Your FREE HESI A2 (Admission Assessment) Practice Test 2026 – 1280+ Q&A

HESI A2 Practice Questions

1. Convert $\frac{31}{50}$ into a decimal.
   • 3.1
   • 0.62
   • 0.31
   • 6.2

   Correct answer: 0.62

   0.62 There are two methods you can use to get the right answer. Method 1 In the first method, you have to notice that the denominator of the fraction is a factor of 100, we can multiply both numerator and denominator by 2 to get an equivalent fraction with a denominator of 100. 31/50 = (31$\times$2)/(50$\times$2) = 62/100 The fraction 62/100 is sixty-two hundredths which is written as 0.62 as a decimal. There is no need for rounding. Method 2. The easiest way to work out the fraction is to simply input 31$\div$50 into a calculator. 31/50 = 31$\div$50 = 0.62

2. Sarah prepares $4\frac{1}{2}$ gallons of a vitamin booster smoothie. If Sarah drinks $\frac{3}{4}$ gallons of this smoothie each day, how long will the smoothie last?
   • 8 days
   • 5 days
   • 3 days
   • 6 days

   Correct answer: 6 days

   6 days To find the number of days that the smoothie lasts, we have to divide the amount of smoothie Sarah makes by the amount she drinks on each day. 4 1/2 $\div$ 3/4 . Step 1: The first step will be to convert 4 1/2 into an improper fraction. 4 1/2 = 2$\times$4+1/2 = 9/2, 4 1/2 is 9/2 as an improper fraction. Step 2: We then divide the two fractions. 4 1/2 $\div$ 3/4 = 9/2 $\div$ 3/4 Step 3: We then use the KCF method to work out the problem. We will keep 9/2 as it is, convert the division($\div$) sign into a multiplication ($\times$) sign and then flip 3/4 to 4/3. 9/2 $\div$ 3/4 = 9/2 $\times$ 4/3 Step 4: We then multiply the two fractions by multiplying the numerators and the denominators as shown below. 9/2 $\times$ 4/3 = (9$\times$4)/(2$\times$3) =(36)/(6) = 6. Sarah’s smoothie will last for 6 days.

3. Convert 63.124 into a fraction in simplest form.
   • $63\frac{124}{100}$
   • $\frac{31}{250}$
   • $\frac{124}{1000}$
   • $63\frac{31}{250}$

   Correct answer: $63\frac{31}{250}$

   63 31/250 Step 1:We can ignore the numbers in the ones and tens places 63, and focus on the decimal 0.124. We have to read the fraction correctly according to the decimal place value. The decimal 0.124 is one hundred twenty-four thousandths. Step 2: We create a fraction from how the decimal is read. The fraction for one hundred twenty-four thousandths is 124/1000 – but this fraction is not in simplest form as the question has asked. Step 3:We then have to divide both numerator and denominator of 124/1000 by the same number until we get to a fraction in its simplest form. Since both numbers are even, we will first divide both numerator and denominator by 2. 124/1000 = (124$\div$2)/(1000$\div$2) =62/500 Again, since both numbers are even, we can then divide the numerator and denominator of 62/500 by 2. 62/500 = (62$\div$2)/(500$\div$2) =31/250. 31 is a prime number and does not fit evenly into 250. So we are able to then tack on the 63 at the end of the calculation. The fractional form of 63.124 is 63 31/250.

4. Jordy buys 5 lottery tickets for $17.50. How much would Jordy pay if he wanted to buy 7 lottery tickets?
   • $24.50
   • $32.50
   • $28
   • $25

   Correct answer: $24.50

   $24.50 This is a proportion problem and the given information allows us to formulate the equation below: 5 tickets/$17.50 = 7 tickets/x, where x is the cost of 7 lottery tickets. We can solve this equation by first cross multiplying. 5 tickets $\times$ x = 7 tickets $\times$ 17.50 $. Carrying out the product on the right-hand side, we get; 5 tickets $\times$ x = 122.5 tickets$\cdot$$ We can solve for x by dividing both sides of the equation by 5 tickets. (5 tickets $\times$ x)/5 tickets = 122.5 tickets$\cdot$$/5 tickets. Carrying out the division, we get a 1 on the left-hand side and a 24.5 on the right-hand side. 1x= 24.5 $. We can drop the 1 next to x, to get x= 24.5 $. It would cost Jordy $24.50 to buy 7 lottery tickets.

5. $x:30 = 4:5$ What is the value of x?
   • X = 24
   • X = 6
   • X = 7.5
   • X = 5

   Correct answer: X = 24

   x = 24 To find the unknown value in a ratio, we rewrite the ratios as fractions and use some conversions or cross-multiply. Step 1: Rewrite the ratios as fractions. x:30 = 4:5 is equivalent to x/30 = 4/5. Step 2: Get the same denominator on both sides. Note that 30 = 5 $\times$ 6, so we can just multiply the numerator and denominator of the right-hand side fraction by 6 to get the same denominator. x/30 = (4$\times$6)/(5$\times$6), x/30 = 24/30 Step 3: Get rid of the denominator. Multiply both of the sides by 30. (x/30) $\times$ 30 = (24/30) $\times$ 30, x = 24

6. Convert $35\frac{18}{25}$ into a decimal.
   • 35.25
   • 35.18
   • 35.07
   • 35.72

   Correct answer: 35.72

   35.72 We first ignore 35, the whole number part and focus on the fraction. We will walk through two methods for converting the fraction into a whole number. Method 1 In the first method, you have to notice that the denominator of the fraction is a factor of 100, we can multiply both numerator and denominator by 4 to get an equivalent fraction with a denominator of 100. 18/25 = (18*4)/(25*4) =72/100. The fraction 72/100 is seventy-two hundredths which is written as 0.72 as a decimal. There is no need for rounding. Method 2 The easiest way to work out the fraction is to simply input 18$\div$25 into a calculator. 18/25 = 18$\div$25 = 0.72. We then tack on the whole number to the decimal. The decimal form of 35 18/25 is 35.72.

7. Betty bought 45 gallons of gas, and it cost her $106.20. What is the price of a gallon of gas?
   • $61.20
   • $8.14
   • $2.36
   • $4.20

   Correct answer: $2.36

   $2.36 This is a unit rate problem, since 45 gallons of gas costs $106.20, we can set up the relationship below: $106.20/(45 gallons) = x/(1 gallon). To get the cost for one gallon of gas, we see that you have to divide both the numerator and denominator of the fraction on the left-hand side by 45. $(106.20/45)/(45 gallons/45) = x/(1 gallon) = $2.36/(1 gallon). The price of a gallon of gas is $2.36.

8. What is 35% of 10.25? Round to the nearest hundredth.
   • 4
   • 0.35
   • 3.587
   • 3.59

   Correct answer: 3.59

   3.59 Finding the percent of a whole number is easily done in the two step process below. Step 1: The first step is to convert percentages to decimals. 35% = 35/100 =0.35 Step 2: The second step is to multiply the whole number by the decimal from the previous step. 0.35 $\times$ 10.25 = 3.5875. We then have to round the answer to the nearest hundredths. The number in the hundredths place is 8, the number right of the 8 is 7, the 7 tells us we need to add 1 to the 8 to get a 9. The final result is 3.59. 35% of 10.25 is 3.59 to the nearest hundredth.

9. Convert $0.313$ into a percent.
   • 3.13%
   • 33%
   • 31%
   • 31.3%

   Correct answer: 31.3%

   31.3% To convert from decimals to percents, you multiply the decimal by 100 and then attach the percentage symbol to the result. 0.313 = 0.313 $\times$ 100% = 31.3 % Note that converting a decimal to percent has the effect of moving the decimal point two spaces to the right.

10. 96 is 320% of what number?
    • 3.3
    • 32
    • 307.2
    • 30

    Correct answer: 30

    30 Step 1: In this problem 96 is part of a whole. To find the number that 96 is 320% of, you first have to turn the percentage into a decimal. 320% = 320/100 =3.2 Step 2: We then divide the part by the decimal in the last step to get the whole. 96/3.2 = 30. Since the percentage is bigger than 100%, we expected to get a number that is smaller than the whole. As a way of checking, you can divide 96 by 30 and take note of the decimal you get. 96/30 = 3.2 which tells us we got the correct value for the whole. 96 is 320% of 30.

11. 812 is what percent of 885?
    • 0.92%
    • 1.1%
    • 718.6%
    • 91.8%

    Correct answer: 91.8%

    91.8% Step 1: Divide the Part (Non-100%) by the Whole (100%). In order to find the percentage, we have to divide the part we have by the total amount. In this case, the non-100% part that we have, 812, will be divided by 100%, which is 885. 812 $\div$ 885 = 0.91751412 We can round this off to the third-place value. Check your answer choices to see if numbers were rounded to a different place value. So let’s underline the third-place value: 0.91751412 We look to the right and see a 5. Since a 5 is 5 or more, that means the underlined digit goes up by one so the 7 becomes an 8. 0.918 Every other number to the right of the 7 would turn to 0, and since they would have no value, we can get rid of them. Step 2: Multiply by 100. Now that we have our decimal, we have to turn it into a percent. Remember, we turn a decimal into a percent by multiplying it by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal point two spots to the right. 0.918 $\times$ 100 = 91.8%, 812 is 91.8% of 885

12. 817 centimeters (cm) are equal to ___ meters (m).
    • 8.17
    • 0.817
    • 81,700
    • 8,170

    Correct answer: 8.17

    8.17 Remember that centi means “one hundred” so there are 100 centimeters in 1 meter. To convert centimeters (cm) into meters (m), we divide the number of centimeters (cm) by 100. 817 cm / 100 = 8.17 m, 817 centimeters (cm) are equal to 8.17 meters (m).

13. Peter walks 7 miles every Saturday. How many feet does Peter walk on Saturdays?
    • 36,960 feet
    • 21 feet
    • 0.00133 feet
    • 84 feet

    Correct answer: 36,960 feet

    36,960 feet We are converting bigger units, i.e. miles, into smaller units, i.e. feet. To convert miles into feet, you multiply by 5,280. 7 miles $\times$ (5,280 feet/mile) = 36,960 feet. Peter walks a distance of 36,960 feet every Saturday.

14. A botanist measures the height of a plant to be 15.24 cm. What is the height of the plant in inches?
    • 6 inches
    • 60 inches
    • 38.7 inches
    • 1.27 inches

    Correct answer: 6 inches

    6 inches Step 1: Recall that 1 inch = 2.54 cm. We can use this information to set up the following proportionality equation: (1 inch)/(2.54 cm) = (x inches)/(15.25 cm) Step 2: We can then use cross multiplication to solve for the missing term: (2.54 cm) $\times$ (x inches) = (1 inch) $\times$ (15.25 cm) 2.54x = 15.25 inches Step 3: Finally, we can divide both sides of the equation by 2.54 to solve for x. (2.54x)/2.54 = 15.25 inches/2.54. x = 6 inches. Therefore, the plant has a height of 6 inches.

15. How many quarts are there in 12 gallons?
    • 48 quarts
    • 96 quarts
    • 4 quarts
    • 4 quarts

    Correct answer: 48 quarts

    48 quarts. For this problem, we are going from bigger units, i.e. gallons, to smaller units, i.e. quarts. To convert gallons into quarts, we multiply the number of gallons by 4. 12 gallons $\times$ 4 quarts/gallon = 48 quarts. Therefore, there are 48 quarts in 12 gallons.

16. How many pounds are there in 6 tons?
    • 12,000 pounds
    • 96 pounds
    • 0.375 pounds
    • 0.003 pounds

    Correct answer: 12,000 pounds

    12,000 pounds This problem requires us to convert bigger units, i.e. tons, into smaller units, i.e. pounds. Recall that there are 2,000 pounds in a ton. So, to convert tons into pounds, we multiply the number of tons by 2,000. 6 tons $\times$ 2000 pounds/ton= 12,000 pounds. Therefore, there are 12,000 pounds in 6 tons.

17. Jane has a dog that weighs 15 kg. What is the weight of Jane’s dog in pounds?
    • 6.82 pounds
    • 30 pounds
    • 6.81 pounds
    • 33 pounds

    Correct answer: 33 pounds

    33 pounds Step 1: Recall that 1kg = 2.2 pounds. We can use this information to set up the following proportionality equation: (1kg) / (2.2 pounds)= (15kg) / (x pounds) Step 2: We then use cross multiplication to solve for variable x: (1kg) $\times$ (x pounds) = (15kg) $\times$ (2.2 pounds) x = 33 pounds. Therefore, Jane’s dog weighs 33 pounds.

18. Jo does a workout plan where each day she jogs 30% more distance than the previous day. If Jo jogs for 5.2 miles today, how many miles will she jog tomorrow?
    • 3.64 miles
    • 1.3 miles
    • 1.56 miles
    • 6.76 miles

    Correct answer: 6.76 miles

    6.76 miles Step 1: On any particular day, Jo jogs 30% more than the previous day. We have to add 30% to 100% to get the distance Jo covers the next day as a percentage of the distance she covered on the previous day. 100% + 30% = 130% Step 2: We then have to convert this percentage into a decimal. 130% = 130/100 = 1.3 Step 3: The next step is to multiply the decimal by the distance Jo covered today to get the distance Jo will jog tomorrow. 1.3 $\times$ 5.2 = 6.76 miles Jo will jog a distance of 6.76 miles.

19. Convert 42 degrees Celsius into Fahrenheit.
    • 24.2
    • 86.4
    • 5.6
    • 107.6

    Correct answer: 107.6

    107.6 Step 1: The equation for converting from degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit is [ ℉ = (℃ $\times$ 1.8)+32 ]. We use this equation to substitute 42 degrees Celsius in the parenthesis. ℉ = (℃ $\times$ 1.8) + 32, ℉ = (42℃ $\times$ 1.8) + 32 Step 2: We then follow the right order of operations by working out the product of the numbers in the parentheses. ℉ = (42℃ $\times$ 1.8) + 32 = (75.6) + 32 Step 3: The last step is to add 32 to the number in the parenthesis. ℉ = (75.6) + 32 = 107.6℉, 42 degrees Celsius is 107.6 degrees Fahrenheit.

20. A driver fills a small barrel with 25 gallons of gas. How many liters of gas are in the barrel?
    • 25 liters
    • 8.33 liters
    • 95 liters
    • 5.6 liters

    Correct answer: 95 liters

    95 liters Recall that 1 gallon = 3.8 liters. We can use this information to set up the following proportionality equation: (1 gallon)/(3.8 liters) = (25 gallons)/(x liters). We can then use cross multiplication to solve this equation: (x liters) $\times$ (1 gallon) = (3.8 liters) $\times$ (25 gallons) x = 95 liters. Therefore, the barrel contains 95 liters of gas.

21. Solve $(4xy)(3z)-5(xy)$ when $x=4$, $y=3$, and $z=2$.
    • 20
    • 288
    • 228
    • 2,880

    Correct answer: 228

    228 Step 1: We can solve this problem by first substituting 4 for the variable x. (4xy)(3z) – 5(xy) = [4(4)*y](3z) – 5[(4)*y] Step 2: We then substitute 3 for y in all of the terms. [4(4)*y](3z) – 5[(4)*y] = [4(4)*(3)](3z) – 5[(4)(3)] Step 3: The only variable left is z, we have to substitute 2 for z in the expression. [4(4)*(3)](3z) – 5[(4)(3)] = [4(4)*(3)][3*(2)] – 5[(4)(3)] Step 4: We then use the order of operations to perform multiplication inside parenthesis. [4(4)*(3)][3*(2)] – 5[(4)(3)] = (16*3)(6) – 5(12) We follow the order of operations and perform multiplication in parentheses again. (16*3)(6) – 5(12) = (48)(6) – 5(12) Step 5: We then perform the multiplications of the numbers in the two terms. (48)(6) – 5(12) = 288 – 60 Step 6: The last step is to subtract 60 from 288. 288 – 60 = 228

22. Solve for x: $3x=36$
    • X=39
    • X=33
    • X=108
    • X=12

    Correct answer: X=12

    x=12 Step 1: When a number and a variable are next to each other, it means they are being multiplied. To separate the 3 and x, we have to divide both sides of the equation by 3. (3x)/3 = 36/3 Step 2: We now have to carry out the division of the numbers on both sides of the equation. 1x = 12. Step 3: We drop the 1 on the left-hand side which leaves us with an x on the left-hand side and a 12 on the right-hand side of the equation. The solution is x=12.

23. Sheldon Cooper and Leonard have a department meeting at 3: 15 pm. What time is this meeting in military time?
    • 0315
    • 0015
    • 1315
    • 1515

    Correct answer: 1515

    1515 Since 3: 15 pm is after 12:59 pm, we have to add 1200 to the standard time to get military time. Standard time 3:15pm + 1200 = Military time 1515 hours. The meeting will be at 1515 military time.

24. Write DCLXXX in standard form.
    • 980
    • 680
    • 855
    • 555

    Correct answer: 680

    680 Remember: M 1,000, D 500, C 100, L 50, X 10, V 5, I 1 Step 1: Determine the Value of Each Roman Numeral. Let’s separate each symbol and determine the value of each. Step 2: Check to See if Counting Down is Involved & Adjust Accordingly. Since all values are going in descending order, which means they are decreasing, we do not have to make any adjustments to any numbers. Step 3: Add All the Numbers Together. Since no adjustments need to be made, we can add all of our numbers together. 500 + 100 + 50 + 10 + 10 + 10 = 680. This means DCLXXX is equal to 680 in standard form.

25. Solve $6x+12+3x$, $x=5$
    • 57
    • 32
    • 38
    • 50

    Correct answer: 57

    57 Step 1: We first replace every x in our expression by 5 as shown below. 6x + 12 + 3x = 6 $\times$ 5 + 12 + 35 Since the expression has both addition and multiplication, the order of operations says to perform multiplication first. 6 $\times$ 5 + 12 + 3 $\times$ 5 = 30 + 12 + 15 Step 2: We then perform the operations going from left to right because we are only left with addition. 30 + 12 + 15 = 57, 6x + 12 + 3x is 57 when x is 5.

26. Solve for x: $5(2x - 5) = 55$.
    • X = 8
    • X = -8
    • X = -3
    • X = 3

    Correct answer: X = 8

    x = 8 Step 1: Apply the distributive law We first apply the distributive law which says to multiply each of the terms in parenthesis by 5. 5(2x – 5) = 55 is the same as 10x – 25 = 55. Step 2: Add 25 on both sides We now have to solve 10x – 25 = 55. We do this by first adding 25 on both sides. 10x – 25 + 25 = 55 + 25 We then carry out the addition on both sides of the equation. 10x = 80 Step 3: Divide by 10 on both sides. We then divide both sides of the equation by 10 to isolate x on the left-hand side. (10x)/10 = 80/10 Dividing by 10 on both sides of the equation we get 1x on the left-hand side and 8 on the right-hand side. 1x = 8 We can drop the 1 on the left-hand side to get x = 8. x = 8 the solution of the equation.

27. $120.50 + 87.39 =$
    • 208.89
    • 205.69
    • 206.89
    • 207.89

    Correct answer: 207.89

    Answer: 207.89 Step 1: Set up long addition. Make sure to stack the decimals. Step 2: Calculate 9 + 0. Step 3: Calculate 5 + 3. Step 4: Calculate 7 + 0. Step 5: Calculate 8 + 2. Since 10 has two digits, we will carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 6: Add 1 and the carried 1. 1 + 1 = 2. Answer: 207.89

28. $31.45 + 24.36 + 65.34 =$
    • 122.15
    • 123.51
    • 121.15
    • 125.15

    Correct answer: 121.15

    Answer: 121.15 Step 1: Set up long addition. Make sure to stack the decimals. Step 2: Calculate 5 + 6 + 4. Since 15 has two digits, carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 3: Calculate 4 + 3 + 3. Add the carried digit. So, 10 + 1 = 11. Since 11 has two digits, we’ll carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 4: Calculate 1 + 4 + 5. Add the carried digit. So, 10 + 1 = 11. Since 11 has two digits, we’ll carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 5: Calculate 3 + 2 + 6. Add the carried digit. 11 + 1 = 12. Answer: 121.15

29. $142.897 + 321.652 =$
    • 464.549
    • 460.456
    • 456.659
    • 464.559

    Correct answer: 464.549

    Answer: 464.549 Step 1: Set up long addition. Make sure to stack the decimals. Step 2: Calculate 7 + 2. Step 3: Calculate 9 + 5. Since 14 has two digits, we carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 4: Calculate 8 + 6. Add the carried digit. 14 + 1 = 15. Again, since 15 has two digits, we carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 5: Calculate 2 + 1. Add the carried digit. So, 3 + 1 = 4. Step 6: Calculate 4 + 2. Step 7: Calculate 1 + 3. Answer: 464.549

30. $87 - 41.07 =$
    • 43.89
    • 42.39
    • 41.93
    • 45.93

    Correct answer: 45.93

    Answer: 45.93 Step 1: Set up long subtraction. Make sure to stack the decimals. Add two trailing zeros to the top number as a placeholder. Step 2: Subtract from right to left. Since 0 is less than 7, borrow 1 from the next column to make 10. The right 0 becomes 10, the left 0 becomes 9 and the 7 becomes 6. Step 3: Calculate 10 – 7. Step 4: Calculate 9 – 0.Step 5: Calculate 6 – 1. Step 6: Calculate 8 – 4. Answer: 45.93

31. Elodie is filling up a construction water barrel that holds $21\frac{1}{3}$ gallons of water. If she has has already filled the barrel with $15\frac{3}{5}$ gallons, how many more gallons of water does she still have to fill?
    • $6\frac{2}{5}$ gallons
    • $6\frac{3}{5}$ gallons
    • $5\frac{11}{15}$ gallons
    • 7 gallons

    Correct answer: $5\frac{11}{15}$ gallons

    5 11/15 gallons We will first convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions. We will then subtract the fractions to get the amount of water that remains for Elodie to fill. Step 1: Convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions. We will first convert each of the mixed numbers into improper fractions: 21 1/3 = (21$\times$3+1)/3 = 64/3, 21 1/3 is 64/3 as an improper fraction. 15 3/5 = (15$\times$5+3)/5 = 78/5, 15 3/5 is 78/5 as an improper fraction. Step 2: Subtract the fractions. We will then find the difference between the two improper fractions. But since the denominators of the improper fractions are not the same, we can not proceed with the subtraction. We will first have to find the LCM of 3 and 5, which is 15. We can then rewrite each of the fractions with a denominator of 15 and find the difference: 21 1/3 – 15 3/5 = 64/3 – 78/5 = (64$\times$5)/(3$\times$5) – (78$\times$3)/(5$\times$3) = (320/15) – (234/15) = 86/15 Step 3: Convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. Finally, we will convert 86/15 into a mixed number: 86/15 = 86 $\div$ 15 = 5 11/15 Therefore, Elodie still has to fill 5 11/15 gallons of water.

32. The distance Jane walks to school everyday is $\frac{6}{7}$ miles. How much distance will Jane walk if she travels $\frac{1}{3}$ of the distance?
    • $\frac{2}{7}$
    • $\frac{3}{7}$
    • $\frac{7}{18}$
    • $\frac{7}{2}$

    Correct answer: $\frac{2}{7}$

    2/7 This is a multiplication problem. One of the keywords here is “of the distance” which infers multiplication. If it said Jane walked 1/3 miles then it would have been a subtraction problem. The small difference here will indicate which operation to use. We will first multiply the fractions, and then simplify the product to arrive at our answer. Step 1: Multiply the fractions. When we multiply fractions, we multiply the numerators together and the denominators together: (1/3) $\times$ (6/7) = (1$\times$6)/(3$\times$7) = 6/21 Step 2: Simplify the fraction. We will simplify the fraction by dividing the numerator and the denominator by the highest common factor of 6 and 21. Factors of 6: 1, 2, 3, and 6. Factors of 21: 1, 3 ,7, and 21.The highest common factor of 6 and 21 is 3. We will divide the numerator and the denominator by 3: 6/21 = (6$\div$3)/(21$\div$3) = 2/7. Therefore, Jane will walk 2/7 of a mile.

33. Convert 7:20pm into military time.
    • 1920
    • 0720
    • 1720
    • 0020

    Correct answer: 1920

    1920 Since 7: 20 pm is after 12:59 pm, we have to add 1200 to the standard time to get military time. Standard time 7:20pm + 1200 = Military time 1920 hours. 7:20 pm is 1920 in military time.

34. Solve for y: $y-5 =12$
    • Y=7
    • Y=17
    • Y=9
    • Y=12

    Correct answer: Y=17

    y=17 Step 1: We solve this problem by first noticing that we have to add 5 to both sides of the equation to isolate y on the left-hand side. y-5+5= 12+5 Step 2: We then simplify the numbers by carrying out the addition on both sides. y+0= 17 Step 3: We then drop the zero on the left-hand side to get a y. y=17 is the solution of this equation.

35. Write CCCLVII in standard form.
    • 257
    • 387
    • 317
    • 357

    Correct answer: 357

    357 Remember: M 1,000, D 500, C 100, L 50, X 10, V 5, I 1 Step 1: Determine the Value of Each Roman Numeral. Let’s separate each symbol and determine the value of each. Step 2: Check to See if Counting Down is Involved & Adjust Accordingly. Since all values are going in descending order, which means they are decreasing, we do not have to make any adjustments to any numbers. Step 3: Add All the Numbers Together. Since no adjustments need to be made, we can add all of our numbers together. 100 + 100 + 100 + 50 + 5 + 1 + 1 = 357. This means CCCLVII is equal to 357 in standard form.

36. $5\frac{3}{4} \div 2\frac{1}{2}$
    • $2\frac{3}{10}$
    • $\frac{16}{10}$
    • $3\frac{1}{8}$
    • $2\frac{2}{4}$

    Correct answer: $2\frac{3}{10}$

    2 3/10 Step 1: The first step will be to convert both 5 3/4 and 2 1/2 into improper fractions. 5 3/4 = (4$\times$5+3)/4 = 23/4, 2 1/2 = (2$\times$1+1)/2 = 3/2, 5 3/4 is 23/4 as an improper fraction. 2 1/2 is 3/2 as an improper fraction. Step 2: We then divide the two improper fractions. 5 3/4 $\div$ 2 1/2 = 23/4 $\div$ 5/2 Step 3: We then use the KCF method to work out the problem. We will keep 23/4 as it is, convert the division ($\div$) sign into a multiplication ($\times$) sign and then flip 5/2 to 2/5. 23/4 $\div$ 5/2 = 23/4 $\times$ 5/2 Step 4: We then multiply the two fractions by multiplying the numerators and the denominators. 23/4 $\times$ 2/5 = (23$\times$2)/(4$\times$5) =46/20 Step 5: We then convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. 46/20 = 46 $\div$ 20 = 2 6/20 Step 6: The last step is to write the fraction in its lowest simplest terms. We have to divide both numerator and denominator by the highest common multiple of 6 and 20. The highest common multiple of 6 and 20 is 2. 6/20 = (6 $\div$2)/(20 $\div$ 2) = 3/10. The correct answer is 2 3/10.

37. A nurse is mixing a solution of anti-allergy medication to give to a patient. The solution calls for 14.7 mg of aspirin and 38.33 mg of antihistamine. If the patient takes 28.5 mg of the solution, how much is left over?
    • 53.40mg
    • 53.03 mg
    • 24.53 mg
    • 24.90 mg

    Correct answer: 24.53 mg

    Answer: 24.53 mg We can solve this problem by first calculating the total amount of solution (14.7 + 38.33) and then subtracting the amount the patient took (28.5) from that total to find how much solution is left over. Step 1: Calculate the total amount of solution. Step 2: Subtract the amount the patient took (28.5) from the total (53.03) to get the amount left over: Answer: 24.53 mg

38. Solve $5x-3$ when $x = 4$.
    • 17
    • 5
    • 6
    • 23

    Correct answer: 17

    17 Step 1: The first step is to substitute 4 into the variable in 5x-3. Remember when a number and variable are next to each other it means multiplication. 5x – 3 = 5 $\times$ 4 – 3 Step 2: After the substitution, we then follow the order of operations to work out the value of the expression, in this case, we begin by carrying out the multiplication. 5 $\times$ 4 – 3 = 20 – 3 Step 3: The last step is to work out the difference, 20-3. 20 – 3 = 17. 5x-3 is 17 when x is 4.

39. $3\frac{1}{4} \times 4\frac{5}{6}$
    • 14
    • $12\frac{13}{24}$
    • $15\frac{17}{24}$
    • $14\frac{17}{27}$

    Correct answer: $15\frac{17}{24}$

    15 17/24 Step 1: We first convert each of these mixed numbers into improper fractions. 3 1/4 is 13/4 as an improper fraction. (4*3 = 12; 12 + 1 = 13; 13/4).4 5/6 is 29/6 as an improper fraction. (6*4 = 24; 24 + 5 = 29; 29/6) Step 2: We then multiply the improper fractions. When you multiply fractions , you multiply all the numerators together and then you multiply all the denominators together. (13/4) * (29/6)= (13*29)/(4*6) =377/24 Step 3: We then convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. 377/24 = 377 $\div$ 24 = 15 17/24c

40. Death Valley, California is 282 feet below sea level. Mount Whitney is 14,505 feet above sea level. What is the distance, in feet, between these two points?
    • 14,282
    • 14,787
    • 14,223
    • 14,793

    Correct answer: 14,787

    14,505 + 282 = 14,787 feet. We can imagine a number line in which 14,505 (Mount Whitney) is at the top. The sea level would be in the middle (marked in blue). Death Valley would be at the bottom, 282 feet below sea level: From this, we can see we should add the two values to get their distance from each other: 14,505 + 282 = 14,787

41. Solve for x; $12x+7-2x-6= 61$
    • X=13
    • X=4
    • X=6
    • X=10

    Correct answer: X=6

    x = 6 Step 1: Combine like terms The first step is to combine like terms on the left-hand side. Make sure to include the sign in front of each term in the equation. 12x + 7 – 2x – 6 = 61 is the same as 10x + 1 = 61. Step 2: Subtract 1 on both sides. By collecting like terms we have changed the problem to one we can easily solve. We solve 10x + 1= 61 by first subtracting 1 on both sides of the equation. 10x + 1 – 1 = 61 – 1 Carrying out the subtraction on both sides of the equation we get 10x = 60. Step 3: Divide by 10 on both sides. We can then divide both sides of the equation by 10 to isolate x on the left-hand side. (10x)/10 = 60/10, 1x = 6 We can drop the 1 on the left-hand side to get that x = 6. x = 6 is the solution of the equation.

42. $69.817 + 21.283 =$
    • 90.1
    • 91.2
    • 91.1
    • 92.21

    Correct answer: 91.1

    Answer: 91.1 Step 1: Set up long addition. Don’t forget to stack the decimals. Step 2: Calculate 7 + 3. Since 10 has two digits, we carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 3: Calculate 8 + 1. Now add the carry digit, which is 9 + 1 = 10. Again, since 10 has two digits, we carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 4: Calculate 8 + 2. Add the carry digit, which is 10 + 1 = 11. Since 11 has two digits, we carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 5: Calculate 9 + 1. Add the carry digit. So, 10 + 1 = 11. Since 11 has two digits, we carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 6: Calculate 6 + 2. Add the carry digit. 8 + 1 = 9. Answer: 91.1 NurseHub Hint: Drop trailing zeroes after the decimal: 91.100 → 91.1

43. Solve $7x+2y-3z$ when $x=2$, $y=5$, and $z=6$.
    • 8
    • 7
    • 6
    • 9

    Correct answer: 6

    6 Step 1: We first have to substitute the values x=2, y=5, and z=6 into the expression. 7x+2y-3z = 7*2+2*5-3*6 Step 2: We then use the correct order of operations, doing multiplication in all the terms of the expression. 7*2+2*5-3*6 = 14+10-18 We continue to apply the order of operations, since only have addition and subtraction left, we the first operation working from left to right. 14+10-18 = 24-18 Step 3: We then perform the only operation left, subtractions. 24-18 = 6

44. $245.06 + 89.57 + 10.01 =$
    • 356.46
    • 344.64
    • 364.64
    • 364.46

    Correct answer: 344.64

    Answer: 344.64 Step 1: Set up long addition. Make sure to stack the decimals. Step 2: Calculate 6 + 7 + 1. Since 14 has two digits, we’ll carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 3: Calculate 1 + 5. Step 4: Calculate 5 + 9. Since 14 has two digits, we’ll carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 5: Calculate 4 + 8 + 1. Add the carried digit, 13 + 1 = 14. Again, since 14 has two digits, we’ll carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 6: Add the carried digit with the available 2. Therefore, 2 + 1 = 3. Answer: 344.64

45. $12.56 + 5.062 =$
    • 17.566
    • 17.623
    • 18.023
    • 17.622

    Correct answer: 17.622

    Answer: 17.622 Step 1: Set up long addition. Make sure to stack the decimals. Step 2: Calculate 0 + 2. Step 3: Calculate 6 + 6. Since 12 has two digits, we carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 4: Calculate 5 + 0. Now add the carry digit, which is 5 + 1 = 6. Step 5: Calculate 2 + 5. Step 6: Now calculate 1 + 0 = 1. Answer: 17.622.

46. Order the following numbers from greatest to least: 345.9; 34.59; 34.9
    • 345.9; 34.59; 34.9
    • 34.9; 345.9; 34.59
    • 34.9; 34.59; 345.9
    • 345.9; 34.9; 34.59

    Correct answer: 345.9; 34.9; 34.59

    Step 1. Fill the place-value chart. Arrange the digits of all three numbers in the place-value chart: Step 2. Read the place-value chart and compare the numbers. We are going to compare digits moving left to right in the place-value chart. Since the first number (345.9) is the only number with a digit in the hundreds place, it is the greatest. The remaining two numbers have equal digits in the tens place and the ones place. When we arrive to the tenths place the third number (34.9) has a greater value in the tenths place than the second number (34.59). Therefore, the third number is greater than the second. Step 3. Line the numbers up from greatest to least: 345.9; 34.9; 34.59

47. Round $37.899$ to the nearest hundredths place.
    • 37.90
    • 37.98
    • 37.99
    • 37.89

    Correct answer: 37.90

    When rounding to the nearest hundredth, we want to look at the hundredths place, which is a 9 in this case. The number behind it is a 9, which is greater than 5, so we want to round the 9 up to a 10. We add one to the number preceding the hundredths place (the tenths place). This brings the tenths place from an 8 to a 9. The final answer is either 37.9 or 37.90.

48. $4 + 3 \times 8 \div 6 - 3$
    • 6
    • 5
    • 48
    • 12

    Correct answer: 5

    5. We are going to use PEMDAS to help us simplify this expression. Are there parentheses (P)? No. Move on to the next step! Are there exponents (E)? No. Move on to the next step! Is there multiplication (M) or division (D)? Yes! We will start here for this problem. We will move left to right on this problem avoiding anything that is not multiplication or division. 4 + 24 $\div$ 6 – 3, 4 + 4 – 3 Is there addition (A) or Subtraction (S)? Yes! Since the only operations for this problem left are addition and subtraction, we are going to move left to right to solve. 4 +4 – 3, 8 – 3 = 5

49. Put $3\frac{18}{32}$ into simplest form.
    • $\frac{18}{32}$
    • $\frac{9}{16}$
    • $3\frac{9}{32}$
    • $3\frac{9}{16}$

    Correct answer: $3\frac{9}{16}$

    3 9/16 .We simplify the fraction in 3 18/32 by dividing both the numerator and denominator of the fraction by the greatest common factor of 18 and 32. We can leave the whole number, 3, alone and focus just on the fraction. Step 1: We list all the factors of 18 and 32. Factors of 18: (1*18),(2*9),(3*6), Factors of 32: (1*32),(2*16),(4*8). The greatest common factor of 18 and 32 is 2. Step 2: We then divide both the numerator and denominator by the greatest common factor, in this we will divide by both numerator and denominator by 2. 18/32=(18/2)/(32/2) =9/16. 3 18/32 is 3 9/16 in its simplest form.

50. Which equation correctly represents the solution to the word problem below? Mrs. Arthur wants to plant 540 daisies in her garden. So far, she has planted 159. How many more daisies does she have to plant?
    • 540 – 159 = 381
    • 540 + 159 = 699
    • 159 – 540 = – 381
    • 159 $\div$ 540 = 0.29

    Correct answer: 540 – 159 = 381

    540 – 159 = 381. In order to set up our mathematical equation, we need to first look at what the word problem tells us. First, we know that Mrs. Arthur wants to have 540 daisies in her garden – that’s the total. The problem also gives us a clue that she does not yet have 540 daisies in her garden. The use of the phrase “so far” tells us that she has planted 159 daisies and is not yet at her goal. Finally, the question asks “how many more” does she need to plant to reach her goal. First, we know that we’re trying to find out how many more daisies Mrs. Arthur needs to plant in order to reach her goal. We have enough information to solve this problem, so we can first create an equation using the equal sign. = We know that we are trying to find the difference between how many she wants to plant and how many she currently has planted. We will take the total (540) and subtract what is already planted (159) to find how many more plants she needs to plant in order to reach her goal. 540 – 159 = ? Finally, we can solve the equation by subtracting 159 from 540. 540 – 159 = 381

51. Marcus purchased two items, which cost $46 and $79 respectively, from a store. How much did Marcus spend in total?
    • $125
    • $115
    • $33
    • $43

    Correct answer: $125

    $125. Step 1: Interpret the Word Problem. Since the question is asking us to find the total amount Marcus spent, we must combine the cost of the first item and the cost of the second one. That makes this an addition problem. We must add 46 to 79 to learn the total amount Marcus spent. Step 2: Solve 46+79=125. Therefore, Marcus spent a total of $125.

52. This week, Genie worked 45.7 hours at $14.50 dollars an hour. How much money did she earn?
    • $652.5
    • $639.8
    • $662.65
    • $662

    Correct answer: $662.65

    662.65 To find how much money Genie made in one week, we will multiply the hours worked by the hourly pay. Since the zero at the end of $14.50 does not affect the value of the number, we can simply drop it. The digits of our answer are 66265 but the decimal point is missing. Since our multiplication problem had TWO numbers to the right of the decimal, there needs to be TWO numbers after the decimal in the answer. 662.65. Genie earned $662.65 this week.

53. Shawn is required to take 8 ounces of his medication daily. If the bottle contains 128 ounces of medicine, how many days will his medication last?
    • 16 days
    • 15 days
    • 120 days
    • 1,024 days

    Correct answer: 16 days

    16 days. When Shawn takes 8 ounces of his medication, he decreases the contents of the bottle by 8 ounces. Then, he repeats it for the second time, then for the third – he will decrease the contents of the bottle by 8 ounces every time. We need to know, how many times 8 goes into 128 so we use division: 128 $\div$ 8 = 16. The answer is 16 days, with no medication remaining.

54. Find the sum of $94.564$ and $145$
    • 239.564
    • 139.464
    • 39.564
    • 139

    Correct answer: 239.564

    239.564

55. Simplify $3.6 \times 55$
    • 165
    • 1980
    • 198
    • 165

    Correct answer: 198

    198 The digits of our answer are 1, 9, 8, and 0 (1980) but the decimal point is missing. Since our multiplication problem only had ONE number to the right of the decimal, there needs to be only ONE number after the decimal in the answer. 198.0 The zero on the right side of the decimal does not add any value, so we can just leave it out. The product is: 198

56. A theater sold 188 tickets for the Saturday matinee and 254 tickets for the Saturday evening performance. How many tickets were sold for shows on Saturday?
    • 432
    • 442
    • 134
    • 66

    Correct answer: 442

    442. 254 tickets for the evening performance were sold after 188 tickets had been already sold. So, the total number of tickets increased by 254, which tells us that we should use addition. To find the total number of tickets sold on Saturday, we will add the number of tickets sold for the matinee and the number sold for the evening show: 188 + 254 = 442. 442 tickets were sold for the Saturday shows.

57. $7\frac{13}{14} + 2\frac{1}{2}$
    • $9\frac{14}{16}$
    • $10\frac{3}{7}$
    • $7\frac{1}{4}$
    • $9\frac{6}{14}$

    Correct answer: $10\frac{3}{7}$

    10 3/7 Step 1: Сonvert mixed numbers into improper fractions. We first convert each of these mixed numbers into improper fractions. 7 13/14 = 7$\times$14+13/14 = 7 13/14. 7 13/14 is 111/14 as an improper fraction: 2 1/2 = 2$\times$2+1/2 = 5/2, 2 1/2 is 5/2 as an improper fraction: Step 2: Add the fractions. We then take the sum of the two improper fractions. 7 13/14 + 2 1/2 = 111/14 + 5/2 Step 3: Reduce to a common denominator. The denominators of the improper fractions are not the same, so we can not proceed with addition. We first have to find the LCM of 14 and 2 which is 14. We rewrite each of the fractions with a denominator of 14 and find the sum. 111/14 + 5/2 = 111$\times$1/14$\times$1 + 5$\times$7/2$\times$7 = 111/14 + 35/14 = 111+35/14 = 146/14 Step 4: Convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. The last step is to convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. 146/14 = 146 $\div$ 14 = 10 6/14 Step 5: Simplify the fraction. We then simplify the fraction by dividing both numerator and denominator by 2, the highest common factor of 6 and 14. 6/14 = 6/2/14/2 = 3/7. The sum is 10 3/7.

58. Convert $\frac{25}{3}$ into a mixed number.
    • $25\frac{1}{3}$
    • $26\frac{1}{3}$
    • $8\frac{1}{3}$
    • $7\frac{1}{3}$

    Correct answer: $8\frac{1}{3}$

    8 1/3 To convert 25/3 into a mixed number you follow the simple steps below. Step 1 To work out 25/3, you first figure out how many times the denominator goes into the numerator and what remainder it leaves. The numerator 3 goes eight whole times leaving a remainder of 1. Step 2 You then place the remainder over the denominator of the fraction. In this case we have 1 part of a 3rd, the fraction is 1/3. Step 3 The last step is to combine the results from step 1 and 2. The improper fraction 25/3 as a mixed number is 8 1/3. 25/3 = 25 $\div$ 3 = 8 1/3

59. Add $\frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{3}$.
    • $\frac{1}{12}$
    • $\frac{7}{12}$
    • $\frac{2}{7}$
    • $\frac{2}{4}$

    Correct answer: $\frac{2}{7}$

    7/12 Step 1: Recall that in order to add fractions, they must have the same denominator. We have to find the least common multiple(LCM) of 3 and 4 because 1/4 and 1/3 do not have the same denominator. Step 2: We have to list the multiples of 3 and 4, and then pick the least common multiple(LCM) as our new denominator Multiples of 3: 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, Multiples of 4: 4; 8, 12, 16, 20. The LCM of 3 and 4 is 12. Step 3: The next step is to make equivalent fractions for all fractions involved using the LCM as the new denominator. 1/4 = (1$\times$3)/(4$\times$3) = 3/12, 1/3 = (1$\times$4)/(3$\times$4) = 4/12 Step 4: The next step is to add the two fractions from the previous step. When adding fractions, only the numerators are added together. The denominators remain the same. 3/12 + 4/12 = 7/12. The sum of the two fractions is 7/12.

60. Which of the following fractions is not equivalent to $\frac{3}{4}$?
    • $\frac{12}{15}$
    • $\frac{24}{32}$
    • $\frac{12}{16}$
    • $\frac{15}{20}$

    Correct answer: $\frac{12}{15}$

    12/15 Our approach will be to multiply the numerator and denominator of each fraction by the same number to get each equivalent fraction.Step 1: Show that 12/16 is equivalent to 3/4. We will start by showing that 12/16 is equivalent to 3/4. We have to multiply both the numerator and denominator of 3/4 by 4. 3/4 $\times$ 4/4 = (3$\times$4)/(4$\times$4) = 12/16. 12/16 is equivalent to 3/4. Step 2: Show that 15/20 is equivalent to 3/4. We then show that 15/20 is equivalent to 3/4 by multiplying the numerator and denominator of 3/4 by 3. 3/4 $\times$ 5/5 = (3$\times$5)/(4$\times$5) = 15/20. 15/20 is equivalent to 3/4. Step 3: Show that 24/32 is equivalent to 3/4. We then show that 24/32 is equivalent to 3/4 by multiplying the numerator and denominator of 3/4 by 8. 3/4 $\times$ 8/8 = (3$\times$8)/(4$\times$8) = 24/32. 24/32 is equivalent to 3/4. There is no number that can multiply both the denominator and numerator of 3/4 to get 12/15. 12/15 is the only fraction that is not equivalent to 3/4.

61. Which of the following sets contains fractions that are equivalent to one another?
    • 2/3 , 4/6 , 8/12
    • 3/4 , 4/6 , 8/12
    • 2/3 , 8/12, 3/6
    • 3/4 , 2/3 , 8/12

    Correct answer: 2/3 , 4/6 , 8/12

    2/3 , 4/6 , and 8/12 Step 1: Test if 2/3 and 8/12 are equivalent. Because 2/3 and 3/4 are already in simplest form, and not equivalent, we can move on to see if 2/3 and 8/12 are equivalent. To test if the two fractions are equivalent, we multiply the numerator and denominator of 2/3 by 4 as shown below. 2/3 $\times$ 4/4 = (2$\times$4)/(3$\times$4) = 8/12. 2/3 is equivalent to 8/12. Step 2: Test if 2/3 and 4/6 are equivalent. We then check if 2/3 and 4/6 are equivalent. To test if the two fractions are equivalent, we multiply the numerator and denominator of 2/3 by 2 as shown below. 2/3 $\times$ 2/2 = (2$\times$2)/(3$\times$2) = 4/6. 2/3 is equivalent to 4/6. There is no number that can multiply the denominator and numerator of any of the other fractions to get 3/4. 2/3 ,4/6 , 8/12 are all equivalent to each other.

62. Charlie takes $6\frac{1}{3}$ gallons of water for his 2 day camping trip. He uses $2\frac{2}{5}$ gallons of water on the first day. How much water does Charlie have left on the second day?
    • $3\frac{1}{2}$ gallons
    • $3\frac{14}{15}$ gallons
    • $4\frac{1}{2}$ gallons
    • 4 gallons

    Correct answer: $3\frac{14}{15}$ gallons

    3 14/15 gallons We will first convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions. We will then subtract the fraction to find the amount of water Charlie has left on the second day. Step 1: Convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions. We will first convert each of the mixed numbers into improper fractions: 6 1/3= (6$\times$3+1)/3 = 19/3, 6 1/3 is 19/3 as an improper fraction. 2 2/5= (2$\times$5+2)/5 = 12/5, 2 2/5 is 12/5 as an improper fraction. Step 2: Subtract the fractions. We will then find the difference between the two improper fractions. But since the denominators of the improper fractions are not the same, we can not proceed with the subtraction. We will first have to find the LCM of 3 and 5, which is 15. We can then rewrite each of the fractions with a denominator of 15 and find the difference: 6 1/3 – 2 2/5 = 19/3 – 12/5 = (19 $\times$ 5)/(3 $\times$ 5)– (12 $\times$ 3)/(5 $\times$ 3) = (95/15) – (36/15) = 59/15 Step 3: Convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. Finally, we will convert 59/15 into a mixed number: 59/15 = 59 $\div$ 15 = 3 14/15. Therefore, Charlie has 3 14/15 gallons of water left on the second day.

63. $\frac{7}{9} \times \frac{5}{3}$
    • $4\frac{1}{9}$
    • $1\frac{8}{27}$
    • $11\frac{2}{3}$
    • $2\frac{8}{27}$

    Correct answer: $1\frac{8}{27}$

    1 8/27 Step 1: When you multiply fractions , you multiply all the numerators together and then you multiply all the denominators together. (7/9) * (5/3)= (7*5)/(9*3) =35/27 Step 2: We then convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. 35/27 = 35 $\div$ 27 = 1 8/27

64. What is $\frac{24}{56}$ in simplest form?
    • $\frac{3}{56}$
    • $\frac{3}{7}$
    • $\frac{12}{28}$
    • $\frac{2}{28}$

    Correct answer: $\frac{3}{7}$

    3/7 To find the simplest form of 24/56, we have to divide both the numerator and denominator by the greatest common factor of 24 and 56. Step 1: We list all the factors of 24 and 56. Factors of 24: (1*24),(2*12),(3*8), (4,6) Factors of 56: (1*56),(2*28),(4*14),(7*8). The greatest common factor of 24 and 56 is 8. Step 2: We then divide both the numerator and denominator by the greatest common factor, in this we will divide by both numerator and denominator by 8. 24/56=(24/8)/(56/8) =3/7. 24/56 is 3/7 in its simplest form.

65. Convert $3\frac{5}{6}$ into an improper fraction.
    • $\frac{23}{6}$
    • $\frac{18}{6}$
    • $\frac{35}{6}$
    • $\frac{5}{6}$

    Correct answer: $\frac{23}{6}$

    23/6 Step 1: Multiply the Denominator by the Whole Number. In this problem, there are 3 wholes that have 6 pieces each since the denominator is 6. Our first step then is to multiply 3 wholes by 6 pieces each. 3 $\times$ 6 = 18 Step 2: Add the Numerator.The numerator tells us how many extra pieces we have left, which in this case is 5. We add this onto the amount from step 1. 18 + 5 = 23. Step 3: Put The Sum Over the Original Denominator We put the amount from step 2 over the original amount. 23/6. 3 5/6 as an improper fraction is 23/6.

66. The Smith family needs 5.6 cups of sugar for their famous cookie recipe. If they currently have 3.89 cups of sugar, how many more cups of sugar do they need?
    • 1.71 cups
    • 3.89 cups
    • 2.71 cups
    • 3.67 cups

    Correct answer: 1.71 cups

    1.71 To find how many cups of sugar they need, we will subtract how much they currently have from how much the recipe calls for, which will tell us how much more they need. 5.6-3.89=1.71. 1.71 cups of sugar will be needed for the cookie recipe.

67. $\frac{5}{7} \div 3\frac{1}{4}$
    • $\frac{20}{91}$
    • $\frac{15}{28}$
    • $1\frac{9}{28}$
    • $2\frac{9}{28}$

    Correct answer: $\frac{20}{91}$

    20/91 Step 1: We will first convert 3 1/4 into an improper fraction. 3 1/4 = (4 $\times$ 3 +1)/4 = 13/4, 3 1/4 is 13/4 as an improper fraction. Step 2: We then divide the two fractions. 5/7 $\div$ 3 1/4 = 5/7 $\div$ 13/4 Step 3: We then use the KCF method to work out the problem. We will keep 5/7 as it is, convert the division($\div$) sign into a multiplication ($\times$) sign and then flip 13/4 to 4/13. 5/7 $\div$ 13/4 = 5/7 $\times$ 4/13 Step 4: Lastly, multiply the two fractions by multiplying the numerators and the denominators. 5/7 $\times$ 4/13 = (5$\times$4)/(7$\times$13) = 20/91

68. Joseph walked for $1\frac{1}{2}$ miles in the morning, $2\frac{2}{3}$ miles at lunch, and $1\frac{3}{5}$ miles in the evening. How many miles did Joseph walk in total?
    • $\frac{6}{20}$
    • $5\frac{23}{30}$
    • $4\frac{6}{10}$
    • $1\frac{10}{60}$

    Correct answer: $5\frac{23}{30}$

    5 23/30 miles To get the total distance , we have to add up all the distances that Joseph walked at different times of the day, i.e 1 1/2 + 2 2/3 + 1 3/5 . Step 1: The first step is to convert each of these mixed numbers into improper fractions. 1 1/2 = 2$\times$2 +1/2 = 3/2, 1 1/2 is 3/2 as an improper fraction. 2 2/3 = 2$\times$3+2/3 = 8/3, 2 2/3 is 8/3 as an improper fraction. 1 3/5 = 1$\times$5+3/5 = 8/5, 1 3/5 is 8/5 as an improper fraction. So: 1 1/2 + 2 2/3 + 1 3/5 = 3/2 + 8/3 + 8/5 Step 2: The denominators of the improper fractions are not the same, so we can not proceed with addition. We first have to find the LCM of 2,3, and 5 which is 30. We rewrite each of the fractions with a denominator of 42 and find the difference.. 3/2 + 8/3 + 8/5 = (3$\times$15)/(2$\times$15) + (8$\times$10)/(3$\times$10) +(8$\times$6)/(5$\times$6) =(45/30) + (80/30) + (48/30) = 173/30 Step 4: The last step is to convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. 173/30 = 173 $\div$ 30 = 5 23/30. The total distance traveled is 5 23/30 miles.

69. Convert $0.82569$ into a fraction.
    • 82,569/10,000
    • 1/82,659
    • 1/82
    • 82,569/100,000

    Correct answer: 82,569/100,000

    82,569/100,000 Step 1 We first have to read the fraction correctly according to the decimal place value. The decimal 0.82569 is eighty two thousand, five hundred and sixty-nine hundred-thousandths. Step 2 We create a fraction from how the decimal is read. The fraction for eighty two thousand, five hundred and sixty-nine hundred thousandths is 82,569/100,000. Notice that 82,569/100,000 is already a fraction in its simplest form.

70. Subtract $\frac{4}{5} - \frac{1}{2}$
    • $1\frac{3}{10}$
    • 1
    • $\frac{3}{10}$
    • $4\frac{1}{2}$

    Correct answer: $\frac{3}{10}$

    3/10 Step 1: Recall that in order to subtract fractions, they must have the same denominator. We have to find the least common multiple (LCM) of 5 and 2 because 4/5 and 1/2 do not have the same denominator. Step: 2 We have to list the multiples of 5 and 2, and then pick the least common multiple (LCM) as our new denominator. Multiples of 5: 5, 10, 15, 20,… Multiples of 2: 2, 4, 6, 8,10, 12,… The LCM of 5 and 2 is 10. Step 3: The next step is to make equivalent fractions for all fractions involved using the LCM as the new denominator. 4/5 = (4$\times$2)/(5$\times$2) = 8/10. 1/2 = (1$\times$5)/(2$\times$5) = 5/10 Step 4: We then subtract the two fractions from the previous step. When subtracting fractions, only the numerators are subtracted from one another. The denominators remain the same. 8/10 − 5/10 = (8−5)/10 = 3/10. The difference of the two fractions is 3/10.

71. June has $2\frac{1}{2}$ liters of orange juice in her fridge. If she pours the orange juice into $\frac{1}{2}$ liter cups, how many cups will she fill up?
    • $1\frac{1}{4}$
    • $\frac{5}{2}$
    • 2
    • 5

    Correct answer: 5

    5 This is a division problem – June is dividing the 1/2 liter into cups. We will first convert the mixed number into an improper fraction. We will then divide it by the total amount of juice by the capacity of each cup to arrive at our answer. Step 1: Convert the mixed number into an improper fraction. We will first convert 2 1/2 into an improper fraction: 2 1/2 = 2 $\times$ 2+1/2 = 5/2 2 1/2 is 5/2 as an improper fraction. Step 2: Set Up Your Problem Using KCF [Keep – Change – Flip] When we divide fractions we set up our problem: 5/2 $\div$ 1/2 Then we follow KCF – Keep – Change – Flip. Keep: The first fraction, 5/2 stays the same. Change: The division sign changes to a multiplication sign Flip: The second fraction flips over to become 2/1. The new problem now reads: 5/2 $\times$ 2/1 = Step 3: Cross Simplify [If Applicable]. When we look at the fractions to cross simplify, we find that 2 and 2 can be reduced. 5/2 $\times$ 2/1 = 5 $\times$ (2/2)/(2/2) $\times$ 1 = 5$\times$1/1$\times$1 Step 4: Multiply When we multiply fractions, we multiply the numerators together and the denominators together: 5$\times$1/1$\times$1 = 5/1 = 5. Therefore, June can serve 5 full cups of orange juice.

72. $5\frac{3}{5} + 7\frac{2}{3}$
    • $13\frac{4}{15}$
    • $12\frac{5}{8}$
    • $12\frac{4}{15}$
    • $10\frac{1}{5}$

    Correct answer: $13\frac{4}{15}$

    13 4/15 Step 1: Сonvert mixed numbers into improper fractions. We first convert each of these mixed numbers into improper fractions. 5 3/5 = 5$\times$5+3/5 = 28/5. 5 3/5 is 28/5 as an improper fraction: 7 2/3 = 7$\times$3+2/3 = 23/3. 7 2/3 is 23/3 as an improper fraction: Step 2: Add the fractions. We then take the sum of the two improper fractions. 5 3/5 + 7 2/3 = 28/5 + 23/3 Step 3: Reduce to a common denominator. The denominators of the improper fractions are not the same, so we can not proceed with addition. We first have to find the LCM of 5 and 3 which is 15. We rewrite each of the fractions with a denominator of 15 and find the sum. 28/5 + 23/3 = 28$\times$4/5$\times$4 + 23$\times$5/3$\times$5 = 84/15 + 115/15 = 199/15 Step 4: Convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. The last step is to convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. 3/5 = 119 $\div$ 15 = 13 4/15

73. Convert $6\frac{4}{5}$ into a decimal.
    • 6.4
    • 6.08
    • 6.5
    • 6.8

    Correct answer: 6.8

    6.8 We first ignore 6, the whole number part and focus on the fraction, ⅘. We will work through two methods for converting the fraction into a whole number. Method 1 In the first method, you have to notice that the denominator of the fraction is a factor of 10, we can multiply both numerator and denominator by 2 to get an equivalent fraction with a denominator of 10. 4/5 = (4*2)/(5*2) =8/10. The fraction 8/10 is eight tenths which is written as 0.8 as a decimal. There is no need for rounding. Method 2 The easiest way to work out the fraction is to simply input 4$\div$5 into a calculator. 4/5 = 4$\div$5 = 0.8. We then tack on the whole number to the decimal. The decimal form of 6 4/5 is 6.8.

74. Mozie buys 6 cans of soda for $12.90. How much would Mozie pay for 8 cans of soda?
    • $16.10
    • $12.80
    • $15.75
    • $17.20

    Correct answer: $17.20

    $17.2 This is a proportion problem and the given information allows us to formulate the equation below: 6 cans/$12.90 = 8 cans/x, where x the is cost of 8 cans of soda. We can solve this equation by first cross multiplying. 6 cans $\times$ x= 8 cans $\times$ 12.90 $ Carrying out the product on the right-hand side, we get; 6 cans $\times$ x= 103.20 cans$\cdot$$ We can solve for x by dividing both sides of the equation by 6 cans. (6 cans $\times$ x)/6 cans = 103.20 cans$\cdot$$/6 cans Carrying out the division, we get a 1 on the left-hand side and a 17.2 on the right-hand side. 1x= 17.2 $. We can drop the 1 next to x, to get x= $17.2. Mozie would pay $17.20 for 8 cans of soda

75. Convert $\frac{12}{20}$ into a decimal.
    • 6.0
    • 0.06
    • 0.6
    • 0.12

    Correct answer: 0.6

    0.6 There are two methods you can use to get the right answer. Method 1 In the first method, you have to notice that the denominator of the fraction has a factor of 100, we can multiply both numerator and denominator by 5 to get an equivalent fraction with a denominator of 100. 12/20 = (12$\times$5)/20(20$\times$5) = 60/100. Since this is not one of our answer choices, we can simplify the fraction by dividing both numerator and denominator by 10. 60/100 = (60/10)/(100/10) = 6/10. The fraction 6/10 is six tenths which is written as 0.6 as a decimal. There is no need for rounding. Method 2 The easiest way to work out the fraction is to simply input 12$\div$20 into a calculator. 12/20 = 12$\div$20 = 0.6

76. Convert $0.7$ into a percent.
    • 7%
    • 77%
    • 0.70%
    • 70%

    Correct answer: 70%

    70% To convert from decimals to percents, you multiply the decimal by 100 and then attach the percentage symbol to the result. 0.7 = 0.7 $\times$ 100% = 70 % Note that converting a decimal to percent has the effect of moving the decimal point two spaces to the right. Since 0.7 only has one number to the right, you would add a placeholder zero after the 7. — 0.70 — 70%.

