Click Start Test above to launch a full-length Kaplan Nursing Entrance practice test weighted like the real KNAT, or drill a single section — Reading, Math, Writing, or Science. Every question includes a clear explanation so you learn the reasoning, not just the answer.
The Kaplan Nursing Admission Test (KNAT) is the nursing-school admission test that many LPN and RN programs require to gauge whether an applicant has the foundational academic skills to succeed.
It is administered by Kaplan and delivered as a proctored, computer-based, multiple-choice test, usually at the nursing program or a Kaplan testing site.[1] This is the admission test itself, not a Kaplan prep course.
These practice questions follow the published KNAT structure, mirroring the four sections and their question counts so you can build readiness across every area.[1] To round out your prep, pair these with our free study guide, flashcards, and cheat sheet.
Requirements differ by school — the KNAT has no single national passing score, so always verify your target program's required scores before you test.
KNAT at a Glance
| Detail | Kaplan Nursing Entrance (KNAT) |
|---|---|
| Sections | 4 timed sections: Reading, Math, Writing, Science |
| Questions | ~91 multiple choice (Reading 22 + Writing 21 + Math 28 + Science 20) |
| Question type | Multiple choice (proctored, computer-based) |
| Time limit | ~165 minutes total (2 hr 45 min), timed by section |
| Passing score | No national pass mark — each nursing program sets its own (composite commonly ~65%) |
| Administered by | Kaplan (often at the nursing program or a Kaplan testing site) |
| Cost | Set by the school/testing site (often ~$25-$70); verify with your program |
| Acronym | KNAT — Kaplan Nursing Admission Test |
What Is on the KNAT?
The KNAT has 91 multiple-choice questions split across four timed sections: Reading (22 questions), Math (28 questions), Writing (21 questions), and Science (20 questions). Math is the largest section and Science the smallest.[1]
Each section is timed on its own and scored as its own percentage. Our full practice test mirrors these proportions so the mix feels like the real KNAT:

Practice Questions by Section
Use Start Test for a full weighted KNAT simulation, or open the hub and pick a single section to drill your weak spot. After each full exam, your results show a per-section breakdown so you know exactly where to focus — most applicants need the most reps on Math and Reading.
Who Takes the KNAT?
The KNAT is taken by prospective nursing students applying to LPN or RN programs that use it for admission and placement decisions.[1] It is not a license exam and has no clinical-experience prerequisite.
Whether you must take it — and which scores you need — is set entirely by the nursing program you are applying to. Some programs require the KNAT, others accept the TEAS or HESI instead, and some accept any of several entrance exams.
Because each school sets its own admission policy, confirm with your target program that the KNAT is the required exam, along with any registration windows and deadlines, before you schedule.
How Do You Register for the KNAT?
You typically register for the KNAT through the nursing program or testing site that administers it, rather than through a single national portal.[1] Many schools assign a Kaplan testing link or a scheduled session for applicants.
The fee is set by the school or testing site — often a small testing fee in the $25 to $70 range, and sometimes covered for the program's students. Verify the exact cost and payment method with your program before you book.
After you register you receive instructions for your proctored, computer-based session. Bring the identification your program requires, and confirm whether the test is taken on campus or remotely.
How Is the KNAT Scored?
Your KNAT results report an individual percentage score for each of the four sections — Reading, Math, Writing, and Science — plus a composite, or average, score for the whole test.[1]
There is no single national passing score. A passing composite commonly falls around 65 percent (roughly 60 to 70 percent), but each nursing program sets its own required scores and some also require a minimum in specific sections.
Because the same score report can be treated very differently from school to school, the only reliable benchmark is your target program's published admission requirements. Check those before you test, and aim to score consistently high across all four sections.
How Hard Is the KNAT?
The KNAT is demanding because it is timed by section and spans four very different skill areas in a single sitting — reading comprehension, math, writing mechanics, and science.[1] The challenge is staying sharp across all four within the section time limits.
The largest section, Math at 28 questions, rewards comfortable arithmetic, fractions, ratios, and basic algebra worked quickly and without leaning on a calculator.
Reading and Writing reward strong comprehension and command of grammar and mechanics, while Science tests core biology, chemistry, and basic physical-science concepts — so balanced preparation across every section matters more than mastering any one.
The takeaway: drill until you’re consistently scoring above your target program’s required percentage on full-length, section-timed practice — especially Math and Reading — before you book your KNAT.
What to Expect on Test Day
Plan to arrive early to check in for your proctored session — bring the identification your program requires, and confirm whether you test on campus or remotely.[1] You’ll take the test on a computer with no outside notes.
You then work through 91 multiple-choice questions across four sections — Reading, Writing, Math, and Science — each with its own time limit, for about 165 minutes total. When a section’s clock runs out, that section closes.
Your results report a percentage for each section plus a composite score. Having simulated the section-by-section timing with practice tests makes the real clock feel routine.
How to Use This KNAT Practice Test
- Recreate exam conditions. Take the full test timed, with no notes.[1]
- Diagnose, then drill. Use a full KNAT simulation to find weak sections, then drill them.
- Prioritize Math and Reading. They’re the two largest sections and the biggest score-movers.
- Learn the why. Read every explanation — understanding beats memorizing.
- Know your program’s target. Check your school’s required scores and aim above them.
Why the KNAT Matters
For many nursing programs, the KNAT is a gatekeeper — a strong score helps prove you have the foundational reading, math, writing, and science skills to handle the rigor of nursing school.[1] Because programs set their own cutoffs and seats are competitive, scoring well can be the difference between an offer and a waitlist. These free KNAT practice tests are the most efficient way to get there.
Conclusion
Doing well on the KNAT comes down to balanced strength across four sections — reading comprehension, math, writing mechanics, and science — under section time limits. Use this free Kaplan Nursing Entrance practice test to find your weak sections, drill them to mastery, and pair it with our free study guide, flashcards, and cheat sheet. Start with one full-length practice test to find your weakest section, then drill that section first.
KNAT Practice Test FAQ
The Kaplan Nursing Admission Test (KNAT) is a nursing-school admission test that many LPN and RN programs require as part of their application. It is a proctored, computer-based, multiple-choice test that measures the foundational reading, math, writing, and science skills programs use to predict success in nursing school. It is the admission test itself — not a Kaplan prep course.
The KNAT has 91 multiple-choice questions across four timed sections, with a total testing time of about 165 minutes (2 hours and 45 minutes). The sections are Reading (22 questions / 45 minutes), Writing (21 questions / 45 minutes), Math (28 questions / 45 minutes), and Science (20 questions / 30 minutes). Each section is timed separately.
The KNAT has four sections: Reading (22 questions), Math (28 questions), Writing (21 questions), and Science (20 questions). Math is the largest section, followed by Reading, Writing, and Science. Each section is scored as its own percentage, and you also receive a composite (average) score.
There is no single national passing score for the KNAT. Each nursing program sets its own required scores, and a passing composite commonly falls around 65 percent (roughly 60 to 70 percent), though some schools also require a minimum in specific sections. Always check your target program's published admission requirements, because the same score report can be treated very differently from school to school.
Your KNAT results report an individual percentage score for each of the four sections — Reading, Math, Writing, and Science — plus a composite (average) score for the whole test. Programs may review the composite, individual section scores, or both. Because there is no universal cutoff, your target program's stated minimums determine whether your score is competitive.
There is no single national fee — the cost is set by the nursing program or testing site administering it, and many schools charge a small testing fee (often in the $25 to $70 range) while some cover it for their students. Confirm the exact fee with your program or testing center, as it varies by location and changes over time.
Retake rules are set by each nursing program, not by Kaplan nationally. Some programs allow a retake after a waiting period such as 30 days, while others limit you to one attempt per application period or two to three attempts total. Contact your program's admissions office for its specific retake policy before you test.
The KNAT is challenging mainly because it is timed by section and covers four very different skill areas in a single sitting — strong reading comprehension, arithmetic and algebra without heavy reliance on a calculator, grammar and writing mechanics, and core science. The most effective preparation is repeated, section-timed practice across all four areas, reading every explanation so you understand the reasoning behind each answer.
Kaplan Nursing Entrance question bank
All 248 questions, by domain
A reference copy of every question in this practice test. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To practice with scoring, timing and your readiness score, use Start Test at the top of the page.
Reading (60)
Passage: "The octopus is among the most intelligent invertebrates on Earth. It can open jars, solve mazes, and even recognize individual human keepers, abilities once thought to belong only to animals with backbones." What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.Octopuses are about as bright as other invertebrates
- B.Octopuses are deeply attached to their human keepers
- C.Octopuses can recognize each of their human handlers
- D.Octopuses are surprisingly intelligent invertebrates
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Correct answer: Octopuses are surprisingly intelligent invertebrates
The passage calls the octopus one of the most intelligent invertebrates and lists skills once credited only to animals with backbones, so its main idea is that octopuses are surprisingly intelligent invertebrates. The claim that octopuses are about as bright as other invertebrates contradicts 'among the most intelligent.' That octopuses can recognize each of their human handlers is one supporting example, not the main idea, and the claim that octopuses are deeply attached to their human keepers reads an emotional bond into a passage that mentions only recognition.
Passage: "The Sahara Desert was not always a sea of sand. Thousands of years ago, rock paintings show that the region held lakes, grasslands, and herds of grazing animals before a shifting climate dried it out." According to the passage, what evidence shows the Sahara was once green?
- A.Ancient rock layers showing dried lakes and sand dunes
- B.Records of a shifting climate over thousands of years
- C.Ancient rock paintings showing lakes and grazing herds
- D.Climate studies of the grasslands that once grew there
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Correct answer: Ancient rock paintings showing lakes and grazing herds
The passage says rock paintings show that the region once held lakes, grasslands, and herds of grazing animals, so the evidence is ancient rock paintings showing lakes and grazing herds. Ancient rock layers showing dried lakes and sand dunes swap the paintings for geology the passage never mentions. Records of a shifting climate over thousands of years and climate studies of the grasslands that once grew there are also not cited; the passage names the climate change as the cause of the drying, not as the evidence of the green past.
Passage: "When the power failed across the entire building, the lab technician immediately moved the temperature-sensitive samples into the backup cooler and started the emergency generator before anyone had to ask." What can the reader most reasonably infer about the technician?
- A.The technician acted promptly and took the initiative
- B.The technician had been told to protect the samples
- C.The technician acted rashly and ignored the lab rules
- D.The technician cared more for the samples than safety
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Correct answer: The technician acted promptly and took the initiative
Moving the samples to the backup cooler and starting the emergency generator immediately, 'before anyone had to ask,' shows that the technician acted promptly and took the initiative. The idea that the technician had been told to protect the samples contradicts 'before anyone had to ask.' The idea that the technician acted rashly and ignored the lab rules is unsupported, since both actions were sensible emergency steps, and the idea that the technician cared more for the samples than safety is unsupported, since nothing in the passage puts anyone at risk.
Passage: "The mayor's plan to widen the highway was met with skepticism by residents, who doubted that the project would ease the traffic problems she promised to solve." As used in this passage, the word "skepticism" most nearly means:
- A.Distrust and disbelief
- B.Disinterest and apathy
- C.Curiosity and interest
- D.Resentment and anger
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Correct answer: Distrust and disbelief
The residents 'doubted that the project would ease the traffic problems,' so skepticism here means distrust and disbelief toward the mayor's promise. Disinterest and apathy would mean the residents did not care, yet they held a clear opinion about the plan. Curiosity and interest suggest open-minded wondering rather than doubt, and resentment and anger describe hostility that the sentence never mentions.
Passage: "Lightning is far hotter than the surface of the sun. As a bolt tears through the air, it heats the surrounding gas so suddenly that the air expands with explosive force, producing the sound we call thunder." What is the author's main purpose in this passage?
- A.To describe the strange colors of the storm sky
- B.To explain how the sound of thunder is produced
- C.To warn readers about the dangers of lightning
- D.To show that lightning is hotter than the surface of the sun
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Correct answer: To explain how the sound of thunder is produced
The passage traces a chain of cause and effect: the bolt heats the air so suddenly that it expands explosively, 'producing the sound we call thunder.' Its purpose is therefore to explain how the sound of thunder is produced. To show that lightning is hotter than the surface of the sun covers only the opening comparison, which leads into the main point. To describe the strange colors of the storm sky brings in a detail the passage never mentions, and to warn readers about the dangers of lightning is not the aim, since the passage gives no safety advice.
Passage: "The town council voted to install solar-powered streetlights along the main avenue. Supporters pointed to lower electricity bills, while opponents questioned whether the lights would stay bright through the long, cloudy winters." Which detail is directly stated in the passage?
- A.The council soon voted to take down the lights after one cloudy winter
- B.The council postponed its vote on the solar lights until spring
- C.Supporters noted the solar lights would raise electricity bills
- D.Opponents doubted the lights would stay bright in cloudy winters
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Correct answer: Opponents doubted the lights would stay bright in cloudy winters
The passage states that opponents 'questioned whether the lights would stay bright through the long, cloudy winters,' so opponents doubted the lights would stay bright in cloudy winters. The claim that supporters noted the solar lights would raise electricity bills reverses the supporters' point that the lights would lower bills. The claim that the council postponed its vote on the solar lights until spring contradicts the statement that the council voted to install them, and the claim that the council soon voted to take down the lights after one cloudy winter turns the opponents' worry into an event the passage never describes.
Passage: "The young pianist had practiced for months, yet as she walked onstage her hands shook and she nearly forgot the opening notes. Once her fingers touched the keys, however, the music came back to her." What can be inferred about the pianist before she began playing?
- A.She felt calm and confident in front of the audience
- B.She felt nervous even after months of preparation
- C.She had not practiced the piece for long enough
- D.She was more afraid of the audience than of the music
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Correct answer: She felt nervous even after months of preparation
Her hands shook and she nearly forgot the opening notes as she walked onstage, so she felt nervous even after months of preparation. The claim that she felt calm and confident in front of the audience contradicts her shaking hands. The idea that she had not practiced the piece for long enough ignores the months of practice the passage mentions, and the idea that she was more afraid of the audience than of the music is never stated; the passage gives no cause for her nerves.
Passage: "The scientist's claims were met with scrutiny from her peers, who carefully examined her data and repeated her experiments before accepting the results." As used here, "scrutiny" most nearly means:
- A.Close inspection
- B.Open criticism
- C.Public attention
- D.Cautious approval
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Correct answer: Close inspection
Her peers 'carefully examined her data and repeated her experiments,' so scrutiny here means close inspection. Open criticism is a near miss, but the peers checked the work rather than attacking it. Public attention is another sense of the word that does not fit peers repeating experiments, and cautious approval skips the checking; the peers accepted the results only after their review.
Passage: "Wind turbines turn the energy of moving air into electricity. As the wind pushes against the angled blades, they spin a shaft connected to a generator, which produces a steady current for homes and businesses." What is the central idea of this passage?
- A.Wind turbines use electricity from the existing grid
- B.Wind turbines save electricity for homes and offices
- C.Wind turbines supply electricity for the lowest cost
- D.Wind turbines convert moving air into electricity
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Correct answer: Wind turbines convert moving air into electricity
Both sentences describe how the push of the wind spins the blades, shaft, and generator to produce current, so the central idea is that wind turbines convert moving air into electricity. The claim that wind turbines use electricity from the existing grid reverses the direction of the flow; the turbines supply current rather than consume it. The claim that wind turbines save electricity for homes and offices describes storage, which the passage does not mention, and the claim that wind turbines supply electricity for the lowest cost makes a price comparison the passage never makes.
Passage: "The empty playground at dusk seemed to hold its breath. Swings drifted with no riders, a forgotten ball rested in the grass, and the silence pressed in where laughter had once rung out." What is the most likely reason the author describes the playground this way?
- A.To recall the happy laughter of children at play
- B.To warn that the town neglected its playground
- C.To build a sense of fear and danger at nightfall
- D.To create a lonely mood of quiet and stillness
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Correct answer: To create a lonely mood of quiet and stillness
Swings drifting with no riders, a forgotten ball, and silence where laughter once rang out all describe emptiness, so the author's aim is to create a lonely mood of quiet and stillness. To recall the happy laughter of children at play is too narrow; the laughter is mentioned only as something now missing. To warn that the town neglected its playground reads blame into the scene that the passage never states, and to build a sense of fear and danger at nightfall misjudges the tone, which is quiet and sad rather than threatening.
Passage: "In the nineteenth century, lighthouse keepers lived isolated lives, often on rocky islands far from town. They kept the lamp burning every night, recorded the weather, and rescued sailors when ships ran aground nearby." According to the passage, what was one duty of nineteenth-century lighthouse keepers?
- A.Repairing the ships that had run aground
- B.Guiding ships into the harbor safely
- C.Warning the distant towns of bad weather
- D.Keeping records of the weather
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Correct answer: Keeping records of the weather
The passage lists the keepers' duties as keeping the lamp burning, recording the weather, and rescuing sailors, so keeping records of the weather was one of them. Warning the distant towns of bad weather is a near miss; the keepers recorded the weather, but the passage never says they sent warnings. Repairing the ships that had run aground misreads the rescue duty, since the keepers saved the sailors, not the vessels, and guiding ships into the harbor safely is not mentioned among their tasks.
Passage: "The grocery store advertised that its produce was locally grown, yet the stickers on the apples listed a country thousands of miles away." What conclusion does the passage most strongly suggest?
- A.The local farms may be exporting fruit
- B.The marketing claims may be inaccurate
- C.The local buyers may like foreign food
- D.The imported apples may be far cheaper
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Correct answer: The marketing claims may be inaccurate
The store advertised locally grown produce, yet the apple stickers named a country thousands of miles away, so the marketing claims may be inaccurate. The idea that the local farms may be exporting fruit reverses the direction of the trade; the stickers show the apples came from far away. The ideas that the local buyers may like foreign food and that the imported apples may be far cheaper bring in shopper tastes and prices, which the passage never discusses.
Passage: "After weeks of negotiation, the two nations reached an amicable agreement, shaking hands and pledging to cooperate on trade in the years ahead." As used in this passage, "amicable" most nearly means:
- A.Formal and official
- B.Lasting and permanent
- C.Reluctant and grudging
- D.Friendly and cordial
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Correct answer: Friendly and cordial
The nations shook hands and pledged to cooperate, so an amicable agreement is friendly and cordial. Formal and official describes the setting of a treaty, not the goodwill the handshake shows. Lasting and permanent confuses the word with the plans for 'the years ahead,' and reluctant and grudging contradicts the warm handshake that ended the talks.
Passage: "The printing press, introduced in Europe in the fifteenth century, made it possible to produce books quickly and cheaply. Before its invention, each book had to be copied by hand, a slow process that kept reading material rare and costly." What is the main point of this passage?
- A.The printing press reached Europe in the fifteenth century
- B.The printing press put most hand copyists out of a job
- C.The printing press kept reading material rare and costly
- D.The printing press made books faster and cheaper to print
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Correct answer: The printing press made books faster and cheaper to print
The passage contrasts slow, costly hand copying with the quick, cheap production that printing allowed. Its main point is that the printing press made books faster and cheaper to print. "The printing press reached Europe in the fifteenth century" is a supporting detail, not the main point. "The printing press put most hand copyists out of a job" is a claim the passage never makes. "The printing press kept reading material rare and costly" reverses the passage, which says hand copying did that.
Passage: "The supervisor offered only terse replies during the interview, answering each question with a single word and volunteering nothing more." As used here, "terse" most nearly means:
- A.Short and direct
- B.Vague and evasive
- C.Shy and hesitant
- D.Calm and polite
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Correct answer: Short and direct
The supervisor answered 'each question with a single word,' so terse replies are short and direct. Vague and evasive is a near miss, but one-word answers can be perfectly clear; the passage describes their length, not any dodging. Shy and hesitant reads an emotion into the replies that the passage never mentions, and calm and polite describes manner rather than the brevity the sentence stresses.
Passage: "Bamboo is one of the fastest-growing plants in the world. Some species can grow nearly a meter in a single day, and because it regrows so quickly after harvest, it is considered a renewable building material." Which statement is directly supported by the passage?
- A.Bamboo is slow to regrow and must be replanted often
- B.Most bamboo plants gain nearly a full meter in a day
- C.Bamboo grows fast and quickly regrows once harvested
- D.Bamboo is the fastest grower among the world's plants
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Correct answer: Bamboo grows fast and quickly regrows once harvested
The passage says bamboo is one of the fastest-growing plants and 'regrows so quickly after harvest' that it counts as renewable, which directly supports that bamboo grows fast and quickly regrows once harvested. The claim that bamboo is slow to regrow and must be replanted often contradicts that quick regrowth. The claim that most bamboo plants gain nearly a full meter in a day stretches 'some species' to most of them, and the claim that bamboo is the fastest grower among the world's plants overstates 'one of the fastest-growing.'
Passage: "As the floodwaters rose past the porch steps, the family hurried to carry their photo albums and important papers to the attic, glancing nervously out the windows." What can the reader infer about the family's situation?
- A.They expected a rescue boat to arrive within hours
- B.They valued their keepsakes above their own safety
- C.They feared the rising water would flood the house
- D.They had survived many floods like this one before
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Correct answer: They feared the rising water would flood the house
The family hurried to carry photo albums and papers to the attic while glancing nervously out the windows as the water rose past the porch steps, so they feared the rising water would flood the house. The idea that they expected a rescue boat to arrive within hours is unsupported, because no rescue is mentioned. The idea that they valued their keepsakes above their own safety reads too much into what they chose to carry. The idea that they had survived many floods like this one before is not supported and does not fit their nervous hurry.
Passage: "Coral bleaching occurs when ocean water becomes too warm. The stressed coral expels the tiny algae that live inside it and give it color, leaving the coral pale and far more likely to die." What is the author's primary purpose?
