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Your FREE Phlebotomy Flashcards 2026 – 250+ Cards

Realistic, NHA-aligned phlebotomy flashcards — flip, match, type, and quiz yourself, all at the CPT level.

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Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of phlebotomy cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the NHA CPT test-plan domains, so you study exactly what the Certified Phlebotomy Technician exam tests.[1]

Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide. Want extra insurance for exam day? Capital Prep’s Phlebotomy premium study materials come with a Phlebotomy exam pass guarantee: your money back if you don’t pass, plus up to $134 toward your retake fee — and Career Employer students get a special discount.

Phlebotomy Flashcard Study Modes

Flip mode walks you through one card at a time for steady review. Match is a timed game that pairs terms with their definitions. Type shows the definition and asks you to key the term back, so a card like What is syncope? becomes recall instead of recognition. Quiz turns the same 265 cards into multiple-choice questions.

Free phlebotomy flashcards from Career Employer — active recall for the NHA Certified Phlebotomy Technician exam

Why Flashcards Work for the Phlebotomy Exam

Routine Blood Collections is the largest section at 111 cards and carries 28% of the exam, so it sets the tone for the deck. The cards drill tube selection, order of draw, venipuncture technique, and the complications you have to name on sight, from the card that asks Which tube tests a CBC? to prompts like What is a PST?, Max tourniquet time?, and What is a hematoma?

Safety & Compliance holds 39 cards and sits close behind at 26%. These fronts cover infection control, personal protective equipment, patient privacy, and regulatory vocabulary, including the card that asks What is HIPAA?, plus PPE donning order?, Biohazard label color?, and What are CLIA-waived tests? Because the weight is high relative to the card count, this is a section worth repeating often.

Patient Preparation also has 39 cards and accounts for 20%. The terms here are about what happens before the needle: identification, consent, orders, and patient condition. Expect prompts such as Two patient identifiers?, What is a requisition?, What does fasting mean?, and the card that asks What is the basal state?

Processing & Handling brings 42 cards for 14%. These fronts drill specimen quality, separation, transport, and rejection language, including Serum vs plasma?, What does QNS mean?, Causes of hemolysis?, and the card that asks What is an aliquot?

Special Collections closes the deck with 34 cards at 12%, focused on the draws that break from routine. You get dermal puncture anatomy and technique through the card that asks What is the calcaneus? and Capillary order of draw?, along with blood culture and donor topics such as What is the yellow (SPS) tube for?

That matters on the CPT, where facts like the order of draw, the tube colors and additives, the needle gauges, and the venipuncture steps must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.

Phlebotomy Flashcards by Topic

The cards are organized by the NHA CPT test-plan domains. Weight your study toward the heaviest one — Routine Blood Collections is 28% of the scored items:[1]

NHA CPT domains and their scored-item weight
NHA CPT domainWeight
Routine Blood Collections28%
Safety & Compliance26%
Patient Preparation20%
Processing14%
Special Collections12%

How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards

  • Start with Routine Blood Collections. At 111 cards and 28%, it is both the biggest block and the highest weight, and its tube and order-of-draw vocabulary supports every other domain.
  • Type-drill the tube cards. Prompts like Which tube tests HbA1c? and What is a PST? reward exact recall, and typing forces you to produce the additive and tube rather than recognize it.
  • Use Match for complication terms. Pairing short definitions with names such as What is petechiae? and What is icterus? builds the fast recognition you need under timed exam conditions.
  • Move to the practice test once recall holds. When Quiz scores stay steady across Safety & Compliance and Patient Preparation, switch to full-length questions and use the study guide for anything that keeps slipping.
  • Keep a rotating cadence. Work one domain per sitting, then close with a mixed Quiz across all 265 cards so smaller sections like Special Collections stay in rotation instead of fading.

Phlebotomy Flashcards FAQ

Hundreds of free phlebotomy flashcards, organized across the NHA CPT test-plan domains tested on the Certified Phlebotomy Technician exam — from the order of draw and tube colors through venipuncture technique, complications, patient safety, and specimen processing. They're free to use with no account required.

Phlebotomy flashcard bank

All 265 cards, by topic

A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.

Routine Blood Collections (111)

Order of draw (venipuncture)?
Show answer

Blood culture → light blue (citrate) → red/gold serum (SST) → green (heparin) → lavender (EDTA) → gray (fluoride).

What does the light blue tube test?
Show answer

Coagulation — PT/INR, aPTT, fibrinogen, D-dimer. Additive: sodium citrate.

