Career Employer

Your FREE USMLE Step 1 Flashcards 2026 – 300+ Cards

Realistic, high-yield USMLE Step 1 flashcards — flip, match, type, and quiz yourself across pathology, physiology, pharmacology, micro, immunology, and biochemistry.

How well do you know them?

To find us again, just search “Career Employer USMLE Step 1”

By

Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of USMLE Step 1 cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the high-yield basic science Step 1 tests, so you study exactly what the exam measures.[1] Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide.

USMLE Step 1 Flashcard Study Modes

Flip mode lets you turn cards one at a time and rate what you actually recall. Match gives you a timed grid pairing terms with their definitions. Type shows the definition and asks you to spell the term back, so a card like Virchow triad has to come from memory. Quiz builds multiple-choice items from the same 310 cards.

Free USMLE Step 1 flashcards from Career Employer — active recall for the medical licensing exam

Why Flashcards Work for USMLE Step 1

Pathology is the largest domain at 72 cards, which fits how heavily Step 1 leans on mechanism and morphology. These cards drill classic buzzwords, disease mechanisms, and lab correlates, from Lines of Zahn and Psammoma bodies to Tetralogy of Fallot, with cards such as Acromegaly and Hemoglobin A1c tying findings back to underlying pathophysiology.

Biochemistry & Genetics carries 56 cards covering metabolic pathways, enzyme deficiencies, and inheritance patterns, including the Cori cycle, Alkaptonuria, and Fragile X syndrome. Physiology follows with 39 cards on organ system function and regulation, where prompts like Surfactant, Baroreceptor reflex, and Aldosterone vs ADH push you to explain direction of change, not just name a hormone.

Pharmacology holds 35 cards on drug classes, mechanisms, and toxicities, including Aminoglycosides, Therapeutic index, and Warfarin vs heparin. Microbiology adds 34 cards on organisms, virulence, and clinical syndromes, with fronts such as Helicobacter pylori, TORCH infections, and Clostridium difficile that reward knowing the presentation and the treatment together.

Biostatistics & Epidemiology has 24 cards on test characteristics and study design, including Sensitivity and SnNout, Incidence vs prevalence, and Type I vs type II error. Anatomy & Neuroscience also has 24 cards on tracts, nerve lesions, and localization, with Horner syndrome, Radial nerve injury, and Spinothalamic tract among the fronts.

Immunology contributes 18 cards on cell types, signaling, and deficiency syndromes, such as MHC class I vs class II, Superantigens, and DiGeorge syndrome. Behavioral Science rounds out the deck with 8 cards on ethics, development, and learning theory, including Capacity vs competency, Informed consent and exceptions, and Classical vs operant conditioning.

That matters on Step 1, where a vast fact base (rate-limiting enzymes, organism profiles, drug receptors, antidotes, high-yield associations) must be instantly available under time pressure. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.

USMLE Step 1 Flashcards by Topic

The cards are organized by the disciplines you study. Pathology and physiology together carry most of the exam, so weight your time there — but the rule-based facts in every discipline (antidotes, hypersensitivity types, rate-limiting enzymes) are pure recall and reliable points:[1]

USMLE Step 1 flashcard topics and their approximate discipline weight
Flashcard topicApprox. Step 1 discipline weight
Pathology45–55% (the largest)
Physiology30–40%
Microbiology10–20%
Pharmacology10–20%
Anatomy & Neuroscience10–20% (anatomy/embryology)
Behavioral Sciences10–15%
Biochemistry & Genetics5–15% (biochem) + 5–10% (genetics)
Immunology5–15%
Biostatistics & Epidemiology4–6% (by system)

Ranges overlap because each Step 1 question maps to several disciplines at once. Because the rule-based associations are so reliably tested, they are some of the most efficient points you can bank with flashcards.

How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards

  • Start with Pathology. At 72 cards it is the biggest block in the deck and the one most other domains connect back to, so early passes there pay off everywhere else.
  • Type-drill the precise terms. Cards like Virchow triad and Psammoma bodies are exactly the kind of named findings you should be able to produce cold, not merely recognize.
  • Use Match for organism and drug cards. Pairing fronts such as Aspergillus fumigatus or Beta-lactam mechanism against their definitions under time pressure exposes the associations you only half know.
  • Move to the practice test once recall holds. When Quiz mode stops surprising you across Physiology and Pharmacology, shift to full-length questions and use the study guide for gaps.
  • Keep a rotating cadence. Work one large domain and one small domain per session, so Immunology and Behavioral Science get repeated exposure instead of a single rushed pass.

USMLE Step 1 Flashcards FAQ

Hundreds of free USMLE Step 1 flashcards, spanning the highest-yield basic science the exam tests — pathology, physiology, pharmacology, microbiology, immunology, biochemistry, genetics, anatomy/neuroscience, behavioral science, and biostatistics. They're free with no account required.

USMLE Step 1 flashcard bank

All 310 cards, by topic

A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.

Biochemistry & Genetics (56)

Rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis
Show answer

Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1), the committed step; activated by AMP and fructose-2,6-bisphosphate, inhibited by ATP and citrate.

Net ATP yield of glycolysis
Show answer

2 ATP and 2 NADH per glucose (cytoplasm); one glucose → two pyruvate.

Citric acid (Krebs) cycle yield per turn
Show answer

3 NADH, 1 FADH₂, 1 GTP, and 2 CO₂; each glucose drives two turns.

Rate-limiting enzyme of the TCA cycle
Show answer

Isocitrate dehydrogenase.

Where is the bulk of cellular ATP made?
Show answer

Oxidative phosphorylation in the inner mitochondrial membrane (electron transport chain + ATP synthase).

Michaelis constant (Km)
Show answer

Substrate concentration at ½ Vmax. Low Km = high affinity. On a Lineweaver-Burk plot the x-intercept is −1/Km.

Competitive vs non-competitive inhibitor (kinetics)
Show answer

Competitive: ↑ apparent Km, Vmax unchanged (overcome with more substrate). Non-competitive: ↓ Vmax, Km unchanged.

Rate-limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis
Show answer

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase.

Rate-limiting enzyme of fatty acid synthesis
Show answer

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACC); requires biotin.

Rate-limiting enzyme of fatty acid oxidation
Show answer

Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT-1); inhibited by malonyl-CoA.

Rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis
Show answer

HMG-CoA reductase — the target of statins.

Rate-limiting enzyme of heme synthesis
Show answer

ALA synthase (uses vitamin B6); inhibited by heme.

Rate-limiting enzyme of the urea cycle
Show answer

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS-I) in the mitochondria.

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex cofactors
Show answer

Tender Loving Care For Nancy: Thiamine (B1), Lipoic acid, CoA (B5), FAD (B2), NAD (B3).

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
Show answer

X-linked; ↓ NADPH → ↓ glutathione → hemolysis with oxidative stress (fava beans, infections, sulfa/primaquine). Heinz bodies, bite cells.

Pyruvate kinase deficiency
Show answer

Autosomal recessive; impaired last ATP step of glycolysis → hemolytic anemia in RBCs (which rely solely on glycolysis).

Von Gierke disease (glycogen storage type I)
Show answer

Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency → severe fasting hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia, hyperlipidemia.

Pompe disease (glycogen storage type II)
Show answer

Acid α-glucosidase (lysosomal) deficiency → cardiomegaly, hypotonia, early death. 'Pompe trashes the Pump (heart).'

McArdle disease (glycogen storage type V)
Show answer

Myophosphorylase deficiency → exercise intolerance, muscle cramps, myoglobinuria; flat venous lactate with exercise.

Tay-Sachs disease
Show answer

Hexosaminidase A deficiency → GM2 ganglioside accumulation; cherry-red macula, NO hepatosplenomegaly, progressive neurodegeneration.

Gaucher disease
Show answer

Glucocerebrosidase deficiency → hepatosplenomegaly, bone crises; 'crumpled tissue paper' macrophages. Most common lysosomal storage disease.

Niemann-Pick disease
Show answer

Sphingomyelinase deficiency → hepatosplenomegaly, cherry-red macula, foam cells; 'No man picks his nose with his sphinger.'

Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Show answer

Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency (or ↓ BH4) → ↑ phenylalanine; musty odor, intellectual disability. Treat: low-phenylalanine diet, avoid aspartame.

Maple syrup urine disease
Show answer

Branched-chain α-ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency → buildup of branched amino acids (Ile, Leu, Val); sweet-smelling urine.

Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency
Show answer

Wernicke-Korsakoff (confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia + confabulation), dry/wet beriberi. Impairs PDH, α-KG dehydrogenase, transketolase.

Vitamin B12 vs folate deficiency
Show answer

Both → megaloblastic anemia. B12 deficiency adds neurologic signs (subacute combined degeneration) and ↑ methylmalonic acid; folate does not.

Scurvy (vitamin C deficiency)
Show answer

Impaired collagen hydroxylation (proline/lysine) → poor wound healing, bleeding gums, corkscrew hairs, perifollicular hemorrhage.

Collagen types: I, II, III, IV
Show answer

I = bone/skin/tendon (most common). II = cartilage. III = reticulin/granulation (Ehlers-Danlos). IV = basement membrane.

Osteogenesis imperfecta
Show answer

Defective type I collagen (often COL1A1/2) → multiple fractures, blue sclerae, hearing loss, dental problems.

Marfan syndrome defect
Show answer

FBN1 (fibrillin-1); autosomal dominant. Tall, arachnodactyly, lens dislocation (up/out), aortic root dilation/dissection.

Autosomal dominant vs recessive (general)
Show answer

Dominant: structural genes, often pleiotropic, vertical transmission. Recessive: enzyme deficiencies, often consanguinity, horizontal pattern.

X-linked recessive inheritance
Show answer

No male-to-male transmission; sons of carrier mothers affected 50%. Examples: hemophilia A/B, DMD, G6PD, Lesch-Nyhan, Fabry.

Hardy-Weinberg: carrier frequency
Show answer

p² + 2pq + q² = 1; p + q = 1. Disease allele frequency q; carrier frequency ≈ 2pq.

Trinucleotide repeat expansion diseases
Show answer

Huntington (CAG), fragile X (CGG), myotonic dystrophy (CTG), Friedreich ataxia (GAA). Show anticipation.

Imprinting: Prader-Willi vs Angelman
Show answer

Same 15q11-13 region. Prader-Willi: paternal deletion (hyperphagia, obesity). Angelman: maternal deletion ('happy puppet,' ataxia, seizures).

Cystic fibrosis defect
Show answer

CFTR gene (chr 7, ΔF508), autosomal recessive → defective Cl⁻ channel; thick secretions, recurrent infections, ↑ sweat chloride.

DNA polymerase proofreading
Show answer

DNA pol I and III (prokaryotes) have 3′→5′ exonuclease proofreading; pol I also removes RNA primers (5′→3′ exonuclease).

Lac operon regulation
Show answer

Glucose absent (↑ cAMP, CAP binds, ↑ transcription) AND lactose present (allolactose removes repressor) → genes ON.

Cori cycle
Show answer

Lactate from anaerobic muscle/RBCs travels to the liver, is converted back to glucose via gluconeogenesis, and returns to tissue — shifts the metabolic burden to the liver.

Glucose-alanine cycle
Show answer

Muscle transaminates pyruvate to alanine (carrying nitrogen) → liver → glucose + urea; transports amino-acid nitrogen safely to the liver.

NADPH sources and uses
Show answer

Made by the pentose phosphate pathway (G6PD), malic enzyme, and isocitrate dehydrogenase. Used for fatty-acid/cholesterol synthesis, glutathione reduction, and the respiratory burst.

Fragile X syndrome
Show answer

CGG repeat expansion in FMR1 (X-linked dominant); most common inherited cause of intellectual disability; long face, large ears, macroorchidism.

Mitochondrial (maternal) inheritance
Show answer

Transmitted only from the mother; all offspring may be affected; heteroplasmy causes variable expression. Examples: MELAS, Leber hereditary optic neuropathy.

Lyonization (X-inactivation)
Show answer

Random inactivation of one X chromosome in females (forms a Barr body); explains variable expression in X-linked carriers.

Northern, Southern, Western blots
Show answer

Southern = DNA, Northern = RNA, Western = protein. SNoW DRoP: Southern-DNA, Northern-RNA, Western-Protein.

Start and stop codons
Show answer

Start: AUG (methionine). Stop: UGA, UAA, UAG ('U Go Away, U Are Away, U Are Gone'). The genetic code is degenerate and unambiguous.

Essential amino acids
Show answer

PVT TIM HaLL: Phenylalanine, Valine, Threonine, Tryptophan, Isoleucine, Methionine, Histidine, Leucine, Lysine (and arginine in growth).

Fat-soluble vitamins
Show answer

A, D, E, K — stored in fat; toxicity possible; malabsorption (steatorrhea, CF) causes deficiency. Water-soluble (B, C) wash out except B12.

Hardy-Weinberg assumptions
Show answer

No mutation, no migration, no selection, random mating, large population. Violations cause allele frequencies to change (evolution).

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Show answer

Defective collagen (often type III/V) → hyperextensible skin, hypermobile joints, easy bruising; vascular type risks arterial/organ rupture.

Alkaptonuria
Show answer

Homogentisate oxidase deficiency → homogentisic acid buildup; dark urine on standing, ochronosis (dark cartilage), arthralgias. Benign.

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Show answer

HGPRT deficiency (X-linked) → defective purine salvage → ↑ uric acid; gout, self-mutilation, intellectual disability, dystonia.

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase role
Show answer

Charges each tRNA with its correct amino acid (the key accuracy step of translation), using ATP; has proofreading activity.

Operon vs eukaryotic gene regulation
Show answer

Prokaryotes: polycistronic operons (lac, trp). Eukaryotes: monocistronic, regulated by enhancers, promoters, transcription factors, and chromatin (histone acetylation).

Cell cycle checkpoints
Show answer

G1/S (restriction point, RB and p53), G2/M, and the spindle (M) checkpoint. p53 arrests the cycle for DNA repair or triggers apoptosis ('guardian of the genome').

Telomerase
Show answer

Reverse transcriptase that extends chromosome ends (telomeres); active in germ cells, stem cells, and most cancers; absent in most somatic cells (replicative senescence).

Microbiology (34)

Gram-positive vs gram-negative cell wall
Show answer

Gram-positive: thick peptidoglycan, stains purple. Gram-negative: thin peptidoglycan + LPS outer membrane (endotoxin), stains pink.

Catalase-positive organisms (matter in CGD)
Show answer

Cats Need PLACESS: Pseudomonas, Listeria, Aspergillus, Candida, E. coli, Staph aureus, Serratia, Nocardia, Burkholderia, H. pylori.

Staph aureus vs epidermidis vs saprophyticus
Show answer

All catalase-positive cocci in clusters. S. aureus = coagulase-positive. S. epidermidis = coagulase-negative, novobiocin-sensitive. S. saprophyticus = novobiocin-resistant (young women UTI).

Streptococcus classification by hemolysis
Show answer

α (partial, green): S. pneumoniae (optochin-S), viridans (optochin-R). β (clear): Group A (bacitracin-S), Group B (bacitracin-R). γ (none): enterococci.

Exotoxin: diphtheria & Pseudomonas exotoxin A
Show answer

ADP-ribosylate EF-2 → inhibit protein synthesis. Diphtheria: pseudomembranous pharyngitis, myocarditis.

Cholera & ETEC heat-labile toxin mechanism
Show answer

ADP-ribosylate Gs → ↑ adenylate cyclase → ↑ cAMP → Cl⁻ and water secretion → watery diarrhea.

Pertussis toxin mechanism
Show answer

ADP-ribosylates Gi (disables inhibition) → ↑ cAMP; whooping cough, lymphocytosis.

Shiga & Shiga-like toxin
Show answer

Inactivate 60S ribosome (cleave rRNA) → inhibit protein synthesis. EHEC O157:H7 → HUS (thrombocytopenia, hemolysis, AKI).

Endotoxin (LPS) effects
Show answer

Lipid A activates macrophages (TNF, IL-1, IL-6), complement (C3a/C5a), and the coagulation cascade → fever, hypotension, DIC, shock.

Obligate intracellular organisms
Show answer

Rickettsia and Chlamydia ('stay inside, can't make own ATP'). Chlamydia also can't make peptidoglycan.

Spore-forming bacteria
Show answer

Bacillus and Clostridium (gram-positive). Spores contain dipicolinic acid; resist heat and chemicals.