- A.To describe the life cycle of the tiny algae in corals
- B.To argue that people should act to protect coral reefs
- C.To explain what causes coral bleaching and its effects
- D.To contrast coral in warm seas with coral in cool seas
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Correct answer: To explain what causes coral bleaching and its effects
The passage gives the cause of bleaching, water that is too warm, and its effects, pale coral that is far more likely to die, so its purpose is to explain what causes coral bleaching and its effects. To describe the life cycle of the tiny algae in corals goes beyond the passage, which mentions the algae only as the source of the coral's color. To argue that people should act to protect coral reefs gives the passage a persuasive aim, but it calls for no action. To contrast coral in warm seas with coral in cool seas invents a comparison, since cool-water coral is never discussed.
Passage: "The hospital introduced a new electronic record system. At first, nurses complained that it slowed them down, but within a few weeks most agreed it saved time and reduced errors." What can be concluded about the new system over time?
- A.Nurses praised it as a time saver from the first day
- B.Nurses found it saved time but led to more errors
- C.Nurses came to value it after the early complaints
- D.Nurses dropped the system after a few weeks of trials
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Correct answer: Nurses came to value it after the early complaints
Nurses at first complained that the system slowed them down, but within a few weeks most agreed it saved time and reduced errors, so nurses came to value it after the early complaints. The claim that nurses praised it as a time saver from the first day ignores those early complaints. The claim that nurses found it saved time but led to more errors contradicts the statement that it reduced errors, and the claim that nurses dropped the system after a few weeks of trials reverses what happened after those weeks.
Passage: "The Wright brothers achieved the first powered flight in 1903, but their aircraft stayed aloft for only twelve seconds. From that brief moment grew an industry that would one day carry millions of passengers across oceans." According to the passage, how long did the first powered flight last?
- A.Twelve seconds
- B.Twelve hours
- C.Nineteen seconds
- D.Nineteen hours
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Correct answer: Twelve seconds
The passage states that the aircraft 'stayed aloft for only twelve seconds,' so the first powered flight lasted twelve seconds. Twelve hours keeps the right number with the wrong unit. Nineteen seconds and nineteen hours take the number from the year 1903 rather than from the length of the flight.
Passage: "The novelist was known for her prolific output, publishing two or three books every year for nearly three decades." As used in this passage, "prolific" most nearly means:
- A.Celebrated
- B.Profitable
- C.Persistent
- D.Productive
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Correct answer: Productive
Publishing two or three books a year for nearly three decades describes a large output, so "prolific" here means productive. Celebrated echoes "was known for," but the word describes how much she wrote, not her fame. Profitable sounds similar to "prolific," but the sentence says nothing about earnings. Persistent captures how long she kept writing, not how much she produced.
Passage: "People once believed that the heart, not the brain, was the center of thought and emotion. Only through centuries of careful study did scientists come to understand the brain's true role." What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.People once saw the heart as the center of thought
- B.Scientists found it was the heart that governs emotion
- C.Careful study led scientists to doubt the brain's role
- D.Understanding the brain's role took centuries of study
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Correct answer: Understanding the brain's role took centuries of study
The passage moves from an old belief about the heart to the scientists who, 'only through centuries of careful study,' came to understand the brain's role, so its main idea is that understanding the brain's role took centuries of study. That people once saw the heart as the center of thought is the starting detail, not the main idea. The claim that scientists found it was the heart that governs emotion turns the old belief into a finding, and the claim that careful study led scientists to doubt the brain's role reverses the passage, in which study revealed the brain's true role.
Passage: "The trail guide warned the group to stay on the marked path. Just beyond the ropes, she explained, the cliff edge was hidden by thick brush, and the rock could crumble without warning." Why does the guide warn the group to stay on the path?
- A.Because the cliff edge is hidden and the rock is unstable
- B.Because the brush beyond the ropes is full of rare plants
- C.Because the marked path is the fastest way to the cliff
- D.Because the thick brush is home to snakes and wild animals
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Correct answer: Because the cliff edge is hidden and the rock is unstable
The guide explains that just beyond the ropes the cliff edge is hidden by thick brush and the rock could crumble without warning, so she warns the group because the cliff edge is hidden and the rock is unstable. The reason 'because the brush beyond the ropes is full of rare plants' and the reason 'because the thick brush is home to snakes and wild animals' both misread the brush, which matters only because it hides the cliff edge. The reason 'because the marked path is the fastest way to the cliff' is never mentioned; the guide talks about danger, not speed.
Passage: "The committee praised the proposal for being concise, noting that it conveyed every necessary point in just two pages without a single wasted word." As used here, "concise" most nearly means:
- A.Formal and polished
- B.Quick and rushed
- C.Compact and clear
- D.Bold and persuasive
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Correct answer: Compact and clear
The proposal 'conveyed every necessary point in just two pages without a single wasted word,' so concise here means compact and clear. Quick and rushed is a near miss, but a rushed proposal would not cover every necessary point. Formal and polished and bold and persuasive describe style and force, while the committee praised the proposal for its economy of words.
Passage: "Antarctica holds about seventy percent of the world's fresh water, locked away in a massive ice sheet. Despite all this water, the continent is technically a desert, because almost no precipitation falls there each year." Which detail is directly stated in the passage?
- A.Antarctica holds about seventy percent of Earth's fresh water
- B.The continent's extreme cold is what makes Antarctica a desert
- C.Antarctica's massive ice sheet is shrinking faster each decade
- D.Antarctica is the largest desert on Earth by total land area
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Correct answer: Antarctica holds about seventy percent of Earth's fresh water
The first sentence states that Antarctica holds about seventy percent of Earth's fresh water, locked in its ice sheet. The claim that the continent's extreme cold is what makes Antarctica a desert gives the wrong reason; the passage says it is a desert because almost no precipitation falls. The claim that Antarctica's massive ice sheet is shrinking faster each decade is never mentioned; the passage describes the ice sheet but says nothing about how it changes. The claim that Antarctica is the largest desert on Earth by total land area is never stated; the passage calls it a desert but does not rank deserts by size.
Passage: "The customer studied the contract for a long time, asked the salesman several pointed questions, and finally set down the pen without signing." What can the reader infer about the customer's decision?
- A.The customer put off the final choice for now
- B.The customer turned down the offer for good
- C.The customer did not understand the salesman
- D.The customer was certain the salesman was lying
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Correct answer: The customer put off the final choice for now
The customer studied the contract, asked pointed questions, and set down the pen without signing, so the customer put off the final choice for now. The idea that the customer turned down the offer for good goes too far; not signing yet is not a final refusal. The idea that the customer did not understand the salesman clashes with the pointed questions, which suggest close understanding, and the idea that the customer was certain the salesman was lying reads a suspicion into the scene that the passage never states.
Passage: "Sleep is essential for memory. While we rest, the brain replays and strengthens the connections formed during the day, helping us hold on to what we have learned." What is the author's main purpose in this passage?
- A.To explain how the brain forms new connections
- B.To explain how sleep makes memories stronger
- C.To explain why students should get more sleep
- D.To explain how the brain creates our dreams
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Correct answer: To explain how sleep makes memories stronger
The passage says that during rest the brain replays and strengthens the day's connections, helping us hold on to what we learned, so its purpose is to explain how sleep makes memories stronger. To explain how the brain forms new connections misreads the process; the connections form during the day and are strengthened in sleep. To explain why students should get more sleep assigns a persuasive goal the passage does not have, and to explain how the brain creates our dreams mistakes 'replays' for dreaming, which the passage never mentions.
Passage: "In ancient Egypt, the yearly flooding of the Nile spread rich silt across the fields. This natural fertilizer allowed farmers to grow abundant crops and made the region one of the most productive in the ancient world." According to the passage, why was the flooding of the Nile beneficial?
- A.It washed soil away from the fields to the sea
- B.It left fertile silt on the farmland each year
- C.It moved water out to farms far from the river
- D.It drowned the insects that were eating plants
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Correct answer: It left fertile silt on the farmland each year
The passage says the yearly flood 'spread rich silt across the fields' and that this natural fertilizer let farmers grow abundant crops, so it left fertile silt on the farmland each year. 'It washed soil away from the fields to the sea' reverses what the flood did, because it brought rich soil onto the fields. 'It moved water out to farms far from the river' names an irrigation benefit the passage never mentions. 'It drowned the insects that were eating plants' names a pest-control benefit that is also absent from the passage.
Passage: "The reviewer called the film tedious, complaining that its three-hour runtime dragged through scene after scene in which almost nothing happened." As used in this passage, "tedious" most nearly means:
- A.Slow and unhurried
- B.Dull and wearisome
- C.Somber and serious
- D.Confused and vague
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Correct answer: Dull and wearisome
The reviewer complained that the three-hour film 'dragged through scene after scene in which almost nothing happened,' so tedious here means dull and wearisome. Slow and unhurried is a near miss, but 'unhurried' sounds neutral or even pleasant, and the reviewer was complaining. Somber and serious describes a dark mood the review never mentions, and confused and vague describes a lack of clarity, not the boredom of scenes where nothing happens.
Passage: "Two writers describe the same mountain town. The first paints it as a peaceful escape from busy city life, while the second portrays it as dull and isolated, with little to do." How do the two writers' views compare?
- A.The writers describe two different mountain towns
- B.Both writers feel the same way about the town
- C.The writers hold opposite beliefs about one town
- D.Both writers see the town as dull and isolated
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Correct answer: The writers hold opposite beliefs about one town
The first writer calls the town a peaceful escape, while the second calls it dull and isolated, so the writers hold opposite beliefs about one town. The idea that the writers describe two different mountain towns contradicts the opening line, which says both describe the same town. The claim that both writers feel the same way about the town ignores their contrast, and the claim that both writers see the town as dull and isolated fits only the second writer.
Passage: "The volcano had been dormant for centuries, and the village built at its base assumed it would never wake. When it suddenly rumbled to life, residents had little time to flee." As used here, "dormant" most nearly means:
- A.Permanently extinct
- B.Recently formed
- C.Temporarily quiet
- D.Mildly active
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Correct answer: Temporarily quiet
The volcano had been dormant for centuries and then 'suddenly rumbled to life,' so dormant here means temporarily quiet. Permanently extinct is the villagers' mistaken belief, and the eruption proves the volcano was not dead. Recently formed contradicts the centuries of quiet, and mildly active does not fit a mountain so still that people assumed it would never wake.
Passage: "Honey never spoils. Archaeologists have found pots of honey in ancient Egyptian tombs that, after thousands of years, are still perfectly edible, thanks to honey's low moisture and natural acidity." What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.Honey was placed in tombs to feed dead pharaohs
- B.Honey stays fully edible for thousands of years
- C.Honey resists spoiling due to its high moisture
- D.Honey is the oldest food found in ancient tombs
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Correct answer: Honey stays fully edible for thousands of years
The passage opens by saying honey never spoils, then supports that with tomb honey that is still edible. Its main idea is that honey stays fully edible for thousands of years. "Honey was placed in tombs to feed dead pharaohs" gives a purpose the passage never states. "Honey resists spoiling due to its high moisture" reverses the cause, because the passage credits low moisture and natural acidity. "Honey is the oldest food found in ancient tombs" claims a record the passage does not make.
Passage: "The patient described his symptoms in a halting voice, pausing often, repeating himself, and struggling to find the right words." What can be inferred about the patient as he spoke?
- A.He was unsure which symptoms he really had
- B.He struggled to express his thoughts clearly
- C.He wanted to keep some of his symptoms hidden
- D.He was too worn out to finish his full account
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Correct answer: He struggled to express his thoughts clearly
The patient paused often, repeated himself, and struggled to find the right words, so he struggled to express his thoughts clearly. The idea that he was unsure which symptoms he really had mistakes a struggle for words for doubt about the symptoms themselves. The idea that he wanted to keep some of his symptoms hidden reads a motive into the scene that the passage never gives, and the idea that he was too worn out to finish his full account is not supported; nothing says he stopped before describing his symptoms.
Passage: "The new safety regulations were comprehensive, covering everything from equipment inspections and emergency drills to the proper storage of every chemical in the building." As used here, "comprehensive" most nearly means:
- A.Mandatory
- B.Thorough
- C.Lengthy
- D.Intricate
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Correct answer: Thorough
The regulations covered 'everything from equipment inspections and emergency drills to the proper storage of every chemical,' so comprehensive here means thorough. Mandatory describes whether rules must be followed, not how much they cover. Lengthy and intricate are near misses about size and difficulty, but the sentence stresses the range of topics covered, not the length of the rules or how hard they are to follow.
Passage: "The Great Migration of the early twentieth century saw millions of African Americans move from the rural South to cities in the North and West in search of jobs and an escape from harsh discrimination." According to the passage, why did people take part in the Great Migration?
- A.To find work and escape discrimination
- B.To escape harsh droughts and dust storms
- C.To leave crowded cities for peaceful farmland
- D.To buy cheap farmland on the western frontier
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Correct answer: To find work and escape discrimination
The passage says people moved 'in search of jobs and an escape from harsh discrimination,' so they went to find work and escape discrimination. To escape harsh droughts and dust storms attaches 'harsh' to the weather rather than to discrimination. To leave crowded cities for peaceful farmland reverses the direction of the move, which went from the rural South to cities, and to buy cheap farmland on the western frontier is not mentioned; the migrants headed for cities in the North and West.
Passage: "The professor opened the lecture with a puzzling riddle, paused while students whispered guesses, and only then revealed that the answer would unlock the entire topic of the day." Why does the professor most likely begin with a riddle?
- A.To test what students already knew about the topic
- B.To give the class a short break before the lecture
- C.To build curiosity before the main lesson starts
- D.To reward the students who guessed the answer
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Correct answer: To build curiosity before the main lesson starts
The professor posed a puzzling riddle, let students whisper guesses, and only then revealed that its answer would unlock the day's topic, so the aim was to build curiosity before the main lesson starts. To test what students already knew about the topic mistakes the guessing for a quiz, though no answers were checked. To give the class a short break before the lecture ignores that the riddle opened the lecture and led straight into it, and to reward the students who guessed the answer is unsupported; no one is said to have guessed it.
Passage: "A keystone species is one whose presence holds an entire ecosystem together. Remove it, and the whole web of life can unravel, as other species lose the balance the keystone once provided." Which of the following best states the main idea?
- A.Keystone species are large animals living in an ecosystem
- B.An ecosystem stays in balance as long as most of its species remain
- C.Keystone species play vital roles in keeping an ecosystem balanced
- D.The balance of an ecosystem decides which species will be its keystone
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Correct answer: Keystone species play vital roles in keeping an ecosystem balanced
The passage says a keystone species holds an entire ecosystem together and that removing it can unravel the web of life, so the main idea is that keystone species play vital roles in keeping an ecosystem balanced. "Keystone species are large animals living in an ecosystem" adds a size claim the passage never makes. "An ecosystem stays in balance as long as most of its species remain" is contradicted: losing the keystone alone can unravel the whole web. "The balance of an ecosystem decides which species will be its keystone" reverses the cause, since the passage says the keystone provides the balance.
Passage: "The intern arrived an hour early, organized the supply room without being asked, and stayed late to finish labeling the samples, all in her first week on the job." What can be inferred about the intern?
- A.She was nervous and worried about her job
- B.She was dedicated and eager to contribute
- C.She was ambitious and seeking a promotion
- D.She was overworked and behind on her work
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Correct answer: She was dedicated and eager to contribute
Arriving an hour early, organizing the supply room without being asked, and staying late to finish the labeling all point to one inference: she was dedicated and eager to contribute. "She was nervous and worried about her job" does not fit someone who acted on her own initiative, and no sign of worry is given. "She was ambitious and seeking a promotion" guesses at a motive the passage never mentions. "She was overworked and behind on her work" misreads the extra effort, because she took on extra tasks by choice rather than catching up on assigned ones.
Passage: "The senator's speech was filled with vague promises that sounded appealing but never explained how any of his goals would actually be achieved." As used in this passage, "vague" most nearly means:
- A.Lofty and noble
- B.Repeated and familiar
- C.Hopeful and optimistic
- D.Unclear and imprecise
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Correct answer: Unclear and imprecise
In context, "vague" most nearly means unclear and imprecise: the promises never explained how any goal would actually be achieved, so they lacked specifics. "Lofty and noble" describes how the promises sounded, not their lack of detail. "Repeated and familiar" is not suggested anywhere in the passage. "Hopeful and optimistic" matches their appeal, but the word the passage chose criticizes the missing detail.
Passage: "Spiders are not insects, though the two are often confused. Spiders have eight legs and two main body parts, while insects have six legs and three body parts, along with antennae that spiders lack." Which detail is directly stated in the passage?
- A.Insects have two main body parts and six legs
- B.Spiders have three main body parts and six legs
- C.Spiders have two main body parts and eight legs
- D.Insects have three main body parts and eight legs
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Correct answer: Spiders have two main body parts and eight legs
The passage states that spiders have eight legs and two main body parts, so the answer is "Spiders have two main body parts and eight legs." "Insects have two main body parts and six legs" gives insects the spider body count; the passage says insects have three. "Spiders have three main body parts and six legs" gives spiders the insect counts. "Insects have three main body parts and eight legs" gives insects the spider leg count; the passage says insects have six.
Passage: "After the long drought finally broke, the farmer stood at the edge of his field, watching the rain soak the cracked earth, and let out a slow, grateful breath." What can be inferred about the farmer's feelings?
- A.He was worried that the rain would flood his field
- B.He was weary after a long day of hard work in the field
- C.He was doubtful that the rain would last for long
- D.He was relieved that the rain ended a long dry spell
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Correct answer: He was relieved that the rain ended a long dry spell
The slow, grateful breath he lets out as the rain soaks the cracked earth after the drought finally broke shows that he was relieved that the rain ended a long dry spell. "He was worried that the rain would flood his field" ignores the word grateful. "He was weary after a long day of hard work in the field" mistakes a grateful sigh for tiredness; the passage mentions no day of work. "He was doubtful that the rain would last for long" adds a worry the passage never suggests.
Passage: "Many medicines come from plants. The bark of the willow tree, for example, contains a compound related to aspirin, and people used it to ease pain and fever long before modern chemistry could explain why it worked." What is the author's main purpose in this passage?
- A.To explain that many medicines originate from plants
- B.To explain how willow bark was used to ease fever
- C.To explain why aspirin from willow bark relieves fever
- D.To explain why modern medicines work better than plants
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Correct answer: To explain that many medicines originate from plants
The passage opens with its point, "Many medicines come from plants," and uses willow bark only as an example, so its purpose is to explain that many medicines originate from plants. "To explain how willow bark was used to ease fever" mistakes the supporting example for the purpose. "To explain why aspirin from willow bark relieves fever" is wrong because the passage notes that people used the bark before chemistry could explain why it worked. "To explain why modern medicines work better than plants" makes a comparison the passage never draws.
Passage: "The negotiator remained tactful throughout the heated meeting, choosing her words with care so that no one left feeling insulted." As used here, "tactful" most nearly means:
- A.Calm and composed in a heated debate
- B.Firm and persuasive in negotiation
- C.Quiet and reserved in their manner
- D.Thoughtful and sensitive in speech
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Correct answer: Thoughtful and sensitive in speech
In context, "tactful" most nearly means thoughtful and sensitive in speech: the negotiator chose her words with care so that no one left feeling insulted. "Calm and composed in a heated debate" describes keeping one's temper, not sparing others' feelings. "Firm and persuasive in negotiation" fits her job but not the word, which is about avoiding offense. "Quiet and reserved in their manner" is wrong because she was choosing her words, not holding back from speaking.
Passage: "Recycling one aluminum can saves enough energy to power a television for several hours. Yet many cans still end up in landfills, where the metal can take centuries to break down." What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.Televisions use a lot of power, but few people unplug them
- B.Aluminum breaks down fast, so landfills hold few empty cans
- C.Metal lasts centuries, so landfills are safe spots for cans
- D.Recycling cans saves energy, yet many are still thrown away
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Correct answer: Recycling cans saves energy, yet many are still thrown away
The passage pairs the energy saved by recycling with the cans that still go to landfills, so the main idea is that recycling cans saves energy, yet many are still thrown away. "Televisions use a lot of power, but few people unplug them" turns a comparison used for scale into the topic, and the passage says nothing about unplugging. "Aluminum breaks down fast, so landfills hold few empty cans" contradicts the statement that the metal can take centuries to break down. "Metal lasts centuries, so landfills are safe spots for cans" presents as safe the outcome that the passage treats as a problem.
Passage: "The detective laid out the timeline carefully: the suspect claimed to be at home all evening, but a parking receipt placed his car downtown at the exact hour of the crime." What conclusion does the passage most strongly suggest?
- A.The alibi the suspect gave may be false
- B.The suspect may really have stayed home
- C.The detective may have proven his guilt
- D.The receipt may belong to someone else
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Correct answer: The alibi the suspect gave may be false
The suspect claims he was home all evening, but a parking receipt puts his car downtown at the hour of the crime. The passage therefore most strongly suggests that the alibi the suspect gave may be false. "The suspect may really have stayed home" ignores the receipt, which is the evidence against his claim. "The detective may have proven his guilt" goes too far, because a car downtown does not show who committed the crime. "The receipt may belong to someone else" has no support, since the passage says the receipt placed his car downtown.
Passage: "The fledgling company grew rapidly in its first year, doubling its staff and opening offices in three new cities." As used in this passage, "fledgling" most nearly means:
- A.Highly ambitious
- B.Quickly growing
- C.Recently founded
- D.Barely surviving
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Correct answer: Recently founded
In context, "fledgling" most nearly means recently founded. The phrase "in its first year" marks the company as new. "Highly ambitious" describes plans or attitude, not how old the company is. "Quickly growing" restates a separate detail, "grew rapidly"; it is not the meaning of "fledgling." "Barely surviving" contradicts the passage, which describes the company doubling its staff and opening new offices.
Passage: "The ancient Olympic Games, held in Greece, were more than athletic contests. They were tied to religious festivals honoring the gods, and during the games, warring city-states agreed to a truce so that athletes could travel safely." Which detail is directly stated in the passage?
