = k[B]^2 makes both of those slips at once.

Equilibrium (25)

  1. If the reaction quotient Q for a reaction is less than the equilibrium constant K, what can be inferred about the direction of the reaction?

    • A.The reaction moves backward to form more reactants
    • B.The reaction moves forward to use up all reactants
    • C.The reaction moves backward to use up all products
    • D.The reaction moves forward to create more products
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The reaction moves forward to create more products

    The reaction moves forward to create more products is correct: Q < K means the mixture holds too little product relative to its equilibrium ratio, so reactants are converted to products, raising Q until it equals K. The reaction moves backward to form more reactants is the response to Q > K, when there is excess product. The reaction moves forward to use up all reactants overshoots: the net forward change stops once Q reaches K, which normally happens well before the reactants run out. The reaction moves backward to use up all products gets both the direction and the end point wrong.

  2. In a closed system at equilibrium, if the concentration of the reactant is doubled, what happens to the equilibrium constant KcK_{c} for the reaction?

    • A.Kc decreases twofold
    • B.Kc remains unchanged
    • C.Kc is also doubled
    • D.Kc drops fourfold
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Kc remains unchanged

    Kc remains unchanged is correct: the equilibrium constant depends only on temperature, so adding reactant changes Q, not K, and the system then shifts toward products until the concentrations again satisfy the same Kc. Kc decreases twofold assumes that doubling a concentration in the denominator of the expression halves the constant itself. Kc is also doubled assumes the constant rises in proportion to the amount of reactant added. Kc drops fourfold goes further and squares the doubled concentration, but no change in concentration alters Kc at constant temperature.

  3. A reaction mixture initially contains 1.00 M A and 2.00 M B. At equilibrium, the concentration of C is 0.50 M. If the reaction is A+2 B→3 C\ce{A + 2B -> 3C}, what is the equilibrium constant KcK_{c}?

    • A.0.031
    • B.0.090
    • C.0.36
    • D.0.054
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.054

    0.054 is correct. Forming 0.50 M of C uses x = 0.50/3 = 0.167 M of A and 2x = 0.333 M of B, leaving [A] = 0.833 M and [B] = 1.667 M, so Kc = [C]^3/([A][B]^2) = (0.50)^3/((0.833)(1.667)^2) = 0.125/2.31 = 0.054. 0.031 plugs in the initial concentrations of A and B, 0.125/((1.00)(2.00)^2), instead of their equilibrium values. 0.090 forgets to square [B], computing 0.125/((0.833)(1.667)) = 0.125/1.39. 0.36 leaves out all of the exponents, computing [C]/([A][B]) = 0.50/1.39.

  4. For the reaction 2 NOX2(g)⇌NX2OX4(g)\ce{2NO2(g) <=> N2O4(g)}, which change would increase the quantity of NX2OX4\ce{N2O4} at equilibrium?

    • A.Shrinking the container volume
    • B.Enlarging the container volume
    • C.Adding neon at constant volume
    • D.Adding heat at constant volume
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Shrinking the container volume

    Shrinking the container volume is correct: compressing the mixture raises the total pressure, and the equilibrium shifts toward the side with fewer moles of gas; one mole of N2O4 replaces two moles of NO2, so more N2O4 forms. Enlarging the container volume lowers the pressure and shifts the equilibrium toward the two moles of NO2. Adding neon at constant volume raises the total pressure but leaves the partial pressures of NO2 and N2O4 unchanged, so the equilibrium does not shift. Adding heat at constant volume favors the endothermic direction, and because forming N2O4 releases heat, warming the mixture turns N2O4 back into NO2 (the brown color deepens).

  5. If the equilibrium constant for a reaction at 300 K is 10 and at 350 K is 25, what can be inferred about the reaction?

    • A.It is exothermic
    • B.It is endothermic
    • C.It is thermoneutral
    • D.It is endergonic
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It is endothermic

    It is endothermic is correct: by the van't Hoff equation, K rises with temperature only when the forward reaction absorbs heat, and going from K = 10 at 300 K to K = 25 at 350 K implies ΔH of about +16 kJ/mol. It is exothermic reverses that relationship; heating an exothermic reaction lowers K. It is thermoneutral cannot be right, because with ΔH = 0 the value of K would not change with temperature. It is endergonic confuses ΔH with ΔG; since K is greater than 1 at both temperatures, ΔG° = −RT ln K is negative and the reaction is exergonic.

  6. In which case will the addition of an inert gas at constant volume to the following reaction HX2(g)+IX2(g)⇌2 HI(g)\ce{H2(g) + I2(g) <=> 2HI(g)} have no effect on the position of equilibrium?

    • A.If added at constant volume
    • B.If added with excess hydrogen
    • C.If added at higher temperatures
    • D.If added with excess iodine gas
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: If added at constant volume

    If added at constant volume is correct: an inert gas added to a rigid container raises the total pressure but leaves the partial pressures of H2, I2 and HI unchanged, so Q still equals K and the equilibrium does not shift (and because both sides have two moles of gas, even a change in volume would not shift this reaction). If added with excess hydrogen, the extra H2 makes Q smaller than K and the equilibrium shifts toward HI. If added at higher temperatures, the temperature change alters K itself, so the equilibrium position moves. If added with excess iodine gas, the added reactant again drives the equilibrium toward HI.

  7. What is the effect on the equilibrium position when the temperature is decreased for the exothermic reaction 2 SOX2(g)+OX2(g)⇌2 SOX3(g)\ce{2SO2(g) + O2(g) <=> 2SO3(g)}?

    • A.Favors SO3 breakdown
    • B.Favors SO3 production
    • C.Position is unchanged
    • D.Position is uncertain
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    Correct answer: Favors SO3 production

    Favors SO3 production is correct: the forward reaction is exothermic, so heat behaves like a product; cooling removes heat, and the system partly replaces it by forming more SO3, which also means K increases. Favors SO3 breakdown is the response to heating an exothermic reaction, not to cooling it. Position is unchanged would hold only for a reaction with ΔH = 0; unlike adding a catalyst, a temperature change alters K itself. Position is uncertain is wrong because knowing that the reaction is exothermic is enough to predict the direction of the shift.

  8. The equilibrium constant for the reaction A(g)+B(g)⇌C(g)+D(g)\ce{A(g) + B(g) <=> C(g) + D(g)} is 4.0 at a certain temperature. If the initial concentrations of A and B are each 2.0 M, what is the concentration of D at equilibrium?

    • A.1.33 M
    • B.0.67 M
    • C.1.00 M
    • D.1.60 M
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1.33 M

    1.33 M is correct. With extent x, [C] = [D] = x and [A] = [B] = 2.0 − x, so K = x^2/(2.0 − x)^2 = 4.0; taking the square root of both sides gives x/(2.0 − x) = 2, so x = 4.0 − 2x and x = 1.33 M. 0.67 M is 2.0 − 1.33, the concentration of A (or B) left at equilibrium, not of D. 1.00 M assumes the mixture ends with equal amounts of reactants and products, which would be true only if K were 1. 1.60 M skips the square root and solves x/(2.0 − x) = 4.0.

  9. The reaction PClX5(g)⇌PClX3(g)+ClX2(g)\ce{PCl5(g) <=> PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)} has Kp=0.25K_{p} = 0.25 at 500 K. If the initial pressure of PClX5\ce{PCl5} is 0.4 atm, what is the total pressure at equilibrium?

    • A.0.6 atm
    • B.0.7 atm
    • C.0.4 atm
    • D.0.2 atm
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.6 atm

    0.6 atm is correct. With x as the pressure of PCl5 that dissociates, Kp = x^2/(0.4 − x) = 0.25, so x^2 + 0.25x − 0.1 = 0 and x = 0.215 atm; the total pressure is (0.4 − x) + x + x = 0.4 + x = 0.615 atm, or 0.6 atm. 0.7 atm comes from the small-x shortcut: treating 0.4 − x as just 0.4 gives x = sqrt(0.25 × 0.4) = 0.32 atm and a total of about 0.72 atm, but x is not small compared with 0.4 atm, so the quadratic is needed. 0.4 atm assumes the total pressure stays at its starting value, but each PCl5 that dissociates becomes two gas molecules. 0.2 atm is x itself, the partial pressure of Cl2 (or of PCl3), not the total pressure.