77. There are 600 students in a school. If 30% of the students speak Spanish, how many Spanish speakers are in the school?
    • 60 people
    • 240 people
    • 30 people
    • 180 people

    Correct answer: 180 people

    180 people Step 1: We have to find the population of Spanish speakers in a school with 600 students, given that 30% of the student body speaks Spanish. This is the same as asking the question, what is 30% of 600? The first step will be to convert the percent into a decimal. 30% = 30/100 = 0.3 Step 2: The next step is to multiply the total number of students by the decimal from the previous step. 0.3 $\times$ 600 = 180. There are 180 Spanish-speaking students at the school.

78. Susan paid $270 for 20 pencil sets. What is the price of one pencil set?
    • $13
    • $7.40
    • $13.50
    • $250

    Correct answer: $13.50

    $13.50 This is a unit rate problem, since 20 pencil sets cost $270, we can set up the relationship below: $270/(20 pencil sets) = x/(1 pencil set).To get the cost for one pencil set, we see that you have to divide both the numerator and denominator of the fraction on the left-hand side by 20. $(270/20)/(20 pencil sets/20) = x/(1 pencil set) = $13.50/(1 pencil set). The price of a pencil set is $13.50.

79. What is 54% of 6? Round to the nearest tenth.
    • 5.43
    • 3.24
    • 3.2
    • 5

    Correct answer: 3.2

    3.2 Finding the percent of a whole number is easily done in the two step process below. Step 1: The first step is to convert percentages to decimals. 54% = 54/100 =0.54 Step 2: The second step is to multiply the whole number by the decimal from the previous step. 0.54 $\times$ 6 = 3.24. We have to round to the tenths place. The number in the tenths position is 2, and 4 is the number right of it. The 4 tells us the 2 stays the same so our FINAL answer is 3.2.

80. $5:12 = x:36$ What is the value of x?
    • X = 7.2
    • X = 12
    • X = 15
    • X = 3

    Correct answer: X = 15

    x = 15 To find the unknown value in a ratio, we rewrite the ratios as fractions and use some conversions or cross-multiply. Step 1: Rewrite the ratios as fractions 5:12 = x:36 is equivalent to 5/12= x/36. Step 2: Get the same denominator on both sides. Note that 36 = 12$\times$3, so we can just multiply the numerator and denominator of the left-hand side fraction by 3 to get the same denominator. (5$\times$3)/(12$\times$3) = x/36 15/36 = x/36. Step 3: Get rid of the denominator. Multiply both of the sides by 36. (15/36) $\times$ 36 = (x/36) $\times$ 36 x = 15

81. 172.35 grams(g) are equal to _____ kilograms (kg).
    • 1723.5
    • 17,235
    • 1.7235
    • 0.17235

    Correct answer: 0.17235

    0.17235 Remember that kilo means “one thousand” so there are 1,000 grams in 1 kilogram. To convert grams (g) into kilograms (kg), we divide the number of grams (g) by 1,000. 172.35 g/1,000 = 0.17235 kg, 172.35 grams (g) are equal to 0.17235 kilograms (kg).

82. How many millimeters are there in 50 inches?
    • 127 mm
    • 1270 mm
    • 19.7 mm
    • 197 mm

    Correct answer: 1270 mm

    1270 mm To solve this problem, we will first convert the inches into centimeters. We will then convert the centimeters into millimeters to arrive at the answer. Step 1: Convert inches into centimeters First, we will convert the inches into centimeters. Recall that 1 inch = 2.54 cm. We can use this information to set up the following proportionality equation: (1 inch)/(2.54 cm) = (50 inches)/(x cm). We can then use cross multiplication to solve this equation: (1 inch) $\times$ (x cm) = (50 inches) $\times$ (2.54 cm ) x = 127 cm There are 127 centimeters in 50 inches. Step 2: Convert centimeters into millimeters. Next, we will convert the centimeters into millimeters. Recall that 1 cm = 10 mm. To convert centimeters into millimeters, we multiply the number of centimeters by 10: 127 cm $\times$ 10 = 1270 mm. Therefore, there are 1270 millimeters (mm) in 50 inches.

83. How many ounces are there in 8 pounds?
    • 128 ounces
    • 0.004 ounces
    • 0.5 ounces
    • 16 ounces

    Correct answer: 128 ounces

    128 ounces This problem requires us to convert bigger units, i.e pounds, into smaller units, i.e. ounces. Recall that there are 16 ounces in a pound. So, to convert pounds into ounces, we multiply the number of pounds by 16. 8 pounds $\times$ 16 ounces/pound = 128 ounces. Therefore, there are 128 ounces in 8 pounds.

84. How many ounces are there in 8 pints?
    • 64 ounces
    • 32 ounces
    • 128 ounces
    • 1 ounce

    Correct answer: 128 ounces

    128 ounces For this problem, we are going from bigger units, i.e. pints, to smaller units, i.e. ounces. We will first convert the pints into cups, and then convert the cups into ounces. To convert pints into cups, we multiply the number of pints by 2, and to convert cups into ounces, we multiply the number of cups by 8. 8 pints $\times$ (2 cups/pint) $\times$ (8 ounces/cup)=128 ounces. Therefore, there are 128 ounces in 8 pints.

85. $32.4$ is 20% of what number?
    • 16.2
    • 648
    • 162
    • 6.48

    Correct answer: 162

    162 Step 1: In this problem 32.4 is part of a whole. To find the number that 32.4 is 20% of, you first have to turn the percentage into a decimal. 20% = 20/100 =0.2 Step 2: We then divide the part by the decimal in the last step to get the whole. 32.4/0.2 = 162. As a way of checking, you can divide 32.4 by 162 and take note of the decimal you get. 32.4/162 = 0.2, 32.4 is 20% of 162.

86. Joe fills up a bucket with 1,422 milliliters of water. How many cups of water does Joe fill the bucket with?
    • 6 cups
    • 48 cups
    • 7 cups
    • 337,014 cups

    Correct answer: 6 cups

    6 cups Recall that 1 cup = 237 ml. We can use this information to set up the following proportionality equation: (1 cup)/(237 ml) = (x cups)/(1,422 ml) We can then use cross multiplication to solve this equation: (x cups) $\times$ (237 ml) = (1 cup) $\times$ (1, 422 ml) x = (1 cup $\times$ 1,422 ml)/(237 ml) x = 6 cups. Therefore, Joe filled the bucket with 6 cups of water.

87. 212 is what percent of 848?
    • 0.25%
    • 25%
    • 1797.8%
    • 4%

    Correct answer: 25%

    25% Step 1: Divide the Part (Non-100%) by the Whole (100%). In order to find the percentage, we have to divide the part we have by the total amount. In this case, the non-100% part that we have, 212, will be divided by 100%, which is 848. 212 $\div$ 848 = 0.25 Since the resulting decimal terminates at the second place value, there is no further work to be done to the decimal. Step 2: Multiply by 100. Now that we have our decimal, we have to turn it into a percent. Remember, we turn a decimal into a percent by multiplying it by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal point two spots to the right. 0.25 $\times$ 100 = 25%, 212 is 25% of 848.

88. The length of Tommy’s garden is 144 inches. What is the length of Tommy’s garden in yards?
    • 4 yards
    • 48 yards
    • 5,184 yards
    • 12 yards

    Correct answer: 4 yards

    4 yards Step 1: We are converting smaller units, i.e. inches, into larger units, i.e. yards. First, we have to convert the inches into feet. To convert inches into feet, we divide the number of inches by 12. 144 inches/ (12 inches/foot) = 12 Feet. Step 2: Now, we have to convert the feet into yards. To convert feet into yards, we divide the number of feet by 3. 12 feet/ (3 feet/yard) = 4 yards. Therefore, the length of Tommy’s garden is 4 yards.

89. The average weight of an American woman is 170.6 pounds. What is this weight in kilograms? (Round the weight to the nearest tenth of a kilogram if necessary).
    • 77.5kg
    • 76kg
    • 77.6kg
    • 375.32kg

    Correct answer: 77.5kg

    77.5kg Step 1: Recall that 1kg = 2.2 pounds. We can use this information to set up the following proportionality equation: (1kg) / (2.2 pounds) = (xkg) / (170.6 pounds) Step 2: We then use cross multiplication to solve for the missing term: (2.2 pounds) $\times$ (xkg) = (1kg) $\times$ (170.6 pounds) . 2.2x = 170.6kg Step 3: Finally, we divide both sides of the equation by 2.2 to solve for variable x: (2.2x) / (2.2) = (170.6kg) / (2.2). x = 77.54 ‬kg. We can round the weight to the nearest tenth of a kilogram to get 77.5kg. Therefore, the average weight of an American woman is 77.5kg.

90. Convert 94.64 degrees Fahrenheit to Celsius.
    • 202.35
    • 34.8
    • 64.64
    • 76.9

    Correct answer: 34.8

    34.8 Step 1: The equation for converting from degrees Fahrenheit to Celsius [ ℃ = (℉-32)/1.8 ]. We use this equation to substitute 94.64 degrees in the parenthesis. ℃ = (℉-32)/1.8, ℃ = (94.64℉-32)/1.8 Step 2: We then follow the right order of operations, working out the difference of the numbers in the parentheses. ℃ = (94.64℉-32)/1.8 = (62.64)/1.8 Step 3: The last step is to divide the number in parenthesis by 1.8. ℃ = 62.64/1.8 = 34.8 94.64 degrees Fahrenheit is 34.8 degrees Celsius.

91. How many pints are there in 6 gallons?
    • 48 pints
    • 24 pints
    • 0.75 pints
    • 1.5 pints

    Correct answer: 48 pints

    48 pints For this problem, we are going from bigger units, i.e. gallons, to smaller units, i.e. pints. We will first convert the gallon into quarts, and then convert the quarts into pints. To convert gallons into quarts, we multiply the number of gallons by 4 and to convert quarts into pints, we multiply the number of quarts by 2. 6 gallons $\times$ (4 quarts/gallon) $\times$ (2 pints/quart) = 48 pints. Therefore, there are 48 pints in 6 gallons.

92. 6,000 meters (m) are equal to _____ kilometers (km).
    • $\frac{6}{100}$
    • $\frac{6}{1000}$
    • 6
    • 2,000

    Correct answer: 6

    6 Remember that kilo means “one thousand” so there are 1,000 meters in 1 kilometer. To convert meters (m) into kilometers (km), we divide the number of meters (m) by 1,000. 6,000 m/1,000 = 6 km. 6,000 meters (m) are equal to 6 kilometers (km).

93. A bag of Idaho potatoes weighs 5 kg. What is the weight of the bag in ounces?
    • 11 ounces
    • 141.5 ounces
    • 0.14 ounces
    • 176.5 ounces

    Correct answer: 176.5 ounces

    176.5 ounces Step 1: Recall that 1kg = 35.3 ounces. We can use this information to set up the following proportionality equation: (1kg) / (35.3 ounces) = (5kg) / (x ounces) Step 2: We then use cross multiplication to solve for variable x: (x ounces) $\times$ (1kg) = (5kg) $\times$ (35.3 ounces). x = 176.5 ounces. Therefore, the bag of potatoes weighs 176.5 ounces.

94. A remote farming community has a population of 260 people. If 25% of the people in the village are seniors, how many seniors live in this community?
    • 26 people
    • 65 people
    • 195 people
    • 1040 people

    Correct answer: 65 people

    65 people Step 1: We have to find the number of seniors in this farming community of 260 people, given that seniors are 25% of the population. This is the same as asking the question, what is 25% of 260? The first step will be to convert the percent into a decimal. 25% = 25/100 = 0.25 Step 2: The next step is to multiply the total population of the town by the decimal from the previous step. 0.25 $\times$ 260 = 65. There are 65 seniors in the remote farming community.

95. A jug contains 16 ounces of water. How many milliliters of water is in the jug?
    • 1.875‬ ml
    • 16 ml
    • 0.53 ml
    • 480 ml

    Correct answer: 480 ml

    480 ml Recall that 1 ounce = 30 ml. We can use this information to set up the following proportion equation: (1 ounce)/(30 ml) = (16 ounces)/(x ml) We can then use cross multiplication to solve this equation: (1 ounce) $\times$ (x ml) = (30 ml) $\times$ (16 ounces) x = 480 ml. Therefore, the jug contains 480 ml of water.

96. 118 is what percent of 780?
    • 15.10%
    • 0.15%
    • 6.60%
    • 920.40%

    Correct answer: 15.10%

    15.1% Step 1: Divide the Part (Non-100%) by the Whole (100%). In order to find the percentage, we have to divide the part we have by the total amount. In this case, the non-100% part that we have, 118, will be divided by 100%, which is 780. 118 $\div$ 780 = 0.15128205. We can round this off to the third place value. Check your answer choices to see if numbers were rounded to a different place value. So let’s underline the third place value: 0.15128205 We look to the right, and see a 2. Since a 2 is less than 5, that means the underlined digit stays the same. 0.151 Every other number to the right of the 1 would turn to 0, and since they would have no value, we can get rid of them. Step 2: Multiply by 100. Now that we have our decimal, we have to turn it into a percent. Remember, we turn a decimal into a percent by multiplying it by 100, which is the same as moving the decimal point two spots to the right. 0.151 $\times$ 100 = 15.1%, 118 is 15.1% of 780.

97. Write LXXXVI in standard form.
    • 84
    • 89
    • 86
    • 76

    Correct answer: 86

    86 Remember: M 1,000, D 500, C 100, L 50, X 10, V 5, I 1 Step 1: Determine the Value of Each Roman Numeral. Let’s separate each symbol and determine the value of each. Step 2: Check to See if Counting Down is Involved & Adjust Accordingly. Since all values are going in descending order, which means they are decreasing, we do not have to make any adjustments to any numbers. Step 3: Add All the Numbers Together. Since no adjustments need to be made, we can add all of our numbers together. 50 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 5 + 1 = 86. This means LXXXVI is equal to 86 in standard form.

98. Solve $3x + 5$ when $x=7$.
    • 15
    • 26
    • 38
    • 21

    Correct answer: 26

    26 Step 1: The first step is to substitute 7 into the variable in 3x+5. Remember when a number and variable are next to each other it means multiplication. 3x+5 = 37$\times$7+5 Step 2: After the substitution, we then follow the order of operations to work out the value of the expression, in this case, we begin by carrying out the multiplication. 37$\times$7+5 = 21+5 Step 3: The last step is to work out the sum, 21+5. 21+5 = 26, 3x+5 is 26 when x is 7.

99. Convert 5:40pm into military time.
    • 0540
    • 1940
    • 1740
    • 40

    Correct answer: 1740

    1740 Since 5: 40pm is after 12:59 pm in the afternoon, we have to add 1200 to the standard time to get military time. Standard time 5:40pm + 1200 = Military time 1740 hours. 5:40 pm is 1740 in military time.

100. Convert 41 degrees Fahrenheit to Celcius.
     • 5
     • 23.2
     • 9
     • 105.8

     Correct answer: 5

     5 Step 1: The equation for converting from degrees Fahrenheit to Celsius is [ ℃ = (℉-32)/1.8 ]. We use this equation to substitute 41 degrees in the parenthesis. ℃ = (℉-32)/1.8, ℃ = (41℉-32)/1.8 Step 2: We then follow the right order of operations, working out the difference of the numbers in the parentheses. ℃ =(41℉-32)/1.8 = 9/1.8 Step 3: The last step is to divide the number in parenthesis by 1.8. ℃ = 9/1.8 = 5. 41 degrees Fahrenheit is 5 degrees Celsius.

101. Solve $4x+3y-2z$ when $x=5$, $y=3$, and $z=4$.
     • 18
     • 14
     • 26
     • 21

     Correct answer: 21

     21 Step 1: We first have to substitute the values x=5, y=3, and z=4 into the expression. 4x+3y-2z = 4*5+3*3-2*4 Step 2: We then use the correct order of operations, doing multiplication in all the terms of the expression. 4*5+3*3-2*4 = 20+9-8 We continue to apply the order of operations, since only have addition and subtraction left, we the first operation working from left to right. 20+9-8 = 29-8 Step 3: We then perform the only operation left, subtractions. 29-8 = 21

102. How many centimeters are there in 25 inches?
     • 22.85 cm
     • 9.84 cm
     • 55 cm
     • 63.5 cm

     Correct answer: 63.5 cm

     63.5 cm Step 1: Recall that 1 inch = 2.54 cm. We can use this information to set up the following proportionality equation: (1 inch)/(2.54 cm) = (25 inches)/(x cm ) Step 2: We can then use cross multiplication to solve this equation: (1 inch) $\times$ (x cm) = (25 inches) $\times$ (2.54 cm) x = 63.5 cm . Therefore, there are 63.5 centimeters in 25 inches.

103. $11.016 - 0.109 =$
     • 10.907
     • 10.079
     • 11.907
     • 10.709

     Correct answer: 10.907

     Answer: 10.907 Step 1: Set up long subtraction. Make sure to stack the decimals. Step 2: Subtract from right to left. Since 6 is less than 9, borrow 1 from the next column. The 1 becomes 0 and the 6 becomes 16. Calculate 16 – 9. Step 3: Calculate 0 – 0. Step 4: Since 0 is less than 1, borrow 1 from the next column. 1 becomes 0 and 0 becomes 10. Calculate 10 – 1. Step 5: Calculate 0 – 0. Step 6: Calculate 1 – 0. Answer: 10.907

104. $7 + 13.22 + 9.038 =$
     • 29.258
     • 20.925
     • 20.22
     • 29.6

     Correct answer: 29.258

     Answer: 29.258 Step 1: Set up long addition. Make sure to stack the decimals. Add trailing zeroes after the decimal as placeholders where needed. Step 2: Calculate 0 + 0 + 8. Step 3: Calculate 0 + 2 + 3. Step 4: Calculate 0 + 2 + 0. Step 5: Calculate 7 + 3 + 9. Since 19 is two digits, we carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 6: Calculate 0 + 1 + 0. Now add the carry digit 1 + 1 = 2. Answer: 29.258

105. Solve for x: $x+7=15$
     • X=8
     • X=7
     • X=22
     • X=9

     Correct answer: X=8

     x=8 Step 1: We solve his problem by first noticing that we have to subtract 7 from both sides of the equation to isolate x on the left-hand side. x+7-7= 15-7 Step 2: We then simplify the numbers by carrying out the subtraction. x+0= 8 Step 3: We then drop the zero on the left-hand side to get an x. x=8 is the solution of this equation.

106. Order the following numbers from least to greatest. -7, 7, 4, -9, 11, – 14
     • -7, -9, -14, 4, 7, 11
     • -14, -9, -7, 7, 4, 11
     • -14, -9, -7, 4, 7, 11
     • 4, 7, 11, -7, -9, -14

     Correct answer: -14, -9, -7, 4, 7, 11

     -14, -9, -7, 4, 7, 11. Let’s start by placing these on a number line for reference: We can see from this number line, that we have a mix of both positive and negative numbers. Some numbers are larger than zero and some are smaller than zero. Because we are ordering them from smallest to largest, we will start with the negative numbers (-7, -9, -14). Negative numbers are smaller than positive numbers. -14 is the furthest from zero and is thus the smallest number, followed by -9 and -7. Now we will move onto the positive numbers (7, 4, 11). 4 is the smallest of these, followed by 7 then 11. The final order of these numbers from smallest to largest is: -14, -9, -7, 4, 7, 11

107. $11.89 + 0.072 =$
     • 12.61
     • 101.0892
     • 11.962
     • 11.0161

     Correct answer: 11.962

     Answer: 11.962 Step 1: Set up long addition. Make sure to stack the decimals. We add a trailing 0 after the decimal in 11.89 as a placeholder. Step 2: Calculate 0 + 2. Step 3: Calculate 9 + 7. Since 16 is two digits, we carry the first digit (1) to the next column. Step 4: Calculate 8 + 0. Now add the carry digit. 8 + 1 = 9. Step 5: Calculate 1 + 0. Step 6: Calculate 1 + 0. Answer: 11.962

108. Solve for x; $11x-5-2x+12=88$
     • X=9
     • X=8
     • X=24
     • X=14

     Correct answer: X=9

     x = 9 Step 1: Combine like terms The first step is to combine like terms on the left-hand side. Make sure to include the sign in front of each term in the equation. 11x – 5 – 2x + 12 = 88 is the same as 9x + 7 = 88 Step 2: Subtract 7 on both sides. By collecting like terms we have changed the problem to one we can easily solve. We solve 9x + 7 = 88 by first subtracting 7 on both sides of the equation. 9x + 7 – 7 = 88 – 7 Carrying out the subtraction on both sides of the equation we get 9x = 81. Step 3: Divide by 9 on both sides. We can then divide both sides of the equation by 9 to isolate x on the left-hand side. (9x)/9 = 81/9, 1x = 9 We can drop the 1 on the left-hand side to get that x = 9. x = 9 is the solution of the equation.

109. Round $43.876$ to the nearest hundredth.
     • 43.87
     • 43.8
     • 43.88
     • 43.9

     Correct answer: 43.88

     When rounding to the nearest hundredth, we want to look at the hundredths place, which is a 7 in this case. The number behind it is a 6, which is greater than 5, so we want to round the 7 up to an 8. This brings this number to 43.88.

110. $65.22 - 16.091 =$
     • 48.931
     • 49.192
     • 48.31
     • 49.129

     Correct answer: 49.129

     Answer: 49.129 Step 1: Set up long subtraction. Make sure to stack the decimals. Add a trailing zero to the top number as a place holder. Step 2: Subtract from right to left. Since 0 is less than 1, borrow 1 from the next column. The 2 becomes 1 and the 0 becomes 10. Calculate 10 – 1. Step 3: Since 1 is less than 9, borrow 1 from the next column. The 2 becomes 1 and the 1 becomes 11. Calculate 11 – 9. Step 4: Calculate 1 – 0. Step 5: Since 5 is less than 9, borrow 1 from the next column. The 6 becomes 5 and the 5 becomes 15. Calculate 15 – 6. Step 6: Calculate 5 – 1. Answer: 49.129

111. Write an expression for the following scenario: Each week, a bakery can produce 150 loaves of bread. One week, the machines were down and were only able to produce 78 loaves of bread. How many loaves was the bakery able to produce after w weeks?
     • 150w + 78
     • 78w
     • (150 – 78)w
     • 150(w – 1) + 78

     Correct answer: 150(w – 1) + 78

     150(w – 1) + 78. Since this question asks us to write an expression, we know that our answer will include the variable from the sentence and should reflect what is happening in the description of the scenario. First, we need to determine what the variable in the scenario represents. The variable tells us how many weeks the machines were working. w = number of weeks the machines were working. We need to represent that the bakery made 150 loaves for each week the machines were working. However, we cannot forget the week they were down, which impacted the number of loaves they were able to make. Since the total number of weeks is w and there was one week the machines were not working, the number of weeks they were working is (w – 1). So, we begin to create our expression. We will use multiplication to find the total loaves: 150(w-1). We also want to represent the loaves made the one week when the machine was not working, which was 78. 150(w – 1) + 78. This new expression accounts for the weeks that the machines were working plus the one week they were not.

112. What is the difference in value between the first nine and second nine in the number 493,912.83?
     • The first nine is 10x smaller than the second nine.
     • The first nine is 100x larger than the second nine.
     • The first nine is 10x larger than the second nine.
     • The second nine is 20x smaller than the first nine.

     Correct answer: The first nine is 100x larger than the second nine.

     Step 1. Fill the place-value chart. Arrange the digits in the place-value chart: Step 2. Read the place values. From the chart, we can see that the place value of the first nine is the ten thousands place and the place value of the second nine is the hundreds place. Step 3. Find the values. 9 $\times$ 10,000 = 90,000, 9 $\times$ 100 = 900 Step 4. Find the difference. To find how many times one number is larger than another, we divide the larger number by the smaller. 90,000 $\div$ 900 = 100. Therefore, the first nine is 100x larger than the second nine.

113. $6 \times 3 \div 2 \times 4$
     • 13
     • 36
     • 8
     • 18

     Correct answer: 36

     36. We are going to use PEMDAS to help us simplify this expression. Are there parentheses (P)? No. Move on to the next step! Are there exponents (E)? No. Move on to the next step! Is there multiplication (M) or division (D)? Yes! We will start here for this problem. Since the only operations for this problem are multiplication and division, we are going to move left to right to solve. 6 $\times$ 3 $\div$ 2 $\times$ 4, 18 $\div$ 2 $\times$ 4, 9 $\times$ 4 = 36 Is there addition (A) or Subtraction (S)? No. We have already completed the problem!

114. If John buys 40 ounces of ground beef to make a meal, how many pounds of ground beef does he buy?
     • 2 pounds and 8 ounces
     • 640 pounds
     • 0.02 pounds
     • 2 pounds and 5 ounces

     Correct answer: 2 pounds and 8 ounces

     2 pounds and 8 ounces This problem requires us to convert smaller units, i.e ounces, into bigger units, i.e. pounds. Recall that there are 16 ounces in a pound. So, to convert ounces into pounds, we divide the number of ounces by 16. 40 ounces $\div$ 16 ounces/pound = 2 pounds and 8 ounces.. We have a remaining 8 ounces because 16 goes 2 times into 32, leaving a remainder of 8. Therefore, John bought 2 pounds and 8 ounces of ground beef.

115. An emergency room has a total of 83 patients to be treated. If 57 patients have already been treated, how many are left?
     • 140
     • 8
     • 26
     • 19

     Correct answer: 26

     26. The number of patients to be treated decreased by 57, which means that the initial number (83) must become smaller. This tells us that we should use subtraction. We will subtract the number of patients already treated from the total number of patients: So, we get 83 – 57 = 26. There are 26 patients left to be treated.

116. How many feet are there in 60 inches?
     • 120 feet
     • 5 feet
     • 20 feet
     • 720 feet

     Correct answer: 5 feet

     5 feet We are converting smaller units, i.e. inches, into larger units, i.e. feet. To convert inches into feet, we divide the number of inches by 12. 60 inches/ (12 inches/foot) = 5 Feet. There are 5 feet in 60 Inches.

117. Find the product of $7.6$ and $32$
     • 243.2
     • 232.2
     • 242.2
     • 224.2

     Correct answer: 243.2

     243.2 The digits of our answer are 2, 4, 3, and 2 (2432) but the decimal point is missing. Since our multiplication problem only had ONE number to the right of the decimal, there needs to be only ONE number after the decimal in the answer.

118. A bakery sold 86 pies at the price of $9 each. How much money did the bakery make from pie sales?
     • $720
     • $92
     • $754
     • $774

     Correct answer: $774

     774. One pie sold makes $9, the second pie makes another $9, the third another $9, and so on until 86. So, we need to add $9 to itself a total of 86 times to find the final amount the bakery made from pie sales. When we need to repeat the addition of 9 eighty-six times, we simply can use multiplication: 9 $\times$ 86 = 774. The bakery made $774 from pie sales.

119. Find the sum of $67.98$ and $194.8$
     • 241.78
     • 262.78
     • 252.78
     • 251.78

     Correct answer: 262.78

     262.78

120. A flight ticket from New York to Los Angeles cost $418. A return flight cost $389. What is the price of a round trip ticket?
     • $807
     • $697
     • $29
     • $870

     Correct answer: $807

     $807. Step 1: Interpret the Word Problem. Since the question is asking us to find the round trip ticket, we must combine the cost of the ticket from New York to Los Angeles and the cost of the return flight. That makes this an addition problem. We must add 418 to 389 to find the price of a round trip ticket. Step 2: Solve 418+389=807. Therefore, the price of a round-trip ticket is $807.

121. Compare -15 and -24 using , or =.
     • -15 < -24
     • -15 > -24
     • -15 = -24
     • -24 > -15

     Correct answer: -15 > -24

     -15 > -24 or -24 < -15. Let’s start by placing these on a number line for reference: We can see from this number line, that both numbers are less than 0, meaning they are negative numbers. We can also see that these numbers are not equal in value. -24 is further away from 0 than -15, but because these numbers are negative -24 is less than -15. (-24 < -15). We can also say that -15 is larger than -24 (-15 > -24).

122. Write an expression for the following scenario: A subscription to an online management system costs $49.95. How much would x months of this subscription cost?
     • 49.95 + 49.95x
     • 49.95x
     • 49.95 + x
     • 49.95 $\div$ x

     Correct answer: 49.95x

     $49.95x. Since this question asks us to write an expression, we know that our answer will include the variable from the sentence and should reflect what is happening in the description of the scenario. First, we need to determine what the variable in the scenario represents. The variable tells us how many months a subscription is paid for. x = number of months. Now we need to show that it costs $49.95 per month. To show this, we will multiply the monthly cost ($49.95) by the number of months (x). $49.95x. Since we are trying to determine the cost of how much we would pay for x months of a subscription, this expression would allow us to figure this out once we were provided with either the total number of months we had the subscription or the total amount we paid (which would require us to determine the number of months the subscription was active).

123. What is the value and place value of the five in 459,409.3?
     • 500,000; hundred thousands place
     • 50,000; ten thousands place
     • 5,000; thousands place
     • 5; ten thousands place

     Correct answer: 50,000; ten thousands place

     Step 1. Fill in the place-value chart. Arrange the digits in the place-value chart: Step 2. Read the place value. From the chart, we can see that the 5 is in the ten thousands place. Step 3. Find the value. 5 $\times$ 10,000 = 50,000

124. Convert $\frac{9}{10}$ into a decimal.
     • 9.0
     • 0.09
     • 90.0
     • 0.9

     Correct answer: 0.9

     0.9 There are two methods you can use to get the right answer. Method 1. In the first method, you have to notice that the denominator of the fraction is 10. The fraction 9/10 is nine tenths which is written as 0.9 as a decimal. There is no need for rounding. Method 2 The other way to work out the fraction is to simply input 9$\div$10 into a calculator. 9/10 = 9$\div$10 = 0.9

125. Convert $0.31$ into a fraction.
     • $\frac{31}{10}$
     • $\frac{100}{31}$
     • $\frac{1}{31}$
     • $\frac{31}{100}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{31}{100}$

     37/100 Step 1: We will first write the decimal as a fraction, and then simplify the fraction through repetitive division. We first have to read the fraction correctly according to the decimal place value. The decimal 0.31 is thirty-one hundredths .Step 2: We create a fraction from how the decimal is read. The fraction for thirty-one hundredths is 31/100. Notice that 31/100 is already a fraction in its simplest form.

126. The route Jenny takes home is $2\frac{3}{5}$ miles long. If Jenny only walked $\frac{1}{3}$ of the way home and hitched a ride for the rest of the journey, how long did Jenny walk?
     • $\frac{13}{15}$
     • $\frac{15}{13}$
     • $\frac{1}{3}$
     • $2\frac{3}{15}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{13}{15}$

     13/15 of a mile Step 1: This is a multiplication problem. We are multiplying 1/3 and 2 3/5. We first have to convert 2 3/5 into an improper fraction. 2 3/5 = 5$\times$2+3/5 = 13/5. 2 3/5 is 13/5 as an improper fraction. Here is the product of the fractions. 1/3 $\times$ 2 3/5 = 1/3 $\times$ 13/5 Step 3: We then multiply the two fractions. When you multiply fractions, you multiply all the numerators together and then you multiply all the denominators together. 1/3 $\times$ 13/5 = (1$\times$13)/(3$\times$5) = 13/15 Jenny walked 13/15 of a mile.

127. Round $614.721$ to the nearest whole number.
     • 620
     • 614
     • 615
     • 610

     Correct answer: 615

     When rounding to the nearest whole number we want to look at the one’s place which is a 4 in this case. The number behind it is a 7, which is greater than 5, so we want to round the 4 up to a 5. This brings this number to 615.

128. A spool of ribbon is $11\frac{2}{3}$ feet long. Mark wants to cut the ribbon into smaller pieces of length $1\frac{1}{2}$ feet. How many pieces of ribbon will Mark have?
     • $9\frac{1}{2}$
     • $\frac{2}{5}$
     • 4
     • 7

     Correct answer: 7

     7 pieces of ribbon. This is a division problem – Mark wants to divide the ribbon into smaller pieces. We will first convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions. We will then divide the fractions to arrive at our answer. Step 1: Convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions We will first convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions: 11 2/3 = (11$\times$3+2)/3 = 35/3 11 2/3 is 35/3 as an improper fraction. 1 1/2 = (1$\times$2+1)/2 = 3/2 1 1/2 is 3/2 as an improper fraction. Step 2: Set Up Your Problem Using KCF [Keep – Change – Flip]. When we divide fractions we set up our problem: 35/3 $\div$ 3/2 Then we follow KCF – Keep – Change – Flip. Keep: The first fraction, 35/3 stays the same. Change: The division sign changes to a multiplication sign Flip: The second fraction flips over to become 2/3 The new problem now reads: 35/3 $\times$ 2/3 = Step 3: Cross Simplify [If Applicable] When we look at the fractions to cross simplify, but with these two fractions, we are not able to do that. Step 4: Multiply When we multiply fractions, we multiply the numerators together and the denominators together: 35$\times$2/3$\times$3 = 70/9 = 7 7/9 Therefore, there will be 7 pieces of wire of length 1 1/2 feet. Remember that the fraction represents a part of a whole, so the 7/9 would not be a full 1 1/2 ft long. Therefore, Mark will only have 7 pieces of ribbon that are 1 1/2 feet ft long.

129. One fence post is 3 meters tall. If Amaya needs to purchase 35 fence posts for her yard, what is the total length of the wood that she needs to purchase?
     • 115
     • 159
     • 105
     • 11

     Correct answer: 105

     105. Amaya purchases 35 fence posts and each one is 3 meters tall. She takes one 3 meter post, then a second 3 meter post, then a third, and so on until she has 35 of them. So, we need to add 3 to itself a total of 35 times in order to find the total length of wood she needs to make the fence: When we need to repeat the addition of 3 thirty-five times, we simply can use multiplication: 3 $\times$ 35 = 105. Amaya needs to purchase 105 meters of wood.

130. A theater sold 327 tickets on Saturday and 484 tickets on Sunday. How many tickets were sold in total?
     • 701
     • 157
     • 811
     • 284

     Correct answer: 811

     811. Step 1: Interpret the Word Problem. Since the question is asking us to find the total amount of tickets sold across two days, we must combine the number of tickets sold to find the total. That makes this an addition problem. We must add 327 to 484 to learn the number of tickets sold that weekend. Step 2: Solve 327+484 = 811. Therefore, 811 tickets were sold in total.

131. Convert $5\frac{3}{7}$ into a decimal. If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest hundredths.
     • 5.43
     • 5.42
     • 5.3
     • 5.41

     Correct answer: 5.43

     5.43 We can first ignore 5, the whole number and focus on the fraction, 3/7. You can work work out 3/7 by long division or simply just work out the fraction by inputting 3$\div$7 into a calculator. 3/7 = 3$\div$7 = 0.428571428571. We have to round this answer to the nearest hundredths. The number in the hundredths place is 2. Since there is an 8 right of 2, the 2 rounds up by one to become a 3. The rounded fraction is 0.43. We then tack the whole number to the decimal. The decimal form of 5 3/7 is 5.43.

132. $7:11 = x:44$ What is the value of x?
     • X = 1.75
     • X = 28
     • X = 4
     • X = 11

     Correct answer: X = 28

     x = 28 To find the unknown value in a ratio, we rewrite the ratios as fractions and use some conversions or cross-multiply. Step 1: Rewrite the ratios as fractions 7:11 = x:44 is equivalent to 7/11 = x/44. Step 2: Get the same denominator on both sides Note that 44 = 11$\times$4, so we can just multiply the numerator and denominator of the left-hand side fraction by 4 to get the same denominator. (7$\times$4)/(11$\times$4) = x/44, 28/44 = x/44 Step 3: Get rid of the denominator. Multiply both of the sides by 44. (28/44) $\times$ 44 = (x/44) $\times$ 44, x = 28

133. A doctor can attend to 10 patients in 6 hours. How many patients can the doctor see in 4 hours?
     • 4 patients
     • 2 patients
     • 6 patients
     • 3 patients

     Correct answer: 6 patients

     6 patients This is a proportion problem and the given information allows us to formulate the equation below: 10 patients/6 hours = x/4 hours, where x is the number of patients the doctor can see in 4 hours. We can solve this equation by first cross multiplying. 6 hours $\times$ x= 10 patients $\times$ 4 hours. Carrying out the product on the right-hand side, we get; 6 hours $\times$ x= 40 patients$\cdot$hours. We can solve for x by dividing both sides of the equation by 6 hours. (6 hours $\times$ x)/6 hours= 40 patients$\cdot$hours/6 hours. We then carry out the division from the previous step. 1x= 6.6667 patients. We then drop the 1 next to the x. x= 6.6667 patients. Since we can not have a fractional patient, we conclude that the doctor can see only 6 patients in 4 hours, and will not have enough time for the 7th patient.

134. What is 36 % of 87?
     • 36
     • 21.36
     • 32
     • 31.32

     Correct answer: 31.32

     31.32 Step 1: The first step is to convert percentages to decimals. 36% = 36/100 =0.36 Step 2: The second step is to multiply the whole number by the decimal from the previous step. 0.36 $\times$ 87 = 31.32. 36% of 87 is 31.32.

135. A race car driver can complete one lap in 14.3 seconds. How many seconds will it take for the driver to complete 200 laps?
     • 2,820 seconds
     • 2,860 seconds
     • 2,680 seconds
     • 2,200 seconds

     Correct answer: 2,860 seconds

     2860 To find the time it will take the driver to complete 200 laps, we will multiply the time it takes to complete one lap by 200. The digits of our answer are 28600 but the decimal point is missing. Since our multiplication problem only had ONE number to the right of the decimal, there needs to only be ONE number after the decimal in the answer. 2860.0 Since a zero to the right of the decimal does not add value, the answer just is written as 2860. It will take the driver 2,860 seconds to complete 200 laps.

136. Put $\frac{8}{14}$ into simplest form.
     • $\frac{8}{14}$
     • $\frac{7}{8}$
     • 2/3.5
     • $\frac{4}{7}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{4}{7}$

     4/7 To put 8/14 into its simplest form, we have to divide both the numerator and denominator by the greatest common factor of 8 and 14. Step 1: We list all the factors of 8 and 14. Factors of 8: (1*8),(2*4). Factors of 14: (1*14),(2*7). The greatest common factor of 8 and 14 is 2. Step 2: We then divide both the numerator and denominator by the greatest common factor, which means we will divide by both numerator and denominator by 2. 8/14=(8/2)/(14/2) =4/7. 8/14 is 4/7 in its simplest form.

137. Solve $5.5 \times 27$
     • 110
     • 148.5
     • 1485
     • 14.85

     Correct answer: 148.5

     148.5 The digits of our answer are 1, 4, 8, and 5 (1485) but the decimal point is missing. Since our multiplication problem only had ONE number to the right of the decimal, there needs to be only ONE number after the decimal in the answer.

138. David pays $72.50 for 50 copybooks. How much was a copybook?
     • $1.25
     • $0.85
     • $1.75
     • $1.45

     Correct answer: $1.45

     $1.45 This is a unit rate problem, since 50 copybooks cost $72.50, we can set up the relationship below: $72.5/(50 copybooks) = x/(1 copybook). To get the cost for one copybook, we see that you have to divide both the numerator and denominator of the fraction on the left by 50. $(72.5/50)/(50 copybooks/50) = x/(1 copybook) = $1.45/(1 copybook). A copybook costs $1.45.

139. Convert $\frac{15}{4}$ into a mixed number.
     • $5\frac{3}{4}$
     • $3\frac{1}{4}$
     • $3\frac{3}{4}$
     • $5\frac{1}{4}$

     Correct answer: $3\frac{3}{4}$

     3 3/4 To convert 15/4 into a mixed number you follow the simple steps below. Step 1 Divide the numerator by the denominator to first figure out how many times the denominator goes into the numerator and what remainder it leaves. The numerator 4 goes into 12 three whole times also leaving a remainder of 3. Step 2 You then place the remainder over the denominator of the fraction from the problem. In this case we have 3 parts of a 4th, the fraction is 3/4. Step 3 The last step is to combine the results from step 1 and 2. The improper fraction 15/4 as a mixed number is 3 3/4. 15/4 = 15 $\div$ 4 = 3 3/4

140. Add $\frac{2}{3} + \frac{1}{5}$
     • 1
     • $\frac{13}{15}$
     • $\frac{3}{8}$
     • $\frac{3}{5}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{13}{15}$

     13/15 Step 1: Recall that in order to add fractions, they must have the same denominator. We have to find the least common multiple (LCM) of 3 and 5 because 2/3 and 1/5 do not have the same denominator. Step 2: We have to list the multiples of 3 and 5, and then pick the least common multiple (LCM) as our new denominator. Multiples of 3: 3, 6, 9, 12,15, 18, …. Multiples of 5: 5, 10, 15, 20,…. The LCM of 3 and 5 is 15. Step 3: The next step is to make equivalent fractions for all fractions involved using the LCM as the new denominator. 2/3 = (2$\times$5)/(3$\times$5) = 10/15, 1/5 = (1$\times$3)/(5$\times$3) = 3/15 Step 4: The next step is to add the two fractions from the previous step. When adding fractions with the same denominator, only the numerators are added together. The denominators remain the same. 10/15 + 3/15 = (10+3)/15 =13/15. The sum of the two fractions is 13/15.

141. $12 - 5 + 2 - 8$
     • 11
     • 7
     • 1
     • 13

     Correct answer: 1

     1. We are going to use PEMDAS to help us simplify this expression. Are there parentheses (P)? No. Move on to the next step! Are there exponents (E)? No. Move on to the next step! Is there multiplication (M) or division (D)? No. Move on to the next step! Is there addition (A) or Subtraction (S)? Yes! Now we know where to start. Since the only operations in this expression are addition and subtraction, we are simply going to move left to right to solve. 12 – 5 + 2 – 8, 7 + 2 – 8, 9 – 8 = 1

142. 45 is 60% of what number?
     • 75
     • 65
     • 60
     • 27

     Correct answer: 75

     75 Step 1: In this problem 45 is part of a whole. To find the number that 45 is 60% of, you first have to turn the percentage into a decimal. 60% = 60/100 = 0.6 Step 2: We then divide the part by the decimal in the last step to get the whole. 45/0.6 = 75. Step 3: As a way of checking, you can divide 45 by 75 and take note of the decimal you get. 45/75 = 0.6 45% is 60% of 75.

143. Convert $0.65$ into a percent.
     • 65%
     • 75%
     • 6.5%
     • 27%

     Correct answer: 65%

     65% To convert from decimals to percents, you multiply the decimal by 100 and then attach the percentage symbol to the result. 0.65 = 0.65 $\times$ 100% = 65 % Note that converting a decimal to percent is the same as moving the decimal point two spaces to the right.

144. For her first day of exercise, Sabine jogs for $3\frac{2}{5}$ miles and then walks for $4\frac{1}{2}$ miles. How much distance does Sabine cover during her work out?
     • 7 miles
     • $7\frac{9}{10}$ miles
     • $7\frac{1}{2}$ miles
     • $3\frac{5}{7}$ miles

     Correct answer: $7\frac{9}{10}$ miles

     7 9/10 miles We will first convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions. We will then add the fractions to find the total distance covered by Sabine. Step 1: Convert the mixed numbers into improper fractions. We will first convert all the mixed numbers into improper fractions: 3 2/5 = 3$\times$5+2/5 = 17/5, 3 2/5 is 17/5 as an improper fraction. 4 1/2 = 4$\times$2+1/2 = 9/2, 4 1/2 is 9/2 as an improper fraction. Step 2: Add the fractions. We will then add the two improper fractions. But since the denominators of the fractions are not the same, we can not proceed with the addition. We will first have to find the LCM of 5 and 2, which is 10. We can then rewrite each of the fractions with a denominator of 10 and find the sum: 3 2/5 + 4 1/2 = 17/5 + 9/2 = (17$\times$2)/(5 $\times$ 2)+ (9$\times$5)/(2$\times$5) = (34/10) + (45/10) = 79/10 Step 3: Convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. Finally, we will convert 79/10 into a mixed number: 79/10 = 79 $\div$ 10 = 7 9/10. Therefore, Sabine covers a total of 7 9/10 miles.

145. One case of water contains 24 bottles. How many bottles of water do 16 cases contain?
     • 364 bottles
     • 384 bottles
     • 1.5 bottles
     • 40 bottles

     Correct answer: 384 bottles

     384. One case contains 24 bottles, the second case contains another 24 bottles, the third another 24, and so on until 16. So, we need to add 24 to itself a total of 16 times to find the final number of bottles. When we need to repeat addition of 24 sixteen times, we simply can use multiplication: 24 $\times$ 16 = 384. 16 cases contain 384 bottles of water.

146. $\frac{3}{5} \div \frac{4}{7}$
     • $1\frac{9}{12}$
     • $1\frac{3}{4}$
     • $\frac{20}{21}$
     • $1\frac{1}{20}$

     Correct answer: $1\frac{1}{20}$

     1 1/20 Step 1: We use the KCF method to work out the problem. We will keep 3/5 as it is, convert the division ($\div$) sign into a multiplication ($\times$) sign and then flip 4/7 to 7/4. 3/5 $\div$ 4/7 = 3/5 $\times$ 7/4 Step 2: We then multiply the two fractions by multiplying the numerators and the denominators. 3/5 $\times$ 7/4 = (3$\times$7)/(5$\times$4) = 21/20 Step 3: The last step is to convert the improper fraction into a mixed number. 21/20 = 21 $\div$ 20 = 1 1/20

147. $3\frac{1}{5} + 4\frac{3}{5}$
     • $7\frac{4}{10}$
     • $5\frac{1}{5}$
     • 7
     • $7\frac{4}{5}$

     Correct answer: $7\frac{4}{5}$

     7 4/5 Remember: When adding mixed numbers, you can add the whole numbers and fractions separately. Step 1: Add the whole numbers first. 3 + 4 = 7 Step 2: Add the fractional pieces together. Since 1/5 and 3/5 have the same denominator, we can just add the numerators. 1/5 + 3/5 = 4/5 Step 3: Combine the answers from step 1 and step 2.The sum of the mixed numbers is 7 4/5.

148. $\frac{5}{9} \times \frac{3}{7}$
     • $\frac{5}{21}$
     • $\frac{8}{9}$
     • $\frac{1}{3}$
     • $\frac{945}{62}$

     Correct answer: $\frac{5}{21}$

     5/21 Step 1: When you multiply fractions, you multiply all the numerators together and then you multiply all the denominators together. (5/9) * (3/7)= (5*3)/(9*7) =15/63 Step 2: We simplify this fraction by dividing both numerator and denominator by the greatest common factor of 15 and 63. Factors of 15: 1,3,5,15. Factors of 63: 1,3,7,9,21,63. The greatest common factor of 15 and 63 is 3. We divide both numerator and denominator by 3. 15/63= (15$\div$3)/(63$\div$3) =5/21

149. A team led by Massachusetts General Hospital produced premature cells that support early heart development. These scientists hope to use patient cells to generate functioning heart tissue. If they are successful, the cells could revolutionize transplants in treating heart failure. Pre-epicardial cells form the epicardium, a membrane covering the heart’s outer surface. These cells are central in supporting heart development in utero. Mature cells from the skin, for instance, can be reprogrammed into embryo-like stem cells. When heart muscle cells contact pre-epicardial cells, they develop into vital epicardial cells to support embryonic heart formation. A single blood draw can help retrace early heart development stages, but the more advanced heart structure is highly complex. The findings may eventually contribute to new heart failure therapies. What is the best summary of the passage?
     • Among other things, a medical research team has found that vital epicardial cells can support embryonic heart formation, which can help heart transplants become safer and more efficient.
     • A medical research team’s findings could revolutionize therapies related to heart failure through the use of various existing patient cells that create viable heart tissue.
     • Research findings from the Massachusetts General Hospital could change the course of heart transplants as we know it and offer up more information.
     • If scientists are not able to rely on existing patient cells in order to generate functioning heart tissue, the research project led by the Massachusetts General Hospital will not provide promising results.

     Correct answer: A medical research team’s findings could revolutionize therapies related to heart failure through the use of various existing patient cells that create viable heart tissue.

     A medical research team’s findings could revolutionize therapies related to heart failure through the use of various existing patient cells that create viable heart tissue. This is correct. This is because it contains a succinct overview of what is discussed in the passage. There are a lot of details related to medical terminology in this specific passage. For the most part, they all have one thing in common: they are existing patient cells (from the epicardium and from the skin)—which is included in this summary. Research findings from the Massachusetts General Hospital could change the course of heart transplants as we know it and offer up more information. This is incorrect. This is because it is a bit vague, especially when compared to the correct answer. This summary does not necessarily suggest how or why the research findings would “change the course of heart transplants” or what type of information would be offered. Among other things, a medical research team has found that vital epicardial cells can support embryonic heart formation, which can help heart transplants become safer and more efficient. This is incorrect. This is because it relies on one major detail regarding epicardial cells and embryonic heart formation above other facts. It also contains inaccurate information, since the passage does not note that this will help heart transplants become safer and more efficient. If scientists are not able to rely on existing patient cells in order to generate functioning heart tissue, the research project led by the Massachusetts General Hospital will not provide promising results. This is incorrect. This is because it is more of an inference rather than a summary. The passage does not state this, and it can only be inferred, since the beginning of the paragraph notes how scientists hope to use existing patient cells.

150. Does Low Body Temperature Cause Illness?: As children, we are often told to dress warmly in the winter so we do not get sick. This is a common piece of advice, but is there any truth behind it? In fact, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that being cold can get you sick. Most illnesses are caused by viruses and bacteria. Illnesses like strep throat, influenza, and the common cold are only spread through contact with other infected people. How cold you are when you come into contact with the virus or bacteria has nothing to do with whether or not you will get sick. The effect of body temperature on contracting illness was tested on human beings in the 1950s. Researchers divided volunteers into two groups: half of them were kept in a warm room and the other half were kept in a cold room. Both groups were then exposed to rhinovirus–the virus responsible for the common cold. The researchers discovered that members of both groups developed colds at the same rate. Since that first experiment, there have been similar experiments performed with a variety of different illnesses. All have yielded the same result: being cold does not make a person more likely to get sick. Of course, it does seem that people do get sick more often when the weather is cold. However, this is because there is some evidence that people do get sick more often in cold weather, but it has nothing to do with forgetting to bundle up when it is chilly. When it is cold outside, people tend to stay inside. With so many people gathered closely together indoors, germs are spread more easily. Germs are spread from person to person, regardless of how cold or warm their bodies are. Which detail in the text supports the idea that people get sick more often when it is cold outside?
     • The experiment completed in the 1950s showed that people developed colds when exposed to both cold and hot weather.
     • The fact that people are gathered together indoors makes it easier for germs to spread.
     • The cold weather has nothing to do with the fact that people get sick during the winter months.
     • Germs, including the rhinovirus, spread from person to person.

     Correct answer: The fact that people are gathered together indoors makes it easier for germs to spread.

     Answer: The fact that people are gathered together indoors makes it easier for germs to spread. In paragraph 3, the author includes information regarding evidence that shows how people get sick more often in cold weather. An idea to support this is that people tend to stay inside when it is cold. The fact that people are in close proximity to one another allows germs to spread more easily, and people then get sick. The cold weather has nothing to do with the fact that people get sick during the winter months is incorrect. The passage includes information regarding how the weather itself has been proven not to have an effect on people getting sick during the winter months. However, this detail does not support the idea that people get sick more often when it is cold outside. Germs, including the rhinovirus, spread from person to person is incorrect. Although this is included in paragraph 2, it is not a supporting detail as to why people get sick more often when it is cold outside. This detail is just general information regarding the common cold. The experiment completed in the 1950s showed that people developed colds when exposed to both cold and hot weather is incorrect. Although this is true, and included in paragraph 2, it does not support the fact that people get sick more often when it is cold outside.

151. Fibromyalgia: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that affects an estimated 3-6% of the world’s population. The disorder is characterized by both physiological and psychological symptoms, including nerve pain, fatigue, sleep and mood disturbances, headaches, bowel problems, and incontinence. The exact cause of fibromyalgia is unknown. For some people, fibromyalgia symptoms begin after some sort of physical or psychological stress. However, for others, the onset of symptoms is gradual. Research has shown that genetics may play a part, but there is also evidence that environmental factors can contribute. The wide variety of symptoms made it difficult to diagnose and treat for many years, though recent research has made some promising advances. Although a cure for fibromyalgia has not yet been developed, research has shown that some of the symptoms can be treated with pharmaceuticals, such as tricyclics or gabapentinoids, or non-pharmacological methods, such as meditation, mindfulness, and cognitive behavior therapy. The most successful pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia has been tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline and nortriptyline. These drugs increase the levels of the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine, which are often found at decreased levels in the brains of people who suffer from chronic pain. By boosting endorphins and relaxing muscles, tricyclics can ease some of the musculoskeletal pain felt by people with fibromyalgia. Question: Which of the following can be inferred from information in the passage?
     • Fibromyalgia is more common in women than it is in men.
     • Fibromyalgia is a leading cause of hospital stays.
     • Fibromyalgia could be triggered by difficult combat situations.
     • The drugs used to treat fibromyalgia have significant negative side effects.

     Correct answer: Fibromyalgia could be triggered by difficult combat situations.

     Answer: Fibromyalgia could be triggered by difficult combat situations. The author states that “for some people, fibromyalgia symptoms begin after some sort of physical or psychological stress.” Combat would offer both of these forms of stress. Nothing in the passage suggests that people who suffer from fibromyalgia need to be treated in a hospital. The author neither states nor implies that more men suffer from fibromyalgia more than women. The author does not mention anything suggesting that the drugs produce significant side effects.

152. GMOs: GMOs, or genetically modified organisms, are organisms whose genes have been altered in laboratories. Scientists modify the genetic codes of plants or animals by inserting copies of desirable genes into the organism’s DNA. While modifying organisms in a laboratory is a relatively new scientific development, people have been experimenting with genetics on plants and animals for centuries. For example, cattle ranchers have selectively bred their animals to produce cows that give more milk. Although some people fear the “Frankenstein” nature of GMOs, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that GMO-based foods are harmful for human consumption. In fact, there are several reasons to believe that GMOs are actually quite beneficial. Through genetic modification, scientists can breed species of plants or animals that yield hardier, more abundant, or even more nutritious food. Geneticists have been able to produce rice plants that can survive droughts and wheat plants that are naturally pest-resistant. Some genetically modified foods have been engineered to have higher levels of specific nutrients, such as protein or calcium. Proponents of GMOs argue that these kinds of advances might one day help to end world hunger. Furthermore, genetically modified crops and animals can be bred to require fewer natural resources and produce less waste. This means that GMOs might also be better for the environment. Question: What is the main idea of the passage?
     • The genetic modification of plants and animals can make them hardier, more abundant, and even more nutritious.
     • GMOs are organisms whose genetic code has been altered by inserting copies of desirable genes into an organism’s overall DNA profile.
     • Some people fear that altering the genetic makeup of plants and animals might make them harmful for human consumption.
     • For many years, cattle ranchers have bred their cows to produce more milk than non-modified cows.

     Correct answer: The genetic modification of plants and animals can make them hardier, more abundant, and even more nutritious.

     Answer: The genetic modification of plants and animals can make them hardier, more abundant, and even more nutritious. This is the main point that the author makes in paragraphs 2 and 3. Some people fear that altering the genetic makeup of plants and animals might make them harmful for human consumption. Although this is a true statement–some people do worry about the safety of GMOs–it is not the main idea of the passage. It is simply a counterpoint to the author’s assertion that GMOs are quite safe. GMOs are organisms whose genetic code has been altered by inserting copies of desirable genes into an organism’s overall DNA profile is the definition of a GMO. But the passage is about the benefits of GMOs, not just their definition. For many years, cattle ranchers have bred their cows to produce more milk than non-modified cows is a true statement, but it is only a supporting fact; therefore, it cannot be the main idea of the passage.

153. Mercury in Fish: Mercury is a highly toxic metal found in neon signs, fluorescent lights, older thermometers, and certain kinds of telescopes. It can also be found in something that many people eat on a regular basis: fish. The mercury we might find in a can of tuna is most likely an indirect result of the coal industry. Mercury, which is naturally found in coal, is released into the air when coal is burned. It finds its way into waterways via mercury-laced rain. Mercury accumulates in certain kinds of fish through a process called biomagnification. Biomagnification occurs when a substance enters the food chain in small amounts at the very bottom and then increases in concentration in animals higher up on the food chain. Once a fish eats another creature containing mercury, the mercury does not leave that fish’s body, but instead is stored in fat. Therefore, the mercury continually accumulates as more mercury-contaminated fish are eaten. Despite the toxicity of mercury and the widespread nature of fish contamination, there is no need for the public to be overly apprehensive. Many popular fish, such as salmon, catfish, or tilapia, are generally safe to eat. Other fish, especially tuna and grouper, should only be eaten in moderation. Young children and pregnant women should be especially cautious about how many servings of mercury-contaminated fish they have per week. It is recommended that people in these groups not eat more than 2 servings of mercury-contaminated fish per week. Fish with the highest levels of mercury include shark, swordfish, and king mackerel. All people should avoid eating large amounts of these kinds of fish, and no one should eat these fish more frequently than once a month. Question: Which supporting detail is an example of a suggestion, rather than factual information?
     • Young children and pregnant women should be wary of mercury-contaminated fish.
     • Despite mercury’s toxicity, many popular fish remain safe to eat.
     • As more fish consume mercury-contaminated fish, mercury accumulates.
     • Mercury in fish could be an indirect result of the coal industry.

     Correct answer: Young children and pregnant women should be wary of mercury-contaminated fish.

     Answer: Young children and pregnant women should be wary of mercury-contaminated fish. While there is factual evidence that could suggest dangers linked to mercury-contaminated fish and these population groups, the detail in itself is suggestive in tone. Mercury in fish could be an indirect result of the coal industry is incorrect. Although the detail contains the word ‘could’, it is based on factual, scientific research and information regarding the coal industry. As more fish consume mercury-contaminated fish, mercury accumulates is incorrect. This factual information is part of the biomagnification process. Despite mercury’s toxicity, many popular fish remain safe to eat is incorrect. Information regarding the safety of mercury-contaminated fish relies on scientific evidence and factual information.

154. Wrinkles: Skin wrinkles are caused by a variety of factors. Some of these factors are intrinsic, meaning that you cannot control them because they occur naturally. Others are extrinsic, meaning that they are caused by circumstances outside of the body. One intrinsic factor is aging. As you age, your skin loses collagen, which is the protein responsible for keeping your skin elastic. With less collagen, your skin becomes thinner and more fragile. Aging also reduces the functioning of sweat and oil glands, which work to keep the skin looking smooth. You also lose fat in the deeper layers of your skin as you age. This fat loss causes your skin to sag and develop deeper wrinkles. The two most common extrinsic factors are exposure to ultraviolet radiation (UV rays) and smoking. UV rays in sunlight break down your skin’s connective tissue and collagen fibers. To prevent the appearance of wrinkles (as well as protect yourself from skin cancer), you should always use UV-blocking sunscreen. The nicotine in cigarettes is the most likely link between smoking and wrinkles. Nicotine narrows the blood vessels, reducing the blood supply to your skin tissue. This deprives your skin of oxygen and important nutrients, causing damage that contributes to wrinkles. Question: Why does the author include information regarding UV-blocking sunscreen?
     • To support the idea that UV rays are an extrinsic factor.
     • To introduce the idea regarding smoking and nicotine as additional extrinsic factors.
     • To provide the reader with a suggestion on how to ward off wrinkles.
     • To introduce the idea of skin cancer and change topics.

     Correct answer: To provide the reader with a suggestion on how to ward off wrinkles.

     Answer: To provide the reader with a suggestion on how to ward off wrinkles. The author includes this statement to explain how UV damage can lead to wrinkles and also states that “you should always use UV-blocking sunscreen” in order to prevent the appearance of wrinkles. To support the idea that UV rays are an extrinsic factor is incorrect. Although UV rays are an extrinsic factor, UV-blocking sunscreen does not support the idea anymore so than another detail in the text. To introduce the idea of skin cancer and change topics is incorrect. Although the author mentions skin cancer and states that it, too, can be protected against by sunscreen, the author does not change topics with the inclusion of this detail. To introduce the idea regarding smoking and nicotine as additional extrinsic factors is incorrect. Although the author immediately discusses smoking and nicotine after this detail in question, the fact that UV-blocking sunscreen is included does not serve to introduce the topic of smoking.