- A.Warring city-states agreed to a truce during the games
- B.Warring city-states held the games to honor their athletes
- C.Warring city-states sent guards with athletes during the games
- D.Warring city-states kept fighting while the games went on
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Correct answer: Warring city-states agreed to a truce during the games
The passage states this detail in so many words: during the games, warring city-states agreed to a truce, so the answer is "warring city-states agreed to a truce during the games." "Warring city-states held the games to honor their athletes" misreads the festivals, which honored the gods. "Warring city-states sent guards with athletes during the games" is not stated; a truce, not an armed escort, let athletes travel safely. "Warring city-states kept fighting while the games went on" contradicts the truce the passage describes.
Passage: "The article begins by describing the smell of fresh bread drifting from a small bakery, then moves into a discussion of how family-run shops are struggling to survive." Why does the author most likely open with the smell of fresh bread?
- A.To show that family-run shops are still thriving despite hard times
- B.To hook readers with a warm scene before raising serious issues
- C.To suggest that family-run shops should sell more fresh bread
- D.To describe a bakery with care before reviewing its bread and prices
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Correct answer: To hook readers with a warm scene before raising serious issues
The article moves from a pleasant sensory detail to the struggles of family-run shops, so the author most likely wants to hook readers with a warm scene before raising serious issues. "To show that family-run shops are still thriving despite hard times" contradicts the discussion of shops struggling to survive. "To suggest that family-run shops should sell more fresh bread" offers advice the article never gives. "To describe a bakery with care before reviewing its bread and prices" treats the article as a review, but it turns to struggling shops, not prices.
Passage: "The volunteers worked with remarkable diligence, but the project's success was uncertain because funding remained scarce and the deadline was fast approaching." As used in this passage, "scarce" most nearly means:
- A.Delayed in arrival
- B.Restricted in use
- C.Limited in amount
- D.Uncertain in origin
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Correct answer: Limited in amount
In context, "scarce" most nearly means limited in amount: the project's success was in doubt because there was not enough funding. "Delayed in arrival" confuses scarcity with the approaching deadline. "Restricted in use" describes money set aside for one purpose, not too little of it. "Uncertain in origin" borrows the word uncertain, which the passage applies to the project's success, not to where the money came from.
Passage: "Deep beneath the ocean's surface, hydrothermal vents release mineral-rich water heated by the Earth's interior. Around these vents, entire communities of creatures thrive in total darkness, drawing energy from chemicals rather than sunlight." What is the central idea of this passage?
- A.Creatures living near deep-sea vents need sunlight and chemicals
- B.Water near the deep-sea vents is too hot for life
- C.Water near the deep-sea vents is heated by its minerals
- D.Creatures flourish near deep-sea vents using chemical energy
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Correct answer: Creatures flourish near deep-sea vents using chemical energy
The passage describes whole communities living around the vents in total darkness and drawing energy from chemicals rather than sunlight, so the central idea is that creatures flourish near deep-sea vents using chemical energy. "Creatures living near deep-sea vents need sunlight and chemicals" contradicts the total darkness. "Water near the deep-sea vents is too hot for life" contradicts the thriving communities. "Water near the deep-sea vents is heated by its minerals" misreads a detail: the water is mineral-rich, but the Earth's interior heats it.
Passage: "The coach's pep talk was meant to bolster the team's spirits before the championship game, reminding them of how far they had come and how hard they had earned their place." As used in this passage, "bolster" most nearly means:
- A.To lift and fortify
- B.To calm and settle
- C.To praise and reward
- D.To test and challenge
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Correct answer: To lift and fortify
In context, "bolster" most nearly means to lift and fortify: the pep talk reminded the team how far they had come in order to raise their spirits. "To calm and settle" would quiet the team rather than build up its confidence. "To praise and reward" describes recognizing past work, while the talk aimed to strengthen spirits before the game. "To test and challenge" would put the players under pressure, the opposite of the encouraging purpose.
Passage: "The glass frog has skin so transparent that, when viewed from below, its beating heart and other internal organs are clearly visible. This unusual feature helps the frog blend into the leaves it rests on, hiding its outline from predators looking up from beneath." What is the main idea of this passage?
- A.Transparent skin lets the glass frog escape the notice of predators
- B.Transparent skin lets light reveal the heart of the glass frog
- C.Transparent skin lets predators spot the glass frog much more easily
- D.Transparent skin lets light warm the body of the glass frog
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Correct answer: Transparent skin lets the glass frog escape the notice of predators
The main idea is that 'transparent skin lets the glass frog escape the notice of predators': the passage describes the see-through skin and then explains that it lets the frog blend into leaves and hides its outline from predators below. 'Transparent skin lets light reveal the heart of the glass frog' is only a supporting detail from the first sentence, not the point the passage builds to. 'Transparent skin lets predators spot the glass frog much more easily' reverses the passage, which says the skin conceals the frog. 'Transparent skin lets light warm the body of the glass frog' is never mentioned; the passage gives camouflage, not warmth, as the benefit.
Passage: "The shopkeeper had locked the till an hour early, swept the floor twice, and kept glancing at the clock and then at the gathering storm clouds outside." What can the reader most reasonably infer about the shopkeeper?
- A.The shopkeeper was hoping to close up and leave before the storm
- B.The shopkeeper was expecting a big late rush of customers before the storm
- C.The shopkeeper was growing bored and fed up because the shop was slow
- D.The shopkeeper was getting the shop ready to welcome the owner
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Correct answer: The shopkeeper was hoping to close up and leave before the storm
The most reasonable inference is that 'the shopkeeper was hoping to close up and leave before the storm': locking the till an hour early, tidying, and glancing between the clock and the storm clouds all point to finishing up and leaving before the weather arrives. 'The shopkeeper was expecting a big late rush of customers before the storm' conflicts with locking the till early, which a shopkeeper would not do while expecting sales. 'The shopkeeper was growing bored and fed up because the shop was slow' explains the clock-watching but ignores the early locking and the attention to the storm clouds. 'The shopkeeper was getting the shop ready to welcome the owner' has no support in the passage, which mentions no visitor.
Passage: "The committee's final report was unbiased, presenting the strengths and weaknesses of every proposal with equal care and refusing to favor any one group over another." As used in this passage, "unbiased" most nearly means:
- A.Thorough and detailed
- B.Fair and impartial
- C.Cautious and noncommittal
- D.Tactful and polite
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Correct answer: Fair and impartial
In context, "unbiased" means 'fair and impartial': the report weighed every proposal with equal care and refused to favor any group. 'Thorough and detailed' describes the care the report took, but being thorough is different from being free of bias; a thorough report can still take sides. 'Cautious and noncommittal' misreads the refusal to favor a group as an unwillingness to reach any judgment, which the passage does not say. 'Tactful and polite' describes manners and tone, not the even-handed treatment of the proposals.
Passage: "A tsunami is not a single towering wave but a series of waves, and the first one is often not the largest. Officials warn people to stay away from the coast for hours, because later waves can be far more destructive than the first." According to the passage, why do officials warn people to stay away from the coast for hours?
- A.Because later waves can do more damage than the initial surge
- B.Because the waves can take several hours to reach the coast
- C.Because the coast can remain flooded for hours after the first wave
- D.Because a single towering wave can do more damage than a series
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Correct answer: Because later waves can do more damage than the initial surge
The passage says officials warn people to stay away for hours 'because later waves can do more damage than the initial surge': a tsunami is a series of waves, and the first is often not the largest. 'Because the waves can take several hours to reach the coast' is not the reason the passage gives; it explains the warning by the danger of later waves in the series, not by how long the waves take to arrive. 'Because the coast can remain flooded for hours after the first wave' is never stated; the passage is concerned with further waves, not standing water. 'Because a single towering wave can do more damage than a series' contradicts the passage's opening point that a tsunami is not a single towering wave but a series of waves.
Passage: "The op-ed opens by listing the rising costs families face, then calls on the city council to expand its child-care subsidy before more parents are forced to leave the workforce." What is the author's main purpose in this passage?
- A.To praise the council for its past support of child care subsidies
- B.To blame the council for past cuts to child care subsidies
- C.To convince the council to expand its child care subsidies
- D.To show the council how other towns expand child care subsidies
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Correct answer: To convince the council to expand its child care subsidies
The author's main purpose is 'to convince the council to expand its child care subsidies': the op-ed lists rising family costs and then calls on the council to act before more parents leave the workforce. 'To praise the council for its past support of child care subsidies' misses the call for action; the author wants more support, not thanks for the current level. 'To blame the council for past cuts to child care subsidies' invents cuts the passage never mentions. 'To show the council how other towns expand child care subsidies' treats the op-ed as a comparison with other places, but it mentions no other towns; it argues that this council should act.
Passage: "The new recruit's enthusiasm was contagious; within a week, even the most jaded members of the crew were arriving early and volunteering for extra shifts." As used in this passage, "contagious" most nearly means:
- A.Easily passed to others
- B.Likely to make others ill
- C.Openly shown to others
- D.Hard for others to ignore
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Correct answer: Easily passed to others
In context, "contagious" means 'easily passed to others': the recruit's enthusiasm passed from person to person until even the most jaded crew members shared it. 'Likely to make others ill' is the medical sense of the word, but here it describes enthusiasm, which made the crew work harder rather than sicken them. 'Openly shown to others' describes enthusiasm that is visible, but the passage stresses that it spread, not merely that it was displayed. 'Hard for others to ignore' describes something noticeable, yet noticing an attitude is not the same as taking it on, which is what the crew did.
Passage: "The recipe card listed the steps clearly: preheat the oven, mix the dry ingredients first, fold in the eggs last, and bake for exactly twenty-two minutes." According to the passage, what should the cook do last before baking?
- A.Preheat the oven
- B.Fold in the eggs
- C.Mix in the dry ingredients
- D.Put it in the oven to bake
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Correct answer: Fold in the eggs
The recipe says to 'fold in the eggs' last, after the earlier steps and just before baking. 'Preheat the oven' is listed as the first step, not the last. 'Mix in the dry ingredients' misreads the order: the card says to mix the dry ingredients first, not last. 'Put it in the oven to bake' is the baking itself, so it cannot be the step that comes before baking.
Passage: "One scientist argues that the species is recovering, pointing to rising population counts in protected reserves. Another counters that those gains are fragile, warning that a single bad season could erase a decade of progress." How do the two scientists' views compare?
- A.The scientists agree that the recovery of the species is now secure
- B.The scientists differ on how secure the recovery of the species is
- C.The scientists disagree on whether the counts in the reserves are accurate
- D.The scientists agree on how much larger the reserves will need to be
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Correct answer: The scientists differ on how secure the recovery of the species is
'The scientists differ on how secure the recovery of the species is': one reads the rising counts as real recovery, while the other warns that the gains are fragile and one bad season could erase them. 'The scientists agree that the recovery of the species is now secure' ignores the second scientist, who calls the gains fragile. 'The scientists disagree on whether the counts in the reserves are accurate' misplaces the dispute; the second scientist accepts the gains and questions only how lasting they are. 'The scientists agree on how much larger the reserves will need to be' is not stated; neither scientist makes any recommendation about reserves.
Passage: "The salt flats stretch for miles in perfect, blinding white, so flat and featureless that travelers lose all sense of distance, and a far-off mountain can seem close enough to touch." Why does the author most likely describe the salt flats in this way?
- A.To warn travelers about the blinding glare of the white salt
- B.To capture the disorienting emptiness of the vast landscape
- C.To explain why distant mountains look smaller than they are
- D.To describe how travelers measure distance across the flats
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Correct answer: To capture the disorienting emptiness of the vast landscape
The author describes the salt flats this way 'to capture the disorienting emptiness of the vast landscape': endless blinding white, a flat and featureless surface, and a lost sense of distance all build a feeling of overwhelming space. 'To warn travelers about the blinding glare of the white salt' turns one image, "blinding white," into a safety warning the passage never gives. 'To explain why distant mountains look smaller than they are' misreads the passage, which says a far-off mountain seems close, not that it looks small. 'To describe how travelers measure distance across the flats' contradicts the passage, which says travelers lose all sense of distance.
Math (75)
Evaluate the expression: 6 + 3 × 4 - 2.
- A.34
- B.12
- C.18
- D.16
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Correct answer: 16
Multiplication comes before addition and subtraction, so 3 × 4 = 12 first; then 6 + 12 = 18 and 18 - 2 = 16. Working left to right without that priority gives (6 + 3) × 4 - 2 = 34. Subtracting before multiplying gives 6 + 3 × 2 = 12. Doing both the addition and the subtraction first gives (6 + 3) × (4 - 2) = 18.
Evaluate: 2 + (5 - 3)² × 3.
- A.18
- B.14
- C.38
- D.50
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Correct answer: 14
Work inside the parentheses first: 5 - 3 = 2. Then apply the exponent (2 squared = 4), multiply (4 × 3 = 12), and add last: 2 + 12 = 14. Adding before multiplying gives (2 + 4) × 3 = 18. Multiplying before squaring gives 2 + (2 × 3) squared = 2 + 36 = 38. Squaring each number inside the parentheses gives 25 - 9 = 16, and 2 + 16 × 3 = 50.
What is the value of 24 ÷ 6 + 2 × 5?
- A.15
- B.30
- C.14
- D.40
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Correct answer: 14
Division and multiplication come before addition: 24 ÷ 6 = 4 and 2 × 5 = 10, so the value is 4 + 10 = 14. Adding 6 + 2 before dividing gives 24 ÷ 8 × 5 = 15. Working strictly left to right gives 4 + 2 = 6 and then 6 × 5 = 30. Multiplying the two results (4 × 10) instead of adding them gives 40.
Evaluate: 40 - 12 ÷ (2 + 1) × 2.
- A.32
- B.36
- C.38
- D.72
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Correct answer: 32
The parentheses give 2 + 1 = 3; division and multiplication then go left to right (12 ÷ 3 = 4, and 4 × 2 = 8), and the subtraction comes last: 40 - 8 = 32. Ignoring the parentheses gives 40 - 12 ÷ 2 + 1 × 2 = 40 - 6 + 2 = 36. Multiplying before dividing gives 12 ÷ (3 × 2) = 2, and 40 - 2 = 38. Subtracting before multiplying gives (40 - 4) × 2 = 72.
Evaluate: 100 ÷ (4 + 6) + 3².
- A.16
- B.19
- C.37
- D.40
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Correct answer: 19
The parentheses give 4 + 6 = 10 and the exponent gives 3 squared = 9; then 100 ÷ 10 = 10, and 10 + 9 = 19. Treating 3 squared as 3 × 2 = 6 gives 10 + 6 = 16. Ignoring the parentheses gives 100 ÷ 4 + 6 + 9 = 40. Making both mistakes gives 25 + 6 + 6 = 37.
Convert the fraction 3/4 to a decimal.
- A.1.33
- B.0.75
- C.0.34
- D.0.43
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Correct answer: 0.75
Divide the numerator by the denominator: 3 ÷ 4 = 0.75. Dividing the denominator by the numerator, 4 ÷ 3, gives about 1.33. Writing the two digits of 3/4 after a decimal point gives 0.34, which is not how a fraction converts. Doing the same with the fraction flipped to 4/3 gives 0.43, which makes both mistakes.
What is 0.6 written as a fraction in lowest terms?
- A.6/10
- B.3/5
- C.2/3
- D.5/3
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Correct answer: 3/5
Six tenths is 6/10, and dividing the numerator and denominator by 2 gives 3/5 in lowest terms. The fraction 6/10 has the right value but is not reduced, so it is not in lowest terms. The fraction 2/3 is about 0.67, a common mix-up with 0.6. The fraction 5/3 flips the answer and is greater than 1.
Express 45% as a decimal.
- A.0.45
- B.4.5
- C.0.045
- D.45.0
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Correct answer: 0.45
A percent means per hundred, so divide by 100 by moving the decimal point two places to the left: 45% = 0.45. 4.5 moves the point only one place, which divides by 10. 0.045 moves it three places, which divides by 1,000. 45.0 drops the percent sign without dividing at all.
What is 1/8 expressed as a percentage?
- A.0.125%
- B.18%
- C.12.5%
- D.0.18%
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Correct answer: 12.5%
Divide 1 by 8 to get 0.125, then multiply by 100 to get 12.5%. Writing the decimal 0.125 with a percent sign, without multiplying by 100, gives 0.125%. Reading 1/8 as the decimal 0.18 and multiplying by 100 gives 18%, which is not the value of 1/8. Reading 1/8 as 0.18 and also skipping the multiplication by 100 makes both mistakes and gives 0.18%.
Convert 0.125 to a fraction in lowest terms.
- A.125/1000
- B.5/40
- C.3/25
- D.1/8
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Correct answer: 1/8
The digits 125 are thousandths, so 0.125 = 125/1000, and dividing both numbers by 125 gives 1/8. The fraction 125/1000 has the right value but is not reduced. The fraction 5/40 is only partly reduced (both numbers divided by 25) and still shares a factor of 5. The fraction 3/25 equals 0.12, which comes from cutting off the last digit of 0.125.
Which list shows 0.7, 3/4, and 72% ordered from least to greatest?
- A.3/4, 72%, 0.7
- B.0.7, 72%, 3/4
- C.3/4, 0.7, 72%
- D.72%, 3/4, 0.7
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Correct answer: 0.7, 72%, 3/4
Write all three as decimals: 0.7, 72% = 0.72, and 3/4 = 0.75, so the order from least to greatest is 0.7, 72%, 3/4. The list 3/4, 72%, 0.7 gives the same values from greatest to least. The list 3/4, 0.7, 72% treats 3/4 as 0.34. The list 72%, 3/4, 0.7 treats 72% as 0.072 and 3/4 as 0.34.
A solution is mixed using a ratio of 2 parts concentrate to 5 parts water. If 10 parts of concentrate are used, how many parts of water are needed?
- A.4
- B.13
- C.25
- D.35
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Correct answer: 25
The ratio is 2 parts concentrate to 5 parts water. Going from 2 to 10 parts of concentrate multiplies by 5, so the water is 5 × 5 = 25 parts. Applying the ratio upside down gives 10 × 2/5 = 4. Adding the difference of 3 instead of scaling gives 10 + 3 = 13. Adding the 10 parts of concentrate gives 35 parts, the whole mixture rather than the water alone.
Solve the proportion: 3/4 = x/20.
- A.15
- B.5
- C.19
- D.60
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Correct answer: 15
Cross-multiply: 4 × x = 3 × 20, so 4x = 60 and x = 15. Stopping at the scale factor (20 ÷ 4 = 5) gives 5. Adding 16 to the numerator because 16 was added to the denominator gives 3 + 16 = 19; proportions scale by multiplying, not adding. Forgetting to divide by 4 leaves 60.
In a class, the ratio of students to instructors is 18 to 1. If there are 5 instructors, how many students are there?
- A.13
- B.90
- C.23
- D.95
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Correct answer: 90
Each instructor has 18 students, so 5 instructors have 18 × 5 = 90 students. Adding 18 + 5 = 23 or subtracting 18 - 5 = 13 combines the numbers without using the ratio. Adding the 5 instructors to the 90 students gives 95, the total number of people rather than the number of students.
A recipe uses flour and sugar in a ratio of 3 to 1. If 12 cups of flour are used, how much sugar is needed?
- A.9 cups
- B.36 cups
- C.4 cups
- D.16 cups
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Correct answer: 4 cups
Flour is 3 times the sugar, so the sugar is 12 ÷ 3 = 4 cups. Subtracting the 3 in the ratio from 12 gives 9 cups; a ratio scales by multiplying or dividing, not by subtracting. Multiplying 12 by 3 instead of dividing gives 36 cups. Adding the flour and sugar together gives 16 cups, the total rather than the sugar alone.
If 4 pounds of apples cost $6, what is the cost of 10 pounds at the same rate?
- A.$15
- B.$9
- C.$16
- D.$12
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Correct answer: $15
The price per pound is $6 ÷ 4 = $1.50, so 10 pounds cost 10 × $1.50 = $15. Pricing only the 6 extra pounds gives $9. Adding the 10 pounds to the $6 price, as if the numbers simply add, gives $16. Adding $6 for the 6 extra pounds, as if each pound cost $1, gives $12.
A map uses a scale where 1 inch represents 25 miles. If two cities are 7 inches apart on the map, how far apart are they in reality?
- A.175 miles
- B.32 miles
- C.140 miles
- D.145 miles
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Correct answer: 175 miles
Each inch stands for 25 miles, so 7 inches stand for 7 × 25 = 175 miles. Adding 25 + 7 gives 32 miles. Multiplying 7 × 20 and dropping the 5 gives 140 miles. Multiplying the 20 by 7 but adding the 5 only once gives 140 + 5 = 145 miles.
What is 30% of 80?
- A.8
- B.50
- C.56
- D.24
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Correct answer: 24
Thirty percent is 0.30, and 0.30 × 80 = 24 (10% of 80 is 8, and three times that is 24). Stopping at 10% gives 8. Subtracting 30 from 80 treats the percent as a plain number and gives 50. Finding the remaining 70% gives 56.
A shirt originally priced at $40 is marked down by 25%. What is the sale price?
- A.$32
- B.$30
- C.$39
- D.$50
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Correct answer: $30
A 25% markdown takes off 0.25 × $40 = $10, so the sale price is $40 - $10 = $30. Dividing $40 by 1.25 undoes a markup instead of applying a discount and gives $32. Writing 25% as 0.025 makes the discount $1 and the price $39. Adding the $10 instead of subtracting it gives $50.
A student answered 51 out of 60 questions correctly. What percentage did the student answer correctly?
- A.8.5%
- B.15%
- C.85%
- D.1.5%
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Correct answer: 85%
Divide the part by the whole: 51 ÷ 60 = 0.85, and multiplying by 100 gives 85%. Multiplying 0.85 by 10 instead of 100 gives 8.5%. The 9 missed questions are 9 ÷ 60 = 0.15 = 15%, the share answered incorrectly. Using the 9 missed questions and also multiplying 0.15 by 10 instead of 100 makes both mistakes and gives 1.5%.
If 15 is 20% of a number, what is the number?
