Are flashcards effective for the SecurityX (CASP+) exam?

Yes. Flashcards use active recall — retrieving an answer from memory — which research shows is one of the most effective study methods, especially in short, spaced sessions. SecurityX is dense with terminology (cryptography, PKI, zero trust, frameworks, risk formulas), which is exactly what flashcards drill best.

What topics do the SecurityX (CASP+) flashcards cover?

All four CAS-005 domains: Security Engineering & Cryptography (symmetric/asymmetric crypto, PKI, HSM/TPM, post-quantum), Security Architecture (zero trust, segmentation, cloud shared responsibility, DLP), Security Operations (SIEM/SOAR, incident response, forensics, red/blue/purple teams), and Governance, Risk, and Compliance (SLE/ARO/ALE, risk treatment, due diligence, frameworks).

Are the SecurityX (CASP+) flashcards free?

Yes — 100% free, all four study modes, no paywall and no sign-up.

Do these flashcards match the current SecurityX (CASP+) exam blueprint?

Yes. The cards are organized to CompTIA's current CAS-005 exam objectives (CASP+ was rebranded SecurityX in 2024), covering all four scored domains in their official proportions, including applied cryptography, zero trust, and risk management.

Why is CASP+ now called SecurityX?

CompTIA rebranded the CASP+ certification as SecurityX in 2024 as part of its Xpert Series of expert-level credentials. It's the same advanced security practitioner certification; the current exam version is CAS-005, which replaced CAS-004. You'll see both 'CASP+' and 'SecurityX' used interchangeably, so these flashcards cover one and the same exam.

Should I use flashcards alone to pass SecurityX (CASP+)?

No — flashcards are for the terminology and concept layer, and they're excellent for that. But SecurityX is scenario-driven and includes hands-on performance-based questions (PBQs), so pair the cards with our free study guide for depth and the practice test for applied, exam-style questions before test day.

How should I sequence flashcards, the study guide, and the practice test?

Read a module in the study guide, drill that module's flashcards in Type and Quiz modes until recall is fast, then confirm with the practice test across scenario-level questions. Repeat per domain, leading with Security Engineering (31%) and Security Architecture (27%). It's a learn → recall → prove loop.

Encryption using one shared secret key for both encrypting and decrypting — fast, ideal for bulk data (e.g., AES); the challenge is securely distributing the key.

Asymmetric encryption

Encryption using a public/private key pair (e.g., RSA, ECC) — solves key exchange and enables digital signatures, but is slower than symmetric.

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)

The modern, widely trusted symmetric block cipher used for bulk data encryption; supports 128-, 192-, and 256-bit keys.

A widely used asymmetric algorithm based on the difficulty of factoring large numbers; used for key exchange and digital signatures.

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)

Asymmetric cryptography that delivers equivalent strength to RSA with much shorter keys — efficient for mobile and constrained devices.

A key-exchange algorithm that lets two parties derive a shared secret over an insecure channel; the ephemeral variant (DHE/ECDHE) provides forward secrecy.

Cryptographic hash function

A one-way function mapping input of any size to a fixed-length, irreversible digest (e.g., SHA-256) — provides integrity, not confidentiality.

A secure 256-bit cryptographic hash from the SHA-2 family, used for integrity verification and digital signatures.

Hash-based Message Authentication Code — a hash combined with a secret key to provide both integrity and authenticity of a message.

A value created with a sender's private key that proves authenticity, integrity, and non-repudiation; verified with the sender's public key.

Assurance that a party cannot deny having performed an action — provided cryptographically by digital signatures.

Random data added to a password before hashing so identical passwords produce different hashes, defeating precomputed (rainbow-table) attacks.

Deliberately slow password hashing (bcrypt, PBKDF2, Argon2) that increases the cost of brute-force attacks.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

The framework of CAs, RAs, and policies that creates, distributes, validates, and revokes digital certificates binding identities to public keys.

Certificate Authority (CA)

The trusted entity in a PKI that signs and issues digital certificates and can revoke them.

Registration Authority (RA)

The PKI entity that verifies a requester's identity before the CA issues a certificate.

Digital certificate (X.509)

A document binding a verified identity to a public key, signed by a CA so relying parties can trust the key.