155. Does Low Body Temperature Cause Illness?: As children, we are often told to dress warmly in the winter so we do not get sick. This is a common piece of advice, but is there any truth behind it? In fact, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that being cold can get you sick. Most illnesses are caused by viruses and bacteria. Illnesses like strep throat, influenza, and the common cold are only spread through contact with other infected people. How cold you are when you come into contact with the virus or bacteria has nothing to do with whether or not you will get sick. The effect of body temperature on contracting illness was tested on human beings in the 1950s. Researchers divided volunteers into two groups: half of them were kept in a warm room and the other half were kept in a cold room. Both groups were then exposed to rhinovirus–the virus responsible for the common cold. The researchers discovered that members of both groups developed colds at the same rate. Since that first experiment, there have been similar experiments performed with a variety of different illnesses. All have yielded the same result: being cold does not make a person more likely to get sick. Of course, it does seem that people do get sick more often when the weather is cold. However, this is because there is some evidence that people do get sick more often in cold weather, but it has nothing to do with forgetting to bundle up when it is chilly. When it is cold outside, people tend to stay inside. With so many people gathered closely together indoors, germs are spread more easily. Germs are spread from person to person, regardless of how cold or warm their bodies are. What is the main idea of the passage?
     • Researchers have been studying the effects of body temperature on illness since the 1950s.
     • Illnesses are spread through contact with people.
     • Although it is a common notion that low body temperature causes illness, it is not completely accurate.
     • People usually have the wrong idea when it comes to scientific processes regarding sickness.

     Correct answer: Although it is a common notion that low body temperature causes illness, it is not completely accurate.

     Answer: Although it is a common notion that low body temperature causes illness, it is not completely accurate. This is the general idea of the passage, as it discusses the common, inaccurate idea regarding illness and states that it is not completely accurate. People usually have the wrong idea when it comes to scientific processes regarding sickness is incorrect. Although this passage alludes to the fact that the common idea held by people regarding the relationship between cold weather and illness is false, this option is too vague to be considered the main idea of the passage. Additionally, it would not be accurate to state that people usually have the wrong idea when it comes to scientific processes based on the information in the text, as the text does not go in-depth regarding scientific processes. Illnesses are spread through contact with people is incorrect. Although this is correct, as stated in paragraph 1, it is not considered comprehensive enough to be the main idea of the entire passage. Researchers have been studying the effects of body temperature on illness since the 1950s is incorrect. Although the experiment in the 1950s is discussed in paragraph 2, it would not be completely accurate to state that it had been studied since the 1950s. In any case, it is not the most comprehensive idea of the passage and is only used as a supporting detail.

156. Social media has highlighted increasingly ridiculous ‘gender reveal’ parties and theatrics. But to some degree, it’s understandable that parents-to-be are eager to find out: boy or girl? A Newcastle University study might help solve the mystery. Researchers collected data from 927 family trees from North America and Europe spanning back to 1600 including information on 556,387 people total. Women only have X chromosomes, whereas men have X and Y chromosomes to pass on. So the sex of a baby is determined by whether the man contributes an X, making a girl (XX), or a Y to make a boy (XY). The study discovered that a male gene determines whether men have more X or Y chromosomes to pass on. Men with brothers are more likely to have sons, and men with sisters are more likely to have daughters. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn about what determines the sex of a baby?
     • Men who have sons are more likely to have a baby of the same sex.
     • More male babies are born in North America, and more female babies are born in Europe.
     • Most parents expect to have daughters.
     • It is important whether the mother of the baby has brothers or sisters of her own.

     Correct answer: Men who have sons are more likely to have a baby of the same sex.

     Males who have sons are more likely to have a baby of the same sex is the correct answer. The passage states that “a male gene determines whether men have more X or Y chromosomes to pass on,” and that is why “men with brothers are more likely to have sons, and men with sisters are more likely to have daughters.” Therefore, it is likely that a man who already has sons also has brothers and, if he were to have any more children, he would produce even more sons. It is important whether the mother of the baby has brothers or sisters of her own. This is incorrect. The passage states that “a male gene determines whether men have more X or Y chromosomes to pass on,” and that is why “men with brothers are more likely to have sons, and men with sisters are more likely to have daughters.” As women cannot pass the Y chromosome, it does not matter whether her siblings are male or female. Most parents expect to have daughters. This is incorrect. The passage does not mention parents’ preferences for babies of one sex or the other. More male babies are born in North America, and more female babies are born in Europe. This is incorrect. The passage cites research that was made using records of families from Europe and North America, but it does not mention any difference between the two continents.

157. Mercury in Fish: Mercury is a highly toxic metal found in neon signs, fluorescent lights, older thermometers, and certain kinds of telescopes. It can also be found in something that many people eat on a regular basis: fish. The mercury we might find in a can of tuna is most likely an indirect result of the coal industry. Mercury, which is naturally found in coal, is released into the air when coal is burned. It finds its way into waterways via mercury-laced rain. Mercury accumulates in certain kinds of fish through a process called biomagnification. Biomagnification occurs when a substance enters the food chain in small amounts at the very bottom and then increases in concentration in animals higher up on the food chain. Once a fish eats another creature containing mercury, the mercury does not leave that fish’s body but instead is stored in fat. Therefore, the mercury continually accumulates as more mercury-contaminated fish are eaten. Despite the toxicity of mercury and the widespread nature of fish contamination, there is no need for the public to be overly apprehensive. Many popular fish, such as salmon, catfish, or tilapia, are generally safe to eat. Other fish, especially tuna and grouper, should only be eaten in moderation. Young children and pregnant women should be especially cautious about how many servings of mercury-contaminated fish they have per week. It is recommended that people in these groups not eat more than 2 servings of mercury-contaminated fish per week. Fish with the highest levels of mercury include shark, swordfish, and king mackerel. All people should avoid eating large amounts of these kinds of fish, and no one should eat these fish more frequently than once a month. Why does the author include the detail regarding the coal industry in the first paragraph?
     • To introduce the explanation of biomagnification.
     • To provide factual information regarding mercury’s presence in the air.
     • To explain the direct reasoning behind mercury’s presence in waterways.
     • To state an opinion regarding the unethical practices of the coal industry.

     Correct answer: To provide factual information regarding mercury’s presence in the air.

     Answer: To provide factual information regarding mercury’s presence in the air. The author includes information regarding the coal industry to explain why mercury is found in the air. This is later used to explain the indirect correlation of mercury in waterways . To state an opinion regarding the unethical practices of the coal industry is incorrect.The passage includes factual evidence regarding the coal industry. An opinion regarding the coal industry is not included in the passage. To explain the direct reasoning behind mercury’s presence in waterways is incorrect. The explanation of the coal industry’s practices is an indirect reason to explain the presence of mercury in waterways. To introduce the explanation of biomagnification is incorrect. The explanation of the coal industry provides more of an indirect and direct reasoning behind mercury in the land and water. Its main purpose is not to describe biomagnification.

158. In the 17th and 18th centuries, Antonio Stradivari and Giuseppe Guarneri crafted the world’s most famous violins. The antiques are still fiercely sought after among musicians. A recent discovery uncovers chemical treatments that make the instruments superior. The uncommonly thin soundboards, key components in sound production, were subject to proprietary chemical treatments. Texas A&M biochemist Nagyvary stated that “special salts they used for [impregnating]… the wood” were responsible for both “acoustical advantages” and “mechanical strength.” Scientists used spectroscopy (light and radiation), microscopic analysis, and chemical techniques to identify chemicals. They found zinc and copper sulfates, borax, lime water, and alum. Since the time of ancient Egyptians, people have used borax as a preservative. The chemical mix was not just applied to the surface of the violins’ wood-, Stradivari and Guarneri soaked the spruce planks in it. What is the best summary of the passage?
     • Chemical properties can be beneficial for the treatment and preservation of violins, which has been proven by a recent discovery.
     • Spectroscopy was used to identify the various chemicals used in the preservation of popular violins from the 17th and 18th centuries.
     • Popular violins from the 17th and 18th centuries were notable because they were able to produce superior sounds and their quality withstood the test of time.
     • Research has proven that the chemical process by which Stradivari and Guarneri cared for their popular violins was responsible for acoustical benefits and superior strength in the instruments.

     Correct answer: Research has proven that the chemical process by which Stradivari and Guarneri cared for their popular violins was responsible for acoustical benefits and superior strength in the instruments.

     Research has proven that the chemical process by which Stradivari and Guarneri cared for their popular violins was responsible for acoustical benefits and superior strength in the instruments is the correct answer. This is because this summary touches upon the major points of the summary, including the fact that the creators used a special treatment that has had an effect on the violins to this day. Chemical properties can be beneficial for the treatment and preservation of violins, which has been proven by a recent discovery. This is incorrect. This is because it is a bit too vague for the passage. Also, this passage does not necessarily claim that chemical properties can be beneficial for all violins but, rather, these specific violins. Spectroscopy was used to identify the various chemicals used in the preservation of popular violins from the 17th and 18th centuries. This is incorrect. This is because it focuses on one detail regarding spectroscopy and leaves out pertinent information about what these chemicals were able to do to the instruments. Popular violins from the 17th and 18th centuries were notable because they were able to produce superior sounds and their quality withstood the test of time. This is incorrect. This is because it relies on the details regarding the violins’ sound and strength without including other important ideas. Plus, this answer option is not specific enough, since the violins in question were specific, and it does not apply to all violins from the time period.

159. Wrinkles: Skin wrinkles are caused by a variety of factors. Some of these factors are intrinsic, meaning that you cannot control them because they occur naturally. Others are extrinsic, meaning that they are caused by circumstances outside of the body. One intrinsic factor is aging. As you age, your skin loses collagen, which is the protein responsible for keeping your skin elastic. With less collagen, your skin becomes thinner and more fragile. Aging also reduces the functioning of sweat and oil glands, which work to keep the skin looking smooth. You also lose fat in the deeper layers of your skin as you age. This fat loss causes your skin to sag and develop deeper wrinkles. The two most common extrinsic factors are exposure to ultraviolet radiation (UV rays) and smoking. UV rays in sunlight break down your skin’s connective tissue and collagen fibers. To prevent the appearance of wrinkles (as well as protect yourself from skin cancer), you should always use UV-blocking sunscreen. The nicotine in cigarettes is the most likely link between smoking and wrinkles. Nicotine narrows the blood vessels, reducing the blood supply to your skin tissue. This deprives your skin of oxygen and important nutrients, causing damage that contributes to wrinkles. Question: Why does the author include the detail “nicotine narrows the blood vessels” in paragraph 3?
     • To provide an example of how nicotine can contribute to wrinkles.
     • To explain how blood supply can be reduced in skin tissue.
     • To provide an example of why nicotine is addictive.
     • To provide a scientific explanation behind nicotine’s effect on the human body’s system.

     Correct answer: To provide an example of how nicotine can contribute to wrinkles.

     Answer: To provide an example of how nicotine can contribute to wrinkles. Earlier in paragraph 3, the author states that “nicotine is the likely link between smoking and wrinkles.” Therefore, this detail was included in order to provide an example of how nicotine can contribute to wrinkles. To provide a scientific explanation behind nicotine’s effect on the human body’s system is incorrect. The purpose of the text and this detail is to explain how nicotine can contribute to wrinkles. The text does not serve to discuss nicotine’s effects on the human body’s system, in general. The text nor the detail include information regarding nicotine’s addictive properties or chemicals. Rather, the detail serves to explain how nicotine can contribute to wrinkles. Although it is stated that blood supply can be reduced in skin tissue, the detail does not serve to support this fact. This option is merely an extension of the detail provided in the question.

160. Fibromyalgia: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that affects an estimated 3-6% of the world’s population. The disorder is characterized by both physiological and psychological symptoms, including nerve pain, fatigue, sleep and mood disturbances, headaches, bowel problems, and incontinence. The exact cause of fibromyalgia is unknown. For some people, fibromyalgia symptoms begin after some sort of physical or psychological stress. However, for others, the onset of symptoms is gradual. Research has shown that genetics may play a part, but there is also evidence that environmental factors can contribute. The wide variety of symptoms made it difficult to diagnose and treat for many years, though recent research has made some promising advances. Although a cure for fibromyalgia has not yet been developed, research has shown that some of the symptoms can be treated with pharmaceuticals, such as tricyclics or gabapentinoids, or non-pharmacological methods, such as meditation, mindfulness, and cognitive behavior therapy. The most successful pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia has been tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline and nortriptyline. These drugs increase the levels of the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine, which are often found at decreased levels in the brains of people who suffer from chronic pain. By boosting endorphins and relaxing muscles, tricyclics can ease some of the musculoskeletal pain felt by people with fibromyalgia. Question: Which of the following is true according to the passage?
     • Doctors are not sure why some people are affected by fibromyalgia.
     • The wide variety of fibromyalgia symptoms has led to a wide variety of treatments.
     • For sufferers of fibromyalgia, psychological symptoms typically precede physical ones.
     • People with fibromyalgia often have elevated levels of certain neurotransmitters prior to treatment.

     Correct answer: Doctors are not sure why some people are affected by fibromyalgia.

     Answer: Doctors are not sure why some people are affected by fibromyalgia. The author states that “the exact cause of fibromyalgia is unknown” at the end of the first paragraph. For sufferers of fibromyalgia, psychological symptoms typically precede physical ones is incorrect. The author does not mention that one class of symptoms precedes the other. The author states that the “wide variety of symptoms made it difficult to diagnose and treat for many years.” The author does not, however, state that a wide variety of symptoms has led to a wide variety of treatments. People with fibromyalgia often have elevated levels of certain neurotransmitters prior to treatment is incorrect. The opposite is true. The author states that people with fibromyalgia often have “decreased” levels of the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine in their brains.”

161. Polystyrene is a common insulation and packaging plastic. Its bulk and low density make it unaffordable to recycle. Additionally, it contains an additive called HBCD (hexabromocyclododecane), a flame retardant. HBCD and similar plastics additives have been shown to have substantial environmental and health impacts including neurotoxicity and endocrine disruption. Mealworms can apparently eat these toxic plastics safely, according to a Stanford University study. Without experiencing negative effects, the mealworms can eat polystyrene that contains HBCD. The mealworms can then be used in protein-rich feed for other animals. The chemicals do not build up in the mealworms’ bodies. The microorganisms in their guts biodegrade the plastic, so they are still safe for shrimp, fish, snakes, and chickens to eat. What is the best summary of the passage?
     • Even though polystyrene contains a toxic flame retardant, HBCD, that makes it a health hazard to the environment and people, mealworms can consume it.
     • Thanks to microorganisms in their bodies, mealworms can safely consume and biodegrade toxic additives such as HBCD without any detrimental side effects to themselves or to the future organisms by which they are consumed.
     • Because they are able to positively impact the environment, mealworms should be used to biodegrade many types of plastic in the future.
     • Animals can consume mealworms that have absorbed HBCD because mealworms contain microorganisms that can safely break down the toxic product.

     Correct answer: Thanks to microorganisms in their bodies, mealworms can safely consume and biodegrade toxic additives such as HBCD without any detrimental side effects to themselves or to the future organisms by which they are consumed.

     Thanks to microorganisms in their bodies, mealworms can safely consume and biodegrade toxic additives such as HBCD without any detrimental side effects to themselves or to the future organisms by which they are consumed. This is correct. This is because it touches upon all of the main ideas, including the subjects of the passage (mealworms and the HBCD) and what they are able to do. Because they are able to positively impact the environment, mealworms should be used to biodegrade many types of plastic in the future. This is incorrect. This is because the statement acts as a persuasive claim rather than a summary of the passage. The author of the passage does not include information that suggests this is the main point she is trying to make. Even though polystyrene contains a toxic flame retardant, HBCD, that makes it a health hazard to the environment and people, mealworms can consume it. This is incorrect. This is because it provides a lot of information about the supporting details of polystyrene without giving appropriate attention to the effects of mealworms consuming the product. Animals can consume mealworms that have absorbed HBCD because mealworms contain microorganisms that can safely break down the toxic product. This is incorrect. This is because it focuses on a supporting detail of the passage; the fact that animals can consume the mealworms and what this means for them. Although this is accurate, it is not the best summary of the passage and is more of an inference.

162. Does Low Body Temperature Cause Illness?: As children, we are often told to dress warmly in the winter so we do not get sick. This is a common piece of advice, but is there any truth behind it? In fact, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that being cold can get you sick. Most illnesses are caused by viruses and bacteria. Illnesses like strep throat, influenza, and the common cold are only spread through contact with other infected people. How cold you are when you come into contact with the virus or bacteria has nothing to do with whether or not you will get sick. The effect of body temperature on contracting illness was tested on human beings in the 1950s. Researchers divided volunteers into two groups: half of them were kept in a warm room and the other half were kept in a cold room. Both groups were then exposed to rhinovirus–the virus responsible for the common cold. The researchers discovered that members of both groups developed colds at the same rate. Since that first experiment, there have been similar experiments performed with a variety of different illnesses. All have yielded the same result: being cold does not make a person more likely to get sick. Of course, it does seem that people do get sick more often when the weather is cold. However, this is because there is some evidence that people do get sick more often in cold weather, but it has nothing to do with forgetting to bundle up when it is chilly. When it is cold outside, people tend to stay inside. With so many people gathered closely together indoors, germs are spread more easily. Germs are spread from person to person, regardless of how cold or warm their bodies are. What is the best summary for the passage?
     • Thanks to scientific research, the myth regarding colder temperatures and people getting sick has been debunked.
     • While it is true that people get sick more often when it is cold outside, experiments have proven that it has nothing to do with the temperature itself.
     • Research has shown that people do not necessarily have to bundle up in order to prevent illness.
     • Illnesses are easily spread from person to person at all times of the year.

     Correct answer: While it is true that people get sick more often when it is cold outside, experiments have proven that it has nothing to do with the temperature itself.

     Answer: While it is true that people get sick more often when it is cold outside, experiments have proven that it has nothing to do with the temperature itself. This is the most thorough summary because it includes the major points of the passage: experiments, the relationship between cold weather and getting sick, and the fact that people get sick more often when it is cold outside. Thanks to scientific research, the myth regarding colder temperatures and people getting sick has been debunked is incorrect. This is not a thorough summary because it does not include the point regarding the fact that people do, in fact, get sick more often in cold temperatures. Illnesses are easily spread from person to person at all times of the year is incorrect. Although this is true, it is a supporting detail included in paragraph 1 and does not count as a thorough summary of the passage. Additionally, major points are missing from the summary, regarding experiments and the relationship between the cold weather and illness. Research has shown that people do not necessarily have to bundle up in order to prevent illness is incorrect. While research has shown that the cold temperature itself does not directly affect the rate at which people develop illnesses, this is a supporting detail in the text and is not a thorough summary.

163. Diabetes: There are two types of diabetes: Type 1 and Type 2. Both types of diabetes can cause a variety of serious health risks if left untreated. Some of these health problems include kidney disease, blindness, heart disease, and strokes. About 5-10% of people with diabetes have Type 1 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes most commonly develops in young people. In Type 1 diabetes, the immune system destroys the cells in the pancreas that secrete insulin. Without insulin, the body’s cells cannot absorb glucose, and thus cannot produce energy. Symptoms appear after about 90% of the cells have been destroyed. Although most cases of Type 1 diabetes are genetic, some have arisen in people who have had viral infections of the pancreas. Most people who have diabetes (90-95%) have type 2 diabetes, which most commonly develops in people over age 40. Type 2 diabetes results from the inability of tissues to respond to insulin—a condition called insulin resistance. As Type 2 diabetes progresses, the pancreas produces less and less insulin, resulting in a condition called insulin deficiency. There is no cure for either Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes. However, there are ways to manage both types. For Type 1 diabetes, treatment requires receiving regular insulin injections. Type 2 diabetes can also be treated with insulin injections, but can be also be managed with lifestyle changes, such as weight loss, exercise, and reducing intake of carbohydrates. What is the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
     • To persuade the reader to make lifestyle changes in order to not get diabetes.
     • To inform the reader about the two types of diabetes, highlighting specific details and treatment options.
     • To inform the reader about specific cases related to both type 1 and type 2 diabetes.
     • To inform the reader of the serious health risks associated with diabetes.

     Correct answer: To inform the reader about the two types of diabetes, highlighting specific details and treatment options.

     Answer: To inform the reader about the two types of diabetes, highlighting specific details and treatment options. Both types of diabetes are mentioned and explained, and the author then closes the passage with various treatment options. The nature of the passage is informative in nature and the author does not make a specific point to influence the reader regarding lifestyle choices. To inform the reader about specific cases related to both type 1 and type 2 diabetes. While this is true, it is not the complete purpose of the passage as treatment options are also discussed. To inform the reader of the serious health risks associated with diabetes is incorrect. The passage mentions that there are serious health risks associated with untreated diabetes. Regardless, this is not the primary purpose of the text.

164. Concussions: Concussions are brain injuries that occur when a person receives a blow to the head, face, or neck. Although most people who suffer a concussion experience initial bouts of dizziness, nausea, and drowsiness, these symptoms often disappear after a few days. The long-term effects of concussions, however, are less understood and far more severe. Recent studies suggest that people who suffer multiple concussions are at significant risk for developing chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), a degenerative brain disorder that causes a variety of dangerous mental and emotional problems to arise weeks, months, or even years after the initial injury. These psychological problems can include depression, anxiety, memory loss, inability to concentrate, and aggression. In extreme cases, people suffering from CTE have even committed suicide or homicide. The majority of people who develop these issues are athletes who participate in popular high-impact sports, especially football. Improvements in diagnostic technology have provided substantial evidence to link severe—and often fatal—psychological disorders to the head injuries players receive while on the field. Recent autopsies performed on the brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced cases of CTE in every single victim. In response to the growing understanding of this danger, the National Football League (NFL) has revised its safety regulations. There is hope that these new regulations, coupled with advances in helmet design, will reduce the number of concussions player endure, and thus curb the number of CTE cases. Efforts by the NFL and other professional sports leagues are certainly laudable. However, new regulations at the professional level cannot protect amateur players, especially young people. Fatal cases of CTE have been reported in victims as young as 21. With appropriate equipment and form, tackling need not be dangerous. Proper tackling form—using the arms and shoulders to aim for a player’s midsection rather than leading with the top of the head—should be taught at an early age. Youth, high school, and college leagues should also adopt safety rules even more stringent than the NFL’s. Question: According to the text, what can be inferred in a case involving an athlete with chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)?
     • The athlete most likely participated in a high-impact sport.
     • There is a small chance for recovery.
     • It is certain that the athlete is experiencing psychological problems.
     • The athlete experienced severe psychological symptoms straight away.

     Correct answer: The athlete most likely participated in a high-impact sport.

     Answer: The athlete most likely participated in a high-impact sport. The text states that the majority of those diagnosed with CTE are athletes who participated in a high-impact sport. It is certain that the athlete is experiencing psychological problems is incorrect. The second paragraph mentions that mental problems can take weeks, months, or years to appear after the initial injury. Therefore, it cannot be immediately inferred that an athlete with CTE is experiencing symptoms. The athlete experienced severe psychological symptoms straight away is incorrect. Although the first paragraph mentions that most people who suffer a concussion will experience symptoms, the severe psychological symptoms associated with CTE can be experienced even years after the blow. There is a small chance for recovery is incorrect. The text does not include information regarding the chances of recovery.

165. GMOs: GMOs, or genetically modified organisms, are organisms whose genes have been altered in laboratories. Scientists modify the genetic codes of plants or animals by inserting copies of desirable genes into the organism’s DNA. While modifying organisms in a laboratory is a relatively new scientific development, people have been experimenting with genetics on plants and animals for centuries. For example, cattle ranchers have selectively bred their animals to produce cows that give more milk. Although some people fear the “Frankenstein” nature of GMOs, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that GMO-based foods are harmful for human consumption. In fact, there are several reasons to believe that GMOs are actually quite beneficial. Through genetic modification, scientists can breed species of plants or animals that yield hardier, more abundant, or even more nutritious food. Geneticists have been able to produce rice plants that can survive droughts and wheat plants that are naturally pest-resistant. Some genetically modified foods have been engineered to have higher levels of specific nutrients, such as protein or calcium. Proponents of GMOs argue that these kinds of advances might one day help to end world hunger. Furthermore, genetically modified crops and animals can be bred to require fewer natural resources and produce less waste. This means that GMOs might also be better for the environment. Question: What is the best summary of this passage?
     • GMOs are organisms that have had their DNA profile changed in the lab. Although there are a number of advantages to GMOs, the risks they pose should also be considered.
     • People have been breeding plants and animals to show certain characteristics for years. However, some people fear the “Frankenstein” nature of GMOs, and are worried about the potential risks that they pose.
     • GMOs are organisms whose genes have been altered in a lab. There are a number of advantages to GMOs, including greater hardiness and abundance, and higher nutrition.
     • GMOs are organisms that have been modified in the laboratory. Scientists do this by inserting copies of desirable genes into the target organism’s genetic makeup, or DNA.

     Correct answer: GMOs are organisms whose genes have been altered in a lab. There are a number of advantages to GMOs, including greater hardiness and abundance, and higher nutrition.

     Answer: GMOs are organisms whose genes have been altered in a lab. There are a number of advantages to GMOs, including greater hardiness and abundance, and higher nutrition. This statement best sums up the entire passage. It provides both a definition of GMO as well as some of the advantages of GMOs that the author goes on to describe. GMOs are organisms that have had their DNA profile changed in the lab. Although there are a number of advantages to GMOs, the risks they pose should also be considered is incorrect. Although the author does mention a number of advantages to GMOs, the author does not mention any disadvantages whatsoever. Therefore, this answer choice to not be correct. GMOs are organisms that have been modified in the laboratory. Scientists do this by inserting copies of desirable genes into the target organism’s genetic makeup, or DNA is true, but it is only a definition of what a GMO is. It doesn’t mention anything about the author’s main point, which is that GMOs have a number of advantages. People have been breeding plants and animals to show certain characteristics for years. However, some people fear the “Frankenstein” nature of GMOs and are worried about the potential risks that they pose is incorrect. Although the first sentence in this answer choice is correct, the second sentence is only a counterpoint to the author’s main assertion that GMOs are entirely safe and have a number of advantages.

166. Understanding Rare Diseases: Although rare diseases are prevalent throughout the global community, they are not given enough attention by the healthcare community. Currently, there are approximately seven thousand rare diseases affecting people all over the world, and they affect nearly thirty million Americans alone. Depending on where someone lives, the definition of a rare disease changes drastically. In the United States, for example, a disease is considered rare if it affects fewer than 200,000 people. In the European Union, however, a disease is only defined as rare if it affects fewer than one in two thousand people. The differences in the mere definition of what a rare disease is can lead to difficulties in diagnoses. Diagnosing a rare disease with certainty can be problematic due to the scarcity of information available as well as a lack of consensus within the healthcare community. Rather than dismissing a patient’s concerns because of a lack of evidence, primary care physicians should be a source of support and help alleviate their patients’ worries over healthcare issues the best they can. It is imperative that general practitioners are well-versed in the area of rare diseases so that they can help affected patients find answers and support. Which supporting detail is an example of opinion, rather than fact?
     • General practitioners must always be supportive of patients suffering from rare diseases.
     • There are nearly seven thousand different types of rare diseases.
     • Depending on where people are located, their understanding of a rare disease could change.
     • There is a scarcity of readily available information when it comes to rare diseases.

     Correct answer: General practitioners must always be supportive of patients suffering from rare diseases.

     General practitioners must always be supportive of patients suffering from rare diseases is the correct answer. The statement is an opinion rather than a fact because not everyone may agree that general practitioners need to be “supportive” of patients. Some people might believe that general practitioners need to be thorough or accurate, rather than “supportive”. Additionally, the words, “must always,” signify an opinion. There is a scarcity of readily available information when it comes to rare diseases. This is incorrect. It is a fact rather than an opinion because it can be proven as true, based on information that is available regarding rare diseases. There are nearly seven thousand different types of rare diseases. This is incorrect. It is a fact rather than an opinion because it can be proven as true, based on information that is available regarding rare diseases. Depending on where people are located, their understanding of a rare disease could change. This is incorrect. It is a fact rather than an opinion because it can be proven as true. The text alone tells us that the United States’ definition is relatively broader since it defines a rare disease as “affecting fewer than 200,000 people,” whereas the European Union’s definition drops this number to “fewer than 2,000 people”.

167. GMOs: GMOs, or genetically modified organisms, are organisms whose genes have been altered in laboratories. Scientists modify the genetic codes of plants or animals by inserting copies of desirable genes into the organism’s DNA. While modifying organisms in a laboratory is a relatively new scientific development, people have been experimenting with genetics on plants and animals for centuries. For example, cattle ranchers have selectively bred their animals to produce cows that give more milk. Although some people fear the “Frankenstein” nature of GMOs, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that GMO-based foods are harmful for human consumption. In fact, there are several reasons to believe that GMOs are actually quite beneficial. Through genetic modification, scientists can breed species of plants or animals that yield hardier, more abundant, or even more nutritious food. Geneticists have been able to produce rice plants that can survive droughts and wheat plants that are naturally pest-resistant. Some genetically modified foods have been engineered to have higher levels of specific nutrients, such as protein or calcium. Proponents of GMOs argue that these kinds of advances might one day help to end world hunger. Furthermore, genetically modified crops and animals can be bred to require fewer natural resources and produce less waste. This means that GMOs might also be better for the environment. Question: What does the word proponents in the last paragraph mean?
     • Opponents
     • Supporters
     • Resources
     • Crops

     Correct answer: Supporters

     Answer: Supporters. From context, we can guess that a supporter of GMOs might argue that GMOs could “end world hunger.” Therefore, supporters is the correct answer choice. When placed into the target sentence, crops does not make sense. Therefore, it cannot be the correct answer choice. When placed into the target sentence, resources does not make sense. Therefore, it cannot be the correct answer choice. From context, we know that an opponent of GMOs would never argue that GMOs “might one-day help end world hunger.” Therefore, opponents cannot be the correct answer choice.

168. Understanding Rare Diseases: Although rare diseases are prevalent throughout the global community, they are not given enough attention by the healthcare community. Currently, there are approximately seven thousand rare diseases affecting people all over the world, and they affect nearly thirty million Americans alone. Depending on where someone lives, the definition of a rare disease changes drastically. In the United States, for example, a disease is considered rare if it affects fewer than 200,000 people. In the European Union, however, a disease is only defined as rare if it affects fewer than one in two thousand people. The differences in the mere definition of what a rare disease is can lead to difficulties in diagnoses. Diagnosing a rare disease with certainty can be problematic due to the scarcity of information available as well as a lack of consensus within the healthcare community. Rather than dismissing a patient’s concerns because of a lack of evidence, primary care physicians should be a source of support and help alleviate their patients’ worries over healthcare issues the best they can. It is imperative that general practitioners are well-versed in the area of rare diseases so that they can help affected patients find answers and support. Which of the following ideas can be inferred from the passage?
     • Most primary care physicians do not provide adequate support to patients who have a rare disease.
     • There is a higher chance that a disease could be considered rare under the United States’ definition as compared to that of the European Union.
     • Rare diseases are the most prevalent in the United States when compared to other countries.
     • If everyone in the healthcare community agreed on the definition of a rare disease, diagnosing patients would no longer pose any problems.

     Correct answer: There is a higher chance that a disease could be considered rare under the United States’ definition as compared to that of the European Union.

     There is a higher chance that a disease could be considered rare under the United States’ definition as compared to that of the European Union is the correct answer. This is the correct answer. We can make this inference through the statement, “In the United States, for example, a disease is considered rare if it affects fewer than 200,000 people,” along with the statement, “In the European Union, however, a disease is only defined as rare if it affects fewer than one in two thousand people”. The definition used in the United States encompasses a larger number of people, which could lead us to infer that there is a higher chance of a disease being classified as rare under this definition. Rare diseases are the most prevalent in the United States when compared to other countries. This is incorrect. We cannot logically infer this from the information presented in the passage. First, the passage only provides direct information regarding Americans, in that rare diseases “affect nearly thirty million Americans alone”. Although this is quite a large number, it does not provide any information about every (or any) other countries’ statistics. So, we cannot make a logical inference about rare diseases being the most prevalent in the United States. If everyone in the healthcare community agreed on the definition of a rare disease, diagnosing patients would no longer pose any problems. This is incorrect. The statement, “Additionally, diagnosing a rare disease with certainty can be problematic due to the scarcity of information available as well as a lack of consensus within the healthcare community,” shows that there are two problems in diagnosing a rare disease. Using this piece of information, we can logically infer that the scarcity of information would still pose problems during diagnosis, even if everyone in the healthcare community were to agree on one set definition. Nothing in the passage leads us to correctly infer that a consensus would resolve all diagnostic problems. Most primary care physicians do not provide adequate support to patients who have a rare disease. This is incorrect. We cannot logically infer this from the information in the passage. The author states, “Rather than dismissing a patient’s concerns because of a lack of evidence, primary care physicians should be a source of support and help alleviate their patients’ healthcare issues the best they can,” but this answer choice is more of an opinion rather than an inference. The author does not state that most primary care physicians do not provide enough support to those suffering from a rare disease. Instead, the author provides their opinion on what should be done.

169. Fibromyalgia: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that affects an estimated 3-6% of the world’s population. The disorder is characterized by both physiological and psychological symptoms, including nerve pain, fatigue, sleep and mood disturbances, headaches, bowel problems, and incontinence. The exact cause of fibromyalgia is unknown. For some people, fibromyalgia symptoms begin after some sort of physical or psychological stress. However, for others, the onset of symptoms is gradual. Research has shown that genetics may play a part, but there is also evidence that environmental factors can contribute. The wide variety of symptoms made it difficult to diagnose and treat for many years, though recent research has made some promising advances. Although a cure for fibromyalgia has not yet been developed, research has shown that some of the symptoms can be treated with pharmaceuticals, such as tricyclics or gabapentinoids, or non-pharmacological methods, such as meditation, mindfulness, and cognitive behavior therapy. The most successful pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia has been tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline and nortriptyline. These drugs increase the levels of the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine, which are often found at decreased levels in the brains of people who suffer from chronic pain. By boosting endorphins and relaxing muscles, tricyclics can ease some of the musculoskeletal pain felt by people with fibromyalgia. Question: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
     • Nonpharmacological treatments have so far been more successful at treating fibromyalgia than pharmaceutical treatments.
     • Some symptoms of fibromyalgia only occur after some form of physical trauma.
     • People with fibromyalgia often have no control over their urination and bowel movements.
     • By increasing certain neurotransmitters in the brain, sufferers of fibromyalgia have experienced some relief of symptoms.

     Correct answer: Nonpharmacological treatments have so far been more successful at treating fibromyalgia than pharmaceutical treatments.

     Answer: Nonpharmacological treatments have so far been more successful at treating fibromyalgia than pharmaceutical treatments. This answer choice contains incorrect information. The author does not state that one class of treatments is more successful than the other. In paragraph 1, the author states that sufferers of fibromyalgia suffer from incontinence, which is the inability to control their urination and bowel movements. In paragraph 2, the author states that “fibromyalgia symptoms (can) begin after some sort of physical…stress.” By increasing certain neurotransmitters in the brain, sufferers of fibromyalgia have experienced some relief of symptoms is incorrect. The author states in the last paragraph that antidepressants “increase the levels of the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine, which are often found at decreased levels in the brains of people who suffer from chronic pain.”

170. Parkinson’s disease causes muscle rigidity, tremors, dementia, and confusion. Evidence from Johns Hopkins Medicine strengthens the theory that a compound in fruit might prevent and reverse Parkinson’s-related brain damage. Farnesol naturally occurs in herbs and in fruits, including berries. The compound is commonly used in flavoring and perfume production. Mouse studies show promising results in fighting the loss of neurons that produce dopamine. PARIS is a major protein in Parkinson’s disease progression, compromising movement and cognition. Farnesol blocks PARIS, which may be a key in developing new Parkinson’s interventions. In lab experiments, mice that ate farnesol-supplemented diets performed 100% better on a strength and coordination test for Parkinson’s. They also had twice as many healthy dopamine neurons. What is the best summary of the passage?
     • After conducting lab experiments, scientists believe that a natural compound called farnesol could block a major protein present in the progression of Parkinson’s disease.
     • Parkinson’s disease is known for its debilitating effects on the body, including muscle rigidity and dementia, among other things.
     • In a recent experiment, scientists found that mice who consume farnesol as part of their diets not only perform better at tests for Parkinson’s disease but also have more healthy dopamine neurons.
     • Farnesol is typically found in herbs and fruits, and although it is usually used by perfume companies, it could drastically help patients suffering from Parkison’s disease.

     Correct answer: After conducting lab experiments, scientists believe that a natural compound called farnesol could block a major protein present in the progression of Parkinson’s disease.

     After conducting lab experiments, scientists believe that a natural compound called farnesol could block a major protein present in the progression of Parkinson’s disease is the correct answer. This is because it contains all of the main information of the paragraph, including what farnesol could do and how scientists reached these findings. Parkinson’s disease is known for its debilitating effects on the body, including muscle rigidity and dementia, among other things. This is incorrect. This is because it focuses on the introductory idea of what Parkinson’s disease is and what it is known for. In a recent experiment, scientists found that mice who consume farnesol as part of their diets not only perform better at tests for Parkinson’s disease but also have more healthy dopamine neurons. This is incorrect. This is because it relies only on the supporting detail regarding the lab test with mice. Farnesol is typically found in herbs and fruits, and although it is usually used by perfume companies, it could drastically help patients suffering from Parkison’s disease. This is incorrect. This is because it relies too heavily on details surrounding what farnesol is and who it is used by, rather than the main point of the paragraph that shows why and how farnesol could work.

171. Mercury in Fish: Mercury is a highly toxic metal found in neon signs, fluorescent lights, older thermometers, and certain kinds of telescopes. It can also be found in something that many people eat on a regular basis: fish. The mercury we might find in a can of tuna is most likely an indirect result of the coal industry. Mercury, which is naturally found in coal, is released into the air when coal is burned. It finds its way into waterways via mercury-laced rain. Mercury accumulates in certain kinds of fish through a process called biomagnification. Biomagnification occurs when a substance enters the food chain in small amounts at the very bottom and then increases in concentration in animals higher up on the food chain. Once a fish eats another creature containing mercury, the mercury does not leave that fish’s body, but instead is stored in fat. Therefore, the mercury continually accumulates as more mercury-contaminated fish are eaten. Despite the toxicity of mercury and the widespread nature of fish contamination, there is no need for the public to be overly apprehensive. Many popular fish, such as salmon, catfish, or tilapia, are generally safe to eat. Other fish, especially tuna and grouper, should only be eaten in moderation. Young children and pregnant women should be especially cautious about how many servings of mercury-contaminated fish they have per week. It is recommended that people in these groups not eat more than 2 servings of mercury-contaminated fish per week. Fish with the highest levels of mercury include shark, swordfish, and king mackerel. All people should avoid eating large amounts of these kinds of fish, and no one should eat these fish more frequently than once a month. Question: Which detail is included regarding safety when eating fish?
     • It is best if young children avoid mercury-contaminated fish.
     • It is recommended that elderly groups and pregnant women limit their weekly intake of mercury-contaminated fish.
     • It is in the public’s best interest to limit intake of mercury-contaminated fish.
     • Intake of fish with the highest levels of mercury should be limited.

     Correct answer: Intake of fish with the highest levels of mercury should be limited.

     Answer: Intake of fish with the highest levels of mercury should be limited. The end of the last paragraph suggests that fish with the highest levels of mercury should not be eaten more than once a month. It is best if young children avoid mercury-contaminated fish. The passage suggests that young children should be cautious and eat no more than 2 servings of mercury-contaminated fish per week. It is in the public’s best interest to limit intake of mercury-contaminated fish. This option is very vague and contradicts information provided in the passage, which states that many popular fish are safe to eat. It is recommended that elderly groups and pregnant women limit their weekly intake of mercury-contaminated fish. While the last paragraph states that pregnant women should limit their intake of mercury-contaminated fish, it makes no mention of elderly groups.

172. GMOs: GMOs, or genetically modified organisms, are organisms whose genes have been altered in laboratories. Scientists modify the genetic codes of plants or animals by inserting copies of desirable genes into the organism’s DNA. While modifying organisms in a laboratory is a relatively new scientific development, people have been experimenting with genetics on plants and animals for centuries. For example, cattle ranchers have selectively bred their animals to produce cows that give more milk. Although some people fear the “Frankenstein” nature of GMOs, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that GMO-based foods are harmful for human consumption. In fact, there are several reasons to believe that GMOs actually quite beneficial. Through genetic modification, scientists can breed species of plants or animals that yield hardier, more abundant, or even more nutritious food. Geneticists have been able to produce rice plants that can survive droughts and wheat plants that are naturally pest-resistant. Some genetically modified foods have been engineered to have higher levels of specific nutrients, such as protein or calcium. Proponents of GMOs argue that these kinds of advances might one day help to end world hunger. Furthermore, genetically modified crops and animals can be bred to require fewer natural resources and produce less waste. This means that GMOs might also be better for the environment. Question: Which of the following is true according to information found in the passage?
     • Genetically modified cattle have been shown to live longer than non-GMO cattle.
     • Scientists have transferred some genetic material from animals into the genetic code of plants.
     • Some studies have shown that GMO-based foods might be hazardous to the health and well-being of humans.
     • People have been modifying the genetic makeup of organisms for hundreds of years.

     Correct answer: People have been modifying the genetic makeup of organisms for hundreds of years.

     Answer: People have been modifying the genetic makeup of organisms for hundreds of years. The author states that “people have been experimenting with genetics on plants and animals for centuries.” Some studies have shown that GMO-based foods might be hazardous to the health and well-being of humans is incorrect. The opposite is true. The author states “there is no scientific evidence to suggest that GMO-based foods are harmful for human consumption.” Scientists have transferred some genetic material from animals into the genetic code of plants. Although this is a true statement, the author makes no reference to it in the passage. Genetically modified cattle have been shown to live longer than non-GMO cattle. The author makes no reference to the lifespan of GMO cattle.

173. Diabetes: There are two types of diabetes: Type 1 and Type 2. Both types of diabetes can cause a variety of serious health risks if left untreated. Some of these health problems include kidney disease, blindness, heart disease, and strokes. About 5-10% of people with diabetes have Type 1 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes most commonly develops in young people. In Type 1 diabetes, the immune system destroys the cells in the pancreas that secrete insulin. Without insulin, the body’s cells cannot absorb glucose, and thus cannot produce energy. Symptoms appear after about 90% of the cells have been destroyed. Although most cases of Type 1 diabetes are genetic, some have arisen in people who have had viral infections of the pancreas. Most people who have diabetes (90-95%) have type 2 diabetes, which most commonly develops in people over age 40. Type 2 diabetes results from the inability of tissues to respond to insulin—a condition called insulin resistance. As Type 2 diabetes progresses, the pancreas produces less and less insulin, resulting in a condition called insulin deficiency. There is no cure for either Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes. However, there are ways to manage both types. For Type 1 diabetes, treatment requires receiving regular insulin injections. Type 2 diabetes can also be treated with insulin injections, but can be also be managed with lifestyle changes, such as weight loss, exercise, and reducing intake of carbohydrates. Which detail provides scientific reasoning to support the idea that “diabetes can cause a variety of health risks if left untreated”?
     • Most people who have diabetes are affected with Type 2 diabetes.
     • In Type 1 diabetes, symptoms appear after around 90% of the cells have been destroyed.
     • Without insulin, the body’s cells cannot absorb glucose.
     • There is no cure for Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes.

     Correct answer: Without insulin, the body’s cells cannot absorb glucose.

     Answer: Without insulin, the body’s cells cannot absorb glucose. This detail provides scientific evidence as to how diabetes can cause health risks. The fact that the body’s cells cannot absorb glucose could limit the body’s functions and cause health risks. Additionally, the text mentions insulin injections as a possible treatment for diabetes. Most people who have diabetes are affected with Type 2 diabetes does not support the fact that diabetes can cause health risks, but rather, provides statistical evidence. There is no cure for Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes is incorrect. Although factual, it describes an aspect of diabetes rather than supporting the fact that it can cause health risks. In Type 1 diabetes, symptoms appear after around 90% of the cells have been destroyed is incorrect. Although factual, this detail describes only Type 1 diabetes.

174. Fibromyalgia: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that affects an estimated 3-6% of the world’s population. The disorder is characterized by both physiological and psychological symptoms, including nerve pain, fatigue, sleep and mood disturbances, headaches, bowel problems, and incontinence. The exact cause of fibromyalgia is unknown. For some people, fibromyalgia symptoms begin after some sort of physical or psychological stress. However, for others, the onset of symptoms is gradual. Research has shown that genetics may play a part, but there is also evidence that environmental factors can contribute. The wide variety of symptoms made it difficult to diagnose and treat for many years, though recent research has made some promising advances. Although a cure for fibromyalgia has not yet been developed, research has shown that some of the symptoms can be treated with pharmaceuticals, such as tricyclics or gabapentinoids, or non-pharmacological methods, such as meditation, mindfulness, and cognitive behavior therapy. The most successful pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia has been tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline and nortriptyline. These drugs increase the levels of the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine, which are often found at decreased levels in the brains of people who suffer from chronic pain. By boosting endorphins and relaxing muscles, tricyclics can ease some of the musculoskeletal pain felt by people with fibromyalgia. Question: What is the best summary of the passage?
     • Amitriptyline and nortriptyline are tricyclic antidepressants that increase levels of certain neurotransmitters that are often found at decreased levels in the brains of those who suffer from fibromyalgia.
     • As much as 6% of the world’s population suffers from fibromyalgia. It causes a number of symptoms, including nerve pain, fatigue, sleep and mood disturbances, headaches, bowel problems, and incontinence.
     • Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition with both physical and psychological symptoms. It has been successfully treated with pharmaceuticals such as tricyclics and by nonpharmacological methods such as meditation.
     • The chronic condition known as fibromyalgia has symptoms ranging from nerve pain to incontinence. It can now be cured using a combination of drug therapy and nonpharmacological methods such as meditation.

     Correct answer: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition with both physical and psychological symptoms. It has been successfully treated with pharmaceuticals such as tricyclics and by nonpharmacological methods such as meditation.

     Answer: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition with both physical and psychological symptoms. It has been successfully treated with pharmaceuticals such as tricyclics and by nonpharmacological methods such as meditation. This answer choice correctly sums up the passage and includes all key ideas discussed in the text. As much as 6% of the world’s population suffers from fibromyalgia. It causes a number of symptoms, including nerve pain, fatigue, sleep and mood disturbances, headaches, bowel problems, and incontinence. Although the information contained in the answer choice is correct, it only describes the symptoms of fibromyalgia. A full summary of the passage must include the causes and cures of the condition. The chronic condition known as fibromyalgia has symptoms ranging from nerve pain to incontinence. It can now be cured using a combination of drug therapy and nonpharmacological methods such as meditation. This answer choice contains false information. It states that the condition can be cured. However, the author states that “a cure for fibromyalgia has not yet been developed.” Amitriptyline and nortriptyline are tricyclic antidepressants that increase levels of certain neurotransmitters that are often found at decreased levels in the brains of those who suffer from fibromyalgia. This answer choice contains factual information, but the information is only used to support the idea that certain drugs are used to treat the condition. It does not include a definition of fibromyalgia nor does it mention the nonpharmacological treatment methods.

175. Does Low Body Temperature Cause Illness?: As children, we are often told to dress warmly in the winter so we do not get sick. This is a common piece of advice, but is there any truth behind it? In fact, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that being cold can get you sick. Most illnesses are caused by viruses and bacteria. Illnesses like strep throat, influenza, and the common cold are only spread through contact with other infected people. How cold you are when you come into contact with the virus or bacteria has nothing to do with whether or not you will get sick. The effect of body temperature on contracting illness was tested on human beings in the 1950s. Researchers divided volunteers into two groups: half of them were kept in a warm room and the other half were kept in a cold room. Both groups were then exposed to rhinovirus–the virus responsible for the common cold. The researchers discovered that members of both groups developed colds at the same rate. Since that first experiment, there have been similar experiments performed with a variety of different illnesses. All have yielded the same result: being cold does not make a person more likely to get sick. Of course, it does seem that people do get sick more often when the weather is cold. However, this is because there is some evidence that people do get sick more often in cold weather, but it has nothing to do with forgetting to bundle up when it is chilly. When it is cold outside, people tend to stay inside. With so many people gathered closely together indoors, germs are spread more easily. Germs are spread from person to person, regardless of how cold or warm their bodies are. Which word would best replace ‘yielded’ in paragraph 2?
     • Gave up
     • Retained
     • Provided
     • Described

     Correct answer: Provided

     Answer: Provided. The correct defintion of the word ‘yielded’ is ‘provided’, in that it provided given information. This synonym would accurately fit the sentence in question. In this case, the word ‘described’ is an inaccurate synonym for ‘yielded’ and would not fit the sentence in question. In this case, the phrase ‘gave up’ is an inaccurate synonym for ‘yielded’ and would not fit the sentence in question since it refers to ‘quitting’ something. However, ‘gave’ could be a possible synonym, which could cause some confusion in this question. The correct definition of the word ‘yielded’ is ‘provided’, in that it provided given information. In this case, ‘retained’ is the opposite, and means that something was withheld, rather than provided.

176. A True Renaissance Man: Have you ever heard the term, “Renaissance Man”? This phrase developed in Italy during the Renaissance period (from the 14th century to the 17th century) and was used to describe a person who embraced a great deal of knowledge across a variety of disciplines. Galileo Galilei, the Italian astronomer, physicist, and engineer is perhaps the best example of a true Renaissance Man. Not only did he study a wide range of academic subjects, ranging from mathematics to linguistics, but he was also courageous enough to challenge scientific theories that existed at the time. Galileo’s most famous discovery debunked the most widely-held belief during that period: that the Earth was located in the center of the universe. His scientific findings and ideas showing that the Sun was actually the center of the universe ultimately caused him to become the target of the Inquisition, an official religious investigation against ideas that contradicted the Catholic church. After being charged with heresy, most of Galileo’s writings were banned and he spent the remainder of his life in prison. Despite this unjust and harsh treatment, he is now celebrated as one of the greatest minds of all time, as well as the “father” of modern science. Unfortunately, Galileo was not the only scholar to have undergone this punishment for challenging the status quo during that time. Thankfully, justice has finally been served to a great “Renaissance Man”. Based on the passage, what can be inferred regarding the acceptance of ideas that challenged existing principles during the time of Galileo?
     • While the scientific community was accepting of new ideas, the religious community was more powerful and better able to eradicate contradictory ideologies.
     • Both the scientific and religious communities were receptive to new ideas as a way to better understand the world around them.
     • Ideas that challenged existing theories at the time were heavily investigated and abolished if they contradicted existing religious teachings.
     • Ideas that contradicted the existing ideology were generally accepted, as long as they had scientific evidence to support them.

     Correct answer: Ideas that challenged existing theories at the time were heavily investigated and abolished if they contradicted existing religious teachings.

     Ideas that challenged existing theories at the time were heavily investigated and abolished if they contradicted existing religious teachings is the correct answer. The information in the passage leads us to logically infer this idea. The passage states, “His scientific findings and ideas showing that the Sun was actually the center of the universe ultimately caused him to become the target of the Inquisition, an official religious investigation against ideas that contradicted the Catholic church.” This information allows us to logically conclude that such theories were heavily investigated. The fact that “most of Galileo’s writings were banned and he spent the remainder of his life in prison” also indicates that such ideas would be abolished. Another statement that confirms this inference is, “Galileo was not the only scholar to have undergone this punishment for challenging the status quo”. This shows that people other than Galileo also underwent the same treatment. Ideas that contradicted the existing ideology were generally accepted, as long as they had scientific evidence to support them. This is incorrect. It cannot be logically concluded from the information provided in the passage. The statement, “His scientific findings and ideas showing that the Sun was actually the center of the universe ultimately caused him to become the target of the Inquisition, an official religious investigation against ideas that contradicted the Catholic church,” shows us that Galileo did in fact have scientific evidence to support his new ideas. Even so, his ideas were heavily questioned and he was punished. Given this information, we cannot infer that these ideas were generally accepted. Both the scientific and religious communities were receptive to new ideas as a way to better understand the world around them. This is incorrect. The author mentions that Galileo had scientific evidence to back his claims, but nothing is said regarding the scientific community as a whole. There is not anything in the passage that can lead us to infer how receptive the scientific community was to these ideas. In any case, the passage tells us that the Inquisition, “an official religious investigation against ideas that contradicted the Catholic church,” was used. This implies that the religious communities were probably not receptive to new ideas. While the scientific community was accepting of new ideas, the religious community was more powerful and better able to eradicate contradictory ideologies. This is incorrect. The author mentions that Galileo had scientific evidence to back his claims, but nothing is said regarding the scientific community as a whole. There is not anything in the passage that can lead us to infer anything about how receptive the scientific community was to new ideas. Although the passage implies that the religious community was powerful, the first half of this answer option cannot be inferred.

177. A True Renaissance Man: Have you ever heard the term, “Renaissance Man”? This phrase developed in Italy during the Renaissance period (from the 14th century to the 17th century) and was used to describe a person who embraced a great deal of knowledge across a variety of disciplines. Galileo Galilei, the Italian astronomer, physicist, and engineer is perhaps the best example of a true Renaissance Man. Not only did he study a wide range of academic subjects, ranging from mathematics to linguistics, but he was also courageous enough to challenge scientific theories that existed at the time. Galileo’s most famous discovery debunked the most widely-held belief during that period: that the Earth was located in the center of the universe. His scientific findings and ideas showing that the Sun was actually the center of the universe ultimately caused him to become the target of the Inquisition, an official religious investigation against ideas that contradicted the Catholic church. After being charged with heresy, most of Galileo’s writings were banned and he spent the remainder of his life in prison. Despite this unjust and harsh treatment, he is now celebrated as one of the greatest minds of all time, as well as the “father” of modern science. Unfortunately, Galileo was not the only scholar to have undergone this punishment for challenging the status quo during that time. Thankfully, justice has finally been served to a great “Renaissance Man”. What is the author’s purpose for writing this paragraph?
     • To persuade the reader that Galileo was a great example of a “Renaissance Man” who was unjustly treated
     • To inform readers about the Inquisition during the Renaissance period
     • To satirize the way people reacted to Galileo’s scientific theories
     • To persuade readers to stand up to injustice within their communities

     Correct answer: To persuade the reader that Galileo was a great example of a “Renaissance Man” who was unjustly treated

     To persuade the reader that Galileo was a great example of a “Renaissance Man” who was unjustly treated is the correct answer. The author uses clear language regarding their opinion of Galileo, which impacts the purpose of the passage. Sentences such as, “Galileo Galilei, the Italian astronomer, physicist, and engineer is perhaps the best example of a true Renaissance Man,” and, “Thankfully, justice has finally been served to a great ‘Renaissance Man’,” show that the author wants to persuade the readers of Galileo’s greatness. The phrase, “unjust and harsh treatment,” also provides a clear example of how the author wants to transmit information regarding Galileo’s punishment. To inform readers about the Inquisition during the Renaissance period. This is incorrect. Although the author includes information about the Inquisition, it is only used as a supporting detail in the paragraph. The overall purpose of the passage involves persuading the reader of Galileo’s status as a “Renaissance Man”, and does not include a lot of information about the specifics of the Inquisition. To satirize the way people reacted to Galileo’s scientific theories. This is incorrect. To satirize means to mock. Although the author makes it clear that they do not agree with the reactions that Galileo’s scientific theories received, nothing in the passage is satirized. Instead, the purpose is to persuade readers about Galileo’s status as a “Renaissance Man”. To persuade readers to stand up to injustice within their communities. This is incorrect. Although the purpose of the passage is to persuade the reader, the author wants to persuade the reader to view Galileo as a great “Renaissance Man”. Nothing in the passage mentions current injustices within present-day communities.

178. A True Renaissance Man: Have you ever heard the term, “Renaissance Man”? This phrase developed in Italy during the Renaissance period (from the 14th century to the 17th century) and was used to describe a person who embraced a great deal of knowledge across a variety of disciplines. Galileo Galilei, the Italian astronomer, physicist, and engineer is perhaps the best example of a true Renaissance Man. Not only did he study a wide range of academic subjects, ranging from mathematics to linguistics, but he was also courageous enough to challenge scientific theories that existed at the time. Galileo’s most famous discovery debunked the most widely-held belief during that period: that the Earth was located in the center of the universe. His scientific findings and ideas showing that the Sun was actually the center of the universe ultimately caused him to become the target of the Inquisition, an official religious investigation against ideas that contradicted the Catholic church. After being charged with heresy, most of Galileo’s writings were banned and he spent the remainder of his life in prison. Despite this unjust and harsh treatment, he is now celebrated as one of the greatest minds of all time, as well as the “father” of modern science. Unfortunately, Galileo was not the only scholar to have undergone this punishment for challenging the status quo during that time. Thankfully, justice has finally been served to a great “Renaissance Man”. Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
     • The fact that Galileo’s scientific idea regarding the Sun’s position is now accepted as truth makes up for his unjust treatment during the Renaissance period.
     • The Inquisition was a historical period in which the highest number of scholars were unjustly imprisoned.
     • Galileo Galilei and other similar scholars were treated unfairly for their revolutionary ideas during the Renaissance period.
     • If Galileo’s ideas had been accepted while he was alive, the world would have been much different today.

     Correct answer: Galileo Galilei and other similar scholars were treated unfairly for their revolutionary ideas during the Renaissance period.

     Galileo Galilei and other similar scholars were treated unfairly for their revolutionary ideas during the Renaissance period is the correct answer. This is the correct answer. The author would agree with this statement because they briefly mention that “Galileo was not the only scholar to have undergone this punishment”. The author also describes the punishment as “unjust and harsh”. So, the author would likely agree with the fact that Galileo and other scholars were treated unfairly during the Renaissance period. The fact that Galileo’s scientific idea regarding the Sun’s position is now accepted as truth makes up for his unjust treatment during the Renaissance period. This is incorrect. Although the author maintains the idea that the Church’s treatment of Galileo was unjust, the appreciation that the author expresses for the current “justice” regarding the acceptance of Galileo’s idea as truth does not compensate for the past punishment. If Galileo’s ideas had been accepted while he was alive, the world would have been much different today. This is incorrect. Although the author believes that Galileo’s ideas were important, nothing about the impact of such ideas on current society is mentioned. The author mentions that Galileo’s treatment was unjust but does not relate this to how the world would have been different today. The Inquisition was a historical period in which the highest number of scholars were unjustly imprisoned. This is incorrect. Although the author describes the treatment of Galileo during the Inquisition as “unjust” and mentions that other scholars underwent the same treatment, nothing in the passage suggests that the Inquisition was the historical period with the “highest” number of unjustly imprisoned scholars. In other words, the author does not quantify the number of scholars imprisoned during the Inquisition.

179. However, data suggests that these circumstances are only partly responsible for the lemurs’ disappearance from Madagascar. Rather, deforestation seems to be the most prevailing factor in their extinction. The forests covering Madagascar have decreased by more than 40% between 1950 and 2000. With a lack of lush trees and cool forests, lemurs stray from their original habitats in order to find new places to call home. In fact, data suggest that lemurs are not the only animals who make this decision. As of now, approximately 53% of African primate species are endangered due to the systematic destruction of their habitat. If this situation continues, it is likely that other animals will follow suit, further increasing the rate at which animals are becoming extinct in the African forests. Which of the following is NOT discussed as a fact about deforestation?
     • Deforestation is the second leading factor in the extinction of lemurs in Madagascar.
     • If the current rate of deforestation continues, lemurs will likely not be the only animals in danger of extinction.
     • Nearly half of Madagascar's forests were destroyed over a fifty-year span.
     • Lemurs, among other animals, are fleeing Madagascar in search of similar habitats to survive in.

     Correct answer: Deforestation is the second leading factor in the extinction of lemurs in Madagascar.