- A.3
- B.12
- C.18
- D.75
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Correct answer: 75
If 20% of the number is 15, the number is 15 ÷ 0.20 = 75. Taking 20% of 15 instead gives 3, which uses the wrong base. Subtracting that 3 from 15 gives 12, and adding it gives 18; both still treat 15 as the whole instead of the part.
A hospital ward had 200 patients last month and 230 this month. What is the percent increase in patients?
- A.15%
- B.30%
- C.115%
- D.130%
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Correct answer: 15%
The percent increase is 15%. The change is 230 - 200 = 30 patients, and dividing that change by the original 200 gives 0.15, or 15%. 30% treats the 30-patient change itself as the percent; 115% is the new count as a percent of the old one (230 ÷ 200), not the increase; and 130% makes both slips, counting the 30 extra patients as 30% and adding that to 100%.
A bill of $50 includes an 18% tip. How much is the tip?
- A.$59
- B.$18
- C.$9
- D.$32
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Correct answer: $9
The tip is $9: 18% written as a decimal is 0.18, and 0.18 × 50 = 9. Adding that tip back onto the bill gives $59, the bill plus the tip rather than the tip itself; $18 reads the 18% as 18 dollars; and $32 comes from subtracting 18 from 50 as if the 18% were $18.
Solve for x: 3x + 7 = 22.
- A.15
- B.9.67
- C.12
- D.5
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Correct answer: 5
The value of x is 5. Subtracting 7 from both sides gives 3x = 15, and dividing both sides by 3 gives x = 5. Stopping at 15 skips the division; 12 subtracts 3 from 15 instead of dividing by 3; and 9.67 adds 7 to 22 instead of subtracting it, so 3x = 29 and x = 29/3, about 9.67.
Solve for x: x/4 = 9.
- A.2.25
- B.36
- C.0.44
- D.13
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Correct answer: 36
The value of x is 36: multiplying both sides by 4 undoes the division, so x = 9 × 4 = 36. Dividing 9 by 4 instead gives 2.25; dividing 4 by 9 gives about 0.44; and 13 adds 4 to 9 instead of multiplying.
Solve for y: 5y - 8 = 2y + 7.
- A.12
- B.5
- C.45
- D.3
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Correct answer: 5
The value of y is 5. Subtracting 2y from both sides gives 3y - 8 = 7, adding 8 gives 3y = 15, and dividing by 3 gives y = 5. Dividing 15 by 5, the original coefficient, gives 3; multiplying 15 by 3 gives 45; and subtracting 3 from 15 gives 12.
Solve for x: 2(x + 3) = 16.
- A.5
- B.6.5
- C.8
- D.20
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Correct answer: 5
The value of x is 5. Dividing both sides by 2 gives x + 3 = 8, and subtracting 3 gives x = 5. Stopping at x + 3 = 8 gives 8; multiplying only x by 2, so 2x + 3 = 16, gives 6.5; and distributing to 2x + 6 = 16 but then multiplying 10 by 2 instead of dividing gives 20.
Solve for x: 12 - 4x = -8.
- A.1
- B.-1
- C.-5
- D.5
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Correct answer: 5
The value of x is 5. Subtracting 12 from both sides gives -4x = -20, and dividing both sides by -4 gives x = 5. Dividing -20 by 4 instead of -4 gives -5; adding 12 to -8 instead of subtracting it gives -4x = 4, so -1; and 1 makes both slips, adding the 12 and then dividing 4 by 4 instead of -4.
Solve for n: n/3 + 4 = 10.
- A.18
- B.42
- C.26
- D.30
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Correct answer: 18
The value of n is 18. Subtracting 4 from both sides gives n/3 = 6, and multiplying both sides by 3 gives n = 18. Adding 4 to 10 instead of subtracting it gives n/3 = 14, so 42; multiplying only n/3 and the 10 by 3 (n + 4 = 30) gives 26; and multiplying 10 by 3 while ignoring the 4 gives 30.
How many milligrams are in 2.5 grams?
- A.0.0025 mg
- B.2500 mg
- C.250 mg
- D.0.025 mg
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Correct answer: 2500 mg
There are 2500 mg in 2.5 grams: 1 gram is 1000 milligrams, so 2.5 × 1000 = 2500. Multiplying by 100 instead of 1000 gives 250 mg; dividing by 1000 converts in the wrong direction and gives 0.0025 mg; and dividing by 100 makes both slips and gives 0.025 mg.
Convert 4 liters to milliliters.
- A.400 mL
- B.0.04 mL
- C.4000 mL
- D.0.004 mL
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Correct answer: 4000 mL
Four liters equals 4000 mL: 1 liter holds 1000 milliliters, and 4 × 1000 = 4000. Multiplying by 100 instead of 1000 gives 400 mL; dividing by 1000 converts in the wrong direction and gives 0.004 mL; and dividing by 100 makes both slips and gives 0.04 mL.
How many centimeters are in 3 meters?
- A.0.003 cm
- B.300 cm
- C.0.03 cm
- D.3000 cm
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Correct answer: 300 cm
Three meters equals 300 cm: 1 meter is 100 centimeters, and 3 × 100 = 300. Multiplying by 1000, the meter-to-millimeter factor, gives 3000 cm; dividing 3 by 100 converts in the wrong direction and gives 0.03 cm; and dividing 3 by 1000 makes both slips and gives 0.003 cm.
Convert 500 milligrams to grams.
- A.2 g
- B.0.05 g
- C.0.0005 g
- D.0.5 g
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Correct answer: 0.5 g
Five hundred milligrams equals 0.5 g: 1,000 milligrams make 1 gram, so 500 ÷ 1,000 = 0.5. Dividing by 10,000 (one zero too many) gives 0.05 g; dividing by 1,000,000, as if converting micrograms, gives 0.0005 g; and dividing 1,000 by 500 gives 2 g.
A patient is to receive 0.75 liters of fluid. How many milliliters is this?
- A.75 mL
- B.0.0075 mL
- C.0.00075 mL
- D.750 mL
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Correct answer: 750 mL
The patient receives 750 mL: 1 liter is 1,000 milliliters, so 0.75 × 1,000 = 750. Using 100 as the factor gives 75 mL; dividing by 1,000 converts in the wrong direction and gives 0.00075 mL; and dividing by 100 makes both slips and gives 0.0075 mL.
How many kilograms are in 4,500 grams?
- A.4.5 kg
- B.0.022 kg
- C.45 kg
- D.0.22 kg
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Correct answer: 4.5 kg
There are 4.5 kg in 4,500 grams: 1,000 grams make 1 kilogram, so 4,500 ÷ 1,000 = 4.5. Dividing by 100 instead of 1,000 gives 45 kg; dividing 1,000 by 4,500 inverts the division and gives about 0.22 kg; and dividing 100 by 4,500 makes both slips and gives about 0.022 kg.
Convert 250 milliliters to liters.
- A.4 L
- B.250,000 L
- C.2.5 L
- D.0.25 L
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Correct answer: 0.25 L
Two hundred fifty milliliters equals 0.25 L: 1,000 milliliters make 1 liter, so 250 ÷ 1,000 = 0.25. Dividing by 100 gives 2.5 L; dividing 1,000 by 250 gives 4 L; and 250,000 L multiplies by 1,000, converting in the wrong direction.
Using the formula F = 9/5C + 32, convert 35 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit.
- A.67 degrees F
- B.95 degrees F
- C.63 degrees F
- D.51.4 degrees F
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Correct answer: 95 degrees F
Thirty-five degrees Celsius equals 95 degrees F: 9/5 × 35 = 63, and 63 + 32 = 95. Adding 32 without multiplying gives 67 degrees F; multiplying by 5/9 instead of 9/5 gives about 19.4 + 32 = 51.4 degrees F; and stopping before adding 32 gives 63 degrees F.
Using F = 9/5C + 32, what is 100 degrees Celsius in Fahrenheit?
- A.68 degrees F
- B.212 degrees F
- C.87.6 degrees F
- D.180 degrees F
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Correct answer: 212 degrees F
One hundred degrees Celsius equals 212 degrees F, the boiling point of water: 9/5 × 100 = 180, and 180 + 32 = 212. Stopping before adding 32 gives 180 degrees F; subtracting 32 from 100, the first step of the Celsius formula, gives 68 degrees F; and multiplying by 5/9 instead of 9/5 gives about 55.6 + 32 = 87.6 degrees F.
Using C = 5/9(F - 32), convert 50 degrees Fahrenheit to Celsius.
- A.-4.2 degrees C
- B.18 degrees C
- C.10 degrees C
- D.45.6 degrees C
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Correct answer: 10 degrees C
Fifty degrees Fahrenheit equals 10 degrees C: 50 - 32 = 18, and 5/9 × 18 = 10. Stopping at 18 degrees C skips the multiplication by 5/9; adding 32 instead of subtracting it gives 5/9 × 82, about 45.6 degrees C; and multiplying 50 by 5/9 before subtracting 32 gives about 27.8 - 32 = -4.2 degrees C.
A patient's temperature reads 37 degrees Celsius. Using F = 9/5C + 32, what is this in Fahrenheit?
- A.66.6 degrees F
- B.69 degrees F
- C.98.6 degrees F
- D.34.6 degrees F
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Correct answer: 98.6 degrees F
Thirty-seven degrees Celsius equals 98.6 degrees F, normal body temperature: 9/5 × 37 = 66.6, and 66.6 + 32 = 98.6. Stopping before adding 32 gives 66.6 degrees F; adding 32 to 37 without multiplying gives 69 degrees F; and subtracting 32 instead of adding it gives 34.6 degrees F.
A medication order is for 500 mg, and tablets are available in 250 mg each. How many tablets should be given?
- A.2 tablets
- B.0.5 tablets
- C.20 tablets
- D.5 tablets
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Correct answer: 2 tablets
Give 2 tablets: the ordered 500 mg divided by 250 mg per tablet is 2. Dividing the tablet strength by the order (250 ÷ 500) gives 0.5 tablets; misreading the 250 mg tablet as 25 mg gives 500 ÷ 25 = 20 tablets; and inverting the division while also misreading the 500 mg order as 50 mg, 250 ÷ 50, gives 5 tablets.
A drug is supplied as 100 mg per 5 mL. How many milliliters are needed to give a 40 mg dose?
- A.8 mL
- B.0.4 mL
- C.2 mL
- D.2.5 mL
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Correct answer: 2 mL
The volume needed is 2 mL: 40 mg ÷ 100 mg × 5 mL = 2 mL. Dividing the 40 mg dose by the 5 mL volume gives 8 mL; dividing 40 by 100 without multiplying by the 5 mL gives 0.4 mL; and inverting that ratio, 100 ÷ 40 with no 5 mL, gives 2.5 mL.
An order calls for 0.25 mg of a drug, and the tablets are 0.125 mg each. How many tablets are needed?
- A.5 tablets
- B.0.2 tablets
- C.2 tablets
- D.0.5 tablets
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Correct answer: 2 tablets
Give 2 tablets: 0.25 mg ÷ 0.125 mg = 2. Dividing the tablet strength by the order (0.125 ÷ 0.25) gives 0.5 tablets; misreading the 0.125 mg tablet as 1.25 mg gives 0.25 ÷ 1.25 = 0.2 tablets; and making both slips, 1.25 ÷ 0.25, gives 5 tablets.
A medication is ordered at 5 mg per kilogram of body weight for a patient weighing 60 kg. What is the total dose?
- A.136 mg
- B.300 mg
- C.12 mg
- D.30 mg
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Correct answer: 300 mg
The total dose is 300 mg: 5 mg per kilogram × 60 kg = 300 mg. Dividing 60 by 5 gives 12 mg; dropping a zero (5 × 6) gives 30 mg; and treating the 60 kg as pounds, converting it to about 27.3 kg and multiplying by 5, gives about 136 mg.
A liquid medication contains 250 mg per 10 mL. How many milligrams are in 4 mL?
- A.100 mg
- B.1000 mg
- C.25 mg
- D.62.5 mg
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Correct answer: 100 mg
There are 100 mg in 4 mL: 250 mg per 10 mL is 25 mg per mL, and 25 × 4 = 100. Multiplying 250 by 4 without dividing by the 10 mL gives 1000 mg; dividing 250 by 4 gives 62.5 mg; and 25 mg is the amount in 1 mL, not in 4 mL.
A table shows test scores: Monday 80, Tuesday 90, Wednesday 70, Thursday 100. What is the average score for the four days?
- A.60
- B.30
- C.85
- D.68
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Correct answer: 85
The average is 85: 80 + 90 + 70 + 100 = 340, and 340 ÷ 4 = 85. Dividing by 5, as if for a five-day week, gives 68; leaving Thursday's 100 out of the total but still dividing by 4 gives 240 ÷ 4 = 60; and 30 is the range (100 - 70), not the mean.
A pie chart shows a hospital budget: 40% staffing, 25% supplies, 20% equipment, 15% other. If the total budget is $200,000, how much is allotted to supplies?
- A.$50,000
- B.$8,000
- C.$30,000
- D.$5,000
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Correct answer: $50,000
Supplies receive $50,000: 25% is 0.25, and 0.25 × 200,000 = 50,000. Reading the 15% 'other' slice instead gives $30,000; dividing 200,000 by 25 instead of taking 25% of it gives $8,000; and writing 25% as 0.025 gives $5,000.
A table lists patient counts by unit: ICU 12, Pediatrics 18, Surgery 30, Maternity 20. What fraction of the total patients are in Surgery?
- A.3/8
- B.9/40
- C.3/5
- D.1/4
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Correct answer: 3/8
Surgery holds 3/8 of the patients. The total is 12 + 18 + 30 + 20 = 80, and 30/80 reduces to 3/8. 9/40 is the Pediatrics share (18/80), not Surgery's. 3/5 compares Surgery with the other units combined (30 to 50), which is a ratio, not a fraction of the total. 1/4 is the Maternity share (20/80).
The sum of a number and 12 is 30. Which equation represents this statement?
- A.12x = 30
- B.x + 30 = 12
- C.30x = 12
- D.x + 12 = 30
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Correct answer: x + 12 = 30
The equation is x + 12 = 30: 'the sum of a number and 12' is x + 12, and 'is 30' sets that sum equal to 30. 12x = 30 reads the sum as a product; x + 30 = 12 swaps the 12 and the total of 30; and 30x = 12 makes both slips, a product with the 12 and the 30 swapped.
Three times a number, decreased by 5, equals 16. Which equation models this?
- A.5x - 3 = 16
- B.3x - 5 = 16
- C.5 - 3x = 16
- D.3 - 5x = 16
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Correct answer: 3x - 5 = 16
The equation is 3x - 5 = 16: 'three times a number' is 3x, 'decreased by 5' subtracts 5 from that product, and 'equals 16' sets the result equal to 16. 5x - 3 = 16 swaps the 3 and the 5. 5 - 3x = 16 reverses the subtraction, but 'decreased by 5' takes 5 away from 3x. 3 - 5x = 16 swaps the numbers and also reverses the subtraction.
A number divided by 4 gives 9. Which equation represents this?
- A.4/x = 9
- B.x/4 = 9
- C.x - 4 = 9
- D.4x = 9
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Correct answer: x/4 = 9
The equation is x/4 = 9: 'a number divided by 4' is x/4, and 'gives 9' sets that quotient equal to 9. 4x = 9 multiplies instead of dividing; 4/x = 9 divides 4 by the number, reversing the order; and x - 4 = 9 subtracts instead of dividing.
Twice the sum of a number and 3 equals 18. Which equation models the statement?
- A.2(x + 3) = 18
- B.2x + 3 = 18
- C.x + 3 = 2(18)
- D.2 + (x + 3) = 18
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Correct answer: 2(x + 3) = 18
The equation is 2(x + 3) = 18. "The sum of a number and 3" is x + 3, and "twice" that sum multiplies the whole expression by 2. 2x + 3 = 18 doubles only the number, not the sum. x + 3 = 2(18) doubles the 18 instead of the sum. 2 + (x + 3) = 18 adds 2 instead of multiplying by 2.
A nurse works x hours per day for 5 days and works a total of 40 hours. Which equation finds the daily hours?
- A.x/40 = 5
- B.40x = 5
- C.x + 5 = 40
- D.5x = 40
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Correct answer: 5x = 40
The equation is 5x = 40: x hours a day for 5 days is 5 times x, and that total equals 40 hours. 40x = 5 swaps the total and the number of days; x/40 = 5 divides the daily hours by the total instead of multiplying by the days; and x + 5 = 40 adds the days instead of multiplying.
Evaluate: (8 - 3) × 2 + 16 ÷ 4.
- A.26
- B.6
- C.14
- D.30
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Correct answer: 14
The value is 14: the parentheses give 8 - 3 = 5, then 5 × 2 = 10 and 16 ÷ 4 = 4, and 10 + 4 = 14. Ignoring the parentheses gives 8 - 6 + 4 = 6; skipping the division and adding 16 to the 10 gives 26; and adding 2 to 16 ÷ 4 before multiplying by 5 gives 5 × 6 = 30.
What is 7/10 written as a percentage?
- A.30%
- B.143%
- C.70%
- D.7%
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Correct answer: 70%
The fraction 7/10 equals 70%: 7 ÷ 10 = 0.7, and multiplying by 100 gives 70%. Reading 7/10 as 7 hundredths gives 7%; 30% is the remaining 3/10, not 7/10; and dividing 10 by 7 instead of 7 by 10 gives about 143%.
If the ratio of nurses to patients is 1 to 6, how many nurses are needed for 48 patients?
- A.42 nurses
- B.7 nurses
- C.6 nurses
- D.8 nurses
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Correct answer: 8 nurses
The unit needs 8 nurses: one nurse for every 6 patients means 48 ÷ 6 = 8. Subtracting 6 from 48 gives 42 nurses; 6 nurses copies the 6 patients per nurse instead of dividing by it; and dividing 48 by 7, as if the 1 and the 6 made a group of 7 that the 48 must be split into, gives about 7 nurses.
A drug is supplied as 200 mg per tablet, and the order is for 600 mg. How many tablets are needed?
- A.6 tablets
- B.0.33 tablets
- C.0.03 tablets
- D.3 tablets
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Correct answer: 3 tablets
Give 3 tablets: 600 mg ÷ 200 mg per tablet = 3. Dividing the tablet strength by the order (200 ÷ 600) gives 0.33 tablets; dividing 600 by 100, as if each tablet held 100 mg, gives 6 tablets; and inverting the division while also misreading the 200 mg tablet as 20 mg, 20 ÷ 600, gives 0.03 tablets.
Evaluate: 24 - 18 ÷ (3 + 6) + 2³.
- A.28
- B.23
- C.21
- D.30
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Correct answer: 30
The value is 30. Work inside the parentheses first (3 + 6 = 9), then the exponent (2³ = 8), then the division (18 ÷ 9 = 2), and finally add and subtract from left to right: 24 - 2 + 8 = 30. An answer of 28 comes from treating 2³ as 2 × 3 = 6, giving 24 - 2 + 6. An answer of 23 comes from splitting the division across the sum, 18 ÷ 3 + 18 ÷ 6 = 9, giving 24 - 9 + 8. An answer of 21 makes both of those mistakes: 24 - 9 + 6.
What is √(144) added to √(81) ?
- A.15
- B.21
- C.108
- D.225
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Correct answer: 21
The sum is 21: √(144) = 12 because 12 × 12 = 144, and √(81) = 9 because 9 × 9 = 81, so 12 + 9 = 21. An answer of 15 comes from adding first and then taking one square root, √(144 + 81) = √(225); square roots cannot be combined that way. An answer of 108 multiplies the roots, 12 × 9, instead of adding them. An answer of 225 adds 144 and 81 but forgets to take the square roots at all.
Round the number 7,468 to the nearest hundred.
- A.7,400
- B.7,500
- C.7,470
- D.8,000
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Correct answer: 7,500
Rounded to the nearest hundred, 7,468 is 7,500: the digit after the hundreds place is 6, which is 5 or more, so the hundreds digit rounds up from 4 to 5 and the digits after it become zeros. An answer of 7,400 simply drops the last two digits instead of rounding. An answer of 7,470 rounds to the nearest ten instead of the nearest hundred. An answer of 8,000 keeps rounding in a chain (7,468 to 7,470 to 7,500 to 8,000) and ends at the nearest thousand instead of the nearest hundred.
What is the value of -8 + 15 - (-3)?
- A.4
- B.-4
- C.10
- D.-20
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Correct answer: 10
The value is 10. Subtracting a negative is the same as adding a positive, so the expression becomes -8 + 15 + 3; then -8 + 15 = 7 and 7 + 3 = 10. An answer of 4 treats - (-3) as - 3, giving 7 - 3. An answer of -4 gives -8 + 15 the sign of the first number, -7, and then adds 3. An answer of -20 applies the first negative sign to the whole sum, -(8 + 15) = -23, and then adds 3.
What is the product of -6 and -7?
- A.-42
- B.13
- C.-13
- D.42
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Correct answer: 42
The product is 42. Multiplying two negative numbers gives a positive result, and 6 × 7 = 42, so -6 × -7 = 42. An answer of -42 applies the sign rule wrongly, as if a negative times a negative stayed negative. An answer of -13 adds instead of multiplying: -6 + (-7) = -13. An answer of 13 makes both mistakes: it adds 6 and 7 instead of multiplying, then gives the sum a positive sign because both numbers were negative.
A rectangular room measures 12 feet by 9 feet. What is its area in square feet?
- A.42
- B.21
- C.108
- D.144
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Correct answer: 108
The area is 108 square feet, because the area of a rectangle is length × width and 12 × 9 = 108. An answer of 42 is the perimeter, 2 × (12 + 9), which measures the distance around the room rather than the floor it covers. An answer of 21 adds the length and the width, 12 + 9, instead of multiplying them. An answer of 144 squares the length, 12 × 12, as if the room were a square 12 feet on each side.
What is the perimeter of a rectangle that is 14 centimeters long and 6 centimeters wide?