  10. If the equilibrium constant for a decomposition reaction is less than 1, what can be inferred about the reaction?

    • A.Equilibrium favors the products
    • B.Equilibrium is reached very slowly
    • C.Equilibrium is reached when heated
    • D.Equilibrium favors the reactants
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Equilibrium favors the reactants

    Equilibrium favors the reactants is correct: K is the ratio of the product terms to the reactant terms once equilibrium is reached, so a value below 1 means the reactant terms are larger and relatively little of the compound has decomposed. Equilibrium favors the products would require K greater than 1. Equilibrium is reached very slowly confuses the equilibrium constant with the rate; K tells how far a reaction goes, not how fast it gets there. Equilibrium is reached when heated confuses K with the enthalpy change or the activation energy; a small K does not mean the reaction needs heat, and it says nothing about whether the reaction absorbs or releases heat.

  11. For a reaction where ΔH=−30\Delta H = -30 kJ/mol and ΔS=−80\Delta S = -80 J/mol⋅\cdotK, what is the effect of increasing temperature on the equilibrium constant?

    • A.Increases
    • B.Unchanged
    • C.Decreases
    • D.Uncertain
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Decreases

    Decreases is correct: the reaction is exothermic (ΔH = −30 kJ/mol), so by the van't Hoff equation raising the temperature lowers K. Equivalently, ΔG° = ΔH° − TΔS° = −30 kJ/mol + T(0.080 kJ/(mol·K)) becomes less negative as T rises, and K = e^(−ΔG°/RT) falls. Increases is the behavior of an endothermic reaction. Unchanged treats K as a fixed number, but an equilibrium constant changes with temperature even though it does not change with concentration or pressure. Uncertain is wrong because the sign of ΔH alone fixes the direction of the change.

  12. A buffer is prepared containing 0.10 M acetic acid (CHX3COOH\ce{CH3COOH}) and 0.20 M sodium acetate (CHX3COOX−\ce{CH3COO-}). Acetic acid has a pKa of 4.74. Using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, what is the pH of this buffer?

    • A.5.04
    • B.4.44
    • C.5.43
    • D.6.74
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 5.04

    The pH is 5.04. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is pH = pKa + log([A-]/[HA]), where A- is acetate and HA is acetic acid: pH = 4.74 + log(0.20/0.10) = 4.74 + log 2 = 4.74 + 0.30 = 5.04. With more conjugate base than acid, the pH sits above the pKa. "4.44" inverts the ratio, using log([HA]/[A-]) = log 0.5 = -0.30. "5.43" uses the natural logarithm, ln 2 = 0.69, instead of log 2. "6.74" forgets to take the logarithm and adds the concentration ratio itself, 2, to the pKa (4.74 + 2).

  13. For the gas-phase reaction 2 A(g)+B(g)→C(g)\ce{2A(g) + B(g) -> C(g)}, which expression correctly represents the equilibrium constant KcK_c?

    • A.Kc = [C] / (2[A] [B])
    • B.Kc = (2[A] [B]) / [C]
    • C.Kc = [C] / ([A]^2 [B])
    • D.Kc = [C]^2 / ([A] [B])
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Kc = [C] / ([A]^2 [B])

    The correct expression is Kc = [C] / ([A]^2 [B]). The equilibrium constant puts product concentrations in the numerator and reactant concentrations in the denominator, each raised to the power of its coefficient in the balanced equation, so the 2 in front of A becomes the exponent on [A]. "Kc = [C] / (2[A] [B])" turns the coefficient into a multiplier instead of an exponent; coefficients become exponents, never factors. "Kc = (2[A] [B]) / [C]" makes the same multiplier error and also inverts the expression, putting reactants over products. "Kc = [C]^2 / ([A] [B])" attaches the coefficient to the wrong species; the 2 belongs to A, and C has a coefficient of 1.

  14. For the reaction NX2(g)+3 HX2(g)→2 NHX3(g)\ce{N2(g) + 3H2(g) -> 2NH3(g)}, which relationship correctly converts between KpK_p and KcK_c at temperature TT (RR = gas constant)?

    • A.Kp = Kc(RT)^4
    • B.Kp = Kc(RT)^2
    • C.Kp = Kc(RT)^-2
    • D.Kp = Kc(RT)^-4
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Kp = Kc(RT)^-2

    The correct relationship is Kp = Kc(RT)^-2. In general Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn, where Δn is the moles of gaseous product minus the moles of gaseous reactant; here Δn = 2 - (1 + 3) = -2. "Kp = Kc(RT)^2" takes Δn as reactants minus products (4 - 2), which flips its sign. "Kp = Kc(RT)^-4" leaves out the gaseous product and uses only the reactant moles (0 - 4). "Kp = Kc(RT)^4" makes both slips, subtracting the wrong way and leaving out the product (4 - 0). Kp equals Kc only when Δn = 0, which is not the case for ammonia synthesis.

  15. For the equilibrium 2 SOX2(g)+OX2(g)→2 SOX3(g)\ce{2SO2(g) + O2(g) -> 2SO3(g)} (an exothermic reaction), which change will shift the equilibrium toward the products?

    • A.Removing SO3 from the system
    • B.Removing SO2 from the system
    • C.Adding heat to the system
    • D.Adding neon to the system
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Removing SO3 from the system

    Removing SO3 from the system shifts the equilibrium toward the products: by Le Chatelier's principle, taking away a product makes the system react forward to replace it. "Removing SO2 from the system" takes away a reactant, so the equilibrium shifts back toward the reactants. "Adding heat to the system" raises the temperature; because the forward reaction is exothermic, heat acts as a product, so adding it drives the equilibrium toward the reactants. "Adding neon to the system" is the inert-gas trap: at constant volume it changes no partial pressure and causes no shift, and if the volume expands to keep the pressure constant, the equilibrium moves toward the side with more moles of gas, the reactants (3 moles versus 2).

  16. What is the pH of a 0.0010 M solution of HCl\ce{HCl}, a strong acid, at 25 degrees C?

    • A.3.00
    • B.11.00
    • C.6.91
    • D.4.00
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3.00

    The pH is 3.00. HCl is a strong acid that ionizes completely, so [H+] = 0.0010 M = 1.0 × 10^-3 M, and pH = -log(1.0 × 10^-3) = 3.00. "11.00" subtracts 3.00 from 14, which gives the pH of a 0.0010 M strong base, not acid. "6.91" uses the natural logarithm, -ln(0.0010), instead of the base-10 logarithm. "4.00" counts the four decimal places in 0.0010 as the exponent, treating the concentration as 1 × 10^-4 M. A weak acid at the same concentration would have a higher pH because it ionizes only partly.

  17. At 25 degrees C, the base ionization constant KbK_b for ammonia (NHX3\ce{NH3}) is 1.8×10−51.8 \times 10^{-5}. What is the acid ionization constant KaK_a for its conjugate acid, the ammonium ion (NHX4X+\ce{NH4+})?

    • A.5.6 × 10^-9
    • B.5.6 × 10^-19
    • C.5.6 × 10^-10
    • D.5.6 × 10^-20
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 5.6 × 10^-10

    Ka for the ammonium ion is 5.6 × 10^-10. For a conjugate acid-base pair at 25 degrees C, Ka × Kb = Kw = 1.0 × 10^-14, so Ka = Kw/Kb = (1.0 × 10^-14)/(1.8 × 10^-5) = 0.56 × 10^-9 = 5.6 × 10^-10. Because ammonia is a weak base, its conjugate acid is correspondingly weak. "5.6 × 10^-9" moves the decimal point in 0.56 but forgets to lower the exponent by one. "5.6 × 10^-20" adds the exponents, -14 + (-5) = -19, instead of subtracting them, -14 - (-5) = -9, which gives 0.56 × 10^-19 = 5.6 × 10^-20. "5.6 × 10^-19" makes both slips: it adds the exponents and then writes 0.56 × 10^-19 as 5.6 × 10^-19 without lowering the exponent.

  18. A weak monoprotic acid HA has Ka=1.0×10−5K_a = 1.0 \times 10^{-5}. Using an ICE table for a 0.10 M solution and the approximation that x is small, what is the pH at equilibrium?