Lactose-fermenting enteric gram-negative rods
Show answer

MacConKEE'S: Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter, Serratia (pink on MacConkey). Citrobacter is a slow/late fermenter.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Show answer

Aerobic, oxidase-positive, non-lactose fermenting gram-negative rod; blue-green pigment, grape odor. Burns, CF, hot-tub folliculitis, ecthyma gangrenosum.

DNA viruses (general rules)
Show answer

All DNA viruses are double-stranded except Parvovirus (ssDNA), and all replicate in the nucleus except Poxvirus (cytoplasm).

Positive-sense RNA viruses
Show answer

Genome acts directly as mRNA. Examples: picornavirus, calicivirus, flavivirus, togavirus, retrovirus, coronavirus, hepevirus.

Negative-sense RNA viruses
Show answer

Must carry RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. 'Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication': Arenavirus, Bunyavirus, Paramyxovirus, Orthomyxovirus, Filovirus, Rhabdovirus.

HIV genes and their products
Show answer

gag → p24 capsid; pol → reverse transcriptase, integrase, protease; env → gp120 (attachment) and gp41 (fusion).

Tuberculosis (M. tuberculosis)
Show answer

Acid-fast (mycolic acid wall), aerobic; Ghon complex; cord factor → caseating granulomas. PPD: type IV hypersensitivity.

Aspergillus fumigatus
Show answer

Septate hyphae branching at acute (45°) angles; ABPA, aspergilloma in old cavities, invasive disease in neutropenia.

Cryptococcus neoformans
Show answer

Encapsulated yeast; India ink / mucicarmine; meningitis in AIDS. Latex agglutination for capsular antigen.

Clostridium difficile
Show answer

Toxins A and B → pseudomembranous colitis after antibiotics (clindamycin, fluoroquinolones). Diagnose by toxin/PCR; treat with oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin.

Clostridium tetani vs botulinum toxin
Show answer

Tetanus toxin blocks GABA/glycine release (spastic paralysis, lockjaw). Botulinum blocks acetylcholine release (flaccid paralysis, floppy baby).

Neisseria meningitidis vs gonorrhoeae
Show answer

Both gram-negative diplococci, oxidase-positive. Meningitidis: capsule, maltose-fermenter, vaccine. Gonorrhoeae: no capsule/vaccine, no maltose; sexually transmitted.

Helicobacter pylori
Show answer

Curved gram-negative rod, urease-positive; causes gastritis, peptic ulcers, gastric adenocarcinoma/MALT lymphoma. Triple therapy: PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin.

Treponema pallidum (syphilis stages)
Show answer

Primary: painless chancre. Secondary: rash (palms/soles), condylomata lata. Tertiary: gummas, aortitis, neurosyphilis. Diagnose: dark-field, VDRL/RPR + FTA-ABS.

Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
Show answer

Spirochete from Ixodes tick (deer/mouse reservoir); erythema migrans (target rash) → cardiac/neuro → arthritis. Treat: doxycycline.

TORCH infections
Show answer

Congenital infections crossing the placenta: Toxoplasma, Other (syphilis), Rubella, CMV, HSV/HIV. Cause growth restriction and birth defects.

Hepatitis B serology: HBsAg, anti-HBs, anti-HBc
Show answer

HBsAg = active infection. Anti-HBs = immunity (vaccine or recovery). Anti-HBc IgM = acute/window. HBeAg = high infectivity.

Plasmodium (malaria)
Show answer

Anopheles mosquito; cyclic fevers; ring forms in RBCs. P. falciparum is most severe; P. vivax/ovale have a dormant liver hypnozoite (add primaquine).

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
Show answer

Fungal opportunist in AIDS (CD4 <200); diffuse interstitial infiltrate, ↓ O₂. Diagnose: silver stain (disc-shaped). Prophylaxis/treat: TMP-SMX.

Pott disease
Show answer

Tuberculous infection of the vertebral bodies → back pain, vertebral collapse, possible paraplegia and psoas abscess.

Rabies virus
Show answer

Negative-sense RNA (Rhabdovirus, bullet-shaped); travels retrograde up axons to the CNS; Negri bodies; hydrophobia. Post-exposure: vaccine + immunoglobulin.

Most common cause of bacterial meningitis by age
Show answer

Neonates: Group B Strep, E. coli, Listeria. Children/adults: S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis. Elderly/immunocompromised: add Listeria.

CSF findings: bacterial vs viral meningitis
Show answer

Bacterial: ↑↑ neutrophils, ↑ protein, ↓ glucose. Viral: ↑ lymphocytes, normal/↑ protein, normal glucose. Fungal/TB: lymphocytes, ↑ protein, ↓ glucose.

Immunology (18)

Innate vs adaptive immunity
Show answer

Innate: fast, nonspecific, no memory (neutrophils, macrophages, NK, complement, barriers). Adaptive: slower, specific, memory (T and B cells, antibodies).

MHC class I vs class II
Show answer

MHC I (all nucleated cells): endogenous antigen → CD8 T cells. MHC II (APCs): exogenous antigen → CD4 T cells. 'Rule of 8': 1×8=CD8, 2×4=CD4.

Th1 vs Th2 helper T cells
Show answer

Th1 (IL-2, IFN-γ): activate macrophages and CD8 cells; cell-mediated. Th2 (IL-4, IL-5, IL-13): help B cells, IgE, eosinophils; humoral/allergy.

The four hypersensitivity reactions (ACID)
Show answer

I Anaphylactic (IgE, mast cells); II Cytotoxic (IgG/IgM vs cell antigen); III Immune complex (antigen-antibody); IV Delayed (T cells, no antibody).

Type III hypersensitivity examples
Show answer

Immune-complex deposition: serum sickness, Arthus reaction, SLE, polyarteritis nodosa, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.

Antibody isotype functions
Show answer

IgG: most abundant, crosses placenta, opsonization. IgA: secretions/mucosa (dimer). IgM: first made, pentamer, complement. IgE: allergy/parasites. IgD: B-cell receptor.

Complement: C3b, C3a/C5a, C5-9
Show answer

C3b = opsonin. C3a, C4a, C5a = anaphylatoxins; C5a = neutrophil chemotaxis. C5b-9 = membrane attack complex (lysis).

C5-C9 (terminal complement) deficiency
Show answer

Recurrent Neisseria infections (meningococcemia, gonococcemia) because MAC clears Neisseria.

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
Show answer

NADPH oxidase defect → can't make reactive oxygen species; recurrent catalase-positive infections. Diagnose: abnormal dihydrorhodamine test.

DiGeorge syndrome
Show answer

22q11 deletion; failure of 3rd/4th pharyngeal pouches → thymic and parathyroid aplasia → T-cell deficiency, hypocalcemic tetany, cardiac defects.

Live attenuated vaccines (caution)
Show answer

Strong cellular + humoral response but risky in immunocompromised/pregnancy: MMR, varicella, intranasal flu, oral polio (Sabin), rotavirus, yellow fever, BCG.

Antibody affinity maturation & class switching
Show answer

Occur in the germinal center; require CD40L (T cell) and cytokines; somatic hypermutation improves affinity. IgM → IgG/IgA/IgE.

Anergy and central vs peripheral tolerance
Show answer

Central tolerance: deletion of self-reactive T cells (thymus) and B cells (marrow). Peripheral tolerance: anergy, regulatory T cells, when self-antigen encountered without costimulation.

Natural killer (NK) cells
Show answer

Innate lymphocytes; kill cells lacking MHC I (virally infected, tumor) and antibody-coated cells (ADCC); enhanced by IL-2, IL-12, IFN.

Superantigens
Show answer

Cross-link MHC II and the T-cell receptor outside the antigen groove → massive nonspecific T-cell activation and cytokine release. TSST-1 (S. aureus), Strep pyogenic exotoxin.

Hyperacute vs acute vs chronic transplant rejection
Show answer

Hyperacute: minutes, preformed antibodies. Acute: weeks, cellular (T-cell) ± antibody. Chronic: months-years, vascular fibrosis (e.g., bronchiolitis obliterans).

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
Show answer

Defective B and T cells (adenosine deaminase deficiency or X-linked IL-2R γ-chain); recurrent severe infections; treat with bone marrow transplant.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (Rh)
Show answer

Rh-negative mother sensitized to an Rh-positive fetus → maternal anti-D IgG crosses placenta in a later pregnancy → fetal hemolysis. Prevent with anti-D (RhoGAM).