- A.40
- B.84
- C.56
- D.168
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Correct answer: 40
The perimeter is 40 centimeters: perimeter = 2 × (length + width) = 2 × (14 + 6) = 2 × 20 = 40. An answer of 84 is the area, 14 × 6, which measures the surface inside the rectangle rather than the distance around it. An answer of 56 uses the square rule, 4 × 14, as if all four sides were 14 centimeters long. An answer of 168 mixes up the formulas and uses 2 × length × width, 2 × 14 × 6.
A circular bandage has a radius of 5 centimeters. Using 3.14 for pi, what is its area in square centimeters?
- A.15.7
- B.31.4
- C.78.5
- D.314
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Correct answer: 78.5
The area is 78.5 square centimeters: area = pi × radius², so 3.14 × 25 = 78.5. 15.7 multiplies pi by the radius without squaring it (3.14 × 5). 31.4 is the circumference (2 × 3.14 × 5), the distance around the bandage rather than its area. 314 uses the diameter, 10, in place of the radius (3.14 × 10 × 10).
Estimate the product of 49 and 21 by rounding each number to the nearest ten.
- A.1,029
- B.1,500
- C.1,000
- D.1,050
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Correct answer: 1,000
Rounding 49 to the nearest ten gives 50 and rounding 21 gives 20, so the estimate is 50 × 20 = 1,000. Multiplying the original numbers gives the exact product, 1,029, which is not an estimate. Rounding 21 up to 30 instead of down to 20 gives 50 × 30 = 1,500, and rounding only 49 while leaving 21 unchanged gives 50 × 21 = 1,050.
Subtract: 5.4 minus 2.75.
- A.3.35
- B.2.29
- C.3.65
- D.2.65
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Correct answer: 2.65
Write 5.4 as 5.40 so the decimal points line up, then subtract: 5.40 - 2.75 = 2.65. Subtracting the smaller digit from the larger in each column instead of borrowing gives 3.35. Borrowing for the tenths place but forgetting to reduce the ones digit from 5 to 4 gives 3.65, and writing 5.4 as 5.04 gives 5.04 - 2.75 = 2.29.
What is 0.6 multiplied by 0.4?
- A.0.24
- B.0.024
- C.2.4
- D.1.0
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Correct answer: 0.24
Multiply 6 by 4 to get 24. Each factor has one decimal place, so the product needs two decimal places: 0.24. 0.024 uses three decimal places, one too many. 2.4 uses only one decimal place. 1.0 is the sum, 0.6 + 0.4, not the product.
What is 7/8 minus 1/4?
- A.6/8
- B.3/16
- C.3/8
- D.5/8
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Correct answer: 5/8
Write 1/4 with the common denominator 8 as 2/8, then subtract: 7/8 - 2/8 = 5/8, which is already in lowest terms. Subtracting the numerators without first rewriting 1/4 in eighths gives (7 - 1)/8 = 6/8. Rewriting 1/4 as 4/8 by multiplying the numerator by 4 instead of 2 gives 7/8 - 4/8 = 3/8, and subtracting the numerators over the product of the denominators gives 6/32, which reduces to 3/16.
What is 3 1/2 divided by 1/4?
- A.10
- B.12
- C.7/8
- D.14
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Correct answer: 14
Change 3 1/2 to the improper fraction 7/2, then multiply by the reciprocal of 1/4: 7/2 × 4/1 = 28/2 = 14. Converting 3 1/2 as 5/2 (multiplying the whole number by the numerator and adding the denominator) gives 5/2 × 4 = 10. Dividing only the whole number, 3 ÷ 1/4 = 12, drops the half, and multiplying by 1/4 instead of dividing gives 7/2 × 1/4 = 7/8.
A data set contains the values 4, 7, 7, 9, and 13. What is the range of the data set?
- A.10
- B.8
- C.7
- D.9
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Correct answer: 9
The range is the largest value minus the smallest value: 13 - 4 = 9. 10 comes from adding 1 to that difference, as if counting the whole numbers from 4 to 13. 8 is the mean (40 ÷ 5), which measures the center, not the spread. 7 is both the mode and the median, which are also measures of center.
A bag holds 3 red, 5 blue, and 2 green chips. If one chip is drawn at random, what is the probability it is blue?
- A.1/5
- B.1/2
- C.1/10
- D.1/3
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Correct answer: 1/2
There are 5 blue chips among 3 + 5 + 2 = 10 chips, so the probability is 5/10, which reduces to 1/2. Treating the three colors as equally likely gives 1/3, which ignores how many chips of each color there are. Using one chip out of the ten gives 1/10, which counts a single blue chip, and 1/5 is the probability of drawing green (2/10), read from the wrong color.
What is the value of 2,300 expressed in scientific notation?
- A.2.3 x 10^3
- B.2.3 x 10^-3
- C.2.3 x 10^2
- D.2.3 x 10^-2
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Correct answer: 2.3 x 10^3
Moving the decimal point in 2,300 three places to the left gives 2.3, a number between 1 and 10, so the exponent is positive 3: 2.3 x 10^3. A negative exponent is used only for numbers smaller than 1, so 2.3 x 10^-3 equals 0.0023. Counting only the two zeros gives 2.3 x 10^2, which equals 230, and making both mistakes gives 2.3 x 10^-2, which equals 0.023.
A nurse worked shifts of 8 hours, 12 hours, 10 hours, and 6 hours over four days. What was the average shift length in hours?
- A.7
- B.31.5
- C.9
- D.36
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Correct answer: 9
The mean is the total divided by the number of shifts: 8 + 12 + 10 + 6 = 36, and 36 ÷ 4 = 9 hours. Averaging only the first and last shifts listed, (8 + 6) ÷ 2, gives 7. Entering 8 + 12 + 10 + 6 ÷ 4 without grouping the sum divides only the last shift and gives 31.5, and stopping at the total, 36, without dividing by the 4 shifts gives the sum of the hours rather than the average.
A patient receives an IV fluid at a constant rate of 125 milliliters per hour. How many milliliters will the patient receive in 6 hours?
- A.650
- B.720
- C.750
- D.620
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Correct answer: 750
Total volume equals rate times time: 125 mL per hour × 6 hours = 750 mL. Working the multiplication digit by digit, 6 × 5 = 30 (write 0, carry 3), 6 × 2 + 3 = 15 (write 5, carry 1), and 6 × 1 + 1 = 7. Dropping the first carry gives 720, dropping the second carry gives 650, and dropping both carries gives 620.
Writing (58)
Which sentence uses correct subject-verb agreement?
- A.A list of supplies were on the counter.
- B.The list of supplies is on the counter.
- C.A list of supplies are on the counter.
- D.The list of supplies sit on the counter.
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Correct answer: The list of supplies is on the counter.
A verb agrees with its subject, not with a noun inside a prepositional phrase that follows the subject. Here the subject is the singular noun "list"; "of supplies" only describes it. So "The list of supplies is on the counter." is correct. "A list of supplies were on the counter." matches the plural "were" to "supplies" instead of "list." "A list of supplies are on the counter." makes the same mistake with "are." "The list of supplies sit on the counter." uses the plural "sit" where the singular subject needs "sits."
Choose the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement: "Neither the doctor nor the nurses ___ available right now."
- A.Is
- B.Was
- C.Seems
- D.Are
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Correct answer: Are
When two subjects are joined by "neither ... nor," the verb agrees with the subject closer to it. In "Neither the doctor nor the nurses ___ available right now," the closer subject is the plural "nurses," so the plural verb "are" is correct. "Is" and "seems" are singular forms that agree with "doctor," the farther subject. "Was" is also singular, and its past tense clashes with "right now."
Which sentence is correct?
- A.Each of the patients has a chart.
- B.Each of the patients have a chart.
- C.Each of the patients own a chart.
- D.Each of the patients get a chart.
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Correct answer: Each of the patients has a chart.
The pronoun "each" is singular, so it takes a singular verb even when a plural noun follows "of the." "Each of the patients has a chart." uses the singular "has." "Each of the patients have a chart." matches the verb to "patients" instead of to the real subject, "each." "Each of the patients own a chart." uses the plural "own" where the singular "owns" is needed. "Each of the patients get a chart." uses the plural "get" where the singular "gets" is needed.
Select the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement.
- A.There is several reasons for the delay.
- B.There was several reasons for the delay.
- C.There were several reason for the delay.
- D.There are several reasons for the delay.
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Correct answer: There are several reasons for the delay.
When a sentence begins with "there," the word "there" is not the subject. The verb agrees with the noun that follows it. Here that noun is the plural "reasons," so "There are several reasons for the delay." is correct. "There is several reasons for the delay." puts the singular verb "is" with the plural "reasons." "There was several reasons for the delay." makes the same mistake with the singular "was." "There were several reason for the delay." has a plural verb but a singular noun: "several" needs "reasons," and "were" does not agree with "reason."
Which sentence correctly matches the subject and verb?
- A.The team of researchers have announced its discovery.
- B.The team of researchers is celebrating its discovery.
- C.The team of researchers are celebrating its discovery.
- D.The team of researchers were reporting its discovery.
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Correct answer: The team of researchers is celebrating its discovery.
A collective noun such as "team" takes a singular verb when the group acts as one unit, and the verb and the pronoun must both stay singular. "The team of researchers is celebrating its discovery." pairs the singular "team" with "is" and "its." "The team of researchers have announced its discovery." uses the plural "have" with the singular "its." "The team of researchers are celebrating its discovery." matches the plural "are" to "researchers" in the prepositional phrase. "The team of researchers were reporting its discovery." makes the same mismatch with "were."
Choose the correct verb: "Mathematics ___ a required subject for nursing students."
- A.Are
- B.Is
- C.Be
- D.Were
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Correct answer: Is
Some nouns end in "s" but name a single subject or field of study, and they take singular verbs. "Mathematics" is one of these, so the sentence reads "Mathematics is a required subject for nursing students." "Are" is a plural verb, so it treats "mathematics" as if it named several things. "Be" is the base form, which follows a helping verb ("must be") and cannot be the main verb right after a subject. "Were" is plural and also past tense, so it does not fit a requirement that is still in effect.
Which sentence uses subject-verb agreement correctly?
- A.My favorite part of the lectures is the demonstrations.
- B.My favorite part of the lecture are the demonstrations.
- C.My favorite part of the lecture were the demonstrations.
- D.My favorite parts of the lecture is the demonstrations.
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Correct answer: My favorite part of the lectures is the demonstrations.
A linking verb agrees with its subject, not with the noun that follows it or a noun in a prepositional phrase. The subject here is the singular "part," so "My favorite part of the lectures is the demonstrations." is correct even though "lectures" and "demonstrations" are plural. "My favorite part of the lecture are the demonstrations." pairs the singular subject "part" with the plural verb "are." "My favorite part of the lecture were the demonstrations." makes the same mistake with the plural "were." "My favorite parts of the lecture is the demonstrations." has the plural subject "parts" but keeps the singular verb "is."
Select the sentence with the correct verb form.
- A.Everybody in the classes were given a syllabus.
- B.Everybody in the classes are given a syllabus.
- C.Everybody in the classes have been given a syllabus.
- D.Everybody in the classes was given a syllabus.
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Correct answer: Everybody in the classes was given a syllabus.
Indefinite pronouns such as "everybody," "everyone," and "each" are singular and take singular verbs, even when a plural noun follows in a phrase. "Everybody in the classes was given a syllabus." uses the singular "was." "Everybody in the classes were given a syllabus." and "Everybody in the classes are given a syllabus." use plural verbs that agree with "classes" instead of the subject. "Everybody in the classes have been given a syllabus." makes the same error with "have been," where "has been" would agree.
Which sentence correctly uses a comma?
- A.After the long shift the nurse, finally rested.
- B.After the long, shift the nurse finally rested.
- C.After the long shift, the nurse finally rested.
- D.After the long shift the nurse finally, rested.
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Correct answer: After the long shift, the nurse finally rested.
A comma follows an introductory phrase to mark where it ends and the main clause begins, and no single comma should come between a subject and its verb. The introductory phrase is "After the long shift," so the comma goes right after "shift": "After the long shift, the nurse finally rested." "After the long shift the nurse, finally rested." leaves out the needed comma and puts one between the subject "nurse" and its verb. "After the long, shift the nurse finally rested." splits "long shift," two words that belong together. "After the long shift the nurse finally, rested." leaves out the needed comma and cuts the adverb "finally" off from the verb it modifies.
Choose the sentence that uses commas correctly to separate items in a series.
- A.She packed bandages, gloves, a thermometer, and a notebook.
- B.She packed, bandages, gloves, a thermometer, and a notebook.
- C.She packed bandages; gloves; a thermometer; and a notebook.
- D.She packed bandages gloves, a thermometer, and a notebook.
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Correct answer: She packed bandages, gloves, a thermometer, and a notebook.
Commas separate the items in a series, and in Chicago style a comma also comes before the final "and" (the serial comma). No comma goes between a verb and its object. "She packed bandages, gloves, a thermometer, and a notebook." follows both rules. "She packed, bandages, gloves, a thermometer, and a notebook." puts a comma between the verb "packed" and the list it governs. "She packed bandages; gloves; a thermometer; and a notebook." uses semicolons. Semicolons are needed only when the items already contain commas, and these items do not. "She packed bandages gloves, a thermometer, and a notebook." leaves out the comma between the first two items, so "bandages gloves" reads as one item.
Which sentence correctly uses an apostrophe?
- A.The patients record's were updated this morning.
- B.The patients' record's were updated this morning.
- C.The patients's records were updated this morning.
- D.The patient's records were updated this morning.
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Correct answer: The patient's records were updated this morning.
An apostrophe shows possession; it never forms a plain plural. For one owner, add an apostrophe and "s" ("patient's"); for a plural owner ending in "s," add the apostrophe alone ("patients'"). "The patient's records were updated this morning." shows one patient owning the records, and the plural "records" takes no apostrophe. "The patients record's were updated this morning." drops the possessive apostrophe from "patients" and adds one to the plain plural "records." "The patients' record's were updated this morning." has a correct plural possessive but the same wrong apostrophe in "record's." "The patients's records were updated this morning." adds "'s" to a plural that already ends in "s," where only the apostrophe belongs.
Choose the sentence with correct punctuation.
- A.The schedule changed, however, no one was notified.
- B.The schedule changed; however; no one was notified.
- C.The schedule changed; however, no one was notified.
- D.The schedule changed; however, no one, was notified.
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Correct answer: The schedule changed; however, no one was notified.
"However" is a conjunctive adverb, not a conjunction, so it cannot join two independent clauses with commas alone. Put a semicolon before it and a comma after it: "The schedule changed; however, no one was notified." "The schedule changed, however, no one was notified." is a comma splice, because two complete clauses are joined only by commas. "The schedule changed; however; no one was notified." uses a second semicolon after "however," where a comma belongs, so "however" is cut off as if it were a clause of its own. "The schedule changed; however, no one, was notified." punctuates "however" correctly but adds a comma between the subject "no one" and its verb "was notified."
Which sentence uses a comma correctly with a nonessential phrase?
- A.Dr. Reyes, who runs the clinic, approved the plan.
- B.Dr. Reyes, who runs the clinic approved the plan.
- C.Dr. Reyes who runs the clinic, approved the plan.
- D.Dr. Reyes, who runs the clinic approved, the plan.
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Correct answer: Dr. Reyes, who runs the clinic, approved the plan.
A nonessential clause adds extra information that the sentence could do without, so it is set off with a comma on both sides, like a pair of parentheses. "Dr. Reyes, who runs the clinic, approved the plan." encloses "who runs the clinic" in a pair of commas. "Dr. Reyes, who runs the clinic approved the plan." opens the clause but never closes it. "Dr. Reyes who runs the clinic, approved the plan." closes it but never opens it, leaving a lone comma between the subject and the verb. "Dr. Reyes, who runs the clinic approved, the plan." misplaces the closing comma after "approved," which cuts the verb off from its object.
Select the sentence that correctly punctuates a direct quotation.
- A.The instructor, said "Wash your hands before each visit."
- B.The instructor said, "wash your hands before each visit."
- C.The instructor said, "Wash your hands before each visit."
- D.The instructor said, "Wash your hands before each visit".
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Correct answer: The instructor said, "Wash your hands before each visit."
In US style, a quoted full sentence follows a comma after the verb of speaking, begins with a capital letter, and puts the final period inside the closing quotation mark. 'The instructor said, "Wash your hands before each visit."' follows all three rules. 'The instructor, said "Wash your hands before each visit."' puts the comma between the subject and the verb instead of before the quotation. 'The instructor said, "wash your hands before each visit."' starts the quoted sentence with a lowercase letter. 'The instructor said, "Wash your hands before each visit".' puts the period outside the closing quotation mark, which US style does not allow.
Which sentence is a complete sentence rather than a fragment?
- A.Because the medication arrived late.
- B.The nurse charted the results.
- C.The doctor reviewing the new scans.
- D.After the morning rounds.
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Correct answer: The nurse charted the results.
A complete sentence needs a subject, a main (finite) verb, and a complete thought. "The nurse charted the results." has the subject "nurse," the verb "charted," and stands on its own. "Because the medication arrived late." has a subject and verb, but the word "because" makes it a dependent clause that leaves the thought unfinished. "The doctor reviewing the new scans." has a subject, but "reviewing" is a participle, not a main verb; it would need "is" or "was" to work. "After the morning rounds." is a prepositional phrase with no subject or verb at all.
Which option correctly fixes this run-on sentence: "The alarm sounded everyone left the building"?
- A.The alarm sounded, everyone left the building.
- B.The alarm sounded everyone; left the building.
- C.The alarm sounded; everyone left the building.
- D.The alarm sounded everyone left, the building.
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Correct answer: The alarm sounded; everyone left the building.
The run-on contains two independent clauses, "The alarm sounded" and "everyone left the building." A semicolon can join two closely related independent clauses, and it must sit exactly where the first clause ends: "The alarm sounded; everyone left the building." "The alarm sounded, everyone left the building." uses a comma alone, which creates a comma splice. "The alarm sounded everyone; left the building." splits the subject "everyone" from its verb "left" and still runs "sounded" into "everyone." "The alarm sounded everyone left, the building." leaves the two clauses fused and puts a comma between the verb "left" and its object, "the building."
Which sentence is a run-on that needs correction?
- A.The patient rested, and the family waited nearby.
- B.While the patient rested, the family waited nearby.
- C.The patient rested; the family waited nearby.
- D.The patient rested the family waited nearby.
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Correct answer: The patient rested the family waited nearby.
A run-on (fused sentence) joins two independent clauses with no punctuation or connecting word between them. "The patient rested the family waited nearby." runs "The patient rested" straight into "the family waited nearby," so it is the sentence that needs correction. The other three are correct: "The patient rested, and the family waited nearby." joins the clauses with a comma and the conjunction "and"; "While the patient rested, the family waited nearby." turns the first clause into a dependent clause with "while"; and "The patient rested; the family waited nearby." joins them with a semicolon.
Which choice turns the fragment "Studying for the entrance exam every evening" into a complete sentence?
- A.Maria, who studied for the entrance exam every evening.
- B.Studying for the entrance exam every evening at home.
- C.Maria studied for the entrance exam every evening.
- D.Because she studied for her exam every evening.
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Correct answer: Maria studied for the entrance exam every evening.
A fragment becomes a sentence only when it has a subject and a main (finite) verb that are not trapped in a dependent clause. "Maria studied for the entrance exam every evening." supplies the subject "Maria" and the past-tense verb "studied." "Maria, who studied for the entrance exam every evening." puts the verb inside a relative clause, so "Maria" never gets a main verb. "Studying for the entrance exam every evening at home." only adds another phrase, so it still has no subject or main verb. "Because she studied for her exam every evening." is a dependent clause that cannot stand alone.
Which sentence corrects the comma splice "The results were ready, the doctor reviewed them at once"?
- A.The results were ready, then the doctor reviewed them at once.
- B.The results were ready, so the doctor reviewed them at once.
- C.The results were ready so, the doctor reviewed them at once.
- D.The results were ready, thus the doctor reviewed them at once.
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Correct answer: The results were ready, so the doctor reviewed them at once.
One way to fix a comma splice is to add a coordinating conjunction (and, but, or, so, for, nor, yet) after the comma. "The results were ready, so the doctor reviewed them at once." does this with "so." "The results were ready, then the doctor reviewed them at once." uses "then," which is an adverb rather than a conjunction, so the comma splice remains. "The results were ready so, the doctor reviewed them at once." puts the comma after "so" instead of before it. "The results were ready, thus the doctor reviewed them at once." uses the conjunctive adverb "thus," which needs a semicolon before it, not a comma.
Which sentence uses pronouns correctly?
- A.Each student must bring his or her own calculator.
- B.Between you and I, the final exam was easier than we expected.
- C.The charge nurse thanked Lena and myself for the help.
- D.Us students must bring our badges to class.
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Correct answer: Each student must bring his or her own calculator.
A pronoun must match its antecedent in number and take the case its job in the sentence requires. "Each student must bring his or her own calculator." uses the singular possessive "his or her" to match the singular "each student." "Between you and I, the final exam was easier than we expected." uses the subject form "I" as the object of the preposition "between"; it should be "between you and me." "The charge nurse thanked Lena and myself for the help." uses the reflexive "myself" with no "I" earlier in the sentence for it to reflect; it should be "me." "Us students must bring our badges to class." uses the object form "us" as part of the subject; it should be "we students."
Choose the sentence with correct pronoun case.
- A.The supervisor gave the new badges to Maria and I.
- B.The supervisor gave the new badges to Maria and myself.
- C.The supervisor gave the new badges to Maria and me.
- D.The supervisor gave the new badges to Maria and she.
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Correct answer: The supervisor gave the new badges to Maria and me.
A pronoun that is the object of a preposition takes the objective case (me, him, her, us, them). Here both "Maria" and the pronoun are objects of "to," so "The supervisor gave the new badges to Maria and me." is correct; dropping "Maria" shows it, since "gave the badges to me" sounds right. "The supervisor gave the new badges to Maria and I." uses the subject form "I" ("gave the badges to I"). "The supervisor gave the new badges to Maria and myself." uses the reflexive "myself," which needs "I" as the subject of the same sentence. "The supervisor gave the new badges to Maria and she." uses the subject form "she" where the object form "her" would be needed.