Certificate Revocation List (CRL)

A published list of certificates a CA has revoked before their natural expiry.

Online Certificate Status Protocol — a real-time query to check whether a single certificate has been revoked, instead of downloading a full CRL.

A trusted anchor (e.g., a root CA or hardware module) from which a chain of trust is built.

Hardware Security Module (HSM)

A tamper-resistant device that generates, stores, and uses cryptographic keys inside a hardened boundary; keys never leave in plaintext.

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

A chip embedded in a host for secure boot integrity measurement and hardware-backed key storage.

Storing a recoverable copy of cryptographic keys with a trusted third party for business continuity or legal access.

Perfect forward secrecy (PFS)

Use of ephemeral session keys so that compromise of a long-term private key cannot decrypt previously recorded sessions.

TLS (Transport Layer Security)

The protocol that secures data in transit (e.g., HTTPS) using a hybrid of asymmetric key exchange and symmetric encryption.

A protocol providing an encrypted channel for remote login and command execution.

SSH File Transfer Protocol — secure file transfer running over an SSH-encrypted channel.

A protocol suite that authenticates and encrypts IP traffic, commonly used to build VPN tunnels.

Post-quantum cryptography (PQC)

Algorithms designed to resist attacks by large quantum computers, which could break today's RSA and elliptic-curve cryptography.

Designing systems so cryptographic algorithms can be swapped out without re-architecting — essential for the post-quantum transition.

“Harvest now, decrypt later”

The threat of an adversary recording encrypted traffic today to decrypt it once quantum computers mature.

Homomorphic encryption

Encryption that allows computation on ciphertext without decrypting it, so data stays protected during processing.

An attack that tries every possible key or password until the correct one is found; defeated by large key spaces and key stretching.

When two different inputs produce the same hash output; resistance to collisions is why MD5 and SHA-1 are deprecated.

Hard-coding the expected certificate or public key in a client so it rejects any other, even from a valid CA.

A trusted execution environment that isolates sensitive code and keys from the main operating system.

A security model that removes implicit trust based on network location and verifies every request on identity, device, and context — “never trust, always verify.”

The zero-trust tenet of authenticating and authorizing every request on identity, device health, and context — no implicit trust from location.

The zero-trust mindset of designing as if an attacker is already inside — segmenting, encrypting, and monitoring to contain damage.

Layering multiple, overlapping controls (data, app, host, network, perimeter, people) so that if one fails, others still protect the asset.

Dividing a network into isolated zones (VLANs, subnets) so traffic between them passes through controls, limiting lateral movement.

Segmentation pushed down to individual workloads or hosts, enforcing zero-trust policy at a fine granularity.

Your FREE SecurityX (CASP+) Flashcards 2026 – 100+ Cards

Q: How should I study with these SecurityX (CASP+) flashcards?

Lead with the highest-weighted domains — Security Engineering (31%) and Security Architecture (27%) — then drill Security Operations and Governance, Risk and Compliance. Mix the modes: flip to learn, type to test recall, match for speed, and quiz to check yourself before a full practice test.

Realistic, SecurityX (CASP+) exam-style flashcards across all 4 CAS-005 domains — flip, match, type, and quiz yourself.

Master cards to boost your scoreMaster cards to raise your exam readiness score

How well do you know them?