What does the lavender tube test?
Show answer

CBC and HbA1c (hematology). Additive: EDTA.

What does the gray tube test?
Show answer

Glucose and lactate. Additive: sodium fluoride + potassium oxalate.

What does the green tube test?
Show answer

Plasma chemistry and stat electrolytes. Additive: heparin (lithium or sodium).

Preferred venipuncture vein?
Show answer

The median cubital vein — large, well-anchored, away from the artery and major nerves.

Needle angle for venipuncture?
Show answer

15–30°, bevel up.

Max tourniquet time?
Show answer

No more than 1 minute — longer causes hemoconcentration.

Why is EDTA drawn near the end?
Show answer

EDTA carryover into a later tube falsely raises potassium and lowers calcium.

Which tube is drawn first?
Show answer

Blood culture — to keep the specimen sterile and avoid contamination.

Routine venipuncture needle gauge?
Show answer

21–23 gauge (higher number = smaller bore).

Butterfly (winged set) gauge?
Show answer

23–25 gauge — for small, fragile, or hand veins.

Light blue tube fill ratio?
Show answer

9:1 blood-to-citrate; fill to the line. Underfill falsely prolongs PT/aPTT.

What is syncope?
Show answer

Fainting — usually a vasovagal reaction. Stop, remove the needle, lay the patient flat.

What does the red/gold (SST) tube test?
Show answer

Serum chemistry and serology. Additive: clot activator (± gel in SST).

Where is the median cubital vein found?
Show answer

In the antecubital fossa (the inner bend of the elbow), crossing its center.

Second-choice venipuncture vein?
Show answer

The cephalic vein — lateral (thumb side) of the forearm.

Which antecubital vein is used last and why?
Show answer

The basilic vein (medial) — it lies near the brachial artery and median nerve.

How is a vein selected?
Show answer

By palpation (feel) — a vein that bounces is patent — not by sight alone.

Areas to avoid for venipuncture?
Show answer

Mastectomy side, arm with an IV, hematoma, scarred/burned/edematous tissue, AV fistula.

Why not draw from the side of a mastectomy?
Show answer

Risk of lymphedema and infection — use the opposite arm.

Why avoid drawing from an arm with an IV?
Show answer

IV fluid contaminates and dilutes the sample. Use the other arm.

How far above the site is the tourniquet applied?
Show answer

3–4 inches above the intended puncture site.

When is the tourniquet released?
Show answer

Before withdrawing the needle (often once the last tube starts filling).

Effect of a prolonged tourniquet?
Show answer

Hemoconcentration — falsely elevated proteins, potassium, and cell counts.

What antiseptic for a routine draw?
Show answer

70% isopropyl alcohol — applied in a circular motion and allowed to air-dry.

Why let the alcohol dry before puncture?
Show answer

Wet alcohol stings and can hemolyze the sample, skewing results.

What is the bevel and how is it oriented?
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The slanted opening at the needle tip — inserted bevel up.

What is the evacuated tube system (ETS)?
Show answer

A holder, a double-ended needle, and self-filling vacuum tubes — preferred for multi-tube draws.

When is a syringe or butterfly used?
Show answer

For small, fragile, rolling, or hand veins, or difficult draws.

Why does a higher gauge mean a smaller needle?
Show answer

Gauge is inverse — the number is the count of needles per inch of bore, so higher = thinner.

What is a hematoma?
Show answer

Blood pooling under the skin when it leaks from the punctured vein.

Common causes of a hematoma?
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Needle through the far wall, draw at a bifurcation, or too little pressure afterward.

Sign of nerve contact during a draw?
Show answer

Sharp, burning, or electric pain with tingling/numbness — withdraw the needle immediately.

Signs of an arterial puncture?
Show answer

Bright-red, pulsing, rapidly filling blood — remove and apply firm pressure 10–15 min.

What is petechiae?
Show answer

Tiny red/purple spots under the skin — may signal a platelet or coagulation problem.

What does 'failure to draw' suggest?
Show answer

Collapsed/rolled vein, bevel against the wall, or vacuum loss — adjust slightly, don't blind-probe.

How many venipuncture attempts before escalating?
Show answer

About two — then ask another phlebotomist rather than continue.

Why mix additive tubes by inversion?
Show answer

To blend the additive (anticoagulant/clot activator) evenly with the blood, gently — never shake.

Inversions for a citrate (light blue) tube?
Show answer

3–4 gentle inversions.

Inversions for an EDTA (lavender) tube?
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8–10 gentle inversions.