     Deforestation is the second leading factor in the extinction of lemurs in Madagascar. This is correct. The second sentence recognizes deforestation as the prevailing, or leading, factor in the extinction of lemurs. Nearly half of Madagascar’s forests were destroyed over a fifty-year span. This is incorrect. The third sentence states that Madagascar’s forests decreased by more than 40% from 1950 to 2000. Lemurs, among other animals, are fleeing Madagascar in search of similar habitats to survive in. This is incorrect. The fifth sentence states that data reflects that lemurs are not the only animals who have chosen to leave Madagascar. If the current rate of deforestation continues, lemurs will likely not be the only animals in danger of extinction. This is incorrect. In the final sentence, we learn that if habitat destruction continues in Africa, other animals will follow the trend of lemurs and other primates, forcing more species of the African rainforest into extinction.

180. The Solar System in High Definition: Televisions with high-definition capabilities have revolutionized the ways in which people watch television. Surprisingly, the same logic applies to viewing planets, stars, and the entire solar system! Thanks to recent advancements in high-tech telescopes and imaging systems, astronomers are now able to view space elements — and even new planets — in a more detailed manner with a multitude of possibilities. The Kepler space telescope was launched in 2009, with the intent to survey the area surrounding the Milky Way and to estimate how many stars in the area contained habitable zones. Although the telescope was officially retired in 2018, the data it procured has remained useful to this day. One example of its efficacy was its ability to help identify the exoplanet, Kepler-1649c, which had characteristics quite similar to Planet Earth. Although it has since been proven that the exoplanet maintains a temperature that is not conducive to life, it remains the most similar planet to Earth thus far. Had it not been for the Kepler space telescope, this new planet would not have been traceable using the National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) most updated software tools. High-definition systems can also prove useful when capturing images of our very own star: the sun. Researchers from the University of Lancaster recently utilized the most powerful High-Resolution Coronal Imager (otherwise known as Hi-C), which highlights areas that are upto 70 kilometers in the Sun’s atmosphere. Thanks to this tool, astronomers were able to capture high-resolution photographs of the sun for the first time in history. Among other things, these photographs showcased thin gas-containing structures with a temperature of up to a million degrees Celsius! Additionally, these images can shed light on why solar storms occur, and potentially put an end to their destruction of satellites in outer space. Perhaps one of the most intriguing uses of the high-definition tools involves supernova explosions. These instances of powerful stellar explosions occur near the end of a star’s evolutionary stage when they are not able to maintain their chemical equilibrium. Researchers from the University of Birmingham have recently detected and captured images of the most powerful supernova explosion to date, classified as SN2016aps, which occurred nearly 3.6 million light-years away from Planet Earth. Through the use of a Panoramic Survey Telescope and Rapid Response System (Pan-STARRS), scientists discovered that the SN2016aps not only emitted the most light of any supernova, but that it also released five times the amount of radiation when compared to a normal-sized supernova. Research tools, computer programs, and data imaging software will continue to evolve as long as the need for space exploration develops. Just as technology seeks to simplify our daily lives one device at a time, advancements in space imaging software will bring us one step closer to understanding the universe in which we live. What is the main idea of the passage?
     • High-resolution photographs will help educate the global community about our surrounding universe.
     • The Kepler space telescope was the first tool that inspired the scientific community to research unknown planets.
     • Tools and technology related to space exploration have evolved and will continue to develop in order to help us better understand the universe.
     • Detailed photography and imaging of high-definition space technology have helped scientists discover new planets.

     Correct answer: Tools and technology related to space exploration have evolved and will continue to develop in order to help us better understand the universe.

     Tools and technology related to space exploration have evolved and will continue to develop in order to help us better understand the universe is the correct answer. Each paragraph includes a different example of space exploration tools and closes with the idea that these tools will continue to develop. High-resolution photographs will help educate the global community about our surrounding universe. This is incorrect. High-resolution photographs are only mentioned in one paragraph, and the author discusses more information regarding high-resolution tools throughout the passage. The Kepler space telescope was the first tool that inspired the scientific community to research unknown planets. This is incorrect. The details surrounding the Kepler space telescope are included in the second paragraph, and only seek to introduce the various tools discussed in the passage. Detailed photography and imaging of high-definition space technology have helped scientists discover new planets. This is incorrect. While this is true, it is not the main idea of the passage, since the information regarding newly discovered planets is included only in a few paragraphs.

181. Does Low Body Temperature Cause Illness?: As children, we are often told to dress warmly in the winter so we do not get sick. This is a common piece of advice, but is there any truth behind it? In fact, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that being cold can get you sick. Most illnesses are caused by viruses and bacteria. Illnesses like strep throat, influenza, and the common cold are only spread through contact with other infected people. How cold you are when you come into contact with the virus or bacteria has nothing to do with whether or not you will get sick. The effect of body temperature on contracting illness was tested on human beings in the 1950s. Researchers divided volunteers into two groups: half of them were kept in a warm room and the other half were kept in a cold room. Both groups were then exposed to rhinovirus–the virus responsible for the common cold. The researchers discovered that members of both groups developed colds at the same rate. Since that first experiment, there have been similar experiments performed with a variety of different illnesses. All have yielded the same result: being cold does not make a person more likely to get sick. Of course, it does seem that people do get sick more often when the weather is cold. However, this is because there is some evidence that people do get sick more often in cold weather, but it has nothing to do with forgetting to bundle up when it is chilly. When it is cold outside, people tend to stay inside. With so many people gathered closely together indoors, germs are spread more easily. Germs are spread from person to person, regardless of how cold or warm their bodies are. What is the author’s purpose in writing this passage?
     • To inform readers regarding the inaccurate portrayal of information regarding the relationship between cold weather and getting sick.
     • To inform readers as to why the common cold is not as dangerous as one may think.
     • To inform the reader regarding experiments that have been done to debunk the theory that people are more likely to get sick because of colder temperatures.
     • To entertain readers with anecdotes related to getting sick in the winter months.

     Correct answer: To inform readers regarding the inaccurate portrayal of information regarding the relationship between cold weather and getting sick.

     Answer: To inform readers regarding the inaccurate portrayal of information regarding the relationship between cold weather and getting sick. This is the best option for the primary purpose of the passage because the focus of the passage is explaining how (and why) the belief that cold weather makes us sick is incorrect. To entertain readers with anecdotes related to getting sick in the winter months is incorrect. The author’s purpose is not to entertain, despite the attention-grabbing sentences at the beginning of the passage. Additionally, anecdotes are not included in the passage. To inform readers as to why the common cold is not as dangerous as one may think is incorrect. Although the purpose of the passage is to inform, it does not mention the severity of the common cold, nor does it regard it as ‘dangerous’. Therefore, this option is incorrect. To inform the reader regarding experiments that have been done to debunk the theory that people are more likely to get sick because of colder temperatures is incorrect. Although the passage describes experiments that have been done, the passage does not state that these experiments were performed in order to ‘debunk’ any theories. In addition, the information regarding experiments is a supporting detail and not the primary purpose of the author.

182. The Solar System in High Definition: Televisions with high-definition capabilities have revolutionized the ways in which people watch television. Surprisingly, the same logic applies to viewing planets, stars, and the entire solar system! Thanks to recent advancements in high-tech telescopes and imaging systems, astronomers are now able to view space elements — and even new planets — in a more detailed manner with a multitude of possibilities. The Kepler space telescope was launched in 2009, with the intent to survey the area surrounding the Milky Way and to estimate how many stars in the area contained habitable zones. Although the telescope was officially retired in 2018, the data it procured has remained useful to this day. One example of its efficacy was its ability to help identify the exoplanet, Kepler-1649c, which had characteristics quite similar to Planet Earth. Although it has since been proven that the exoplanet maintains a temperature that is not conducive to life, it remains the most similar planet to Earth thus far. Had it not been for the Kepler space telescope, this new planet would not have been traceable using the National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) most updated software tools. High-definition systems can also prove useful when capturing images of our very own star: the sun. Researchers from the University of Lancaster recently utilized the most powerful High-Resolution Coronal Imager (otherwise known as Hi-C), which highlights areas that are upto 70 kilometers in the Sun’s atmosphere. Thanks to this tool, astronomers were able to capture high-resolution photographs of the sun for the first time in history. Among other things, these photographs showcased thin gas-containing structures with a temperature of up to a million degrees Celsius! Additionally, these images can shed light on why solar storms occur, and potentially put an end to their destruction of satellites in outer space. Perhaps one of the most intriguing uses of the high-definition tools involves supernova explosions. These instances of powerful stellar explosions occur near the end of a star’s evolutionary stage when they are not able to maintain their chemical equilibrium. Researchers from the University of Birmingham have recently detected and captured images of the most powerful supernova explosion to date, classified as SN2016aps, which occurred nearly 3.6 million light-years away from Planet Earth. Through the use of a Panoramic Survey Telescope and Rapid Response System (Pan-STARRS), scientists discovered that the SN2016aps not only emitted the most light of any supernova, but that it also released five times the amount of radiation when compared to a normal-sized supernova. Research tools, computer programs, and data imaging software will continue to evolve as long as the need for space exploration develops. Just as technology seeks to simplify our daily lives one device at a time, advancements in space imaging software will bring us one step closer to understanding the universe in which we live. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
     • The planet, Kepler-1649c, is quite similar to planet Earth in terms of its features and location.
     • The Kepler space telescope serves as an example of excellent data software and has influenced the creation of various other tools.
     • Scientists have not been able to replicate the Kepler space telescope since its retirement in 2018.
     • The Kepler space telescope has helped advance our knowledge of the universe more than other tools.

     Correct answer: The Kepler space telescope has helped advance our knowledge of the universe more than other tools.

     The Kepler space telescope has helped advance our knowledge of the universe more than other tools is the correct answer. The second paragraph contains statements such as “had it not been for the Kepler space telescope, this new planet would not have been traceable using the National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) most updated data software tools.”. In fact, it opens with the claim that “…the data it procured has remained useful to this day.” Scientists have not been able to replicate the Kepler space telescope since its retirement in 2018. This is incorrect. Although the passage mentions the retirement of the telescope in 2018, it does not mention that scientists have tried to replace the telescope. The Kepler space telescope serves as an example of excellent data software and has influenced the creation of various other tools. This is incorrect. Although the passage includes information as to why the Kepler space telescope was a high-functioning device, it does not serve to emphasize its influence on future tools. The planet, Kepler-1649c, is quite similar to planet Earth in terms of its features and location. This is incorrect. Although the paragraph references the similarities between this planet and the Earth, it is not the main idea of the paragraph. The central idea of the paragraph is the tool that discovered the planet.

183. Despite the popularity of the common phrase, “Money can’t buy happiness”, scientists are prepared to disprove this idea with data. After testing the impacts of an alternative form of welfare on unemployed citizens, scientists have recently analyzed preliminary results of a popular two-year experiment held in Finland. They seek to explore whether a fixed minimum earning system could affect the satisfaction and happiness of unemployed citizens along with decreasing unemployment rates. The results may determine how the country – and others – move forward when it comes to universal social security systems. What is the meaning of the word “universal” as it is used in the paragraph?
     • High-paying
     • Consistent for all in a collective group
     • Individualized to meet each one’s needs
     • Age-specific

     Correct answer: Consistent for all in a collective group

     Consistent for all in a collective group is correct. The sentence initially states that results from this study could determine how Finland, as a country, handles the systems. This implies that “universal” would encompass all citizens. High-paying is incorrect. The third sentence states that scientists will use a fixed minimum earning system, suggesting that it would not be described as “high-paying”. Individualized to meet each one’s needs is incorrect. It is not applicable when addressing systems for entire countries. Age-specific is incorrect. The paragraph does not refer to any specific age group.

184. The Solar System in High Definition: Televisions with high-definition capabilities have revolutionized the ways in which people watch television. Surprisingly, the same logic applies to viewing planets, stars, and the entire solar system! Thanks to recent advancements in high-tech telescopes and imaging systems, astronomers are now able to view space elements — and even new planets — in a more detailed manner with a multitude of possibilities. The Kepler space telescope was launched in 2009, with the intent to survey the area surrounding the Milky Way and to estimate how many stars in the area contained habitable zones. Although the telescope was officially retired in 2018, the data it procured has remained useful to this day. One example of its efficacy was its ability to help identify the exoplanet, Kepler-1649c, which had characteristics quite similar to Planet Earth. Although it has since been proven that the exoplanet maintains a temperature that is not conducive to life, it remains the most similar planet to Earth thus far. Had it not been for the Kepler space telescope, this new planet would not have been traceable using the National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) most updated software tools. High-definition systems can also prove useful when capturing images of our very own star: the sun. Researchers from the University of Lancaster recently utilized the most powerful High-Resolution Coronal Imager (otherwise known as Hi-C), which highlights areas that are upto 70 kilometers in the Sun’s atmosphere. Thanks to this tool, astronomers were able to capture high-resolution photographs of the sun for the first time in history. Among other things, these photographs showcased thin gas-containing structures with a temperature of up to a million degrees Celsius! Additionally, these images can shed light on why solar storms occur, and potentially put an end to their destruction of satellites in outer space. Perhaps one of the most intriguing uses of the high-definition tools involves supernova explosions. These instances of powerful stellar explosions occur near the end of a star’s evolutionary stage when they are not able to maintain their chemical equilibrium. Researchers from the University of Birmingham have recently detected and captured images of the most powerful supernova explosion to date, classified as SN2016aps, which occurred nearly 3.6 million light-years away from Planet Earth. Through the use of a Panoramic Survey Telescope and Rapid Response System (Pan-STARRS), scientists discovered that the SN2016aps not only emitted the most light of any supernova, but that it also released five times the amount of radiation when compared to a normal-sized supernova. Research tools, computer programs, and data imaging software will continue to evolve as long as the need for space exploration develops. Just as technology seeks to simplify our daily lives one device at a time, advancements in space imaging software will bring us one step closer to understanding the universe in which we live. What is the main idea of the fourth paragraph?
     • Supernova explosions can be better understood with the use of high-definition tools.
     • Radiation from supernova explosions can be better understood with high-definition tools.
     • Some supernova explosions emit more light than others.
     • Supernova explosions occur millions of light-years away from Earth, making them difficult to trace.

     Correct answer: Supernova explosions can be better understood with the use of high-definition tools.

     Supernova explosions can be better understood with the use of high-definition tools is the correct answer. The author opens the paragraph with details regarding how high-definition tools have helped scientists understand supernova explosions. It also includes information regarding how the details were understood through using the tools. Supernova explosions occur millions of light-years away from Earth, making them difficult to trace. This is incorrect. Although the author mentions the distance at which one such explosion occurred, the difficulty in tracing them is not discussed in the passage. Some supernova explosions emit more light than others. This is incorrect. Although the author provides this information in the passage, it is merely used as a supporting detail for the fact that scientists understood this information by using high-definition tools. Radiation from supernova explosions can be better understood with high-definition tools. This is incorrect. Although the author provides information regarding the radiation emitted by a supernova explosion in the passage, it is merely used as a supporting detail for the fact that high-definition tools are important to procure all details surrounding supernova explosions.

185. Does Low Body Temperature Cause Illness?: As children, we are often told to dress warmly in the winter so we do not get sick. This is a common piece of advice, but is there any truth behind it? In fact, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that being cold can get you sick. Most illnesses are caused by viruses and bacteria. Illnesses like strep throat, influenza, and the common cold are only spread through contact with other infected people. How cold you are when you come into contact with the virus or bacteria has nothing to do with whether or not you will get sick. The effect of body temperature on contracting illness was tested on human beings in the 1950s. Researchers divided volunteers into two groups: half of them were kept in a warm room and the other half were kept in a cold room. Both groups were then exposed to rhinovirus–the virus responsible for the common cold. The researchers discovered that members of both groups developed colds at the same rate. Since that first experiment, there have been similar experiments performed with a variety of different illnesses. All have yielded the same result: being cold does not make a person more likely to get sick. Of course, it does seem that people do get sick more often when the weather is cold. However, this is because there is some evidence that people do get sick more often in cold weather, but it has nothing to do with forgetting to bundle up when it is chilly. When it is cold outside, people tend to stay inside. With so many people gathered closely together indoors, germs are spread more easily. Germs are spread from person to person, regardless of how cold or warm their bodies are. What is a potential reason as to why the author opened the passage with a childhood reference and a question?
     • To inform the reader of a common idea regarding illness, most often heard during childhood.
     • To persuade the reader to think about the question and try to answer it before reading the passage.
     • To grab the attention of the reader and introduce the question that will be answered in the passage.
     • To entertain the reader with a funny anecdote one often hears throughout his or her childhood experience.

     Correct answer: To grab the attention of the reader and introduce the question that will be answered in the passage.

     Answer: To grab the attention of the reader and introduce the question that will be answered in the passage. The author included these sentences to grab the attention of the reader and set up the passage with a question that would later be answered. To inform the reader of a common idea regarding illness, most often heard during childhood is incorrect. The author most likely did not include this information in order to solely inform readers of a common idea heard throughout childhood. Rather, the author included it to grab the attention of the reader and set up the passage with a question that would later be answered. To entertain the reader with a funny anecdote one often hears throughout his or her childhood experience is incorrect. The primary purpose of including the first two sentences is not necessarily to entertain, as it informs the reader of a common theme heard throughout childhood. Rather, the author included these sentences to grab the attention of the reader and set up the passage with a question that would later be answered. To persuade the reader to think about the question and try to answer it before reading the passage is incorrect. These sentences are not persuasive, as they do not include an opinion or urge the reader to do something with the information given. Rather, the author included it to grab the attention of the reader and set up the passage with a question that would later be answered.

186. Interior Secrets of the Pyramids History textbooks are likely to include photographs or illustrated depictions of ancient Egyptian pyramids, showcasing their grandeur and architectural wonder. Can the same be said for authentic depictions of the internal features of these pyramids though? Thanks to a new international mission exploring the various layers of famous pyramids, scientists plan to unravel these “interior design mysteries” through the use of advanced technology. They may even prove that past archaeological exploration projects have not been as extensive as was once imagined. The four pyramids involved in the study include the two pyramids of Giza (Cheops and Chfren) along with the two pyramids of Dahshur, located south of Cairo. Initially, further research devoted to these structures seemed futile, as the 4,500-year-old pyramids have already been explored by experts. However, they have never been investigated using infrared technology, which could allow scientists to discover any additional hidden chambers in the pyramids without using destructive methods. In other words, the international team of researchers will be able to look through each structure using “X-ray vision” for the first time in history! The primary technique in the project will involve directing beams of indirect cosmic rays on the pyramids themselves. When cosmic rays bombard a certain area in the atmosphere, they produce particles known as muons, which have a high ability to traverse matter. Although the properties of muons make them excellent options for “seeing” through the pyramids’ rocks, some of them would still be absorbed by the rocks themselves. To solve this problem, scientists will use tools that are able to detect any voids in the pyramids by analyzing the number of muons that have been blocked by the structure. Past evidence of this technique, used in some pyramids in South America, shows promising results. The new technology will initially be implemented in the Rhomboid Pyramid in Dahshur, which was built by Pharaoh Sneferu approximately 4,600 years ago. The rhomboidal shape of this pyramid includes a double slope, which still puzzles scientists to this day. Most believe that the sloping side was an afterthought in construction or a quick solution to a collapsing wall. In addition to locating potential chambers inside of this pyramid, archaeologists are interested in finding any other clues that will explain the unique shape of its structure. Once testing has been wrapped up in Dahshur, the teams will make their way to Giza and use the technology once more. However, not all historians are onboard with the idea of using technology to explore these last two pyramids. Despite the fact that this new technology could unearth hidden mysteries in the structures in Giza, some scientists argue that previous methods have already exhausted all possible chambers. Although it is true that the diverse chambers of the Pyramid of Cheops have already been verified, the new study will rule out the possibility of any additional, hidden spaces. Even if it does not lead to any new conclusions, it will prove as a testament to technology’s increasingly helpful ways of identifying the past. Based on the text, what is true about the architecture of ancient Egyptian Pyramids?
     • The architecture contains complex designs not typically used otherwise.
     • The architecture remains consistent throughout each pyramid.
     • The architecture provides clear information for scientists studying the structures.
     • The architecture was designed with infrared technology in mind.

     Correct answer: The architecture contains complex designs not typically used otherwise.

     The architecture contains complex designs not typically used otherwise is the correct answer. The first paragraph refers to the layers of the pyramids as “interior design mysteries”, suggesting that the designs used in the architecture of these pyramids are not ones that scientists or archaeologists are familiar with. The architecture was designed with infrared technology in mind. This is incorrect. Though the passage discusses the use of infrared technology in the exploration of the pyramids, there is no evidence to support the suggestion that those who built them had any thoughts of such a technology at the time. The architecture provides clear information for scientists studying the structures. This is incorrect. The first paragraph states, “Thanks to a new international mission exploring the various layers of famous pyramids, scientists plan to unravel these so-called ‘interior design mysteries’ through the use of advanced technology.” The second paragraph goes on to say, “However, they [pyramids] had never been investigated using infrared technology, which would have allowed scientists to discover any additional hidden chambers in the pyramids without using destructive methods.” Both of these statements taken together prove this answer option to be incorrect since scientists require the use of new technology to solve mysteries regarding the hidden spaces inside the pyramids. The architecture remains consistent throughout each pyramid. This is incorrect. The fourth paragraph introduces the rhomboid pyramid in Dahshur and explains the structure by stating, “The rhomboidal shape of this pyramid includes a double slope, which still puzzles scientists to this day.” This allows us to infer that the designs were not all consistent since the design of this particular pyramid continues to confuse scientists.

187. Understanding Rare Diseases: Although rare diseases are prevalent throughout the global community, they are not given enough attention by the healthcare community. Currently, there are approximately seven thousand rare diseases affecting people all over the world, and they affect nearly thirty million Americans alone. Depending on where someone lives, the definition of a rare disease changes drastically. In the United States, for example, a disease is considered rare if it affects fewer than 200,000 people. In the European Union, however, a disease is only defined as rare if it affects fewer than one in two thousand people. The differences in the mere definition of what a rare disease is can lead to difficulties in diagnoses. Diagnosing a rare disease with certainty can be problematic due to the scarcity of information available as well as a lack of consensus within the healthcare community. Rather than dismissing a patient’s concerns because of a lack of evidence, primary care physicians should be a source of support and help alleviate their patients’ worries over healthcare issues the best they can. It is imperative that general practitioners are well-versed in the area of rare diseases so that they can help affected patients find answers and support. What is the best summary of the passage?
     • Diagnosing a rare disease with certainty can be problematic due to the scarcity of information available as well as a lack of consensus within the healthcare community.
     • The differences in the mere definition of what a rare disease is can lead to difficulties in diagnoses.
     • Rather than dismissing a patient’s concerns because of a lack of evidence, primary care physicians should be a source of support and help alleviate their patients’ worries over healthcare issues the best they can.
     • Currently, there are approximately seven thousand rare diseases affecting people all over the world, and they affect nearly thirty million Americans alone.

     Correct answer: Diagnosing a rare disease with certainty can be problematic due to the scarcity of information available as well as a lack of consensus within the healthcare community.

     Diagnosing a rare disease with certainty can be problematic due to the scarcity of information available as well as a lack of consensus within the healthcare community is the correct answer. It offers the most comprehensive summary of the passage and touches on the fact that diagnosing a rare disease with certainty can be difficult. The author talks about how this problem can stem from a lack of information and the fact that the healthcare community does not necessarily agree on this topic. The differences in the mere definition of what a rare disease is can lead to difficulties in diagnoses. This is incorrect. Although the author mentions the difficulties in diagnosing a rare disease, it is only used as a supporting detail. This option is not general enough to be considered an adequate summary. Rather than dismissing a patient’s concerns because of a lack of evidence, primary care physicians should be a source of support and help alleviate their patients’ worries over healthcare issues the best they can. This is incorrect. Although the author discusses how those in the healthcare community – mainly general practitioners – should act, it is only a supporting detail. This option is not general enough to be considered an adequate summary. Currently, there are approximately seven thousand rare diseases affecting people all over the world, and they affect nearly thirty million Americans alone. This is incorrect. The answer option is too specific to be considered a summary statement. Moreover, the detailed information is only used as a supporting detail regarding the prevalence of rare diseases.

188. Frequently referred to as “The Spirits of Madagascar”, the lemur belongs to the Strepsirrhini group, which contains other similarly charismatic primates, including the slow loris. Most of what is known regarding these animals dates back to the 20th century, when dozens of species were discovered and subsequently described over the course of several decades. Currently, 107 species of lemurs have been identified as originating from the African continent. However, some groups have been removed from their natural environment and shipped across the world in order to act as pets, most likely due to their lively personalities. Which of the following is true regarding lemurs?
     • Removing lemurs from their natural habitat could be detrimental to the group.
     • At this point in time, lemurs have not been domesticated.
     • A majority of the existing species of lemurs were discovered in the 1900s.
     • Scientists learned most of what they know about lemurs during the 1900s.

     Correct answer: Scientists learned most of what they know about lemurs during the 1900s.

     Scientists learned most of what they know about lemurs during the 1900s is correct. The second sentence explicitly states that most of what is known about lemurs dates back to the 20th century. A majority of the existing species of lemurs were discovered in the 1900s is incorrect. The second sentence does state that dozens of species of lemurs were discovered during the 20th century, but the third sentence informs us that there are 107 total known species. Therefore, we do not have enough information to confirm or infer that the dozens discovered during the 1900s encompassed a majority of the species. At this point in time, lemurs have not been domesticated is incorrect. The final sentence explicitly states that some lemur groups have been kept as pets due to their lively personalities. Removing lemurs from their natural habitat could be detrimental to the group is incorrect. While the text does mention people removing lemurs from their natural surroundings, it does not mention that this could be detrimental to the species as a whole.

189. Interior Secrets of the Pyramids History textbooks are likely to include photographs or illustrated depictions of ancient Egyptian pyramids, showcasing their grandeur and architectural wonder. Can the same be said for authentic depictions of the internal features of these pyramids though? Thanks to a new international mission exploring the various layers of famous pyramids, scientists plan to unravel these “interior design mysteries” through the use of advanced technology. They may even prove that past archaeological exploration projects have not been as extensive as was once imagined. The four pyramids involved in the study include the two pyramids of Giza (Cheops and Chfren) along with the two pyramids of Dahshur, located south of Cairo. Initially, further research devoted to these structures seemed futile, as the 4,500-year-old pyramids have already been explored by experts. However, they have never been investigated using infrared technology, which could allow scientists to discover any additional hidden chambers in the pyramids without using destructive methods. In other words, the international team of researchers will be able to look through each structure using “X-ray vision” for the first time in history! The primary technique in the project will involve directing beams of indirect cosmic rays on the pyramids themselves. When cosmic rays bombard a certain area in the atmosphere, they produce particles known as muons, which have a high ability to traverse matter. Although the properties of muons make them excellent options for “seeing” through the pyramids’ rocks, some of them would still be absorbed by the rocks themselves. To solve this problem, scientists will use tools that are able to detect any voids in the pyramids by analyzing the number of muons that have been blocked by the structure. Past evidence of this technique, used in some pyramids in South America, shows promising results. The new technology will initially be implemented in the Rhomboid Pyramid in Dahshur, which was built by Pharaoh Sneferu approximately 4,600 years ago. The rhomboidal shape of this pyramid includes a double slope, which still puzzles scientists to this day. Most believe that the sloping side was an afterthought in construction or a quick solution to a collapsing wall. In addition to locating potential chambers inside of this pyramid, archaeologists are interested in finding any other clues that will explain the unique shape of its structure. Once testing has been wrapped up in Dahshur, the teams will make their way to Giza and use the technology once more. However, not all historians are onboard with the idea of using technology to explore these last two pyramids. Despite the fact that this new technology could unearth hidden mysteries in the structures in Giza, some scientists argue that previous methods have already exhausted all possible chambers. Although it is true that the diverse chambers of the Pyramid of Cheops have already been verified, the new study will rule out the possibility of any additional, hidden spaces. Even if it does not lead to any new conclusions, it will prove as a testament to technology’s increasingly helpful ways of identifying the past. Which of the following supports the idea that the structure in the Rhomboid Pyramid in Dahshur is more complex than most?
     • The shape of the pyramid includes a double slope, which still puzzles scientists to this day.
     • Most believe that its sloping side was an afterthought in construction.
     • Scientists believe that there is a potential to discover additional chambers.
     • It was built thousands of years ago by Pharaoh Sneferu.

     Correct answer: The shape of the pyramid includes a double slope, which still puzzles scientists to this day.

     The shape of the pyramid includes a double slope, which still puzzles scientists to this day is the correct answer. The suggestion that the double slope continues to puzzle scientists even after having explored the pyramids is stated in the second paragraph. It gives a clear indication that this type of structure is unique and intricate in comparison to the structures of other pyramids. Scientists believe that there is a potential to discover additional chambers. This is incorrect. The second paragraph supports this statement, claiming, “However, they have never been investigated using infrared technology, which would have allowed scientists to discover any additional hidden chambers in the pyramids without using destructive methods.” But this is not specific to the Rhomboid Pyramid since both the pyramids of Giza and Dahshur are being addressed. It was built thousands of years ago by Pharaoh Sneferu. This is incorrect. This fact is confirmed in the fourth paragraph, but no additional information is provided that would allow us to infer that being built by Pharaoh Sneferu would make this pyramid more complex than others. Most believe that its sloping side was an afterthought in construction. This is incorrect. An afterthought in construction may provide reasoning for why the pyramid is rhomboid in shape, but it does not imply that this is unique in any way.

190. Interior Secrets of the Pyramids History textbooks are likely to include photographs or illustrated depictions of ancient Egyptian pyramids, showcasing their grandeur and architectural wonder. Can the same be said for authentic depictions of the internal features of these pyramids though? Thanks to a new international mission exploring the various layers of famous pyramids, scientists plan to unravel these “interior design mysteries” through the use of advanced technology. They may even prove that past archaeological exploration projects have not been as extensive as was once imagined. The four pyramids involved in the study include the two pyramids of Giza (Cheops and Chfren) along with the two pyramids of Dahshur, located south of Cairo. Initially, further research devoted to these structures seemed futile, as the 4,500-year-old pyramids have already been explored by experts. However, they have never been investigated using infrared technology, which could allow scientists to discover any additional hidden chambers in the pyramids without using destructive methods. In other words, the international team of researchers will be able to look through each structure using “X-ray vision” for the first time in history! The primary technique in the project will involve directing beams of indirect cosmic rays on the pyramids themselves. When cosmic rays bombard a certain area in the atmosphere, they produce particles known as muons, which have a high ability to traverse matter. Although the properties of muons make them excellent options for “seeing” through the pyramids’ rocks, some of them would still be absorbed by the rocks themselves. To solve this problem, scientists will use tools that are able to detect any voids in the pyramids by analyzing the number of muons that have been blocked by the structure. Past evidence of this technique, used in some pyramids in South America, shows promising results. The new technology will initially be implemented in the Rhomboid Pyramid in Dahshur, which was built by Pharaoh Sneferu approximately 4,600 years ago. The rhomboidal shape of this pyramid includes a double slope, which still puzzles scientists to this day. Most believe that the sloping side was an afterthought in construction or a quick solution to a collapsing wall. In addition to locating potential chambers inside of this pyramid, archaeologists are interested in finding any other clues that will explain the unique shape of its structure. Once testing has been wrapped up in Dahshur, the teams will make their way to Giza and use the technology once more. However, not all historians are onboard with the idea of using technology to explore these last two pyramids. Despite the fact that this new technology could unearth hidden mysteries in the structures in Giza, some scientists argue that previous methods have already exhausted all possible chambers. Although it is true that the diverse chambers of the Pyramid of Cheops have already been verified, the new study will rule out the possibility of any additional, hidden spaces. Even if it does not lead to any new conclusions, it will prove as a testament to technology’s increasingly helpful ways of identifying the past. Which of the following supports the idea that not all scientists agree on the novelty of this study?
     • Scientists plan to unravel these mysteries through the use of advanced technology.
     • Scientists will use tools that are able to detect any voids in the pyramids by analyzing the number of blocked muons.
     • Some scientists argue that previous methods have already found all possible chambers within the pyramids.
     • Scientists will begin their study in Dahshur and make their way to Giza.

     Correct answer: Some scientists argue that previous methods have already found all possible chambers within the pyramids.

     Some scientists argue that previous methods have already found all possible chambers within the pyramids is the correct answer. Information given in the fifth paragraph indicates that there is a group of scientists who is in disagreement with those leading the new exploration of the pyramids with infrared technology. This allows us to infer that they may not have any desire to participate in the new study. Scientists plan to unravel these mysteries through the use of advanced technology. This is incorrect. This statement informs us as to how the scientists plan to investigate the mysteries of the pyramids using the new technology, but it does not indicate that any of them would object to participating in it. Scientists will use tools that are able to detect any voids in the pyramids by analyzing the number of blocked muons. This is incorrect. This statement explains the details of how the infrared technology would be used, but it does not explain why some scientists would opt out of the study. Scientists will begin their study in Dahshur and make their way to Giza. This is incorrect. This statement only explains the order in which scientists plan to implement the infrared technology in regard to the mentioned pyramids. It does not provide any insights on why some scientists would not want to participate in the study.

191. At the end of the program, participants from both the control and experimental groups answered questions regarding their satisfaction with the program and their overall happiness levels. Moreover, they also provided information on their health and current employment situations. In addition to reporting “excellent” or “good” health, over half of the beneficiaries in the control group had a greater confidence in the government and its future situation. Despite the emotional satisfaction, however, their unemployment levels had stayed the same throughout the twenty-four month experiment. In short, participants were happier, but not busier with outside employment commitments, nor were they any closer to sustaining themselves without government assistance. Which word would best replace the word “beneficiaries” as it is used in the paragraph?
     • Members
     • Recipients
     • Descendents
     • Employees

     Correct answer: Recipients

     Recipients is correct. “Beneficiaries” refers to those who receive the benefits from someone or something. Therefore, “recipients” would be the best option to replace it. Members is incorrect. While “members” would be an accurate label for the people in this study, the word’s meaning does not include the significance of reaping the benefits of the study. Descendents is incorrect. It refers to those who come from a specific line of ancestry, which is not discussed in the text. Employees is incorrect. It refers to those working for an institution in exchange for pay. However, the text mentions the unemployment status of its subjects not changing after the study, suggesting that those involved could not be described as “employees”.

192. When Dinosaurs Coughed: Centuries of research and fossil evidence have allowed us to visualize various aspects of dinosaurs, ranging from how they looked to how they acted. Thanks to a recent study that analyzed fossil remains discovered in Montana, it is possible that dinosaurs may have even caught and dealt with the annoying symptoms of the common cold, just like humans do! During an excavation, paleontologists uncovered the remains of a diplodocid, a large herbivore with a long neck. Due to its size, this type of dinosaur breathed in air through sacs in its neck, which were directly connected to its respiratory system. The fossil remains of the dinosaur indicated that a pathogen had infected its lungs and respiratory system. Although researchers have not yet pinpointed the exact source of the infection, one hypothesis posits that it is the Aspergillus fungus, which infects reptiles and birds to this day. No matter the origin, the study shows that the illness caused symptoms similar to a cough and increased body temperature, which are indicative of the common cold. What is the best summary of the passage?
     • Although the reason is unknown, a discovery has shown that at least one Diplodocid dinosaur was infected by a pathogen that attacked its respiratory system, producing symptoms similar to the common cold.
     • A research study hints at the fact that a pathogen, perhaps stemming from the Aspergillus fungus, infected dinosaurs and may have ultimately been responsible for certain illnesses or early deaths.
     • Fossil evidence uncovered in Montana shows that the Aspergillus fungus may have been present on Earth before Homo sapiens even appeared, and could have been the cause of a respiratory illness infecting certain dinosaurs.
     • Thanks to evidence from a recent excavation in Montana, researchers have found that a herbivore dinosaur with a long neck suffered from a respiratory illness, likely due to how it inhaled air through sacs on its neck.

     Correct answer: Although the reason is unknown, a discovery has shown that at least one Diplodocid dinosaur was infected by a pathogen that attacked its respiratory system, producing symptoms similar to the common cold.

     Although the reason is unknown, a discovery has shown that at least one Diplodocid dinosaur was infected by a pathogen that attacked its respiratory system, producing symptoms similar to the common cold is the correct answer. This is the correct answer. This statement is the best summary for the passage because it includes the key ideas. First off, the statement tells us about the discovery and what it shows us about at least one Diplodocid dinosaur. It includes the necessary information about how a pathogen of some sort attacked its respiratory system and produced symptoms similar to the common cold. All of these key elements make up the most important parts of the passage! Thanks to evidence from a recent excavation in Montana, researchers have found that an herbivore dinosaur with a long neck suffered from a respiratory illness, likely due to how it inhaled air through sacs on its neck. This is incorrect. Although nothing in the statement is completely untrue, this option focuses too heavily on the supporting details instead of the key ideas. Additionally, the last part of the statement, which focuses on how the dinosaur suffered from a respiratory illness cannot necessarily be proven from the text alone. Fossil evidence uncovered in Montana shows that the Aspergillus fungus may have been present on Earth before Homo sapiens even appeared, and could have been the cause of a respiratory illness infecting certain dinosaurs. This is incorrect. Nothing in this statement is completely inaccurate, but it focuses too heavily on the supporting details rather than including the key ideas. For instance, this option does not even include the fact that the study was about a Diplodocid dinosaur, which is a key point, but it does include information about the Aspergillus fungus, which is only included in the passage as a supporting detail in the text and speculation. A research study hints at the fact that a pathogen, perhaps stemming from the Aspergillus fungus, infected dinosaurs and may have ultimately been responsible for certain illnesses or early deaths. This is incorrect. This option is both inaccurate and focuses too heavily on supporting details. The text does not state that the Aspergillus fungus was responsible for certain illnesses or early deaths in dinosaurs, so it cannot be included in the summary.

193. Although lemurs are among the most requested exotic pets around the world, they are also subject to illegal trading, particularly by parties who make a profit from selling these animals as food. However, not only those who partake in exclusive fine dining are seen as responsible for endangering the species. Due to recent economic crises around the world, particularly in Africa, even local communities are being forced to get food any way they can. In this case, inhabitants have resorted to hunting lemurs that were once considered sacred to them, in that they behave similarly to humans. Some experts believe that the future of other endangered animals could also be exacerbated by global economic crises. Which is NOT discussed as a fact about lemurs?
     • Some people illegally hunting lemurs are not doing so by choice.
     • Lemurs can be sold for a significant profit.
     • Previously, lemurs were considered sacred to specific communities in Africa.
     • Lemurs are salty at first taste but have an interesting, lingering aftertaste, which makes them highly sought after for dining.

     Correct answer: Lemurs are salty at first taste but have an interesting, lingering aftertaste, which makes them highly sought after for dining.

     Lemurs are salty at first taste but have an interesting, lingering aftertaste, which makes them highly sought after for dining is correct. The text states that lemurs are considered fine dining, but it does not implicate taste as a reason for this. Additionally, there is no information regarding what lemurs taste like. Some people illegally hunting lemurs are not doing so by choice is incorrect. The third sentence credits worldwide economic crises for forcing people and communities to retrieve food in any way possible. This allows us to infer that not all who hunt lemurs necessarily want to; some are forced to hunt them in order to survive and provide food for themselves. Previously, lemurs were considered sacred to specific communities in Africa is incorrect. The fourth sentence explicitly states that some inhabitants of Africa have resorted to hunting lemurs that were once sacred to them.Lemurs can be sold for a significant profit is incorrect. The first sentence states that some people make a profit by illegally trading and selling these animals as food. It can be inferred that they would bring a significant profit considering that people are willing to resort to illegal trading.

194. Neuroscience in the Classroom When it comes to early childhood education, could principles of neuroscience and experimental studies help educators teach more effectively? This is a popular question studied by leading international psychologists and research analysts focusing on educational psychology. However, the answer to this question requires advanced technological research tools, detailed scientific analyses, and, above all, time and patience to understand the results. Over the past ten years, innovative research centers have helped scientists understand how neural mechanisms impact children’s learning behavior. In other words, the study of neuroscience is opening new doors for analyzing how children learn basic functions. Neuroimaging, for example, is just one of the ways that scientists have been able to link visual capabilities with how well children comprehend letters of the alphabet. Although various concepts in early childhood education, such as observation and communication, are already understood within the scientific community and applied in the classroom setting, neuroscience allows psychologists to create completely new theories regarding childhood development. Currently, it is estimated that the discipline has allowed for the discovery of four pillars of learning: attentiveness, active output, feedback, and motor skills. The first learning pillar, i.e., attentiveness, is described as a child’s ability to digest both general and detailed concepts. That is, it helps children understand the “big picture” of a subject and focus in on the details when necessary. The second pillar, i.e., active output, seeks to quantify the verbal and written productivity of a student based on information received in the classroom. The third pillar, i.e., feedback, involves a child’s ability to self-assess and provide regular checks when understanding the material that has been learned. This pillar is noteworthy since it calls for both the feedback of the individual and that of the educator. Last but not the least, motor skills are acquired through daily repetition of what has been learned. Thanks to natural sleep cycles, this information is consolidated and stored in the brain for future access. An important part of these pillars is the concept of automatization, which occurs when a skill has been practiced so much that it becomes second nature and requires little to no conscious effort. However, according to leading experts at the Sorbonne University in Paris, a number of systematic errors can still present themselves with automatization. For instance, studies have shown that younger students seem to make simple mistakes in logic and reasoning problems in classroom settings, even though these tasks involve automatization. Researchers believe that training the brain through neuroscience practices can eliminate the occurrence of these mistakes while strengthening automatization. The abundance of research pertaining to neuroscience in the classroom as well as the increasingly vast possibilities of new theories have led to the development of a new field: neuroeducation. However, as with any new discipline, it will need to overcome hurdles within the scientific community. Although projects and collaborations between scientists and educators around the world are growing, gaining acceptance within the educational sphere will likely require more stable results to establish credibility. What can be inferred from the information found in the passage?
     • Motor skills are more likely to be used in short-term time frames.
     • The first pillar is solely responsible for helping children memorize important dates and names.
     • If children do not get enough sleep, they are likely to exhibit poor attentiveness.
     • The third learning pillar can be influenced by an educator’s professional feedback on the learning process.

     Correct answer: The third learning pillar can be influenced by an educator’s professional feedback on the learning process.

     The passage states that the third learning pillar, i.e., feedback, is based on self-assessments and assessments of educators. Therefore, it would be influenced by an educator’s professional feedback. If children do not get enough sleep, they are likely to exhibit poor attentiveness is incorrect. The passage connects sleep cycles to the fourth pillar, i.e., motor skills. The passage does not make a connection between sleep cycles and attentiveness. Motor skills are more likely to be used in short-term time frames is incorrect. The passage mentions that motor skills are stored in the brain for long-term access. The first pillar is solely responsible for helping children memorize important dates and names is incorrect. The passage states that the first learning pillar (attentiveness) helps students with “bigger picture” concepts as well as small details. Therefore, this is incorrect.

195. Nuclear waste remains toxic for over 300,000 years. The Waste Isolation Pilot Project (WIPP) is 2,000 feet under New Mexico desert bedrock. Its tunnels are to contain the military’s most dangerous nuclear waste. When the site is full, the caverns will be collapsed and sealed with soil and concrete. 25-foot granite columns will designate boundaries around four square miles. The perimeter will contain a wall of earth. In addition to global archives, layer upon layer of rooms will hold information about the dangers contained, instructing that no one disturbs WIPP contents for at least 10,000 years. But in the distant future, current languages are likely to become obsolete. Alternative energies are desperately needed to eliminate the need for wastes that impact people and the environment for millennia. Why does the author include the detail “current languages are likely to become obsolete” in the paragraph?
     • To introduce the idea that languages evolve and will probably be very different in the future
     • To describe how people will communicate differently in the future
     • To offer a contradicting opinion regarding the benefits of nuclear energy
     • To emphasize the idea that safety measures regarding nuclear waste are insufficient to guarantee safety in the future

     Correct answer: To emphasize the idea that safety measures regarding nuclear waste are insufficient to guarantee safety in the future

     To emphasize the idea that safety measures regarding nuclear waste are insufficient to guarantee safety in the future is the correct answer. The author includes this detail to highlight how we can never be certain that nuclear waste is not going to pose danger in the future. To introduce the idea that languages evolve and will probably be very different in the future This is incorrect. The author does not delve into how languages will be in the future. They include this detail to highlight how we can never be certain that nuclear waste is not going to pose danger in the future. To describe how people will communicate differently in the future This is incorrect. The author does not describe how communication will look in the future. They include this detail to highlight how we can never be certain that nuclear waste is not going to pose danger in the future. To offer a contradicting opinion regarding the benefits of nuclear energy This is incorrect. The author does not offer a contradicting opinion. They include this detail to highlight how we can never be certain that nuclear waste is not going to pose danger in the future.

196. The beginnings of human civilization and shift towards sedentary life accompanied the advent of agriculture, which most people would agree is one of the cornerstones of civilization. One theory for why agriculture arose is that climate cooling from 10,900 BC to 9,700 BC caused a food shortage. This might have forced humans to start growing food in order to have enough. The radiocarbon ages of ancient plant remnants were believed to support this hypothesis. But scientists recently reassessed them and are starting to think that the climatic cooling lessened sedentary life instead of triggering it. The Ritsumeikan University’s research team under Takeshi Nakagawa explored in-depth climate models of 16,000 BC to 8,000 BC. Using plant fossils and sediment radiocarbon dating, they discovered that agriculture and settlements likely began during warmer, more stable periods in the climate. Which supporting detail is an example of the author’s opinion, rather than a fact?
     • This might have forced humans to start growing food in order to have enough.
     • One theory for why agriculture arose is that climate cooling from 10,900 BC to 9,700 BC caused a food shortage.
     • The beginnings of human civilization and shift towards sedentary life accompanied the advent of agriculture, which most people would agree is one of the cornerstones of civilization.
     • The radiocarbon ages of ancient plant remnants were believed to support this hypothesis.

     Correct answer: The beginnings of human civilization and shift towards sedentary life accompanied the advent of agriculture, which most people would agree is one of the cornerstones of civilization.

     The beginnings of human civilization and shift towards sedentary life accompanied the advent of agriculture, which most people would agree is one of the cornerstones of civilization is the correct answer. The idea in the second part of the sentence is included as an opening statement in the first paragraph and serves to make an opinionated statement. Though there may be facts that point to the importance of agriculture in the evolution of our civilization, this statement itself is the author’s opinion. A clue here is when they say “Most people would agree” because if it’s something that we can agree or disagree about, it is an opinion. A fact is rooted in evidence, and cannot be denied or argued about whether or not it is true. One theory for why agriculture arose is that climate cooling from 10,900 BC to 9,700 BC caused a food shortage. This is incorrect. Even though the sentence states that it was a theory, it is not based on the author’s opinion. It is being presented as possible theory experts have examined when studying this part of our history. This might have forced humans to start growing food in order to have enough. This is incorrect. Even though the sentence uses the verb “might,” it is not based on the author’s opinion. It is being presented as possible theory experts have examined when studying this part of our history. The radiocarbon ages of ancient plant remnants were believed to support this hypothesis. This is incorrect. It is a fact that, for some time, scientists believed that radiocarbon ages of ancient plant remnants supported the theory.

197. A new study at the University of Colorado Boulder is investigating fish fins. Study author Francois Barthelat and his team are searching for what makes fish fins so flexible and strong. Scientists are curious about how fins can move with such precision and sophistication. Fins do not contain any muscles, so fish move by twitching muscles at the base of their fins. To study their mechanics, Barthelat’s group developed computer simulations and 3D-printed models. The base muscles individually maneuver 20-30 stiff stem-like rays in each fin. All the rays in a fin have layers of collagen and harder material, segmented to move like fingers. The fins’ makeup gives them a balance of elasticity with enough stiffness to push water. Their engineering insights have implications for technological innovations like airplane wings and robotic surgical tools. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn about fish fins?
     • Fish fins are to fish what fingers are to humans.
     • Strong muscles such as fish fins have complex mechanics.
     • Their strength, flexibility, and precision can inspire engineering innovations.
     • Fish fins are stiff pieces, similar to oars, that push water.

     Correct answer: Their strength, flexibility, and precision can inspire engineering innovations.

     Their strength, flexibility, and precision can inspire engineering innovations is the correct answer. The passage states that the researchers were intrigued by fins’ flexibility and strength and that they were “curious about how fins can move with such precision and sophistication.” Strong muscles such as fish fins have complex mechanics. This is incorrect. According to the passage, “fins do not contain any muscles, so fish move by twitching muscles at the base of their fins.” Therefore, fins are not muscles but are “stiff stem-like rays.” Fish fins are stiff pieces, similar to oars, that push water. This is incorrect. As per the passage, each fin has “20-30 stiff stem-like rays” and “all the rays in a fin have layers of collagen and harder material, segmented to move like fingers.” Fish fins are to fish what fingers are to humans. This is incorrect. The passage does not compare fish fins and human fingers.

198. In 2017, astronomers located white dwarf LP 40-365 2,000 light-years from Earth. When small stars collapse, they shed their outer layers into ring-like nebulae, leaving behind the dense, hot core. This peculiar white dwarf was traveling nearly 2 million miles per hour against the Milky Way’s rotation. LP 40-365 is gradually escaping the Milky Way’s gravitational pull to eventually escape out into intergalactic space. The mysterious white dwarf contained carbon, oxygen, magnesium, and neon. Magnesium and neon appear as a result of intense energy levels from supernovas—star explosions. For this reason, Boston University researchers further investigated the star to figure out what sent it on its rogue path. When a white dwarf in a binary (paired) star system consumes its mate, it can destabilize and violently erupt into a supernova. What is the author’s purpose for writing this paragraph?
     • To persuade the reader to pay more attention to white dwarfs
     • To describe the behavior of a white dwarf
     • To criticize astronomers
     • To explain how researchers investigated a white dwarf

     Correct answer: To describe the behavior of a white dwarf

     To describe the behavior of a white dwarf is the correct answer. The author offers many details about how the white dwarf formed and traveled. To criticize astronomers This is incorrect. The author does not criticize astronomers or their work. Rather, they describe the behavior of a white dwarf. To persuade the reader to pay more attention to white dwarfs This is incorrect. The author is not trying to persuade the reader; they are just describing the behavior of a white dwarf. To explain how researchers investigated a white dwarf This is incorrect. The author does not explain the investigation process. Rather, they just describe the behavior of a white dwarf.

199. Everyone should have someone to talk to, but levels of loneliness have not stopped rising in the last few years. An NYU study highlights the importance of supportive social interactions. Having someone around to listen most, if not all, of the time improves the brain’s resistance to mental decline. Even during brain aging and disease-related changes like those from Alzheimer’s, being able to talk to a good listener helps maintain brain function. This ties into neurologists’ understanding that undergoing mentally stimulating activities, including physical exercise, enhances cognitive resilience. The study’s findings on listener availability, social support, and cognitive age were rather dramatic. People in their 40s and 50s who had lower access to someone who listens appeared four years older in cognitive age for every unit of brain volume decline. It is important for brain health that middle-aged and elderly individuals have a reliable support system to confide in. Which supporting detail is an example of opinion, rather than fact?
     • People in their 40s and 50s who had lower access to someone who listens appeared four years older in cognitive age for every unit of brain volume decline.
     • This ties into neurologists’ understanding that undergoing mentally stimulating activities, including physical exercise, enhances cognitive resilience.
     • Everyone should have someone to talk to, but levels of loneliness have not stopped rising in the last few years.
     • Having someone around to listen most, if not all, of the time improves the brain’s resistance to mental decline.

     Correct answer: Everyone should have someone to talk to, but levels of loneliness have not stopped rising in the last few years.

     Everyone should have someone to talk to, but levels of loneliness have not stopped rising in the last few years is the correct answer. The idea is included as an opening statement in the first paragraph and serves to make a general opinionated statement. The author does not include factual evidence to support this idea, making it an opinion. Having someone around to listen most, if not all, of the time improves the brain’s resistance to mental decline. This is incorrect. This is factual evidence based on the mentioned study and is not an opinion. This ties into neurologists’ understanding that undergoing mentally stimulating activities, including physical exercise, enhances cognitive resilience. This is incorrect. This is factual evidence based on the mentioned study and is not an opinion. People in their 40s and 50s who had lower access to someone who listens appeared four years older in cognitive age for every unit of brain volume decline. This is incorrect. This is factual evidence based on the mentioned study and is not an opinion.

200. The study ran for a twenty-four month period from 2017 to 2018 and involved two distinct groups of unemployed participants aged between twenty-five and fifty-eight years old. The control group received the country’s standard unemployment benefit with restrictions on how they could spend the money, in that they could only use it to benefit housing, food, health care, or integration within the community. The other group, however, received a monthly minimum income of roughly €550, which would pay for nearly half of a month’s rent in Helsinki, the country’s capital city. An important facet of the study involved the fact that the monthly stipend was administered even if the participants were not actively looking for employment. Which of the following is a synonym for the word “stipend” as it is used in the paragraph?
     • Payment
     • Charge
     • Expense
     • Meeting

     Correct answer: Payment

     Payment is correct. “Stipend” refers to a fixed amount of money paid on a regular basis, and “payment” would be the best synonym. Expense is incorrect. It refers to an amount owed, which is not consistent with the idea of providing unemployment benefits. Meeting is incorrect. It means “gathering with one or more people”, but this is not discussed in the text. Charge is incorrect. It refers to a price asked in exchange for a good or a service. In this case, there is no mention of any “charge” for the unemployment benefits.

201. There are between 20,000 and 25,000 polar bears in the arctic of Norway, Denmark, Russia, Canada, and the U.S. Observing polar bears in the wild has decoded some of the largest land predators’ communications. Polar bears move their heads from side to side to signal that they want to play together. Sometimes, the head movement accompanies standing on the hind legs. Pinned ears with a bowed head and a growl or chuffing sound means a polar bear is preparing to attack. When one bear wants to request food from another, they slowly walk towards the food, circle it, and touch noses with each other. They sleep seven to eight hours per day and take intermittent naps. To keep warm, they dig holes in the snow and curl up inside with their backs to the wind. What is the author’s purpose for writing this paragraph?
     • To describe what polar bears look like
     • To inform the reader about polar bears’ communications and behaviors
     • To persuade the reader that climate change endangers polar bears
     • To persuade the reader that polar bears are dangerous predators

     Correct answer: To inform the reader about polar bears’ communications and behaviors

     To inform the reader about polar bears’ communications and behaviors is the correct answer. The author objectively details how polar bears communicate with their peers and how they behave. To persuade the reader that climate change endangers polar bears This is incorrect. The author does not mention climate change. They inform the reader about polar bear’s communications and behaviors. To describe what polar bears look like This is incorrect. The author does not describe polar bears. Rather, they inform the reader about polar bear’s communications and behaviors. To persuade the reader that polar bears are dangerous predators This is incorrect. The author does not try to convince the reader about how dangerous polar bears are. Rather, they just inform the reader about polar bears’ communications and behaviors.

202. Neuroscience in the Classroom When it comes to early childhood education, could principles of neuroscience and experimental studies help educators teach more effectively? This is a popular question studied by leading international psychologists and research analysts focusing on educational psychology. However, the answer to this question requires advanced technological research tools, detailed scientific analyses, and, above all, time and patience to understand the results. Over the past ten years, innovative research centers have helped scientists understand how neural mechanisms impact children’s learning behavior. In other words, the study of neuroscience is opening new doors for analyzing how children learn basic functions. Neuroimaging, for example, is just one of the ways that scientists have been able to link visual capabilities with how well children comprehend letters of the alphabet. Although various concepts in early childhood education, such as observation and communication, are already understood within the scientific community and applied in the classroom setting, neuroscience allows psychologists to create completely new theories regarding childhood development. Currently, it is estimated that the discipline has allowed for the discovery of four pillars of learning: attentiveness, active output, feedback, and motor skills. The first learning pillar, i.e., attentiveness, is described as a child’s ability to digest both general and detailed concepts. That is, it helps children understand the “big picture” of a subject and focus in on the details when necessary. The second pillar, i.e., active output, seeks to quantify the verbal and written productivity of a student based on information received in the classroom. The third pillar, i.e., feedback, involves a child’s ability to self-assess and provide regular checks when understanding the material that has been learned. This pillar is noteworthy since it calls for both the feedback of the individual and that of the educator. Last but not the least, motor skills are acquired through daily repetition of what has been learned. Thanks to natural sleep cycles, this information is consolidated and stored in the brain for future access. An important part of these pillars is the concept of automatization, which occurs when a skill has been practiced so much that it becomes second nature and requires little to no conscious effort. However, according to leading experts at the Sorbonne University in Paris, a number of systematic errors can still present themselves with automatization. For instance, studies have shown that younger students seem to make simple mistakes in logic and reasoning problems in classroom settings, even though these tasks involve automatization. Researchers believe that training the brain through neuroscience practices can eliminate the occurrence of these mistakes while strengthening automatization. The abundance of research pertaining to neuroscience in the classroom as well as the increasingly vast possibilities of new theories have led to the development of a new field: neuroeducation. However, as with any new discipline, it will need to overcome hurdles within the scientific community. Although projects and collaborations between scientists and educators around the world are growing, gaining acceptance within the educational sphere will likely require more stable results to establish credibility. Which of the following ideas can be inferred from the text?
     • The four learning pillars require consistent practice to remain effective.
     • Logic and reasoning are considered to be the most difficult subjects for children.
     • Automatization guarantees a learning process that is virtually error-free.
     • Practices involved in neuroscience training may be able to reinforce automatization.

     Correct answer: Practices involved in neuroscience training may be able to reinforce automatization.

     The passage states that neuroscience is opening new doors when analyzing how children understand basic functions. This is synonymous with the given claim. Neuroimaging provides insights only into language-based learning procedures is incorrect. Although the passage gives an example of how neuroimaging can help scientists link visual capabilities with children’s ability to learn the alphabet, it also has many other potential uses. Although the alphabet is considered to be language-based, the passage does not state that neuroimaging only helps with this type of procedure. Neuroscience will provide new information regarding popular concepts in childhood development is incorrect. The passage states that popular concepts, such as observation and communication, are already understood in the scientific community but does not indicate how neuroscience will develop these ideas, if at all. Contrary to past research, neural mechanisms do not play an integral role in childhood development is incorrect. The passage states that neural mechanisms can impact a child’s learning development but does not provide reasoning to suggest that they do not play an integral role.

203. Regulatory T cells (Tregs) are central in helping the body control inflammation and autoimmunity. Scientists have been attempting to create stable induced Tregs (iTregs) to treat autoimmune diseases and transplanted organ rejection. Dr. Xiaojing Yue, La Jolla Institute for Immunology researcher, explains how the study he authored found that “vitamin C can be used to stabilize iTregs generated in vitro.” These findings reinforce the evidence that vitamin C enhances TET proteins’ enzymatic activity in generating stable iTregs in the lab. Before developing autoimmune therapies, scientists analyzed epigenetic features of iTregs. TET proteins and vitamin C both help fortify iTregs with gene expression that mirrors the body’s natural Tregs. The work of Dr. Yue’s team may revolutionize treatments for autoimmune diseases and improve organ transplant outcomes. Which of the following best describes the author’s point of view about Dr. Yue’s findings?
     • Although controversial, they have the potential to help the feasibility of organ transplants.
     • They would be more efficient without the addition of vitamin C.
     • They have the potential to positively affect the ways in which autoimmune diseases are dealt with
     • The team should spend more time researching how the body’s natural Tregs function.

     Correct answer: They have the potential to positively affect the ways in which autoimmune diseases are dealt with

     They have the potential to positively affect the ways in which autoimmune diseases are dealt with is the correct answer. This is because the author closes the article with the statement, “The work of Dr. Yue’s team may revolutionize treatments for autoimmune diseases and improve organ transplant outcomes.” Although controversial, they have the potential to help the feasibility of organ transplants. This is incorrect. This is because the author does not provide information that would lead one to think they believe Dr. Yue’s findings are controversial. They would be more efficient without the addition of vitamin C. This is incorrect. This is because the author mentions that vitamin C can “help fortify iTregs with gene expression that mirrors the body’s natural Tregs” and that “these findings reinforce the evidence that vitamin C enhances TET proteins’ enzymatic activity in generating stable iTregs in the lab.” So, this shows that the author sees the benefits of vitamin C in the findings. The team should spend more time researching how the body’s natural Tregs function. This is incorrect. This is because the author closes the passage with the statement, “The work of Dr. Yue’s team may revolutionize treatments for autoimmune diseases and improve organ transplant outcomes” and also states that the gene expression already mirrors the body’s natural Tregs.