Which sentence uses a pronoun that agrees with its antecedent?
- A.The hospital updated its visiting policy.
- B.The interns introduced himself to the unit.
- C.The two surgeons reviewed his own notes.
- D.The clinics revised its own visiting rules.
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Correct answer: The hospital updated its visiting policy.
A pronoun must agree in number with its antecedent: singular with singular, plural with plural. "The hospital updated its visiting policy." pairs the singular "hospital" with the singular "its." "The interns introduced himself to the unit." uses the singular reflexive "himself" for the plural "interns"; it should be "themselves." "The two surgeons reviewed his own notes." uses "his own," which must refer back to the subject, for the plural "two surgeons"; it should be "their own." "The clinics revised its own visiting rules." pairs the plural "clinics" with the singular "its"; it should be "their own."
Which sentence avoids an unclear pronoun reference?
- A.When the nurse paged the surgeon, she explained the patient's latest results.
- B.After the pharmacist phoned the doctor, he changed the dose for the patient.
- C.When the therapist moved the walker beside the chair, it suddenly tipped over.
- D.When the technician calibrated the machine, the technician noted the reading.
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Correct answer: When the technician calibrated the machine, the technician noted the reading.
A pronoun needs one clear antecedent. If two nouns could be meant, repeat or name the noun. "When the technician calibrated the machine, the technician noted the reading." repeats "the technician," so there is no doubt about who noted the reading. In "When the nurse paged the surgeon, she explained the patient's latest results." the pronoun "she" could mean the nurse or the surgeon. In "After the pharmacist phoned the doctor, he changed the dose for the patient." the pronoun "he" could mean the pharmacist or the doctor. In "When the therapist moved the walker beside the chair, it suddenly tipped over." the pronoun "it" could mean the walker or the chair.
Choose the sentence with the correct pronoun.
- A.Whose responsible for the night shift?
- B.Whom's responsible for the night shift?
- C.Who is responsible for the night shift?
- D.Whom is responsible for the night shift?
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Correct answer: Who is responsible for the night shift?
Use "who" (like "he" or "she") when the pronoun is the subject of a verb, and "whom" (like "him" or "her") when it is an object. Here the pronoun is the subject of "is," so "Who is responsible for the night shift?" is correct; the answer would be "She is responsible," not "Her is responsible." "Whose responsible for the night shift?" confuses the possessive "whose" with "who's" (who is) and leaves the sentence without a verb. "Whom's responsible for the night shift?" and "Whom is responsible for the night shift?" both use the object form "whom" as the subject of "is."
Which sentence maintains consistent verb tense?
- A.The nurse checks the chart and updated the records.
- B.The nurse checking the chart and updated the records.
- C.The nurse will check the chart and updated the records.
- D.The nurse checked the chart and updated the records.
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Correct answer: The nurse checked the chart and updated the records.
Verbs that describe actions in the same time frame should stay in the same tense. "The nurse checked the chart and updated the records." keeps both verbs, "checked" and "updated," in the past tense. "The nurse checks the chart and updated the records." shifts from present to past in the middle of the sentence. "The nurse will check the chart and updated the records." pairs the future "will check" with the past "updated." "The nurse checking the chart and updated the records." uses the participle "checking" with no helping verb, so the first action has no working verb at all.
Choose the sentence with consistent verb tense.
- A.As the patient described her symptoms, the doctor wrote notes.
- B.As the patient describes her symptoms, the doctor wrote notes.
- C.As the patient is describing her symptoms, the doctor wrote notes.
- D.As the patient will describe her symptoms, the doctor wrote notes.
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Correct answer: As the patient described her symptoms, the doctor wrote notes.
Two actions happening at the same moment, linked by "as," should be in the same tense. "As the patient described her symptoms, the doctor wrote notes." puts both "described" and "wrote" in the past. "As the patient describes her symptoms, the doctor wrote notes." and "As the patient is describing her symptoms, the doctor wrote notes." set a present-tense action beside a past one. "As the patient will describe her symptoms, the doctor wrote notes." sets a future action beside a past one, which cannot both be happening "as" the other does.
Which sentence keeps the tense consistent?
- A.Yesterday she will review the notes and pass the quiz.
- B.Yesterday she reviewed the notes and passed the quiz.
- C.Yesterday she reviews the notes and passes the quiz.
- D.Yesterday she reviewed the notes and passes the quiz.
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Correct answer: Yesterday she reviewed the notes and passed the quiz.
A time expression such as "yesterday" fixes the action in the past, so every verb that describes it should be past tense. "Yesterday she reviewed the notes and passed the quiz." uses the past "reviewed" and "passed." "Yesterday she will review the notes and pass the quiz." uses the future, which contradicts "yesterday." "Yesterday she reviews the notes and passes the quiz." uses the present tense for a past event. "Yesterday she reviewed the notes and passes the quiz." starts in the past and then shifts to the present "passes."
Which sentence corrects the tense shift in "The researcher gathers the data, then she analyzed it carefully"?
- A.The researcher gathers the data, then she analyzed it carefully.
- B.The researcher gathered the data, then she analyzed it carefully.
- C.The researcher gathering the data, then she analyzed it carefully.
- D.The researcher will gather the data, then she analyzed it carefully.
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Correct answer: The researcher gathered the data, then she analyzed it carefully.
The tense shift is fixed by putting the first verb in the same tense as "analyzed," the past. "The researcher gathered the data, then she analyzed it carefully." changes "gathers" to "gathered," so both actions are in the past. "The researcher gathers the data, then she analyzed it carefully." is the original sentence, with the shift from present to past still in place. "The researcher will gather the data, then she analyzed it carefully." creates a new shift, from future to past. "The researcher gathering the data, then she analyzed it carefully." replaces the verb with the participle "gathering," which leaves the first clause without a working verb. (In polished writing the two clauses would also be joined with "and then" or a semicolon, but the tense of "gathered" is the point being tested.)
Which sentence places the modifier correctly?
- A.Covered in mud, the technician cleaned the boots.
- B.Covered in mud, cleaning the boots was hard.
- C.The technician cleaned the boots covered in mud.
- D.The technician cleaned the boots in the sink covered in mud.
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Correct answer: The technician cleaned the boots covered in mud.
A modifier should sit next to the word it describes. The mud is on the boots, so "covered in mud" belongs right after "boots": "The technician cleaned the boots covered in mud." "Covered in mud, the technician cleaned the boots." puts the phrase next to "technician," so it now says the technician was the one covered in mud. "Covered in mud, cleaning the boots was hard." leaves the phrase dangling, since "cleaning" cannot be covered in mud and the boots are no longer the subject. "The technician cleaned the boots in the sink covered in mud." places the phrase after "sink," so it seems to describe the sink rather than the boots.
Which sentence contains a misplaced modifier?
- A.The aide brought the patient a blanket that had just been washed.
- B.The nurse gave a pamphlet to the patient about diabetes that was new.
- C.Smiling warmly, the nurse greeted the patient who was waiting nearby.
- D.The aide handed the chart about the patient to the doctor who needed it.
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Correct answer: The nurse gave a pamphlet to the patient about diabetes that was new.
A misplaced modifier sits so far from the word it describes that it seems to describe something else. In "The nurse gave a pamphlet to the patient about diabetes that was new." the phrases "about diabetes" and "that was new" both belong to "pamphlet," but they follow "patient" and "diabetes," so the sentence seems to describe a patient about diabetes and diabetes that was new. The other three place each modifier correctly: in "The aide brought the patient a blanket that had just been washed." the clause "that had just been washed" sits beside "blanket"; in "Smiling warmly, the nurse greeted the patient who was waiting nearby." the opening phrase describes "the nurse" and "who was waiting nearby" follows "patient"; and in "The aide handed the chart about the patient to the doctor who needed it." the phrase "about the patient" follows "chart" and the clause "who needed it" follows "doctor."
Which sentence corrects the dangling modifier in "While reading the chart, the phone rang loudly"?
- A.While the nurse was reading the chart, the phone rang loudly.
- B.While reading the chart, the phone rang loudly for the nurse.
- C.Reading the chart, the nurse's own phone suddenly rang loudly.
- D.The phone rang loudly while reading through the nurse's chart.
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Correct answer: While the nurse was reading the chart, the phone rang loudly.
A dangling modifier has no logical subject in the sentence to describe, and here a phone cannot read a chart. The fix is to name the reader inside the modifier: "While the nurse was reading the chart, the phone rang loudly." "While reading the chart, the phone rang loudly for the nurse." mentions the nurse only at the end, so the phrase still attaches to "the phone." "Reading the chart, the nurse's own phone suddenly rang loudly." still makes "phone" the subject, and the possessive "nurse's" does not give the phrase a subject. "The phone rang loudly while reading through the nurse's chart." moves the phrase to the end, but "the phone" is still the only one doing the reading.
Which sentence is the clearest because the modifier is placed correctly?
- A.The student almost answered every question on the test.
- B.Almost the student answered every question on the test.
- C.The student answered almost every question on the test.
- D.The student answered every question almost on the test.
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Correct answer: The student answered almost every question on the test.
A limiting modifier such as "almost," "only," or "nearly" applies to the word right after it, so it must sit directly before the word it limits. "The student answered almost every question on the test." places "almost" before "every question," meaning the student answered nearly all of them. "The student almost answered every question on the test." places it before "answered," so it says the student nearly answered but did not. "Almost the student answered every question on the test." and "The student answered every question almost on the test." attach "almost" to words it cannot sensibly limit, which leaves the meaning unclear.
Which sentence uses the correct word, affect or effect?
- A.The new policy will have an affect on every department.
- B.The new policy will effect every department.
- C.The new policy will effect every department's budget.
- D.The new policy will affect every department.
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Correct answer: The new policy will affect every department.
"Affect" is usually a verb meaning "to influence," while "effect" is usually a noun meaning "a result"; as a verb, "effect" means "to bring about" or "to create." "The new policy will affect every department." uses the verb "affect" correctly: the policy will influence every department. "The new policy will have an affect on every department." uses "affect" as a noun after "an," where the noun "effect" is needed. "The new policy will effect every department." uses the verb "effect," which would mean the policy will create every department. "The new policy will effect every department's budget." makes the same mistake, saying the policy will create each budget rather than influence it.
Choose the sentence with the correct word.
- A.The clinic has been loosing patients to the new hospital across town.
- B.You should take the medication with food, not on an empty stomach.
- C.Their going to update the patient records tomorrow, after rounds.
- D.After the exam, the doctor said the rash was worse then expected.
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Correct answer: You should take the medication with food, not on an empty stomach.
Commonly confused words must be chosen by meaning, not sound. "You should take the medication with food, not on an empty stomach." uses every word correctly. "The clinic has been loosing patients to the new hospital across town." uses "loosing" (making something loose) where "losing" (failing to keep) is meant. "Their going to update the patient records tomorrow, after rounds." uses the possessive "their" where the contraction "they're" (they are) is needed. "After the exam, the doctor said the rash was worse then expected." uses "then," which refers to time, where "than," which makes a comparison, is needed.
Which sentence uses "its" and "it's" correctly?
- A.Its almost time for the exam, and the room lost its key.
- B.It's almost time for the exam, and the room lost it's key.
- C.Its almost time for the exam, and the room lost it's key.
- D.It's almost time for the exam, and the room lost its key.
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Correct answer: It's almost time for the exam, and the room lost its key.
"It's" is always a contraction of "it is" or "it has"; "its," with no apostrophe, is the possessive form, like "his" or "her." "It's almost time for the exam, and the room lost its key." uses "it's" for "it is almost time" and "its" to show what belongs to the room. "Its almost time for the exam, and the room lost its key." drops the apostrophe the contraction needs. "It's almost time for the exam, and the room lost it's key." adds an apostrophe to the possessive, which would read "lost it is key." "Its almost time for the exam, and the room lost it's key." reverses both forms.
Choose the sentence that uses the correct word.
- A.There were fewer complications than expected.
- B.There were less complications than expected.
- C.There were lesser complications than expected.
- D.There were fewest complications than expected.
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Correct answer: There were fewer complications than expected.
Use "fewer" with things that can be counted one by one and "less" with amounts that cannot be counted. Complications can be counted, so "There were fewer complications than expected." is correct. "There were less complications than expected." uses "less," which belongs with uncountable amounts such as "less pain." "There were lesser complications than expected." uses "lesser," which describes importance or rank ("a lesser concern") and is not followed by "than." "There were fewest complications than expected." uses the superlative "fewest," which compares three or more and cannot be followed by "than."
Which sentence uses the correct word?
- A.We hope the drug has a strong affect on her pain.
- B.The patient felt far worse then he had a week ago.
- C.She could of finished the new intake form by noon.
- D.Please ensure the door is locked before you leave.
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Correct answer: Please ensure the door is locked before you leave.
Only 'Please ensure the door is locked before you leave.' uses every word correctly: 'ensure' means to make certain, which is exactly the sense the sentence needs. 'We hope the drug has a strong affect on her pain.' uses the verb 'affect' where the noun 'effect' belongs after 'a strong'. 'The patient felt far worse then he had a week ago.' uses the time word 'then' where the comparison word 'than' is required. 'She could of finished the new intake form by noon.' writes 'could of', a mishearing of 'could have' (could've).
A paragraph opens with the sentence "There are several simple ways to prevent the spread of infection in a clinic." Which sentence would best continue the paragraph?
- A.Next, staff should wipe down exam tables and chairs between patient visits.
- B.In short, staff should follow these steps to keep every exam room spotless.
- C.However, staff should also rest well and eat a full meal before each shift.
- D.First, staff should wash their hands before and after each patient contact.
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Correct answer: First, staff should wash their hands before and after each patient contact.
The best continuation is 'First, staff should wash their hands before and after each patient contact.' The opening promises several simple ways to prevent infection, and this sentence gives the first of them, signaled by 'First'. 'Next, staff should wipe down exam tables and chairs between patient visits.' is on topic, but 'Next' assumes an earlier step has already been given, and none has. 'In short, staff should follow these steps to keep every exam room spotless.' sums up steps that have not been listed yet. 'However, staff should also rest well and eat a full meal before each shift.' drifts from infection control to staff wellness and signals a contrast the paragraph does not need.
A writer wants to add support to a paragraph arguing that exercise improves sleep. Which sentence best develops that point?
- A.Studies show that people who work out regularly tend to fall asleep faster.
- B.Studies show that people who walk for exercise tend to have lower blood pressure.
- C.Studies show that hard workouts close to bedtime can delay sleep for some adults.
- D.Studies show that most adults need seven to nine hours of sleep each night.
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Correct answer: Studies show that people who work out regularly tend to fall asleep faster.
The best support is 'Studies show that people who work out regularly tend to fall asleep faster.' It offers evidence for the exact link the paragraph argues, that exercise leads to better sleep. 'Studies show that people who walk for exercise tend to have lower blood pressure.' supports a different benefit of exercise, heart health, not sleep. 'Studies show that hard workouts close to bedtime can delay sleep for some adults.' points the other way, so it weakens the argument instead of developing it. 'Studies show that most adults need seven to nine hours of sleep each night.' is about sleep alone and says nothing about exercise.
In a paragraph about the benefits of drinking water, which sentence is irrelevant and should be removed?
- A.Staying hydrated helps the body keep a steady temperature.
- B.The kidneys need plenty of water to filter wastes well.
- C.The cafeteria recently added three new dessert choices.
- D.Drinking enough water can sharpen the mind and ease headaches.
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Correct answer: The cafeteria recently added three new dessert choices.
The sentence to remove is 'The cafeteria recently added three new dessert choices.' It has nothing to do with the benefits of drinking water, which is the paragraph's focus. 'Staying hydrated helps the body keep a steady temperature.', 'The kidneys need plenty of water to filter wastes well.' and 'Drinking enough water can sharpen the mind and ease headaches.' each state a real benefit of drinking water, so all three belong in the paragraph.
A paragraph needs a concluding sentence after explaining how handwashing, masks, and clean surfaces reduce illness. Which sentence best concludes it?
- A.In the end, handwashing protects people far better than masks or surfaces.
- B.Next, vaccines add another strong layer of protection against illness.
- C.Together, these three simple habits greatly cut the spread of disease.
- D.Masks also come in many sizes, so each person can find a good fit.
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Correct answer: Together, these three simple habits greatly cut the spread of disease.
The best conclusion is 'Together, these three simple habits greatly cut the spread of disease.' It gathers handwashing, masks and clean surfaces into one closing point that restates the paragraph's main idea. 'In the end, handwashing protects people far better than masks or surfaces.' ranks one habit above the others, a claim the paragraph never made, so it does not sum up all three. 'Next, vaccines add another strong layer of protection against illness.' opens a new point, which a concluding sentence should not do. 'Masks also come in many sizes, so each person can find a good fit.' is a minor detail about one habit, not a conclusion.
Four sentences are scrambled. Which order makes the most logical paragraph? (1) Finally, dry your hands with a clean towel. (2) First, wet your hands with clean water. (3) Then scrub with soap for at least twenty seconds. (4) Next, rinse the soap away thoroughly.
- A.2, 4, 3, 1
- B.1, 2, 3, 4
- C.1, 2, 4, 3
- D.2, 3, 4, 1
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Correct answer: 2, 3, 4, 1
The logical order is '2, 3, 4, 1': 'First' wet your hands, 'Then' scrub with soap, 'Next' rinse the soap away, and 'Finally' dry them. '2, 4, 3, 1' mixes up 'Then' and 'Next', so the soap is rinsed away before anyone scrubs with it. '1, 2, 3, 4' simply follows the printed numbers, which puts drying, the 'Finally' step, first. '1, 2, 4, 3' makes both mistakes: it starts with drying and also rinses before scrubbing.
Which transition word best fits the blank? "The patient followed every instruction carefully; ___, her recovery went smoothly."
- A.Nevertheless
- B.Additionally
- C.Consequently
- D.For instance
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Correct answer: Consequently
The blank needs a cause-and-effect transition, so 'Consequently' fits: 'The patient followed every instruction carefully; consequently, her recovery went smoothly.' The smooth recovery is the result of following the instructions. 'Nevertheless' signals a contrast, as if the recovery went smoothly in spite of her care, which the sentence does not mean. 'Additionally' only adds a second fact and hides the link between the care and the result. 'For instance' introduces an example, but the recovery is not an example of following instructions.
A passage describes a problem in one paragraph and proposes a fix in the next. Which sentence best opens the second paragraph to signal that shift?
- A.In response, the clinic could schedule visits in shorter time slots.
- B.For example, patients often wait more than an hour in the clinic lobby.
- C.In addition, the clinic's parking lot fills up early in the day.
- D.Similarly, phone calls to the clinic often go unanswered during busy periods.
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Correct answer: In response, the clinic could schedule visits in shorter time slots.
The best opening is 'In response, the clinic could schedule visits in shorter time slots.' The phrase 'In response' looks back at the problem and turns the reader toward a fix, which is the shift the second paragraph must signal. 'For example, patients often wait more than an hour in the clinic lobby.' only illustrates the problem again. 'In addition, the clinic's parking lot fills up early in the day.' adds a second problem instead of a solution. 'Similarly, phone calls to the clinic often go unanswered during busy periods.' describes yet another, similar problem, so none of these three moves the passage from problem to solution.
Where should the sentence "For these reasons, regular checkups are worth the time they take" most logically be placed in a paragraph?
- A.At the start, before the reasons have been explained
- B.At the end, once the reasons have been explained
- C.In the middle, between the first two reasons
- D.Right after the topic sentence, before any reasons are given
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Correct answer: At the end, once the reasons have been explained
The sentence belongs 'At the end, once the reasons have been explained'. 'For these reasons' points back to reasons already given, so the sentence works as a closing statement. 'At the start, before the reasons have been explained' would leave 'these reasons' with nothing to refer to. 'In the middle, between the first two reasons' would close the argument while reasons are still to come. 'Right after the topic sentence, before any reasons are given' has the same problem as placing it first: no reasons have been stated yet.
Which sentence uses correct subject-verb agreement when the subject follows a phrase beginning with not?
- A.The nurse, not the technicians, are responsible for the count.
- B.The nurse, not the technicians, is responsible for the count.
- C.The nurse, not the technicians, were responsible for the count.
- D.The nurse, not the technicians, have been responsible for the count.
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Correct answer: The nurse, not the technicians, is responsible for the count.
The subject is "nurse"; a phrase set off by "not" does not change the subject, so the verb must be singular: "The nurse, not the technicians, is responsible for the count." The versions "The nurse, not the technicians, are responsible for the count." and "The nurse, not the technicians, were responsible for the count." make the verb agree with "technicians," the noun closest to it. "The nurse, not the technicians, have been responsible for the count." makes the same mistake with a plural helping verb; a singular subject needs "has been."
Choose the sentence that uses a hyphen correctly in a compound modifier before a noun.
- A.She gave a well written report to the panel.
- B.She gave a well-written report to the panel.
- C.She gave a well-written-report to the panel.
- D.She gave a well written-report to the panel.
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Correct answer: She gave a well-written report to the panel.
When two words work together as one adjective before a noun, they are joined with a hyphen: "She gave a well-written report to the panel." In "She gave a well written report to the panel." the hyphen is missing, so the two words do not read as a single modifier. "She gave a well-written-report to the panel." also hyphenates the noun, which is not part of the modifier, and "She gave a well written-report to the panel." puts the hyphen between the modifier and the noun instead of between the two parts of the modifier.
Which sentence is written in the active voice rather than the passive voice?
- A.The medication was administered by the nurse.
- B.The nurse administered the medication.
- C.The medication had been administered carefully.
- D.The medication was being administered carefully.
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Correct answer: The nurse administered the medication.