Pathology (72)

Apoptosis vs necrosis
Show answer

Apoptosis: programmed, ATP-dependent, single cells, NO inflammation, intact membranes. Necrosis: unregulated, groups of cells, inflammatory, membrane rupture.

Coagulative necrosis
Show answer

Ischemic infarction of most solid organs (heart, kidney). Cell outlines preserved; protein denaturation. (Brain → liquefactive.)

The cardinal signs of acute inflammation
Show answer

Rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), and functio laesa (loss of function); from vasodilation, ↑ permeability, leukocytes.

Acute vs chronic inflammation cells
Show answer

Acute: neutrophils (PMNs), short-lived. Chronic: lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, with fibrosis and angiogenesis.

Granuloma formation requires which cytokines?
Show answer

Macrophages present antigen → Th1 cells release IFN-γ → macrophages become epithelioid; TNF maintains the granuloma. Anti-TNF therapy can reactivate TB.

Transudate vs exudate
Show answer

Transudate: ↓ protein, from ↑ hydrostatic or ↓ oncotic pressure (CHF, cirrhosis). Exudate: ↑ protein/cells, from inflammation/infection (Light's criteria).

Amyloidosis (key stain)
Show answer

Misfolded protein deposits; apple-green birefringence under polarized light with Congo red stain. AL (light chains), AA (chronic inflammation).

Single defining feature of malignancy
Show answer

Metastasis — spread to a distant, non-adjacent site via blood, lymph, or body cavities.

Carcinoma vs sarcoma spread
Show answer

Carcinomas (epithelial) spread first via lymphatics. Sarcomas (mesenchymal) spread first hematogenously.

Oncogenes vs tumor suppressors
Show answer

Oncogene: gain of function, one allele (dominant) — RAS, MYC, HER2/neu. Tumor suppressor: loss of function, both alleles (two-hit) — TP53, RB, APC, BRCA.

Philadelphia chromosome
Show answer

t(9;22) → BCR-ABL fusion (constitutive tyrosine kinase) in chronic myeloid leukemia; treat with imatinib.

Lines of Zahn
Show answer

Alternating layers of platelets/fibrin and RBCs — indicate a thrombus formed before death (in flowing blood), distinguishing it from a post-mortem clot.

Virchow triad
Show answer

Three risk factors for thrombosis: endothelial injury, stasis, and hypercoagulability.

Edema mechanisms (Starling forces)
Show answer

↑ capillary hydrostatic pressure, ↓ plasma oncotic pressure (hypoalbuminemia), ↑ permeability, or lymphatic obstruction.

Down syndrome (trisomy 21) features
Show answer

Most common viable trisomy; intellectual disability, flat facies, single palmar crease, duodenal atresia, AV septal defect, ↑ Alzheimer/ALL risk.

Diabetic ketoacidosis vs HHS
Show answer

DKA (type 1): ketones, anion-gap acidosis, Kussmaul breathing, fruity breath. HHS (type 2): profound hyperglycemia, hyperosmolarity, minimal ketones.

Nephrotic vs nephritic syndrome
Show answer

Nephrotic: proteinuria >3.5 g/day, edema, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia. Nephritic: hematuria, RBC casts, hypertension, mild proteinuria, azotemia.

Goodpasture syndrome
Show answer

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies (type II hypersensitivity) → rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis + pulmonary hemorrhage; linear IF.

Charcot triad (cholangitis)
Show answer

Fever, jaundice, right-upper-quadrant pain. Add hypotension + confusion (Reynolds pentad) for suppurative cholangitis.

Cushing syndrome vs Addison disease
Show answer

Cushing: excess cortisol — central obesity, striae, hyperglycemia, hypertension. Addison: adrenal insufficiency — hypotension, hyperpigmentation, hyperkalemia.

Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN)
Show answer

MEN1 (3 P's: pituitary, parathyroid, pancreas). MEN2A (medullary thyroid, pheo, parathyroid). MEN2B (medullary thyroid, pheo, mucosal neuromas, marfanoid). RET in 2A/2B.

Reversible vs irreversible cell injury (hallmark)
Show answer

Reversible: cellular swelling, ribosome detachment, membrane blebbing. Irreversible (point of no return): mitochondrial damage and membrane disruption.

Psammoma bodies
Show answer

Laminated calcifications seen in papillary thyroid carcinoma, serous ovarian cystadenocarcinoma, meningioma, and mesothelioma (PSaMMoma).

Metaplasia, dysplasia, anaplasia
Show answer

Metaplasia: reversible change of one mature cell type to another (Barrett esophagus). Dysplasia: disordered, pre-cancerous growth. Anaplasia: undifferentiated, malignant.

Tumor markers
Show answer

AFP (HCC, yolk sac), CEA (colon), CA-125 (ovarian), PSA (prostate), CA 19-9 (pancreatic), β-hCG (choriocarcinoma), S-100 (melanoma).

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)
Show answer

c-ANCA (anti-PR3); triad of upper airway (sinusitis), lung (nodules/hemorrhage), and kidney (glomerulonephritis).

Atherosclerosis progression
Show answer

Endothelial injury → LDL oxidation → macrophage foam cells (fatty streak) → fibrous plaque (smooth muscle, collagen) → complicated plaque (rupture, thrombosis).

Left vs right heart failure signs
Show answer

Left: pulmonary congestion (dyspnea, orthopnea, crackles). Right: systemic congestion (JVD, hepatomegaly, peripheral edema). Left failure is the most common cause of right failure.

Iron studies in iron-deficiency vs anemia of chronic disease
Show answer

Iron deficiency: ↓ ferritin, ↑ TIBC, ↓ iron. Anemia of chronic disease: ↑ ferritin, ↓ TIBC, ↓ iron (iron sequestered by hepcidin).

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)
Show answer

AML subtype M3, t(15;17) PML-RARA; Auer rods, risk of DIC; treat with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA).

Hodgkin vs non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Show answer

Hodgkin: Reed-Sternberg cells, contiguous spread, bimodal age, better prognosis. Non-Hodgkin: B/T cells, noncontiguous, more extranodal, often older adults.

Wilson disease vs hemochromatosis
Show answer

Wilson: copper accumulation (↓ ceruloplasmin, Kayser-Fleischer rings, hepatolenticular). Hemochromatosis: iron overload (HFE gene; 'bronze diabetes,' cirrhosis, cardiomyopathy).

Asthma vs COPD pathology
Show answer

Asthma: reversible bronchoconstriction, eosinophils, Curschmann spirals, Charcot-Leyden crystals. COPD: chronic bronchitis (Reid index ↑) and/or emphysema (alveolar destruction).

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Show answer

Unopposed elastase → panacinar emphysema (especially in young nonsmokers) and liver cirrhosis (PAS-positive globules). Misfolded protein accumulates in hepatocytes.

Squamous cell vs adenocarcinoma of the lung
Show answer

Squamous: central, smoking, cavitation, hypercalcemia (PTHrP), keratin pearls. Adenocarcinoma: peripheral, most common overall, mucin, can occur in nonsmokers.

Crohn disease vs ulcerative colitis
Show answer

Crohn: skip lesions, transmural, anywhere (mouth-to-anus), granulomas, fistulas. UC: continuous, mucosa-only, rectum→colon, crypt abscesses, ↑ colon cancer risk.

Cirrhosis complications
Show answer

Portal hypertension (varices, ascites, caput medusae, splenomegaly), hepatic encephalopathy (↑ ammonia), coagulopathy, hepatorenal syndrome, ↑ HCC risk.

Acute pancreatitis causes (GET SMASHED)
Show answer

Gallstones, Ethanol, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune, Scorpion, Hypercalcemia/Hypertriglyceridemia, ERCP, Drugs. ↑ amylase and lipase.

Glomerular disease: minimal change vs FSGS
Show answer

Minimal change: most common nephrotic in kids, normal light microscopy, effaced foot processes on EM, steroid-responsive. FSGS: HIV/obesity, segmental sclerosis.

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
Show answer

Most common glomerulonephritis worldwide; gross hematuria 1–2 days after a respiratory/GI infection; mesangial IgA deposits.

Prostate vs BPH location
Show answer

BPH: transition zone (urinary obstruction). Prostate adenocarcinoma: peripheral zone (palpable on DRE); ↑ PSA, osteoblastic bone metastases.

Breast cancer receptors and prognosis
Show answer

ER/PR-positive → hormone therapy (tamoxifen). HER2-positive → trastuzumab. Triple-negative → worse prognosis; BRCA association.

