Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of RMA cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the three AMT work areas, so you study exactly what the Registered Medical Assistant exam tests.[1]
Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide. Want extra insurance for exam day? Capital Prep’s RMA premium study materials come with an RMA exam pass guarantee: your money back if you don’t pass, plus up to $150 toward your retake fee — and Career Employer students get a special discount.
RMA Flashcard Study Modes
Start in Flip mode to read both sides at your own pace, then use Match to race term-to-definition pairings against the clock. Type mode hides the term and asks you to spell it from the definition, so a prompt like Gray tube tests? has to come back from memory. Quiz mode builds multiple choice questions from the same 271 cards.
Why Flashcards Work for the RMA Exam
Clinical Medical Assisting is the largest domain in the deck at 138 cards, and it carries the hands-on vocabulary you use at the chairside and in the lab. The cards drill patient positioning, specimen handling, tube color conventions, and emergency recognition, so you meet prompts like Sims’ position? alongside the card that asks CBC measures? and the comparison front Serum vs plasma?. Expect assessment and skin terms as well, including the card that asks What is a wheal?, which rewards precise wording rather than a general idea.
General Medical Assisting holds 87 cards and covers the language and legal ground sitting under everything else. Word-part cards come fast here, with prompts like Suffix -itis means? and Prefix hypo- means?, and they pay off whenever an unfamiliar term shows up somewhere else in the deck. The domain also drills privacy and liability, so the card that asks What is HIPAA? sits beside prompts like What is negligence? and physiology fronts such as What is homeostasis?.
Administrative Medical Assisting is the smallest slice at 46 cards, but it is dense with insurance and billing terms that sound alike under time pressure. Prompts like What is a deductible? and What is coinsurance? force you to separate close neighbors, while the card that asks What is an EOB? and coding fronts such as CPT codes describe? connect the paperwork back to the patient record. It is a short domain with quick wins once the vocabulary separates cleanly in your head.
That matters on the RMA, where facts like the order of draw, normal vital-sign ranges, injection angles, and medical word parts must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.
RMA Flashcards by Work Area
The cards are organized by the three AMT work areas. Weight your study toward the heaviest one — Clinical Medical Assisting is 55% of the exam:[1]
| AMT work area | Weight |
|---|---|
| Clinical Medical Assisting | 55% (115 items) |
| General Medical Assisting | 31% (65 items) |
| Administrative Medical Assisting | 14% (30 items) |
How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards
- Start with the clinical block. At 138 cards, Clinical Medical Assisting is the biggest part of the deck, so early passes there move your overall recall more than anything else you can drill.
- Type-drill the exact answers. Use Type mode on cards where precise wording matters, such as Gray tube tests? and Serum vs plasma?, since recognizing a right answer is far easier than producing one.
- Use Match for word parts. Run it on the General Medical Assisting prefix and suffix cards, like Suffix -emia means?, where speed on short definitions is exactly what the game rewards.
- Move to the practice test. Once Quiz scores hold steady across all three domains, switch to the practice test to see these terms inside longer scenarios, and use the study guide for gaps.
- Keep sessions small. With 271 cards total, work one domain at a time and fold the 46 administrative cards into clinical days so billing terms like What is a premium? stay warm.
RMA Flashcards FAQ
Hundreds of free RMA flashcards, organized across the three AMT work areas tested on the Registered Medical Assistant exam — General Medical Assisting, Administrative Medical Assisting, and Clinical Medical Assisting. They're free to use with no account required.
Yes. Flashcards use active recall — retrieving an answer from memory — which research shows is one of the most effective ways to make information stick, especially in short sessions over several days. That matters for facts like normal vital-sign ranges, the order of draw, injection angles, and medical word parts.
Every AMT work area: Clinical Medical Assisting (the largest — infection control, lab and specimens, vital signs, physical exams and EKG, pharmacology, first aid), General Medical Assisting (body systems, medical terminology, law and ethics, human relations), and Administrative Medical Assisting (insurance, ICD-10-CM and CPT coding, scheduling, and records).
Yes. Every card is written to the official AMT RMA examination competencies — Clinical Medical Assisting (55%), General Medical Assisting (31%), and Administrative Medical Assisting (14%) — and to official guidance from the NIH, CDC, and OSHA, so you study exactly what the exam tests.
Mix the modes: flip to learn, type to test recall, match for speed, and quiz to check yourself. Spend the most time on Clinical Medical Assisting — at 55% it is by far the largest work area — and make the order of draw, vital-sign ranges, and injection angles automatic.