SecurityX (CASP+) Flashcards

Symmetric encryption: Encryption using one shared secret key for both encrypting and decrypting — fast, ideal for bulk data (e.g., AES); the challenge is securely distributing the key.
Asymmetric encryption: Encryption using a public/private key pair (e.g., RSA, ECC) — solves key exchange and enables digital signatures, but is slower than symmetric.
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard): The modern, widely trusted symmetric block cipher used for bulk data encryption; supports 128-, 192-, and 256-bit keys.
RSA: A widely used asymmetric algorithm based on the difficulty of factoring large numbers; used for key exchange and digital signatures.
Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC): Asymmetric cryptography that delivers equivalent strength to RSA with much shorter keys — efficient for mobile and constrained devices.
Diffie-Hellman: A key-exchange algorithm that lets two parties derive a shared secret over an insecure channel; the ephemeral variant (DHE/ECDHE) provides forward secrecy.
Cryptographic hash function: A one-way function mapping input of any size to a fixed-length, irreversible digest (e.g., SHA-256) — provides integrity, not confidentiality.
SHA-256: A secure 256-bit cryptographic hash from the SHA-2 family, used for integrity verification and digital signatures.
HMAC: Hash-based Message Authentication Code — a hash combined with a secret key to provide both integrity and authenticity of a message.
Digital signature: A value created with a sender's private key that proves authenticity, integrity, and non-repudiation; verified with the sender's public key.
Non-repudiation: Assurance that a party cannot deny having performed an action — provided cryptographically by digital signatures.
Salt: Random data added to a password before hashing so identical passwords produce different hashes, defeating precomputed (rainbow-table) attacks.
Key stretching: Deliberately slow password hashing (bcrypt, PBKDF2, Argon2) that increases the cost of brute-force attacks.
Public Key Infrastructure (PKI): The framework of CAs, RAs, and policies that creates, distributes, validates, and revokes digital certificates binding identities to public keys.
Certificate Authority (CA): The trusted entity in a PKI that signs and issues digital certificates and can revoke them.
Registration Authority (RA): The PKI entity that verifies a requester's identity before the CA issues a certificate.
Digital certificate (X.509): A document binding a verified identity to a public key, signed by a CA so relying parties can trust the key.
Certificate Revocation List (CRL): A published list of certificates a CA has revoked before their natural expiry.
OCSP: Online Certificate Status Protocol — a real-time query to check whether a single certificate has been revoked, instead of downloading a full CRL.
Root of trust: A trusted anchor (e.g., a root CA or hardware module) from which a chain of trust is built.
Hardware Security Module (HSM): A tamper-resistant device that generates, stores, and uses cryptographic keys inside a hardened boundary; keys never leave in plaintext.
Trusted Platform Module (TPM): A chip embedded in a host for secure boot integrity measurement and hardware-backed key storage.
Key escrow: Storing a recoverable copy of cryptographic keys with a trusted third party for business continuity or legal access.
Perfect forward secrecy (PFS): Use of ephemeral session keys so that compromise of a long-term private key cannot decrypt previously recorded sessions.
TLS (Transport Layer Security): The protocol that secures data in transit (e.g., HTTPS) using a hybrid of asymmetric key exchange and symmetric encryption.
SSH (Secure Shell): A protocol providing an encrypted channel for remote login and command execution.
SFTP: SSH File Transfer Protocol — secure file transfer running over an SSH-encrypted channel.
IPsec: A protocol suite that authenticates and encrypts IP traffic, commonly used to build VPN tunnels.
Post-quantum cryptography (PQC): Algorithms designed to resist attacks by large quantum computers, which could break today's RSA and elliptic-curve cryptography.
Crypto-agility: Designing systems so cryptographic algorithms can be swapped out without re-architecting — essential for the post-quantum transition.
“Harvest now, decrypt later”: The threat of an adversary recording encrypted traffic today to decrypt it once quantum computers mature.
Homomorphic encryption: Encryption that allows computation on ciphertext without decrypting it, so data stays protected during processing.
Brute-force attack: An attack that tries every possible key or password until the correct one is found; defeated by large key spaces and key stretching.
Collision (hashing): When two different inputs produce the same hash output; resistance to collisions is why MD5 and SHA-1 are deprecated.
Certificate pinning: Hard-coding the expected certificate or public key in a client so it rejects any other, even from a valid CA.
Secure enclave / TEE: A trusted execution environment that isolates sensitive code and keys from the main operating system.
Zero trust: A security model that removes implicit trust based on network location and verifies every request on identity, device, and context — “never trust, always verify.”
Verify explicitly: The zero-trust tenet of authenticating and authorizing every request on identity, device health, and context — no implicit trust from location.
Assume breach: The zero-trust mindset of designing as if an attacker is already inside — segmenting, encrypting, and monitoring to contain damage.
Defense in depth: Layering multiple, overlapping controls (data, app, host, network, perimeter, people) so that if one fails, others still protect the asset.
Network segmentation: Dividing a network into isolated zones (VLANs, subnets) so traffic between them passes through controls, limiting lateral movement.
Microsegmentation: Segmentation pushed down to individual workloads or hosts, enforcing zero-trust policy at a fine granularity.