    • A.6.00
    • B.3.50
    • C.1.00
    • D.3.00
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 3.00

    The pH is 3.00. For HA ⇌ H+ + A-, an ICE table gives Ka = x^2/(0.10 - x); with x small compared with 0.10, x^2 = Ka(0.10) = (1.0 × 10^-5)(0.10) = 1.0 × 10^-6, so x = [H+] = 1.0 × 10^-3 M and pH = -log(1.0 × 10^-3) = 3.00. The approximation holds because x is only about 1 percent of 0.10. "6.00" forgets the square root and takes [H+] = 1.0 × 10^-6 M. "3.50" misplaces the square root, taking [H+] = 0.10 × sqrt(1.0 × 10^-5) = 3.2 × 10^-4 M. "1.00" treats HA as a strong acid that ionizes completely, taking [H+] = 0.10 M and ignoring Ka.

  19. In a conjugate acid-base pair, how do the two species differ structurally?

    • A.They differ by one hydroxide (OH−)
    • B.They differ by one proton (H+)
    • C.They differ by one hydride ion (H−)
    • D.They differ by one hydronium (H3O+)
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: They differ by one proton (H+)

    A conjugate acid-base pair differs by a single proton: "They differ by one proton (H+)". The acid is the species with the extra proton, and its conjugate base is what remains after that proton is donated; NH4+ and NH3 form such a pair, as do CH3COOH and CH3COO−. "They differ by one hydroxide (OH−)" mixes in the Arrhenius idea of a base; adding OH− to a base does not give its conjugate acid. "They differ by one hydride ion (H−)" names the wrong particle; a hydride ion carries two electrons and a negative charge, whereas the transferred particle is a bare, positive proton. "They differ by one hydronium (H3O+)" confuses the proton with the water molecule that carries it in solution; the pair itself differs only by H+.

  20. Silver chloride (AgCl\ce{AgCl}) has a solubility product Ksp=1.8×10−10K_{sp} = 1.8 \times 10^{-10} at 25 degrees C. What is the molar solubility of AgCl\ce{AgCl} in pure water?

    • A.1.3 × 10^-5 M
    • B.3.6 × 10^-4 M
    • C.6.7 × 10^-6 M
    • D.9.0 × 10^-6 M
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 1.3 × 10^-5 M

    The molar solubility is about 1.3 × 10^-5 M. For AgCl(s) ⇌ Ag+ + Cl-, dissolving s mol/L gives s mol/L of each ion, so Ksp = [Ag+][Cl-] = s^2 and s = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-10) = 1.3 × 10^-5 M. "3.6 × 10^-4 M" uses the expression for a 1:2 salt, Ksp = 4s^3, which does not apply to AgCl. "6.7 × 10^-6 M" writes Ksp = 4s^2, adding a factor of 4 that a 1:1 salt does not have. "9.0 × 10^-6 M" treats the square root as halving, cutting both 1.8 and the exponent -10 in half.

  21. For a reaction at equilibrium, a chemist computes the reaction quotient QQ and finds that QQ is greater than the equilibrium constant KK. In which direction will the net reaction proceed to reach equilibrium?

    • A.Forward, since products are favored by a large Q
    • B.Neither way, since the mixture is at equilibrium
    • C.Both ways at equal rates, so Q remains above K
    • D.Backward, so the excess products form reactants
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Backward, so the excess products form reactants

    The net reaction runs in reverse: "Backward, so the excess products form reactants". Q has the same form as K but uses the current concentrations; when Q is greater than K there are more products than equilibrium allows, so the net reaction consumes products and re-forms reactants until Q falls to equal K. "Forward, since products are favored by a large Q" reverses the rule; the forward direction is taken only when Q is less than K. "Neither way, since the mixture is at equilibrium" would need Q to equal K, which it does not. "Both ways at equal rates, so Q remains above K" describes the dynamic balance of equilibrium, but equal forward and reverse rates occur only when Q equals K, so Q cannot stay above K while the rates are equal.

  22. Which statement correctly distinguishes a strong acid from a weak acid in aqueous solution?

    • A.Strong acids ionize completely, whereas weak acids ionize partially
    • B.Strong acids are concentrated, whereas weak acids are dilute
    • C.Strong acids have stronger conjugate bases than weak acids
    • D.Strong acids hold protons tightly, whereas weak acids give them away
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Strong acids ionize completely, whereas weak acids ionize partially

    The distinction is the degree of ionization: "Strong acids ionize completely, whereas weak acids ionize partially". A strong acid such as HCl is essentially 100 percent ionized in water, so no equilibrium constant is needed, while a weak acid such as acetic acid reaches an equilibrium with a measurable Ka and leaves most of its molecules un-ionized. "Strong acids are concentrated, whereas weak acids are dilute" confuses strength with concentration; a strong acid can be dilute and a weak acid concentrated. "Strong acids have stronger conjugate bases than weak acids" has the relationship backward; the stronger the acid, the weaker its conjugate base. "Strong acids hold protons tightly, whereas weak acids give them away" also reverses it; strong acids give up their protons readily, which is why they ionize completely.

  23. Reaction 1 (A⇌B\ce{A <=> B}) has equilibrium constant K1=2.0K_{1} = 2.0, and Reaction 2 (B⇌C\ce{B <=> C}) has K2=5.0K_{2} = 5.0. What is the equilibrium constant for the overall reaction A⇌C\ce{A <=> C}, obtained by adding Reaction 1 and Reaction 2?

    • A.0.14
    • B.0.10
    • C.7.0
    • D.10.0
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 10.0

    10.0. When two reactions are added to give an overall reaction, their equilibrium constants are multiplied: K = K1 × K2 = 2.0 × 5.0 = 10.0. 7.0 adds K1 and K2 because the reactions are added, but the constants of added reactions multiply. 0.10 is 1/10.0, the constant for the overall reaction written backwards, from C to A. 0.14 makes both of those slips, adding the constants and then inverting the sum: 1/(2.0 + 5.0) = 0.14.

  24. For the heterogeneous equilibrium CaCOX3(s)⇌CaO(s)+COX2(g)\ce{CaCO3(s) <=> CaO(s) + CO2(g)}, which expression correctly represents the equilibrium constant KpK_{p}?

    • A.Kp = [CO2]
    • B.Kp = P_CO2 / P_CaCO3
    • C.Kp = [CO2] / [CaCO3]
    • D.Kp = P_CO2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Kp = P_CO2

    Kp = P_CO2. Pure solids have an activity of 1 and are left out of an equilibrium expression, so for CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g) only the gas appears, and Kp equals the equilibrium partial pressure of CO2. Kp = [CO2] uses a molar concentration, which gives Kc rather than Kp. Kp = P_CO2 / P_CaCO3 puts the solid reactant in the denominator as though it had a partial pressure. Kp = [CO2] / [CaCO3] makes both slips: it writes concentrations and keeps a solid.

  25. A saturated solution of the slightly soluble salt PbIX2\ce{PbI2} is in contact with solid PbIX2\ce{PbI2}. According to the common-ion effect, what happens to the molar solubility of PbIX2\ce{PbI2} when soluble NaI\ce{NaI} is added to the solution?

    • A.The molar solubility of PbI2 decreases.
    • B.The molar solubility of PbI2 stays fixed.
    • C.The value of Ksp for PbI2 increases.
    • D.The molar solubility of PbI2 increases.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The molar solubility of PbI2 decreases.

    The molar solubility of PbI2 decreases. Adding NaI supplies extra iodide, the common ion, so the equilibrium PbI2(s) ⇌ Pb^2+(aq) + 2I^-(aq) shifts back toward the solid by Le Chatelier's principle and less PbI2 dissolves. "The molar solubility of PbI2 stays fixed." confuses a constant Ksp with a constant solubility: Ksp does not change, but with extra iodide already present, less PbI2 can dissolve. "The value of Ksp for PbI2 increases." is wrong because Ksp depends only on temperature, not on added ions. "The molar solubility of PbI2 increases." gets the direction of the shift backwards.

Measurement and Data (27)

  1. In a titration experiment, a student uses phenolphthalein as an indicator, which changes color at a pH of about 8.3. If titrating a weak acid with a strong base, which of the following would be the best explanation for a titration curve that flattens near the endpoint?

    • A.The strong base is partly ionized.
    • B.The buffer region is extended.
    • C.The sodium salt formed is neutral.
    • D.The equivalence pH is acidic.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The buffer region is extended.