204. Chronic kidney disease affects 850 million people and causes 1 in every 60 deaths globally. In 2018, total Medicare spending for kidney failure patients reached $36.6 billion. Diabetes, high blood pressure, and a substantial heritable factor contribute to developing chronic kidney disease. UPenn’s Perelman School of Medicine researchers conducted one of the most comprehensive studies of the human genome in search of genetic variations associated with kidney disease. The scientists found 182 genes that influence kidney function and 88 genes related to hypertension. Drugs already exist to target many of the 182 probable kidney function genes. The team also mapped cell types and mechanisms that play a role in chronic kidney disease. The gene mapping and cell typing provide major milestone insights into mechanisms behind treating kidney failure using ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors and ARBs (angiotensin receptor blockers). Which of the following statements best describes the point of view of the author?
     • Revolutionary treatments for kidney failure could be possible thanks to gene mapping and research of the human genome.
     • Drugs that target the most likely kidney function genes have not been as effective as once imagined.
     • Research about genes related to kidney disease is not relevant because drugs that combat the problem already exist.
     • It is clear that unhealthy diets and poor lifestyles are the main contributing factors to chronic kidney disease.

     Correct answer: Revolutionary treatments for kidney failure could be possible thanks to gene mapping and research of the human genome.

     Revolutionary treatments for kidney failure could be possible thanks to gene mapping and research of the human genome is the correct answer. This is because the author states, “The gene mapping and cell typing provides major milestone insights into mechanisms behind treating kidney failure using ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors and ARBs (angiotensin receptor blockers),” which clearly shows his or her point of view. It is clear that unhealthy diets and poor lifestyles are the main contributing factors to chronic kidney disease. This is incorrect. This is because the author mentions “a substantial heritable factor” that affects the development of chronic kidney disease as well as the fact that scientists found genes that influence kidney function. Research about genes related to kidney disease is not relevant because drugs that combat the problem already exist. This is incorrect. This is because the author mentions, “The gene mapping and cell typing provide major milestone insights into mechanisms behind treating kidney failure using ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors and ARBs (angiotensin receptor blockers).” This shows that the research team’s work is relevant. Drugs that target the most likely kidney function genes have not been as effective as once imagined. This is incorrect. This is because the author says, “Drugs already exist to target many of the 182 probable kidney function genes” and nothing else surrounding their effectiveness. There is no way of knowing whether or not the author holds the point of view mentioned in the answer option.

205. Neuroscience in the Classroom When it comes to early childhood education, could principles of neuroscience and experimental studies help educators teach more effectively? This is a popular question studied by leading international psychologists and research analysts focusing on educational psychology. However, the answer to this question requires advanced technological research tools, detailed scientific analyses, and, above all, time and patience to understand the results. Over the past ten years, innovative research centers have helped scientists understand how neural mechanisms impact children’s learning behavior. In other words, the study of neuroscience is opening new doors for analyzing how children learn basic functions. Neuroimaging, for example, is just one of the ways that scientists have been able to link visual capabilities with how well children comprehend letters of the alphabet. Although various concepts in early childhood education, such as observation and communication, are already understood within the scientific community and applied in the classroom setting, neuroscience allows psychologists to create completely new theories regarding childhood development. Currently, it is estimated that the discipline has allowed for the discovery of four pillars of learning: attentiveness, active output, feedback, and motor skills. The first learning pillar, i.e., attentiveness, is described as a child’s ability to digest both general and detailed concepts. That is, it helps children understand the “big picture” of a subject and focus in on the details when necessary. The second pillar, i.e., active output, seeks to quantify the verbal and written productivity of a student based on information received in the classroom. The third pillar, i.e., feedback, involves a child’s ability to self-assess and provide regular checks when understanding the material that has been learned. This pillar is noteworthy since it calls for both the feedback of the individual and that of the educator. Last but not the least, motor skills are acquired through daily repetition of what has been learned. Thanks to natural sleep cycles, this information is consolidated and stored in the brain for future access. An important part of these pillars is the concept of automatization, which occurs when a skill has been practiced so much that it becomes second nature and requires little to no conscious effort. However, according to leading experts at the Sorbonne University in Paris, a number of systematic errors can still present themselves with automatization. For instance, studies have shown that younger students seem to make simple mistakes in logic and reasoning problems in classroom settings, even though these tasks involve automatization. Researchers believe that training the brain through neuroscience practices can eliminate the occurrence of these mistakes while strengthening automatization. The abundance of research pertaining to neuroscience in the classroom as well as the increasingly vast possibilities of new theories have led to the development of a new field: neuroeducation. However, as with any new discipline, it will need to overcome hurdles within the scientific community. Although projects and collaborations between scientists and educators around the world are growing, gaining acceptance within the educational sphere will likely require more stable results to establish credibility. Which of the following inferences can be made from the passage?
     • With an increase in relevant scientific results, credibility in the field of neuroeducation will likely rise.
     • Given the abundance of research in neuroscience, neuroeducation is already considered to be reputable.
     • Neuroeducation will likely remain an abstract concept that does not offer credible insight into childhood development.
     • Scientists and researchers do not usually work together, making advancements in the field of neuroeducation difficult.

     Correct answer: With an increase in relevant scientific results, credibility in the field of neuroeducation will likely rise.

     The passage states that even though neuroeducation has been established as a field, its acceptance within the educational sphere will likely depend on scientific results and experiments. Given the abundance of research in neuroscience, neuroeducation is already considered to be reputable is incorrect. The passage mentions that although neuroeducation is a field, it still requires scientific results and experiments to establish its credibility. Neuroeducation will likely remain an abstract concept that does not offer credible insights into childhood development is incorrect. The passage does not mention this nor does it state that it is an abstract concept. Rather, the passage shows that acceptance is likely. Scientists and researchers do not usually work together, making advancements in the field of neuroeducation difficult is incorrect. The passage states that the discipline will likely require a relationship between scientists and researchers but does not state that the two groups do not usually work together. Therefore, this is incorrect.

206. Sexual dimorphism is the tendency for two sexes within the same species to exhibit distinct characteristics unrelated to reproduction. This can be observed in most animals and also some plants. In nature, sexual dimorphism is nearly universal, but it is strange how the sexes’ shared genomes within a species lead to divergent evolution between males and females. A recent study linked the evolution of separate characteristics in males and females to a Y chromosome (male) genetic variance. Researchers examined the evolution of body size dimorphism in male and female seed beetles over 10 generations. They discovered that isolating the Y chromosome-linked genetic variance could change the seed beetles’ dimorphism by 30%. Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
     • Genetic variance and evolution do not have an effect on one another.
     • Dissimilar evolution patterns between males and females in the same species are an unexpected occurrence in nature.
     • Sexual dimorphism does not usually occur in most animals.
     • Even if the Y chromosome is isolated, dimorphism rates will likely stay the same.

     Correct answer: Dissimilar evolution patterns between males and females in the same species are an unexpected occurrence in nature.

     Dissimilar evolution patterns between males and females in the same species are an unexpected occurrence in nature is the correct answer. This is because the author clearly states, “In nature, sexual dimorphism is nearly universal, but it is strange how the sexes’ shared genomes within a species lead to divergent evolution between males and females.” This statement in the text shows that the author finds this fact strange or “unexpected.” Sexual dimorphism does not usually occur in most animals. This is incorrect. This is because the author states, “Sexual dimorphism is the tendency for two sexes within the same species to exhibit distinct characteristics unrelated to reproduction. This can be observed in most animals and also some plants.”Even if the Y chromosome is isolated, dimorphism rates will likely stay the same. This is incorrect. This is because the author includes the detail of the study, “They discovered that isolating the Y chromosome-linked genetic variance could change the seed beetles’ dimorphism by 30%” in the passage. Genetic variance and evolution do not have an effect on one another. This is incorrect. This is because the author states “A recent study linked the evolution of separate characteristics in males and females to a Y chromosome (male) genetic variance” when describing the study, showing that the two could be linked. The author also includes information about the results in the passage, showing that genetic variance could affect dimorphism.

207. Ohio State scientists have found viruses almost 15,000 years old within ice samples from China’s Tibetan Plateau. These old viruses are unlike any other known viruses and only survived by being frozen for thousands of years. The journal Microbiome published the findings that may show how viruses evolve over centuries. This research required scientists to develop new techniques for analyzing viruses and microbes in ice without contaminating them. The study’s lead author, Zhi-Ping Zhong says that their goal is to use the viruses to learn about the past environments of what are now glaciers in western China. High-altitude ice cores have layers from year after year of ice accumulation, creating a frozen timeline. Gases, microbes, viruses, and climate change clues are all captured in the ice samples. Based on information in the passage, which of the following can be inferred regarding the advantages of studying viruses and microbes in ice?
     • The ice that has been accumulating for thousands of years offers a record of the evolution of viruses and microbes.
     • These viruses and microbes existed only in China’s Tibetan Plateau.
     • It is almost impossible to contaminate the ice samples.
     • Scientists already had sophisticated techniques that allowed them to analyze viruses and microbes in ice.

     Correct answer: The ice that has been accumulating for thousands of years offers a record of the evolution of viruses and microbes.

     The ice that has been accumulating for thousands of years offers a record of the evolution of viruses and microbes is the correct answer. The passage states that “high-altitude ice cores have layers from year after year of ice accumulation, creating a frozen timeline. Gases, microbes, viruses, and climate change clues are all captured in the ice samples.” Therefore, these “records” allow scientists to see how these microbes and viruses changed and evolved over time. Scientists already had sophisticated techniques that allowed them to analyze viruses and microbes in ice. This is incorrect. According to the passage, “this research required scientists to develop new techniques for analyzing viruses and microbes in ice without contaminating them.” This shows that they did not know those techniques before analyzing the samples. It is almost impossible to contaminate the ice samples. This is incorrect. As per the passage, “this research required scientists to develop new techniques for analyzing viruses and microbes in ice without contaminating them.” From this, we can infer that it is very easy for samples to get contaminated. These viruses and microbes existed only in China’s Tibetan Plateau. This is incorrect. The passage mentions that the samples come from China’s Tibetan Plateau, but it does not state that these viruses and microbes are exclusive to the area.

208. Everybody loves music, even our brains. When people listen to music, their brains continually try to anticipate the upcoming moments in the music. Unexpected events like changes in repetitive patterns, sudden loud sounds, or dissonant notes create brain activity spikes. The Journal Neuroscience recently published two studies about music and the brain. Researchers tracked musicians’ brains while they listened to Bach piano pieces, then imagined them in silence. Imagining the tune in their heads resulted in the opposite electrical polarity in the musicians’ brain activity compared to listening. The brain activity that occurred while musicians let the song play in their heads was the same as brain activity during silent moments in music—when the listener expects to hear notes but hears silence instead. So, when people imagine a melody, their brains behave as if continuously trying to predict the next note. Which supporting detail is an example of opinion, rather than fact?
     • Unexpected events like changes in repetitive patterns, sudden loud sounds, or dissonant notes create brain activity spikes.
     • Imagining the tune in their heads resulted in the opposite electrical polarity in the musicians’ brain activity compared to listening.
     • When people imagine a melody, their brains behave as if continuously trying to predict the next note.
     • Everybody loves music, even our brains.

     Correct answer: Everybody loves music, even our brains.

     Everybody loves music, even our brains is the correct answer. This opening detail is a generalization and an opinion presented by the author in order to grab the reader’s attention. This idea is not supported by factual evidence. When people imagine a melody, their brains behave as if continuously trying to predict the next note. This is incorrect. This is factual evidence based on the mentioned study and is not an opinion. Imagining the tune in their heads resulted in the opposite electrical polarity in the musicians’ brain activity compared to listening. This is incorrect. This is factual evidence based on the mentioned study and is not an opinion. Unexpected events like changes in repetitive patterns, sudden loud sounds, or dissonant notes create brain activity spikes. This is incorrect. This is factual evidence based on the mentioned study and is not an opinion.

209. Human embryo research is controversial and ethically murky. Based on moral perspectives on human embryos, countries such as Turkey, Russia, Germany, Austria, and Italy do not allow research on human embryos. China, Japan, India, Canada, Spain, and the U.K. permit human embryo research strictly up to 14 days. Brazil and France have no such limitations. Following previous International Society for Stem Cell Research (ISSCR) standards, 14-day research limits align with when embryonic implantation completes In May 2021, ISSCR updated guidelines, encouraging academics, scientists, and institutions to discuss 14-day human embryo research limits and related ethical issues with the public. Moral and ethical concerns are highly complex and important. Human embryo research should be allowed at least up to 14 days because it can yield benefits to the study of cancer, congenital diseases, miscarriages, infertility, and human development. Why does the author include the sentence “Moral and ethical concerns are highly complex and important” in the paragraph?
     • To introduce the idea that human embryos should not be used in research
     • To satirize moral perspectives on human embryos
     • To highlight the importance of ethics in science
     • To denounce the use of human embryos in research

     Correct answer: To highlight the importance of ethics in science

     To highlight the importance of ethics in science is the correct answer. With this sentence, the author emphasizes that they think science should pay attention to morals and ethics. To denounce the use of human embryos in research This is incorrect. In this sentence, the author does not criticize the use of human embryos in research; they highlight the importance of ethics in science. To satirize moral perspectives on human embryos This is incorrect. The author is not trying to make fun of the moral implications of using human embryos in research. Rather, they are highlighting the importance of ethics in science. To introduce the idea that human embryos should not be used in research This is incorrect. The author is not condemning the use of human embryos in research. Rather, they are highlighting the importance of ethics in science.

210. The Original Roman Holiday The classical phrase, “All roads lead to Rome,” is used to signify the importance of the Italian capital in culture, especially in terms of navigation and architecture. Although most of us are likely familiar with this phrase — as well as the influence the early Romans had on modern infrastructure — we are probably not as informed regarding just how many of our traditions date back to the Roman empire. In fact, the next time you prepare for a beach getaway or a trip abroad, it would be worth noting that vacations were invented by noble society members in ancient Rome. Each August, government officials, their families, and affluent members of the society traveled to the brisk seaside in order to escape the scorching heat of the capital city. Evidence from the time period suggests that large estates, otherwise known as villas, were home to the wealthy citizens for nearly the entire month. The most popular holiday centers were located along what is now known to be the Gulf of Naples. Unfortunately, these lavish resorts were entirely swept away by the devastating volcanic eruption of Mount Vesuvius in 79 AD, forcing anthropologists to piece together descriptions and paintings of these areas rather than collect actual artifacts. Before the tragedy, however, the three most popular resorts in the area (Herculaneum, Stabia, and Oplontis), were home to wealthy Romans once a year. Based on written accounts, the centers were finely decorated with frescoed arenas and often contained direct access to the lush seaside and private spas. Since each location contained dedicated servants, chefs, and even farmers to tend to the guests and the area, vacationers did not typically bring their usual wait staff with them on vacations. Based on this evidence, it is clear that the Romans had all members of the society in mind when creating the August holiday season. Interestingly enough, the custom of taking vacations (or at least relaxing for a few days) in August is still popular in Italy and the surrounding countries. In fact, August 15th is still considered a national holiday in Italy, which seeks to honor the first ruler of the Roman Empire: Augustus. Not only does the name for the eighth month of the Gregorian calendar derive from this emperor’s, but the name of the bank holiday does as well. In particular, the Latin phrase, feriae Augusti, literally translates to “August’s rest”. Although vacations are now taken throughout the year, usually based on work schedules and other priorities, some areas of the world still follow the traditions of ancient civilizations. What is the author’s general opinion regarding the volcanic eruption of Mount Vesuvius in 79 AD?
     • The eruption was disadvantageous and has made anthropologists work in circumstances that are less than ideal.
     • The eruption destroyed the beautifully detailed arenas and furnishings in the villas.
     • It was the worst volcanic eruption in the history of Italy.
     • The eruption likely had an effect on future holidays in ancient Rome.

     Correct answer: The eruption was disadvantageous and has made anthropologists work in circumstances that are less than ideal.

     The eruption was disadvantageous and has made anthropologists work in circumstances that are less than ideal is the correct answer. The author’s general opinion on this matter can be inferred from the phrases “unfortunately” and “forcing anthropologists to…” in the following sentence: “Unfortunately, these lavish resorts were entirely swept away from the devastating volcanic eruption of Mount Vesuvius in 79 AD, forcing anthropologists to piece together descriptions and paintings of these areas rather than collect actual artifacts.”. The eruption destroyed the beautifully detailed arenas and furnishings in the villas. This is incorrect. This is not an example of the author’s opinion, but rather, historical evidence. The statement, “Based on written accounts, the centers were finely decorated with frescoed arenas, and often contained direct access to the lush seaside and private spas” is based on evidence, and is not an opinion. It was the worst volcanic eruption in the history of Italy. This is incorrect. This is not included in the passage and the author does not mention the severity in terms of superlatives. The eruption likely had an effect on future holidays in ancient Rome. This is incorrect. This is not included in the passage and the author does not mention the future of holidays in ancient Rome but rather states that it is interesting that the tradition still exists today.

211. Paleontologists have found what they call a “one in a million” fossil. Splitting rocks to find perfect fossils is painstaking. But one 310-million-year-old horseshoe crab fossil broke by chance to reveal impressions of its central nervous system. Brains consist of such delicate soft tissues and they are extraordinarily hard to preserve, even through fossilization. Soft tissues are incredibly rare to find in fossils because soft tissues decompose so quickly, especially the delicate fatty structures of the brain. To date, only about 20 fossilized arthropod neural tissue samples have been identified. The ancient arthropod’s fossilized brain bears striking resemblance to that of present-day horseshoe crabs. The impression holds valuable clues about the species’ evolution. Which of the following statements best describes the point of view of the author?
     • Brains of horseshoe crabs are not that difficult to preserve, since their central nervous systems are conducive to preservation.
     • The impressive discovery of soft tissue in the horseshoe crab fossil provides a new, important background on the species.
     • The impression of the horseshoe crab fossil’s soft tissue could shed light on other species’ evolution.
     • The fact that soft tissues are so rare means that this discovery will need to be checked for accuracy.

     Correct answer: The impressive discovery of soft tissue in the horseshoe crab fossil provides a new, important background on the species.

     The impressive discovery of soft tissue in the horseshoe crab fossil provides a new, important background on the species is the correct answer. This is because the author mentions how the discovery was “one in a million” and “holds valuable clues about the species’ evolution.” The fact that soft tissues are so rare means that this discovery will need to be checked for accuracy. This is incorrect. This is because while the author notes the rarity of this discovery, they do not doubt its accuracy. The impression of the horseshoe crab fossil’s soft tissue could shed light on other species’ evolution. This is incorrect. This is because the author does not mention anything about how this discovery could provide insight on other species. Brains of horseshoe crabs are not that difficult to preserve, since their central nervous systems are conducive to preservation. This is incorrect. This is because the author states, “Brains consist of such delicate soft tissues and they are extraordinarily hard to preserve, even through fossilization” and also mentions how only around “20 fossilized arthropod neural tissue samples have been identified.”

212. The Original Roman Holiday The classical phrase, “All roads lead to Rome,” is used to signify the importance of the Italian capital in culture, especially in terms of navigation and architecture. Although most of us are likely familiar with this phrase — as well as the influence the early Romans had on modern infrastructure — we are probably not as informed regarding just how many of our traditions date back to the Roman empire. In fact, the next time you prepare for a beach getaway or a trip abroad, it would be worth noting that vacations were invented by noble society members in ancient Rome. Each August, government officials, their families, and affluent members of the society traveled to the brisk seaside in order to escape the scorching heat of the capital city. Evidence from the time period suggests that large estates, otherwise known as villas, were home to the wealthy citizens for nearly the entire month. The most popular holiday centers were located along what is now known to be the Gulf of Naples. Unfortunately, these lavish resorts were entirely swept away by the devastating volcanic eruption of Mount Vesuvius in 79 AD, forcing anthropologists to piece together descriptions and paintings of these areas rather than collect actual artifacts. Before the tragedy, however, the three most popular resorts in the area (Herculaneum, Stabia, and Oplontis), were home to wealthy Romans once a year. Based on written accounts, the centers were finely decorated with frescoed arenas, and often contained direct access to the lush seaside and private spas. Since each location contained dedicated servants, chefs, and even farmers to tend to the guests and the area, vacationers did not typically bring their usual wait staff with them on vacations. Based on this evidence, it is clear that the Romans had all members of the society in mind when creating the August holiday season. Interestingly enough, the custom of taking vacations (or at least relaxing for a few days) in August is still popular in Italy and the surrounding countries. In fact, August 15th is still considered a national holiday in Italy, which seeks to honor the first ruler of the Roman Empire: Augustus. Not only does the name for the eighth month of the Gregorian calendar derive from this emperor’s, but the name of the bank holiday does as well. In particular, the Latin phrase, feriae Augusti, literally translates to “August’s rest”. Although vacations are now taken throughout the year, usually based on work schedules and other priorities, some areas of the world still follow traditions of ancient civilizations. What is the author’s general opinion regarding society’s knowledge of Roman traditions?
     • Most people are generally well informed when it comes to the effects ancient Roman traditions have had on present-day society.
     • While most people may be familiar with the influence of early Romans, they probably do not realize the lasting effects they have had on our society.
     • Without the influence of the early Romans, we probably would not make time for vacations.
     • Early Romans have had more influence on present-day transportation systems than on other aspects of society.

     Correct answer: While most people may be familiar with the influence of early Romans, they probably do not realize the lasting effects they have had on our society.

     While most people may be familiar with the influence of early Romans, they probably do not realize the lasting effects they have had on our society is the correct answer. The following statement from the passage proves that this is the author’s general opinion on the matter: “Although most of us are likely familiar with this phrase – as well as the influence the early Romans had on modern infrastructure – we are probably not as informed regarding just how many of our traditions date back to the Roman empire.” This quote from the passage shows us that the author assumes many people have a basic knowledge of how the Romans influenced some things about our modern society. It also suggests that the author also acknowledges that there is a lot of modern traditions we have today that were also influenced by the ancient Romans. Most people are generally well informed when it comes to the effects ancient Roman traditions have had on present-day society. This is incorrect. The following statement from the passage proves that this is not necessarily the opinion expressed by the author: “Although most of us are likely familiar with this phrase – as well as the influence the early Romans had on modern infrastructure – we are probably not as informed regarding just how many of our traditions date back to the Roman empire.” The author stating that “we are probably not as informed” about how many of our traditions are influenced by ancient Romans shows that they do not believe most people are well informed about these things. Without the influence of the early Romans, we probably would not make time for vacations. This is incorrect. The author does not necessarily make such a strong argument regarding the Roman influence on holidays. The statement, “…we are probably not as informed regarding just how many of our traditions date back to the Roman empire…” only shows that people may not be aware of the lasting effects they have had on society. Early Romans have had more influence on present-day transportation systems than other aspects of society. This is incorrect. The author does not state this in the passage and provides both options as examples of the ways that Roman traditions are relevant in present-day society.

213. The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is a culmination of extremely large-scale ocean currents present in the top 1,000 meters of the Atlantic Ocean. Warmer water high in salt content travels northwards through a system of currents. Once the warm, salty water reaches high latitudes in the subpolar region of the North Atlantic, the water cools rapidly. Cooling makes the water denser, so it sinks down below 1,000 meters and flows south again. This giant system transports heat from the tropics and subtropics north towards Greenland, Iceland, Canada, and the U.K. The AMOC modulates weather and climate to keep the regions around it habitable. Climate models predict that the AMOC’s cycles may start slowing over the coming decades, leading to increasingly extreme weather and further disrupting climate in both warm and cool regions. Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
     • The cycles of the AMOC have changed over time, resulting in weather disruptions.
     • The cycles of the AMOC are important to understand and can have a major effect on climates.
     • The AMOC is not the only system put in place that regulates and transports heat to other areas.
     • Regions would not be experiencing such drastic and extreme weather fluctuations if people paid more attention to climate change.

     Correct answer: The cycles of the AMOC are important to understand and can have a major effect on climates.

     The cycles of the AMOC are important to understand and can have a major effect on climates is the correct answer. This is because the author states that the changes in AMOC cycles will lead to “increasingly extreme weather and further [disrupt] climate in both warm and cool regions.” Plus, the author notes that the AMOC “modulates weather and climate to keep the regions around it habitable,” thus proving its importance. Regions would not be experiencing such drastic and extreme weather fluctuations if people paid more attention to climate change. This is incorrect. This is because the author does not stress on climate change and places the emphasis on the slow AMOC cycles and their effect on the climate. The AMOC is not the only system put in place that regulates and transports heat to other areas. This is incorrect. This is because the author does not imply that other systems exist. Even if they do, the information is not presented by the author, so we cannot say with certainty whether or not they would agree. The cycles of the AMOC have changed over time, resulting in weather disruptions. This is incorrect. This is because the author does not mention changes that have taken place up until now but only mentions potential future shifts to slower cycles. These are predictions, and we cannot say with certainty what the author believes about the past cycles.

214. Traditionally, type 2 diabetes control methods have involved drugs that manage risk factors including high cholesterol, blood sugar, and cholesterol. These drugs fail to treat the underlying causes of type 2 diabetes. The disease stems from issues with the ability of the hormone insulin to control blood sugar effectively. Controlling blood sugar levels with drugs is a treatment, not a cure. Research increasingly demonstrates that surgery and dieting to lose weight helps to resolve some underlying causes of type 2 diabetes. Weight loss helps the body control blood sugar on its own and can be a step towards type 2 diabetes remission. Specific diets like low-carbohydrate regimens have promising results in accomplishing remission. Low-carbohydrate diets lead to remission in one in five people, while meal-replacement diets achieve remission in about one in three people. Which of the following statements best describes the point of view of the author?
     • For determined patients, pharmaceutical drugs are a great way to treat type 2 diabetes.
     • Patients should try losing weight before taking drugs to control type 2 diabetes.
     • Diets have little to no influence on stable, long-term results against type 2 diabetes.
     • When it comes to stable long-term results, drugs are typically poor choices for treating type 2 diabetes.

     Correct answer: When it comes to stable long-term results, drugs are typically poor choices for treating type 2 diabetes.

     When it comes to stable long-term results, drugs are typically poor choices for treating type 2 diabetes is the correct answer. This is because the author frequently mentions the inability of drugs to cure type 2 diabetes and mentions other options, such as weight loss and surgery. For determined patients, pharmaceutical drugs are a great way to treat type 2 diabetes. This is incorrect. This is because the author takes a firm stance regarding drugs’ inability to cure type 2 diabetes and does not differentiate between types of patients. Patients should try losing weight before taking drugs to control type 2 diabetes. This is incorrect. This is because the author takes a firm stance regarding drugs’ inability to cure type 2 diabetes and does not mention a potential order of options patients can take. Diets have little to no influence on stable, long-term results against type 2 diabetes. This is incorrect. This is because the author states, “Specific diets like low-carbohydrate regimens have promising results in accomplishing remission.”

215. Understanding Stress Mechanisms Meeting deadlines, presenting important projects, or balancing professional and personal priorities are just a few ways that people experience stress on a daily basis. Despite the fact that most of these stress-inducing activities seem to stem from outside factors, our internal response to stress plays an important role in managing the ebbs and flows of life. In fact, the brain has an excellent way of establishing a resilient response system, but most of us probably do not realize the power that the mind can have over stressful situations. When confronted with a difficult situation, the mind activates its very own defense system which starts from the most “instinctive” zone of the brain: the hippocampus and the amygdala. These parts of the brain are extremely important structures. The hippocampus, located in the temporal lobe, is responsible for declarative or episodic memory. The two amygdala, on the other hand, are located close to the hippocampus and are essential for the input and processing of emotion. Thus, these two regions of the brain interact during emotional events, in order to translate the events into outcomes. For example, in an anxiety-inducing situation, the two structures would likely unleash a series of hormones that would generate negative emotions, such as anxiety. However, responses to stress involve much more than just the hippocampus and the amygdala. Specifically, when it comes to hormones, another important factor is the reaction of the pituitary gland, which is attached to the base of the brain. This gland is commonly referred to as the “master gland”, since it is known for controlling the output of most hormones in the body. For this reason, it interacts with the responses from the hippocampus and the amygdala. Soon after the pituitary gland takes action, the adrenal glands produce cortisol, a hormone that keeps the body in a state of alertness. Prominent markers of this state include an increased heartbeat, profuse sweating, and heavy breathing. Finally, these actions trigger the glucose reserved in the liver to be released into the bloodstream, providing a quick dose of energy and preparing a person for an acute stress response, which is commonly known as the “fight-or-flight” response. Although it is common to attribute these dramatic responses to stress in cases of physical harm, such as getting into a car accident, the body maintains this reaction even in instances of emotional stress. As such, it would not be unusual for someone with a fear of public speaking to go through the same emotions, or experience an anxiety-induced physical state, before delivering a speech in front of a large crowd. After all, the brain is concerned with protecting the body from all types of uncomfortable situations. What is the best way to summarize the fourth paragraph?
     • The “fight-or-flight” response occurs when someone is reacting to a stressful situation.
     • The main role of the brain is to protect the body from stressful situations.
     • It is crucial for someone without a glucose reserve to avoid stressful situations.
     • Situations involving either physical or emotional distress will produce the same chemical reaction as a response.

     Correct answer: Situations involving either physical or emotional distress will produce the same chemical reaction as a response.

     Situations involving either physical or emotional distress will produce the same chemical reaction as a response is the correct answer. The fourth paragraph includes information pertaining to the body’s response system in both physical and emotional situations and briefly details the chemical response. This summary statement encompasses these ideas in one sentence. It is crucial for someone without a glucose reserve to avoid stressful situations. This is incorrect. It is an example of an inference rather than a summary. Although the opening sentence includes information regarding glucose and stress response, this answer option draws a conclusion that cannot be confirmed with the information provided in the passage. The main role of the brain is to protect the body from stressful situations. This is incorrect. Although the paragraph states that “the brain is concerned with protecting the body from all types of uncomfortable situations”, it does not claim that this is “the main role” of the brain. Moreover, it cannot be deduced solely from the information given. The “fight-or-flight” response occurs when someone is reacting to a stressful situation. This is incorrect. This information is accurate, but it does not describe the information provided in the entire paragraph. Rather, this sentence is a supporting detail.

216. The Original Roman Holiday The classical phrase, “All roads lead to Rome,” is used to signify the importance of the Italian capital in culture, especially in terms of navigation and architecture. Although most of us are likely familiar with this phrase — as well as the influence the early Romans had on modern infrastructure — we are probably not as informed regarding just how many of our traditions date back to the Roman empire. In fact, the next time you prepare for a beach getaway or a trip abroad, it would be worth noting that vacations were invented by noble society members in ancient Rome. Each August, government officials, their families, and affluent members of the society traveled to the brisk seaside in order to escape the scorching heat of the capital city. Evidence from the time period suggests that large estates, otherwise known as villas, were home to the wealthy citizens for nearly the entire month. The most popular holiday centers were located along what is now known to be the Gulf of Naples. Unfortunately, these lavish resorts were entirely swept away by the devastating volcanic eruption of Mount Vesuvius in 79 AD, forcing anthropologists to piece together descriptions and paintings of these areas rather than collect actual artifacts. Before the tragedy, however, the three most popular resorts in the area (Herculaneum, Stabia, and Oplontis), were home to wealthy Romans once a year. Based on written accounts, the centers were finely decorated with frescoed arenas and often contained direct access to the lush seaside and private spas. Since each location contained dedicated servants, chefs, and even farmers to tend to the guests and the area, vacationers did not typically bring their usual wait staff with them on vacations. Based on this evidence, it is clear that the Romans had all members of the society in mind when creating the August holiday season. Interestingly enough, the custom of taking vacations (or at least relaxing for a few days) in August is still popular in Italy and the surrounding countries. In fact, August 15th is still considered a national holiday in Italy, which seeks to honor the first ruler of the Roman Empire: Augustus. Not only does the name for the eighth month of the Gregorian calendar derive from this emperor’s, but the name of the bank holiday does as well. In particular, the Latin phrase, feriae Augusti, literally translates to “August’s rest”. Although vacations are now taken throughout the year, usually based on work schedules and other priorities, some areas of the world still follow the traditions of ancient civilizations. Which supporting detail is an example of opinion, rather than fact?
     • The typical August holiday is believed to have been created for all members of the Roman society, not just the wealthy citizens.
     • Large estates along the Italian seaside were likely to have housed nobles during the summer months.
     • People should note the fact that holidays were created by early Romans.
     • The nobles of ancient Rome created and popularized the idea of a summer holiday.

     Correct answer: People should note the fact that holidays were created by early Romans.

     People should note the fact that holidays were created by early Romans is the correct answer. This is an example of opinion, as presented at the end of the first paragraph with the phrase, “It would be worth noting…”. The author believes that it is important people should understand that holidays were created by the Romans, which is his opinion. Someone could easily argue that this isn’t true or believe the opposite. Therefore, it is not a fact. The author uses this technique to make the topic more relatable to readers. The nobles of ancient Rome created and popularized the idea of a summer holiday. This is incorrect. This is an example of a fact, as presented in the first paragraph. It is based on historical evidence. Large estates along the Italian seaside were likely to have housed nobles during the summer months. This is incorrect. This is an example based on historical evidence. The word “likely” might make this seem tricky because we’re not totally sure, but it is not an opinion because this is not being presented as something the author just believes to be true – it is also not being presented as something that is based on the author’s point of view. The typical August holiday is believed to have been created for all members of the Roman society, not just the wealthy citizens. This is incorrect. This is an example of a fact, as presented in the second paragraph. It is based on historical evidence. Even though the question option states “is believed to have been created”, which might feel a bit tricky, it is not an example of an opinion because it is presenting something historians believe to be true rather than something the author simply believes.

217. The Choir of the Rainforest: Heard But Not Seen Some of the most popular sounds used for relaxation purposes include white noise and sounds of the tropical rainforest. When it comes to the latter, however, the most distinct chirping noise is made by a group of insects that is easily heard but almost impossible to spot with the human eye. Insects in the Tettigoniidae family, otherwise known as “bush crickets,” are aesthetically similar to long-horned grasshoppers. Their vocal capabilities, however, are extremely unique and serve an important biological purpose. Common insects in the Tettigoniidae family, such as crickets, are easily spotted in parks and neighborhoods. But if you were to walk through a lush rainforest, you probably would not be able to spot bush crickets since they are easily camouflaged within the abundance of green leaves on enormous trees. This specific trait helps these crickets protect themselves from predators, all the while communicating with each other across large distances. For this reason, bush crickets are known as the “invisible choir” of the rainforest, discreetly providing a clear soundtrack to nature’s wonders. According to a team of researchers in the Barro Colorado Island, located in the middle of the Panama Canal, bush crickets unleash a series of distinct howls throughout the night, with the highest point occurring right before dawn. These sounds are capable of being heard up to five kilometers away. Interestingly enough, the noises made by these insects seem to be in harmony with each other and make up a deliberate communication system. In fact, the survival of tropical species depends largely on the efficiency of the loud, nightly howls and unique chirping noises of these insects. After observing this species for decades, researchers have proven that male bush crickets not only utilize the sounds to find suitable mates but are also responsible for making up a majority of them. While their female counterparts may sometimes respond to these calls with separate sounds and calls, male bush crickets are the most prominent singers of the so-called choir, responsible for innumerable howls each night. The intensity of the sounds is made possible by the speed at which the crickets rub their wings together. Additionally, each wing contains a set of minuscule “teeth,” similar to a fine-tooth comb, which vibrates and further extends the reverberation throughout the entire rainforest. In an effort to distinguish the various mating calls and additional sounds of these insects, researchers in Panama have recently recorded the voices of over 60 species in the Tettigoniidae family. With these recordings, scientists hope to develop an algorithm that will help analyze the distinct sounds and eventually match each sound with its specific species. For the time being, though, one thing is clear: there is truly more than what meets the eye—and ear—when it comes to the soundtrack of the rainforest. Which of the following inferences can be made from the passage?
     • It has been a challenge for scientists to distinguish between bush crickets and other organisms living in the rainforest.
     • Scientists are gathering information in order to be able to identify different species based on their distinct sounds.
     • There is a clear difference between mating calls and the other sounds that bush crickets use.
     • The total number of species of bush crickets living in rainforests around the world has been determined by scientists.

     Correct answer: Scientists are gathering information in order to be able to identify different species based on their distinct sounds.

     The text directly states that the male crickets are the ones that are “responsible for making up a majority of [the sounds].” This suggests that if you were listening to the sounds of bush crickets, you would most likely be hearing males. The majority of the sounds that bush-crickets make are for mating purposes is incorrect. While the article does state that male bush crickets make the majority of sounds and utilize sounds for mating, it does not go as far as to state that most of the sounds they make are for mating purposes. The sounds that male bush crickets make travel farther than those of the females is incorrect. The article explains how the sounds made by bush crickets are able to extend far into the rainforest, but it makes no mention of whether male or female bush crickets are able to make sounds that travel farther than the other. Males have “teeth” on their wings, which is why their sounds are different from females is incorrect. The article discusses bush crickets having “teeth” on their wings when discussing how they make noises that extend far into the rainforest. There is no mention of only males having “teeth” on their wings or this being a reason for why some sounds are different from others.

218. Understanding Stress Mechanisms Meeting deadlines, presenting important projects, or balancing professional and personal priorities are just a few ways that people experience stress on a daily basis. Despite the fact that most of these stress-inducing activities seem to stem from outside factors, our internal response to stress plays an important role in managing the ebbs and flows of life. In fact, the brain has an excellent way of establishing a resilient response system, but most of us probably do not realize the power that the mind can have over stressful situations. When confronted with a difficult situation, the mind activates its very own defense system which starts from the most “instinctive” zone of the brain: the hippocampus and the amygdala. These parts of the brain are extremely important structures. The hippocampus, located in the temporal lobe, is responsible for declarative or episodic memory. The two amygdala, on the other hand, are located close to the hippocampus and are essential for the input and processing of emotion. Thus, these two regions of the brain interact during emotional events, in order to translate the events into outcomes. For example, in an anxiety-inducing situation, the two structures would likely unleash a series of hormones that would generate negative emotions, such as anxiety. However, responses to stress involve much more than just the hippocampus and the amygdala. Specifically, when it comes to hormones, another important factor is the reaction of the pituitary gland, which is attached to the base of the brain. This gland is commonly referred to as the “master gland”, since it is known for controlling the output of most hormones in the body. For this reason, it interacts with the responses from the hippocampus and the amygdala. Soon after the pituitary gland takes action, the adrenal glands produce cortisol, a hormone that keeps the body in a state of alertness. Prominent markers of this state include an increased heartbeat, profuse sweating, and heavy breathing. Finally, these actions trigger the glucose reserved in the liver to be released into the bloodstream, providing a quick dose of energy and preparing a person for an acute stress response, which is commonly known as the “fight-or-flight” response. Although it is common to attribute these dramatic responses to stress in cases of physical harm, such as getting into a car accident, the body maintains this reaction even in instances of emotional stress. As such, it would not be unusual for someone with a fear of public speaking to go through the same emotions, or experience an anxiety-induced physical state, before delivering a speech in front of a large crowd. After all, the brain is concerned with protecting the body from all types of uncomfortable situations. What is the best summary of the passage?
     • Most people would be surprised to learn of the thorough process that the body develops as a reaction to external stress factors. Although the physical side effects are evident, communication between various organs is perhaps less understood.
     • The body’s response to stressful situations consists of responses from various organs that communicate and work together. Although these reactions happen internally, they can also produce physical side effects during instances considered to be difficult for someone on an emotional or physical level.
     • The brain spearheads one’s response to a stressful situation by activating the hippocampus and amygdala. Then, these two regions of the brain alert the pituitary gland and the adrenal gland to produce necessary hormones for stress regulation.
     • The “fight-or-flight” response is the most obvious reaction to external stress. Thanks to the pituitary and adrenal glands, the body regulates stressful situations and supplies a person with the energy needed to react swiftly and appropriately.

     Correct answer: The body’s response to stressful situations consists of responses from various organs that communicate and work together. Although these reactions happen internally, they can also produce physical side effects during instances considered to be difficult for someone on an emotional or physical level.

     The body’s response to stressful situations consists of responses from various organs that communicate and work together. Although these reactions happen internally, they can also produce physical side effects during instances considered to be difficult for someone on an emotional or physical level is the correct answer. This summary accurately describes that various organs (the brain, hippocampus, amygdala, liver, etc.) work together and communicate based on stressful situations. Then, the summary touches upon the fact that the process happens internally but also has physical side effects (heavy breathing, etc.) that are either physically or emotionally challenging. The brain spearheads one’s response to a stressful situation by activating the hippocampus and amygdala. Then, these two regions of the brain alert the pituitary gland and the adrenal gland to produce necessary hormones for stress regulation. This is incorrect. Although it provides a summary of the beginning sections of the text, it leaves out other general information regarding when these situations occur (i.e. in physical or emotional situations) and their physical side effects. Thus, this option is only a summary of the scientific process. Most people would be surprised to learn of the thorough process that the body develops as a reaction to external stress factors. Although the physical side effects are evident, communication between various organs is perhaps less understood. This is incorrect. This summary calls upon the idea from the first paragraph and provides an opinion about it. Moreover, this is not the best summary for the entire passage since it leaves out general ideas related to how and when these situations occur. The “fight-or-flight” response is the most obvious reaction to external stress. Thanks to the pituitary and adrenal glands, the body regulates stressful situations and supplies a person with the energy needed to react swiftly and appropriately. This is incorrect. It pertains to the last half of the passage rather than the entire text and focuses on a supporting detail when discussing the “fight-or-flight” response as well as the reactions from the pituitary and adrenal glands. More general information is needed in order for this to function as a summary for the entire passage.

219. In 2020, mining corporation Rio Tinto blasted Juukan Gorges in Western Pilbara, Australia. The historically and culturally significant 46,000-year-old Aboriginal rock shelters were the only remaining Australian inland sites with signs of human life throughout the last Ice Age. Puutu Kunti Kurrama land owners mourn the irreparable loss. Rio Tinto attained ministerial consent to damage the caves in 2013. In 2014, archaeologists found new discoveries about the shelters’ ages and artifacts like 4,000-year-old human hair. State laws unbelievably allowed Rio Tinto to destroy them anyway. The shameful act is not an isolated incident. In 2019, a Sydney rail line’s construction destroyed a site, home to 2,400 18th and 19th century Aboriginal stone artifacts. Urgent legislation is needed to stop similar offenses—a current gas project threatens ancient Burrup Peninsula rock carvings. What is the author’s purpose for writing this paragraph?
     • To explain that archaeologists found all sorts of artifacts in caves in Western Pilbara, Australia
     • To persuade the reader that Rio Tinto has been responsible for an irreparable act of destruction
     • To show how mining corporation Rio Tinto attained ministerial consent to destroy the caves
     • To describe the mining project Rio Tinto has in Australia

     Correct answer: To persuade the reader that Rio Tinto has been responsible for an irreparable act of destruction

     To persuade the reader that the corporation Rio Tinto has been responsible for an irreparable act of destruction is the correct answer. The author thinks that the corporation’s actions were “shameful” and warns about the lack of legislation that could prevent something similar from happening in the future. To describe the mining project Rio Tinto has in Australia This is incorrect. The author does not describe the mining project. They focus on how said project destroyed historically significant caves. To show how mining corporation Rio Tinto attained ministerial consent to destroy the caves This is incorrect. The author does not describe the process of how the corporation attained ministerial consent. To explain that archaeologists found all sorts of artifacts in caves in Western Pilbara, Australia This is incorrect. Even though the author mentions that archaeologists have found items of interest, explaining it is not the author’s general purpose.

220. The anesthetic drug ketamine is emerging as a potential depression treatment. Ketamine is used recreationally due to psychedelic effects. Clinically, two-thirds of patients experience relief from weeks of severe depression within hours of just a single ketamine dose. The early results are promising compared to limited results from conventional antidepressants. Researchers suspect that ketamine treats depression by influencing the neurotransmitter glutamate. Elevated glutamate release is associated with depression, stress, and mood disorders. In some brain regions, ketamine increases glutamate release. Other areas such as the prefrontal cortex decrease glutamate release in response to ketamine. Microscopic analysis shows ketamine encouraging neurons to release more adenosine, blocking glutamate production. There are still concerns about ketamine’s side effects. It is psychoactive and can cause fatigue, anxiety, restlessness, hallucinations, and dizziness. What is the best summary of the passage?
     • Although ketamine could be useful in treating depression, its potentially dangerous side effects are troubling.
     • Glutamate release plays a large part in depression and other mood disorders but can be decreased by the prefrontal cortex.
     • Most people believe that ketamine is a dangerous drug that produces psychedelic effects and are not aware of its potentially beneficial traits.
     • Early-stage research suspects that ketamine, an anesthetic drug that is typically taken recreationally, could treat depression through its interactions with regions of the brain.

     Correct answer: Early-stage research suspects that ketamine, an anesthetic drug that is typically taken recreationally, could treat depression through its interactions with regions of the brain.

     Early-stage research suspects that ketamine, an anesthetic drug that is typically taken recreationally, could treat depression through its interactions with regions of the brain is the correct answer. This is because the passage touches upon all of the main ideas, including what the early-stage research suspects about ketamine and how it could work. Glutamate release plays a large part in depression and other mood disorders but can be decreased by the prefrontal cortex. This is incorrect. This is because it relies on a detail found in the passage and does not mention the main idea, including ketamine and its alleged benefits. Most people believe that ketamine is a dangerous drug that produces psychedelic effects and are not aware of its potentially beneficial traits. This is incorrect. This is because it relies on information that is not found in the passage. The passage only states that “there are still concerns about ketamine’s side effects” but does not include information about what most people believe. Although ketamine could be useful in treating depression, its potentially dangerous side effects are troubling. This is incorrect. This is because it relies on a minor detail in the entire summary. In order to be an effective summary, information about the research done and how ketamine could treat depression should be touched upon.

221. The rampant genetic disorder cystic fibrosis impacts primarily the lungs. It causes repeated lung infections, labored breathing, and coughing up mucus. Cystic fibrosis is incurable and also affects the kidneys, liver, pancreas, and intestine. At Hubrecht Institute, UMC Utrecht, and Oncode Institute, researchers manipulated cultured human stem cells to interfere with mutations that cause cystic fibrosis. Through a method called prime editing, they replaced the flawed DNA pieces with healthy ones. Prime editing of genes is a safer variation of the gene-editing technique known as CRISPR/Cas9. The CRISPR/Cas9 approach involves cutting the DNA, which damages other parts of the genome. Prime editing is safer than CRISPR/Cas9 because it builds a new piece of DNA without causing damage. Based on the information regarding CRISPR/Cas9, what can be inferred about its role in the eradication of cystic fibrosis?
     • CRISPR/Cas9 is a completely safe method to cure cystic fibrosis.
     • CRISPR/Cas9 can affect the lungs and other organs.
     • CRISPR/Cas9 is the only solution available to eliminate mutations that cause cystic fibrosis.
     • Although CRISPR/Cas9 helps get rid of flawed DNA pieces, it involves more risks than prime editing.

     Correct answer: Although CRISPR/Cas9 helps get rid of flawed DNA pieces, it involves more risks than prime editing.

     Although CRISPR/Cas9 helps get rid of flawed DNA pieces, it involves more risks than prime editing is the correct answer. The passage states that prime editing “is a safer variation of the gene-editing technique known as CRISPR/Cas9” as it creates a new piece of DNA without cutting the DNA (which could harm other parts of the genome). CRISPR/Cas9 is the only solution available to eliminate mutations that cause cystic fibrosis. This is incorrect. The passage mentions two techniques to alter DNA: CRISPR/Cas9 and prime editing. Even though they have the same goal, the former is riskier than the latter. CRISPR/Cas9 can affect the lungs and other organs. This is incorrect. As per the passage, cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and other organs, whereas CRISPR/Cas9 is a technique to alter DNA. CRISPR/Cas9 is a completely safe method to cure cystic fibrosis. This incorrect. The passage does not mention any cure for cystic fibrosis, but it focuses on the techniques that help avoid the mutations that cause this genetic disorder.

222. A “Clean” Replacement For Bees With the recent decline of bees and bumblebees, botanists have teamed up with scientists to answer a question that seems to become more important as time goes on: will it ever be possible to replace bees? The answers to this question may ultimately decide how the environment will be impacted once the likely extinction of bees takes place. Although it would be hard to replicate the intense labor of these life-sustaining pollinators, new technology may assist in finding alternative, practical solutions with the use of drones and a household cleaning supply: soap! Since 2017, researchers at the Advanced Institute of Science and Technology in Japan have started replicating the necessary components for the fruitful pollination of various plants. They have discovered that employing the use of drones could effectively administer droplets of pollen to plants, similar to how bees would collect and distribute pollen in natural circumstances. Through numerous efforts of trial and error, however, the scientists have realized that even the smallest drones (measuring around four centimeters) could potentially damage the delicate nature of plants. Despite the rough, metallic exteriors of drones, researchers discovered a way to successfully utilize them in the pollination process. Instead of instructing the drones to drop pollen directly into each plant, they would release soft soap bubbles instead, which would safely encase the pollen and open upon contact with the plant. In order to develop a balanced mixture of all ingredients, pollen grains were first mixed with a nutrient-enriched soap solution that contained a low level of plant toxicity. The soap’s components were of maximum importance in this matter, since they could drastically alter the plants’ absorption of each pollen granule. Once the chemical levels of the soapy mixture were finalized, testing on actual Japanese pear plants began. After the drone dispersed the soap suds, each flower came into contact with approximately 2,000 granules of pollen. The team waited nearly two weeks for extremely positive results; the artificial process had provided as many fruitful results as would have been attained with natural pollination. Given the fact that most pollination of pear and apple trees is done by hand in Japan, this method would allow many more plants to be fertilized with the same amount of pollen in drastically less time. Although initial tests have produced positive results, the weather is likely to have a negative impact on the method’s immediate success. As of now, the bubbles’ efficiency is largely dependent on the weather, and could “pop” at inopportune times due to strong gusts of wind and even the slightest rain showers. Researchers believe that these problems could be solved with technology and robotic engineering programs. With more research and development, they hope to design an automated system that could map out the most logical routes based on daily weather forecasting and growth patterns. While these drones were established to solve a potential problem of extinction, they may help cut back costs of labor involved in fertilization. What can be inferred regarding the impact of weather on the pollination method with soap suds?
     • It presents problems that are difficult, if not impossible, to solve.
     • It can negatively influence the effectiveness of the process.
     • It can help the speed and efficiency of the soap suds.
     • It can possibly help the project’s long-term success.

     Correct answer: It can negatively influence the effectiveness of the process.

     It can negatively influence the effectiveness of the process is the correct answer. The passage states that the weather could cause the soap suds to pop and that strong gusts of wind could adversely affect the process. It can help the speed and efficiency of the soap suds. This is incorrect. The passage states that the weather could cause the soap suds to pop and become less effective. It presents problems that are difficult, if not impossible, to solve. This is incorrect. The author states that researchers are looking into solutions and that technology and robotic engineering programs could help. It can possibly help the project’s long-term success. This is incorrect. Although the passage states that the weather could have a negative impact on the method’s immediate success, it says nothing regarding the project’s long-term success.

223. The Choir of the Rainforest: Heard But Not Seen Some of the most popular sounds used for relaxation purposes include white noise and sounds of the tropical rainforest. When it comes to the latter, however, the most distinct chirping noise is made by a group of insects that is easily heard but almost impossible to spot with the human eye. Insects in the Tettigoniidae family, otherwise known as “bush crickets,” are aesthetically similar to long-horned grasshoppers. Their vocal capabilities, however, are extremely unique and serve an important biological purpose. Common insects in the Tettigoniidae family, such as crickets, are easily spotted in parks and neighborhoods. But if you were to walk through a lush rainforest, you probably would not be able to spot bush crickets since they are easily camouflaged within the abundance of green leaves on enormous trees. This specific trait helps these crickets protect themselves from predators, all the while communicating with each other across large distances. For this reason, bush crickets are known as the “invisible choir” of the rainforest, discreetly providing a clear soundtrack to nature’s wonders. According to a team of researchers in the Barro Colorado Island, located in the middle of the Panama Canal, bush crickets unleash a series of distinct howls throughout the night, with the highest point occurring right before dawn. These sounds are capable of being heard up to five kilometers away. Interestingly enough, the noises made by these insects seem to be in harmony with each other and make up a deliberate communication system. In fact, the survival of tropical species depends largely on the efficiency of the loud, nightly howls and unique chirping noises of these insects. After observing this species for decades, researchers have proven that male bush crickets not only utilize the sounds to find suitable mates but are also responsible for making up a majority of them. While their female counterparts may sometimes respond to these calls with separate sounds and calls, male bush crickets are the most prominent singers of the so-called choir, responsible for innumerable howls each night. The intensity of the sounds is made possible by the speed at which the crickets rub their wings together. Additionally, each wing contains a set of minuscule “teeth,” similar to a fine-tooth comb, which vibrates and further extends the reverberation throughout the entire rainforest. In an effort to distinguish the various mating calls and additional sounds of these insects, researchers in Panama have recently recorded the voices of over 60 species in the Tettigoniidae family. With these recordings, scientists hope to develop an algorithm that will help analyze the distinct sounds and eventually match each sound with its specific species. For the time being, though, one thing is clear: there is truly more than what meets the eye—and ear—when it comes to the soundtrack of the rainforest. Which of the following ideas can be inferred from the passage?
     • The “teeth” on the crickets’ wings help amplify their sounds.
     • The sounds of the crickets are dependent on the size of their wings.
     • Bush crickets make most of their sounds at night in order to hide from predators.
     • Females only respond to males who make the loudest sounds.

     Correct answer: The “teeth” on the crickets’ wings help amplify their sounds.

     The article states that though these insects are easily heard, they are “almost impossible to spot with the human eye.” This indicates that it would be very challenging to find them in their native habitat. The passage also states that these crickets are easily camouflaged within the abundance of leaves on the large trees. Most of the sounds you hear in a rainforest are made by bush crickets is incorrect. The article states that the “most distinct chirping noise” heard in the rainforest is made by bush crickets and that males are “responsible for making up a majority of the sounds” made by bush crickets. However, it does not state that bush crickets are responsible for most of the overall sounds in rainforests. The noises made by bush crickets can be easily replicated is incorrect. The article makes no mention of the noises made by bush crickets being easily replicable. In fact, the article describes the noises as “extremely unique,” which would imply that the opposite of this statement might be true. Bush crickets have a harder time camouflaging than other insects is incorrect. The article does not compare the camouflaging ability of bush crickets to that of other insects. In fact, it states that “they are easily camouflaged within the abundance of green leaves on enormous trees” which would imply that the opposite of this statement might be true.

224. Concussions: Concussions are brain injuries that occur when a person receives a blow to the head, face, or neck. Although most people who suffer a concussion experience initial bouts of dizziness, nausea, and drowsiness, these symptoms often disappear after a few days. The long-term effects of concussions, however, are less understood and far more severe. Recent studies suggest that people who suffer multiple concussions are at significant risk for developing chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), a degenerative brain disorder that causes a variety of dangerous mental and emotional problems to arise weeks, months, or even years after the initial injury. These psychological problems can include depression, anxiety, memory loss, inability to concentrate, and aggression. In extreme cases, people suffering from CTE have even committed suicide or homicide. The majority of people who develop these issues are athletes who participate in popular high-impact sports, especially football. Improvements in diagnostic technology have provided substantial evidence to link severe—and often fatal—psychological disorders to the head injuries players receive while on the field. Recent autopsies performed on the brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced cases of CTE in every single victim. In response to the growing understanding of this danger, the National Football League (NFL) has revised its safety regulations. There is hope that these new regulations, coupled with advances in helmet design, will reduce the number of concussions player endure, and thus curb the number of CTE cases. Efforts by the NFL and other professional sports leagues are certainly laudable. However, new regulations at the professional level cannot protect amateur players, especially young people. Fatal cases of CTE have been reported in victims as young as 21. With appropriate equipment and form, tackling need not be dangerous. Proper tackling form—using the arms and shoulders to aim for a player’s midsection rather than leading with the top of the head—should be taught at an early age. Youth, high school, and college leagues should also adopt safety rules even more stringent than the NFL’s. Question: What is the primary purpose of the passage?
     • To inform the reader of the dangerous disorder, CTE, while responding to examples of the efforts that have been made to decrease the harmful effects of contact sports.
     • To persuade the reader to take action against the NFL’s most recent response to the increased cases of CTE.
     • To inform the reader of the typical warning signs associated with those who have been diagnosed with CTE.
     • To spread awareness regarding CTE’s debilitating symptoms and disastrous long-term effects in the athletic community.

     Correct answer: To inform the reader of the dangerous disorder, CTE, while responding to examples of the efforts that have been made to decrease the harmful effects of contact sports.

     Answer: To inform the reader of the dangerous disorder, CTE, while responding to examples of the efforts that have been made to decrease the harmful effects of contact sports. The text provides information on concussions and the ways in which CTE is diagnosed within the athletic community. Additionally, the passage ends with opinions regarding the NFL’s response to the effects. To persuade the reader to take action against the NFL’s most recent response to the increased cases of CTE is incorrect. The aim is not to persuade the reader, although it contains opinions from the author at the end of the passage. To inform the reader of the typical warning signs associated with those who have been diagnosed with CTE is incorrect. Although the text informs the reader of the typical warning signs associated with CTE in paragraph 2, this is not the main purpose of the text. To spread awareness regarding CTE’s debilitating symptoms and disastrous long-term effects in the athletic community is incorrect. The text’s main purpose is to inform readers rather than spread awareness of the long-term effects in the athletic community, which is included only in paragraph 2.

225. Concussions: Concussions are brain injuries that occur when a person receives a blow to the head, face, or neck. Although most people who suffer a concussion experience initial bouts of dizziness, nausea, and drowsiness, these symptoms often disappear after a few days. The long-term effects of concussions, however, are less understood and far more severe. Recent studies suggest that people who suffer multiple concussions are at significant risk for developing chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), a degenerative brain disorder that causes a variety of dangerous mental and emotional problems to arise weeks, months, or even years after the initial injury. These psychological problems can include depression, anxiety, memory loss, inability to concentrate, and aggression. In extreme cases, people suffering from CTE have even committed suicide or homicide. The majority of people who develop these issues are athletes who participate in popular high-impact sports, especially football. Improvements in diagnostic technology have provided substantial evidence to link severe—and often fatal—psychological disorders to the head injuries players receive while on the field. Recent autopsies performed on the brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced cases of CTE in every single victim. In response to the growing understanding of this danger, the National Football League (NFL) has revised its safety regulations. There is hope that these new regulations, coupled with advances in helmet design, will reduce the number of concussions player endure, and thus curb the number of CTE cases. Efforts by the NFL and other professional sports leagues are certainly laudable. However, new regulations at the professional level cannot protect amateur players, especially young people. Fatal cases of CTE have been reported in victims as young as 21. With appropriate equipment and form, tackling need not be dangerous. Proper tackling form—using the arms and shoulders to aim for a player’s midsection rather than leading with the top of the head—should be taught at an early age. Youth, high school, and college leagues should also adopt safety rules even more stringent than the NFL’s. Question: Which best explains the author’s opinion regarding the National Football League’s (NFL) response to concussion dangers?
     • Efforts have not been studied closely enough and need to be developed for amateur leagues.
     • While commendable, it needs to be more inclusive and adaptable for other professional levels and leagues.
     • The NFL should be the first to implement safety rules for less professional leagues and pioneer safety education in the sports sector.
     • Although the response was necessary, not much can be done regarding the lack of funding for appropriate equipment.