Yes — 100% free, all four study modes, no paywall.
RMA flashcard bank
All 271 cards, by topic
A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.
Clinical Medical Assisting (138)
- Six links of the chain of infection?
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Agent, reservoir, portal of exit, transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host.
- Most effective way to break the chain of infection?
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Hand hygiene.
- What are standard precautions?
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Treating all patients' blood/body fluids as potentially infectious.
- What does sterilization destroy?
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ALL microorganisms, including bacterial spores.
- What does disinfection destroy?
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Most pathogens on inanimate objects (not all spores).
- What is sanitization?
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Reducing microbes to a safe level — the cleaning step done first.
- How does an autoclave sterilize?
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Steam under pressure (~121°C, 15 psi, 15–20 minutes).
- Medical asepsis vs surgical asepsis?
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Medical = clean technique (reduce microbes); surgical = sterile technique (eliminate all).
- Items that penetrate tissue must be?
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Sterilized (critical items).
- OSHA standard for bloodborne pathogens?
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29 CFR 1910.1030 — PPE, safety sharps, no recapping, free HBV vaccine.
- Example of an OSHA engineering control?
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A self-sheathing safety needle and puncture-resistant sharps container.
- Vaccine OSHA requires employers to offer free?
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The hepatitis B vaccine.
- How are used needles handled?
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Dropped point-first into the sharps container — never recapped by hand.
- TB requires which transmission precautions?
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Airborne precautions (N95 respirator, negative-pressure room).
- Order of donning PPE?
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Gown, mask/respirator, eye protection, gloves.
- Order of doffing PPE?
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Gloves, eye protection, gown, mask — then hand hygiene.
- Order of draw (venipuncture)?
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Culture → light blue → red/gold (SST) → green → lavender → gray.
- Light blue tube tests?
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Coagulation (PT/INR, aPTT). Additive: sodium citrate.
- Lavender tube tests?
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CBC and HbA1c. Additive: EDTA.
- Gray tube tests?
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Glucose and lactate. Additive: sodium fluoride + oxalate.
- Green tube tests?
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Plasma chemistry and stat electrolytes. Additive: heparin.
- Red/gold (SST) tube tests?
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Serum chemistry and serology. Additive: clot activator (± gel).
- Why is EDTA drawn near the end?
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EDTA carryover falsely raises potassium and lowers calcium.
- Routine adult venipuncture needle gauge?
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21 gauge.
- Maximum tourniquet time?
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No more than 1 minute (longer causes hemoconcentration).
- Preferred venipuncture vein?
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The median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa.
- What is a CLIA-waived test?
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A simple, low-risk test an office may run under a Certificate of Waiver.
- Examples of CLIA-waived tests?
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Urine dipstick, fingerstick glucose, rapid strep, urine pregnancy, FOBT.
- What does CLIA stand for?
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Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988.
- Run before patient testing on an instrument?
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Quality control (QC).
- Normal pH of fresh urine?
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About 4.6 to 8.0 (slightly acidic, ~6).
- Clean-catch midstream urine purpose?
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Reduce contamination from skin/genital flora.
- What does hematocrit measure?
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The percentage of whole blood volume made of red blood cells.
- Capillary fingerstick site?
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The side of the fingertip pad of the middle or ring finger.
- Infant heel-stick site?
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The medial or lateral plantar surface of the heel (avoid the bone).
- Normal adult temperature?
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About 98.6°F (37°C).
- Normal adult pulse?
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60–100 beats per minute.
- Normal adult respirations?
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12–20 breaths per minute.
- Normal adult blood pressure?
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Less than 120/80 mm Hg.
- Hypertension threshold (ACC/AHA)?
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130/80 mm Hg or higher.
- Normal oxygen saturation (SpO₂)?
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95–100% on room air.
- Tachycardia means?
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A resting pulse over 100 bpm.
- Bradycardia means?
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A resting pulse under 60 bpm.
- First Korotkoff sound on a manual BP is?
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The systolic pressure.
- Wrong cuff size effect on BP?
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A cuff too small falsely raises the reading.
- How to calculate BMI?
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Weight in kilograms ÷ height in meters squared.
- Normal adult BMI range?
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18.5 to 24.9.
- Most common adult pulse site?
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The radial pulse (wrist).
- Where is the apical pulse heard?
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5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line.
- Pounds-to-kilograms conversion?
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Divide pounds by 2.2 (1 kg = 2.2 lb).
- Supine position?