    Titrating a weak acid with a strong base turns part of the acid into its conjugate base, and that mixture of weak acid and conjugate base is a buffer, so the pH changes only slowly over a wide stretch of the curve before the endpoint: The buffer region is extended. "The strong base is partly ionized." is false: a strong base such as NaOH dissociates completely in water. "The sodium salt formed is neutral." is also false, because the conjugate base of a weak acid reacts with water to form OH-, so the salt solution is basic; a neutral salt would not flatten the curve in any case. "The equivalence pH is acidic." gets the endpoint backward: the basic conjugate base puts the equivalence point above pH 7, which is why phenolphthalein, changing near pH 8.3, suits this titration.

  2. During distillation, a chemist notices that the temperature on the thermometer reads consistently lower than expected. What is the most likely cause of this discrepancy?

    • A.The distillation condenser runs much too cold.
    • B.The distillation runs at an elevated pressure.
    • C.The distillation flask has no boiling chips.
    • D.The distillation apparatus has an air leak.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The distillation apparatus has an air leak.

    If the distillation apparatus has an air leak, usually at a poorly sealed joint, part of the vapor escapes before it reaches the thermometer, so the bulb is never fully bathed in condensing vapor and reads below the true boiling temperature: The distillation apparatus has an air leak. "The distillation condenser runs much too cold." affects only the condenser, which sits beyond the thermometer, so cold cooling water cannot lower the reading at the still head. "The distillation runs at an elevated pressure." would raise the boiling point and give a higher reading, not a lower one. "The distillation flask has no boiling chips." lets the liquid superheat and bump, which makes boiling uneven and the reading erratic, but it does not make the reading consistently low.

  3. Which of the following laboratory errors is most likely to cause a systematic error in a gravimetric analysis experiment?

    • A.Weighing near an open window.
    • B.Using an uncalibrated balance.
    • C.Accepting an unsteady display.
    • D.Misreading an occasional mass.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Using an uncalibrated balance.

    A systematic error shifts every result in the same direction by a consistent amount, and "Using an uncalibrated balance." does exactly that: every mass carries the same bias, so the results can agree closely with each other and still be inaccurate. "Weighing near an open window." lets drafts push the balance reading up and down at random. "Accepting an unsteady display." records whatever value a fluctuating reading happens to show, which is also a random error. "Misreading an occasional mass." is a sporadic blunder that affects only some trials, adding scatter rather than a consistent bias.

  4. In a synthesis experiment, a chemist uses a reflux setup. What is the primary purpose of refluxing a reaction mixture?

    • A.To aid the removal of volatile solvent.
    • B.To reduce the boiling points of solvents.
    • C.To halt the boiling of reaction mixtures.
    • D.To stop the escape of volatile reactants.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To stop the escape of volatile reactants.

    In a reflux setup a vertical condenser sits above the flask, so vapor that boils off condenses and runs back into the mixture. The reaction can then be heated at the solvent's boiling point for as long as needed without anything boiling away: To stop the escape of volatile reactants. "To aid the removal of volatile solvent." describes distillation, which collects the condensed liquid instead of returning it. "To reduce the boiling points of solvents." is wrong because the condenser does not change the pressure over the flask, so the solvent still boils at its normal boiling point. "To halt the boiling of reaction mixtures." gets reflux backward: the mixture keeps boiling steadily the whole time, and the condenser simply returns the vapor.

  5. What is the primary reason for using an ice bath in an exothermic reaction?

    • A.To control the rate of reaction.
    • B.To reduce the heat of reaction.
    • C.To change the order of reaction.
    • D.To halt the course of reaction.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To control the rate of reaction.

    An exothermic reaction releases heat, the heat raises the temperature, and the higher temperature speeds the reaction up so that it releases heat even faster. An ice bath carries that heat away and keeps the temperature low, so the reaction cannot run away; its purpose is "To control the rate of reaction." "To reduce the heat of reaction." confuses the bath with the reaction itself: the enthalpy change is fixed by the chemistry, and the bath only absorbs the heat once it is released. "To change the order of reaction." is wrong because temperature changes the rate constant, not the reaction order. "To halt the course of reaction." overstates the effect: cooling slows the reaction but does not stop it.

  6. When calibrating a pH meter, why is it important to use more than one standard buffer solution?

    • A.To average the random noise of the pH meter.
    • B.To condition the glass bulb of the pH meter.
    • C.To test the linear response of the pH meter.
    • D.To verify the temperature sensor of the pH meter.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To test the linear response of the pH meter.

    A pH electrode's voltage changes linearly with pH, but its offset and slope drift with age and temperature. Calibrating with two or more buffers of different pH sets both and confirms that the readings fall on a straight line across the working range, which one buffer alone cannot do: To test the linear response of the pH meter. "To average the random noise of the pH meter." misreads the procedure: each buffer sets a different calibration point rather than serving as a repeat reading to be averaged. "To condition the glass bulb of the pH meter." is done by soaking the electrode in storage solution, not by calibrating with several buffers. "To verify the temperature sensor of the pH meter." is a separate check made against a reference thermometer; buffers of different pH say nothing about the temperature probe.

  7. In an analytical chemistry lab, why is it important to perform a blank titration?

    • A.To standardize the titrant in the burette.
    • B.To measure the impurities in the reagents.
    • C.To quantify the analyte in the sample.
    • D.To preview the color change in the flask.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To measure the impurities in the reagents.

    A blank titration takes every reagent, including the solvent and the indicator, through the same procedure with no analyte present. Any titrant it uses must be reacting with impurities in those reagents, and that volume is subtracted from the sample titration: To measure the impurities in the reagents. "To standardize the titrant in the burette." describes standardization, which titrates a primary standard of known amount to find the titrant's exact concentration. "To quantify the analyte in the sample." cannot be done with a blank, because the blank contains no analyte. "To preview the color change in the flask." describes a rough trial titration run to locate the endpoint approximately, not a blank.

  8. Which method is most appropriate for separating non-volatile compounds from a volatile solvent?

    • A.Solvent extraction
    • B.Rotary evaporation
    • C.Recrystallization
    • D.Centrifugation
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Rotary evaporation

    Rotary evaporation removes a volatile solvent under reduced pressure while the flask turns in a warm water bath, so the solvent boils off gently at a low temperature and the non-volatile compound is left behind. Solvent extraction moves a compound from one solvent into a second, immiscible solvent, so the compound still ends up in solution. Recrystallization purifies a solid by dissolving it in hot solvent and letting crystals form on cooling; it is a purification step, not a way to strip off the solvent. Centrifugation spins down suspended solids or separates liquid layers; a compound dissolved in the solvent stays in solution however fast the tube spins.

  9. In a chemical synthesis involving sensitive reagents, what is the primary reason for using an inert atmosphere?

    • A.To keep the reagents from vaporizing.
    • B.To supply the reagents with nitrogen.
    • C.To dilute the reagents with argon.
    • D.To guard the reagents from oxidation.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: To guard the reagents from oxidation.

    Sensitive reagents such as organometallic compounds react with the oxygen (and often the moisture) in air. Filling the apparatus with nitrogen or argon pushes the air out, so the reagents cannot be oxidized: To guard the reagents from oxidation. "To keep the reagents from vaporizing." is not what the gas does; a volatile liquid evaporates into nitrogen just as readily as into air. "To supply the reagents with nitrogen." mistakes the gas for a reactant: nitrogen is used because its triple bond makes it unreactive toward most reagents. "To dilute the reagents with argon." is also wrong; the gas fills the space above the liquid and does not mix into the solution to dilute it.

  10. What is the advantage of using a microwave reactor in organic synthesis over conventional heating methods?

    • A.It decreases the reaction time.
    • B.It decreases the energy barrier.
    • C.It shifts the equilibrium position.
    • D.It raises the equilibrium constant.
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: It decreases the reaction time.

    A microwave reactor heats the reaction mixture directly and very quickly, often in a sealed vessel above the solvent's normal boiling point, so reactions that take hours under conventional heating can finish in minutes: It decreases the reaction time. "It decreases the energy barrier." is wrong because microwave heating raises the temperature but leaves the activation energy unchanged; only a catalyst provides a lower-energy pathway. "It shifts the equilibrium position." and "It raises the equilibrium constant." are wrong for the same reason: at a given temperature the equilibrium constant and position are set by thermodynamics, whatever the heat source, and the microwave only helps the mixture reach equilibrium sooner.