In the active voice the subject performs the action: "The nurse administered the medication." has the nurse acting on the medication. "The medication was administered by the nurse." turns the receiver of the action into the subject and moves the doer into a "by" phrase, which is passive. "The medication had been administered carefully." and "The medication was being administered carefully." are also passive: each pairs a form of "be" with the past participle "administered," and neither says who acted.
Which sentence keeps its items in parallel grammatical form?
- A.The aide enjoys to chart, to lift, and organizing supplies.
- B.The aide enjoys charting, to lift, and to organize supplies.
- C.The aide enjoys charting, lifts, and organizing supplies.
- D.The aide enjoys charting, lifting, and organizing supplies.
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Correct answer: The aide enjoys charting, lifting, and organizing supplies.
Items in a series must share one grammatical form, and after "enjoys" that form is the -ing form: "The aide enjoys charting, lifting, and organizing supplies." "The aide enjoys to chart, to lift, and organizing supplies." mixes two infinitives with an -ing word, and "The aide enjoys charting, to lift, and to organize supplies." mixes them the other way. "The aide enjoys charting, lifts, and organizing supplies." drops a present-tense verb, "lifts," into a list of -ing words.
Which sentence uses the correct comparative or superlative form?
- A.Of the two thermometers, this one is most accurate.
- B.Of the two thermometers, this one is more accurate.
- C.Of the two thermometers, this one is most accuratest.
- D.Of the two thermometers, this one is more accurater.
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Correct answer: Of the two thermometers, this one is more accurate.
When exactly two things are compared, use the comparative form. For a long adjective, that form is "more" plus the adjective: "Of the two thermometers, this one is more accurate." "Of the two thermometers, this one is most accurate." uses the superlative, which belongs to comparisons of three or more. "Of the two thermometers, this one is most accuratest." is a double superlative and also uses the wrong degree for two items. "Of the two thermometers, this one is more accurater." is a double comparative that adds an "-er" ending, which a long adjective like "accurate" does not take.
Which sentence avoids a double negative?
- A.The patient did not voice no complaints.
- B.The patient wasn't making no complaints.
- C.The patient had scarcely no complaints.
- D.The patient did not have any complaints.
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Correct answer: The patient did not have any complaints.
One negative is enough. "The patient did not have any complaints." pairs "not" with the neutral word "any." "The patient did not voice no complaints." combines "not" with "no," which is a double negative. "The patient wasn't making no complaints." makes the same error, because the contraction "wasn't" still contains "not." "The patient had scarcely no complaints." pairs "scarcely," which is itself a negative word, with "no."
Which sentence correctly capitalizes a professional title used directly before a name?
- A.The patient spoke with doctor Lee about the Results.
- B.The patient spoke with Doctor lee about the Results.
- C.The patient spoke with doctor lee about the results.
- D.The patient spoke with Doctor Lee about the results.
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Correct answer: The patient spoke with Doctor Lee about the results.
A title used directly before a name becomes part of the name and is capitalized, as is the surname: "The patient spoke with Doctor Lee about the results." "The patient spoke with doctor Lee about the Results." leaves the title lowercase and capitalizes the common noun "results." "The patient spoke with Doctor lee about the Results." leaves the surname lowercase and also capitalizes "results." "The patient spoke with doctor lee about the results." leaves both the title and the surname lowercase.
Which revision states the idea most concisely without changing the meaning?
- A.Though the room was full, we waited.
- B.Due to the fact that the room was full, we waited.
- C.Because the room was full, we waited.
- D.Owing to the fact that the room was full, we waited.
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Correct answer: Because the room was full, we waited.
The single word "because" states the cause directly: "Because the room was full, we waited." "Due to the fact that the room was full, we waited." and "Owing to the fact that the room was full, we waited." each use a padded five-word phrase that means only "because," adding length without adding information. "Though the room was full, we waited." is just as short but changes the meaning, turning the cause into a contrast.
Which sentence corrects the faulty parallel structure in "The role requires patience, skill, and being dependable"?
- A.The role requires patience, to be skilled, and dependability.
- B.The role requires patience, skill, and dependability.
- C.The role requires patience, skill, and to be dependable.
- D.The role requires patience, skilled, and dependable.
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Correct answer: The role requires patience, skill, and dependability.
The list is parallel when all three items are nouns: "The role requires patience, skill, and dependability." "The role requires patience, to be skilled, and dependability." puts an infinitive phrase between two nouns, and "The role requires patience, skill, and to be dependable." ends the list of nouns with an infinitive. "The role requires patience, skilled, and dependable." follows a noun with two adjectives, which cannot serve as objects of "requires."
Which sentence uses the correct article before the noun?
- A.The patient waited for a hour in the lobby.
- B.The patient waited for an hours in the lobby.
- C.The patient waited for an hour in the lobby.
- D.The patient waited for a hours in the lobby.
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Correct answer: The patient waited for an hour in the lobby.
The choice between "a" and "an" depends on the first sound of the next word, and "hour" begins with a vowel sound because its "h" is silent: "The patient waited for an hour in the lobby." "The patient waited for a hour in the lobby." goes by the spelling instead of the sound. "The patient waited for an hours in the lobby." and "The patient waited for a hours in the lobby." pair a singular article with the plural "hours," which an article meaning "one" cannot introduce.
Which sentence chooses the correct verb form to follow the helping verb?
- A.The samples should have gone to the lab already.
- B.The samples should have went to the lab already.
- C.The samples should have going to the lab already.
- D.The samples should have goes to the lab already.
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Correct answer: The samples should have gone to the lab already.
The helping verb "have" must be followed by a past participle, and the past participle of "go" is "gone": "The samples should have gone to the lab already." "The samples should have went to the lab already." uses the simple past "went," a common error with irregular verbs. "The samples should have going to the lab already." uses the -ing form, which follows "be," not "have," and "The samples should have goes to the lab already." uses the present-tense form.
Which sentence uses an adverb correctly to modify the verb?
- A.The student answered the questions quick.
- B.The student answered the questions quickly.
- C.The student answered the questions quickest.
- D.The student answered the questions real quick.
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Correct answer: The student answered the questions quickly.
A word that tells how an action was done modifies the verb, so it must be the adverb: "The student answered the questions quickly." "The student answered the questions quick." uses the adjective "quick" in place of the adverb. "The student answered the questions quickest." uses a superlative although nothing is being compared, and "The student answered the questions real quick." is informal; standard written English requires "quickly."
Which sentence corrects the shift in person in "When a student studies daily, you tend to feel more prepared"?
- A.When a student studies daily, the student tends to feel more prepared.
- B.When you study daily, the average learner tends to feel more prepared.
- C.When students study daily, you tend to feel more prepared.
- D.When a student studies daily, we tend to feel more prepared.
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Correct answer: When a student studies daily, the student tends to feel more prepared.
The sentence opens in the third person with "a student," so the main clause must stay in the third person: "When a student studies daily, the student tends to feel more prepared." "When you study daily, the average learner tends to feel more prepared." simply moves the shift, starting in the second person and ending in the third. "When students study daily, you tend to feel more prepared." still shifts from the third-person "students" to the second-person "you," and "When a student studies daily, we tend to feel more prepared." shifts from the third person to the first-person "we."
Science (55)
A diabetic patient's blood glucose climbs after a meal, and insulin is released to bring it down. Once blood glucose returns to normal, insulin release decreases. This shut-off when the set point is reached is characteristic of:
- A.Positive feedback boosting the response until the stimulus ceases
- B.Negative feedback stopping the response after balance is restored
- C.Receptor downregulation lowering the response after long exposure
- D.Sensory adaptation dulling the response to an unchanging stimulus
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Correct answer: Negative feedback stopping the response after balance is restored
This is 'Negative feedback stopping the response after balance is restored'. Rising glucose triggers insulin release, and the corrected glucose level then signals the pancreas to cut that release back, so the response does not overshoot. 'Positive feedback boosting the response until the stimulus ceases' would push glucose further from normal, the way contractions build during childbirth, instead of shutting the response off. 'Receptor downregulation lowering the response after long exposure' describes target cells losing receptors over weeks of high hormone levels, not insulin release falling within hours of a meal. 'Sensory adaptation dulling the response to an unchanging stimulus' describes receptors tuning out a constant stimulus, but here the stimulus itself, high glucose, was corrected.
Which of the following best represents the components of a homeostatic control system in their correct functional order?
- A.Receptor, control center, effector, response
- B.Effector, control center, receptor, response
- C.Receptor, effector, control center, response
- D.Effector, receptor, control center, response
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Correct answer: Receptor, control center, effector, response
The functional order is 'Receptor, control center, effector, response'. A receptor senses the change, the control center compares it with the set point and sends a command, and the effector carries out the action that produces the response. 'Effector, control center, receptor, response' swaps the receptor and the effector, so the system would act before anything had sensed the change. 'Receptor, effector, control center, response' has the effector act before the control center has decided what to do. 'Effector, receptor, control center, response' makes both errors, starting with the effector and ending with the control center, so no command ever reaches the effector.
Maintaining stable blood pressure, steady blood glucose, and constant body temperature are all examples of the body working to keep variables near a target value. This target value is known as the:
- A.Threshold
- B.Set point
- C.Stimulus
- D.Control center
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Correct answer: Set point
The target value is the 'Set point'. Homeostatic mechanisms keep blood pressure, glucose and temperature fluctuating within a narrow range around it. 'Threshold' is the level a stimulus must reach to trigger a response, such as firing an action potential, not the value the body tries to hold. 'Stimulus' is the change that disturbs the variable. 'Control center' is the structure, such as the hypothalamus, that compares the variable with the set point; it is not the value itself.
Gastric juice in the stomach is highly acidic, with a pH close to 2. Compared with neutral water at pH 7, this stomach fluid has a hydrogen ion concentration that is about:
- A.100,000 times smaller
- B.10,000 times greater
- C.10,000 times smaller
- D.100,000 times greater
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Correct answer: 100,000 times greater
The answer is '100,000 times greater'. Each pH unit is a tenfold change in hydrogen ion concentration, and pH 2 is five units below pH 7, so the factor is 10 to the fifth power, or 100,000, and the lower pH means more hydrogen ions. '100,000 times smaller' gets the factor right but reverses the direction: a lower pH number means a higher hydrogen ion concentration. '10,000 times greater' counts only four tenfold steps between 2 and 7 instead of five. '10,000 times smaller' makes both mistakes.
On the pH scale used for aqueous solutions, the full range of values typically runs from:
- A.1 to 14
- B.-7 to 7
- C.0 to 10
- D.0 to 14
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Correct answer: 0 to 14
The pH scale for aqueous solutions typically runs "0 to 14." A pH of 7 is neutral, values below 7 are acidic, and values above 7 are basic. "1 to 14" drops the bottom of the scale, although strong acids reach pH 0. "-7 to 7" wrongly makes neutral equal to zero. "0 to 10" cuts off the strongly basic range above 10.
An indicator paper dipped into a solution turns red, signaling a strongly acidic sample. Which pH reading is most consistent with this result?
- A.pH 6
- B.pH 8
- C.pH 2
- D.pH 12
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Correct answer: pH 2
A strongly acidic sample is most consistent with 'pH 2'. Acids fall below 7, and the further below 7, the stronger the acid. 'pH 6' is on the acidic side but only weakly acidic, close to neutral. 'pH 12' reverses the scale: it is strongly basic, not strongly acidic. 'pH 8' is both on the wrong side of 7 and close to neutral, so it is only weakly basic.
The dense central core of an atom, which contains the protons and neutrons, is called the:
- A.Nucleolus
- B.Nucleus
- C.Electron cloud
- D.Energy level
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Correct answer: Nucleus
The dense central core holding the protons and neutrons is the 'Nucleus', which contains nearly all of the atom's mass. 'Nucleolus' is a structure inside the nucleus of a cell, where ribosomes are made; it is not part of an atom. 'Electron cloud' is the region around the nucleus where the electrons are found. 'Energy level' is one of the shells that electrons occupy, again outside the nucleus.
Compared with a proton, an electron has:
- A.A positive charge and a much smaller mass
- B.A negative charge and a very similar mass
- C.A positive charge and a very similar mass
- D.A negative charge and a much smaller mass
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Correct answer: A negative charge and a much smaller mass
An electron has 'A negative charge and a much smaller mass' than a proton: about 1/1836 of a proton's mass, so it adds almost nothing to an atom's mass. 'A positive charge and a much smaller mass' gets the mass right but gives the electron the proton's charge. 'A negative charge and a very similar mass' gets the charge right but treats the electron as heavy as a proton. 'A positive charge and a very similar mass' describes the proton itself, not the electron.
When two atoms form a covalent bond, they are held together because the atoms:
- A.Transfer electrons to form ions of opposite charge
- B.Pool their electrons in a sea of electrons
- C.Share one or more pairs of electrons
- D.Attract through temporary shifts of their electrons
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Correct answer: Share one or more pairs of electrons
In a covalent bond the atoms 'Share one or more pairs of electrons', so each atom can complete its outer shell. 'Transfer electrons to form ions of opposite charge' describes an ionic bond, in which the ions are held together by electrostatic attraction. 'Pool their electrons in a sea of electrons' describes metallic bonding, where electrons move freely among metal ions. 'Attract through temporary shifts of their electrons' describes London dispersion forces, weak attractions between molecules rather than a bond holding two atoms together.
The number of protons in an atom's nucleus is known as its:
- A.Mass number
- B.Atomic number
- C.Oxidation number
- D.Quantum number
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Correct answer: Atomic number
The number of protons in the nucleus is the 'Atomic number'. It identifies the element and equals the number of electrons in a neutral atom. 'Mass number' counts protons plus neutrons, not protons alone. 'Oxidation number' is the charge an atom would carry if its bonds were fully ionic, and it changes from compound to compound. 'Quantum number' describes an electron's energy level and orbital, not the contents of the nucleus.
Which part of the brain coordinates balance, posture, and the fine timing of voluntary muscle movements?
- A.The cerebrum
- B.The motor cortex
- C.The cerebellum
- D.The brainstem
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Correct answer: The cerebellum
Balance, posture and the fine timing of voluntary movements are coordinated by 'The cerebellum', which smooths motor activity so movements are not jerky. 'The cerebrum' starts voluntary movements and handles thought, memory and the senses, but it does not fine-tune coordination. 'The motor cortex' sends the commands that start voluntary movements, but it relies on the cerebellum to keep them balanced and well timed. 'The brainstem' relays signals and controls breathing and heart rate.
The central nervous system is made up of which two structures?
- A.The brain and the ganglia
- B.The cranial nerves and the spinal cord
- C.The cranial nerves and the ganglia
- D.The brain and the spinal cord
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Correct answer: The brain and the spinal cord
The central nervous system is 'The brain and the spinal cord'. Every nerve and nerve cluster outside them belongs to the peripheral nervous system. 'The brain and the ganglia' wrongly counts the ganglia, clusters of nerve cell bodies outside the brain and spinal cord, as central. 'The cranial nerves and the spinal cord' swaps the brain for the cranial nerves, which branch off the brain and are peripheral. 'The cranial nerves and the ganglia' names two parts of the peripheral nervous system, the opposite division.
Damage to the medulla oblongata at the base of the brainstem is especially life-threatening because this region controls:
- A.Higher mental functions such as memory and reasoning
- B.Motor functions such as balance and coordination
- C.Involuntary functions such as heart rate and breathing
- D.Regulatory functions such as body temperature and thirst
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Correct answer: Involuntary functions such as heart rate and breathing
The medulla oblongata controls 'Involuntary functions such as heart rate and breathing', so damage there can stop these vital reflexes. 'Higher mental functions such as memory and reasoning' belong to the cerebrum. 'Motor functions such as balance and coordination' are handled by the cerebellum. 'Regulatory functions such as body temperature and thirst' are controlled by the hypothalamus, not the medulla.
An electrical signal that travels rapidly down the length of a neuron's axon is called a(n):
- A.Resting potential
- B.Graded potential
- C.Action potential
- D.Postsynaptic potential
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Correct answer: Action potential
The rapid electrical signal that travels down an axon is an 'Action potential', also called a nerve impulse. It is an all-or-none event that keeps its full strength as it moves toward the axon terminal. 'Resting potential' is the steady voltage across the membrane of a neuron that is not firing, so it does not travel. 'Graded potential' is a small local change that fades with distance rather than racing down the axon. 'Postsynaptic potential' is a graded change in the receiving cell's membrane at a synapse, not the signal carried along the axon.
Which type of cell carries genetic information from one generation to the next and contains only half the usual number of chromosomes?
- A.A zygote
- B.A gamete
- C.A somatic cell
- D.A stem cell
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Correct answer: A gamete
The cell is 'A gamete', a sex cell such as a sperm or an egg. It is haploid, carrying half the usual number of chromosomes, so two gametes restore the full set at fertilization. 'A zygote' is the fertilized egg formed when two gametes join, so it already has the full diploid set. 'A somatic cell' is any ordinary body cell, which is diploid and is not passed to the next generation. 'A stem cell' is an unspecialized body cell that can divide and develop into other cell types, and it also carries the full set.
Where in the cell is the genetic material (DNA) primarily stored?
- A.In the nucleus
- B.In the lysosome
- C.In the ribosomes
- D.In the cell membrane
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Correct answer: In the nucleus
DNA is primarily stored 'In the nucleus', the membrane-bound organelle that directs the cell's activities. 'In the lysosome' names a small sac of digestive enzymes that breaks down wastes, not a store of genetic material. 'In the ribosomes' confuses the place where proteins are built from the DNA's instructions with the place the DNA is kept. 'In the cell membrane' names the outer boundary that controls what enters and leaves the cell; it is made of lipids and proteins and holds no store of DNA.
A red blood cell is placed in pure distilled water. Because water moves toward the higher solute concentration, the cell will most likely:
- A.Shrink and possibly crenate as water flows outward
- B.Keep its shape because pure water lacks solutes
- C.Keep its shape because the membrane blocks water
- D.Swell and possibly burst as water flows inward
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Correct answer: Swell and possibly burst as water flows inward
The cell will 'Swell and possibly burst as water flows inward'. Distilled water is hypotonic to the cell, so water moves by osmosis toward the cell's higher solute concentration, and the cell can hemolyze. 'Shrink and possibly crenate as water flows outward' is what happens in a hypertonic solution, the reverse of this one. 'Keep its shape because pure water lacks solutes' misses the point: the missing solutes are exactly what draws water into the cell. 'Keep its shape because the membrane blocks water' is false, because the cell membrane lets water cross freely.
Small structures that read the cell's genetic instructions and assemble amino acids into proteins are called:
- A.Ribosomes
- B.Lysosomes
- C.Nucleoli
- D.Mitochondria
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Correct answer: Ribosomes
The structures that read the genetic instructions and join amino acids into proteins are 'Ribosomes'. 'Lysosomes' break down worn-out parts and wastes with digestive enzymes; they do not build proteins. 'Nucleoli' make the parts that ribosomes are built from, but they do not assemble proteins themselves. 'Mitochondria' produce ATP for the cell's energy needs.
As filtered fluid passes through the kidney tubule, useful substances such as water, glucose, and needed ions are returned to the blood. This process is called:
- A.Reabsorption
- B.Glomerular filtration
- C.Tubular secretion
- D.Micturition
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Correct answer: Reabsorption
Returning water, glucose and needed ions from the tubule to the blood is 'Reabsorption', which keeps valuable materials from being lost in the urine. 'Glomerular filtration' is the first step, when blood pressure forces fluid out of the glomerulus into the capsule; it moves substances out of the blood, not back into it. 'Tubular secretion' moves extra substances, such as hydrogen ions and some drugs, from the blood into the tubule. 'Micturition' is urination, the emptying of stored urine from the bladder, which happens long after the tubule has done its work.
Inside the nephron, the tuft of tiny capillaries where blood is initially filtered is called the:
- A.Arteriole
- B.Glomerulus
- C.Vasa recta
- D.Proximal tubule
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Correct answer: Glomerulus
The tuft of capillaries where blood is first filtered is the 'Glomerulus', which sits inside the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule. 'Arteriole' names the small vessels that carry blood into and out of the glomerulus, not the filtering tuft itself. 'Vasa recta' are long, straight capillaries around the loop of Henle that help concentrate urine; no filtration happens there. 'Proximal tubule' is the first stretch of tubule after the capsule, where most reabsorption takes place.
After urine is formed in the kidneys, it travels to the urinary bladder for storage by way of the:
- A.Urethra
- B.Renal veins
- C.Collecting ducts
- D.Ureters
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Correct answer: Ureters
Urine travels from the kidneys to the bladder through the 'Ureters', two muscular tubes that move it along by peristalsis. 'Urethra' is the single tube that carries urine from the bladder out of the body, the step after storage. 'Renal veins' carry filtered blood, not urine, from the kidneys back toward the heart. 'Collecting ducts' lie inside the kidney and deliver urine to the renal pelvis, before it ever leaves the kidney.
Which type of immune cell directly attacks and destroys the body's own cells that have become infected by a virus?
- A.Helper T lymphocytes
- B.Memory B lymphocytes
- C.Cytotoxic T cells
- D.Plasma B cells
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Correct answer: Cytotoxic T cells
The cells that directly attack and destroy virus-infected body cells are 'Cytotoxic T cells', also called killer T cells. 'Helper T lymphocytes' coordinate the immune response by signaling other cells, but they do not kill infected cells themselves. 'Memory B lymphocytes' wait to mount a faster antibody response the next time the same antigen appears. 'Plasma B cells' release antibodies into the blood and lymph; the antibodies tag pathogens, but the plasma cells do not attack infected cells directly.
A foreign molecule that the immune system recognizes as not belonging to the body and that triggers an immune response is called a(n):
- A.Antibody
- B.Antigen
- C.Cytokine
- D.Pathogen
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Correct answer: Antigen
A foreign molecule that the immune system recognizes and responds to is an 'Antigen'. 'Antibody' is the protein that B cells make to bind antigens, so it is part of the response, not its trigger. 'Cytokine' is a signaling protein that immune cells release to talk to one another. 'Pathogen' is a whole disease-causing organism, such as a virus or bacterium; the immune system recognizes it by the antigens on its surface.