     Correct answer: While commendable, it needs to be more inclusive and adaptable for other professional levels and leagues.

     Answer: While commendable, it needs to be more inclusive and adaptable for other professional levels and leagues. The author states that the NFL has had a laudable approach when dealing with CTE cases, but mentions that new regulations are also needed for other players in different leagues. Although the author mentions that matters will need to be developed for amateur leagues, Efforts have not been studied closely enough and need to be developed for amateur leagues is incomplete in that it does not include the author’s opinion on the NFL’s commendable approach. The NFL should be the first to implement safety rules for less professional leagues and pioneer safety education in the sports sector is incorrect. While the author believes that less professional leagues (including leagues such as college, youth, and high school) should implement safety rules, (s)he does not state that the NFL should be the organization to implement these rules. Instead, he states that the youth, high school, and college leagues should have even more stringent rules when compared to the NFL. Although the response was necessary, not much can be done regarding the lack of funding for appropriate equipment is incorrect. The author does not mention lack of funding when it comes to appropriate equipment, but it is mentioned that appropriate equipment could help make tackling less dangerous.

226. Concussions: Concussions are brain injuries that occur when a person receives a blow to the head, face, or neck. Although most people who suffer a concussion experience initial bouts of dizziness, nausea, and drowsiness, these symptoms often disappear after a few days. The long-term effects of concussions, however, are less understood and far more severe. Recent studies suggest that people who suffer multiple concussions are at significant risk for developing chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), a degenerative brain disorder that causes a variety of dangerous mental and emotional problems to arise weeks, months, or even years after the initial injury. These psychological problems can include depression, anxiety, memory loss, inability to concentrate, and aggression. In extreme cases, people suffering from CTE have even committed suicide or homicide. The majority of people who develop these issues are athletes who participate in popular high-impact sports, especially football. Improvements in diagnostic technology have provided substantial evidence to link severe—and often fatal—psychological disorders to the head injuries players receive while on the field. Recent autopsies performed on the brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced cases of CTE in every single victim. In response to the growing understanding of this danger, the National Football League (NFL) has revised its safety regulations. There is hope that these new regulations, coupled with advances in helmet design, will reduce the number of concussions player endure, and thus curb the number of CTE cases. Efforts by the NFL and other professional sports leagues are certainly laudable. However, new regulations at the professional level cannot protect amateur players, especially young people. Fatal cases of CTE have been reported in victims as young as 21. With appropriate equipment and form, tackling need not be dangerous. Proper tackling form—using the arms and shoulders to aim for a player’s midsection rather than leading with the top of the head—should be taught at an early age. Youth, high school, and college leagues should also adopt safety rules even more stringent than the NFL’s. Question: What is the meaning of the word ‘degenerative’ used in the second paragraph to describe ‘a degenerative brain disorder’?
     • Modern
     • Tending to deteriorate
     • Conservative
     • Psychological

     Correct answer: Tending to deteriorate

     Answer: Tending to deteriorate The degenerative disorder can cause functions of the brain to deteriorate or stop functioning as normal. This can be understood in the sentence including psychological problems including memory loss and inability to concentrate. Modern is not the correct term. Although the first sentence in paragraph 2 states that recent studies have suggested people who suffer concussions can develop the degenerative brain disorder, the word ‘degenerative’ in itself does not mean modern. Although the disorder has psychological impacts, the word ‘degenerative’ does not share a meaning with the word ‘psychological’. The passage does not state that a degenerative brain disorder has conservative, understated, effects. If anything, the passage alludes to the severity of the problems associated with the degenerative brain disorder.

227. Hiccups: At some point in your life, you have probably had the hiccups. Hiccups are caused by spasms in the diaphragm, a muscle located at the bottom of your chest. As we inhale, the diaphragm contracts, pulling air into the lungs. As we exhale, the diaphragm relaxes, pushing air back out through the mouth and nose. When we hiccup, the diaphragm jerks downward suddenly, pulling a quick burst of air into our lungs. As the air rushes into your body, it hits the voice box. This causes your vocal cords to snap shut, creating the sound we recognize as a hiccup. Hiccups can be triggered by many different things—eating too much, drinking too fast, sudden change of temperature, stress, fatigue, nervousness, and even excessive laughter can all cause the hiccups. While there are many home remedies for hiccups, there is no evidence to suggest that any of them are actually effective. In fact, most cases of the hiccups go away on their own. Although hiccups are usually harmless, they can be a sign of something more serious. Long-term hiccups might be a result of damage to the nerves that serve the diaphragm muscle. Persistent hiccups might also be caused by certain central nervous system disorders, traumatic brain injuries, drug abuse, or kidney disease. Question: What is the best summary of the passage?
     • Most people have probably had the hiccups before. They can be caused by many things including overeating, drinking too quickly, and sudden changes in temperature just to name a few.
     • Hiccups occur when the diaphragm jerks down quickly, causing air to enter our lungs quickly. As this air rushes into the body, it hits the voice box, causing the vocal cords to slam shut, creating the characteristic hiccup sound.
     • The hiccups can cause a number of problems including central nervous system disorders, traumatic brain injuries, drug abuse, and kidney disease.
     • The hiccups, which are caused by spasms in the diaphragm, can be caused by a number of things. Although they are usually harmless and go away by themselves, persistent hiccups could be the sign of a serious medical issue.

     Correct answer: The hiccups, which are caused by spasms in the diaphragm, can be caused by a number of things. Although they are usually harmless and go away by themselves, persistent hiccups could be the sign of a serious medical issue.

     Answer: The hiccups, which are caused by spasms in the diaphragm, can be caused by a number of things. Although they are usually harmless and go away by themselves, persistent hiccups could be the sign of a serious medical issue. This statement provides a good overall summary by presenting all the key points made by the author. Most people have probably had the hiccups before. They can be caused by many things including overeating, drinking too quickly, and sudden changes in temperature just to name a few. This answer choice leaves out important ideas presented by the author. For example, this answer choice does not describe how the hiccups occur nor does it describe the serious conditions that may cause persistent hiccups. Hiccups occur when the diaphragm jerks down quickly, causing air to enter our lungs quickly. As this air rushes into the body, it hits the voice box, causing the vocal cords to slam shut, creating the characteristic hiccup sound. This answer choice effectively describes how a hiccup is made but completely omits important information on what can trigger the hiccups (information that is presented in paragraphs 2 and 3). The hiccups can cause a number of problems including central nervous system disorders, traumatic brain injuries, drug abuse, and kidney disease. This answer choice contains incorrect information. The hiccups do not cause those problems, rather, the problems can cause the hiccups.

228. A “Clean” Replacement For Bees With the recent decline of bees and bumblebees, botanists have teamed up with scientists to answer a question that seems to become more important as time goes on: will it ever be possible to replace bees? The answers to this question may ultimately decide how the environment will be impacted once the likely extinction of bees takes place. Although it would be hard to replicate the intense labor of these life-sustaining pollinators, new technology may assist in finding alternative, practical solutions with the use of drones and a household cleaning supply: soap! Since 2017, researchers at the Advanced Institute of Science and Technology in Japan have started replicating the necessary components for the fruitful pollination of various plants. They have discovered that employing the use of drones could effectively administer droplets of pollen to plants, similar to how bees would collect and distribute pollen in natural circumstances. Through numerous efforts of trial and error, however, the scientists have realized that even the smallest drones (measuring around four centimeters) could potentially damage the delicate nature of plants. Despite the rough, metallic exteriors of drones, researchers discovered a way to successfully utilize them in the pollination process. Instead of instructing the drones to drop pollen directly into each plant, they would release soft soap bubbles instead, which would safely encase the pollen and open upon contact with the plant. In order to develop a balanced mixture of all ingredients, pollen grains were first mixed with a nutrient-enriched soap solution that contained a low level of plant toxicity. The soap’s components were of maximum importance in this matter, since they could drastically alter the plants’ absorption of each pollen granule. Once the chemical levels of the soapy mixture were finalized, testing on actual Japanese pear plants began. After the drone dispersed the soap suds, each flower came into contact with approximately 2,000 granules of pollen. The team waited nearly two weeks for extremely positive results; the artificial process had provided as many fruitful results as would have been attained with natural pollination. Given the fact that most pollination of pear and apple trees is done by hand in Japan, this method would allow many more plants to be fertilized with the same amount of pollen in drastically less time. Although initial tests have produced positive results, the weather is likely to have a negative impact on the method’s immediate success. As of now, the bubbles’ efficiency is largely dependent on the weather, and could “pop” at inopportune times due to strong gusts of wind and even the slightest rain showers. Researchers believe that these problems could be solved with technology and robotic engineering programs. With more research and development, they hope to design an automated system that could map out the most logical routes based on daily weather forecasting and growth patterns. While these drones were established to solve a potential problem of extinction, they may help cut back costs of labor involved in fertilization. Based on information in the passage, which of the following points can be inferred regarding the benefits of the proposed pollination system developed by the researchers?
     • It may prove useful in areas outside of the project’s original scope of replacing bees.
     • Although the original benefit involved cutting back labor costs, it will likely also help with the extinction of bees.
     • The decreased costs of labor will prove more useful than the replacement of bees.
     • The weather will play a large role in the benefits of the system.

     Correct answer: It may prove useful in areas outside of the project’s original scope of replacing bees.

     It may prove useful in areas outside of the project’s original scope of replacing bees is the correct answer. The end of the passage discusses how although the drones were established to solve a potential problem of extinction (of bees), other benefits including decreased labor costs are also evident. The decreased costs of labor will prove more useful than the replacement of bees. This is incorrect. The passage states that the project’s benefits also include the decreased costs of labor, but makes no note of the usefulness of this benefit over the replacement of bees. The weather will play a large role in the benefits of the system. This is incorrect. Although the passage describes the role of weather when it comes to the project, it does not necessarily connect this to the benefits of the program. In theory, the project is beneficial because it could solve the problem of extinction, but it could also cut back labor costs. The weather does not interfere with the theoretical benefits of the project. Although the original benefit involved cutting back labor costs, it will likely also help with the extinction of bees. This is incorrect. The passage states the opposite; the original plan was established to solve the problem of extinction, and the ability to cut back costs of labor was a secondary benefit.

229. Wrinkles: Skin wrinkles are caused by a variety of factors. Some of these factors are intrinsic, meaning that you cannot control them because they occur naturally. Others are extrinsic, meaning that they are caused by circumstances outside of the body. One intrinsic factor is aging. As you age, your skin loses collagen, which is the protein responsible for keeping your skin elastic. With less collagen, your skin becomes thinner and more fragile. Aging also reduces the functioning of sweat and oil glands, which work to keep the skin looking smooth. You also lose fat in the deeper layers of your skin as you age. This fat loss causes your skin to sag and develop deeper wrinkles. The two most common extrinsic factors are exposure to ultraviolet radiation (UV rays) and smoking. UV rays in sunlight break down your skin’s connective tissue and collagen fibers. To prevent the appearance of wrinkles (as well as protect yourself from skin cancer), you should always use UV-blocking sunscreen. The nicotine in cigarettes is the most likely link between smoking and wrinkles. Nicotine narrows the blood vessels, reducing the blood supply to your skin tissue. This deprives your skin of oxygen and important nutrients, causing damage that contributes to wrinkles. Question: According to the text, what can be inferred from skin that has gone through the aging process?
     • It has less collagen compared to younger skin.
     • It will have a smooth and saggy appearance.
     • It has developed a thick texture.
     • It is still elastic when compared to younger skin.

     Correct answer: It has less collagen compared to younger skin.

     Answer: It has less collagen compared to younger skin. In paragraph 2, it is stated that aging skin loses collagen. Therefore, this is the correct option. It is still elastic when compared to younger skin is incorrect. In paragraph 2, it states that the skin loses collagen, which keeps skin elastic. Therefore, one can infer that skin that has gone through the aging process is not still elastic. It has developed a thick texture is incorrect. In paragraph 2, it states that with less collagen, your skin becomes thinner. Since it is stated that aging skin loses collagen, one cannot infer that aging skin would develop a thick texture, but rather, a thin texture. It will have a smooth and saggy appearance is incorrect. Although paragraph 2 states that aging skin will lose fat and cause the skin to sag, it does not mention that the skin will look smooth. Rather, it states in paragraph 2 that aging reduces the functioning of sweat and oil glands, which work to keep the skin smooth. Therefore, one cannot infer that aging skin will have a smooth appearance.

230. Preventing Heart Disease: Heart disease is a life-threatening condition that kills millions of people every year. In fact, heart disease is the number one killer of human beings worldwide; over thirty percent of deaths every year are due to some form of cardiovascular disease. Although there are many different types of medications and surgical procedures that can treat heart disease, prevention is the most important factor in reducing the number of deaths. Proper nutrition is important in preventing heart disease. The recommended diet for a healthy heart is low in saturated fats, cholesterol, salt, and refined sugar. The diet should be high in fiber, whole grains, fruits, and vegetables. Smoking and excessive alcohol consumption should be avoided. Smoking increases the risk for heart disease at least ten-fold, and drinking too much alcohol can raise the levels of some fats in the blood and lead to high blood pressure and increase the risk of cardiovascular damage. Lack of physical exercise can also make a person more likely to suffer from heart disease. Participating regularly in aerobic exercise, which can include walking, jogging, dancing, or swimming, significantly reduces the risk of heart disease. Another contributor to heart disease is stress. Constant stress can expose your body to persistently elevated levels of the stress hormones cortisol and adrenaline. High levels of these hormones can increase blood pressure and damage artery walls. Engaging in yoga, meditation, or other relaxation techniques can be helpful in reducing stress and lowering the risk for heart disease. Question: Why does the author begin the passage with statistics regarding heart disease, such as “over thirty percent of deaths every year” ?
     • To introduce a theory on a worldwide response to heart disease.
     • To support the fact that heart disease is a global threat.
     • To warn the reader regarding the dangers of heart disease.
     • To justify medicinal treatments for heart disease.

     Correct answer: To support the fact that heart disease is a global threat.

     Answer: To support the fact that heart disease is a global threat. In the previous sentence, the author states that heart disease is the number one killer of human beings worldwide. Thus, the inclusion of the statistic is to support this claim. To warn the reader regarding the dangers of heart disease is incorrect.Although the text discusses the dangers of heart disease, warning the reader is not the reason for the inclusion of statistics. It is used to support the fact that heart disease is a global threat. To introduce a theory on a worldwide response to heart disease is incorrect.The text does not offer theories regarding a worldwide response to heart disease, although it does include preventative measures later in the passage. To justify medicinal treatments for heart disease is incorrect.Treatments for heart disease are briefly mentioned in paragraph 1, but this is not the reason behind including a statistic as the portion on medicinal treatments is brief.

231. Hiccups: At some point in your life, you have probably had the hiccups. Hiccups are caused by spasms in the diaphragm, a muscle located at the bottom of your chest. As we inhale, the diaphragm contracts, pulling air into the lungs. As we exhale, the diaphragm relaxes, pushing air back out through the mouth and nose. When we hiccup, the diaphragm jerks downward suddenly, pulling a quick burst of air into our lungs. As the air rushes into your body, it hits the voice box. This causes your vocal cords to snap shut, creating the sound we recognize as a hiccup. Hiccups can be triggered by many different things—eating too much, drinking too fast, sudden change of temperature, stress, fatigue, nervousness, and even excessive laughter can all cause the hiccups. While there are many home remedies for hiccups, there is no evidence to suggest that any of them are actually effective. In fact, most cases of the hiccups go away on their own. Although hiccups are usually harmless, they can be a sign of something more serious. Long-term hiccups might be a result of damage to the nerves that serve the diaphragm muscle. Persistent hiccups might also be caused by certain central nervous system disorders, traumatic brain injuries, drug abuse, or kidney disease. Question: What is the meaning of the word spasms in paragraph 1?
     • Quick, uncontrollable movements
     • Diseases
     • Small muscles
     • A pockets of air

     Correct answer: Quick, uncontrollable movements

     Answer: Quick, uncontrollable movements From context, we can see that spasms are quick, uncontrollable. When placed in the target sentence, the phrase small muscles does not make any sense. Therefore, it cannot be the correct answer choice. The diaphragm is a muscle–not a pocket of air that can fill up with air. When placed in the target sentence, the word diseases makes no sense. Therefore, it cannot be the correct answer choice.

232. Does Low Body Temperature Cause Illness?: As children, we are often told to dress warmly in the winter so we do not get sick. This is a common piece of advice, but is there any truth behind it? In fact, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that being cold can get you sick. Most illnesses are caused by viruses and bacteria. Illnesses like strep throat, influenza, and the common cold are only spread through contact with other infected people. How cold you are when you come into contact with the virus or bacteria has nothing to do with whether or not you will get sick. The effect of body temperature on contracting illness was tested on human beings in the 1950s. Researchers divided volunteers into two groups: half of them were kept in a warm room and the other half were kept in a cold room. Both groups were then exposed to rhinovirus–the virus responsible for the common cold. The researchers discovered that members of both groups developed colds at the same rate. Since that first experiment, there have been similar experiments performed with a variety of different illnesses. All have yielded the same result: being cold does not make a person more likely to get sick. Of course, it does seem that people do get sick more often when the weather is cold. However, this is because there is some evidence that people do get sick more often in cold weather, but it has nothing to do with forgetting to bundle up when it is chilly. When it is cold outside, people tend to stay inside. With so many people gathered closely together indoors, germs are spread more easily. Germs are spread from person to person, regardless of how cold or warm their bodies are. Based on information in the text, what can be inferred regarding the findings of the experiment described in paragraph 2?
     • Had the temperatures been different, the groups would have contracted the common cold all the same.
     • If the experiment had included different variations of temperature, the results would have been different.
     • The groups must have had similar health backgrounds.
     • Temperature may have had an effect on the groups’ reactions to the rhinovirus.

     Correct answer: Had the temperatures been different, the groups would have contracted the common cold all the same.

     Answer: Had the temperatures been different, the groups would have contracted the common cold all the same. This can be accurately inferred since the experiment yielded the results that temperature did not have an effect on the rate at which participants reacted to the rhinovirus and received the common cold. “Temperature may have had an effect on the groups’ reactions to the rhinovirus” is incorrect. This is not the case, as the passage states that both groups (exposed to both cold and hot temperatures) contracted the illness at the same rate. Therefore, it cannot be stated that the temperature had an effect on the groups’ reactions. “If the experiment had included different variations of temperature, the results would have been different” is incorrect. This cannot be accurately inferred, as the experiment found temperature not have no effect on the groups’ reaction to the rhinovirus. Therefore, it would be incorrect to infer that including variations of temperature would have any impact. “The groups must have had similar health backgrounds” is incorrect. This cannot be accurately inferred because the text does not mention the health backgrounds of the participants in the study. Although this may be information that is general knowledge in terms of research, it cannot be inferred from the text alone.

233. Hiccups: At some point in your life, you have probably had the hiccups. Hiccups are caused by spasms in the diaphragm, a muscle located at the bottom of your chest. As we inhale, the diaphragm contracts, pulling air into the lungs. As we exhale, the diaphragm relaxes, pushing air back out through the mouth and nose. When we hiccup, the diaphragm jerks downward suddenly, pulling a quick burst of air into our lungs. As the air rushes into your body, it hits the voice box. This causes your vocal cords to snap shut, creating the sound we recognize as a hiccup. Hiccups can be triggered by many different things—eating too much, drinking too fast, sudden change of temperature, stress, fatigue, nervousness, and even excessive laughter can all cause the hiccups. While there are many home remedies for hiccups, there is no evidence to suggest that any of them are actually effective. In fact, most cases of the hiccups go away on their own. Although hiccups are usually harmless, they can be a sign of something more serious. Long-term hiccups might be a result of damage to the nerves that serve the diaphragm muscle. Persistent hiccups might also be caused by certain central nervous system disorders, traumatic brain injuries, drug abuse, or kidney disease. Question: What can be inferred about some cases of persistent hiccups?
     • They might lead to a traumatic brain injury.
     • They can cause certain nervous system disorders.
     • They should be treated with home remedies.
     • They could require a doctor’s attention.

     Correct answer: They could require a doctor’s attention.

     Answer: They could require a doctor’s attention. Because some cases of persistent hiccups might be the sign of “certain central nervous system disorders, traumatic brain injuries, drug abuse, or kidney disease,” a doctor’s attention could be required. They can cause certain nervous system disorders confuses cause and effect. The hiccups are a symptom of certain nervous system disorders, but not their cause. They should be treated with home remedies is incorrect. The author states that there is no evidence that home remedies are “actually effective,” and besides, persistent hiccups could be the sign of a serious problem. They might lead to a traumatic brain injury is incorrect. This answer choice also confuses cause and effect. The hiccups are a symptom of traumatic brain injuries, but not their cause.

234. Fibromyalgia: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that affects an estimated 3-6% of the world’s population. The disorder is characterized by both physiological and psychological symptoms, including nerve pain, fatigue, sleep and mood disturbances, headaches, bowel problems, and incontinence. The exact cause of fibromyalgia is unknown. For some people, fibromyalgia symptoms begin after some sort of physical or psychological stress. However, for others, the onset of symptoms is gradual. Research has shown that genetics may play a part, but there is also evidence that environmental factors can contribute. The wide variety of symptoms made it difficult to diagnose and treat for many years, though recent research has made some promising advances. Although a cure for fibromyalgia has not yet been developed, research has shown that some of the symptoms can be treated with pharmaceuticals, such as tricyclics or gabapentinoids, or non-pharmacological methods, such as meditation, mindfulness, and cognitive behavior therapy. The most successful pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia has been tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline and nortriptyline. These drugs increase the levels of the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine, which are often found at decreased levels in the brains of people who suffer from chronic pain. By boosting endorphins and relaxing muscles, tricyclics can ease some of the musculoskeletal pain felt by people with fibromyalgia. Question: Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
     • The best treatment for fibromyalgia includes both drugs and nonpharmacological methods.
     • Fibromyalgia can lead to death if it is not treated early enough.
     • The majority of symptoms brought on by fibromyalgia are psychological in nature.
     • Fibromyalgia is a condition that cannot be passed down from generation to generation.

     Correct answer: The best treatment for fibromyalgia includes both drugs and nonpharmacological methods.

     Answer: The best treatment for fibromyalgia includes both drugs and nonpharmacological methods. The author states that “the symptoms can be treated with pharmaceuticals, such as tricyclics or gabapentinoids, or nonpharmacological methods, such as meditation, mindfulness, and cognitive behavior therapy.” We can assume that a combination of these two methods would offer the greatest chances for success. Fibromyalgia is a condition that cannot be passed down from generation to generation is incorrect. The author states in paragraph 2 that “research has shown that genetics may play a part.” The majority of symptoms brought on by fibromyalgia are psychological in nature is incorrect. The author simply says that the symptoms can be “both physiological and psychological” in nature. The author does not say that one type is more prevalent than the other. Fibromyalgia can lead to death if it is not treated early enough is incorrect. The author does not mention at any point in the passage that fibromyalgia can be fatal.

235. Wrinkles: Skin wrinkles are caused by a variety of factors. Some of these factors are intrinsic, meaning that you cannot control them because they occur naturally. Others are extrinsic, meaning that they are caused by circumstances outside of the body. One intrinsic factor is aging. As you age, your skin loses collagen, which is the protein responsible for keeping your skin elastic. With less collagen, your skin becomes thinner and more fragile. Aging also reduces the functioning of sweat and oil glands, which work to keep the skin looking smooth. You also lose fat in the deeper layers of your skin as you age. This fat loss causes your skin to sag and develop deeper wrinkles. The two most common extrinsic factors are exposure to ultraviolet radiation (UV rays) and smoking. UV rays in sunlight break down your skin’s connective tissue and collagen fibers. To prevent the appearance of wrinkles (as well as protect yourself from skin cancer), you should always use UV-blocking sunscreen. The nicotine in cigarettes is the most likely link between smoking and wrinkles. Nicotine narrows the blood vessels, reducing the blood supply to your skin tissue. This deprives your skin of oxygen and important nutrients, causing damage that contributes to wrinkles. Question: Based on information provided in the text, which would NOT be an example of an extrinsic factor?
     • Getting older
     • Sun exposure
     • Smoking
     • Not using UV-blocking sunscreen when exposed to the sun

     Correct answer: Getting older

     Answer: Getting older As stated in paragraph 1, extrinsic factors mean that they are caused by circumstances outside the body. Since getting older (another way to say aging) occurring naturally, it is not extrinsic, and rather, intrinsic. Sun exposure is an example of an extrinsic factor because it is caused by a circumstance outside of the body. Thus, it is incorrect. Smoking is an example of an extrinsic factor because it is caused by a circumstance outside of the body. Thus, it is incorrect. Not using UV-blocking sunscreen when exposed to the sun is incorrect. The lack of a UV-blocking sunscreen would infer that a person is not protected by the sun. This is an example of an extrinsic factor because it is caused by a circumstance outside of the body. Thus, it is incorrect.

236. Fibromyalgia: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that affects an estimated 3-6% of the world’s population. The disorder is characterized by both physiological and psychological symptoms, including nerve pain, fatigue, sleep and mood disturbances, headaches, bowel problems, and incontinence. The exact cause of fibromyalgia is unknown. For some people, fibromyalgia symptoms begin after some sort of physical or psychological stress. However, for others, the onset of symptoms is gradual. Research has shown that genetics may play a part, but there is also evidence that environmental factors can contribute. The wide variety of symptoms made it difficult to diagnose and treat for many years, though recent research has made some promising advances. Although a cure for fibromyalgia has not yet been developed, research has shown that some of the symptoms can be treated with pharmaceuticals, such as tricyclics or gabapentinoids, or non-pharmacological methods, such as meditation, mindfulness, and cognitive behavior therapy. The most successful pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia has been tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline and nortriptyline. These drugs increase the levels of the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine, which are often found at decreased levels in the brains of people who suffer from chronic pain. By boosting endorphins and relaxing muscles, tricyclics can ease some of the musculoskeletal pain felt by people with fibromyalgia. Question: What is the main idea of the passage?
     • Scientists think that fibromyalgia might be a genetic disease, as there is little evidence that environmental factors play any role.
     • Fibromyalgia has a number of physical and psychological symptoms including nerve pain, fatigue, and mood disturbances to name a few.
     • Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by both physiological and psychological symptoms and can be treated but not cured.
     • The varied symptoms of Fibromyalgia often manifest themselves after some sort of physical or psychological stress.

     Correct answer: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by both physiological and psychological symptoms and can be treated but not cured.

     Answer: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by both physiological and psychological symptoms and can be treated but not cured. This statement clearly describes the main idea of the passage Fibromyalgia has a number of physical and psychological symptoms including nerve pain, fatigue, and mood disturbances to name a few only describes the symptoms of fibromyalgia, but the author also describes some of the leading treatments for the condition, too. The varied symptoms of Fibromyalgia often manifest themselves after some sort of physical or psychological stress is incorrect. While this statement is true, it does not mention the treatments for fibromyalgia, which are an important part of the main idea of the passage. Scientists think that fibromyalgia might be a genetic disease, as there is little evidence that environmental factors play any role contains incorrect information. The passage states that “there is also evidence that environmental factors can contribute.”

237. Dissociative Identity Disorder: Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID), formerly called multiple personality disorder, is a severe psychological condition in which two or more distinct identities are present in an individual. There has been a dramatic increase in the number of diagnosed cases of DID in the past 30 years. There has also been an increase in the number of different personalities reported, as well as more unusual personalities. This may be due to an increased awareness of the disease among clinicians. However, it might also be because there have been so many sensational portrayals of DID in popular media. Some believe that people fake the disorder in order to absolve themselves of guilt or gain attention. However, there is a good deal of research that suggests that DID is a legitimate illness. One of the strongest pieces of evidence is fact that it is found all over the world. There have been cases of DID reported in cities and villages across Turkey, Nigeria, Ethiopia, China, and India, among other places. It is unlikely that people living in rural or remote places have been influenced by portrayals of DID in films or television shows. Others argue that DID is the creation of overzealous clinicians who (unwittingly) induce highly suggestible clients to believe they have multiple personalities. These clinicians encourage clients to “bring out” the other personalities during hypnosis and reward them with praise for doing so, which then makes the clients more likely to believe that the other personalities are real. If this is the case, it may not be a “genuine” illness in that the clinicians have created it, but is this any different than a “genuine” mental illness that is fostered by other people’s influences on a client’s life? No matter what has caused the illness, it causes significant distress to the client, and therefore must be treated as a serious and “genuine” problem. Question: What is the best summary for the passage?
     • DID, formerly known as multiple personality disorder, is a serious psychological condition that affects people worldwide. The incidence of the disorder has dramatically increased in the past 30 years.
     • DID is a psychological condition in which two or more personalities are present in an individual. Some people think that it is a fake disease caused by the media or overzealous doctors. However, because it causes severe distress, it should be treated as a serious problem.
     • The incidence of DID, a psychological disorder that causes a person to have two or more distinct personalities, is on the rise. Interestingly, the disorder has been proven to be a fake one that people use to absolve themselves of guilt or pain.
     • DID is a psychological disorder whereby two or more personalities are present in one person. Some believe that it is a fake disorder, influenced by the media. Others think the disorder is caused by clinicians who induce suggestible clients to believe that they have the disorder.

     Correct answer: DID is a psychological condition in which two or more personalities are present in an individual. Some people think that it is a fake disease caused by the media or overzealous doctors. However, because it causes severe distress, it should be treated as a serious problem.

     Answer: DID is a psychological condition in which two or more personalities are present in an individual. Some people think that it is a fake disease caused by the media or overzealous doctors. However, because it causes severe distress, it should be treated as a serious problem. This answer choice clearly sums up the passage and includes all of the key ideas discussed in the text. DID, formerly known as multiple personality disorder, is a serious psychological condition that affects people worldwide. The incidence of the disorder has dramatically increased in the past 30 years. This answer choice does not clearly define DID. Also, it does not mention the fact that some people do not believe that DID is a genuine disorder. These are important ideas that need to be included in any summary of the passage. DID is a psychological disorder whereby two or more personalities are present in one person. Some believe that it is a fake disorder, influenced by the media. Others think the disorder is caused by clinicians who induce suggestible clients to believe that they have the disorder. This answer choice does not mention the author’s main point–that DID is a legitimate disease that causes real suffering. That point is necessary for a complete summary of the passage. The incidence of DID, a psychological disorder that causes a person to have two or more distinct personalities, is on the rise. Interestingly, the disorder has been proven to be a fake one that people use to absolve themselves of guilt or pain. This answer choice contains incorrect information. The author does not mention that anyone has proven that the disease is fake.

238. Hiccups: At some point in your life, you have probably had the hiccups. Hiccups are caused by spasms in the diaphragm, a muscle located at the bottom of your chest. As we inhale, the diaphragm contracts, pulling air into the lungs. As we exhale, the diaphragm relaxes, pushing air back out through the mouth and nose. When we hiccup, the diaphragm jerks downward suddenly, pulling a quick burst of air into our lungs. As the air rushes into your body, it hits the voice box. This causes your vocal cords to snap shut, creating the sound we recognize as a hiccup. Hiccups can be triggered by many different things—eating too much, drinking too fast, sudden change of temperature, stress, fatigue, nervousness, and even excessive laughter can all cause the hiccups. While there are many home remedies for hiccups, there is no evidence to suggest that any of them are actually effective. In fact, most cases of the hiccups go away on their own. Although hiccups are usually harmless, they can be a sign of something more serious. Long-term hiccups might be a result of damage to the nerves that serve the diaphragm muscle. Persistent hiccups might also be caused by certain central nervous system disorders, traumatic brain injuries, drug abuse, or kidney disease. Question: What is the main idea of the passage?
     • Hiccups can occur when the diaphragm moves downward suddenly, which pulls a quick burst of air into the lungs.
     • Hiccups are the result of spasms in the diaphragm and are usually harmless although persistent hiccups may be a sign of a serious problem.
     • Though hiccups are typically harmless, they can be the sign of nervous system disorders, brain injuries, or even drug abuse.
     • Although there are many home remedies for alleviating the hiccups, there is no scientific evidence suggesting that they actually work.

     Correct answer: Hiccups are the result of spasms in the diaphragm and are usually harmless although persistent hiccups may be a sign of a serious problem.

     Answer: Hiccups are the result of spasms in the diaphragm and are usually harmless although persistent hiccups may be a sign of a serious problem. This answer choice clearly states the main idea of the passage. Hiccups can occur when the diaphragm moves downward suddenly, which pulls a quick burst of air into the lungs is a true statement, but it only gives a partial explanation for why hiccups occur. The author also talks about what triggers hiccups, as well as possible remedies. Though hiccups are typically harmless, they can be the sign of nervous system disorders, brain injuries, or even drug abuse is true, but it does not address some major points made by the author. For example, it doesn’t mention how hiccups are produced or how to get rid of them. Although there are many home remedies for alleviating the hiccups, there is no scientific evidence suggesting that they actually work uses a factual, supporting point from the text, but leaves out important information.

239. Preventing Heart Disease: Heart disease is a life-threatening condition that kills millions of people every year. In fact, heart disease is the number one killer of human beings worldwide; over thirty percent of deaths every year are due to some form of cardiovascular disease. Although there are many different types of medications and surgical procedures that can treat heart disease, prevention is the most important factor in reducing the number of deaths. Proper nutrition is important in preventing heart disease. The recommended diet for a healthy heart is low in saturated fats, cholesterol, salt, and refined sugar. The diet should be high in fiber, whole grains, fruits, and vegetables. Smoking and excessive alcohol consumption should be avoided. Smoking increases the risk for heart disease at least ten-fold, and drinking too much alcohol can raise the levels of some fats in the blood and lead to high blood pressure and increase the risk of cardiovascular damage. Lack of physical exercise can also make a person more likely to suffer from heart disease. Participating regularly in aerobic exercise, which can include walking, jogging, dancing, or swimming significantly reduces the risk of heart disease. Another contributor to heart disease is stress. Constant stress can expose your body to persistently elevated levels of the stress hormones cortisol and adrenaline. High levels of these hormones can increase blood pressure and damage artery walls. Engaging in yoga, meditation, or other relaxation techniques can be helpful in reducing stress and lowering the risk of heart disease. Question: What is the best summary of the passage?
     • There are many different types of medications that can treat heart disease, but maintaining a healthy diet can aid in preventing heart disease in the first place.
     • Stress, smoking, and excessive alcohol consumption are some of the leading causes of cardiovascular disease.
     • Preventative measures, including proper nutrition and physical exercise, are one of the most important factors when dealing with heart disease and its threat to the global population.
     • Heart disease needs to be stopped or else it will claim more victims.

     Correct answer: Preventative measures, including proper nutrition and physical exercise, are one of the most important factors when dealing with heart disease and its threat to the global population.

     Answer: Preventative measures, including proper nutrition and physical exercise, are one of the most important factors when dealing with heart disease and its threat to the global population. This option is a concise summary of the passage, provides brief examples, and contains points made throughout the passage. Heart disease needs to be stopped or else it will claim more victims is more of a supporting detail but is not blatantly mentioned in the text. Therefore, it would not be a proper summary of the passage. Stress, smoking, and excessive alcohol consumption are some of the leading causes of cardiovascular disease is not concise or holistic enough to be a summary of the text. There are many different types of medications that can treat heart disease, but maintaining a healthy diet can aid in preventing heart disease in the first place is incorrect. The text does not mention the various types of medication that can treat heart disease, and this would not suffice as a summary of the passage.

240. Soda Ban: Cigarettes. Alcohol. Drugs. Most people agree that these things should be kept away from children and only consumed by adults in limited quantities, if at all. Is the same thing true for soda? A 20-ounce-bottle of soda has over sixteen teaspoons of sugar in it. This is twice the amount of sugar that the American Heart Association recommends a person should eat in an entire day. Furthermore, this 20-ounce bottle of soda delivers over 200 calories and no nutritive value; soda contains no vitamins, minerals, fiber, protein, or other nutrients. Drinking sodas and other sugary beverages can cause serious health problems. Consuming too many of these sugar-filled beverages may increase your risk for developing Type 2 diabetes, obesity, heart disease, tooth decay, and certain kinds of cancer. Studies have also shown that people who drink soda tend to develop a condition known as metabolic syndrome. Metabolic syndrome is a condition characterized by excess abdominal fat, high blood pressure, elevated blood sugar, high levels of triglycerides, and low levels of HDL cholesterol (commonly referred to as “good cholesterol”). Some places have already taken steps to reduce the amount of soda people consume. In California, for example, cafeterias and vending machines in grade schools can not sell soda. The city of Philadelphia also recently added a tax on sugary beverages, making sodas more expensive to purchase. Soda may taste good, but it is terrible for your health. There should be more bans and taxes to keep people from drinking these harmful beverages. What is the main idea of the passage?
     • Although it is not as obviously bad for health as other vices, soda and other sugary beverages can cause health problems.
     • Taxes and regulations are potential solutions to decreasing the harmful effects of soda.
     • The United States has started to take steps in order to reduce the amount of soda consumed.
     • Metabolic syndrome is a major threat to those who consume soda.

     Correct answer: Although it is not as obviously bad for health as other vices, soda and other sugary beverages can cause health problems.

     Answer: Although it is not as obviously bad for health as other vices, soda and other sugary beverages can cause health problems. This is the main idea of the passage, as it includes the necessary information regarding the fact that soda does not seem as dangerous as other vices (cigarettes, alcohol, drugs) and that it can cause problems. The United States has started to take steps in order to reduce the amount of soda consumed. Incorrect. This is a supporting detail and is not the main idea of the passage. This information is included in paragraph 4 and acts as a supporting detail to the fact that some places have taken steps to reduce the amount of soda consumed. Metabolic syndrome is a major threat to those who consume soda. Incorrect. This is not a thorough main idea, and it is a supporting detail found in paragraph 3. It aims to explain why soda and sugary beverages can be dangerous. Taxes and regulations are potential solutions to decreasing the harmful effects of soda. Incorrect. This is an opinion rather than the main idea of the passage. It is included as the last sentence of the passage and supports the idea of certain cities reducing the amount of soda people consume.

241. Concussions: Concussions are brain injuries that occur when a person receives a blow to the head, face, or neck. Although most people who suffer a concussion experience initial bouts of dizziness, nausea, and drowsiness, these symptoms often disappear after a few days. The long-term effects of concussions, however, are less understood and far more severe. Recent studies suggest that people who suffer multiple concussions are at significant risk for developing chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), a degenerative brain disorder that causes a variety of dangerous mental and emotional problems to arise weeks, months, or even years after the initial injury. These psychological problems can include depression, anxiety, memory loss, inability to concentrate, and aggression. In extreme cases, people suffering from CTE have even committed suicide or homicide. The majority of people who develop these issues are athletes who participate in popular high-impact sports, especially football. Improvements in diagnostic technology have provided substantial evidence to link severe—and often fatal—psychological disorders to the head injuries players receive while on the field. Recent autopsies performed on the brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced cases of CTE in every single victim. In response to the growing understanding of this danger, the National Football League (NFL) has revised its safety regulations. There is hope that these new regulations, coupled with advances in helmet design, will reduce the number of concussions player endure, and thus curb the number of CTE cases. Efforts by the NFL and other professional sports leagues are certainly laudable. However, new regulations at the professional level cannot protect amateur players, especially young people. Fatal cases of CTE have been reported in victims as young as 21. With appropriate equipment and form, tackling need not be dangerous. Proper tackling form—using the arms and shoulders to aim for a player’s midsection rather than leading with the top of the head—should be taught at an early age. Youth, high school, and college leagues should also adopt safety rules even more stringent than the NFL’s. Question: Which would best replace ‘stringent,’ used in the last sentence of the passage?
     • Fast-acting
     • Strict
     • Necessary
     • Advanced

     Correct answer: Strict

     Answer: Strict. The word ‘strict’ is a perfect synonym in this case. The author believes that youth, high school, and college leagues should be more strict than their NFL counterparts. The author discusses reasons why the safety rules should change, but ‘advance’ is not a synonym for ‘stringent.’ Although the author believes that stringent rules are necessary, the word in itself is not the appropriate synonym for the word ‘stringent.” The text does not make note regarding the speed at which new regulations should be put in place. In any case, ‘fast-acting’ is not an appropriate replacement for ‘stringent.’

242. Dissociative Identity Disorder: Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID), formerly called multiple personality disorder, is a severe psychological condition in which two or more distinct identities are present in an individual. There has been a dramatic increase in the number of diagnosed cases of DID in the past 30 years. There has also been an increase in the number of different personalities reported, as well as more unusual personalities. This may be due to an increased awareness of the disease among clinicians. However, it might also be because there have been so many sensational portrayals of DID in popular media. Some believe that people fake the disorder in order to absolve themselves of guilt or gain attention. However, there is a good deal of research that suggests that DID is a legitimate illness. One of the strongest pieces of evidence is fact that it is found all over the world. There have been cases of DID reported in cities and villages across Turkey, Nigeria, Ethiopia, China, and India, among other places. It is unlikely that people living in rural or remote places have been influenced by portrayals of DID in films or television shows. Others argue that DID is the creation of overzealous clinicians who (unwittingly) induce highly suggestible clients to believe they have multiple personalities. These clinicians encourage clients to “bring out” the other personalities during hypnosis and reward them with praise for doing so, which then makes the clients more likely to believe that the other personalities are real. If this is the case, it may not be a “genuine” illness in that the clinicians have created it, but is this any different than a “genuine” mental illness that is fostered by other people’s influences on a client’s life? No matter what has caused the illness, it causes significant distress to the client, and therefore must be treated as a serious and “genuine” problem. Question: What is the main idea of the passage?
     • Many people think that DID is a fake disorder that should not be taken seriously.
     • Although many people think that DID is fake, it is as real as any other psychological condition and should be treated as a real problem.
     • Cases of DID have been reported in countries around the world, including Turkey, Nigeria, Ethiopia, China, and India.
     • Dissociative Identity Disorder is a psychological condition in which two or more personalities are present in a single person.

     Correct answer: Although many people think that DID is fake, it is as real as any other psychological condition and should be treated as a real problem.

     Answer: Although many people think that DID is fake, it is as real as any other psychological condition and should be treated as a real problem. This statement clearly states the author’s main idea. Dissociative Identity Disorder is a psychological condition in which two or more personalities are present in a single person. This answer choice only provides a definition of DID and doesn’t mention the author’s main point that DID is a real disorder. Many people think that DID is a fake disorder that should not be taken seriously. It is true that many people feel that DID is a fake disorder. However, it fails to mention the author’s main point that DID is real. Cases of DID have been reported in countries around the world, including Turkey, Nigeria, Ethiopia, China, and India. This statement is just a fact that supports the author’s assertion that DID is a real disorder.

243. Concussions: Concussions are brain injuries that occur when a person receives a blow to the head, face, or neck. Although most people who suffer a concussion experience initial bouts of dizziness, nausea, and drowsiness, these symptoms often disappear after a few days. The long-term effects of concussions, however, are less understood and far more severe. Recent studies suggest that people who suffer multiple concussions are at significant risk for developing chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), a degenerative brain disorder that causes a variety of dangerous mental and emotional problems to arise weeks, months, or even years after the initial injury. These psychological problems can include depression, anxiety, memory loss, inability to concentrate, and aggression. In extreme cases, people suffering from CTE have even committed suicide or homicide. The majority of people who develop these issues are athletes who participate in popular high-impact sports, especially football. Improvements in diagnostic technology have provided substantial evidence to link severe—and often fatal—psychological disorders to the head injuries players receive while on the field. Recent autopsies performed on the brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced cases of CTE in every single victim. In response to the growing understanding of this danger, the National Football League (NFL) has revised its safety regulations. There is hope that these new regulations, coupled with advances in helmet design, will reduce the number of concussions player endure, and thus curb the number of CTE cases. Efforts by the NFL and other professional sports leagues are certainly laudable. However, new regulations at the professional level cannot protect amateur players, especially young people. Fatal cases of CTE have been reported in victims as young as 21. With appropriate equipment and form, tackling need not be dangerous. Proper tackling form—using the arms and shoulders to aim for a player’s midsection rather than leading with the top of the head—should be taught at an early age. Youth, high school, and college leagues should also adopt safety rules even more stringent than the NFL’s. Question: Why does the author include the detail “fatal cases of CTE have been reported in victims as young as 21” in the passage?
     • To give an example of the psychological dangers of advanced cases of CTE.
     • To support the argument that leagues involving young people should adopt stringent safety rules.
     • To support the opinion that the NFL should have more stringent regulations.

     Correct answer: To support the argument that leagues involving young people should adopt stringent safety rules.

     Answer: To support the argument that leagues involving young people should adopt stringent safety rules. The author uses this to back up his argument regarding the need for stringent rules in amateur leagues. Since fatal cases of CTE have been reported in young people, there is a need to impose stricter safety rules to curb the problem. The detail does not necessarily give an example of the psychological dangers of advanced cases of CTE, as it only includes information regarding its fatality. To support the opinion that the NFL should have more stringent regulations is incorrect since the NFL cannot protect amateur players, especially young people, this detail does not support the NFL’s regulations. To support the argument that safe ways to tackle need to be taught at an early age is incorrect. Although the author discusses the importance of providing safety education, it is separate from this detail.

244. Dissociative Identity Disorder: Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID), formerly called multiple personality disorder, is a severe psychological condition in which two or more distinct identities are present in an individual. There has been a dramatic increase in the number of diagnosed cases of DID in the past 30 years. There has also been an increase in the number of different personalities reported, as well as more unusual personalities. This may be due to an increased awareness of the disease among clinicians. However, it might also be because there have been so many sensational portrayals of DID in popular media. Some believe that people fake the disorder in order to absolve themselves of guilt or gain attention. However, there is a good deal of research that suggests that DID is a legitimate illness. One of the strongest pieces of evidence is fact that it is found all over the world. There have been cases of DID reported in cities and villages across Turkey, Nigeria, Ethiopia, China, and India, among other places. It is unlikely that people living in rural or remote places have been influenced by portrayals of DID in films or television shows. Others argue that DID is the creation of overzealous clinicians who (unwittingly) induce highly suggestible clients to believe they have multiple personalities. These clinicians encourage clients to “bring out” the other personalities during hypnosis and reward them with praise for doing so, which then makes the clients more likely to believe that the other personalities are real. If this is the case, it may not be a “genuine” illness in that the clinicians have created it, but is this any different than a “genuine” mental illness that is fostered by other people’s influences on a client’s life? No matter what has caused the illness, it causes significant distress to the client, and therefore must be treated as a serious and “genuine” problem. Question: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
     • The incidence of DID is on the rise.
     • A person with DID may display several different personas.
     • DID occurs when people attempt to absolve themselves of pain or guilt.
     • DID was once known by the name multiple personality disorder.

     Correct answer: DID occurs when people attempt to absolve themselves of pain or guilt.

     Answer: DID occurs when people attempt to absolve themselves of pain or guilt. The author states that some people feel that DID is caused by this. However, the author disputes this notion in the information that follows. The author cites a “good deal of research” that suggests DID is a legitimate illness. DID was once known by the name multiple personality disorder. The author states that DID was “formerly called multiple personality disorder.” A person with DID may display several different personas. The author states that “DID is a severe psychological condition in which two or more distinct identities are present in an individual.” The incidence of DID is on the rise. The author states that “There has been a dramatic increase in the number of diagnosed cases of DID in the past 30 years.”

245. Dissociative Identity Disorder: Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID), formerly called multiple personality disorder, is a severe psychological condition in which two or more distinct identities are present in an individual. There has been a dramatic increase in the number of diagnosed cases of DID in the past 30 years. There has also been an increase in the number of different personalities reported, as well as more unusual personalities. This may be due to an increased awareness of the disease among clinicians. However, it might also be because there have been so many sensational portrayals of DID in popular media. Some believe that people fake the disorder in order to absolve themselves of guilt or gain attention. However, there is a good deal of research that suggests that DID is a legitimate illness. One of the strongest pieces of evidence is fact that it is found all over the world. There have been cases of DID reported in cities and villages across Turkey, Nigeria, Ethiopia, China, and India, among other places. It is unlikely that people living in rural or remote places have been influenced by portrayals of DID in films or television shows. Others argue that DID is the creation of overzealous clinicians who (unwittingly) induce highly suggestible clients to believe they have multiple personalities. These clinicians encourage clients to “bring out” the other personalities during hypnosis and reward them with praise for doing so, which then makes the clients more likely to believe that the other personalities are real. If this is the case, it may not be a “genuine” illness in that the clinicians have created it, but is this any different than a “genuine” mental illness that is fostered by other people’s influences on a client’s life? No matter what has caused the illness, it causes significant distress to the client, and therefore must be treated as a serious and “genuine” problem. Question: Why does the author pose a question to readers in the last paragraph?
     • To suggest that DID is a disorder created by overzealous clinicians.
     • To introduce her assertion that DID is as real as any psychological disorder.
     • To offer some data regarding the number of people worldwide who suffer from DID.
     • To question whether some clinicians are using the proper means of treating DID.

     Correct answer: To introduce her assertion that DID is as real as any psychological disorder.

     To introduce her assertion that DID is as real as any psychological disorder.

246. Preventing Heart Disease: Heart disease is a life-threatening condition that kills millions of people every year. In fact, heart disease is the number one killer of human beings worldwide; over thirty percent of deaths every year are due to some form of cardiovascular disease. Although there are many different types of medications and surgical procedures that can treat heart disease, prevention is the most important factor in reducing the number of deaths. Proper nutrition is important in preventing heart disease. The recommended diet for a healthy heart is low in saturated fats, cholesterol, salt, and refined sugar. The diet should be high in fiber, whole grains, fruits, and vegetables. Smoking and excessive alcohol consumption should be avoided. Smoking increases the risk for heart disease at least ten-fold, and drinking too much alcohol can raise the levels of some fats in the blood and lead to high blood pressure and increase the risk of cardiovascular damage. Lack of physical exercise can also make a person more likely to suffer from heart disease. Participating regularly in aerobic exercise, which can include walking, jogging, dancing, or swimming significantly reduces the risk of heart disease. Another contributor to heart disease is stress. Constant stress can expose your body to persistently elevated levels of the stress hormones cortisol and adrenaline. High levels of these hormones can increase blood pressure and damage artery walls. Engaging in yoga, meditation, or other relaxation techniques can be helpful in reducing stress and lowering the risk for heart disease. Question: According to the text, what is the relationship between alcohol consumption and fats in the blood?
     • If large quantities of alcohol are consumed, it is possible that fat levels in the blood could increase.
     • As more alcohol is consumed, fewer fats are present in the blood, which lead to high blood pressure.
     • Alcohol can lower blood pressure while increasing some fat levels in the blood.
     • Even by drinking a small quantity of alcohol, it is possible that high blood pressure could increase.

     Correct answer: If large quantities of alcohol are consumed, it is possible that fat levels in the blood could increase.

     Answer: If large quantities of alcohol are consumed, it is possible that fat levels in the blood could increase. In paragraph 3, the relationship between alcohol consumption and fats is explained. “Drinking too much alcohol can raise the levels of some fats in the blood and lead to high blood pressure.” Therefore, it is correct that if large quantities are consumed, fat levels could possibly increase. As more alcohol is consumed, fewer fats are present in the blood, which lead to high blood pressure is incorrect. In paragraph 3, the relationship between alcohol consumption and fats is explained. “Drinking too much alcohol can raise the levels of some fats in the blood and lead to high blood pressure.” Thus, this option is incorrect because large quantities of alcohol could increase the levels of some fats. Alcohol can lower blood pressure while increasing some fat levels in the blood is incorrect. In paragraph 3, the relationship between alcohol consumption and fats is explained. “Drinking too much alcohol can raise the levels of some fats in the blood and lead to high blood pressure.” Therefore, the information in this option is incorrect because blood pressure can be increased, not lowered. Even by drinking a small quantity of alcohol, it is possible that high blood pressure could increase is incorrect. In paragraph 3, the relationship between alcohol consumption and fats is explained. “Drinking too much alcohol can raise the levels of some fats in the blood and lead to high blood pressure.” Based on the text, it is incorrect to state that by drinking a small quantity of alcohol, high blood pressure could increase.

247. Soda Ban: Cigarettes. Alcohol. Drugs. Most people agree that these things should be kept away from children and only consumed by adults in limited quantities, if at all. Is the same thing true for soda? A 20-ounce-bottle of soda has over sixteen teaspoons of sugar in it. This is twice the amount of sugar that the American Heart Association recommends a person should eat in an entire day. Furthermore, this 20-ounce bottle of soda delivers over 200 calories and no nutritive value; soda contains no vitamins, minerals, fiber, protein, or other nutrients. Drinking sodas and other sugary beverages can cause serious health problems. Consuming too many of these sugar-filled beverages may increase your risk for developing type 2 diabetes, obesity, heart disease, tooth decay, and certain kinds of cancer. Studies have also shown that people who drink soda tend to develop a condition known as metabolic syndrome. Metabolic syndrome is a condition characterized by excess abdominal fat, high blood pressure, elevated blood sugar, high levels of triglycerides, and low levels of HDL cholesterol (commonly referred to as “good cholesterol”). Some places have already taken steps to reduce the amount of soda people consume. In California, for example, cafeterias and vending machines in grade schools can not sell soda. The city of Philadelphia also recently added a tax on sugary beverages, making sodas more expensive to purchase. Soda may taste good, but it is terrible for your health. There should be more bans and taxes to keep people from drinking these harmful beverages. Which of these options is an example of opinion, rather than factual information?
     • People may find the taste of soda appealing, but it is directly linked to metabolic syndrome.
     • People may find the taste of soda appealing, but it is taxed at a higher rate because of its negative effects.
     • People may find the taste of soda appealing, but it is not good for your health.
     • People may find the taste of soda appealing, but people should stay away from it at all costs.

     Correct answer: People may find the taste of soda appealing, but people should stay away from it at all costs.

     Answer: People may find the taste of soda appealing, but people should stay away from it at all costs. This is an example of opinion, rather than factual information, because it states that people should stay away from it at all costs. There is not any information included that suggests one should absolutely avoid even a sip of soda. The passage describes how drinking too many of sugar-filled beverages can cause health problems but is not so extreme to state that it should not be consumed at all. People may find the taste of soda appealing, but it is not good for your health. Incorrect. This is an example of factual information because there are ways to prove that soda is not good for one’s health. People may find the taste of soda appealing, but it is taxed at a higher rate because of its negative effects. Incorrect. This is an example of factual information because it can be proved that some places (such as Philadelphia, described in paragraph 4) have imposed higher taxes due to soda’s negative effects. People may find the taste of soda appealing, but it is directly linked to metabolic syndrome. Incorrect. This is an example of factual information because it can be proved that soda is linked to metabolic syndrome, as stated in paragraph 3.

248. Hiccups: At some point in your life, you have probably had the hiccups. Hiccups are caused by spasms in the diaphragm, a muscle located at the bottom of your chest. As we inhale, the diaphragm contracts, pulling air into the lungs. As we exhale, the diaphragm relaxes, pushing air back out through the mouth and nose. When we hiccup, the diaphragm jerks downward suddenly, pulling a quick burst of air into our lungs. As the air rushes into your body, it hits the voice box. This causes your vocal cords to snap shut, creating the sound we recognize as a hiccup. Hiccups can be triggered by many different things—eating too much, drinking too fast, sudden change of temperature, stress, fatigue, nervousness, and even excessive laughter can all cause the hiccups. While there are many home remedies for hiccups, there is no evidence to suggest that any of them are actually effective. In fact, most cases of the hiccups go away on their own. Although hiccups are usually harmless, they can be a sign of something more serious. Long-term hiccups might be a result of damage to the nerves that serve the diaphragm muscle. Persistent hiccups might also be caused by certain central nervous system disorders, traumatic brain injuries, drug abuse, or kidney disease. Question: What is the primary cause of the characteristic sound that a hiccup makes?
     • The contraction of the diaphragm which forces air out of the lungs.
     • Air hitting the voice box which causes the vocal cords to quickly close.
     • Exhaling too quickly which forces air out of the nose and mouth.
     • A slackness of the diaphragm which keeps air in our lungs.

     Correct answer: Air hitting the voice box which causes the vocal cords to quickly close.

     Answer: Air hitting the voice box which causes the vocal cords to quickly close. The author states that “as the air rushes into your body, it hits the voice box. This causes your vocal cords to snap shut, creating the sound we recognize as a hiccup.” The contraction of the diaphragm which forces air out of the lungs is incorrect. The author states that it is the rapid intake of air, not the forcing of air out of the lungs, that causes the hiccups. Exhaling too quickly which forces air out of the nose and mouth is incorrect. The author states that it is the rapid intake of air, not the forcing of air out of the lungs, that causes the hiccups. A “slackness” of the diaphragm is not the cause of the hiccups. Rather, hiccups occur when there are spasms in the diaphragm.

249. Hiccups: At some point in your life, you have probably had the hiccups. Hiccups are caused by spasms in the diaphragm, a muscle located at the bottom of your chest. As we inhale, the diaphragm contracts, pulling air into the lungs. As we exhale, the diaphragm relaxes, pushing air back out through the mouth and nose. When we hiccup, the diaphragm jerks downward suddenly, pulling a quick burst of air into our lungs. As the air rushes into your body, it hits the voice box. This causes your vocal cords to snap shut, creating the sound we recognize as a hiccup. Hiccups can be triggered by many different things—eating too much, drinking too fast, sudden change of temperature, stress, fatigue, nervousness, and even excessive laughter can all cause the hiccups. While there are many home remedies for hiccups, there is no evidence to suggest that any of them are actually effective. In fact, most cases of the hiccups go away on their own. Although hiccups are usually harmless, they can be a sign of something more serious. Long-term hiccups might be a result of damage to the nerves that serve the diaphragm muscle. Persistent hiccups might also be caused by certain central nervous system disorders, traumatic brain injuries, drug abuse, or kidney disease. Question: What is the meaning of the word triggered in paragraph 2?
     • Cured
     • Avoided
     • Caused
     • Damaged

     Correct answer: Caused

     Answer: Caused. The author offers several causes of hiccups in the first sentence of paragraph 2; therefore, caused must be the correct answer choice. There are no context clues suggesting that hiccups can be avoided by any of what follows in the passage. There are no context clues suggesting that hiccups can be cured by any of what follows in the passage. Rather, the opposite is true–hiccups are caused by the events that follow. When placed in the target sentence, the word damaged does not make any sense. Therefore it cannot be the correct answer choice.

250. Preventing Heart Disease: Heart disease is a life-threatening condition that kills millions of people every year. In fact, heart disease is the number one killer of human beings worldwide; over thirty percent of deaths every year are due to some form of cardiovascular disease. Although there are many different types of medications and surgical procedures that can treat heart disease, prevention is the most important factor in reducing the number of deaths. Proper nutrition is important in preventing heart disease. The recommended diet for a healthy heart is low in saturated fats, cholesterol, salt, and refined sugar. The diet should be high in fiber, whole grains, fruits, and vegetables. Smoking and excessive alcohol consumption should be avoided. Smoking increases the risk for heart disease at least ten-fold, and drinking too much alcohol can raise the levels of some fats in the blood and lead to high blood pressure and increase the risk of cardiovascular damage. Lack of physical exercise can also make a person more likely to suffer from heart disease. Participating regularly in aerobic exercise, which can include walking, jogging, dancing, or swimming significantly reduces the risk of heart disease. Another contributor to heart disease is stress. Constant stress can expose your body to persistently elevated levels of the stress hormones cortisol and adrenaline. High levels of these hormones can increase blood pressure and damage artery walls. Engaging in yoga, meditation, or other relaxation techniques can be helpful in reducing stress and lowering the risk of heart disease. Question: What can be inferred from a person with constantly elevated stress levels, according to the passage?
     • They are not at high risk for heart disease.
     • The person will need to engage in yoga and meditation.
     • It is possible that the artery walls could experience damage.
     • There is not enough cortisol or adrenaline in the system.

     Correct answer: It is possible that the artery walls could experience damage.