What does the pink tube test?
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Blood bank — type and crossmatch. Additive: EDTA (same as lavender).

What does the royal blue tube test?
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Trace elements and toxicology — it has a special low-contaminant stopper.

What does the tan tube test?
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Lead — a lead-free certified EDTA tube; draws with the EDTA group.

Discard tube with a butterfly + citrate first?
Show answer

Draw a discard tube first to fill the tubing's dead space so the citrate tube fills fully.

What is a multisample needle?
Show answer

A double-ended needle with a rubber sleeve that reseals between tubes in the ETS.

How is the vein anchored before insertion?
Show answer

Pull the skin taut below the site with the thumb to keep the vein from rolling.

What is iatrogenic anemia?
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Anemia caused by drawing too much blood over repeated collections — use small-volume tubes.

Why not have the patient pump a fist?
Show answer

Fist pumping causes hemoconcentration and falsely raises potassium.

What is sodium citrate's mechanism?
Show answer

It reversibly binds (chelates) calcium to prevent clotting; calcium is added back in the lab.

What is EDTA's mechanism?
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It irreversibly binds calcium, preventing clotting and preserving cell shape and counts.

What is heparin's mechanism?
Show answer

It potentiates antithrombin, inhibiting thrombin and factor Xa.

What does sodium fluoride do?
Show answer

It is antiglycolytic — it stops cells from consuming glucose, preserving the sample.

What is a clot activator?
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Silica or thrombin that speeds clotting so the tube yields serum.

What is an SST?
Show answer

Serum separator tube (gold) — clot activator + gel that separates serum after spinning.

What is a PST?
Show answer

Plasma separator tube (light green) — heparin + gel for plasma chemistry.

Why is the gray tube drawn last?
Show answer

Its fluoride/oxalate would disrupt most analytes if carried over to a later tube.

Inversions for a serum (red/SST) tube?
Show answer

About 5 gentle inversions (a glass non-additive red needs none).

What is the CLSI standard for venipuncture order of draw?
Show answer

CLSI PRE02 (formerly GP41) — Collection of Diagnostic Venous Blood Specimens.

Why is the citrate tube before the serum tube?
Show answer

A clot activator carried over would shorten coagulation times.

What is the antecubital fossa?
Show answer

The inner bend of the elbow — the primary region for routine venipuncture.

Why not draw above an IV site?
Show answer

It still risks IV-fluid contamination; draw from the opposite arm when possible.

What is the purpose of the tourniquet?
Show answer

To distend the vein so it is easier to feel and enter.

What does ACD (yellow) test?
Show answer

Blood bank, DNA, and HLA studies (acid-citrate-dextrose).

Which tube tests HbA1c?
Show answer

The lavender (EDTA) tube.

Which tube tests PT/INR?
Show answer

The light-blue (sodium citrate) tube.

Which tube tests a CBC?
Show answer

The lavender (EDTA) tube.

Which tube tests a basic metabolic panel?
Show answer

A serum tube (red/SST) or a plasma (green/PST) tube, per lab protocol.

What is the role of the discard tube?
Show answer

To clear dead-space air (butterfly) or a possible tissue-thromboplastin first draw before a coag tube.

What is hemoconcentration?
Show answer

Falsely elevated cells and large molecules from a prolonged tourniquet or fist pumping.

How is a rolling vein managed?
Show answer

Anchor it firmly below the site before insertion so it can't slide away.

What is the order of draw mnemonic by color?
Show answer

Yellow, light Blue, Red/Gold, Green, Lavender, Gray — culture to glucose.

What effect does EDTA carryover have on calcium?
Show answer

It falsely lowers calcium (EDTA binds the calcium in the next sample).

What effect does EDTA carryover have on potassium?
Show answer

It falsely raises potassium (K2/K3 EDTA salts add potassium).

What is the purpose of inverting a clot-activator tube?
Show answer

To mix the activator with the blood so it clots evenly and on time.

What is a vasovagal response?
Show answer

A reflex drop in heart rate and blood pressure causing fainting during a draw.

Which arm if the patient had a mastectomy on both sides?
Show answer

Consult the provider; draw may use a hand vein or require an order, per facility policy.

What is the holder (adapter) in the ETS?
Show answer

The barrel that holds the double-ended needle and guides each tube onto it.

What does the light-green (PST) tube contain?
Show answer

Lithium heparin plus a gel separator for plasma electrolytes.