A patient with HIV has a severely reduced number of helper T cells. Based on the role of these cells, the patient is most likely to experience:
- A.Autoimmune disease because immune cells attack healthy tissue
- B.Frequent infections because immune defenses are weakened
- C.Easy bruising because blood clotting is slowed
- D.Chronic fatigue because blood oxygen levels are low
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Correct answer: Frequent infections because immune defenses are weakened
Helper T cells activate B cells and cytotoxic T cells, so losing them leads to 'Frequent infections because immune defenses are weakened'. 'Autoimmune disease because immune cells attack healthy tissue' reverses the problem: autoimmunity is an overactive or misdirected response, not a weakened one. 'Easy bruising because blood clotting is slowed' would follow from a loss of platelets, which helper T cells do not regulate. 'Chronic fatigue because blood oxygen levels are low' would follow from a shortage of red blood cells, whose job is to carry oxygen.
Which electrolyte is the major positively charged ion found INSIDE body cells and is critical for normal nerve and muscle signaling?
- A.Potassium ions
- B.Sodium ions
- C.Calcium ions
- D.Magnesium ions
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Correct answer: Potassium ions
The major positively charged ions inside cells are 'Potassium ions', and their movement across the membrane is central to nerve and muscle signals. 'Sodium ions' are the major positive ions outside the cells, in plasma and interstitial fluid. 'Calcium ions' are kept at very low levels inside most cells, and calcium is stored mainly in bone. 'Magnesium ions' are also found inside cells, but in far smaller amounts than potassium, so magnesium is not the major intracellular cation.
Roughly what fraction of the adult human body is made up of water?
- A.About 60 percent
- B.About 40 percent
- C.About 75 percent
- D.About 90 percent
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Correct answer: About 60 percent
Water makes up 'About 60 percent' of the adult body, which is why fluid balance matters so much. 'About 40 percent' is the share held inside the cells alone, the intracellular fluid, not the total. 'About 75 percent' fits a newborn infant, whose body holds proportionally more water than an adult's. 'About 90 percent' is closer to the water content of blood plasma than of the whole body.
The fluid located inside the body's cells is specifically referred to as:
- A.Intracellular fluid
- B.Extracellular fluid
- C.Transcellular fluid
- D.Interstitial fluid
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Correct answer: Intracellular fluid
The fluid inside the body's cells is 'Intracellular fluid', which holds about two-thirds of the body's water. 'Extracellular fluid' is all the fluid outside the cells. 'Transcellular fluid' is a small part of the extracellular fluid held in special spaces, such as cerebrospinal, synovial, and pleural fluid. 'Interstitial fluid' is the part of the extracellular fluid that bathes the cells in the tissue spaces.
When carbon dioxide dissolves in the blood, it combines with water to form carbonic acid. This relationship explains why a buildup of carbon dioxide tends to make the blood:
- A.More basic, so its pH rises
- B.More acidic, so its pH rises
- C.More basic, so its pH falls
- D.More acidic, so its pH falls
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Correct answer: More acidic, so its pH falls
Extra carbon dioxide makes the blood 'More acidic, so its pH falls'. Dissolved carbon dioxide forms carbonic acid, which releases hydrogen ions, and more hydrogen ions mean a lower pH. 'More basic, so its pH rises' reverses the chemistry, since losing carbon dioxide, as in hyperventilation, is what makes blood more basic. 'More acidic, so its pH rises' gets the acid right but misreads the scale, because a more acidic solution has a lower pH number. 'More basic, so its pH falls' is wrong twice: the blood does not become basic, and a basic shift would raise the pH.
A condition in which the blood becomes too basic, with a pH above the normal range, is called:
- A.Acidosis
- B.Hypercapnia
- C.Ketoacidosis
- D.Alkalosis
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Correct answer: Alkalosis
Blood that is too basic, with a pH above the normal range of about 7.35 to 7.45, is in alkalosis. Acidosis is the opposite condition, a pH below the normal range. Hypercapnia means too much carbon dioxide in the blood, which pushes the pH down toward acidosis rather than up. Ketoacidosis is a form of metabolic acidosis caused by ketone buildup, as in uncontrolled diabetes, so it also lowers the pH.
The lungs and the kidneys are the two organs primarily responsible for the long-term regulation of blood pH. They do this mainly by adjusting the levels of:
- A.Oxygen and red blood cell count
- B.Sodium chloride and body water
- C.Calcium and phosphate
- D.Carbon dioxide and bicarbonate
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Correct answer: Carbon dioxide and bicarbonate
The lungs and kidneys regulate blood pH mainly through carbon dioxide and bicarbonate. The lungs adjust carbon dioxide (and so carbonic acid) by changing the rate and depth of breathing, and the kidneys adjust bicarbonate and excrete hydrogen ions. 'Oxygen and red blood cell count' describes oxygen delivery: the lungs load oxygen and the kidneys release erythropoietin, but neither process is how pH is controlled. 'Sodium chloride and body water' is how the kidneys regulate blood volume and pressure, not acid-base balance. 'Calcium and phosphate' are balanced by the kidneys with bone and parathyroid hormone, and the lungs play no part.
Which chamber of the heart is the most muscular because it must pump oxygen-rich blood out to the entire body?
- A.Right atrium
- B.Left atrium
- C.Left ventricle
- D.Right ventricle
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Correct answer: Left ventricle
The left ventricle is the most muscular chamber, because it pumps oxygen-rich blood into the aorta and out to the whole body against high pressure. The right ventricle also pumps, but only to the nearby lungs at low pressure, so its wall is much thinner. The right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from the body, and the left atrium receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs; both atria only push blood a short distance into the ventricles, so they have the thinnest walls.
Which blood vessels return oxygen-poor blood back toward the heart and contain valves that prevent backflow?
- A.Pulmonary arteries
- B.Capillaries
- C.Lymph vessels
- D.Veins
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Correct answer: Veins
Veins carry oxygen-poor blood from the body back toward the heart, and because their pressure is low they contain one-way valves that stop blood from flowing backward. Pulmonary arteries do carry oxygen-poor blood, but they carry it away from the heart to the lungs, not back toward it. Capillaries are thin-walled exchange vessels between arterioles and venules, and they have no valves. Lymph vessels do have valves and return fluid toward the heart, but they carry lymph, not blood.
A person's resting heart rate is measured at 72 beats per minute. This rhythmic beating most directly reflects the repeated:
- A.Inflation and deflation of the pulmonary alveoli
- B.Secretion and breakdown of the thyroid hormones
- C.Dilation and constriction of the peripheral arteries
- D.Contraction and relaxation of the cardiac chambers
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Correct answer: Contraction and relaxation of the cardiac chambers
Each heartbeat counted in a heart rate is one cycle of 'contraction and relaxation of the cardiac chambers': the atria and ventricles squeeze to eject blood and then relax to refill. 'Inflation and deflation of the pulmonary alveoli' describes breathing, which is counted separately as the respiratory rate of about 12 to 20 breaths per minute. 'Secretion and breakdown of the thyroid hormones' can raise or lower the heart rate over time, but it is not the beat itself. 'Dilation and constriction of the peripheral arteries' changes blood pressure and blood flow, not the rhythm of the beats.
The transparent front surface of the eye that first bends incoming light and helps focus it is called the:
- A.Lens
- B.Sclera
- C.Cornea
- D.Retina
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Correct answer: Cornea
The cornea is the clear, dome-shaped front surface of the eye, and it does most of the bending of incoming light. The lens also focuses light, but it sits behind the iris and pupil, so light reaches it only after passing through the cornea; it fine-tunes the focus rather than bending light first. The sclera is the tough white outer coat, which is not transparent. The retina lines the back of the eye and detects light rather than bending it.
The colored part of the eye that adjusts the size of the pupil to control how much light enters is the:
- A.Iris
- B.Lens
- C.Pupil
- D.Choroid
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Correct answer: Iris
The iris is the colored ring of muscle that widens or narrows the pupil, letting in less light in bright conditions and more in dim conditions. The pupil is the opening in the center of the iris; it changes size, but it is the iris that adjusts it, and the pupil itself looks black, not colored. The lens is the clear structure behind the pupil that focuses light. The choroid is a dark, blood-rich layer at the back of the eye that nourishes the retina; it does not control the pupil.
Receptors in the skin that respond to pressure, temperature, and pain are part of which general sense?
- A.Hearing (audition)
- B.Touch (somatosensation)
- C.Taste (gustation)
- D.Balance (vestibular sense)
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Correct answer: Touch (somatosensation)
Skin receptors for pressure, temperature, and pain belong to the general sense of touch (somatosensation), whose receptors are spread across the skin and body rather than packed into one organ. Hearing (audition) is a special sense: hair cells in the cochlea of the inner ear respond to sound waves, not to skin pressure. Taste (gustation) is a special sense based on taste buds of the tongue that detect dissolved chemicals. Balance (vestibular sense) is also a special sense, detected by the semicircular canals and other inner-ear structures that respond to head movement and position.
During normal quiet exhalation, air leaves the lungs mainly because the:
- A.Diaphragm relaxes, so the chest cavity shrinks
- B.Diaphragm contracts, so the chest cavity expands
- C.Abdominal muscles contract, so the lungs compress
- D.Intercostal muscles contract, so the ribs rise
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Correct answer: Diaphragm relaxes, so the chest cavity shrinks
Quiet exhalation is passive: the 'diaphragm relaxes, so the chest cavity shrinks', the stretched lungs recoil, pressure inside them rises above air pressure, and air flows out. 'Diaphragm contracts, so the chest cavity expands' describes inhalation, which draws air in. 'Abdominal muscles contract, so the lungs compress' describes forced exhalation, such as during coughing or hard exercise, not normal quiet breathing. 'Intercostal muscles contract, so the ribs rise' is also part of inhalation, because lifting the ribs enlarges the chest and pulls air in.
Trace the correct path of air from the throat down to the sites of gas exchange in the lungs.
- A.Trachea, then bronchi, then bronchioles, then alveoli
- B.Trachea, then bronchioles, then bronchi, then alveoli
- C.Trachea, then bronchi, then alveoli, then bronchioles
- D.Trachea, then alveoli, then bronchi, then bronchioles
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Correct answer: Trachea, then bronchi, then bronchioles, then alveoli
Air moves from larger to smaller passages: 'trachea, then bronchi, then bronchioles, then alveoli'. The trachea divides into the two main bronchi, the bronchi branch into tiny bronchioles, and the bronchioles end in the alveoli, the air sacs where gas exchange occurs. 'Trachea, then bronchioles, then bronchi, then alveoli' puts the small bronchioles before the larger bronchi they branch from. 'Trachea, then bronchi, then alveoli, then bronchioles' places the alveoli in the middle, but they are the dead ends of the airway, beyond the bronchioles. 'Trachea, then alveoli, then bronchi, then bronchioles' makes both mistakes, putting the air sacs first and the airways that lead to them last.
The endocrine gland often called the master gland because it directs the activity of several other glands is the:
- A.Parathyroid gland
- B.Pituitary gland
- C.Adrenal gland
- D.Pineal gland
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Correct answer: Pituitary gland
The pituitary gland is called the master gland because its hormones, such as TSH, ACTH, FSH, and LH, direct the thyroid, adrenal glands, and gonads. The parathyroid gland controls blood calcium with parathyroid hormone but does not direct other glands. The adrenal gland releases cortisol, aldosterone, and epinephrine, and is itself directed by the pituitary through ACTH. The pineal gland secretes melatonin to help regulate sleep-wake cycles; it does not control other endocrine glands.
A hormone affects only certain cells in the body. The reason a hormone acts on some cells but not others is that the target cells have specific:
- A.Enzymes that break down and clear the hormone
- B.Receptors that recognize and bind the hormone
- C.Glands that synthesize and secrete the hormone
- D.Capillaries that carry and deliver the hormone
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Correct answer: Receptors that recognize and bind the hormone
A hormone affects only target cells that have "receptors that recognize and bind the hormone." Cells without a matching receptor do not respond, even when the hormone reaches them. "Enzymes that break down and clear the hormone" describe how hormone signals end, mainly in the liver and kidneys; they do not decide which cells respond. "Glands that synthesize and secrete the hormone" are the endocrine cells that make the hormone, not the cells it acts on. "Capillaries that carry and deliver the hormone" cannot be the reason, because blood carries a hormone to nearly every cell in the body.
A hormone that helps the body conserve water by signaling the kidneys to reabsorb more of it is:
- A.Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
- B.Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
- C.Growth hormone (GH)
- D.Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH)
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Correct answer: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), released from the posterior pituitary, signals the kidney's collecting ducts to reabsorb more water, so less urine is produced and body water is conserved. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) acts on the kidneys too, but it makes them reabsorb calcium, not water. Growth hormone (GH) stimulates growth and metabolism and does not direct the kidneys to save water. Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH), released by the heart when blood volume is high, does the opposite of conserving water: it makes the kidneys excrete more sodium and water.
A scientist wants to test whether a new fertilizer increases plant growth. She gives fertilizer to one group of plants and no fertilizer to an otherwise identical group. The group receiving no fertilizer serves as the:
- A.Experimental group
- B.Independent variable
- C.Dependent variable
- D.Control group
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Correct answer: Control group
The plants given no fertilizer are the control group: they are treated the same in every other way, so they show what growth looks like without the treatment. The experimental group is the set of plants that does receive the fertilizer. The independent variable is the factor the scientist changes, whether fertilizer is given, not a group of plants. The dependent variable is what she measures as the result, the amount of plant growth.
In a fair test of one factor, the variables that must be kept the same in all groups so they do not affect the results are called:
- A.Dependent variables
- B.Independent variables
- C.Controlled variables
- D.Confounding variables
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Correct answer: Controlled variables
Factors kept the same in every group so they cannot affect the outcome are controlled variables, also called constants. Dependent variables are the outcomes being measured, which are expected to change. Independent variables are the factors deliberately changed by the experimenter. Confounding variables are the opposite of controlled ones: they are uncontrolled factors that vary along with the treatment and distort the results, which is exactly what holding conditions constant is meant to prevent.
Which organ produces bile, a substance that helps break large fat globules into smaller droplets during digestion?
- A.Duodenum
- B.Pancreas
- C.Gallbladder
- D.Liver
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Correct answer: Liver
The liver makes bile, whose bile salts emulsify large fat globules into small droplets that digestive enzymes can attack. The gallbladder only stores and concentrates bile made by the liver and releases it after a fatty meal; it does not produce it. The pancreas releases lipase and other digestive enzymes into the small intestine, but not bile. The duodenum, the first part of the small intestine, is where bile is delivered and does its work, but it does not make bile.
One of the main functions of the large intestine is to:
- A.Absorb most nutrients and finish digestion
- B.Produce bile and emulsify dietary fats
- C.Reabsorb water and form solid waste
- D.Produce acid and begin protein digestion
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Correct answer: Reabsorb water and form solid waste
A main job of the large intestine is to 'reabsorb water and form solid waste': as leftover material moves through the colon, water and electrolytes are reclaimed and the rest is compacted into feces. 'Absorb most nutrients and finish digestion' describes the small intestine, where nearly all nutrient absorption takes place. 'Produce bile and emulsify dietary fats' describes the liver, whose bile acts in the small intestine. 'Produce acid and begin protein digestion' describes the stomach, which secretes hydrochloric acid and pepsin.
On a hot day, a hiker drinks little water and becomes mildly dehydrated. The sensation of thirst that drives her to seek water is best understood as a homeostatic mechanism because it:
- A.Amplifies the loss of body fluid as positive feedback would
- B.Signals the kidneys to conserve body fluid and concentrate urine
- C.Prompts the behavior needed to replace lost body fluid
- D.Shifts body fluid out of the cells to refill the blood
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Correct answer: Prompts the behavior needed to replace lost body fluid
Thirst is homeostatic because it 'prompts the behavior needed to replace lost body fluid': drinking corrects the deficit and returns body water toward its set point, a negative feedback response. 'Amplifies the loss of body fluid as positive feedback would' is backward, because thirst opposes the change rather than strengthening it. 'Signals the kidneys to conserve body fluid and concentrate urine' describes antidiuretic hormone, a separate response to dehydration; thirst is a sensation that acts through behavior, not a signal to the kidneys. 'Shifts body fluid out of the cells to refill the blood' describes water moving by osmosis between fluid compartments, which happens without thirst and does not add any new water to the body.
Most reactions in the body, such as breaking down food, are sped up by special proteins that are not used up in the process. These biological catalysts are called:
- A.Antibodies
- B.Substrates
- C.Enzymes
- D.Buffers
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Correct answer: Enzymes
Enzymes are protein catalysts: they lower the energy needed to start a reaction, so it runs faster, and they are not used up. Antibodies are also proteins, but they bind antigens to fight infection rather than speed up reactions. Substrates are the molecules an enzyme acts on, and they are changed and used up in the reaction. Buffers are substances that resist changes in pH; they do not speed up reactions.
Each enzyme works best within a narrow range of temperature and pH. If conditions become too hot or too acidic, the enzyme loses its shape and stops working. This loss of shape and function is called:
- A.Inhibition
- B.Denaturation
- C.Neutralization
- D.Mutation
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Correct answer: Denaturation
Denaturation is the unfolding of a protein when heat or extreme pH breaks the bonds that hold its three-dimensional shape; the active site is lost and the enzyme stops working. Inhibition slows an enzyme when another molecule binds to it, without heat or acid destroying its shape. Neutralization is the reaction of an acid with a base to form water and a salt, and a mutation is a change in the DNA sequence, not a change caused by temperature or pH.
During cellular respiration, body cells break down glucose using oxygen to release usable energy. This energy is captured in the form of a molecule abbreviated as:
- A.ADP
- B.AMP
- C.DNA
- D.ATP
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Correct answer: ATP
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the molecule that cellular respiration makes to store usable energy, and cells break its last phosphate bond to power their work. ADP (adenosine diphosphate) is what is left after ATP gives up a phosphate; respiration adds a phosphate back to ADP to make ATP. AMP (adenosine monophosphate) has only one phosphate and is lower in energy still, and DNA stores genetic information rather than energy.
A muscle cell that lacks adequate oxygen during heavy exercise can still produce a small amount of energy by breaking down glucose without oxygen. This oxygen-free pathway is best described as:
- A.Anaerobic respiration
- B.Aerobic respiration
- C.Electron transport chain
- D.Passive transport
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Correct answer: Anaerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration, in the broad sense used here, breaks down glucose without oxygen; in muscle cells the pathway is anaerobic glycolysis, which yields only a little ATP and ends in lactic acid fermentation. Aerobic respiration needs oxygen to break glucose down completely, which is the very thing the oxygen-starved cell lacks. The electron transport chain is the final stage of aerobic respiration and depends on oxygen as the last electron acceptor. Passive transport moves substances across a membrane down their concentration gradient; it does not break down glucose or release energy.
Body cells need to replace worn-out cells with identical copies for growth and repair. The type of cell division that produces two genetically identical daughter cells is called:
- A.Meiosis
- B.Cytokinesis
- C.Mitosis
- D.Apoptosis
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Correct answer: Mitosis
Mitosis divides one body cell into two daughter cells with the same full set of chromosomes, which is how tissues grow and repair themselves. Meiosis produces sex cells with half the chromosome number, and its products are not identical. Cytokinesis is only the splitting of the cytoplasm at the end of a division, not a type of cell division in its own right. Apoptosis is programmed cell death, which removes cells rather than producing new ones.
In a molecule of DNA, the two strands are held together by pairs of bases. Adenine always pairs with thymine, and cytosine always pairs with:
- A.Guanine
- B.Uracil
- C.Adenine
- D.Thymine
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Correct answer: Guanine
In DNA, cytosine always pairs with guanine, held by three hydrogen bonds, just as adenine pairs with thymine. Uracil is found in RNA, where it takes the place of thymine; it is not a DNA base. Adenine and thymine pair with each other, so neither one pairs with cytosine.
A child inherits one allele for a trait from each parent. If a dominant allele is present, it masks the effect of a recessive allele. The actual genetic makeup an individual carries for a trait, such as having two different alleles, is called the:
- A.Phenotype
- B.Karyotype
- C.Genotype
- D.Allele
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Correct answer: Genotype
The genotype is the pair of alleles an individual actually carries for a trait, such as one dominant and one recessive allele. The phenotype is the trait that can be observed, which may hide a recessive allele the person still carries. A karyotype is a picture of a cell's full set of chromosomes, arranged by size, not the alleles for one trait. An allele is a single version of a gene, so it is only one half of the pair that makes up the genotype.
The skeletal system does more than support the body. The soft tissue inside the cavities of certain bones is also where most new blood cells are produced. This tissue is called:
- A.Bone marrow
- B.Spongy bone
- C.Articular cartilage
- D.Articular capsule
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Correct answer: Bone marrow
Red bone marrow, the soft tissue that fills the cavities of certain bones, produces red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, so bone marrow is the answer. Spongy bone is the hard, lattice-like bone tissue whose spaces hold the marrow; it is not itself the soft tissue that makes blood cells. Articular cartilage covers the ends of bones inside a joint and makes no blood cells, and the articular capsule encloses the joint; it does not form blood cells either.
Muscle that is found in the walls of the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels, works automatically without conscious control, is best classified as:
- A.Smooth muscle
- B.Skeletal muscle
- C.Cardiac muscle
- D.Striated muscle
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Correct answer: Smooth muscle
Smooth muscle lines the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach and intestines and of blood vessels, and it contracts without conscious control. Skeletal muscle is attached to bones and is moved voluntarily. Cardiac muscle is also involuntary, but it is found only in the wall of the heart. Striated muscle is the striped type, which includes skeletal and cardiac muscle; the muscle in the gut and vessel walls has no striations.
References
- 1.Kaplan. “Nursing Admissions Testing.” kaptest.com. ↑
- 2.Kaplan. “Preparing for the Kaplan Nursing Admission Test (KNAT).” kaptest.com. ↑
- 3.Kaplan Test Prep. “Nursing School Entrance Exams Prep.” kaptest.com. ↑

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