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Flat on the back, face up — for front-of-body exams.
- Fowler's position?
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Sitting up (head raised 45–90°) — for breathing difficulty.
- Dorsal recumbent position?
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On the back, knees bent, feet flat — genital/urinary exams.
- Lithotomy position?
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On the back, feet in stirrups — pelvic/vaginal exams.
- Sims' position?
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Left side-lying, right knee drawn up — enemas/rectal procedures.
- Trendelenburg position?
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Supine with head lower than feet — for shock.
- Prone position?
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Lying face down.
- Chart for distance visual acuity?
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The Snellen chart (20/20 is normal).
- What does 20/40 vision mean?
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Sees at 20 ft what normal vision sees at 40 ft.
- Four methods of physical examination?
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Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation.
- 12-lead EKG limb electrodes?
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RA, LA, LL, and RL (right leg = ground, records nothing).
- Einthoven's triangle is formed by?
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Right arm, left arm, and left leg electrodes.
- EKG: what does the P wave represent?
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Atrial depolarization.
- EKG: what does the QRS complex represent?
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Ventricular depolarization.
- EKG: what does the T wave represent?
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Ventricular repolarization.
- V1 chest-lead placement?
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4th intercostal space, right sternal border.
- V4 chest-lead placement?
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5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line.
- Holter monitor purpose?
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Records the heart's rhythm continuously over 24–48 hours.
- Spirometry (PFT) measures?
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Lung function — how much and how fast air is exhaled.
- Intradermal injection angle?
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10–15° (bevel up) — e.g. TB/PPD test.
- Subcutaneous injection angle?
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45° (or 90° with a short needle and pinched skin).
- Intramuscular injection angle?
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90° into a large muscle.
- Common IM injection sites?
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Deltoid, vastus lateralis, ventrogluteal.
- Z-track technique used for?
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Irritating IM medications — seals the drug in the muscle.
- Abbreviation PO means?
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By mouth (orally).
- Abbreviation bid means?
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Twice a day.
- Abbreviation tid means?
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Three times a day.
- Abbreviation qid means?
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Four times a day.
- Abbreviation gtt means?
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Drops.
- Abbreviation OD / OS / OU mean?
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Right eye / left eye / both eyes.
- Abbreviation ac / pc mean?
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Before meals / after meals.
- Abbreviation prn means?
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As needed.
- Dosage formula (desired over have)?
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(Desired dose ÷ dose on hand) × quantity per unit.
- 0.5 g equals how many mg?
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500 mg (1 g = 1,000 mg).
- Give 500 mg from 250-mg tablets — how many?
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2 tablets.
- Schedule II controlled substances?
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High abuse potential with accepted medical use (e.g. morphine, oxycodone).
- Six rights of medication administration?
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Right patient, drug, dose, route, time, and documentation.
- Parenteral route means?
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Given by injection (not through the GI tract).
- Adult CPR compression rate?
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100–120 compressions per minute.
- Adult CPR compression depth?
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At least 2 inches (5 cm), no more than 2.4 inches.
- Adult CPR compression-to-ventilation ratio?
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30:2 (one or two rescuers).
- First step for a collapsed unresponsive adult?
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Check responsiveness, call for help, start CPR, apply an AED.
- What does an AED do?
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Analyzes the rhythm and delivers a shock for a shockable rhythm.
- Managing a fainting (syncope) patient?
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Stop, lay them flat, elevate the legs, monitor.
- Controlling external bleeding?
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Apply firm direct pressure with gauze.
- RICE for a sprain stands for?
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Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.
- Cold pack vs hot pack for a new injury?
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Cold pack first (reduces swelling); heat later for stiffness.
- Signs of shock?
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Low blood pressure, rapid weak pulse, pale cool clammy skin.
- Universal sign of choking?
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Hands clutched to the throat.
- Choking adult intervention?
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Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver).
- Instrument to clamp a blood vessel?
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A hemostat.
- Instrument that holds the suture needle?
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A needle holder.
- Instrument used to grasp tissue?
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Forceps.
- Scissors used to remove sutures?
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Suture (stitch) removal scissors.
- Otoscope is used to examine?
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The ear canal and tympanic membrane.
- Ophthalmoscope is used to examine?
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The interior of the eye (retina).
- Sphygmomanometer measures?
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Blood pressure.
- Sterile field rule?
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Keep items above the waist and within the sterile boundary; the 1-inch edge is non-sterile.
- Durable medical equipment (DME) examples?
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Wheelchair, walker, hospital bed, crutches.