DMZ (demilitarized zone): A network segment placed between the internal network and untrusted external networks to host public-facing services.
Air gap: A physical control that isolates a system or network with no connection to other networks, used for the most sensitive environments.
VLAN: A virtual LAN that logically separates devices into broadcast domains regardless of physical location, supporting segmentation.
SASE: Secure Access Service Edge — converges networking (SD-WAN) and security (SWG, CASB, ZTNA, FWaaS) into one cloud-delivered service.
ZTNA: Zero Trust Network Access — grants application access per session based on identity and policy, instead of broad network access like a VPN.
CASB: Cloud Access Security Broker — a policy enforcement point between users and cloud services for visibility, DLP, and access control.
Shared responsibility model: The cloud security split where the provider secures the cloud infrastructure and the customer secures their data, identities, and configurations.
IaaS: Infrastructure as a Service — the customer secures the most (OS, apps, data); the provider secures the underlying physical and virtualization layers.
SaaS: Software as a Service — the provider secures almost everything; the customer mainly secures its data and user access.
Data Loss Prevention (DLP): Monitoring and blocking unauthorized movement of sensitive data across network, endpoint, and storage based on classification.
Data classification: Labeling data by sensitivity (e.g., public, internal, confidential, restricted) so the right protections can be applied.
Web Application Firewall (WAF): A control that filters, monitors, and blocks malicious HTTP traffic to and from a web application (layer 7).
Intrusion Prevention System (IPS): Inline monitoring that actively detects and blocks identified threats, unlike an IDS, which only alerts.
Intrusion Detection System (IDS): Monitoring that detects and alerts on suspicious activity but does not block it inline.
Network Access Control (NAC): A control that admits devices to the network only if they meet security policy (patch level, posture, identity).
Virtual Private Network (VPN): An encrypted tunnel that secures data transmission over an unsecured network such as the internet.
Virtualization: Running isolated virtual machines on shared hardware via a hypervisor — used to contain and segregate sensitive workloads.
Secure by design: Building security into a system from the start rather than bolting it on later.
Attack surface: The total set of points where an attacker could attempt to enter or extract data; reducing it is a core architectural goal.
Least functionality: Configuring systems to provide only the services and capabilities required, disabling everything else to shrink the attack surface.
High availability (HA): Architecture that minimizes downtime through redundancy, failover, and load balancing.
Containerization: Packaging an application with its dependencies into an isolated container; secured via image scanning, least privilege, and runtime controls.
SD-WAN: Software-defined WAN — centrally managed, policy-driven wide-area networking, often paired with security in a SASE architecture.
Bastion host: A hardened, exposed host that brokers access into a private network, reducing direct exposure of internal systems.
Identity and Access Management (IAM): The discipline and tools for managing digital identities and controlling their access to resources.
Privileged Access Management (PAM): Controls that secure, monitor, and limit the use of privileged/administrator accounts.
SIEM: Security Information and Event Management — aggregates and correlates logs across the enterprise to detect threats, alert, and support investigations.
SOAR: Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response — automates and coordinates incident response via playbooks and tool integrations.
Security Operations Center (SOC): The team and facility that monitors, detects, and responds to security events around the clock.
Alert fatigue: Desensitization caused by too many alerts (often false positives) from an untuned SIEM, leading analysts to miss real threats.
MITRE ATT&CK: A knowledge base of real-world adversary tactics (goals) and techniques (methods) used to map detections and drive threat hunting.
Cyber Kill Chain: Lockheed Martin's linear 7-stage intrusion model: reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, command & control, actions on objectives.
Indicator of compromise (IoC): A forensic artifact (malicious IP/domain, file hash, registry key, beaconing) that signals a system may have been breached.
Threat hunting: The proactive, hypothesis-driven search for adversaries that have evaded existing detections, before any alert fires.
Threat intelligence: Evidence-based knowledge about threats — actors, their TTPs, and indicators — used to inform defense.
Honeypot: A decoy system designed to lure, detect, and analyze attackers, diverting them from real assets and revealing their techniques.
Red team: An offensive security team that emulates real adversaries to find exploitable gaps before attackers do.
Blue team: A defensive security team that detects, responds to, and hardens against attacks through the SOC.
Purple team: A function that integrates Red and Blue teams so attack findings immediately improve detections.
White team: The group that sets the rules of engagement, referees a security exercise, and scores it impartially.
Penetration test: An authorized simulated attack that exploits vulnerabilities to assess real-world risk and validate defenses.
Incident response lifecycle: NIST's four phases: preparation; detection & analysis; containment, eradication & recovery; post-incident activity.
Containment: Limiting the spread and impact of an incident (e.g., isolating a host) — usually the first action in a live incident.
Eradication: Removing the threat — malware, attacker footholds, compromised accounts — from the environment.