Why keep the arm straight after a draw?
Show answer

Bending the arm can reopen the puncture and cause a hematoma.

What is the purpose of a tube's vacuum?
Show answer

It draws a precise blood volume, ensuring the correct blood-to-additive ratio.

What causes a coag tube to be rejected?
Show answer

Underfilling (wrong 9:1 ratio), clotting, or hemolysis.

Why verify expiration dates on tubes?
Show answer

Expired tubes lose vacuum and additive potency, compromising the sample.

Why is the median cubital usually visible?
Show answer

It is large and superficial, so it distends well under a tourniquet.

What if a vein collapses during a draw?
Show answer

Release the vacuum (loosen the tube) or use a smaller tube/syringe to reduce suction.

What is the safest forearm vein by distance from the artery?
Show answer

The cephalic vein (lateral) — farthest from the brachial artery and median nerve.

What is a bifurcation and why avoid puncturing there?
Show answer

Where a vein branches — puncturing it risks a hematoma and poor flow.

What is a 'short draw'?
Show answer

An underfilled tube — wrong blood-to-additive ratio; often rejected (especially coag).

Why is the order of draw a quality issue?
Show answer

Drawing out of order causes additive carryover, the most common pre-analytical error.

What is the recommended skin-prep motion?
Show answer

A circular motion from the center outward (concentric circles), then let it dry.

What is a winged infusion set used for besides veins?
Show answer

Hand and small/fragile veins, and difficult pediatric/geriatric draws.

What is the role of palpation pressure?
Show answer

Gentle pressure feels the vein's depth, direction, and resilience to choose the best site.

Which tube color is for trace elements?
Show answer

Royal blue — with a special low-contaminant stopper.

Which tube color is for lead testing?
Show answer

Tan — a lead-free certified EDTA tube.

What does CLSI stand for?
Show answer

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute — sets phlebotomy collection standards.

What is a butterfly set's advantage?
Show answer

Its flexible tubing and shallow angle make small, fragile, and hand veins easier to access.

Why is the cephalic vein sometimes harder to anchor?
Show answer

It tends to roll more than the median cubital, so anchor it firmly.

What is the danger of probing for a vein?
Show answer

Blind probing can hit a nerve or artery and cause a hematoma — adjust gently instead.

What is the purpose of gauze and a bandage after a draw?
Show answer

Pressure stops bleeding and the bandage protects the site and prevents a hematoma.

Why is the order of inversions important?
Show answer

Too few leaves the additive unmixed (clots/microclots); shaking causes hemolysis.

What is the order of draw rationale in one line?
Show answer

Prevent additive carryover from one tube falsely altering the next tube's results.

What is a 'difficult draw' adaptation?
Show answer

Use a butterfly/syringe, warm the site, lower the vacuum, or choose a hand vein.

What is the antiglycolytic agent in a gray tube?
Show answer

Sodium fluoride (paired with potassium oxalate as the anticoagulant).

Which is reversible: citrate or EDTA chelation?
Show answer

Citrate is reversible (lab adds calcium back); EDTA is irreversible.

What is a key sign you should stop a draw at once?
Show answer

Sharp/burning/electric pain (nerve) or bright-red pulsing blood (artery).

Why is the median cubital safest?
Show answer

It is anchored and separated from the brachial artery/median nerve by the bicipital aponeurosis.

What does diaphoresis during a draw suggest?
Show answer

Possible vasovagal reaction (fainting) — be ready to stop and recline the patient.

Why not bend the arm to hold gauze?
Show answer

Bending can reopen the site and cause a hematoma; keep the arm straight and apply pressure.

Why might two full practice forms feel different?
Show answer

Each is randomly drawn and weighted to the blueprint, so the mix varies each time.

What is the safest first move if you suspect arterial puncture?
Show answer

Remove the needle and apply firm, continuous pressure for 10–15 minutes; notify the provider.

What is the recommended response to a seizure during a draw?
Show answer

Remove the needle, apply pressure, protect the patient from injury, and call for help.

Safety & Compliance (39)

OSHA standard for bloodborne pathogens?
Show answer

29 CFR 1910.1030 — PPE, safety sharps, no recapping, free hepatitis B vaccine.

After the needle is removed, what comes first?
Show answer

Activate the safety device, then apply pressure to the site with gauze.

What is hand hygiene's role?
Show answer

The single most important measure to prevent infection — before and after every patient.

What are standard precautions?
Show answer

Treat every patient's blood and body fluids as potentially infectious.

PPE donning order?
Show answer

Gown → mask/respirator → eye protection → gloves.