- Normal fasting blood glucose range?
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About 70–99 mg/dL.
- Frontal/anterior surface temperature method?
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Temporal artery (forehead) scan.
- Tympanic temperature is taken where?
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In the ear canal.
- Rectal temperature compared to oral?
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About 1°F higher than oral.
- Axillary temperature compared to oral?
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About 1°F lower than oral.
- Pulse points besides radial?
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Carotid, brachial, femoral, popliteal, apical, temporal.
- Why count respirations discreetly?
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Awareness changes the rate; count without telling the patient.
- Pulse deficit means?
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A difference between the apical and radial pulse rates.
- What is a wheal?
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A small raised area from an intradermal injection (TB/allergy test).
- Ventrogluteal site landmarks?
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The greater trochanter, anterior superior iliac spine, and iliac crest.
- Most common subcutaneous insulin site?
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The abdomen (also upper arm, thigh).
- Standard subcutaneous needle gauge?
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25–27 gauge, short needle.
- PPD (TB) test is read when?
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48–72 hours after placement.
- Where is a PPD measured?
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The diameter of induration (firmness), not redness.
- What is hemolysis?
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Rupture of red cells — pink serum; falsely raises potassium, LDH, AST.
- Serum vs plasma?
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Serum = liquid after clotting (no fibrinogen); plasma = anticoagulated (has fibrinogen).
- CLIA-waived rapid strep specimen?
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A throat (pharyngeal) swab.
- Normal adult hemoglobin (male)?
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About 13.5–17.5 g/dL.
- CBC measures?
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Red cells, white cells, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelets.
- Sanitize an instrument before sterilizing because?
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Debris/bioburden shields microbes from the sterilant.
- Autoclave indicator confirms?
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That sterilization conditions (temp/pressure/time) were met.
- Critical vs semicritical vs noncritical items?
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Critical penetrate tissue (sterilize); semicritical touch mucosa (high-level disinfect); noncritical touch skin.
- First aid for a chemical splash to the eye?
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Flush the eye with water for at least 15 minutes.
- First aid for a minor burn?
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Cool with running water; do not apply ice or butter.
- Recovery position is used for?
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An unconscious patient who is breathing (prevents aspiration).
- Suture removal — where to cut?
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Close to the skin, then pull toward the wound (never across it).
- Wound healing by primary intention?
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Clean wound edges approximated (sutured) heal with minimal scarring.
- Sterile gloving compared to clean gloving?
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Sterile gloves keep the outside contamination-free for invasive procedures.
- Allen test checks?
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Adequate collateral circulation before a radial arterial puncture.
General Medical Assisting (87)
- Functional filtering unit of the kidney?
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The nephron — filtration begins in the glomerulus.
- Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs?
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The alveoli — tiny air sacs where O₂ and CO₂ are exchanged.
- Which gland is the 'master gland'?
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The pituitary gland — it controls other endocrine glands.
- Hormone that regulates blood calcium?
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Parathyroid hormone (PTH) from the parathyroid glands.
- Universal red-cell donor blood type?
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O-negative (O−).
- Universal plasma donor blood type?
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AB-positive.
- Where does the Krebs cycle occur?
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In the mitochondrion of the cell.
- Structure that equalizes middle-ear pressure?
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The Eustachian (auditory) tube.
- Joint type in the shoulder and hip?
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Ball-and-socket joint — widest range of motion.
- Part of the neuron that receives signals?
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The dendrites.
- Largest organ of the body?
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The skin (integumentary system).
- Functional unit of the nervous system?
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The neuron.
- What does systole mean?
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The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle; the top blood-pressure number.
- What does diastole mean?
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The relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle; the bottom blood-pressure number.
- Heart layer responsible for pumping?
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The myocardium (cardiac muscle layer).
- Primary function of the lymphatic system?
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Returns leaked fluid to the bloodstream and supports immunity.
- What is osteoporosis?
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A condition of decreased bone density that makes bones porous and fragile.
- Smallest blood vessels (gas/nutrient exchange)?
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The capillaries.
- What is homeostasis?
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The body's maintenance of a stable internal environment.
- Three main body planes?
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Sagittal, frontal (coronal), and transverse.
- Anatomical term for 'toward the front'?
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Anterior (ventral).
- Anatomical term for 'toward the back'?
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Posterior (dorsal).
- Largest part of the brain?
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The cerebrum — controls higher functions.
- Brain part that coordinates voluntary movement/balance?
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The cerebellum.