Chain of custody: The documented, unbroken record of who handled evidence and when — what keeps it admissible in legal proceedings.
Order of volatility: Collecting evidence most-volatile-first (memory, network state) before less-volatile data (disk) so nothing is lost.
Forensic image: A bit-for-bit, hash-verified copy of storage made for analysis so the original evidence is never altered.
Legal hold: A directive to preserve relevant data once litigation or an investigation is anticipated.
Root cause analysis: Determining the underlying reason an incident occurred so the same issue can be prevented from recurring.
Signature-based detection: Detection that matches known patterns (hashes, rules, byte sequences) — precise on known threats but blind to novel ones.
Behavioral analytics: Detecting threats by flagging deviations from a baseline of normal user, host, or network behavior.
File Integrity Monitoring (FIM): A control that detects unauthorized changes to critical files by comparing them against a known-good baseline.
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR): Endpoint tooling that records and analyzes activity to detect, investigate, and respond to threats on hosts.
Vulnerability scanner: A tool (e.g., Nessus) that probes systems for known vulnerabilities and misconfigurations.
Dwell time: The period an attacker remains undetected in an environment; threat hunting and detection aim to reduce it.
Playbook: A predefined, repeatable set of response steps for a given incident type, often automated through SOAR.
Log aggregation: Centralizing logs from many sources so they can be correlated and analyzed together (a core SIEM function).
Mean Time to Respond (MTTR): The average time to contain and resolve an incident; lower MTTR signals a more mature operations program.
Risk appetite: The amount and type of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, set by leadership.
Risk tolerance: The acceptable variation around the risk appetite for a specific objective or activity.
Residual risk: The risk that remains after a chosen treatment (mitigate, transfer, accept, avoid) has been applied.
Risk mitigation: Reducing a risk's likelihood or impact by applying controls.
Risk transfer: Shifting the financial impact of a risk to a third party, such as through insurance or contractual indemnity.
Risk acceptance: Choosing to tolerate a risk because it falls within the organization's risk appetite.
Risk avoidance: Eliminating a risk by stopping the activity that creates it.
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE): The monetary loss expected from one occurrence of a risk — asset value × exposure factor.
Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO): How many times per year a given loss event is expected to occur.
Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE): SLE × ARO — the expected yearly loss a control's cost is justified against.
Qualitative risk analysis: Assessing risk with relative ratings (high/medium/low) rather than precise monetary values.
Quantitative risk analysis: Assessing risk with monetary values and probabilities (SLE, ARO, ALE) to justify control spending.
Due diligence: The investigation and ongoing evaluation of risk involved in a decision, such as a vendor or acquisition.
Due care: The reasonable actions and controls a prudent organization implements based on its due-diligence findings.
Separation of duties: Splitting a sensitive task across multiple people so no single person can complete it alone, preventing fraud.
Least privilege: Granting each user or process only the minimum access needed to perform its function.
Job rotation: Periodically moving staff between roles to surface fraud and reduce dependence on any one person.
Mandatory vacation: Requiring staff to take time off so that fraudulent activity dependent on their presence is exposed.
Gap analysis: Comparing the current security state against a desired or required state to identify what's missing.
Business Continuity Plan (BCP): A plan to keep critical business functions running during and after a disruption.
Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP): A plan focused on restoring IT systems and data after a disruptive event — a key component of a BCP.
RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The maximum acceptable time to restore a system or process after a disruption.
RPO (Recovery Point Objective): The maximum acceptable amount of data loss, measured as time, after a disruption.
ISMS: Information Security Management System — the policies and processes (e.g., per ISO 27001) that manage information-security risk.
ISO 27001: An international standard specifying requirements for establishing and operating an ISMS.
NIST Cybersecurity Framework: A voluntary framework organizing cybersecurity activities into core functions (Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, Recover, Govern).
GDPR: General Data Protection Regulation — the EU law protecting the privacy and personal data of EU residents.
PCI DSS: Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard — requirements for protecting cardholder data.
HIPAA: U.S. regulation protecting the privacy and security of health information.
CMMI: Capability Maturity Model Integration — a model for assessing and improving the maturity of organizational processes.
ITIL: A framework of best practices for delivering IT services effectively and efficiently.
Data Protection Officer (DPO): A role responsible for overseeing an organization's compliance with data-protection laws such as GDPR.
Third-party / vendor risk assessment: Evaluating a vendor's security posture and compliance before and during a business relationship.
Software Bill of Materials (SBOM): A machine-readable inventory of every component and dependency in software, key to managing supply-chain risk.
Risk register: A documented record of identified risks, their assessment, owners, and treatment status.
Compensating control: An alternative safeguard used when the primary control cannot be applied, to reduce residual risk.