     Answer: It is possible that the artery walls could experience damage. In paragraph 5, the author explains that high levels of cortisol and adrenaline, caused by constant stress, can damage artery walls. Therefore, the information in this option could be inferred. The person will need to engage in yoga and meditation. Although yoga and meditation is listed as being able to help those who experience high levels of stress, it is incorrect to infer that the person needs to undergo these practices. There is not enough cortisol or adrenaline in the system is incorrect. The opposite of this is true, as stated in paragraph 5. When a person is constantly under elevated stress levels, he or she will likely have high cortisol or adrenaline levels in the system. They are not at high risk for heart disease is incorrect. The opposite of this is true, as is stated at the beginning of paragraph 5: “another contributor to heart disease is stress”. Therefore, this is incorrect.

251. Soda Ban: Cigarettes. Alcohol. Drugs. Most people agree that these things should be kept away from children and only consumed by adults in limited quantities, if at all. Is the same thing true for soda? A 20-ounce-bottle of soda has over sixteen teaspoons of sugar in it. This is twice the amount of sugar that the American Heart Association recommends a person should eat in an entire day. Furthermore, this 20-ounce bottle of soda delivers over 200 calories and no nutritive value; soda contains no vitamins, minerals, fiber, protein, or other nutrients. Drinking sodas and other sugary beverages can cause serious health problems. Consuming too many of these sugar-filled beverages may increase your risk for developing Type 2 diabetes, obesity, heart disease, tooth decay, and certain kinds of cancer. Studies have also shown that people who drink soda tend to develop a condition known as metabolic syndrome. Metabolic syndrome is a condition characterized by excess abdominal fat, high blood pressure, elevated blood sugar, high levels of triglycerides, and low levels of HDL cholesterol (commonly referred to as “good cholesterol”). Some places have already taken steps to reduce the amount of soda people consume. In California, for example, cafeterias and vending machines in grade schools can not sell soda. The city of Philadelphia also recently added a tax on sugary beverages, making sodas more expensive to purchase. Soda may taste good, but it is terrible for your health. There should be more bans and taxes to keep people from drinking these harmful beverages. Which detail supports the idea that people have taken action against soda?
     • A 20-ounce bottle of soda contains a large amount of sugar.
     • The amount of sugar the American Heart Association recommends a person should consume in one day is less than what is included in a 20-ounce bottle of soda.
     • People who drink soda often are at a higher risk for metabolic syndrome.
     • In the state of California, vending machines and cafeterias cannot sell soda in grade schools.

     Correct answer: In the state of California, vending machines and cafeterias cannot sell soda in grade schools.

     Answer: In the state of California, vending machines and cafeterias cannot sell soda in grade schools. In paragraph 4, this information is provided to support the idea that people have taken action against soda and provide an example as to how. A 20-ounce bottle of soda contains a large amount of sugar. Incorrect. Although this is true, according to paragraph 2, it does not support the idea that people have taken action against soda. If anything, it supports the idea that soda can have negative effects on one’s health. The amount of sugar the American Heart Association recommends a person should consume in one day is less than what is included in a 20-ounce bottle of soda. Incorrect. This is information provided in paragraph 2, but does not support the idea that people have taken action against soda. It supports the idea that soda can have negative effects on one’s health. People who drink soda often are at a higher risk for metabolic syndrome. Incorrect. This information, included in paragraph 3, provides an example of how sugar can have negative effects on one’s health.

252. Evolution: From Wolves to Man’s Best Friend: According to a recent poll, dogs are considered to be the most popular and sought after pet for American families. Interestingly enough, what we now understand to be “man’s best friend” was once an independent predator that roamed wild lands. The transformation from wolves to dogs is not only a stunning example of evolution, but it also provides a fascinating look into how wolves have adapted to live in harmony with mankind. When it comes to interactions between species, most DNA experts agree that the long-standing relationship between mankind and dogs is a great mystery. How did our ancestors take on the idea of training a wild animal in hopes of creating a trusted animal ally? Aside from a recent discovery of animal fossils found in the Czech Republic, most data surrounding the evolution of wolves is inconclusive. Moreover, scientists and researchers in the field hold vastly different ideas when it comes to specific dates and explanations regarding the transformation. What is certain, however, is that the evolution of wolves into dogs happened over the course of at least a hundred thousand years. On a general level, it seems as though each theory that serves to explain the progress is paired with another specific theory that deflates the idea. For instance, one popular theory regarding the domestication of wolves posits that humans stole wolf pups from their dens in hopes of training them to protect their families. However, this idea has recently been debunked based on fossil evidence and a better understanding of ancient times through anthropological research. Instead, some experts believe that wolves were actually drawn to humans, and initiated friendly contact due to the excess food waste left in villages. Basically, wolves may have understood domestication as a means of survival, in that food was a guarantee in what may have been an otherwise difficult period for finding prey. If the latter theory is valid, it would seem that the beginning stages of this relationship were more advantageous for wolves. However, the theory of coevolution can shed light on how the relationship benefitted both parties. Many believe that wolves and humans coevolved, in that they affected each other’s evolution for the better and worked together. Wolves, for example, were able to assist humans when hunting for food, thanks to their extreme senses of sight and smell. On the other hand, humans looked after wolves and provided them shelter from outside elements. Of course, the physical and emotional habits of wolves transformed throughout this process. In other words, the first wolves cared for by humans were most likely presented with changes in metabolism due to decreased activity levels and an increased food supply. As these changes carried on through generations, domesticated wolves took on a smaller physical stature and a more relaxed emotional state. Despite these fascinating shifts, it is still possible to recognize the genetic link between wild wolves and America’s most playful pet. What is the main idea of the passage?
     • More DNA evidence is needed to truly confirm the theories that have been developed by scientists.
     • Theories regarding the evolution of wolves into dogs vary greatly.
     • The evolution of wolves into dogs likely included emotional and physical changes, along with a period of adapting to humans.
     • Had humans not taken wolf pups from their dens for companionship, wolves may never have evolved into domesticated animals.

     Correct answer: The evolution of wolves into dogs likely included emotional and physical changes, along with a period of adapting to humans.

     The evolution of wolves into dogs likely included emotional and physical changes, along with a period of adapting to humans is the correct answer. This statement provides an overview of the entire passage, hinting on the findings included in various theories, and providing a general idea of all the author’s main points. Theories regarding the evolution of wolves into dogs vary greatly. This is incorrect. Although this is discussed throughout the passage, it leaves out a large part of the main idea, which includes the evidence pertaining to this finding. Had humans not taken wolf pups from their dens for companionship, wolves may never have evolved into domesticated animals. This is incorrect. While the author provides information regarding humans’ role on the domestication of wolves, this specific idea is linked to a theory that has been contradicted. If anything, this idea is used as a supporting detail for some theories mentioned by the author. More DNA evidence is needed to truly confirm the theories that have been developed by scientists. This is incorrect. The author mentions DNA experts and their role in understanding evolution, but does not make a larger argument regarding the necessity of more DNA evidence.

253. Concussions: Concussions are brain injuries that occur when a person receives a blow to the head, face, or neck. Although most people who suffer a concussion experience initial bouts of dizziness, nausea, and drowsiness, these symptoms often disappear after a few days. The long-term effects of concussions, however, are less understood and far more severe. Recent studies suggest that people who suffer multiple concussions are at significant risk for developing chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), a degenerative brain disorder that causes a variety of dangerous mental and emotional problems to arise weeks, months, or even years after the initial injury. These psychological problems can include depression, anxiety, memory loss, inability to concentrate, and aggression. In extreme cases, people suffering from CTE have even committed suicide or homicide. The majority of people who develop these issues are athletes who participate in popular high-impact sports, especially football. Improvements in diagnostic technology have provided substantial evidence to link severe—and often fatal—psychological disorders to the head injuries players receive while on the field. Recent autopsies performed on the brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced cases of CTE in every single victim. In response to the growing understanding of this danger, the National Football League (NFL) has revised its safety regulations. There is hope that these new regulations, coupled with advances in helmet design, will reduce the number of concussions player endure, and thus curb the number of CTE cases. Efforts by the NFL and other professional sports leagues are certainly laudable. However, new regulations at the professional level cannot protect amateur players, especially young people. Fatal cases of CTE have been reported in victims as young as 21. With appropriate equipment and form, tackling need not be dangerous. Proper tackling form—using the arms and shoulders to aim for a player’s midsection rather than leading with the top of the head—should be taught at an early age. Youth, high school, and college leagues should also adopt safety rules even more stringent than the NFL’s. Question: Which supporting detail is an example of an opinion, rather than factual information?
     • Regulations that protect professional sports leagues do not mean that amateur and school leagues are equally protected.
     • Understanding ways to approach tackling in the proper way should be taught early on in sports teams.
     • Fatal cases of CTE have been reported in young victims.
     • In some cases, football players who develop CTE have been involved in murders or suicides.

     Correct answer: Understanding ways to approach tackling in the proper way should be taught early on in sports teams.

     Answer: Understanding ways to approach tackling in the proper way should be taught early on in sports teams. This is considered an opinion because the text does not include factual information (statistics, for example) regarding tackling. Regulations that protect professional sports leagues do not mean that amateur and school leagues are equally protected is considered factual information. According to the text, amateur and school leagues are not protected under regulations that affect professional leagues, such as the NFL. Fatal cases of CTE have been reported in young victims is factual information since the information has been reported and is an example of the effects of CTE. In some cases, football players who develop CTE have been involved in murders or suicides is factual information based on the negative effects of CTE involving football players.

254. Nature’s Pharmacy: Paracelsus, a Swiss physician and alchemist who was considered a pioneer in medicinal practices during the Renaissance, was once quoted as saying, “Amidst the plains and mountains lie the best pharmacies”. While groups of homeopathic healers have long believed that nature may hold the secret to curing ailments, recent studies have also suggested that plants may be valid alternatives when fighting illness and disease. Even so, will patients be willing to rely solely on nature’s pharmacy, rather than their trusted brick and mortar drug stores? The latest research on the topic leads to interesting facts and figures. In past centuries, the use of plants and herbs to cure ailments was a popular solution. However, it began to lose credibility in the 19th century, with the advent of pharmaceutical drugs. Phytotherapy, an allopathic discipline that uses natural extracts as medicines, was the most prominent medicinal therapy in the 1800s. In the 1900s, however, controversy regarding the lack of control measures in their manufacturing processes, coupled with the advent of pharmaceutical medicine, led to the decline of natural remedies and their popularity. Thanks to the current, more stringent protocol in the manufacturing process, though, alternative medicine is making a comeback. Unbeknownst to most of the population, phytotherapy must be studied by a trained and qualified professional. With this in mind, simply browsing the “Botanicals and Natural Remedies” aisle at the local pharmacy, or using lavender oil to help get rid of a headache, could actually do more harm than good. Without in-depth and accurate knowledge regarding the potential healing properties and side effects of various plants, using these natural supplements could alter the body’s healing cycles and possibly interfere with the use of other pharmaceutical drugs. Thanks to the fact that phytotherapy has become an internationally-recognized area of study, universities around the world offer academic programs dedicated to understanding the chemical properties of plants. However, access to more knowledge on a topic may not automatically persuade people to turn to natural supplements when battling general ailments. In fact, according to a recent survey, psychologists believe that it will take at least a few years before the average person includes natural supplements in their medicine cabinets. Moreover, people are unlikely to trust the input of holistic medical practitioners, even if they hold advanced degrees in phytotherapy. On the other hand, research suggests that once these facts become part of the mainstream medical industry, people may be open to new therapies. Until then, the potential curing effects of nature’s pharmacies may likely remain in classroom universities and history textbooks. What is the main idea of the passage?
     • The history and study of phytotherapy are extensive, and research shows that the discipline could return to mainstream medicinal practices, but only under certain circumstances.
     • The discipline of phytotherapy was once a popular choice for treating ailments in the 1800s, but this changed with the advent of pharmaceuticals.
     • Despite its use throughout history, recent surveys suggest that phytotherapy is unlikely to become popular in the medicinal field.
     • Homeopathic healers and scientific investigations have proven that phytotherapy is beneficial for healing ailments.

     Correct answer: The history and study of phytotherapy are extensive, and research shows that the discipline could return to mainstream medicinal practices, but only under certain circumstances.

     The history and study of phytotherapy are extensive, and research shows that the discipline could return to mainstream medicinal practices, but only under certain circumstances is correct. It best describes the main idea of the entire passage, since it mentions the fact that phytotherapy’s history is extensive, and that researchers have studied whether or not it could make a comeback in society. The fact that “under certain circumstances” is used in this option shows that it could or could not happen, which is the main idea of the passage. Homeopathic healers and scientific investigations have proven that phytotherapy is beneficial for healing ailments. This is incorrect. The author includes information regarding the fact that both homeopathic healers and recent investigations suggest that plants could be useful in healing diseases. However, this is not the main idea of the passage, and further information leads to speculation in subsequent paragraphs. The discipline of phytotherapy was once a popular choice in treating ailments in the 1800s, but this changed with the advent of pharmaceuticals. This is incorrect. This idea is the main idea of the second paragraph, but would not suffice for the entire passage, since it is quite specific to the history of phytotherapy. Despite its use throughout history, recent surveys suggest that phytotherapy is unlikely to become popular in the medicinal field. This is incorrect. Although the answer option includes phytotherapy’s use throughout history, it only includes one side of the argument presented in the last paragraph. That is, the main idea of the passage does not rely solely on the claim that phytotherapy is unlikely to become popular again since this is only one side of the findings. Rather, the main idea of the passage is that its resurgence in society could or could not happen.

255. When Dinosaurs Coughed: Centuries of research and fossil evidence have allowed us to visualize various aspects of dinosaurs, ranging from how they looked to how they acted. Thanks to a recent study that analyzed fossil remains discovered in Montana, it is possible that dinosaurs may have even caught and dealt with the annoying symptoms of the common cold, just like humans do! During an excavation, paleontologists uncovered the remains of a diplodocid, a large herbivore with a long neck. Due to its size, this type of dinosaur breathed in air through sacs in its neck, which were directly connected to its respiratory system. The fossil remains of the dinosaur indicated that a pathogen had infected its lungs and respiratory system. Although researchers have not yet pinpointed the exact source of the infection, one hypothesis posits that it is the Aspergillus fungus, which infects reptiles and birds to this day. No matter the origin, the study shows that the illness caused symptoms similar to a cough and increased body temperature, which are indicative of the common cold. Which of the following is true, based on the passage?
     • The Aspergillus fungus was more prevalent on the Earth when dinosaurs were alive, compared to present day.
     • Fossil remains prove that Diplodocid dinosaurs had a harder time breathing when compared to other dinosaurs.
     • The anatomy of the Diplodocid dinosaur had an impact on how it drew in and transported air to the rest of its body.
     • The Diplodocid dinosaur was more susceptible to illness due to its diet of mostly plants and vegetation.

     Correct answer: The anatomy of the Diplodocid dinosaur had an impact on how it drew in and transported air to the rest of its body.

     The anatomy of the Diplodocid dinosaur had an impact on how it drew in and transported air to the rest of its body is the correct answer. This is the correct answer. The statement, “Due to its size, this type of dinosaur breathed in air through sacs in its neck, which were directly connected to its respiratory system”, proves this supporting detail to be correct. Fossil remains prove that Diplodocid dinosaurs had a harder time breathing when compared to other dinosaurs. This is incorrect. The statement is not necessarily true. The paragraph tells us that the fossil remains of one Diplodocid “proved that a pathogen had infected its lungs and respiratory system”. The information does not compare the Diplodocid to any other dinosaur, and so we cannot logically infer that they had a harder time breathing than other dinosaurs. The Aspergillus fungus was more prevalent on the Earth when dinosaurs were alive, compared to present day. This is incorrect. When it comes to the prevalence of this fungus, the text only states that “…one hypothesis posits that it is the Aspergillus fungus, which infects reptiles and birds to this day”. This shows that the fungus still exists, but we cannot state that it was more prevalent when dinosaurs were alive. The Diplodocid dinosaur was more susceptible to illness due to its diet of mostly plants and vegetation. This is incorrect. The text tells us that the Diplodocid was “a large herbivore with a long neck”, which means that it ate only plants. However, the text does not say anything about why the remains of the Diplodocid were infected with the pathogen.

256. Nature’s Pharmacy: Paracelsus, a Swiss physician and alchemist who was considered a pioneer in medicinal practices during the Renaissance, was once quoted as saying, “Amidst the plains and mountains lie the best pharmacies”. While groups of homeopathic healers have long believed that nature may hold the secret to curing ailments, recent studies have also suggested that plants may be valid alternatives when fighting illness and disease. Even so, will patients be willing to rely solely on nature’s pharmacy, rather than their trusted brick and mortar drug stores? The latest research on the topic leads to interesting facts and figures. In past centuries, the use of plants and herbs to cure ailments was a popular solution. However, it began to lose credibility in the 19th century, with the advent of pharmaceutical drugs. Phytotherapy, an allopathic discipline that uses natural extracts as medicines, was the most prominent medicinal therapy in the 1800s. In the 1900s, however, controversy regarding the lack of control measures in their manufacturing processes, coupled with the advent of pharmaceutical medicine, led to the decline of natural remedies and their popularity. Thanks to the current, more stringent protocol in the manufacturing process, though, alternative medicine is making a comeback. Unbeknownst to most of the population, phytotherapy must be studied by a trained and qualified professional. With this in mind, simply browsing the “Botanicals and Natural Remedies” aisle at the local pharmacy, or using lavender oil to help get rid of a headache, could actually do more harm than good. Without in-depth and accurate knowledge regarding the potential healing properties and side effects of various plants, using these natural supplements could alter the body’s healing cycles and possibly interfere with the use of other pharmaceutical drugs. Thanks to the fact that phytotherapy has become an internationally-recognized area of study, universities around the world offer academic programs dedicated to understanding the chemical properties of plants. However, access to more knowledge on a topic may not automatically persuade people to turn to natural supplements when battling general ailments. In fact, according to a recent survey, psychologists believe that it will take at least a few years before the average person includes natural supplements in their medicine cabinets. Moreover, people are unlikely to trust the input of holistic medical practitioners, even if they hold advanced degrees in phytotherapy. On the other hand, research suggests that once these facts become part of the mainstream medical industry, people may be open to new therapies. Until then, the potential curing effects of nature’s pharmacies may likely remain in classroom universities and history textbooks. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?
     • It is possible to attend university specifically for phytotherapy.
     • An accurate understanding of phytotherapy involves specific knowledge regarding plants’ chemical properties, among other things.
     • It is unlikely that people will truly understand phytotherapy.
     • It is likely that people will misuse phytotherapy, since they may not understand the extensive amount of knowledge that goes into the discipline.

     Correct answer: An accurate understanding of phytotherapy involves specific knowledge regarding plants’ chemical properties, among other things.

     An accurate understanding of phytotherapy involves specific knowledge regarding plants’ chemical properties, among other things is correct. In general, this paragraph describes the necessary understanding regarding phytotherapy, and provides some examples. It is possible to attend university specifically for phytotherapy. This is incorrect. The author provides this statement at the end of the paragraph, but it is not the main idea of the paragraph. It is unlikely that people will truly understand phytotherapy. This is incorrect. The paragraph opens with the idea that most people may not realize that phytotherapy requires extensive study, but this is not the main idea of the paragraph. Additionally, the author would not necessarily agree with this option, based on the information given in the paragraph or passage. It is likely that people will misuse phytotherapy, since they may not understand the extensive amount of knowledge that goes into the discipline. This is incorrect. The author does not necessarily comment on the probability of anything in this paragraph. Although the author includes brief examples of how phytotherapy could alter the body’s healing cycles, it is not the main idea of the paragraph.

257. Is There Anybody Out There? For over fifty years, scientists and those fascinated with outer space have been looking for signs of intelligent life in the vast universe. Although various conspiracy theorists have debated potential sights of unidentified foreign objects and even extra-terrestrial beings, these theories lack scientific evidence. In fact, other than one small signal picked up by a powerful radio telescope in 1977, scientists have not received any communication from neighboring planets. Most scientists have understood this lack of communication as a sign that Earth is the only planet in our solar system that contains existing life forms, but does research support this idea? At first, scientists were open to the idea that living beings may have existed on planets other than Earth. This was because it was initially speculated that the universe could possibly be full of habitable planets conducive to life. However, research regarding temperature shifts on certain planets across time has disproved this theory. Data has shown that four billion years ago, planets such as Venus, Earth, and Mars, could all have been habitable. However, within approximately a billion years from their birth, the temperature changes they experienced eliminated these possibilities. Mars, for instance, became very cold, whereas Venus developed into an extremely hot planet. Thus, even if Mars and Venus were once home to initial life forms, they may not have been able to keep up with the rapidly changing environmental conditions. Once astronomers and astrobiologists understood the reality of atmospheric pressures on other planets, they relied on new theories to shed new light on the matter. They learned that the atmospheres of different planets are quite delicate and that they are not stable enough to support advanced life forms. For a planet to be effectively habitable, it must have strong atmospheric stability, which is achieved through the greenhouse effect, a process that occurs as gases in the atmosphere trap heat from the Sun. Without this possibility, surface temperatures are not suitable for life forms. Of all the planets in the Solar System, Earth has managed to play a leading role in stabilizing its climate. This is why it could not only provide, but also maintain, an environment in which humans could evolve. Since Earth is the only planet known to have this capability, it is highly improbable that the Solar System contains other intelligent life forms that would be able to interact with human beings on Earth. However, this theory does not eliminate the possibility of finding fossilized life forms on other planets. If fossils were to be found on other planets, researchers believe that they would likely only be microbial in nature, further confirming that the atmospheric pressures on different planets would not support advanced life forms. Based on the text, why is it unlikely that scientists will travel to other planets in search of life?
     • Scientists have gathered all necessary information regarding life on other planets through the collection of UFOs.
     • Scientists have already had communication with other planets, so there is no need to travel.
     • Scientists have already determined that the environments on other planets are not suitable for life.
     • Scientists do not believe that they would find life on other planets.

     Correct answer: Scientists have already determined that the environments on other planets are not suitable for life.

     Scientists have already determined that the environments on other planets are not suitable for life is the correct answer. This is correct. The second, third, and fourth paragraphs discuss the temperatures, atmospheres, and environments of other planets, informing readers that they are known to have extreme temperatures. Therefore, they have little, if any, ability to sustain life in such circumstances. It is unlikely that scientists would travel to such planets knowing that they will not be able to survive in such conditions or bring any useful information back. Scientists do not believe that they would find life on other planets. This is incorrect. This statement is disproven in the final paragraph of the text which states, “…This would not eliminate the possibility of finding fossilized life forms on other planets. If this were the case, researchers believe that these fossils would likely only be microbial in nature, further confirming that the atmospheric pressures on different planets would not support advanced life forms.” Scientists have already had communication with other planets, so there is no need to travel. This is incorrect. The first paragraph does mention a small signal picked up by a radio telescope decades ago. However, it follows up by stating that no further communication has been received from other planets in our solar system. Scientists have gathered all necessary information regarding life on other planets through the collection of UFOs. This is incorrect. The text only briefly mentions UFOs in the first paragraph, tying them to the ideas of conspiracy theorists rather than scientists. The text does not claim that scientists have used UFOs in gathering any data regarding life on other planets.

258. When Dinosaurs Coughed: Centuries of research and fossil evidence have allowed us to visualize various aspects of dinosaurs, ranging from how they looked to how they acted. Thanks to a recent study that analyzed fossil remains discovered in Montana, it is possible that dinosaurs may have even caught and dealt with the annoying symptoms of the common cold, just like humans do! During an excavation, paleontologists uncovered the remains of a diplodocid, a large herbivore with a long neck. Due to its size, this type of dinosaur breathed in air through sacs in its neck, which were directly connected to its respiratory system. The fossil remains of the dinosaur indicated that a pathogen had infected its lungs and respiratory system. Although researchers have not yet pinpointed the exact source of the infection, one hypothesis posits that it is the Aspergillus fungus, which infects reptiles and birds to this day. No matter the origin, the study shows that the illness caused symptoms similar to a cough and increased body temperature, which are indicative of the common cold. What is the main idea of the paragraph?
     • Dinosaurs with longer necks were more susceptible to respiratory illnesses, most notably those involving an airborne fungus.
     • Research shows that some dinosaurs likely dealt with respiratory illnesses with symptoms similar to the common cold.
     • A recent study found that Diplodocid dinosaurs breathed through sacs that connected directly to the respiratory system.
     • Research shows that the Aspergillus fungus is most likely the reason why dinosaurs may have been afflicted with respiratory illnesses.

     Correct answer: Research shows that some dinosaurs likely dealt with respiratory illnesses with symptoms similar to the common cold.

     Research shows that some dinosaurs likely dealt with respiratory illnesses with symptoms similar to the common cold is the correct answer. This answer option contains the main idea of the paragraph, which includes the discovery that dinosaurs likely had respiratory illnesses comparable to the common cold. This answer contains the main idea of the paragraph without providing too many supporting details. Research shows that the Aspergillus fungus is most likely the reason why dinosaurs may have been afflicted with respiratory illnesses. This is incorrect. The answer option provides an irrelevant supporting detail about the Aspergillus fungus, which is not part of the paragraph’s main idea involving the research study and its findings. Dinosaurs with longer necks were more susceptible to respiratory illnesses, most notably those involving an airborne fungus. This is incorrect. This statement does not provide the main idea of the paragraph because it calls upon something that has not necessarily been proven, based on the information in the paragraph. The statement, “Although researchers have not yet pinpointed the exact source of the infection, one hypothesis posits that it is the Aspergillus fungus, which infects reptiles and birds to this day,” shows that the source of the infection has not been proven. Additionally, we cannot say with certainty that the fungus was airborne, so it would not be the best or the most credible information to include in the main idea. A recent study found that Diplodocid dinosaurs breathed through sacs that connected directly to the respiratory system. This is incorrect. Although the paragraph discusses a recent study along with information regarding how Diplodocid dinosaurs breathed, this piece of information is not the main finding of the study according to the information given in the paragraph. Rather, it is an irrelevant supporting detail that provides more insight about this particular type of dinosaur.

259. Scientists presume that genome sequences can offer valuable information regarding common diseases and human biology. In fact, they believe that the recurring patterns could also provide clues to some of the most difficult scientific questions, especially those concerning evolution and how humans came into existence. It is predicted that further research will continue to increase the lengths of various DNA fragments, leading to new discoveries and perhaps even answers to the most puzzling biological concerns. Which of the following is NOT true, based on the passage?
     • Gaining more information regarding DNA sequences may assist scientists in finding cures for challenging genetic disorders.
     • Scientists will continue to research DNA sequencing well into the foreseeable future.
     • DNA sequencing offers very little information regarding how humans adapt.
     • Increased lengths of DNA fragments serve an upcoming goal for researchers.

     Correct answer: DNA sequencing offers very little information regarding how humans adapt.

     DNA sequencing offers very little information regarding how humans adapt is correct. The second sentence explicitly states that the recurring patterns in DNA sequences could provide insights into questions concerning evolution. Gaining more information regarding DNA sequences may assist scientists in finding cures for challenging genetic disorders is incorrect. The first sentence states that the DNA sequences provide information regarding diseases and human biology. The third sentence then adds that continued research can lead to new discoveries and answers to some puzzling biological concerns. Consequently, we can infer that gaining more information from DNA sequences could help scientists find cures for challenging genetic disorders. Scientists will continue to research DNA sequencing well into the foreseeable future is incorrect. The third sentence makes predictions about further research, suggesting that scientists plan to continue their research to learn more about DNA sequencing. Increased lengths of DNA fragments serve an upcoming goal for researchers is incorrect. The final sentence states how increased lengths of DNA fragments could lead to new discoveries and answers to puzzling biological concerns. This allows us to infer that this is a goal that scientists would strive to reach with their research.

260. Despite the fact that the genome map was nearly-complete, researchers were still required to work through various gaps that were unable to be filled in through the use of nanopore-based methods. However, this new method was able to cut back on the amount of time researchers spent putting together shorter pieces in order to solve the complicated “DNA puzzle” of human genetics. Although this information is extremely beneficial for neuroscientists and researchers, what does it mean for the general population? Which of the following is not discussed as a fact about nanopore-based methods?
     • Nanopore-based methods have reduced the time necessary for genome mapping.
     • Researchers continue to overcome the gaps left after implementing nanopore-based methods.
     • Using nanopore-based methods breaks genome mapping into less complicated steps.
     • Scientists have gained more knowledge of genome mapping due to nanopore-based methods.

     Correct answer: Using nanopore-based methods breaks genome mapping into less complicated steps.

     Using nanopore-based methods breaks genome mapping into less complicated steps is correct. While the text does state that nanopore-based methods have cut down on the time that genome mapping takes, there is no evidence to support the inference that the steps of the process have become less complicated. In fact, the second sentence explicitly states how complicated the puzzle of human DNA is. Nanopore-based methods have reduced the time necessary for genome mapping is incorrect since it is explicitly stated in the second sentence. Researchers continue to overcome the gaps left after implementing nanopore-based methods is incorrect. The first sentence states that researchers were required to work through the gaps left unfilled by nanopore-based methods. This allows us to infer that they were able to overcome those gaps and find solutions. Scientists have gained more knowledge of genome mapping due to nanopore-based methods is incorrect. The second sentence informs us that nanopore-based methods allowed researchers to cut back on time spent on genome mapping. Additionally, the third sentence explains that the information learned from this has been beneficial for scientists and researchers. The combination of these two statements supports the inference that the new knowledge gained is a result of nanopore-based methods.

261. Is There Anybody Out There? For over fifty years, scientists and those fascinated with outer space have been looking for signs of intelligent life in the vast universe. Although various conspiracy theorists have debated potential sights of unidentified foreign objects and even extra-terrestrial beings, these theories lack scientific evidence. In fact, other than one small signal picked up by a powerful radio telescope in 1977, scientists have not received any communication from neighboring planets. Most scientists have understood this lack of communication as a sign that Earth is the only planet in our solar system that contains existing life forms, but does research support this idea? At first, scientists were open to the idea that living beings may have existed on planets other than Earth. This was because it was initially speculated that the universe could possibly be full of habitable planets conducive to life. However, research regarding temperature shifts on certain planets across time has disproved this theory. Data has shown that four billion years ago, planets such as Venus, Earth, and Mars, could all have been habitable. However, within approximately a billion years from their birth, the temperature changes they experienced eliminated these possibilities. Mars, for instance, became very cold, whereas Venus developed into an extremely hot planet. Thus, even if Mars and Venus were once home to initial life forms, they may not have been able to keep up with the rapidly changing environmental conditions. Once astronomers and astrobiologists understood the reality of atmospheric pressures on other planets, they relied on new theories to shed new light on the matter. They learned that the atmospheres of different planets are quite delicate and that they are not stable enough to support advanced life forms. For a planet to be effectively habitable, it must have strong atmospheric stability, which is achieved through the greenhouse effect, a process that occurs as gases in the atmosphere trap heat from the Sun. Without this possibility, surface temperatures are not suitable for life forms. Of all the planets in the Solar System, Earth has managed to play a leading role in stabilizing its climate. This is why it could not only provide, but also maintain, an environment in which humans could evolve. Since Earth is the only planet known to have this capability, it is highly improbable that the Solar System contains other intelligent life forms that would be able to interact with human beings on Earth. However, this theory does not eliminate the possibility of finding fossilized life forms on other planets. If fossils were to be found on other planets, researchers believe that they would likely only be microbial in nature, further confirming that the atmospheric pressures on different planets would not support advanced life forms. Which of the following supports the idea that atmospheric pressure plays a pivotal role in the sustenance of life?
     • Planets not experiencing the greenhouse effect are more likely to house life forms.
     • Fossilized life forms could potentially be found on other planets.
     • Scientists have learned that the atmospheres on different planets are not strong enough to support advanced life forms.
     • Years ago, some planets in the solar system could have been home to other life forms.

     Correct answer: Scientists have learned that the atmospheres on different planets are not strong enough to support advanced life forms.

     Scientists have learned that the atmospheres on different planets are not strong enough to support advanced life forms is the correct answer. Paragraph three states, “They learned that the atmospheres on different planets are quite delicate and that they are not strong enough to support advanced life forms. For a planet to be effectively habitable, there must be a strong sense of atmospheric stability…” Fossilized life forms could potentially be found on other planets. This is incorrect. While this statement is supported by the text, it makes no connections between these fossils and the importance of atmospheric pressure allowing life to be sustained on a planet. Planets not experiencing the greenhouse effect are more likely to house life forms. This is incorrect because the third paragraph of the text contradicts this statement, arguing in favor of the greenhouse effect. It states, “For a planet to be effectively habitable, there must be a strong sense of atmospheric stability, which is achieved through the greenhouse effect…” Years ago, some planets in the solar system could have been home to other life forms. This is incorrect. The text does support the suggestion that at one point of time, other planets may have housed life, but this alone does not express the importance of atmospheric pressure in sustaining those life forms.

262. Forgotten Wildlife What were once considered to be treasured beings in the forests of Madagascar are currently at risk of becoming extinct. Out of 107 species of lemurs, specifically from Madagascar, 103 are now considered endangered. Based on data from the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), this change was influenced by human behavior, a failing economy, and the rapid change in environmental conditions. As the spread of illegal hunting and trading continues to plague various wildlife species in Africa, the IUCN plans to prevent lemurs from completely disappearing from Earth, but it is not considered an easy task. Which of the following is true, based on the passage?
     • The IUCN plans to prevent the extinction of lemurs by punishing anyone who contributes to factors that harm them.
     • Human behavior has a significant impact on nature and the wildlife in it.
     • When hunting and trading in Africa, people follow the rules and regulations set in place.
     • All species of lemurs are at a risk of extinction.

     Correct answer: Human behavior has a significant impact on nature and the wildlife in it.

     Human behavior has a significant impact on nature and the wildlife in it is correct. The third sentence states that the endangerment of the lemur species is a result of human behavior and the failing economy. All species of lemurs are at a risk of extinction is incorrect. The second sentence explicitly states that 103 out of the 107 species of lemurs are considered endangered. This means that there are four species that are not at risk of extinction. When hunting and trading in Africa, people follow the rules and regulations set in place is incorrect. The final sentence states that illegal hunting and trading continues in Africa. This contradicts the claim that people follow the set rules and regulations when hunting and trading in Africa. The IUCN plans to prevent the extinction of lemurs by punishing anyone who contributes to factors that harm them is incorrect. While the last sentence does state that the IUCN plans to prevent the extinction of lemurs, it gives no information as to how they plan to fulfill this goal.

263. Interior Secrets of the Pyramids History textbooks are likely to include photographs or illustrated depictions of ancient Egyptian pyramids, showcasing their grandeur and architectural wonder. Can the same be said for authentic depictions of the internal features of these pyramids though? Thanks to a new international mission exploring the various layers of famous pyramids, scientists plan to unravel these “interior design mysteries” through the use of advanced technology. They may even prove that past archaeological exploration projects have not been as extensive as was once imagined. The four pyramids involved in the study include the two pyramids of Giza (Cheops and Chfren) along with the two pyramids of Dahshur, located south of Cairo. Initially, further research devoted to these structures seemed futile, as the 4,500-year-old pyramids have already been explored by experts. However, they have never been investigated using infrared technology, which could allow scientists to discover any additional hidden chambers in the pyramids without using destructive methods. In other words, the international team of researchers will be able to look through each structure using “X-ray vision” for the first time in history! The primary technique in the project will involve directing beams of indirect cosmic rays on the pyramids themselves. When cosmic rays bombard a certain area in the atmosphere, they produce particles known as muons, which have a high ability to traverse matter. Although the properties of muons make them excellent options for “seeing” through the pyramids’ rocks, some of them would still be absorbed by the rocks themselves. To solve this problem, scientists will use tools that are able to detect any voids in the pyramids by analyzing the number of muons that have been blocked by the structure. Past evidence of this technique, used in some pyramids in South America, shows promising results. The new technology will initially be implemented in the Rhomboid Pyramid in Dahshur, which was built by Pharaoh Sneferu approximately 4,600 years ago. The rhomboidal shape of this pyramid includes a double slope, which still puzzles scientists to this day. Most believe that the sloping side was an afterthought in construction or a quick solution to a collapsing wall. In addition to locating potential chambers inside of this pyramid, archaeologists are interested in finding any other clues that will explain the unique shape of its structure. Once testing has been wrapped up in Dahshur, the teams will make their way to Giza and use the technology once more. However, not all historians are onboard with the idea of using technology to explore these last two pyramids. Despite the fact that this new technology could unearth hidden mysteries in the structures in Giza, some scientists argue that previous methods have already exhausted all possible chambers. Although it is true that the diverse chambers of the Pyramid of Cheops have already bee verified, the new study will rule out the possibility of any additional, hidden spaces. Even if it does not lead to any new conclusions, it will prove as a testament to technology’s increasingly helpful ways of identifying the past. Based on the text, why is infrared technology especially beneficial for the exploration of Egyptian Pyramids?
     • Infrared technology is considered advanced technology.
     • Infrared technology has not been previously used to explore Egyptian Pyramids.
     • Infrared technology can help confirm illustrated depictions in history textbooks.
     • Infrared technology is non-destructive, allowing pyramids to remain intact.

     Correct answer: Infrared technology is non-destructive, allowing pyramids to remain intact.

     Infrared technology is non-destructive, allowing pyramids to remain intact is the correct answer. The second paragraph addresses how infrared technology would allow scientists to discover hidden chambers within pyramids without the destruction of the pyramid itself using X-ray vision, which would not alter the structure of the ancient structures. Infrared technology has not been previously used to explore Egyptian Pyramids. This is incorrect. While this statement is true, as stated in the second paragraph, the fact that infrared technology has not been used before for this purpose is not presented as an especially beneficial quality in exploring the pyramids. Infrared technology can help confirm illustrated depictions in history textbooks. This is incorrect because the text makes no connection between infrared technology and illustrations in history textbooks. In fact, the text actually suggests that what is seen in textbooks may not be all there is to the pyramids and that infrared technology may yield new information. Infrared technology is considered advanced technology. This is incorrect because while the first paragraph does acknowledge that infrared technology is advanced, this does not explain why it would be particularly beneficial when exploring the pyramids.

264. Based on past evidence, leading experts believe that naturally-developing anthrax poisoning may be involved, due to the symptoms elephants experienced prior to their deaths. Most elephants seemed to wander in a circle before collapsing on the ground, which has led scientists to consider the possibility of an unknown pathology attacking their central nervous system. Although a natural poison found in nearby vegetation could be the answer, it is also possible that the elephants came into contact with an unknown virus or bacteria. In any case, scientists must wait for the completed autopsies before ruling out any other ideas. However, they have already started preparing preventative measures in order to protect the endangered African Elephants from another mysterious disaster. Which word would best replace the word “prior” as it is used in the paragraph?
     • Leading
     • Previous
     • Throughout
     • Among

     Correct answer: Leading

     Leading is correct. “Prior” refers to an event that occurred before another, meaning the symptoms happened before the death of the elephants. Therefore, “leading” could correctly replace “prior” in this sentence. Previous is incorrect. Although it also refers to events that have happened in the past, it would not fit appropriately when followed by the prepositional phrase “to their deaths” in the sentence. Throughout is incorrect. It means “during every part of”, which does not apply to the symptoms here since they occurred before the deaths. Among is incorrect. It means “in the middle of”, but the symptoms did not happen midway through death.

265. The first theory examined weather patterns in Botswana. Environmentalists looked into the possibility of droughts in the country, since they are the leading cause of mass deaths similar to this case. However, they were unable to confirm any recent periods of drought. In fact, the elephants did not seem to have problems accessing water or getting specific nutrients. Secondly, conservationists verified that all of the elephants contained their ivory tusks as well as all of their molars at the time of death and afterwards, eliminating any chance that poachers had something to do with the events. Although some experts initially considered that poachers may have poisoned the elephants, this theory was not plausible since other types of animals in the vicinity would have also met their deaths. However, scientists hypothesize that while a commercial poison can be ruled out as the cause, natural poisons may have something to do with the occurrence. Which of the following is a synonym of the word “drought” as it is used in the paragraph?
     • Famine
     • Flooding
     • Abundance
     • Dryness

     Correct answer: Dryness

     Dryness is correct. It refers to being free of liquids, while “drought” refers to a lack of water. Flooding is incorrect. It refers to an overflow of water in a specific area, which is not discussed in the text. Abundance is incorrect. To have an “abundance” of something means to have more than enough of it. Therefore, this would not be a synonym for “drought”. Famine is incorrect since it refers to a lack of food, and food is not mentioned in the text as a possible obstacle.

266. The first theory examined weather patterns in Botswana. Environmentalists looked into the possibility of droughts in the country, since they are the leading cause of mass deaths similar to this case. However, they were unable to confirm any recent periods of drought. In fact, the elephants did not seem to have problems accessing water or getting specific nutrients. Secondly, conservationists verified that all of the elephants contained their ivory tusks as well as all of their molars at the time of death and afterwards, eliminating any chance that poachers had something to do with the events. Although some experts initially considered that poachers may have poisoned the elephants, this theory was not plausible since other types of animals in the vicinity would have also met their deaths. However, scientists hypothesize that while a commercial poison can be ruled out as the cause, natural poisons may have something to do with the occurrence. What is the meaning of the word “plausible” as it is used in the paragraph?
     • Well-planned
     • Amusing
     • Easy to understand
     • Believable

     Correct answer: Believable

     Believable is correct. In the context of trying to find the cause for the sudden loss of elephants, experts explain that poison would likely also kill other animals. But no other animals have died. Therefore, they declared the hypothesis as not plausible, or not believable. Planned is incorrect. The sentence is describing the theory in question, and theories are not so much planned as they are reasoned through to determine their validity. Amusing is incorrect. To be “amusing”, the theory in question would have to bring viewers some sort of comic relief, which it certainly does not. Easy to understand is incorrect. The sentence continues to discuss why the theory lacks evidence, suggesting that researchers understand it easily.

267. Reaching carbon neutrality in production is vital to slowing and reversing climate change. In a fascinating development, Korean researchers are working on an artificial photosynthesis technology. It mimics natural photosynthesis by harnessing energy from sunlight to convert climate change-fueling carbon dioxide (CO2) into valuable methanol, ethylene, and ethanol. Though the process has been successful in laboratory conditions, more testing is needed to translate artificial photosynthesis technology into practical field applications. Dr. Hyung Suk Oh and Dr. Woong Hee Lee hope to integrate their system with silicon solar cells for use in real, large-scale solar environments. Their work is encouraging. They have reached the highest sunlight-to-compound conversion efficiency yet, at 12.1%, in artificial photosynthesis systems for silicon solar cells. Projects like this should receive increased funding to help neutralize populations’ carbon emissions. What is the purpose of the final sentence in this paragraph?
     • To persuade the reader about the importance of reaching carbon neutrality.
     • To support the idea that photosynthesis technology has not been tested.
     • To describe the Korean researchers’ project.
     • To provide factual evidence relating to the efficiency of artificial photosynthesis.

     Correct answer: To persuade the reader about the importance of reaching carbon neutrality.

     To persuade the reader about the importance of reaching carbon neutrality is the correct answer. In this sentence, the author expresses that they think projects that aim at neutralizing carbon emissions should be prioritized. To provide factual evidence relating to the efficiency of artificial photosynthesis This is incorrect. The sentence does not contain factual evidence. To describe the Korean researchers’ project This is incorrect. The sentence does not describe the researchers’ project. To support the idea that photosynthesis technology has not been tested This is incorrect. The sentence does not mention whether photosynthesis technology has been tested or not.

268. It is easier than ever to spend an excessive amount of time looking at screens. Common sense says that overdoing screen time cannot be good for mental or physical health. This notion has gained support from American Heart Association research. They found that American adults spend 10.5 hours per day glued to smartphone, television, or computer screens. Apparently, those from ages 50 to 64 spend the most time connected to electronic media than any other age group. The risk of cardiovascular disease including stroke increases with more time adults spend being sedentary. In fact, almost 9 out of 10 strokes may be preventable by modifying behaviors and limiting sedentary time. Leisure activities involving screen time encroach on physical activity and threaten health. People in all age groups should consider cutting down on these addicting sedentary activities during free time. Why does the author include the detail “In fact, almost 9 out of 10 strokes may be preventable by modifying behaviors and limiting sedentary time” in the paragraph?
     • To persuade people to completely avoid sedentary activities.
     • To support the idea that an excess of sedentary activities is bad for our health.
     • To satirize sedentary habits.
     • To introduce a new topic.

     Correct answer: To support the idea that an excess of sedentary activities is bad for our health.

     To support the idea that an excess of sedentary activities is bad for our health is the correct answer. The information about strokes emphasizes the idea that overdoing screen time poses risks to our health. To persuade readers to completely avoid sedentary activities. This is incorrect. Even though the author informs about the dangers of overdoing screen time, they do not try to persuade readers to abandon sedentary activities. To introduce a new topic. This is incorrect. The author does not introduce any new topic. The detail highlights the dangers of sedentarism. To satirize sedentary habits. This is incorrect. The author is not making fun of sedentary habits. The detail highlights the dangers of sedentarism.

269. By using the nanopore-based method, it is now possible to reconstruct extremely long sequences containing hundreds of thousands of base pairs. In an effort to combine new technology with what was previously used in neuroscientific research, an advanced team of researchers from the genomics institute used both the nanopore-based sequencing method and older sequencing technologies to develop a genome map. A genome, in this regard, is the complete set of genes (or genetic material) present in a cell or an organism. As was expected, the team created what is considered to be the most accurate and complete representation of a human genome map. However, there are still some gaps that have not been resolved by recent technological advancements. Which of the following is NOT true, based on the passage?
     • The genome maps being created encompass all genetic material of the examined organisms.
     • Combining new and old technologies has improved sequencing methods.
     • Longer DNA sequences may house hundreds of thousands of base pairs.
     • Having made these technological advancements, little is left to discover about DNA sequencing.

     Correct answer: Having made these technological advancements, little is left to discover about DNA sequencing.

     Having made these technological advancements, little is left to discover about DNA sequencing is correct. The final sentence mentions unresolved gaps in spite of technological advancements, suggesting the falsity of this statement. Combining new and old technologies has improved sequencing methods is incorrect. The second sentence states that the nanopore-based method was used along with older methods. Later, the fourth sentence calls the researchers’ creation the most accurate and complete representation of a human genome map. This allows us to infer that the combination of the two technologies did improve sequencing methods. The genome maps being created encompass all genetic material of the examined organisms is incorrect since it is explicitly stated in the third sentence. Longer DNA sequences may house hundreds of thousands of base pairs is incorrect since it is explicitly stated in the first sentence.

270. The Making of a Referee Most sports fans would probably agree that athletes face excruciatingly difficult challenges on and off the playing field, ranging from daily practices to lengthy interviews with news outlets. Psychologists, on the other hand, would likely argue that referees put up with some of the worst circumstances, especially when die-hard fans disagree with their decisions. After studying the behavior of both fans and referees, British researchers used a non-experimental study to observe the decision-making skills of referees in relation to their physical attributes. Is it possible to understand whether a referee is more strict based on his or her physique? The results may be surprising. The first step in the experiment was to reach out to the appropriate demographic (soccer fans living in Great Britain) in order to understand the general stereotypes surrounding referees on the soccer field. Based on these survey results, most participants associated shorter stature with referees who were thought to perform badly on the soccer field. That is, shorter referees were understood to be the most likely to make punitive decisions during the game when compared to their taller peers. Once these results were attained, researchers analyzed 61 soccer referees from four different English professional leagues between the ages of 26 and 53, along with an average height of 1.76 meters. Scientists used a correlational research scheme for their experiment in order to focus on the statistical relationship between the two variables without having to change an independent variable. In other words, they explored the relationship between the height of referees and their disciplinary decisions towards athletes on the field in a given soccer season. Specifically, the punitive decisions involved the number of times a referee distributed penalties in the form of yellow cards, which signify a cautionary measure, and red cards, which result in a player’s dismissal from the field. Although the experiment did not show a correlation between a referee’s height and the number of fouls given throughout a season, it yielded interesting results in terms of the distribution of yellow and red cards. On a general level, researchers found a correlation between shorter stature and the amount of yellow and red cards given to soccer players. However, it is important to note that these results are also dependent on the level of each of the four professional leagues that were taken into consideration. As such, higher leagues contained taller referees who typically gave out a similar amount of red cards as shorter referees. While these findings may be fascinating to athletes and sports fans alike, they are applicable only to the context of soccer games and do not provide evidence of a connection between stature and punitive behavior on a larger scale. What is the author’s general opinion regarding the results of the study mentioned in the passage?
     • The correlation between shorter stature and the number of penalties given to athletes is exhaustive and is applicable to various sports.
     • Professional leagues with referees who were taller gave more or less the same amount of penalties as those with shorter referees.
     • It is necessary to understand that the study’s results depend on the professional level of the sports leagues.
     • Even if the results prove to be interesting to sports fans, they cannot prove a connection between physical height and behavior on a societal scale.

     Correct answer: It is necessary to understand that the study’s results depend on the professional level of the sports leagues.

     It is necessary to understand that the study’s results depend on the professional level of the sports leagues is the correct answer. The fact that the author says, “It is important to note”, shows that this piece of information is deemed more important than others. Thus, it could be considered as the author’s opinion. The correlation between shorter stature and the number of penalties given to athletes is exhaustive and is applicable to various sports. This is incorrect. The author’s opinion is different, as is evident from the last passage. That is, the author includes information that contradicts this idea. Professional leagues with referees who were taller gave more or less the same amount of penalties as those with shorter referees. This is incorrect. The author includes this piece of information as factual evidence according to the study. It is not the author’s opinion. Even if the results prove to be interesting to sports fans, they cannot prove a connection between physical height and behavior on a societal scale. This is incorrect. The author is providing information that is scientific in nature, based on the results of the study. The author does not express an opinion such as, “They should not prove a connection between physical height and behavior on a societal scale”, but provides information based on the study’s results.

271. Underwater UFOs and New Discoveries: Despite the huge differences between the two areas, space exploration can be quite similar to scientific investigation into the deep waters of the ocean. That is, foreign beings that are drastically different from human beings, including plants and even unidentified foreign objects (UFO), can be found both underwater and in outer space. Most recently, in fact, an unidentified object has been discovered 630 meters below Western Australia, deep in the Indian Ocean. Interestingly enough, the finding is more than just any regular object. In fact, it may be the longest animal ever recorded in history. With the help of an underwater robotic research system, scientists from the Western Australian Museum came across a 120 meter-long creature, known to be part of the order siphonophore of the animal kingdom, which contains organisms such as corals and jellyfish. Of course, this deep-sea predator is extremely different from a “typical” sea creature, in that it is made up of jelly-like strings that extend into its various clones in the water. In other words, the creature is able to physically spread itself out and develop multiple rings, similar to a radar system. In fact, researchers have verified that the creature’s outer ring is at least 47 meters long. After a thorough investigation, it was confirmed that the animal is not only enormous but a dangerous predator to its fellow underwater inhabitants as well. The creature’s unique set of rings allows it to capture prey by blocking their escape and subsequently unleashing a series of paralyzing stings. Once a prey has been successfully enveloped within the siphonophore, it is eaten and then quickly digested, a process that allows nutrients to be transferred to each ring. Although scientists were able to identify this specific predator and understand its habits and aspects, research is still being done to pinpoint the exact type of prey on which it survives. However, this was just one of the many groundbreaking discoveries made during the mission. In addition to this surprising finding, the research team also identified more than 30 new underwater species from the exploration. Thanks to the myriad of technological capabilities of the robotic system used in the experiment, Rov SuBastian, the team not only captured visual evidence of each species but also collected specific DNA samples from the animals for further research. This was made possible by an element on the robotic device, which mimicked a toothbrush, and effortlessly scraped the sides of each underwater creature, thereby collecting an adequate amount of DNA. Samples of the surrounding water were also collected in order to examine its pH levels and quality. Scientists hope to utilize these findings to further understand some of the greatest mysteries surrounding marine life. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
     • The discovered creature is unlike other classic underwater entities based on its physical characteristics.
     • Creatures of the siphonophore order of the animal kingdom make up the majority of underwater sea life.
     • The 120-meter long creature boasts the longest length of any sea creature to date.
     • Having an advanced robotic research system is an important part of discovering new sea creatures.

     Correct answer: The discovered creature is unlike other classic underwater entities based on its physical characteristics.

     The discovered creature is unlike other classic underwater entities based on its physical characteristics is correct. The paragraph highlights the physical features of the 120 meter-long creature and points out the fact that it is different from other underwater creatures. Having an advanced robotic research system is an important part of discovering new sea creatures. This is incorrect. Although the paragraph opens with this detail, the main idea of the paragraph involves describing the sea creature and its physical characteristics. Creatures of the siphonophore order of the animal kingdom make up the majority of underwater sea life. This is incorrect. The author includes the fact that the newly discovered sea creature is a part of the siphonophore order (a part of the hierarchy of the classification of living things), and highlights that jellyfish and corals are part of this group. However, this is only an introductory detail and does not encompass the entire idea of the paragraph. The 120-meter long creature boasts the longest length of any sea creature to date. This is incorrect. The author does not make this point in the given paragraph, and only includes the length of the animal as a supporting detail.

272. The technique used to process X chromosome findings is considered revolutionary, in that it uses the latest technology for genetic sequencing, i.e. the nanopore-based sequencing method. This technique enables a longer read length of a DNA sequence, which scientists believe to have been the crucial, missing component for understanding the complete sequencing of human DNA. When it comes to DNA sequencing, a read length refers to the number of base pairs sequenced from a single fragment of DNA. Prior to this most recent discovery, read lengths were generally short and nearly identical, which required researchers to piece together numerous segments at a time, similar to completing a difficult jigsaw puzzle. Which of the following is true regarding read lengths?
     • Read length refers to the amount of base pairs in multiple strands of DNA.
     • Read lengths have historically been exactly the same.
     • Longer read lengths have potential to enhance the way scientists see DNA.
     • Previous techniques for read lengths were nanopore-based.

     Correct answer: Longer read lengths have potential to enhance the way scientists see DNA.

     Longer read lengths have potential to enhance the way scientists see DNA is correct. The second sentence supports this inference by sharing scientists’ outlook on longer read lengths, stating that scientists view them as a crucial component for understanding DNA sequencing which has previously been missing. Read length refers to the amount of base pairs in multiple strands of DNA is incorrect. The third sentence explicitly states that read length refers to the amount of base pairs in a single fragment of DNA. Read lengths have historically been exactly the same is incorrect. The last sentence contradicts this statement by noting that previous read lengths were nearly identical, implying that there was at least a slight difference between each read length. Previous techniques for read lengths were nanopore-based is incorrect. The text states that the current technique used for genetic sequencing utilizes the latest technology, i.e. nanopore-based sequencing, allowing us to infer that this type of technology was not used in previous methods.

273. Is There Anybody Out There? For over fifty years, scientists and those fascinated with outer space have been looking for signs of intelligent life in the vast universe. Although various conspiracy theorists have debated potential sights of unidentified foreign objects and even extra-terrestrial beings, these theories lack scientific evidence. In fact, other than one small signal picked up by a powerful radio telescope in 1977, scientists have not received any communication from neighboring planets. Most scientists have understood this lack of communication as a sign that Earth is the only planet in our solar system that contains existing life forms, but does research support this idea? At first, scientists were open to the idea that living beings may have existed on planets other than Earth. This was because it was initially speculated that the universe could possibly be full of habitable planets conducive to life. However, research regarding temperature shifts on certain planets across time has disproved this theory. Data has shown that four billion years ago, planets such as Venus, Earth, and Mars, could all have been habitable. However, within approximately a billion years from their birth, the temperature changes they experienced eliminated these possibilities. Mars, for instance, became very cold, whereas Venus developed into an extremely hot planet. Thus, even if Mars and Venus were once home to initial life forms, they may not have been able to keep up with the rapidly changing environmental conditions. Once astronomers and astrobiologists understood the reality of atmospheric pressures on other planets, they relied on new theories to shed new light on the matter. They learned that the atmospheres of different planets are quite delicate and that they are not stable enough to support advanced life forms. For a planet to be effectively habitable, it must have strong atmospheric stability, which is achieved through the greenhouse effect, a process that occurs as gases in the atmosphere trap heat from the Sun. Without this possibility, surface temperatures are not suitable for life forms. Of all the planets in the Solar System, Earth has managed to play a leading role in stabilizing its climate. This is why it could not only provide, but also maintain, an environment in which humans could evolve. Since Earth is the only planet known to have this capability, it is highly improbable that the Solar System contains other intelligent life forms that would be able to interact with human beings on Earth. However, this theory does not eliminate the possibility of finding fossilized life forms on other planets. If fossils were to be found on other planets, researchers believe that they would likely only be microbial in nature, further confirming that the atmospheric pressures on different planets would not support advanced life forms. Based on the text, how have scientists come to the conclusion that advanced life forms have probably not existed on other planets?
     • By visiting other planets for extended periods of time in order to determine whether or not they can sustain life
     • By tracking UFOs back to the planets they arrived from
     • By collaborating with conspiracy theorists to discuss the data collected
     • By examining communication with other planets, as well as by comparing their environments to that of Earth

     Correct answer: By examining communication with other planets, as well as by comparing their environments to that of Earth

     By examining communication with other planets, as well as by comparing their environments to that of Earth is the correct answer. In the first paragraph, the text states that other than one signal received by a radio telescope nearly fifty years ago, no further communication has been received from other planets. This is a sign that life may not exist on other planets. The second, third, and fourth paragraphs all go into deeper detail about the shifts in temperature that other planets have experienced and how those shifts have affected their environments so greatly that advanced life forms could not have possibly survived. By collaborating with conspiracy theorists to discuss the data collected. This is incorrect. The first paragraph of the text does mention that conspiracy theorists have debated UFOs and extraterrestrial sightings, but it ends the discussion by stating that there is no scientific evidence for these theories. There is no evidence of the text supporting the idea that scientists have collaborated with conspiracy theorists. By visiting other planets for extended periods of time in order to determine whether or not they can sustain life. This is incorrect. At no point does the text discuss scientists actually traveling to other planets in the solar system for extended stays to gather data regarding the sustainability of life. By tracking UFOs back to the planets they arrived from. The first paragraph mentions conspiracy theorists discussing potential UFO sightings, but no evidence is presented to support the idea that scientists have tracked these potential sightings.

274. Nuclear energy and weapons leave behind near-permanent extreme hazards to humans and the environment that can last hundreds of thousands of years. Scientists at the National Ignition Facility (NIF) in Northern California yielded an energy burst through a unique nuclear fusion method. The scientists shot light beams from 192 of the largest lasers in the world at a miniscule hydrogen pellet. This produced over 10 quadrillion watts of power in 100 trillionths of a second. That amounts to 1.3 megajoules—10% of the total energy the sun emits onto the earth each second. The reaction gave off 70% of the energy the pellet absorbed from the lasers. The NIF scientists’ goal is a break-even ignition point, so that the pellet emits 100+% of the lasers’ energy. While impressive, the positive impacts of these nuclear fusion tests are unclear. Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
     • The fact that 70% of the laser’s energy was absorbed by pellets is startling.
     • The nuclear fusion tests were interesting, but more certainty needs to be attained regarding their potential benefits.
     • The nuclear fusion tests show that nuclear energy is more beneficial and less harmful than we might have originally imagined.
     • The financial cost spent on nuclear fusion testing was not worth it, since we are currently unaware of their positive impacts.

     Correct answer: The nuclear fusion tests were interesting, but more certainty needs to be attained regarding their potential benefits.

     The nuclear fusion tests were interesting, but more certainty needs to be attained regarding their potential benefits is the correct answer. This is because the author closes the article with the statement, “While impressive, the positive impacts of these nuclear fusion tests are unclear”. The nuclear fusion tests show that nuclear energy is more beneficial and less harmful than we might have originally imagined. This is incorrect. This is because the author does not mention that the test results showcase nuclear energy’s less harmful traits. The author does not infer that these results will change ideas one has on nuclear energy. The financial cost spent on nuclear fusion testing was not worth it, since we are currently unaware of their positive impacts. This is incorrect. This is because the passage does not mention anything about the financial aspect of the tests, and the author does not infer to it either. The fact that 70% of the laser’s energy was absorbed by pellets is startling. This is incorrect. This is because the author does not discuss his or her opinion on the 70% absorption rate and only mentions that the scientists’ goal is “impressive.”