  11. A rectangular metal plate is measured as 4.18 cm long and 2.6 cm wide. Following the rules for significant figures, how should the area be reported?

    • A.10 cm^2
    • B.10.9 cm^2
    • C.10.8 cm^2
    • D.11 cm^2
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 11 cm^2

    The area should be reported as 11 cm^2. For multiplication and division, the result keeps as many significant figures as the factor with the fewest; 4.18 cm has three and 2.6 cm has two, so the product 10.868 cm^2 is rounded to two significant figures, giving 11 cm^2. "10 cm^2" truncates 10.868 instead of rounding it, and with no decimal point its trailing zero is not significant. "10.9 cm^2" keeps three significant figures, as 4.18 has, instead of the two that 2.6 allows. "10.8 cm^2" makes both mistakes, keeping three significant figures and truncating rather than rounding.

  12. A solution is analyzed with a spectrophotometer using a 2.00 cm cuvette. The absorbing species has a molar absorptivity of 1200 M−1^{-1} cm−1^{-1} at the chosen wavelength, and the measured absorbance is 0.480. Using the Beer-Lambert law, what is the concentration of the species?

    • A.4.00 × 10^-4 M
    • B.1.33 × 10^-4 M
    • C.2.00 × 10^-4 M
    • D.2.66 × 10^-4 M
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 2.00 × 10^-4 M

    The concentration is 2.00 × 10^-4 M. The Beer-Lambert law, A = εbc, rearranges to c = A/(εb) = 0.480/(1200 M^-1 cm^-1 × 2.00 cm) = 0.480/2400 = 2.00 × 10^-4 M. The value 4.00 × 10^-4 M leaves out the 2.00 cm path length and divides by the molar absorptivity alone (0.480/1200). The value 1.33 × 10^-4 M treats the reading of 0.480 as a transmittance, converts it with A = -log T to 0.319, and divides that by 2400. The value 2.66 × 10^-4 M makes both mistakes, dividing 0.319 by 1200.

  13. A car travels at 55 km/h. Using dimensional analysis with the conversions 1 km = 1000 m and 1 h = 3600 s, what is this speed in meters per second (to two significant figures)?

    • A.0.015 m/s
    • B.15 m/s
    • C.0.92 m/s
    • D.920 m/s
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 15 m/s

    The speed is 15 m/s. Arrange each conversion factor so the unwanted unit cancels: 55 km/h × (1000 m/1 km) × (1 h/3600 s) = 55,000 m/3600 s = 15.3 m/s, which rounds to 15 m/s at two significant figures. The value 0.015 m/s leaves out the 1000 m/km factor, so the result is still in kilometers per second (55/3600). The value 920 m/s divides by 60 instead of 3600, converting hours only to minutes (55,000/60 = 917). The value 0.92 m/s makes both of those mistakes at once (55/60 = 0.917).

  14. A student adds three volumes of water from different graduated glassware: 12.11 mL, 18.0 mL, and 1.013 mL. Applying significant-figure rules for addition, what is the correctly reported total volume?

    • A.31.1 mL
    • B.31 mL
    • C.31.11 mL
    • D.31.123 mL
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 31.1 mL

    The total is reported as 31.1 mL. In addition and subtraction the result keeps only as many decimal places as the measurement with the fewest decimal places. The raw sum is 31.123 mL, and 18.0 mL has a single decimal place, so the sum rounds to 31.1 mL. Reporting 31.123 mL keeps every digit the calculator shows, and 31 mL drops the tenths digit that 18.0 mL does justify, treating its trailing zero as if it were not significant. The value 31.11 mL comes from rounding each volume to three significant figures before adding (12.1 + 18.0 + 1.01 = 31.11) and reporting that sum; rounding belongs at the end, and the decimal places of 18.0 mL, not a count of significant figures, set the precision of the sum.

  15. Four students each measure the mass of an object whose true value is 5.00 g. Their replicate readings cluster tightly around 4.20 g. How are these results best described?

    • A.Accurate but imprecise
    • B.Precise but inaccurate
    • C.Precise and accurate
    • D.Imprecise and inaccurate
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Precise but inaccurate

    The results are precise but inaccurate. Precision describes how closely repeated readings agree with one another, while accuracy describes how close the readings are to the true value. Readings clustered tightly around 4.20 g agree well with each other, but they sit 0.80 g below the true 5.00 g, which points to a systematic error such as a miscalibrated balance. Accurate but imprecise would describe readings scattered widely around 5.00 g; precise and accurate would need the tight cluster to sit at 5.00 g; imprecise and inaccurate would describe readings that are both scattered and off target.

  16. A balance reads 0.0000 g when nothing is on the pan, but a 50.000 g certified reference mass reads 49.500 g. Which best describes the type of error this balance introduces?

    • A.A constant systematic error, as a fixed offset moves each reading by the same amount
    • B.A proportional systematic error, as the deviation grows with the measured value
    • C.A random error, as chance fluctuations scatter the repeated results in both directions
    • D.A gross error, as one careless operator blunder spoiled the results
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A proportional systematic error, as the deviation grows with the measured value

    A proportional systematic error, as the deviation grows with the measured value. The balance reads exactly 0.0000 g with nothing on the pan but 0.500 g (1%) low with 50.000 g on it, so the error grows in proportion to the mass being weighed. A constant systematic error, as a fixed offset moves each reading by the same amount would shift the empty-pan reading too, yet that reading is correct. A random error, as chance fluctuations scatter the repeated results in both directions would spread readings above and below the true mass rather than leaving the balance consistently low. A gross error, as one careless operator blunder spoiled the results describes a one-off human mistake, but here the instrument itself reads low.

  17. A student measures the same sample five times and reports 12.34, 12.36, 12.35, 12.33, and 12.35 g, but the accepted value is 11.90 g. These results are best described as:

    • A.Good precision, poor accuracy
    • B.Poor precision, good accuracy
    • C.Good precision, good accuracy
    • D.Poor precision, poor accuracy
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Good precision, poor accuracy

    Good precision, poor accuracy. The five readings agree within 0.03 g of one another, which is good precision, but they cluster near 12.35 g, about 0.45 g above the accepted 11.90 g, which is poor accuracy. Poor precision, good accuracy would need readings scattered widely around 11.90 g, with an average close to it. Good precision, good accuracy would need tightly grouped readings close to 11.90 g. Poor precision, poor accuracy would need readings that are both widely scattered and far from 11.90 g.

  18. How many significant figures are present in the measurement 0.004080 km?

    • A.Four
    • B.Two
    • C.Six
    • D.Three
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Four

    Four. In 0.004080 km the three zeros before the 4 only locate the decimal point, so they are not significant; the 4, the zero between the 4 and the 8, the 8, and the final zero (a trailing zero after the decimal point) are all significant. Two counts only the nonzero digits 4 and 8, but a zero between nonzero digits and a trailing zero after a decimal point both count. Six counts every digit after the decimal point, including the two placeholder zeros in front of the 4. Three drops the final zero, treating a trailing zero after the decimal point as a placeholder, but a zero that ends a number after its decimal point was measured.

  19. A measured length is 7.96 cm and the true length is 8.00 cm. What is the percent error of the measurement?

    • A.4.0%
    • B.0.005%
    • C.0.00005%
    • D.0.50%
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.50%

    0.50%. Percent error = |measured - true| / true × 100 = |7.96 - 8.00| / 8.00 × 100 = 0.04 / 8.00 × 100 = 0.50%. 4.0% multiplies the 0.04 cm difference by 100 but never divides it by the true length of 8.00 cm. 0.005% stops at the fraction 0.04 / 8.00 = 0.005 and never multiplies by 100 to turn it into a percent. 0.00005% divides the fraction 0.005 by 100 instead of multiplying by 100, moving the decimal point the wrong way when converting to a percent.

  20. When a result is computed as 4.5612/2.14.5612 / 2.1, how many significant figures should appear in the final reported answer?