Klinefelter vs Turner syndrome
Show answer

Klinefelter (47,XXY): tall, small testes, gynecomastia, infertility, ↑ FSH/LH. Turner (45,XO): short, webbed neck, streak ovaries, coarctation, ↑ FSH/LH.

Diabetes mellitus type 1 vs type 2
Show answer

Type 1: autoimmune β-cell destruction (anti-GAD), absolute insulin deficiency, ketosis-prone, HLA-DR3/DR4. Type 2: insulin resistance + relative deficiency, obesity-linked.

Hemoglobin A1c
Show answer

Glycated hemoglobin reflecting average glucose over ~3 months (RBC lifespan); ≥6.5% diagnoses diabetes. Falsely low with hemolysis/blood loss.

SIADH vs diabetes insipidus
Show answer

SIADH: too much ADH → euvolemic hyponatremia, concentrated urine. Diabetes insipidus: too little ADH (central) or renal resistance (nephrogenic) → dilute urine, hypernatremia.

Acromegaly
Show answer

Excess GH/IGF-1 after epiphyseal closure (pituitary adenoma) → enlarged hands/feet/jaw, organomegaly, glucose intolerance. In children → gigantism.

Pheochromocytoma rule of 10s
Show answer

Catecholamine-secreting adrenal medulla tumor: ~10% bilateral, malignant, extra-adrenal, familial. Episodic hypertension, headache, palpitations, sweating. Diagnose: urine/plasma metanephrines.

Hashimoto vs Graves disease
Show answer

Hashimoto: autoimmune hypothyroidism (anti-TPO/thyroglobulin, lymphocytic infiltrate). Graves: hyperthyroidism (TSI antibodies), exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema.

Sickle cell disease
Show answer

Glutamate → valine at position 6 of β-globin (HbS); RBCs sickle when deoxygenated → vaso-occlusion, hemolysis, autosplenectomy, ↑ encapsulated-organism infections.

Thalassemia (alpha vs beta)
Show answer

Reduced globin chain production → microcytic anemia, target cells. α: gene deletions. β: point mutations (HbA2 ↑ in β-thalassemia minor).

DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)
Show answer

Widespread activation of coagulation → consumes platelets and factors → bleeding + thrombosis. ↓ platelets, ↑ PT/PTT, ↑ D-dimer, ↓ fibrinogen, schistocytes.

Bleeding: platelet vs coagulation disorder
Show answer

Platelet/vessel (↓ platelets, vWD): mucocutaneous bleeding, petechiae, ↑ bleeding time. Coagulation factor (hemophilia): deep bleeding, hemarthrosis, ↑ PTT.

von Willebrand disease
Show answer

Most common inherited bleeding disorder; defective vWF → ↓ platelet adhesion + ↓ factor VIII half-life. ↑ bleeding time, ↑ PTT; treat with desmopressin.

Rickets vs osteomalacia
Show answer

Both from vitamin D deficiency → defective bone mineralization. Rickets in children (bowed legs, growth plates). Osteomalacia in adults (bone pain, fractures).

Osteoporosis vs osteopetrosis
Show answer

Osteoporosis: ↓ bone mass (normal mineralization), fragility fractures. Osteopetrosis: defective osteoclasts (carbonic anhydrase II) → dense, brittle bone, marrow failure.

Myasthenia gravis vs Lambert-Eaton
Show answer

MG: antibodies to ACh receptor; worsens with use; improves with edrophonium; thymoma. Lambert-Eaton: antibodies to presynaptic Ca²⁺ channels; improves with use; small cell lung cancer.

Paraneoplastic syndromes (classic)
Show answer

Small cell lung cancer: SIADH (ADH), Cushing (ACTH), Lambert-Eaton. Squamous cell: PTHrP (hypercalcemia). Renal cell: EPO (polycythemia).

Tetralogy of Fallot
Show answer

Pulmonary stenosis, Right ventricular hypertrophy, Overriding aorta, VSD (PROVe); 'boot-shaped' heart; right-to-left shunt → cyanosis ('tet spells').

Left-to-right shunts (acyanotic)
Show answer

VSD (most common congenital), ASD (fixed split S2), PDA (continuous machine-like murmur). Can reverse to cyanotic (Eisenmenger) if untreated.

Coarctation of the aorta
Show answer

Narrowing of the aorta; upper-extremity hypertension with lower-extremity hypotension/weak femoral pulses, rib notching; associated with Turner syndrome and bicuspid aortic valve.

Jones criteria (acute rheumatic fever)
Show answer

Follows Group A Strep pharyngitis; JONES: Joints (migratory arthritis), carditis (♥), Nodules (subcutaneous), Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea. Type II hypersensitivity.

Anemia classification by MCV
Show answer

Microcytic (<80): iron deficiency, thalassemia, anemia of chronic disease, lead, sideroblastic. Macrocytic (>100): B12/folate, alcohol. Normocytic: hemolysis, acute blood loss.

Pemphigus vulgaris vs bullous pemphigoid
Show answer

Pemphigus: antibodies to desmoglein (desmosomes), intraepidermal, positive Nikolsky, oral involvement. Bullous pemphigoid: antibodies to hemidesmosomes, subepidermal, tense bullae, Nikolsky-negative.

Skin cancer: BCC vs SCC vs melanoma
Show answer

Basal cell: most common, 'pearly' papule, rarely metastasizes. Squamous cell: actinic keratosis precursor, keratin pearls. Melanoma: ABCDE, depth (Breslow) predicts metastasis.

Hypersensitivity vasculitis vs PAN
Show answer

Polyarteritis nodosa: medium-vessel, hepatitis B-associated, spares the lungs, 'string of beads' on angiography, p-ANCA negative typically.

Renal tubular acidosis types
Show answer

Type 1 (distal): can't secrete H⁺, ↑ urine pH, stones. Type 2 (proximal): ↓ bicarbonate reabsorption. Type 4: aldosterone resistance/deficiency, hyperkalemia.

Acute tubular necrosis
Show answer

Most common cause of intrinsic acute kidney injury; ischemic or nephrotoxic; muddy brown granular casts; FENa >2%.

Prerenal vs intrinsic vs postrenal AKI
Show answer

Prerenal: ↓ perfusion, BUN/Cr >20, FENa <1%. Intrinsic (ATN): tubular damage, FENa >2%. Postrenal: obstruction, hydronephrosis.

Free radical injury and antioxidants
Show answer

Reactive oxygen species damage lipids, proteins, DNA (lipid peroxidation). Defenses: superoxide dismutase, catalase, glutathione peroxidase, vitamins A/C/E.

Ischemia-reperfusion injury
Show answer

Restoring blood flow to ischemic tissue paradoxically worsens damage via a burst of reactive oxygen species, calcium overload, and inflammation.

Diabetic complications (mechanisms)
Show answer

Chronic hyperglycemia → nonenzymatic glycation (large vessels: atherosclerosis) and sorbitol accumulation (small vessels/nerves: retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy).

Pharmacology (35)

Phase I vs phase II drug metabolism
Show answer

Phase I (CYP450): oxidation/reduction/hydrolysis → often active or toxic metabolites. Phase II: conjugation (glucuronidation, etc.) → usually inactive, water-soluble.

Zero-order vs first-order elimination
Show answer

Zero-order: constant amount removed per time (ethanol, phenytoin, high-dose aspirin). First-order: constant fraction removed; constant half-life (most drugs).

Volume of distribution (Vd)
Show answer

Vd = amount of drug in body ÷ plasma concentration. High Vd = lipophilic/tissue-bound; low Vd = large/charged, stays in plasma.

Loading dose vs maintenance dose
Show answer

Loading dose = Cp × Vd ÷ F (independent of clearance). Maintenance dose = Cp × CL ÷ F (depends on clearance).

Competitive vs non-competitive antagonist
Show answer

Competitive: ↓ potency (right-shift), Emax unchanged, surmountable. Non-competitive: ↓ efficacy (↓ Emax), insurmountable.

Therapeutic index
Show answer

TI = TD50 ÷ ED50 (or LD50 ÷ ED50). Higher = safer. Low-TI drugs: warfarin, digoxin, lithium, theophylline.

Cholinergic receptor types
Show answer

Nicotinic (ligand-gated ion channel) at NMJ and autonomic ganglia; muscarinic (G-protein-coupled) at parasympathetic effector organs.