PPE doffing order?
Show answer

Gloves → eye protection → gown → mask, then hand hygiene.

How are used sharps disposed of?
Show answer

Dropped point-first into a closable, puncture-resistant, leak-proof, labeled sharps container — never recapped by hand.

Hepatitis B vaccine rule (OSHA)?
Show answer

Offered free by the employer within 10 working days of assignment.

What is an Exposure Control Plan?
Show answer

A written OSHA-required plan, reviewed at least annually, for preventing and responding to exposures.

First action after a needlestick?
Show answer

Wash the site with soap and water, report immediately, follow the exposure-control plan.

What is HIPAA?
Show answer

Federal law protecting patients' protected health information (PHI).

What is PHI?
Show answer

Protected health information — individually identifiable health data that must be kept private.

A phlebotomist's scope of practice?
Show answer

Collect and handle specimens — not diagnose, interpret results, or act beyond training.

What is quality control (QC)?
Show answer

Day-to-day checking that a test or instrument runs correctly (e.g., running control samples each shift).

What is quality assurance (QA)?
Show answer

Ongoing monitoring of the whole testing process — pre-analytical, analytical, post-analytical.

What phase has the most lab errors?
Show answer

The pre-analytical phase — prep, collection, handling, labeling — the phlebotomist's domain.

Is a mislabeled tube a pre- or post-analytical error?
Show answer

Pre-analytical — it happens during collection/labeling, before testing.

Biohazard label color?
Show answer

Orange or orange-red with the biohazard symbol.

What is a transmission-based precaution?
Show answer

Added PPE for specific organisms — contact, droplet, or airborne — on top of standard precautions.

What should you do with a patient in distress?
Show answer

Stop, stay with the patient, call for help, and follow the emergency response plan.

Managing a fainting patient?
Show answer

Stop the draw, remove the needle, lower the head or lay flat, apply a cool cloth, call for help.

What setting requires CPR readiness?
Show answer

Any patient-care setting — recognizing cardiac/respiratory distress and activating the code is in scope.

What are CLIA-waived tests?
Show answer

Simple, low-risk tests (e.g., glucose, urine pregnancy) a phlebotomist may run at the point of care.

Why disinfect equipment between patients?
Show answer

To prevent cross-contamination — clean reusable cables, racks, and surfaces per policy.

Who provides PPE under OSHA?
Show answer

The employer, at no cost to the employee.

What are engineering controls?
Show answer

Devices that isolate or remove a hazard — e.g., safety-engineered, self-sheathing needles.

What are work-practice controls?
Show answer

Behaviors that reduce exposure — no recapping, hand hygiene, proper sharps disposal.

What is the danger of recapping a needle?
Show answer

Accidental needlestick and exposure to bloodborne pathogens — it is prohibited by OSHA.

Why can't you reuse a tube holder with the needle?
Show answer

OSHA requires single-use of the needle-holder unit to prevent exposure.

What are the three phases of testing?
Show answer

Pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical.

What documentation follows an incident (e.g., needlestick)?
Show answer

An incident report plus follow-up under the exposure-control plan.

Why are gloves changed between patients?
Show answer

To prevent cross-contamination and transmission of infection.

What is the safest response to an unfamiliar request?
Show answer

Decline politely and check with your supervisor before acting outside your scope.

What is the purpose of a sharps container's fill line?
Show answer

Replace the container before it overfills to prevent sticks; never force sharps in.

What is the NHA CPT credential?
Show answer

Certified Phlebotomy Technician — the National Healthcareer Association's phlebotomy certification.

Why keep an Exposure Control Plan current?
Show answer

OSHA requires annual review to reflect new safer devices and procedures.

What is the role of facility policy in scope?
Show answer

It defines exactly which tasks a phlebotomist may perform at that site.

What is a key infection-control step for shared equipment?
Show answer

Disinfect cables, racks, and surfaces between patients per policy.

Why are most phlebotomists certified even where not required?
Show answer

Employers require a national credential (NHA, NCCT, ASCP, AMT) for hiring and quality.

Patient Preparation (39)

Two patient identifiers?
Show answer

Full name and date of birth — verified against requisition and wristband (never the room number).

When are tubes labeled?
Show answer

At the bedside, in the patient's presence, immediately after the draw.

What is a requisition?
Show answer

The test order — patient, provider, tests requested, and timing — that starts every draw.

STAT vs routine vs timed orders?
Show answer

STAT = immediate; routine = standard; timed = drawn at a specific time (e.g., GTT, drug peak/trough).