    • A.Five, the larger count of significant figures
    • B.Two, the smaller count of significant figures
    • C.One, the count of decimal places in the divisor
    • D.Seven, the total count of digits in the dividend and divisor
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Two, the smaller count of significant figures

    Two, the smaller count of significant figures. In multiplication and division the answer keeps as many significant figures as the factor with the fewest, and 2.1 has two while 4.5612 has five. Five, the larger count of significant figures follows the more precise factor instead of the less precise one. One, the count of decimal places in the divisor applies the addition-and-subtraction rule, which tracks decimal places rather than significant figures; the divisor 2.1 has one decimal place. Seven, the total count of digits in the dividend and divisor adds up every digit in 4.5612 and 2.1, but the rule takes the smaller count, not a total.

  21. Which of the following measured quantities, all in grams, is recorded with the greatest number of significant figures?

    • A.13050
    • B.0.0103500
    • C.103.50
    • D.0.0013500
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 0.0103500

    0.0103500. Its leading zeros are placeholders, and the digits 1, 0, 3, 5, 0, 0 are significant, six in all: the zero between 1 and 3 is a captive zero, and the two trailing zeros after the decimal point were measured. 0.0013500 has only five (1, 3, 5, 0, 0); its three leading zeros are placeholders, so more zeros on the left never add significant figures, and only its two trailing zeros count. 103.50 has five, its trailing zero after the decimal point counting. 13050 has four, because a trailing zero in a number written without a decimal point is not counted as significant.

  22. A density is calculated by dividing a mass with relative uncertainty of 1.0% by a volume with relative uncertainty of 2.0%. What is the approximate relative uncertainty in the calculated density?

    • A.About 3.0%
    • B.About 1.0%
    • C.About 0.50%
    • D.About 5.0%
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: About 3.0%

    About 3.0%. When measured quantities are multiplied or divided, their relative uncertainties add, so 1.0% from the mass plus 2.0% from the volume gives about 3.0% in the density. About 1.0% subtracts the uncertainties because the quantities are divided, but uncertainties do not cancel. About 0.50% divides the uncertainties (1.0% ÷ 2.0%) because the quantities are divided, but dividing two measurements still adds their relative uncertainties. About 5.0% squares the two uncertainties and adds the squares (1.0^2 + 2.0^2 = 5.0) without taking the square root; no combination of a 1.0% and a 2.0% uncertainty can exceed their straight sum of 3.0%.

  23. Expressed in proper scientific notation, the number 0.0000562 is written as:

    • A.5.62 × 10^-4
    • B.5.62 × 10^-5
    • C.5.62 × 10^4
    • D.5.62 × 10^-7
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 5.62 × 10^-5

    5.62 × 10^-5. Proper scientific notation has exactly one nonzero digit before the decimal point, so 0.0000562 becomes 5.62, and moving the decimal point five places to the right is balanced by 10^-5. 5.62 × 10^-4 counts the four zeros after the decimal point instead of the five places the decimal point moves. 5.62 × 10^4 makes the same miscount and also flips the sign of the exponent, which would describe 56,200. 5.62 × 10^-7 counts all seven decimal places of 0.0000562 instead of only the places up to the first nonzero digit.

  24. Which piece of common volumetric glassware is designed to deliver a single fixed volume with the smallest uncertainty for quantitative work?

    • A.A volumetric pipette
    • B.A volumetric flask
    • C.A graduated cylinder
    • D.A graduated beaker
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A volumetric pipette

    A volumetric pipette. It is calibrated to deliver one fixed volume, such as 25.00 mL, with a very small tolerance (about 0.03 mL for a Class A 25 mL pipette), which makes it the standard tool for transferring an exact aliquot. A volumetric flask is also highly accurate, but it is calibrated to contain a fixed volume, not to deliver one. A graduated cylinder measures variable volumes with a tolerance near 1%, far coarser than a pipette. A graduated beaker carries only rough markings, often good to about 5%.

  25. When the value 23.4548 is rounded to three significant figures, the correct result is:

    • A.23.4
    • B.23.5
    • C.23.46
    • D.23
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 23.5

    23.5. Three significant figures keeps the 2, 3, and 4; the first dropped digit is 5 (followed by 48), so the 4 rounds up to 5. 23.4 truncates instead of rounding and ignores the 5 that follows. 23.46 rounds one digit at a time from the right (23.4548 to 23.455 to 23.46) and stops at four figures; rounding should look only at the first dropped digit, and three figures were asked for. 23 stops at the decimal point and keeps only two significant figures, one fewer than the three asked for.

  26. A 25.00 mL volume measurement is made with a buret that can be read to the nearest 0.01 mL. How many significant figures does the recorded measurement 25.00 mL contain?

    • A.Four
    • B.Five
    • C.Two
    • D.Three
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Four

    Four. In 25.00 mL the 2, the 5, and both trailing zeros are significant: zeros that end a number after its decimal point always count, and a buret read to the nearest 0.01 mL measured each of them. Five adds a digit the buret cannot read; reading to 0.01 mL already includes the estimated place, so a third decimal place would claim precision the buret does not have. Two counts only the nonzero digits 2 and 5, treating the trailing zeros as placeholders, but zeros that end a number after its decimal point were measured. Three drops the final zero as if the estimated digit were not significant, but the last, estimated digit of a reading always counts.

  27. A student divides a measured mass of 3.0 g by a measured volume of 1.27 mL to find density. To how many significant figures should the calculated density be reported?

    • A.Three significant figures
    • B.Two significant figures
    • C.Five significant figures
    • D.One significant figure
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Two significant figures

    Two significant figures. In multiplication and division the result keeps as many significant figures as the least precise measurement: 3.0 g has two and 1.27 mL has three, so the density is limited to two. Three significant figures follows the more precise 1.27 mL measurement instead. Five significant figures adds the two counts (2 + 3), borrowing the habit of adding decimal places when multiplying decimals. One significant figure treats the trailing zero in 3.0 g as a placeholder, but a zero after the decimal point was measured.

Visualization and Scale (19)

  1. In chemistry, the same phenomenon can be described at three levels of representation. Which set correctly names these three levels?

    • A.Observation, inference, and prediction
    • B.Empirical, molecular, and structural
    • C.Atomic, molecular, and macromolecular
    • D.Particulate, macroscopic, and symbolic
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Particulate, macroscopic, and symbolic

    Chemists describe the same event at three levels: the particulate level (atoms, ions, and molecules), the macroscopic level (what can be seen and measured, such as color, mass, and bubbling), and the symbolic level (formulas, equations, and graphs). So the set is particulate, macroscopic, and symbolic, and translating among the three is the core skill of visualization. 'Observation, inference, and prediction' are steps in scientific reasoning, not levels of representation. 'Empirical, molecular, and structural' are kinds of chemical formula, all of which belong to the symbolic level. 'Atomic, molecular, and macromolecular' are scales of particle size, all within the particulate level.

  2. A student writes 2 HX2(g)+OX2(g)→2 HX2O(g)\ce{2H2(g) + O2(g) -> 2H2O(g)}. This statement is BEST described as which level of representation?

    • A.Macroscopic
    • B.Symbolic
    • C.Particulate
    • D.Verbal
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Symbolic

    A balanced chemical equation is a symbolic representation: formulas such as H2 and O2, the coefficients, and the arrow stand for the substances and the change without drawing the molecules or describing the flask. 'Macroscopic' would describe what is observed, such as a flash of flame or droplets condensing on glass. 'Particulate' would be a picture of the individual molecules colliding and rearranging, which the equation abbreviates but does not show. 'Verbal' would put the change into words, as a word equation does, whereas this statement is written in formulas and an arrow.

  3. On the order-of-magnitude scale, the diameter of a typical atom is closest to which value?

    • A.About 1 × 10^-10 meters
    • B.About 1 × 10^-14 meters
    • C.About 1 × 10^-9 meters
    • D.About 1 × 10^-12 meters
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: About 1 × 10^-10 meters

    A typical atom is about 1 × 10^-10 meters across: 0.1 nanometer, 100 picometers, or 1 angstrom. 'About 1 × 10^-9 meters' is a full nanometer, roughly ten atoms side by side; atoms are often loosely called nanometer-sized, but one atom is about a tenth of that. 'About 1 × 10^-12 meters' is a single picometer; atomic sizes are often listed in picometers, but they run to about 100 of them, not 1. 'About 1 × 10^-14 meters' is the scale of an atomic nucleus (even a large nucleus is only about 1.5 × 10^-14 m across), some 10,000 times smaller than the whole atom.