- Primary function of red blood cells?
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Carry oxygen via hemoglobin.
- Suffix -itis means?
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Inflammation (e.g. dermatitis).
- Suffix -ectomy means?
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Surgical removal (e.g. appendectomy).
- Suffix -ostomy means?
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Creating a new opening (e.g. colostomy).
- Suffix -otomy means?
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A cutting/incision (e.g. tracheotomy).
- Suffix -emia means?
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Blood condition (e.g. anemia).
- Suffix -megaly means?
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Enlargement (e.g. cardiomegaly).
- Suffix -ology means?
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The study of (e.g. cardiology).
- Suffix -pathy means?
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Disease (e.g. neuropathy).
- Prefix tachy- means?
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Fast (tachycardia = fast heart rate).
- Prefix brady- means?
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Slow (bradycardia = slow heart rate).
- Prefix hyper- means?
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Excessive / above normal.
- Prefix hypo- means?
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Deficient / below normal.
- Prefix dys- means?
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Difficult or painful (e.g. dyspnea).
- Root 'cardi/o' means?
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Heart.
- Root 'hepat/o' means?
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Liver.
- Root 'nephr/o' / 'ren/o' mean?
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Kidney.
- Root 'derm/o', 'dermat/o' mean?
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Skin.
- What is a combining vowel?
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A vowel (usually 'o') linking a root to another word part (cardi-o-logy).
- Three parts of a medical term?
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Prefix (front), root (core meaning), and suffix (end).
- Abbreviation 'STAT' means?
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Immediately.
- Abbreviation 'NPO' means?
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Nothing by mouth (nil per os).
- What is HIPAA?
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The federal law protecting patients' protected health information (PHI).
- What is PHI?
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Protected health information — any individually identifiable health data.
- HIPAA document given to patients?
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The Notice of Privacy Practices.
- Releasing records to a non-authorized party requires?
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The patient's written authorization first.
- Action when served a subpoena for records?
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Verify with the provider or legal counsel before releasing anything.
- Informed consent means?
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The patient understands the procedure, its purpose, and its risks.
- Implied consent means?
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Consent inferred from behavior (extending an arm) or an emergency.
- Expressed consent means?
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Explicit verbal or written agreement.
- What is an advance directive?
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A legal document stating a patient's healthcare wishes in advance.
- What is a living will?
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An advance directive specifying which treatments a patient wants or refuses.
- Durable power of attorney for healthcare?
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Names a person to make medical decisions if the patient cannot.
- Medical assistant's scope of practice?
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Delegated clinical/administrative tasks — never diagnosing, prescribing, or interpreting.
- What is negligence?
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Failure to act with the care a reasonable person would, causing harm.
- What is the standard of care?
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The level of care a reasonably prudent professional would provide.
- Battery in a medical setting means?
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Touching or treating a patient without consent.
- What is the Good Samaritan law?
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Protects those who give reasonable emergency aid in good faith.
- Beneficence (ethics) means?
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Acting in the patient's best interest.
- Patient autonomy means?
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The patient's right to make their own healthcare decisions.
- Confidentiality means?
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Keeping patient information private and need-to-know.
- Best approach with an irate patient?
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Use a calm voice, listen actively, and offer to help.
- Translator for a patient with limited English?
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A qualified medical interpreter — never a family member.
- Confirming a patient understood instructions?
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Use the teach-back method.
- Communicating with a hearing-impaired patient?
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Face them, speak clearly, and use written materials as needed.
- Therapeutic communication relies on?
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Active listening, empathy, and open-ended questions.
- Nonverbal communication includes?
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Body language, eye contact, tone, and facial expression.
- Combining form 'gastr/o' means?
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Stomach.
- Combining form 'pneum/o', 'pulmon/o' mean?
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Lung.
- Combining form 'oste/o' means?
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Bone.
- Combining form 'my/o' means?
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Muscle.
- Prefix 'a-/an-' means?
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Without / absence of.
- Prefix 'peri-' means?
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Around (pericardium = around the heart).
- Prefix 'intra-' means?
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Within (intramuscular = within a muscle).
- Suffix '-algia' means?
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Pain (e.g. neuralgia).
- Suffix '-rrhea' means?
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Flow or discharge (e.g. diarrhea).
- Plural of 'diagnosis'?
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Diagnoses.
- Body cavity containing the heart and lungs?
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The thoracic cavity.
- Largest artery in the body?
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The aorta.
- Normal adult body temperature in Celsius?
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37°C.