Why never use the room number as an ID?
Show answer

Patients move between rooms; using it can lead to drawing the wrong patient.

What if the wristband doesn't match the order?
Show answer

Stop and resolve the discrepancy before drawing — never assume.

What is informed consent?
Show answer

Consent given after the patient understands the procedure, its purpose, and risks.

What is expressed consent?
Show answer

Explicit verbal or written agreement — the usual basis for a routine venipuncture.

What is implied consent?
Show answer

Consent inferred from behavior or circumstance — extending an arm, or an emergency.

Who consents for a minor?
Show answer

A parent or legal guardian (the child may also give assent).

What if a patient refuses a draw?
Show answer

Respect the refusal, document it, and notify the nurse or provider.

What does fasting mean?
Show answer

No food or caloric drinks before the test; water is allowed.

Fasting time for a fasting glucose?
Show answer

Typically 8–12 hours (water allowed).

Is a lipid panel still fasting?
Show answer

Non-fasting is now routine; fast only if ordered or for very high triglycerides.

What is the basal state?
Show answer

Early-morning, rested, fasting condition — gives the most reproducible results.

What analytes show diurnal variation?
Show answer

Cortisol and serum iron both peak in the morning — draw early.

What is a glucose tolerance test (GTT)?
Show answer

Fasting baseline draw, then a 75 g glucose load, then timed draws (2-hour value standard).

Why introduce yourself and explain the draw?
Show answer

To gain cooperation and consent and reduce anxiety — a relaxed patient is easier to draw.

How do you accommodate a non-English speaker?
Show answer

Use a qualified interpreter and verify identity and consent through them.

What does the requisition tell you to assemble?
Show answer

The correct tubes, volumes, and any special handling before approaching the patient.

How should a patient be positioned for a draw?
Show answer

Seated or reclined with the arm supported and extended downward.

Why recline an anxious or fainting-prone patient?
Show answer

To prevent injury if they faint (vasovagal syncope).

What is a basal-state draw best for?
Show answer

Establishing reproducible reference results (e.g., fasting metabolic panels).

Why label at the bedside, not later?
Show answer

Labeling away from the patient is a leading cause of mislabeled specimens.

Which patients are at higher fainting risk?
Show answer

Anxious, fasting, young, or previously-fainted patients — recline them.

What is a timed (peak/trough) draw?
Show answer

A draw at a precise time around a medication dose to measure drug levels.

How is patient identity confirmed for an outpatient?
Show answer

Have them state and spell their full name and date of birth against the requisition.

What is the role of the requisition in billing?
Show answer

It captures the ordering provider, diagnosis codes, and insurance for charge capture.

What is the difference between assent and consent for a minor?
Show answer

Consent is the guardian's legal permission; assent is the child's agreement to cooperate.

What is the first thing to check on a requisition?
Show answer

Patient identity and the tests ordered match the patient you are about to draw.

Why confirm the patient is fasting before a fasting glucose?
Show answer

Recent food falsely raises glucose and invalidates the result.

Why ask about latex allergy before a draw?
Show answer

To choose non-latex gloves, tourniquet, and bandage and avoid an allergic reaction.

What is a STAT specimen?
Show answer

One that must be collected and tested immediately because of urgent clinical need.

What is the basal metabolic state ideal for?
Show answer

Fasting reference tests like a basic metabolic panel and fasting glucose.

What is the purpose of the 2-identifier rule?
Show answer

To guarantee the specimen is matched to the correct patient and prevent fatal mix-ups.

What is the phlebotomist's first duty on arrival?
Show answer

Verify the requisition and identify the patient with two identifiers.

What does ICD-10-CM on a requisition represent?
Show answer

The diagnosis code justifying the test for billing and medical necessity.

Why is patient registration accuracy important?
Show answer

Errors cascade into mislabeled specimens and billing/result-matching problems.

Why verify medication/fasting compliance before a draw?
Show answer

Non-compliance (recent food, missed/taken meds) can invalidate the result.

Processing & Handling (42)

Serum vs plasma?
Show answer

Serum = liquid after blood clots (no fibrinogen). Plasma = liquid from anticoagulated blood (has fibrinogen).

What does hemolysis falsely raise?
Show answer

Potassium, LDH, and AST (intracellular contents released from ruptured red cells).

Causes of hemolysis?
Show answer

Needle too small, forceful draw, shaking tubes, prolonged tourniquet, vigorous mixing.