  4. Avogadro's number serves primarily as a conversion bridge between which two levels of chemical description?

    • A.The symbolic level, where formulas are written, and the particulate level, where particles are counted
    • B.The symbolic level, where formulas are written, and the macroscopic level, where grams are weighed
    • C.The particulate level, where particles are counted, and the macroscopic level, where grams are weighed
    • D.The subatomic level, where protons are counted, and the atomic level, where atoms are counted
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The particulate level, where particles are counted, and the macroscopic level, where grams are weighed

    Avogadro's number, about 6.022 × 10^23 particles per mole, turns a count of particles into moles, the laboratory-scale amount that molar mass then expresses in grams, so it bridges the particulate level, where particles are counted, and the macroscopic level, where grams are weighed. 'The symbolic level, where formulas are written, and the particulate level, where particles are counted' and 'The symbolic level, where formulas are written, and the macroscopic level, where grams are weighed' each bring in the symbolic level, but formulas are read directly and need no conversion factor; Avogadro's number links counts to masses, not symbols to either. 'The subatomic level, where protons are counted, and the atomic level, where atoms are counted' describes the job of the atomic number, which gives the number of protons in each atom of an element; Avogadro's number does not relate protons to atoms.

  5. Roughly how many water molecules are present in one mole of water (about 18 grams)?

    • A.About 2 × 10^1
    • B.About 2 × 10^23
    • C.About 1 × 10^25
    • D.About 6 × 10^23
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: About 6 × 10^23

    One mole of any substance contains Avogadro's number of particles, about 6.022 × 10^23, so 18 grams (one mole) of water holds about 6 × 10^23 molecules. 'About 2 × 10^1' takes the molar mass, 18, as if it were the number of molecules. 'About 2 × 10^23' divides Avogadro's number by the three atoms in each molecule, as if the mole counted atoms rather than molecules. 'About 1 × 10^25' multiplies Avogadro's number by the 18 grams (6.022 × 10^23 × 18 ≈ 1.1 × 10^25), as if every gram held a full mole.

  6. Which observation belongs to the MACROSCOPIC level rather than the particulate or symbolic level?

    • A.Magnesium ribbon burns with a bright white light and leaves a white ash
    • B.A magnesium atom loses two electrons and ends up with a positive charge
    • C.The change is written in chemical symbols as the equation 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
    • D.The oxide ions in the product are bound in place by the nearby metal ions
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Magnesium ribbon burns with a bright white light and leaves a white ash

    Magnesium ribbon burns with a bright white light and leaves a white ash: both the light and the ash can be seen and collected in the laboratory, so this observation belongs to the macroscopic level. 'A magnesium atom loses two electrons and ends up with a positive charge' describes individual atoms and electrons, which is the particulate level. 'The change is written in chemical symbols as the equation 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO' uses formulas and an equation, which is the symbolic level. 'The oxide ions in the product are bound in place by the nearby metal ions' pictures how the ions are arranged in the solid, which is again the particulate level.

  7. If a single carbon atom were magnified until it appeared the size of a small marble (about 1 centimeter), an everyday object scaled by the same factor would change from 1 centimeter to roughly what size?

    • A.About 100 kilometers
    • B.About 1,000 kilometers
    • C.About 10 kilometers
    • D.About 100,000 kilometers
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: About 1,000 kilometers

    A carbon atom is about 1 × 10^-10 m across and a marble about 1 × 10^-2 m, so the magnification is about 1 × 10^8. Scaling a 1-centimeter object by the same factor gives 1 × 10^8 cm = 1 × 10^6 m, which is about 1,000 kilometers. 'About 100 kilometers' takes the atom as 1 nanometer (1 × 10^-9 m), which makes the factor ten times too small. 'About 10 kilometers' takes the atom as 1 × 10^-8 m, the angstrom's value in centimeters used as if it were meters, which makes the factor 100 times too small. 'About 100,000 kilometers' treats the scaled 1 × 10^8 centimeters as 1 × 10^8 meters.

  8. Which comparison of relative sizes within an atom is correct?

    • A.The atom is about 1,000,000 to 10,000,000 times wider than the nucleus that it holds
    • B.The nucleus takes up most of the space in an atom, leaving little room for the electrons
    • C.The nucleus, though small, spans roughly half the width of the atom that holds it
    • D.The nucleus is about 10,000 to 100,000 times smaller in diameter than the whole atom
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The nucleus is about 10,000 to 100,000 times smaller in diameter than the whole atom

    The nucleus is about 10,000 to 100,000 times smaller in diameter than the whole atom: a nucleus is a few femtometers across (about 10^-15 to 10^-14 m) inside an atom roughly 10^-10 m wide, so nearly all of an atom's volume is the electron cloud. 'The atom is about 1,000,000 to 10,000,000 times wider than the nucleus that it holds' overshoots that ratio by a factor of about 100. 'The nucleus takes up most of the space in an atom, leaving little room for the electrons' is the misconception scale drawings encourage; the nucleus holds nearly all of the mass but almost none of the volume. 'The nucleus, though small, spans roughly half the width of the atom that holds it' takes textbook diagrams literally, though they draw the nucleus thousands of times too large so that it can be seen.

  9. Place these objects in order from SMALLEST to LARGEST: a proton, a water molecule, an atom of helium, a virus particle. Which order is correct?

    • A.Proton, water molecule, helium atom, virus
    • B.Proton, helium atom, water molecule, virus
    • C.Virus, water molecule, helium atom, proton
    • D.Virus, helium atom, water molecule, proton
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Proton, helium atom, water molecule, virus

    From smallest to largest the order is proton, helium atom, water molecule, virus. A proton is about 10^-15 m across; a helium atom, the smallest atom of all, is about 0.06 nm across by its calculated radius; a water molecule built from three atoms is roughly 0.28 nm across; and a virus measures tens to hundreds of nanometers. 'Proton, water molecule, helium atom, virus' puts the three-atom molecule ahead of a single small atom. 'Virus, water molecule, helium atom, proton' runs the scale from largest to smallest, the reverse of what was asked, and also swaps the atom and the molecule. 'Virus, helium atom, water molecule, proton' has the atom and the molecule in the right relative order but lists everything from largest to smallest.

  10. A graph of volume versus temperature for a fixed amount of gas, plotted as a straight line, is an example of which level of chemical representation?

    • A.Macroscopic
    • B.Symbolic
    • C.Particulate
    • D.Kinetic
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Symbolic

    A graph is a symbolic representation: the axes, plotted points, and straight line stand for how the gas behaves, in the same way that an equation or formula does. 'Macroscopic' describes the measured volumes and temperatures themselves, the data the graph is built from, but the graph is an abstract stand-in for those observations. 'Particulate' would be a picture of the gas particles themselves, speeding up as the temperature rises, which the graph does not show. 'Kinetic' is not one of the three levels of representation; kinetic theory explains why the volume rises with temperature, but the graph only displays that trend in symbols.

  11. Which scenario correctly connects a macroscopic observation to its particle-level explanation?

    • A.A warmed balloon expands because its gas particles swell larger and fill more of the space inside it
    • B.A warmed balloon expands because its gas particles speed up and hit the walls harder and more frequently
    • C.A puddle dries up because its water particles split apart into the hydrogen and the oxygen atoms in them
    • D.A sugar cube dissolves in tea because its sugar particles melt and become part of the liquid around them
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: A warmed balloon expands because its gas particles speed up and hit the walls harder and more frequently

    A warmed balloon expands because its gas particles speed up and hit the walls harder and more frequently, which raises the pressure inside until the rubber stretches to a larger volume. 'A warmed balloon expands because its gas particles swell larger and fill more of the space inside it' is the classic misconception that particles themselves grow; their size does not change with temperature, only their speed and spacing. 'A puddle dries up because its water particles split apart into the hydrogen and the oxygen atoms in them' confuses evaporation with decomposition; whole H2O molecules escape into the air. 'A sugar cube dissolves in tea because its sugar particles melt and become part of the liquid around them' confuses dissolving with melting; the sugar molecules stay intact and spread out among the water molecules.