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By Career EmployerUpdated Jun 20, 2026

100+ free SecurityX (CASP+) flashcards — 4 ways to study

SecurityX (CASP+) Flashcard of the Day

The classic card. Do you know this one?

Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of SecurityX (CASP+) cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the four official CAS-005 domains, so you study exactly what the exam tests.^[2] Pair them with our free practice test and study guide.

CompTIA SecurityX (CASP+) is one of the 14 CompTIA certifications — explore our CompTIA flashcards to compare and prep across the whole family.

SecurityX (CASP+) Flashcard Study Modes

Most flashcard sites give you one thing: a card to flip. Ours has four modes so you can both learn the material and prove you know it — the difference between recognizing an answer and recalling it under exam pressure.

Flip (Study) — the classic card. Flip term ↔ definition, shuffle the deck, and mark each card “Got it” or “Still learning.”
Match (Game) — a timed game: pair each term to its definition as fast as you can. Great for cementing crypto primitives, frameworks, and risk formulas.
Type (Recall) — read the definition and type the term. Typing forces true active recall instead of passive recognition.
Quiz (Test) — multiple-choice questions generated from the cards, so you self-test exactly like exam day.

Free CompTIA SecurityX (CASP+) flashcards from Career Employer — active recall for the CAS-005 exam

Why Flashcards Work for SecurityX (CASP+)

Flashcards aren’t busywork — they’re built on active recall: pulling an answer out of memory strengthens it far more than re-reading notes. Pair that with spacing — short sessions across several days rather than one cram — and you retain more in less time.

SecurityX (CASP+) is dense with terminology — cryptographic primitives, PKI, zero trust and segmentation, the incident-response lifecycle, security teams, and the SLE/ARO/ALE risk formulas.^[2] Spaced flashcards are the most efficient way to keep it all fresh. Used alongside our practice test and study guide, they turn review time into measurable progress.

SecurityX (CASP+) Flashcards by Domain

The cards are organized by the four official CAS-005 domains. Drill the highest-weighted ones first — Security Engineering and Security Architecture make up nearly 60% of the exam:^[2]

SecurityX (CASP+) flashcards by domain and weight
Domain	Exam weight
Security Engineering & Cryptography	31%
Security Architecture	27%
Security Operations	22%
Governance, Risk, and Compliance	20%

How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards

Lead with the heavy domains. Security Engineering (31%) and Security Architecture (27%) are nearly 60% of the exam — start there.
Use Type and Quiz, not just Flip. Recognizing the right answer is easy; recalling and choosing it is the real test.
Drill your weakest domain. Pick a single domain deck and grind it until the Match time drops and the Quiz score climbs.
Then prove it. When the cards feel easy, confirm with a full practice test across complex, scenario-level questions before exam day.

SecurityX (CASP+) Flashcards FAQ

Hundreds of free SecurityX (CASP+) flashcards, organized across all four CAS-005 domains — Security Engineering, Security Architecture, Security Operations, and Governance, Risk, and Compliance. They're free with no account required.

References

1.CompTIA. “CompTIA SecurityX (CASP+) Certification.” comptia.org. ↑
2.CompTIA. “SecurityX (CAS-005) Exam Objectives.” comptia.org. ↑
3.National Institute of Standards and Technology. “SP 800-207, Zero Trust Architecture.” csrc.nist.gov. ↑

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