Adrenergic receptor effects
Show answer

α1: vasoconstriction. α2: ↓ sympathetic outflow, ↓ insulin. β1: ↑ HR/contractility, renin. β2: vasodilation, bronchodilation. β3: lipolysis.

Cholinergic crisis vs overdose treatment
Show answer

Organophosphate poisoning (DUMBBELSS) → treat with atropine (muscarinic) + pralidoxime (regenerates acetylcholinesterase if given early).

Vaughan-Williams antiarrhythmic classes
Show answer

I Na⁺ blockers, II β-blockers, III K⁺ blockers (amiodarone, sotalol), IV non-DHP Ca²⁺ blockers (verapamil, diltiazem).

Statins mechanism and key adverse effect
Show answer

Competitively inhibit HMG-CoA reductase → ↓ cholesterol synthesis, ↑ LDL receptors. Watch for myopathy/rhabdomyolysis and hepatotoxicity.

Acetaminophen overdose antidote
Show answer

N-acetylcysteine — replenishes glutathione to detoxify the toxic NAPQI metabolite that causes hepatic necrosis.

Warfarin vs heparin
Show answer

Warfarin: inhibits vitamin-K epoxide reductase (factors II, VII, IX, X, C, S); oral; monitor PT/INR; teratogen. Heparin: activates antithrombin; IV/SC; monitor PTT; safe in pregnancy.

Disulfiram-like reaction drugs
Show answer

Metronidazole, certain cephalosporins, sulfonylureas, griseofulvin → flushing, nausea, headache with alcohol (acetaldehyde accumulation).

Aminoglycosides
Show answer

Bind 30S, inhibit protein synthesis (bactericidal); for gram-negative aerobes. Adverse: nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity; require O₂ for uptake.

Beta-lactam mechanism
Show answer

Penicillins/cephalosporins bind penicillin-binding proteins → block transpeptidase (cell-wall cross-linking) → bactericidal. Resistance: β-lactamase.

Fluoroquinolone adverse effects
Show answer

Inhibit DNA gyrase/topoisomerase IV. Tendon rupture (avoid in children/elderly), QT prolongation, cartilage damage; avoid with antacids.

Anticancer cell-cycle specificity
Show answer

Methotrexate/5-FU (S phase, antimetabolites), vinca alkaloids (M, block microtubule assembly), paclitaxel (M, stabilize microtubules), bleomycin (G2).

Serotonin syndrome
Show answer

Excess serotonergic activity (SSRIs + MAOIs/tramadol/triptans) → autonomic instability, hyperthermia, clonus, agitation. Treat: cyproheptadine.

Acetaminophen vs aspirin mechanism
Show answer

Aspirin: irreversible COX-1/COX-2 inhibition (antiplatelet). Acetaminophen: reversible, mostly central COX inhibition; minimal anti-inflammatory/antiplatelet effect.

ACE inhibitors: effect and adverse effects
Show answer

↓ angiotensin II and ↑ bradykinin → vasodilation, ↓ aldosterone. Adverse: dry cough, angioedema, hyperkalemia, ↑ creatinine; teratogen (avoid in pregnancy).

Digoxin mechanism and toxicity
Show answer

Inhibits Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase → ↑ intracellular Ca²⁺ (positive inotrope), ↑ vagal tone. Toxicity: nausea, yellow vision, arrhythmias; worsened by hypokalemia. Antidote: digoxin Fab.

SSRIs vs MAOIs (washout)
Show answer

Both ↑ serotonin. MAOIs risk hypertensive crisis with tyramine and serotonin syndrome with SSRIs — need a washout period between them.

Benzodiazepines vs barbiturates (GABA-A)
Show answer

Benzos: ↑ frequency of Cl⁻ channel opening (safer). Barbiturates: ↑ duration of Cl⁻ channel opening (more dangerous; respiratory depression). Reverse benzos with flumazenil.

Inhaled anesthetic potency (MAC)
Show answer

Minimum alveolar concentration to prevent movement in 50%; ↑ lipid solubility = ↑ potency = ↓ MAC.

Cytochrome P450 inducers vs inhibitors
Show answer

Inducers (↓ drug levels): rifampin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, St. John's wort, chronic alcohol. Inhibitors (↑ levels): macrolides, azoles, grapefruit, cimetidine, ritonavir.

Sympathomimetics: epinephrine vs norepinephrine vs phenylephrine
Show answer

Epinephrine: α and β. Norepinephrine: α1 > β1 (reflex bradycardia). Phenylephrine: pure α1 (vasoconstriction).

Antidote: opioid overdose
Show answer

Naloxone (opioid receptor antagonist) reverses respiratory depression, miosis, and CNS depression.

Antidote: benzodiazepine overdose
Show answer

Flumazenil (GABA-A antagonist); use cautiously — can precipitate seizures in chronic users.

Antidote: heparin vs warfarin
Show answer

Heparin reversal: protamine sulfate. Warfarin reversal: vitamin K (slow) and fresh frozen plasma or PCC (fast).

Antidote: methanol/ethylene glycol
Show answer

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor), or ethanol; add dialysis. Ethylene glycol → calcium oxalate crystals, renal failure.

Sulfonylureas vs metformin
Show answer

Sulfonylureas: close β-cell K⁺ channels → ↑ insulin release (risk hypoglycemia). Metformin: ↓ hepatic gluconeogenesis, ↑ insulin sensitivity (risk lactic acidosis; no hypoglycemia).

Loop vs thiazide vs K-sparing diuretic effects
Show answer

Loop: ↓ Ca²⁺, ↓ K⁺. Thiazide: ↑ Ca²⁺, ↓ K⁺, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia. K-sparing (spironolactone): ↑ K⁺, antiandrogen effects.

Chemotherapy toxicities to know
Show answer

Doxorubicin (cardiotoxicity), bleomycin/busulfan (pulmonary fibrosis), cisplatin (nephro/ototoxicity), vincristine (neuropathy), cyclophosphamide (hemorrhagic cystitis).

Reye syndrome
Show answer

Aspirin given to a child with a viral illness (influenza, varicella) → mitochondrial dysfunction → hepatic encephalopathy and fatty liver. Avoid aspirin in children.

Physiology (39)

Cardiac action potential phase 0 (ventricle)
Show answer

Rapid Na⁺ influx → depolarization upstroke.

Cardiac action potential phase 2 (plateau)
Show answer

Ca²⁺ influx balances K⁺ efflux → sustained contraction; unique to cardiac muscle.

SA node phase 4 (pacemaker)
Show answer

Spontaneous depolarization from the funny Na⁺ current (If) and Ca²⁺; sets the heart rate.

Cardiac output (CO) equation
Show answer

CO = stroke volume × heart rate = (HR × SV); also CO = rate of O₂ consumption ÷ (arterial − venous O₂) (Fick principle).

Determinants of stroke volume
Show answer

Preload, afterload, and contractility. ↑ preload or contractility ↑ SV; ↑ afterload ↓ SV.

Frank-Starling relationship
Show answer

↑ venous return (preload) → ↑ ventricular end-diastolic volume → ↑ stroke volume (greater sarcomere stretch).

Mean arterial pressure (MAP)
Show answer

MAP = diastolic + ⅓(systolic − diastolic) = cardiac output × total peripheral resistance.

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
Show answer

↓ renal perfusion → renin → angiotensin I → (ACE, lung) angiotensin II → vasoconstriction + aldosterone (Na⁺/water retention) + ADH + thirst.

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) marker
Show answer

Inulin (freely filtered, not secreted or reabsorbed). Creatinine clearance slightly overestimates GFR. GFR = Kf[(PGC − PBS) − πGC].

Where is most filtered sodium reabsorbed?
Show answer

The proximal convoluted tubule (~65–70%), isosmotically with water.

Loop diuretic vs thiazide site
Show answer

Loop (furosemide): thick ascending limb Na-K-2Cl. Thiazide: distal convoluted tubule Na-Cl. Thiazide can cause hypercalcemia; loops cause hypocalcemia.

Henderson-Hasselbalch / acid-base
Show answer

pH = 6.1 + log([HCO₃⁻]/0.03·PCO₂). Metabolic acidosis: ↓ HCO₃⁻; respiratory acidosis: ↑ PCO₂. Use the anion gap for metabolic acidosis.