How do you prevent hemolysis?
Show answer

Proper gauge, let alcohol dry, avoid probing, and invert tubes gently — never shake.

How long must serum clot before spinning (SST)?
Show answer

About 30 minutes at room temperature (about 60 minutes for a plain red tube).

Within how long should serum/plasma be separated?
Show answer

About 2 hours of collection, to keep results accurate.

What is centrifugation?
Show answer

Spinning a tube to separate cells from serum or plasma.

What happens if you spin a serum tube too early?
Show answer

Incomplete clotting leaves fibrin strands that interfere with the analyzer.

What is an aliquot?
Show answer

A measured portion poured off from the primary specimen, labeled to match it.

Which specimens are chilled on ice?
Show answer

Ammonia, lactate, and blood gases (ABG) — and run quickly.

Which specimen is protected from light?
Show answer

Bilirubin — collected in an amber tube or wrapped in foil.

Which specimens are kept warm (37°C)?
Show answer

Cold agglutinins and cryoglobulins — cooling makes them precipitate.

What must every tube label include?
Show answer

Patient name, ID, date of birth, and the date and time of collection.

What does QNS mean?
Show answer

Quantity Not Sufficient — too little specimen (or wrong ratio) to test; the sample is rejected.

What is chain of custody?
Show answer

Documented, tamper-evident, unbroken handling of a forensic or drug-screen specimen.

What is a critical value?
Show answer

A result so abnormal it needs immediate provider notification.

Why does serum potassium run higher than plasma?
Show answer

Clotting releases potassium from platelets into the serum.

What is lipemia?
Show answer

Cloudy, fatty-looking serum from high triglycerides (often non-fasting) that can interfere with testing.

What is icterus?
Show answer

Yellow serum caused by a high bilirubin level.

Why must aliquots be labeled to match the primary?
Show answer

To preserve traceability to the correct patient and prevent mix-ups.

What is whole blood?
Show answer

Blood with all cells and plasma still mixed, kept from clotting by an anticoagulant.

When is a specimen re-collected?
Show answer

When it is hemolyzed, clotted, QNS, mislabeled, or otherwise compromised.

What size needle worsens hemolysis?
Show answer

Too small a bore (too high a gauge) forces cells through and ruptures them.

Why is bilirubin collected in an amber tube?
Show answer

Bilirubin breaks down in light, falsely lowering the result.

What does a serum specimen require that plasma does not?
Show answer

Complete clotting before centrifugation.

What does a critical-value report require?
Show answer

Immediate notification of the provider and documented read-back.

Why does a hemolyzed potassium look high?
Show answer

Ruptured red cells release intracellular potassium into the serum.

What is the proper response to a clotted EDTA specimen?
Show answer

Reject and re-collect — clotting invalidates the CBC.

Why warm a cold agglutinin specimen?
Show answer

Cooling makes the agglutinins clump, invalidating the test; keep it at 37°C.

What does 'plasma still contains fibrinogen' allow?
Show answer

Faster turnaround — no clotting wait — for stat chemistry on a heparin tube.

What does a markedly high POC glucose require?
Show answer

Treat it as a critical value — notify the provider immediately.

What is the role of read-back when reporting a result?
Show answer

The receiver repeats the value to confirm it was heard correctly — a patient-safety check.

What happens to glucose if a sample sits without a preservative?
Show answer

Cells consume it (glycolysis), falsely lowering the result — use a gray fluoride tube.

What does an SST gel barrier do?
Show answer

After spinning, the gel forms a stable barrier between serum and cells.

Why is hemolysis worse with a small-bore needle?
Show answer

High shear force as cells pass through the narrow lumen ruptures them.

Why must serum tubes clot fully before spinning?
Show answer

Early spinning leaves fibrin that interferes with the analyzer.

What is a critical low glucose example?
Show answer

A severely low POC glucose — notify the provider immediately as a critical value.

Why label aliquots immediately?
Show answer

To keep every portion traceable to the correct patient and primary tube.

What is the difference between QC and a critical value?
Show answer

QC checks the instrument; a critical value is a dangerously abnormal patient result.

What is the chain-of-custody seal's purpose?
Show answer

A tamper-evident seal proves the specimen was not altered in transit.

What does the LIS do?
Show answer

The Laboratory Information System records, tracks, and reports specimen and result data.

What is the difference between serum and whole blood?
Show answer

Serum is cell-free liquid after clotting; whole blood still contains all the cells.