- Wellness factor: recommended daily activity?
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Regular physical activity plus a balanced, nutritious diet.
- Vitamin needed for blood clotting?
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Vitamin K.
- Mineral needed for healthy red blood cells?
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Iron.
Administrative Medical Assisting (46)
- ICD-10-CM codes describe?
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The diagnosis — the patient's condition or reason for the visit.
- CPT codes describe?
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The procedure or service the provider performed.
- HCPCS Level II codes cover?
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Supplies, equipment, and services not in CPT (e.g. DME).
- Who maintains CPT codes?
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The American Medical Association (AMA).
- Form for physician professional claims?
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The CMS-1500 form.
- Form for institutional/hospital claims?
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The UB-04 (CMS-1450) form.
- What is an EOB?
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Explanation of benefits — the insurer's statement of how a claim was processed (not a bill).
- What is a copay?
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A fixed amount the patient pays for a covered service.
- What is a deductible?
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The amount a patient pays before the plan begins to share costs.
- What is coinsurance?
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The percentage of costs the patient shares after the deductible.
- What is a premium?
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The amount paid (usually monthly) to keep an insurance plan active.
- What does an HMO require?
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A primary care physician and referrals to see specialists.
- How does a PPO differ from an HMO?
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Allows out-of-network care without a referral, at higher cost.
- What is a referral?
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A PCP's authorization for a patient to see a specialist.
- What is prior authorization?
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The insurer's approval of a planned service before it is provided.
- What is medical necessity?
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Services appropriate for the diagnosis — the ICD code must support the CPT code.
- What is Medicare Part A?
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Hospital (inpatient) insurance.
- What is Medicare Part B?
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Medical (outpatient/physician) insurance.
- What is Medicaid?
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Joint federal-state coverage for low-income individuals.
- What is a fee schedule?
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The list of allowed amounts an insurer pays per service.
- What is an audit trail in an EHR?
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A record tracking who accessed or changed a document and when.
- SOAP note — S stands for?
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Subjective — what the patient reports (symptoms, history).
- SOAP note — O stands for?
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Objective — measurable data (vital signs, exam findings).
- SOAP note — A stands for?
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Assessment — the provider's diagnosis or impression.
- SOAP note — P stands for?
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Plan — next steps (treatment, tests, follow-up).
- Best practice for documenting symptoms?
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Use the patient's exact words for accuracy.
- Documenting in the EHR should be done?
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Promptly and accurately, never falsified or delayed in bulk.
- Consecutive (straight numeric) filing?
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Filing records in straight numerical order by record number.
- What is a tickler/recall system?
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A reminder system for follow-up appointments and tasks.
- Wave scheduling means?
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Several patients booked at the start of each hour, seen in order arriving.
- Double-booking scheduling means?
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Two patients scheduled for the same slot.
- Cluster (grouping) scheduling means?
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Grouping similar appointments or procedures together.
- Most important factors in transcription?
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Accuracy and confidentiality.
- Sending a fax with PHI requires?
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Confirming the recipient and using a confidentiality cover sheet.
- Inventory management of office supplies aims to?
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Maintain par levels — reorder before stock runs out.
- First step in the billing cycle?
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Patient registration / collecting demographics and insurance.
- What is the claim adjudication step?
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The insurer's review that approves, denies, or adjusts a claim.
- Aging report in billing shows?
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Outstanding balances grouped by how long they've been unpaid.
- What is the encounter form / superbill?
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A form listing the services and codes for a patient visit.
- What is a remittance advice (RA)?
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The insurer's explanation of payment sent to the provider.
- What is accounts receivable (A/R)?
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Money owed to the practice for services rendered.
- What is a clean claim?
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A claim with no errors that can be processed without extra information.
- Open-hours (open-access) scheduling?
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Patients arrive without set appointments and are seen in order.
- Matrix in appointment scheduling?
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Blocking off times the provider is unavailable before booking patients.
- Most secure way to protect EHR access?
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Unique logins, strong passwords, and role-based access.
- What is the National Provider Identifier (NPI)?
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A unique 10-digit ID number for healthcare providers.
References
- 1.American Medical Technologists (AMT). “Registered Medical Assistant (RMA) Certification Examination Competencies.” americanmedtech.org. ↑
- 2.National Institutes of Health / National Library of Medicine. “StatPearls & MedlinePlus (anatomy, vital signs, injections, EKG).” NIH/NLM. ↑
- 3.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). “Infection Control & Standard Precautions.” cdc.gov. ↑
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