Anion gap and its causes (MUDPILES)
Show answer

Anion gap = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻); normal 8–12. High-gap acidosis: Methanol, Uremia, DKA, Propylene glycol, Iron/INH, Lactic acidosis, Ethylene glycol, Salicylates.

Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve (right shift)
Show answer

Right shift = ↓ O₂ affinity (unloads to tissues): ↑ CO₂, ↑ H⁺ (↓ pH), ↑ temperature, ↑ 2,3-BPG (Bohr effect).

Lung volumes: FRC and residual volume
Show answer

FRC = ERV + RV (volume after normal expiration). RV (residual volume) and any capacity containing it cannot be measured by spirometry.

Obstructive vs restrictive lung disease (PFTs)
Show answer

Obstructive: ↓ FEV1/FVC ratio (<0.7), ↑ lung volumes (asthma, COPD). Restrictive: normal/↑ ratio, ↓ all volumes (fibrosis).

Insulin vs glucagon actions
Show answer

Insulin: anabolic — ↑ glucose uptake (GLUT4), glycogenesis, lipogenesis; ↓ blood glucose. Glucagon: catabolic — glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, lipolysis.

Anterior vs posterior pituitary hormones
Show answer

Anterior (FLAT PiG): FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin, GH. Posterior (stores hypothalamic): ADH and oxytocin.

Cortisol functions
Show answer

↑ gluconeogenesis, ↑ blood glucose, anti-inflammatory/immunosuppressive, ↑ blood pressure (vascular sensitivity), bone loss; follows circadian rhythm.

Hyperkalemia ECG changes
Show answer

Peaked T waves → widened QRS → loss of P waves → sine wave → asystole. Treat: calcium gluconate (membrane), insulin + glucose, albuterol (shift).

Insulin signaling vs glucagon signaling
Show answer

Insulin: receptor tyrosine kinase. Glucagon and epinephrine (β): Gs → ↑ cAMP → protein kinase A. α1: Gq → IP3/DAG → ↑ Ca²⁺.

Second messenger systems (Gs, Gi, Gq)
Show answer

Gs: ↑ adenylate cyclase → ↑ cAMP. Gi: ↓ cAMP. Gq: phospholipase C → IP3 (↑ Ca²⁺) + DAG. ('Qiss and Qiqq till you're Siq of Sqs.')

Skeletal muscle excitation-contraction coupling
Show answer

Action potential → T-tubule → DHP receptor → ryanodine receptor → Ca²⁺ from SR → Ca²⁺ binds troponin C → tropomyosin moves → cross-bridge cycling.

Smooth vs skeletal muscle contraction
Show answer

Skeletal: Ca²⁺ binds troponin C. Smooth: Ca²⁺ binds calmodulin → myosin light-chain kinase phosphorylates myosin. No troponin in smooth muscle.

Thyroid hormone synthesis
Show answer

Iodide trapped, oxidized by thyroid peroxidase, organified onto thyroglobulin (MIT/DIT) → T3/T4. Wolff-Chaikoff: excess iodide ↓ synthesis.

PTH actions
Show answer

↑ bone resorption (Ca²⁺ and phosphate release), ↑ renal Ca²⁺ reabsorption + ↑ phosphate excretion, ↑ activation of vitamin D (1-α-hydroxylase). Net: ↑ serum Ca²⁺, ↓ phosphate.

Calcium and the action potential / nerve
Show answer

Hypocalcemia → ↑ excitability (Chvostek, Trousseau signs, tetany). Hypercalcemia → 'stones, bones, groans, psychiatric overtones.'

Fetal circulation shunts
Show answer

Ductus venosus (umbilical vein → IVC, bypass liver), foramen ovale (RA → LA), ductus arteriosus (pulmonary artery → aorta, bypass lungs). Close after birth.

Glucose transporters (GLUT)
Show answer

GLUT1: RBCs, brain. GLUT2: β cells, liver, kidney (bidirectional sensor). GLUT4: muscle and adipose (insulin-dependent).

Compliance (lung physiology)
Show answer

Compliance = ΔV/ΔP; the ease of lung expansion. ↑ in emphysema (lost elastic recoil); ↓ in fibrosis and surfactant deficiency.

Surfactant
Show answer

Made by type II pneumocytes (dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine); ↓ alveolar surface tension, prevents collapse. Deficiency → neonatal respiratory distress syndrome.

V/Q mismatch extremes
Show answer

V/Q → 0 = shunt (airway obstruction; not corrected by O₂). V/Q → ∞ = dead space (pulmonary embolism). Apex has higher V/Q than the base.

Renal clearance of PAH
Show answer

Para-aminohippuric acid is filtered AND secreted (nearly completely cleared) → estimates effective renal plasma flow.

Aldosterone vs ADH
Show answer

Aldosterone: ↑ Na⁺ reabsorption (and K⁺/H⁺ secretion) in the collecting duct. ADH: ↑ water reabsorption via aquaporins in the collecting duct.

GI hormones: gastrin, secretin, CCK
Show answer

Gastrin: ↑ gastric acid (G cells). Secretin: ↑ bicarbonate (S cells, neutralize acid). CCK: ↑ pancreatic enzymes, gallbladder contraction (I cells).

Baroreceptor reflex
Show answer

↓ BP → ↓ carotid sinus stretch → ↓ afferent firing → ↑ sympathetic, ↓ parasympathetic → ↑ HR and vasoconstriction to restore BP.

Vitamin D activation pathway
Show answer

Skin (UV) → cholecalciferol → liver (25-hydroxylation) → kidney (1-α-hydroxylase, PTH-driven) → 1,25-(OH)₂-D (calcitriol), the active form; ↑ gut Ca²⁺/phosphate absorption.

Heart murmurs: systolic vs diastolic
Show answer

Systolic: aortic stenosis, mitral regurgitation, VSD, mitral valve prolapse. Diastolic: aortic regurgitation, mitral stenosis. Maneuvers change intensity (↑ preload, afterload).

Cushing reflex (↑ intracranial pressure)
Show answer

Hypertension (widened pulse pressure), bradycardia, and irregular respirations — the brain's response to rising intracranial pressure.

Anatomy & Neuroscience (24)

Brachial plexus: Erb-Duchenne vs Klumpke
Show answer

Erb-Duchenne: upper trunk (C5-C6), 'waiter's tip.' Klumpke: lower trunk (C8-T1), claw hand.

Radial nerve injury
Show answer

Mid-shaft humeral fracture ('Saturday night palsy') → wrist drop, loss of extension and supination; sensory loss over dorsal hand.

Common peroneal (fibular) nerve injury
Show answer

Fibular neck injury or leg crossing → foot drop, loss of dorsiflexion and eversion; 'PED = Peroneal Everts and Dorsiflexes.'

Horner syndrome
Show answer

Ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis from interruption of the cervical sympathetic chain (e.g., Pancoast tumor, carotid dissection).

Spinal cord: dorsal columns
Show answer

Carry fine touch, vibration, proprioception; ascend ipsilaterally then decussate in the medulla. Damaged in B12 deficiency and tabes dorsalis.

Spinothalamic tract
Show answer

Carries pain and temperature; decussates within ~2 levels in the anterior white commissure (syringomyelia affects this first — 'cape' distribution).

Upper vs lower motor neuron lesion
Show answer

UMN: spastic, ↑ tone, hyperreflexia, ↑ Babinski. LMN: flaccid, ↓ tone, hyporeflexia, atrophy, fasciculations.

Broca vs Wernicke aphasia
Show answer

Broca (inferior frontal, MCA): non-fluent, comprehension intact, frustrated. Wernicke (superior temporal): fluent but nonsensical, poor comprehension.

Cerebellar lesion signs
Show answer

Ipsilateral deficits: ataxia, intention tremor, dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesia, nystagmus; wide-based gait (vermis).

Parkinson disease pathology
Show answer

Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta; Lewy bodies (α-synuclein). TRAP: tremor, rigidity, akinesia, postural instability.

Neurotransmitter changes in disease
Show answer

↓ Dopamine/↑ ACh: Parkinson. ↓ ACh: Alzheimer. ↓ GABA + ACh: Huntington. ↑ Dopamine: schizophrenia. ↓ Serotonin/NE: depression.

Berry (saccular) aneurysm
Show answer

Rupture → subarachnoid hemorrhage ('worst headache of my life'); associated with ADPKD, Ehlers-Danlos; at circle of Willis branch points.