Special Collections (34)

Capillary order of draw?
Show answer

Blood gas → EDTA FIRST → other additives → serum last (reversed from venipuncture).

What is the yellow (SPS) tube for?
Show answer

Blood cultures. SPS also helps recover organisms.

Reversed capillary order — why EDTA first?
Show answer

A dermal puncture activates platelets fast; collect the cell count before clumping skews it.

Why are blood cultures drawn first?
Show answer

To protect sterility and avoid false-positive contamination from skin flora.

Antiseptic for a blood culture?
Show answer

Chlorhexidine or povidone-iodine (not plain alcohol).

Most common cause of a false-negative blood culture?
Show answer

Drawing too little blood — adequate volume is critical.

How many blood-culture sets are often drawn?
Show answer

Two sets from two different sites.

What is a capillary (dermal) puncture?
Show answer

A fingerstick or infant heelstick used to collect small-volume samples.

Where is an infant heel stick performed?
Show answer

On the medial or lateral plantar (side) surface of the heel — never the center or arch.

Why avoid the center of the heel?
Show answer

To avoid hitting the calcaneus (bone) and causing osteomyelitis.

Why wipe away the first drop in a capillary draw?
Show answer

The first drop contains tissue fluid that would contaminate the sample.

Why not squeeze (milk) a fingerstick?
Show answer

Excessive squeezing hemolyzes the sample and adds tissue fluid.

How does warming the site help a capillary draw?
Show answer

It increases blood flow, improving yield.

What is a newborn screen (PKU) specimen?
Show answer

A dried blood spot on filter paper from a heel stick, collected after the infant has fed.

What does a phlebotomist do for a central-line draw?
Show answer

Assists licensed staff — the phlebotomist does not access the line themselves.

Antiseptic for a blood-alcohol collection?
Show answer

A non-alcohol antiseptic (e.g., povidone-iodine) so it doesn't affect the result.

What does a forensic/drug specimen require?
Show answer

A documented chain of custody with tamper-evident seals.

What is point-of-care (POC) testing?
Show answer

Testing done at the bedside (glucose, Hgb/Hct, urine pregnancy) — run QC first.

First step before running a POC test?
Show answer

Run quality control on the device to confirm it is working.

Standard timing for an OGTT result?
Show answer

The 2-hour value is the standard for a glucose tolerance test.

EDTA position: venipuncture vs capillary?
Show answer

Near LAST in venipuncture (carryover), but FIRST in capillary (platelet clumping).

What does SPS do besides anticoagulate?
Show answer

It helps recover organisms in blood cultures (and inhibits some antibiotics/complement).

What is a tolerance test?
Show answer

A timed series of draws after a challenge (e.g., glucose load) to assess the body's response.

What is the CLSI standard for capillary collection?
Show answer

CLSI GP42 — Collection of Capillary Blood Specimens.

What gauge for a blood donation?
Show answer

A larger bore (lower gauge, e.g., 16–18 G) to protect red cells and speed collection.

What screening precedes a blood donation?
Show answer

Checking hemoglobin/hematocrit, weight, and a health-history questionnaire.

Why are blood cultures sensitive to skin prep?
Show answer

Skin flora carried into the bottle cause false-positive (contaminant) results.

What is the difference between a needle and a lancet?
Show answer

A needle is for venipuncture; a lancet makes a shallow dermal (capillary) puncture.

Why are two blood-culture sites used?
Show answer

To distinguish a true infection from a single-site contaminant.

What is the calcaneus?
Show answer

The heel bone — avoided during an infant heel stick to prevent injury.

Why disinfect culture-bottle tops?
Show answer

To prevent skin/environmental organisms from contaminating the culture.

What is a contaminated blood culture?
Show answer

A false positive from skin flora entering the bottle during collection.

What is a tunneled vs non-tunneled line?
Show answer

Both are central venous catheters; a phlebotomist assists but does not access them independently.

What is a lancet's depth concern in infants?
Show answer

Limited depth (about 2 mm or less) so it doesn't reach the heel bone.

References

  1. 1.National Healthcareer Association (NHA). “Certified Phlebotomy Technician (CPT) Detailed Test Plan.” NHA.org. ↑
  2. 2.Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI). “Collection of Diagnostic Venous Blood Specimens (PRE02/GP41) & Capillary Blood Specimens (GP42).” CLSI.org. ↑
  3. 3.National Institutes of Health / National Library of Medicine. “StatPearls (venipuncture, blood collection tubes, hemolysis, anatomy).” NIH/NLM. ↑
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