  12. Expressed in scientific notation, a measurement of 0.000045 grams is written as which of the following?

    • A.4.5 × 10^-5 g
    • B.4.5 × 10^-6 g
    • C.4.5 × 10^-4 g
    • D.4.5 × 10^4 g
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 4.5 × 10^-5 g

    Moving the decimal point five places to the right turns 0.000045 into 4.5, so 0.000045 g = 4.5 × 10^-5 g; a number smaller than 1 needs a negative exponent. '4.5 × 10^-4 g' counts only the four zeros after the decimal point, which gives 0.00045 g. '4.5 × 10^-6 g' miscounts the other way, counting all six decimal places instead of five, which gives 0.0000045 g. '4.5 × 10^4 g' counts only the four zeros and also drops the minus sign, describing 45,000 g; any positive exponent describes a mass larger than 1 g.

  13. Which statement about scale in chemistry is correct?

    • A.Avogadro's number is enormous because atoms are unusually heavy, and even a small sample of them has a large total mass
    • B.Avogadro's number is enormous because a mole is defined as the particles present in one liter of gas at room temperature
    • C.Avogadro's number is enormous because atoms and molecules are so tiny that a weighable sample holds a vast count of them
    • D.Avogadro's number is enormous because it was chosen so that a mole of an element would have a mass of precisely one gram
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Avogadro's number is enormous because atoms and molecules are so tiny that a weighable sample holds a vast count of them

    Avogadro's number is enormous because atoms and molecules are so tiny that a weighable sample holds a vast count of them: about 6.022 × 10^23 particles are needed to reach a mass of a few grams. 'Avogadro's number is enormous because atoms are unusually heavy, and even a small sample of them has a large total mass' gets it backward; atoms are extremely light, which is exactly why so many are needed. 'Avogadro's number is enormous because a mole is defined as the particles present in one liter of gas at room temperature' confuses the mole with a volume; a mole of gas occupies about 24.5 L at 25 °C and 1 atm, and that volume changes with temperature and pressure. 'Avogadro's number is enormous because it was chosen so that a mole of an element would have a mass of precisely one gram' is false; a mole of an element has a mass equal to its atomic mass in grams, such as about 12 g for carbon.

  14. A chemist records that a blue copper(II) sulfate solution turns colorless when zinc metal is added and a reddish solid forms. At which level of chemical representation is this description being made?

    • A.Particulate, since it follows atoms as they regroup
    • B.Symbolic, since it states the change as an equation
    • C.Theoretical, since it explains why the color faded
    • D.Macroscopic, since it reports changes seen directly
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Macroscopic, since it reports changes seen directly

    The description is made at the macroscopic level: macroscopic, since it reports changes seen directly. A blue solution turning colorless and a reddish solid appearing are bulk properties anyone can observe in the beaker. Particulate, since it follows atoms as they regroup would describe zinc atoms giving electrons to copper(II) ions, which the description never mentions. Symbolic, since it states the change as an equation would need formulas such as Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu, and the description uses none. Theoretical, since it explains why the color faded is wrong on both counts: theoretical is not one of the three levels of representation, and the description only reports what was seen without explaining it.

  15. When a chemist sketches individual molecules as connected spheres to explain why a sample behaves the way it does, the sketch operates at which level of chemical representation?

    • A.The macroscopic level
    • B.The symbolic level
    • C.The particulate level
    • D.The theoretical level
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: The particulate level

    A sketch of individual molecules as connected spheres works at the particulate level, the scale of atoms, ions and molecules, and such sketches are used to explain how a bulk sample behaves. The macroscopic level covers what can be seen or measured in a sample, such as color or boiling point. The symbolic level uses formulas, equations and symbols rather than pictures of particles. The theoretical level is not one of the three levels of chemical representation; a particle sketch is a model, but the level it depicts is the particulate one.

  16. In scientific notation, the number 6,500,000 is written correctly as which of the following?

    • A.6.5 × 10^7
    • B.6.5 × 10^6
    • C.0.065 × 10^8
    • D.0.065 × 10^9
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: 6.5 × 10^6

    In scientific notation the coefficient must be at least 1 and less than 10, so 6,500,000 is written 6.5 × 10^6: the decimal point moves six places to the left, which gives an exponent of 6. The value 6.5 × 10^7 counts the seven digits of 6,500,000 instead of the six places the decimal point moves. The value 0.065 × 10^8 equals 6,500,000, but its coefficient is less than 1, so it is not written in proper scientific notation. The value 0.065 × 10^9 makes both mistakes: its coefficient is below 1 and it stands for a number ten times too large.

  17. Why must chemists use models such as particle drawings and chemical formulas instead of directly observing single atoms during ordinary laboratory work?

    • A.Atoms are far too small to be seen with ordinary microscopes
    • B.Atoms are far too fast to be caught with ordinary cameras
    • C.Atoms are far too transparent to be seen with ordinary light
    • D.Atoms are far too reactive to be caught with ordinary tools
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Atoms are far too small to be seen with ordinary microscopes

    Atoms are far too small to be seen with ordinary microscopes: an atom is about 10^-10 m across, more than a thousand times smaller than the finest detail visible light can resolve, so chemists use particle drawings and formulas to represent what cannot be observed directly. Atoms are far too fast to be caught with ordinary cameras treats the problem as one of speed, but even a motionless atom could not be resolved. Atoms are far too transparent to be seen with ordinary light blames transparency, while the real limit is an atom's size compared with the wavelength of light. Atoms are far too reactive to be caught with ordinary tools is also wrong: many atoms, such as those of the noble gases, are unreactive, and single atoms have been trapped and imaged with special instruments such as scanning tunneling microscopes.

  18. Arrange the following from the LARGEST diameter to the SMALLEST: a grain of table salt, a bacterial cell, a single atom. Which order is correct?

    • A.Grain of salt > bacterial cell > single atom
    • B.Grain of salt > single atom > bacterial cell
    • C.Bacterial cell > grain of salt > single atom
    • D.Single atom > grain of salt > bacterial cell
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: Grain of salt > bacterial cell > single atom

    From largest to smallest: grain of salt > bacterial cell > single atom. A grain of table salt is a fraction of a millimeter across (about 10^-4 m), a bacterial cell is about a micrometer (10^-6 m), and an atom is about 10^-10 m. Grain of salt > single atom > bacterial cell puts the atom above the cell, although a single bacterium contains billions of atoms. Bacterial cell > grain of salt > single atom overestimates the bacterium, which is roughly a hundred times smaller than a salt grain. Single atom > grain of salt > bacterial cell lists the sizes from smallest to largest and also swaps the salt grain and the cell.

  19. A sample of 0.0250 mol of a substance contains approximately how many representative particles, using Avogadro's number as the bridge between moles and particles?

    • A.About 1.51 × 10^24 particles
    • B.About 1.51 × 10^25 particles
    • C.About 1.51 × 10^22 particles
    • D.About 1.51 × 10^23 particles
    Show answerHide answer

    Correct answer: About 1.51 × 10^22 particles

    About 1.51 × 10^22 particles. Number of particles = moles × Avogadro's number = 0.0250 mol × 6.02 × 10^23 per mol = 0.1505 × 10^23, which is 1.51 × 10^22. About 1.51 × 10^23 particles keeps the exponent of 23 when 0.1505 becomes 1.505, instead of lowering it by one. About 1.51 × 10^24 particles moves the exponent the wrong way, raising it when the coefficient is enlarged. About 1.51 × 10^25 particles treats 0.0250 mol as 25.0 mol, dropping the decimal point.

References

  1. 1.ACS Division of Chemical Education Examinations Institute. “ACS Exams — General Chemistry exams (official overview).” uwm.edu/acs-exams. ↑
  2. 2.ACS Division of Chemical Education Examinations Institute. “Student Study Materials — Official Guide for General Chemistry.” uwm.edu/acs-exams. ↑
  3. 3.American Chemical Society. “ACS Exams Institute — exam development and national norming.” acs.org. ↑
  4. 4.University of Georgia Department of Chemistry. “ACS Exams — General Chemistry exam format (~70 questions, ~2 hours).” chem.uga.edu. ↑
  5. 5.ACS Division of Chemical Education Examinations Institute. “Exam Statistics — National Norms (percentile norm-referenced scoring).” uwm.edu/acs-exams. ↑
  6. 6.Holme, T. & Murphy, K.. “The ACS Exams Institute Undergraduate Chemistry Anchoring Concepts Content Map I: General Chemistry.” J. Chem. Educ. (pubs.acs.org). ↑
  7. 7.Career Employer. “ACS General Chemistry Exam practice-test performance data.” careeremployer.com, updated daily, CC BY 4.0. ↑
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