Epidural vs subdural hematoma
Show answer

Epidural: middle meningeal artery, lucid interval, lens-shaped (won't cross sutures). Subdural: bridging veins, crescent-shaped, crosses sutures (elderly, alcoholics).

Facial nerve (CN VII) palsy: central vs peripheral
Show answer

Central (UMN, stroke): spares the forehead (bilateral upper innervation). Peripheral (LMN, Bell palsy): whole side of the face, including the forehead.

Cavernous sinus contents
Show answer

Cranial nerves III, IV, V1, V2, and VI, plus the internal carotid artery; CN VI is most medial (first affected by thrombosis).

Internal capsule / lacunar stroke
Show answer

Pure motor stroke (posterior limb) from small-vessel disease (hypertension, diabetes); contralateral hemiparesis without cortical signs.

Hippocampus and memory
Show answer

The hippocampus consolidates new declarative (explicit) memories; bilateral damage → anterograde amnesia. The amygdala handles fear/emotion.

Carpal tunnel syndrome
Show answer

Median nerve compression at the wrist → thenar atrophy, numbness of the lateral 3½ digits; positive Phalen and Tinel signs. Associations: pregnancy, hypothyroidism, diabetes.

Aortic arch derivatives
Show answer

3rd → common carotid. 4th → aortic arch (left) / proximal subclavian (right). 6th → pulmonary arteries and (left) ductus arteriosus.

Pharyngeal (branchial) arch nerves
Show answer

Arch 1 = CN V3, arch 2 = CN VII, arch 3 = CN IX, arch 4 and 6 = CN X. ('1, 5; 2, 7; 3, 9; 4 and 6, 10.')

Multiple sclerosis
Show answer

Autoimmune CNS demyelination (oligodendrocytes); relapsing-remitting; periventricular plaques on MRI, oligoclonal bands in CSF; optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia.

Guillain-Barré syndrome
Show answer

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (often post-Campylobacter); ascending symmetric weakness, areflexia; albuminocytologic dissociation in CSF.

Wallerian degeneration
Show answer

Degeneration of the axon distal to an injury; the proximal stump can regenerate in the peripheral nervous system (Schwann cells) but not effectively in the CNS.

Wernicke vs Korsakoff
Show answer

Wernicke encephalopathy: acute, reversible — confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia (thiamine deficiency). Korsakoff: chronic, irreversible — amnesia and confabulation.

Behavioral Science (8)

Stages of sleep (REM)
Show answer

REM: dreaming, atonia, rapid eye movements, EEG resembles wakefulness (beta/sawtooth); ↑ throughout the night; ACh-driven; first ~90 min after sleep onset.

Classical vs operant conditioning
Show answer

Classical (Pavlov): pair stimuli to elicit a reflex. Operant (Skinner): behavior shaped by reinforcement (↑ behavior) or punishment (↓ behavior).

Defense mechanisms: mature vs immature
Show answer

Mature (healthy): sublimation, suppression, altruism, humor. Immature: denial, projection, displacement, splitting, regression, acting out.

Kübler-Ross stages of grief
Show answer

Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance — not necessarily in order and may occur simultaneously.

Ego defense: projection vs displacement
Show answer

Projection: attributing one's own unacceptable feelings to others. Displacement: redirecting emotions to a neutral target (yelling at family after a bad day).

Informed consent and exceptions
Show answer

Requires capacity, disclosure, understanding, voluntariness. Exceptions: emergencies, waiver, therapeutic privilege (rare), implied consent.

Capacity vs competency
Show answer

Capacity is a clinical determination (made by a physician, decision-specific). Competency is a legal determination (made by a court). A patient with capacity may refuse treatment.

Minor consent exceptions
Show answer

Minors can usually consent for emergencies, STIs, contraception, pregnancy care, and substance use, or if emancipated; otherwise a parent/guardian consents.

Biostatistics & Epidemiology (24)

Step 1 score reporting
Show answer

Pass/Fail only since January 26, 2022 — no three-digit numeric score is reported.

Sensitivity and SnNout
Show answer

Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN) = true-positive rate. A highly Sensitive test, when Negative, rules a disease OUT (SnNout). High sensitivity = good screening test.

Specificity and SpPin
Show answer

Specificity = TN/(TN+FP) = true-negative rate. A highly Specific test, when Positive, rules a disease IN (SpPin). High specificity = good confirmatory test.

Positive predictive value (PPV) and prevalence
Show answer

PPV = TP/(TP+FP) = probability of disease given a positive test. PPV rises with prevalence; NPV falls with prevalence.

Likelihood ratios
Show answer

LR+ = sensitivity/(1−specificity); LR− = (1−sensitivity)/specificity. Independent of prevalence. LR+ >10 or LR− <0.1 strongly changes probability.

Relative risk vs odds ratio
Show answer

RR (cohort): risk in exposed ÷ risk in unexposed. OR (case-control): odds of exposure in cases ÷ controls; approximates RR for rare diseases.

Number needed to treat (NNT)
Show answer

NNT = 1 ÷ absolute risk reduction (ARR). The number of patients to treat to prevent one bad outcome; lower = more effective.

Type I vs type II error
Show answer

Type I (α): rejecting a true null — false positive. Type II (β): failing to reject a false null — false negative. Power = 1 − β.

Confidence interval and significance
Show answer

A 95% CI for a difference of means that includes 0 → not significant; for a ratio (RR/OR) that includes 1 → not significant.

Confounding vs effect modification
Show answer

Confounding: a third variable distorts the exposure-outcome link (control with stratification, matching, multivariate). Effect modification: the effect truly differs across strata.

Selection bias examples
Show answer

Berkson bias (hospital controls), healthy-worker effect, loss to follow-up; the study sample isn't representative of the target population.

Lead-time vs length-time bias
Show answer

Lead-time: screening detects disease earlier, falsely lengthening apparent survival. Length-time: screening preferentially catches slow, indolent disease.

Standard error of the mean (SEM)
Show answer

SEM = standard deviation ÷ √n. SEM decreases as sample size increases; SEM < SD.

Normal distribution (empirical rule)
Show answer

~68% within 1 SD of the mean, ~95% within 2 SD, ~99.7% within 3 SD. Mean = median = mode.

Positive vs negative skew
Show answer

Positive (right) skew: mean > median > mode (tail to the right). Negative (left) skew: mean < median < mode.

Confidence interval width and sample size
Show answer

Larger sample size → narrower (more precise) confidence interval; a higher confidence level (99% vs 95%) → wider interval.

Sensitivity-specificity trade-off (ROC curve)
Show answer

Lowering the cutoff ↑ sensitivity, ↓ specificity. The ROC curve plots true-positive vs false-positive rate; greater area under the curve = better test.

Incidence vs prevalence
Show answer

Incidence = new cases ÷ population at risk over time. Prevalence = existing cases ÷ total population. Prevalence ≈ incidence × disease duration.

Cohort vs case-control study
Show answer

Cohort: follows exposed vs unexposed forward → relative risk; good for rare exposures. Case-control: looks back from disease → odds ratio; good for rare diseases.

Randomized controlled trial
Show answer

Gold standard for causation; randomization minimizes confounding; blinding minimizes bias. Phase I (safety), II (efficacy/dose), III (vs standard), IV (post-marketing).

Meta-analysis and publication bias
Show answer

Pools data from multiple studies for greater power; limited by the quality of included studies and publication bias (negative studies underpublished; funnel-plot asymmetry).

p-value meaning
Show answer

Probability of obtaining a result as extreme as observed if the null hypothesis were true; p < 0.05 conventionally 'significant.' It does NOT give effect size.

Bias: recall vs measurement vs observer
Show answer

Recall: cases remember exposures differently. Measurement (information): systematic data error. Observer (Hawthorne): subjects change behavior when watched; reduce with blinding.

Sensitivity vs specificity for screening vs confirming
Show answer

Screening tests should be highly sensitive (don't miss disease); confirmatory tests should be highly specific (avoid false positives). Often run a sensitive then a specific test.

References

  1. 1.USMLE Program (FSMB and NBME). “Step 1 Content Outline and Specifications.” usmle.org. ↑
  2. 2.USMLE Program (FSMB and NBME). “Step 1 Overview.” usmle.org. ↑
  3. 3.National Institutes of Health (NIH). “Biochemistry, Citric Acid Cycle.” ncbi.nlm.nih.gov. ↑
Career Employer

Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.

Follow Us:

All Posts

Career Employer’s Editorial Process

Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.