275. In many African cultures, the African Elephant is a revered animal symbolizing strength and power. Praised for its longevity throughout history despite facing difficult obstacles, it is considered to be the largest terrestrial animal in the world. Despite its favorable reputation, this species has long been at risk of becoming extinct for many reasons, including but not limited to illegal poaching and habitat loss. With only 400,000 specimens surviving across the continent, conservationists are taking extra precautions when it comes to preserving these wild animals. However, they have recently been confronted with an unprecedented situation resulting in a loss of nearly 400 elephants without any known cause. What is the meaning of the word “revered” as it is used in the paragraph?
     • Greatly respected or honored
     • Large in size or stature
     • Aged
     • Having great strength

     Correct answer: Greatly respected or honored

     Greatly respected or honored is correct because the sentence specifically mentions how African cultures view the African Elephant as a symbol of strength and power. Subsequent sentences also address it being known for longevity despite facing obstacles, therefore having a favorable reputation. These details imply that “revered” refers to how African cultures feel about the animal, i.e. that they respect or honor it immensely. Large in size or stature is incorrect because the text indicates the view of the animal in African cultures. If it were only referring to the size of the animal, it would not be necessary to mention it in relation to any specific culture. Aged is incorrect because the text specifically indicates the view of the animal in African cultures. If it were only referring to the age of the animal, it would not be necessary to mention it in relation to any specific culture. Having great strength is incorrect. The text states that African cultures view the elephant as a symbol of strength, but there is no mention of whether or not the animal itself is strong. Additionally, the strength of an animal is not dependent upon a culture, and the word “revered” is mentioned in regards to the African cultures’ viewpoint.

276. New Discoveries in DNA Research Nearly two decades after the complete sequencing of human DNA was first published, many gaps still remain when it comes to our knowledge of this important genetic sequence. Thanks to recent experiments completed by an established genomics institute, scientists have been able to reconstruct the complete sequence of a crucial, single human chromosome: the X chromosome. These findings are of fundamental importance for those who study genomics, which is the branch of molecular biology concerned with genome mapping, and give scientists an opportunity to decipher these fundamental structures. Which of the following is true based on the passage?
     • Deciphering DNA structures will allow scientists to close the gaps in knowledge in regards to human DNA and genetic sequencing.
     • Until recently, scientists had not recreated the complete sequence of a DNA chromosome.
     • Findings from these experiments have led scientists to crucial information regarding genome mapping.
     • Scientists have successfully reconstructed human DNA sequences.

     Correct answer: Until recently, scientists had not recreated the complete sequence of a DNA chromosome.

     Until recently, scientists had not recreated the complete sequence of a DNA chromosome is correct. The second sentence explicitly references recent experiments leading up to the chromosome sequencing. The final sentence, noting an opportunity being presented to decipher these structures, then allows us to infer that this had not been done prior to these experiments. Scientists have successfully reconstructed human DNA sequences is incorrect since it is not supported by the passage. The second sentence states that scientists have reconstructed the X chromosome, but there is no evidence to support the inference that multiple sequences have been reconstructed. Findings from these experiments have led scientists to crucial information regarding genome mapping is incorrect. The text states that the capability to reconstruct the X chromosome presents scientists with an opportunity to better understand DNA. However, no evidence supports them already having found crucial information specific to genome mapping as a result of the mentioned experiments. Deciphering DNA structures will allow scientists to close the gaps in knowledge in regards to human DNA and genetic sequencing is incorrect. While the paragraph states that deciphering DNA structures provides an opportunity for scientists, there is no evidence to support the inference that information gained from deciphering these structures will completely close the gaps in knowledge.

277. U.S. government corruption is pervasive and a cause for deep concern. Revelations about financial conflicts of interest in Congress are shocking, especially in light of unprecedented circumstances during the COVID pandemic. A new study exposed that over one-third of Congress members held personal investments in the healthcare industry. The median total value of holdings per member of Congress came to over $43,000. Some of these Congresspeople were simultaneously on healthcare committees. Multiple Congresspeople on healthcare committees and subcommittees held hundreds of thousands of dollars in healthcare industry assets. Matthew McCoy, Ph.D., assistant professor of Medical Ethics and Health Policy at UPenn, rightly calls for holding Congress to “a higher standard and [expecting] that they divest from assets in industries directly affected by their committee work to preserve the integrity of their policy-making.” What is the author’s purpose for writing this paragraph?
     • To satirize the people of Congress.
     • To persuade the reader that the corruption present in the U.S. Congress is dangerous for democracy.
     • To describe the financial conflicts of interest in Congress.
     • To show how healthcare committees work.

     Correct answer: To persuade the reader that the corruption present in the U.S. Congress is dangerous for democracy.

     To persuade the reader that the corruption present in the U.S. Congress is dangerous for democracy is the correct answer. The author tells the reader how corruption in the U.S. government negatively affects society, focusing on how a big part of Congresspeople holds personal investments in the healthcare industry. To show how healthcare committees work. This is incorrect. The author’s goal is not to inform the reader about the functioning of healthcare committees. They are persuading the reader about the dangers of corruption. To describe the financial conflicts of interest in Congress. This is incorrect. The author does not describe financial conflicts of interest in general. They focus on Congresspeople who hold personal investments in the healthcare industry. To satirize the people of Congress. This is incorrect. The author’s goal is not to make fun of Congresspeople but to persuade the reader about the dangers of corruption, focusing on how a big part of Congresspeople holds personal investments in the healthcare industry.

278. Researchers have silenced schizophrenia- and autism-linked genes in the mouse thalamus. The thalamus is the large mass of grey matter in the brain that acts as a hub to transport information to other brain regions. When these genes were suppressed, the mice’s thalamus neurons became more excitable, causing memory problems to surface. The University of Texas at Austin’s assistant professor of neurology and pediatrics Audrey Brumback noted, “It’s exciting to see how different genetic changes can converge onto the same circuits in the brain and even onto the same physiological mechanism.” Lead investigator Guoping Feng says that for “every phenotype or symptom… there’s a particular circuit responsible.” Matching symptoms and behaviors to their respective brain regions could lead to groundbreaking targeted autism and schizophrenia treatments with fewer side effects.
     • Doctors should look into a patient’s genetic background before prescribing medicine for autism and schizophrenia.
     • With the results of the study, people with autism and schizophrenia may be able to alleviate their symptoms without any type of specific treatment.
     • Revolutionary treatments for schizophrenia and autism are possible with a more thorough understanding of brain circuits and symptoms.
     • Even though the results are beneficial for those with autism and schizophrenia, the researchers should not have tested on animals.

     Correct answer: Revolutionary treatments for schizophrenia and autism are possible with a more thorough understanding of brain circuits and symptoms.

     Revolutionary treatments for schizophrenia and autism are possible with a more thorough understanding of brain circuits and symptoms is the correct answer. This is because the author closes the article with the statement “Matching symptoms and behaviors to their respective brain regions could lead to groundbreaking targeted autism and schizophrenia treatments with fewer side effects” after explaining the results of the research. Even though the results are beneficial for those with autism and schizophrenia, the researchers should not have tested on animals. This is incorrect. This is because the author does not take an active stance (or allude to their stance) on using animals in the experiment. Doctors should look into a patient’s genetic background before prescribing medicine for autism and schizophrenia. This is incorrect. This is because the author writes about researchers and their specific study, not how doctors should prescribe medicine. Although genetics are mentioned as part of the study, the author does not connect this to the treatment plan put forth by doctors. With the results of the study, people with autism and schizophrenia may be able to alleviate their symptoms without any type of specific treatment. This is incorrect. This is because the author mentions “groundbreaking targeted autism and schizophrenia treatments with fewer side effects” and not that these patients would be able to alleviate their symptoms without medication.

279. Beyond the benefits of physical activity, it is neurologically crucial for children and teens to spend time outside in nature. A long-term London study measured the effects of foliage on the development of 3,568 children from 9 to 15. Spending more time near woodlands was associated with improved mental health and cognitive performance in adolescence. Children who spent time around natural environments like rivers, grasslands, and lakes did not experience the same positive cognitive effects. The London study echoes epidemiological findings from the United States and Denmark. These national findings show that children in residential areas interspersed with green spaces are at lower risk for mental health problems later in life. For developing minds, 30-60 minutes outside during recess is not sufficient. Children should get substantial exposure to parks with abundant nature and greenery. What is the author’s purpose for writing this paragraph?
     • To inform the reader that, for good health, children need to go outside in nature for long periods of time.
     • To provide factual evidence that relates the living conditions of children in rural and urban areas.
     • To persuade the reader to exercise more and spend more time outside in nature.
     • To denounce the fact that schools do not allow children to spend time outside.

     Correct answer: To inform the reader that, for good health, children need to go outside in nature for long periods of time.

     To inform the reader that, for good health, children need to go outside in nature for long periods of time is the correct answer. In this paragraph, the author’s goal is to teach the reader about how important it is for children to be surrounded by nature. To persuade the reader to exercise more and spend more time outside in nature. This is incorrect. The author is not trying to persuade the reader; they are just informing about how important it is for children to be surrounded by nature. To denounce the fact that schools do not allow children to spend time outside. This is incorrect. Even though the author mentions that the time children spend outside during recess is not enough, they are not trying to denounce anything. To provide factual evidence that relates the living conditions of children in rural and urban areas. This is incorrect. The author does not mention or compare children from rural and urban areas.

280. Is There Anybody Out There? For over fifty years, scientists and those fascinated with outer space have been looking for signs of intelligent life in the vast universe. Although various conspiracy theorists have debated potential sights of unidentified foreign objects and even extra-terrestrial beings, these theories lack scientific evidence. In fact, other than one small signal picked up by a powerful radio telescope in 1977, scientists have not received any communication from neighboring planets. Most scientists have understood this lack of communication as a sign that Earth is the only planet in our solar system that contains existing life forms, but does research support this idea? At first, scientists were open to the idea that living beings may have existed on planets other than Earth. This was because it was initially speculated that the universe could possibly be full of habitable planets conducive to life. However, research regarding temperature shifts on certain planets across time has disproved this theory. Data has shown that four billion years ago, planets such as Venus, Earth, and Mars, could all have been habitable. However, within approximately a billion years from their birth, the temperature changes they experienced eliminated these possibilities. Mars, for instance, became very cold, whereas Venus developed into an extremely hot planet. Thus, even if Mars and Venus were once home to initial life forms, they may not have been able to keep up with the rapidly changing environmental conditions. Once astronomers and astrobiologists understood the reality of atmospheric pressures on other planets, they relied on new theories to shed new light on the matter. They learned that the atmospheres of different planets are quite delicate and that they are not stable enough to support advanced life forms. For a planet to be effectively habitable, it must have strong atmospheric stability, which is achieved through the greenhouse effect, a process that occurs as gases in the atmosphere trap heat from the Sun. Without this possibility, surface temperatures are not suitable for life forms. Of all the planets in the Solar System, Earth has managed to play a leading role in stabilizing its climate. This is why it could not only provide, but also maintain, an environment in which humans could evolve. Since Earth is the only planet known to have this capability, it is highly improbable that the Solar System contains other intelligent life forms that would be able to interact with human beings on Earth. However, this theory does not eliminate the possibility of finding fossilized life forms on other planets. If fossils were to be found on other planets, researchers believe that they would likely only be microbial in nature, further confirming that the atmospheric pressures on different planets would not support advanced life forms. Which of the following supports the idea that Earth is likely the only planet in the Solar System with sustainable life forms?
     • The greenhouse effect allows a planet to provide sufficient atmospheric stability for life to thrive.
     • In the 20th century, scientists once received a small signal through a radio telescope.
     • Scientists have investigated the existence of life on other planets.
     • Earth is the only planet known to maintain a stabilized climate.

     Correct answer: Earth is the only planet known to maintain a stabilized climate.

     Earth is the only planet known to maintain a stabilized climate is the correct answer. In paragraph 3, the text discusses the greenhouse effect and how it helps planets attain atmospheric stability, thereby allowing the temperatures to be suitable for advanced life forms. Additionally, paragraph 4 goes on to address Earth’s ability to stabilize its climate. It states, “Since Earth is the only planet known to have this capability, it is highly improbable that the Solar System contains other intelligent life forms that would be able to interact with human beings on Earth.” The greenhouse effect allows a planet to provide sufficient atmospheric stability for life to thrive. This is incorrect. While this statement is true, as supported by information in the third paragraph, it gives no information as to which planet or planets are affected by this. The text even states that atmospheres on other planets are more delicate. Scientists have investigated the existence of life on other planets. This is incorrect. The fact that scientists have investigated life on other planets does not provide enough information to determine which planets, if any, they found suitable for life. In the 20th century, scientists once received a small signal through a radio telescope. This is incorrect. This statement alone does not provide evidence for Earth to be the only planet with sustainable life forms. In fact, it actually leads us to the inference that there could be life on other planets. Moreover, the text also indicates that no other communication has occurred since this signal.

281. Underwater UFOs and New Discoveries: Despite the huge differences between the two areas, space exploration can be quite similar to scientific investigation into the deep waters of the ocean. That is, foreign beings that are drastically different from human beings, including plants and even unidentified foreign objects (UFO), can be found both underwater and in outer space. Most recently, in fact, an unidentified object has been discovered 630 meters below Western Australia, deep in the Indian Ocean. Interestingly enough, the finding is more than just any regular object. In fact, it may be the longest animal ever recorded in history. With the help of an underwater robotic research system, scientists from the Western Australian Museum came across a 120 meter-long creature, known to be part of the order siphonophore of the animal kingdom, which contains organisms such as corals and jellyfish. Of course, this deep-sea predator is extremely different from a “typical” sea creature, in that it is made up of jelly-like strings that extend into its various clones in the water. In other words, the creature is able to physically spread itself out and develop multiple rings, similar to a radar system. In fact, researchers have verified that the creature’s outer ring is at least 47 meters long. After a thorough investigation, it was confirmed that the animal is not only enormous but a dangerous predator to its fellow underwater inhabitants as well. The creature’s unique set of rings allows it to capture prey by blocking their escape and subsequently unleashing a series of paralyzing stings. Once a prey has been successfully enveloped within the siphonophore, it is eaten and then quickly digested, a process that allows nutrients to be transferred to each ring. Although scientists were able to identify this specific predator and understand its habits and aspects, research is still being done to pinpoint the exact type of prey on which it survives. However, this was just one of the many groundbreaking discoveries made during the mission. In addition to this surprising finding, the research team also identified more than 30 new underwater species from the exploration. Thanks to the myriad of technological capabilities of the robotic system used in the experiment, Rov SuBastian, the team not only captured visual evidence of each species but also collected specific DNA samples from the animals for further research. This was made possible by an element on the robotic device, which mimicked a toothbrush, and effortlessly scraped the sides of each underwater creature, thereby collecting an adequate amount of DNA. Samples of the surrounding water were also collected in order to examine its pH levels and quality. Scientists hope to utilize these findings to further understand some of the greatest mysteries surrounding marine life. What is the main idea of the passage?
     • With the help of technology and scientific investigation, researchers have been able to gain various insights into marine life.
     • Robotic systems, such as the Rov SuBastian, are imperative to the discovery of new species.
     • Unidentified foreign objects in outer space and aquatic creatures have more in common than one might initially assume.
     • The siphonophore creature is one of the many recently discovered underwater species.

     Correct answer: With the help of technology and scientific investigation, researchers have been able to gain various insights into marine life.

     With the help of technology and scientific investigation, researchers have been able to gain various insights into marine life is correct. The passage contains information regarding technology and research methods, and how both of these features were able to shed light on new underwater species. The siphonophore creature is one of the many recently discovered underwater species. This is incorrect. Although the author uses the siphonophore creature as an example of a recent finding, it is not the main idea of the entire passage, but just a few paragraphs. Robotic systems, such as the Rov SuBastian, are imperative to the discovery of new species. This is incorrect. The author mentions the system used for research in the last paragraph, but this is not the main idea of the passage. Rather, it is a description of how discoveries were made. Unidentified foreign objects in outer space and aquatic creatures have more in common than one might initially assume. This is incorrect. Although the author briefly mentions UFOs in the introductory paragraph, this is mostly used to grab the reader’s attention, and is not the central idea of the passage.

282. Underwater UFOs and New Discoveries: Despite the huge differences between the two areas, space exploration can be quite similar to scientific investigation into the deep waters of the ocean. That is, foreign beings that are drastically different from human beings, including plants and even unidentified foreign objects (UFO), can be found both underwater and in outer space. Most recently, in fact, an unidentified object has been discovered 630 meters below Western Australia, deep in the Indian Ocean. Interestingly enough, the finding is more than just any regular object. In fact, it may be the longest animal ever recorded in history. With the help of an underwater robotic research system, scientists from the Western Australian Museum came across a 120 meter-long creature, known to be part of the order siphonophore of the animal kingdom, which contains organisms such as corals and jellyfish. Of course, this deep-sea predator is extremely different from a “typical” sea creature, in that it is made up of jelly-like strings that extend into its various clones in the water. In other words, the creature is able to physically spread itself out and develop multiple rings, similar to a radar system. In fact, researchers have verified that the creature’s outer ring is at least 47 meters long. After a thorough investigation, it was confirmed that the animal is not only enormous but a dangerous predator to its fellow underwater inhabitants as well. The creature’s unique set of rings allows it to capture prey by blocking their escape and subsequently unleashing a series of paralyzing stings. Once a prey has been successfully enveloped within the siphonophore, it is eaten and then quickly digested, a process that allows nutrients to be transferred to each ring. Although scientists were able to identify this specific predator and understand its habits and aspects, research is still being done to pinpoint the exact type of prey on which it survives. However, this was just one of the many groundbreaking discoveries made during the mission. In addition to this surprising finding, the research team also identified more than 30 new underwater species from the exploration. Thanks to the myriad of technological capabilities of the robotic system used in the experiment, Rov SuBastian, the team not only captured visual evidence of each species but also collected specific DNA samples from the animals for further research. This was made possible by an element on the robotic device, which mimicked a toothbrush, and effortlessly scraped the sides of each underwater creature, thereby collecting an adequate amount of DNA. Samples of the surrounding water were also collected in order to examine its pH levels and quality. Scientists hope to utilize these findings to further understand some of the greatest mysteries surrounding marine life. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?
     • Nutrients are transferred to each ring of the siphonophore creature once it eats its prey.
     • More research involving the siphonophore creature is necessary in order to understand how it attacks its prey.
     • Based on information researchers were able to attain, the siphonophore creature is a threat to other underwater species.
     • Researchers were able to identify various species in their underwater exploration mission.

     Correct answer: Based on information researchers were able to attain, the siphonophore creature is a threat to other underwater species.

     Based on information researchers were able to attain, the siphonophore creature is a threat to other underwater species is correct. The paragraph does not detail the exact species that are under threat, and research is still being done. However, it is known that the siphonophore creature is a predator, based on the details surrounding its predation practices. Nutrients are transferred to each ring of the siphonophore creature once it eats its prey. This is incorrect. Although the author includes this fact in the given paragraph, it is merely used as a supporting detail about the predator’s hunting process. Researchers were able to identify various species in their underwater exploration mission. This is incorrect. Although the author alludes to this in the last sentence of the given paragraph, it is not the main idea of the paragraph. Instead, this paragraph focuses on the predation specifics of the newly-discovered siphonophore. More research involving the siphonophore creature is necessary in order to understand how it attacks its prey. This is incorrect. Although the author mentions that more research must be done, the details provided in the paragraph show how the siphonophore creature attacks its prey.

283. The Making of a Referee Most sports fans would probably agree that athletes face excruciatingly difficult challenges on and off the playing field, ranging from daily practices to lengthy interviews with news outlets. Psychologists, on the other hand, would likely argue that referees put up with some of the worst circumstances, especially when die-hard fans disagree with their decisions. After studying the behavior of both fans and referees, British researchers used a non-experimental study to observe the decision-making skills of referees in relation to their physical attributes. Is it possible to understand whether a referee is more strict based on his or her physique? The results may be surprising. The first step in the experiment was to reach out to the appropriate demographic (soccer fans living in Great Britain) in order to understand the general stereotypes surrounding referees on the soccer field. Based on these survey results, most participants associated shorter stature with referees who were thought to perform badly on the soccer field. That is, shorter referees were understood to be the most likely to make punitive decisions during the game when compared to their taller peers. Once these results were attained, researchers analyzed 61 soccer referees from four different English professional leagues between the ages of 26 and 53, along with an average height of 1.76 meters. Scientists used a correlational research scheme for their experiment in order to focus on the statistical relationship between the two variables without having to change an independent variable. In other words, they explored the relationship between the height of referees and their disciplinary decisions towards athletes on the field in a given soccer season. Specifically, the punitive decisions involved the number of times a referee distributed penalties in the form of yellow cards, which signify a cautionary measure, and red cards, which result in a player’s dismissal from the field. Although the experiment did not show a correlation between a referee’s height and the number of fouls given throughout a season, it yielded interesting results in terms of the distribution of yellow and red cards. On a general level, researchers found a correlation between shorter stature and the amount of yellow and red cards given to soccer players. However, it is important to note that these results are also dependent on the level of each of the four professional leagues that were taken into consideration. As such, higher leagues contained taller referees who typically gave out a similar amount of red cards as shorter referees. While these findings may be fascinating to athletes and sports fans alike, they are applicable only to the context of soccer games and do not provide evidence of a connection between stature and punitive behavior on a larger scale. Which supporting detail is an example of the author’s opinion, rather than fact?
     • Most participants in the study believed that referees who were shorter in height were also poor performers on the job.
     • The majority of the people who watch sports would agree that athletes are challenged in more ways than one.
     • It is possible to maintain biased opinions of referees based on their physical stature, even if the idea seems far-fetched.
     • Depending on the level of professional leagues, there is a correlation between shorter stature and the number of penalty cards given to athletes.

     Correct answer: The majority of the people who watch sports would agree that athletes are challenged in more ways than one.

     The majority of the people who watch sports would agree that athletes are challenged in more ways than one is the correct answer. This idea is included as an opening statement in the first paragraph and serves to make a general opinionated statement. The author does not include factual evidence to support this idea, making it an opinion. It is possible to maintain biased opinions of referees based on their physical stature, even if the idea seems far-fetched. This is incorrect. This is a fact, as proven by the study described in the passage. The phrase that “even if the idea seems far-fetched” is not an example of opinion, but rather, it just references the opinion of some people. Most participants in the study believed that referees who are shorter in height are poor performers on the job. This is incorrect. This information is included in the passage, and while it conveys the opinion of the participants of the study, it is factual evidence for the mentioned study. In other words, it is a part of the scientific experiment and is not the author’s opinion. Depending on the level of professional leagues, there is a correlation between shorter stature and the number of penalty cards given to athletes. This is incorrect. This is an example of factual evidence, which is included in the last paragraph. It is part of a scientific study and is not the author’s opinion.

284. A “Clean” Replacement For Bees With the recent decline of bees and bumblebees, botanists have teamed up with scientists to answer a question that seems to become more important as time goes on: will it ever be possible to replace bees? The answers to this question may ultimately decide how the environment will be impacted once the likely extinction of bees takes place. Although it would be hard to replicate the intense labor of these life-sustaining pollinators, new technology may assist in finding alternative, practical solutions with the use of drones and a household cleaning supply: soap! Since 2017, researchers at the Advanced Institute of Science and Technology in Japan have started replicating the necessary components for the fruitful pollination of various plants. They have discovered that employing the use of drones could effectively administer droplets of pollen to plants, similar to how bees would collect and distribute pollen in natural circumstances. Through numerous efforts of trial and error, however, the scientists have realized that even the smallest drones (measuring around four centimeters) could potentially damage the delicate nature of plants. Despite the rough, metallic exteriors of drones, researchers discovered a way to successfully utilize them in the pollination process. Instead of instructing the drones to drop pollen directly into each plant, they would release soft soap bubbles instead, which would safely encase the pollen and open upon contact with the plant. In order to develop a balanced mixture of all ingredients, pollen grains were first mixed with a nutrient-enriched soap solution that contained a low level of plant toxicity. The soap’s components were of maximum importance in this matter, since they could drastically alter the plants’ absorption of each pollen granule. Once the chemical levels of the soapy mixture were finalized, testing on actual Japanese pear plants began. After the drone dispersed the soap suds, each flower came into contact with approximately 2,000 granules of pollen. The team waited nearly two weeks for extremely positive results; the artificial process had provided as many fruitful results as would have been attained with natural pollination. Given the fact that most pollination of pear and apple trees is done by hand in Japan, this method would allow many more plants to be fertilized with the same amount of pollen in drastically less time. Although initial tests have produced positive results, the weather is likely to have a negative impact on the method’s immediate success. As of now, the bubbles’ efficiency is largely dependent on the weather, and could “pop” at inopportune times due to strong gusts of wind and even the slightest rain showers. Researchers believe that these problems could be solved with technology and robotic engineering programs. With more research and development, they hope to design an automated system that could map out the most logical routes based on daily weather forecasting and growth patterns. While these drones were established to solve a potential problem of extinction, they may help cut back costs of labor involved in fertilization. Based on the information regarding soap bubbles, what can be inferred about their presence in the pollination process?
     • They are naturally able to produce an environment that is conducive to an effective pollination process.
     • It is possible to utilize them without the use of drones.
     • Without soap bubbles, Japanese pear plants would not be able to be pollinated by drones.
     • Although they solve the problem regarding the drones’ harsh exterior, attention must be paid to their chemical ingredients.

     Correct answer: Although they solve the problem regarding the drones’ harsh exterior, attention must be paid to their chemical ingredients.

     Although they solve the problem regarding the drones’ harsh exterior, attention must be paid to their chemical ingredients is the correct answer. The passage states that using the drones without the soap bubbles caused a problem regarding the drones’ harsh exterior and the plants’ delicate nature. However, with soap bubbles, the drones no longer have to drop directly into each plant. Thus, the soap bubbles solve this problem. The passage also states that the components of the soap were of maximum importance since they could alter the plants’ absorption, so it would be correct to infer that attention must be paid to the chemical makeup. Without soap bubbles, Japanese pear plants would not be able to be pollinated by drones. This is incorrect. This is not necessarily true. The passage states that drones could damage the delicate nature of plants, but does not state that it would be impossible to pollinate plants without the use of soap bubbles. Further, although Japanese pear plants were used in the test, this specific statement cannot be proved on a general level, using solely the information in the passage. They are naturally able to produce an environment that is conducive to an effective pollination process. This is incorrect. The passage states that the soap solution was mixed with pollen grains, in order to develop a balanced mixture. Thus, it is not possible to infer that these soap bubbles were “naturally” ready to produce an effective pollination environment. It is possible to utilize them without the use of drones. This is incorrect. The passage does not state this and discusses the use of soap bubbles along with the use of drones. Although the passage briefly mentions that some pollination is already done by hand, it does not state that soap bubbles would be able to function without drones.

285. A “Clean” Replacement For Bees With the recent decline of bees and bumblebees, botanists have teamed up with scientists to answer a question that seems to become more important as time goes on: will it ever be possible to replace bees? The answers to this question may ultimately decide how the environment will be impacted once the likely extinction of bees takes place. Although it would be hard to replicate the intense labor of these life-sustaining pollinators, new technology may assist in finding alternative, practical solutions with the use of drones and a household cleaning supply: soap! Since 2017, researchers at the Advanced Institute of Science and Technology in Japan have started replicating the necessary components for the fruitful pollination of various plants. They have discovered that employing the use of drones could effectively administer droplets of pollen to plants, similar to how bees would collect and distribute pollen in natural circumstances. Through numerous efforts of trial and error, however, the scientists have realized that even the smallest drones (measuring around four centimeters) could potentially damage the delicate nature of plants. Despite the rough, metallic exteriors of drones, researchers discovered a way to successfully utilize them in the pollination process. Instead of instructing the drones to drop pollen directly into each plant, they would release soft soap bubbles instead, which would safely encase the pollen and open upon contact with the plant. In order to develop a balanced mixture of all ingredients, pollen grains were first mixed with a nutrient-enriched soap solution that contained a low level of plant toxicity. The soap’s components were of maximum importance in this matter, since they could drastically alter the plants’ absorption of each pollen granule. Once the chemical levels of the soapy mixture were finalized, testing on actual Japanese pear plants began. After the drone dispersed the soap suds, each flower came into contact with approximately 2,000 granules of pollen. The team waited nearly two weeks for extremely positive results; the artificial process had provided as many fruitful results as would have been attained with natural pollination. Given the fact that most pollination of pear and apple trees is done by hand in Japan, this method would allow many more plants to be fertilized with the same amount of pollen in drastically less time. Although initial tests have produced positive results, the weather is likely to have a negative impact on the method’s immediate success. As of now, the bubbles’ efficiency is largely dependent on the weather, and could “pop” at inopportune times due to strong gusts of wind and even the slightest rain showers. Researchers believe that these problems could be solved with technology and robotic engineering programs. With more research and development, they hope to design an automated system that could map out the most logical routes based on daily weather forecasting and growth patterns. While these drones were established to solve a potential problem of extinction, they may help cut back costs of labor involved in fertilization. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following inferences can be made regarding the sole usage of drones in plant pollination?
     • To date, it is considered to be the most satisfactory method for duplicating the method of natural pollination.
     • Despite its delicate nature, it cannot effectively mimic the pollination of plants done by hand.
     • It can guarantee a low level of plant toxicity, based on the nutrients encased in the released droplets.
     • Although it can replicate the pollination process, it can harm the physical makeup of plants.

     Correct answer: Although it can replicate the pollination process, it can harm the physical makeup of plants.

     Although it can replicate the pollination process, it can harm the physical makeup of plants is the correct answer. The passage states that drones can effectively administer droplets of pollen to plants, proving that they can replicate the pollination process. However, the passage also states that even the smallest drones can damage the delicate nature of plants. Thus, the answer option is correct, since both of its components are proven in the passage. To date, it is considered to be the most satisfactory method for duplicating the method of natural pollination. This is incorrect. First off, the passage does not mention anything regarding dates. Secondly, the answer option contains a superlative statement that cannot be proven in the text alone. Rather, the passage states that using solely drones (without soap) could potentially damage the delicate nature of plants. It can guarantee a low level of plant toxicity, based on the nutrients encased in the released droplets. This is incorrect. The information regarding plant toxicity is included in another area of the passage, and the information supplied regarding the usage of drones does not discuss toxicity. The passage states that the soap solution used alongside the drones contained a low level of plant toxicity. Despite its delicate nature, it cannot effectively mimic the pollination of plants done by hand. This is incorrect. The information supplied regarding plant pollination done by hand is separate from the information regarding drone usage. The author does not attempt to combine these two ideas. Further, the author states that the drones are not delicate, and could harm the delicate nature of plants.

286. In many African cultures, the African Elephant is a revered animal symbolizing strength and power. Praised for its longevity throughout history despite facing difficult obstacles, it is considered to be the largest terrestrial animal in the world. Despite its favorable reputation, this species has long been at risk of becoming extinct for many reasons, including but not limited to illegal poaching and habitat loss. With only 400,000 specimens surviving across the continent, conservationists are taking extra precautions when it comes to preserving these wild animals. However, they have recently been confronted with an unprecedented situation resulting in a loss of nearly 400 elephants without any known cause. Which of the following is a synonym for the word “specimens” as it is used in the paragraph?
     • Babies
     • People
     • Samples
     • Creatures

     Correct answer: Samples

     Samples is correct. “Specimens” refers to an individual within a large group or category. Therefore, “samples” would be the correct synonym because the remaining 400,000 elephants represent the whole species. People is incorrect because in this case, the text is discussing African Elephants as an endangered species and only mentions humans when providing reasons for the loss of elephants as well as the precautions being taken to protect them. Babies is incorrect. While some of the remaining African Elephants may be young, the text does not state that all those still surviving were recently born. Creatures is incorrect because it is too vague. A “specimen” refers to a specific type of animal; “creatures” could refer to any living thing in general.

287. Humans last landed on the moon in 1972. NASA formerly planned to send astronauts to the moon again by 2024. Confirming the doubts voiced by NASA’s acting administrator as well as independent experts, the mission will not be possible within that timeline. There are several reasons, one of which is the delay in developing appropriate space suits. NASA has been working on the new spacesuits for 14 years, spending $420 million on development. An estimate from the inspector general predicts the spacesuits will be ready in April 2025 at the earliest with $625 million more in costs. The report also cites a lack of funding, technical challenges, and COVID-related disruptions. The inspector general reported delays in progress on the new Space Launch System rocket. Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
     • The amount spent on the new spacesuits is not only exaggerated but the main cause of the delay in their production.
     • A management change within NASA could more efficiently solve the various challenges that have arisen.
     • If COVID-related disruptions had not arisen, the new NASA spacesuits would be available earlier than 2025.
     • NASA’s plans to send more astronauts to the moon by 2024 have been met with various challenges.

     Correct answer: NASA’s plans to send more astronauts to the moon by 2024 have been met with various challenges.

     NASA’s plans to send more astronauts to the moon by 2024 have been met with various challenges is the correct answer. This is because the author includes the various challenges in the passage, ranging from developmental delays, COVID-related disruptions, and lack of funding.The amount spent on the new spacesuits is not only exaggerated but the main cause of the delay in their production. This is incorrect. This is because the author does not mention an opinion on the $420 million cost and also includes other potential reasons for the delays, such as “lack of funding” and “technical challenges.” If COVID-related disruptions had not arisen, the new NASA spacesuits would be available earlier than 2025. This is incorrect. This is because the author does not cite COVID-related disruptions as the main cause for disruption and also includes other issues such as “lack of funding” and “technical challenges.” A management change within NASA could more efficiently solve the various challenges that have arisen. This is incorrect. This is because the author does not provide any hints or ideas that NASA’s management is to blame. If anything, the author mentions outside sources as the main reasons.

288. When conservationists working in Botswana arrived in the Okavango Delta, they noticed something that they had never seen before. Through their exploration of the area, they quickly came into contact with nearly 200 dead elephants, a number that soared to over 350 in just a few short days. According to the lead conservationist of a local park rescue service, the most disturbing detail was the unknown cause of death. Since this discovery, researchers have been looking into possible explanations, and have created a few theories that seek to explain the strange phenomenon that could eliminate the entire species forever. Which word would best replace the word “theories” as it is used in the paragraph?
     • Routines
     • Solutions
     • Guesses
     • Hypotheses

     Correct answer: Hypotheses

     Hypotheses is correct. “Theories” are known as principles suggested to explain certain phenomena. One of its synonyms is “hypotheses”, which could be used in its place. Guesses is incorrect. It means “opinions based on little to no evidence”. However, theories or hypotheses are formed based on evidence, making this option incorrect. Solutions is incorrect. It means “answers to fix a presented problem”, but researchers are only beginning to determine the cause of, and not any answers to, the problem. Routines is incorrect. This word has no connection with the topic under discussion, nor would any routines be put in place to explain the deaths.

289. Is There Anybody Out There? For over fifty years, scientists and those fascinated with outer space have been looking for signs of intelligent life in the vast universe. Although various conspiracy theorists have debated potential sights of unidentified foreign objects and even extra-terrestrial beings, these theories lack scientific evidence. In fact, other than one small signal picked up by a powerful radio telescope in 1977, scientists have not received any communication from neighboring planets. Most scientists have understood this lack of communication as a sign that Earth is the only planet in our solar system that contains existing life forms, but does research support this idea? At first, scientists were open to the idea that living beings may have existed on planets other than Earth. This was because it was initially speculated that the universe could possibly be full of habitable planets conducive to life. However, research regarding temperature shifts on certain planets across time has disproved this theory. Data has shown that four billion years ago, planets such as Venus, Earth, and Mars, could all have been habitable. However, within approximately a billion years from their birth, the temperature changes they experienced eliminated these possibilities. Mars, for instance, became very cold, whereas Venus developed into an extremely hot planet. Thus, even if Mars and Venus were once home to initial life forms, they may not have been able to keep up with the rapidly changing environmental conditions. Once astronomers and astrobiologists understood the reality of atmospheric pressures on other planets, they relied on new theories to shed new light on the matter. They learned that the atmospheres of different planets are quite delicate and that they are not stable enough to support advanced life forms. For a planet to be effectively habitable, it must have strong atmospheric stability, which is achieved through the greenhouse effect, a process that occurs as gases in the atmosphere trap heat from the Sun. Without this possibility, surface temperatures are not suitable for life forms. Of all the planets in the Solar System, Earth has managed to play a leading role in stabilizing its climate. This is why it could not only provide, but also maintain, an environment in which humans could evolve. Since Earth is the only planet known to have this capability, it is highly improbable that the Solar System contains other intelligent life forms that would be able to interact with human beings on Earth. However, this theory does not eliminate the possibility of finding fossilized life forms on other planets. If fossils were to be found on other planets, researchers believe that they would likely only be microbial in nature, further confirming that the atmospheric pressures on different planets would not support advanced life forms. Which of the following details supports the counterargument that life could be found on other planets?
     • Researchers believe that fossils could potentially be found on other planets.
     • The atmospheres of other planets do not resemble that of Earth.
     • Earth is the only known planet that has the capability of maintaining an environment with a stable enough climate for evolution.
     • Scientists have been searching for signs of life in the universe for decades.

     Correct answer: Researchers believe that fossils could potentially be found on other planets.

     Researchers believe that fossils could potentially be found on other planets is the correct answer. The final paragraph states that there is a possibility of finding microbial fossilized life forms on other planets. This leads to the inference that those planets could have been home to some kinds of life forms at some point in time, though not for long. The atmospheres of other planets do not resemble that of Earth. This is incorrect because Venus and Mars have both experienced drastic temperature shifts, decreasing the likelihood that life could exist on either of them. Earth is the only known planet that has the capability of maintaining an environment with a stable enough climate for evolution. This is incorrect because this statement only addresses the fact that Earth has the ability to house life through evolutionary periods. It does not provide any insights on other planets and their life-sustaining capabilities. Scientists have been searching for signs of life in the universe for decades. This is incorrect because this statement gives no information as to whether or not scientists have actually found signs of other life in the universe. Therefore, it would not support the claim that life may have existed outside of Earth at one point in time.

290. Understanding Stress Mechanisms Meeting deadlines, presenting important projects, or balancing professional and personal priorities are just a few ways that people experience stress on a daily basis. Despite the fact that most of these stress-inducing activities seem to stem from outside factors, our internal response to stress plays an important role in managing the ebbs and flows of life. In fact, the brain has an excellent way of establishing a resilient response system, but most of us probably do not realize the power that the mind can have over stressful situations. When confronted with a difficult situation, the mind activates its very own defense system which starts from the most “instinctive” zone of the brain: the hippocampus and the amygdala. These parts of the brain are extremely important structures. The hippocampus, located in the temporal lobe, is responsible for declarative or episodic memory. The two amygdala, on the other hand, are located close to the hippocampus and are essential for the input and processing of emotion. Thus, these two regions of the brain interact during emotional events, in order to translate the events into outcomes. For example, in an anxiety-inducing situation, the two structures would likely unleash a series of hormones that would generate negative emotions, such as anxiety. However, responses to stress involve much more than just the hippocampus and the amygdala. Specifically, when it comes to hormones, another important factor is the reaction of the pituitary gland, which is attached to the base of the brain. This gland is commonly referred to as the “master gland”, since it is known for controlling the output of most hormones in the body. For this reason, it interacts with the responses from the hippocampus and the amygdala. Soon after the pituitary gland takes action, the adrenal glands produce cortisol, a hormone that keeps the body in a state of alertness. Prominent markers of this state include an increased heartbeat, profuse sweating, and heavy breathing. Finally, these actions trigger the glucose reserved in the liver to be released into the bloodstream, providing a quick dose of energy and preparing a person for an acute stress response, which is commonly known as the “fight-or-flight” response. Although it is common to attribute these dramatic responses to stress in cases of physical harm, such as getting into a car accident, the body maintains this reaction even in instances of emotional stress. As such, it would not be unusual for someone with a fear of public speaking to go through the same emotions, or experience an anxiety-induced physical state, before delivering a speech in front of a large crowd. After all, the brain is concerned with protecting the body from all types of uncomfortable situations. What is the best way to summarize the first paragraph?
     • In general, the brain is responsible for managing stress.
     • A proper internal response can effectively eliminate stress from occurring.
     • Even if stress may originate from outside factors, it can be effectively managed by internal responses triggered by the brain.
     • People are not educated enough when it comes to the body’s stress management system.

     Correct answer: Even if stress may originate from outside factors, it can be effectively managed by internal responses triggered by the brain.

     Even if stress may originate from outside factors, it can be effectively managed by internal responses triggered by the brain is the correct answer. This summary statement accurately includes information related to outside factors and how the brain can spearhead an internal response. In general, the brain is responsible for managing stress. This is incorrect. This response does not capture the internal and external factors described in the paragraph. People are not educated enough when it comes to the body’s stress management system. This is incorrect. It provides an opinion that is not necessarily included in the paragraph. Although the paragraph claims that “most of us probably do not realize the power the mind can have…”, it does not mean that this option is correct. A proper internal response can effectively eliminate stress from occurring. This is incorrect. The paragraph does not necessarily contain this information, but it states that “our internal response to stress plays an important role in managing the ebbs and flows of life…”. However, this statement does not imply that internal responses can eliminate stress from happening.

291. A “Clean” Replacement For Bees With the recent decline of bees and bumblebees, botanists have teamed up with scientists to answer a question that seems to become more important as time goes on: will it ever be possible to replace bees? The answers to this question may ultimately decide how the environment will be impacted once the likely extinction of bees takes place. Although it would be hard to replicate the intense labor of these life-sustaining pollinators, new technology may assist in finding alternative, practical solutions with the use of drones and a household cleaning supply: soap! Since 2017, researchers at the Advanced Institute of Science and Technology in Japan have started replicating the necessary components for the fruitful pollination of various plants. They have discovered that employing the use of drones could effectively administer droplets of pollen to plants, similar to how bees would collect and distribute pollen in natural circumstances. Through numerous efforts of trial and error, however, the scientists have realized that even the smallest drones (measuring around four centimeters) could potentially damage the delicate nature of plants. Despite the rough, metallic exteriors of drones, researchers discovered a way to successfully utilize them in the pollination process. Instead of instructing the drones to drop pollen directly into each plant, they would release soft soap bubbles instead, which would safely encase the pollen and open upon contact with the plant. In order to develop a balanced mixture of all ingredients, pollen grains were first mixed with a nutrient-enriched soap solution that contained a low level of plant toxicity. The soap’s components were of maximum importance in this matter, since they could drastically alter the plants’ absorption of each pollen granule. Once the chemical levels of the soapy mixture were finalized, testing on actual Japanese pear plants began. After the drone dispersed the soap suds, each flower came into contact with approximately 2,000 granules of pollen. The team waited nearly two weeks for extremely positive results; the artificial process had provided as many fruitful results as would have been attained with natural pollination. Given the fact that most pollination of pear and apple trees is done by hand in Japan, this method would allow many more plants to be fertilized with the same amount of pollen in drastically less time. Although initial tests have produced positive results, the weather is likely to have a negative impact on the method’s immediate success. As of now, the bubbles’ efficiency is largely dependent on the weather, and could “pop” at inopportune times due to strong gusts of wind and even the slightest rain showers. Researchers believe that these problems could be solved with technology and robotic engineering programs. With more research and development, they hope to design an automated system that could map out the most logical routes based on daily weather forecasting and growth patterns. While these drones were established to solve a potential problem of extinction, they may help cut back costs of labor involved in fertilization. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn about pollination done by hand?
     • The process is more time-consuming than the methods used in the study with drones.
     • It is currently the most popular pollination method used in Japan.
     • It is only used with pear and apple trees.
     • This process requires a large amount of pollen compared to other methods.

     Correct answer: The process is more time-consuming than the methods used in the study with drones.

     The process is more time-consuming than the methods used in the study with drones is the correct answer. The passage states that the drone method would allow more plants to be fertilized with the same amount of pollen in drastically less time. Thus, it is possible to infer that the methodology of hand pollination would take longer than the drone method. This process requires a large amount of pollen compared to other methods. This is incorrect. The passage states that this process uses the same amount of pollen that would be used in the drone process. It is not made clear whether 2,000 granules of pollen is “a large amount” compared to other methods, so it is impossible to confirm that pollination done by hand requires “a large amount” of pollen. It is only used with pear and apple trees. This is incorrect. Although the passage states that most pollination of pear and apple trees is already done by hand in Japan, it does not state that it is only used in these cases. It is currently the most popular pollination method used in Japan. This is incorrect. Although the passage states that it is currently used in Japan, it does not state that it is the most popular pollination method.

292. The Making of a Referee Most sports fans would probably agree that athletes face excruciatingly difficult challenges on and off the playing field, ranging from daily practices to lengthy interviews with news outlets. Psychologists, on the other hand, would likely argue that referees put up with some of the worst circumstances, especially when die-hard fans disagree with their decisions. After studying the behavior of both fans and referees, British researchers used a non-experimental study to observe the decision-making skills of referees in relation to their physical attributes. Is it possible to understand whether a referee is more strict based on his or her physique? The results may be surprising. The first step in the experiment was to reach out to the appropriate demographic (soccer fans living in Great Britain) in order to understand the general stereotypes surrounding referees on the soccer field. Based on these survey results, most participants associated shorter stature with referees who were thought to perform badly on the soccer field. That is, shorter referees were understood to be the most likely to make punitive decisions during the game when compared to their taller peers. Once these results were attained, researchers analyzed 61 soccer referees from four different English professional leagues between the ages of 26 and 53, along with an average height of 1.76 meters. Scientists used a correlational research scheme for their experiment in order to focus on the statistical relationship between the two variables without having to change an independent variable. In other words, they explored the relationship between the height of referees and their disciplinary decisions towards athletes on the field in a given soccer season. Specifically, the punitive decisions involved the number of times a referee distributed penalties in the form of yellow cards, which signify a cautionary measure, and red cards, which result in a player’s dismissal from the field. Although the experiment did not show a correlation between a referee’s height and the number of fouls given throughout a season, it yielded interesting results in terms of the distribution of yellow and red cards. On a general level, researchers found a correlation between shorter stature and the amount of yellow and red cards given to soccer players. However, it is important to note that these results are also dependent on the level of each of the four professional leagues that were taken into consideration. As such, higher leagues contained taller referees who typically gave out a similar amount of red cards as shorter referees. While these findings may be fascinating to athletes and sports fans alike, they are applicable only to the context of soccer games and do not provide evidence of a connection between stature and punitive behavior on a larger scale. Which supporting detail is an example of opinion, rather than fact?
     • In their study, the British researchers were interested in the decision-making skills of referees, as well as their physical attributes.
     • In general, athletes can be present for interviews with various news outlets in addition to pursuing their athletic careers.
     • Studying the behavior of fans and athletes was a component of the study involving referees.
     • Psychologists and sports fans are likely to disagree when it comes to situations regarding athletes.

     Correct answer: Psychologists and sports fans are likely to disagree when it comes to situations regarding athletes.

     Psychologists and sports fans are likely to disagree when it comes to situations regarding athletes is the correct answer. This is correct. This opening detail is a generalization and an opinion presented by the author in order to grab a reader’s attention. This idea is not supported by factual evidence. In their study, the British researchers were interested in the decision-making skills of referees, as well as their physical attributes. This is incorrect. This is factual evidence based on the mentioned study and is not an opinion. In general, athletes can be present for interviews with various news outlets in addition to pursuing their athletic careers. This is incorrect. This is a fact, based on the information in the passage. The author opens the first paragraph with a generalized statement, but this component of the paragraph is rooted in fact. Studying the behavior of fans and athletes was a component of the study involving referees. This is incorrect. This is a fact, based on how the experiment was handled and is included in the first paragraph. It is not an opinion.

293. Understanding Stress Mechanisms Meeting deadlines, presenting important projects, or balancing professional and personal priorities are just a few ways that people experience stress on a daily basis. Despite the fact that most of these stress-inducing activities seem to stem from outside factors, our internal response to stress plays an important role in managing the ebbs and flows of life. In fact, the brain has an excellent way of establishing a resilient response system, but most of us probably do not realize the power that the mind can have over stressful situations. When confronted with a difficult situation, the mind activates its very own defense system which starts from the most “instinctive” zone of the brain: the hippocampus and the amygdala. These parts of the brain are extremely important structures. The hippocampus, located in the temporal lobe, is responsible for declarative or episodic memory. The two amygdala, on the other hand, are located close to the hippocampus and are essential for the input and processing of emotion. Thus, these two regions of the brain interact during emotional events, in order to translate the events into outcomes. For example, in an anxiety-inducing situation, the two structures would likely unleash a series of hormones that would generate negative emotions, such as anxiety. However, responses to stress involve much more than just the hippocampus and the amygdala. Specifically, when it comes to hormones, another important factor is the reaction of the pituitary gland, which is attached to the base of the brain. This gland is commonly referred to as the “master gland”, since it is known for controlling the output of most hormones in the body. For this reason, it interacts with the responses from the hippocampus and the amygdala. Soon after the pituitary gland takes action, the adrenal glands produce cortisol, a hormone that keeps the body in a state of alertness. Prominent markers of this state include an increased heartbeat, profuse sweating, and heavy breathing. Finally, these actions trigger the glucose reserved in the liver to be released into the bloodstream, providing a quick dose of energy and preparing a person for an acute stress response, which is commonly known as the “fight-or-flight” response. Although it is common to attribute these dramatic responses to stress in cases of physical harm, such as getting into a car accident, the body maintains this reaction even in instances of emotional stress. As such, it would not be unusual for someone with a fear of public speaking to go through the same emotions, or experience an anxiety-induced physical state, before delivering a speech in front of a large crowd. After all, the brain is concerned with protecting the body from all types of uncomfortable situations. Which statement best summarizes the third paragraph?
     • The pituitary gland is responsible for managing the way hormones are released in the body.
     • Overall, one’s response to stress depends on the interaction of several organs, which then manifests through various reactions.
     • If someone experiences an increased heartbeat, it means that cortisol has been released in his or her body.
     • It is imperative that the pituitary gland effectively responds to the hippocampus and the amygdala.

     Correct answer: Overall, one’s response to stress depends on the interaction of several organs, which then manifests through various reactions.

     Overall, one’s response to stress depends on the interaction of several organs, which then manifests through various reactions is the correct answer. The third paragraph describes the reactions of the pituitary gland and the adrenal gland (organs) and provides examples of possible reactions that could happen (increased heartbeat, sweating, heavy breathing). This summary statement encompasses all of these ideas into one sentence. The pituitary gland is responsible for managing the way hormones are released in the body. This is incorrect. This summary only provides a supporting detail about how the pituitary gland works and ignores other information given in the paragraph. It is imperative that the pituitary gland effectively responds to the hippocampus and the amygdala. This is incorrect. Although the paragraph includes information stating that the pituitary gland interacts with the hippocampus and the amygdala, it is simply declared. This answer option implies that a level of importance is placed on this detail, which is not necessarily correct. Additionally, it only provides a supporting detail rather than the overarching summary. If someone experiences an increased heartbeat, it means that cortisol has been released in his or her body. This is incorrect. Although the information in the paragraph would support this idea, it is not a comprehensive summary of the paragraph.

294. Understanding Stress Mechanisms Meeting deadlines, presenting important projects, or balancing professional and personal priorities are just a few ways that people experience stress on a daily basis. Despite the fact that most of these stress-inducing activities seem to stem from outside factors, our internal response to stress plays an important role in managing the ebbs and flows of life. In fact, the brain has an excellent way of establishing a resilient response system, but most of us probably do not realize the power that the mind can have over stressful situations. When confronted with a difficult situation, the mind activates its very own defense system which starts from the most “instinctive” zone of the brain: the hippocampus and the amygdala. These parts of the brain are extremely important structures. The hippocampus, located in the temporal lobe, is responsible for declarative or episodic memory. The two amygdala, on the other hand, are located close to the hippocampus and are essential for the input and processing of emotion. Thus, these two regions of the brain interact during emotional events, in order to translate the events into outcomes. For example, in an anxiety-inducing situation, the two structures would likely unleash a series of hormones that would generate negative emotions, such as anxiety. However, responses to stress involve much more than just the hippocampus and the amygdala. Specifically, when it comes to hormones, another important factor is the reaction of the pituitary gland, which is attached to the base of the brain. This gland is commonly referred to as the “master gland”, since it is known for controlling the output of most hormones in the body. For this reason, it interacts with the responses from the hippocampus and the amygdala. Soon after the pituitary gland takes action, the adrenal glands produce cortisol, a hormone that keeps the body in a state of alertness. Prominent markers of this state include an increased heartbeat, profuse sweating, and heavy breathing. Finally, these actions trigger the glucose reserved in the liver to be released into the bloodstream, providing a quick dose of energy and preparing a person for an acute stress response, which is commonly known as the “fight-or-flight” response. Although it is common to attribute these dramatic responses to stress in cases of physical harm, such as getting into a car accident, the body maintains this reaction even in instances of emotional stress. As such, it would not be unusual for someone with a fear of public speaking to go through the same emotions, or experience an anxiety-induced physical state, before delivering a speech in front of a large crowd. After all, the brain is concerned with protecting the body from all types of uncomfortable situations. Which statement best summarizes the second paragraph?
     • A feeling of anxiety is likely to stem from increased hormones.
     • Stressful situations activate the brain’s “instinctive” features.
     • The hippocampus and the amygdala make up the most important zone of the brain.
     • The hippocampus and the amygdala are responsible for processing events and releasing hormones in response to them.

     Correct answer: The hippocampus and the amygdala are responsible for processing events and releasing hormones in response to them.

     The hippocampus and the amygdala are responsible for processing events and releasing hormones in response to them is the correct answer. This summary offers a concise understanding of the main topics of the paragraph (hippocampus, amygdala, response system, reaction) while also being concise. The hippocampus and the amygdala make up the most important zone of the brain. This is incorrect. Although the paragraph states that “these parts of the brain are extremely important structures”, it does not claim that they make up “the most important zone” of the brain. Additionally, this would not be considered a sufficient summary since it does not contain important details given in the paragraph. Stressful situations activate the brain’s “instinctive” features. This is incorrect. This information is accurate based on the information in the second paragraph, but it is incomplete. It does not include necessary details and only references the paragraph’s opening idea. A feeling of anxiety is likely to stem from increased hormones. This is incorrect. It only presents a supporting example of the paragraph’s main idea.

295. What word has a similar meaning to “cheap; tasteless”?
     • Pensive
     • Obsolescent
     • Tawdry
     • Gullible

     Correct answer: Tawdry

     Tawdry refers to something that looks bright and attractive but is in fact cheap and of low quality. Many residents complained about the tawdry Christmas lights that had burned out just days after setting them up. Pensive refers to someone engaged in, or reflecting deep or serious thought. Shirley was pensive, fiddling with a pen and thinking of possible outcomes. The definition of obsolescent is being in the process of passing out of use or usefulness. Technology is so obsolescent nowadays that you are almost obligated to buy a new phone every couple of years. Gullible refers to someone who is easily deceived. Only the most gullible would believe everything tabloids say.

296. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Just ahead of the Fourth of July holiday, the police remind citizens it’s illegal to pop or possess fireworks.
     • To force someone to go somewhere with you, often using threats or violence
     • To have or own something, or to have a particular quality
     • To take things or people to or from a place secretly and often illegally
     • To buy something

     Correct answer: To have or own something, or to have a particular quality

     To possess means to have or own something, or to have a particular quality. The flowers of this plant are known to possess healing powers. To purchase means to buy something. She inherited a remarkable sum and was able to purchase a house in her preferred neighborhood. To smuggle means to take things or people to or from a place secretly and often illegally. They were caught trying to smuggle several art pieces out of the country. To abduct means to force someone to go somewhere with you, often using threats or violence. Kidnappers abducted the billionaire’s son on his way to school.

297. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? The furnishings, all bright colors and animal print, were tawdry and horrendous.
     • Very beautiful and delicate
     • Made of wood
     • Something that looks bright and attractive but is in fact cheap and of low quality.
     • Someone or something that makes you feel slightly frightened or worried about your ability to achieve something

     Correct answer: Something that looks bright and attractive but is in fact cheap and of low quality.

     Tawdry refers to something that looks bright and attractive but is in fact cheap and of low quality. Many residents complained about the tawdry Christmas lights that had burned out just days after setting them up. Wooden means made of wood. The wooden fence needs to be sanded before applying the new coat of paint. Daunting refers to someone or something that makes you feel slightly frightened or worried about your ability to achieve something. The child, who had been told not to play ball inside the house, was faced with the daunting prospect of convincing his mother he hadn’t broken the lamp. Exquisite refers to something that is very beautiful and delicate. I’ve found the most exquisite pieces of china in a thrift shop.

298. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The patient decided to forgo the invasive procedure.
     • Decline
     • Accept
     • Delay
     • Research

     Correct answer: Decline

     Answer: decline To forgo something means to omit or decline it. In this example, the patient decided to decline the invasive (underneath the skin) procedure.

299. What is another word for “empty”?
     • Raucous
     • Void
     • Restricted
     • Ethereal

     Correct answer: Void

     Answer: void Void means empty or useless or having no legal force. Her departure left a void in the team that was difficult to fill. Raucous means “loud”. The raucous crowd screamed after the basketball player hit the buzzer-beating jump shot. Restricted means “limited”. Access to this area of the store is restricted to employees only. Ethereal means “light, airy or heavenly”. She was so beautiful to him. In his eyes, she had an angelic, ethereal glow about her.

300. Fill the blank with the correct word. Instagram filters, a form of digital plastic surgery, can be ________ to self-esteem.
     • Complimentary
     • Daunting
     • Injurious
     • Rambunctious

     Correct answer: Injurious

     Injurious refers to something or somebody that causes damage or harm. It’s common knowledge that tobacco and alcohol are injurious to health. Complimentary means praising or expressing admiration for someone. I was feeling optimistic because most of the reviews we received after re-opening had been highly complimentary. Daunting refers to someone or something that makes you feel slightly frightened or worried about your ability to achieve something. The child, who had been told not to play ball inside the house, was faced with the daunting prospect of convincing his mother he hadn’t broken the lamp. Rambunctious refers to someone who is full of energy and difficult to control. The rambunctious child had broken a lamp and spilled a glass of milk.

301. Fill the blank with the correct word. The _________ city, which had less than 100,000 inhabitants ten years ago, is now home to almost half a million people.
     • Quantitative
     • Polished
     • Sparse
     • Burgeoning

     Correct answer: Burgeoning

     Burgeoning refers to something that is growing or developing quickly. The burgeoning tourist industry will help the island country’s economy recover, but an excess of visitors could negatively affect the ecosystem. Sparse means small in numbers or amount, often spread over a large area. Because of health restrictions, the President will address a sparse audience. Quantitative means relating to numbers or amounts. With the help of advanced quantitative analysis, irregularities in the market could be picked up. Someone who is polished is polite, graceful, and stylish. He’s charming and polished, and I know you will like him.

302. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The patient temporarily lost their equilibrium as a side effect of the otic surgery.
     • Eligibility
     • Balance
     • Energy
     • Hearing

     Correct answer: Balance

     Answer: balance. Equilibrium means balance. People’s sense of equilibrium comes from the inner ear, which is why temporarily losing your sense of balance is a possible side effect of surgery in the ear.

303. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Identical twins come from a single fertilized zygote that splits into two separate individuals.
     • An unborn offspring of a vertebrate animal that is still in the uterus or egg
     • The cell that forms by the union of an egg cell and a sperm cell
     • An extremely young child or animal
     • An animal in the earliest stages of its development in the uterus or the egg

     Correct answer: The cell that forms by the union of an egg cell and a sperm cell

     Answer: the cell that forms by the union of an egg cell and a sperm cell. A zygote is a cell that forms by the union of an egg cell and a sperm cell. An embryo is an animal in the earliest stages of its development in the uterus or the egg. A fetus is an unborn offspring of a vertebrate animal that is still in the uterus or egg. A baby is an extremely young child or animal.

304. What word has a similar meaning to “shameful; objectionable”?
     • Homeopathic
     • Staggered
     • Irreproachable
     • Reprehensible

     Correct answer: Reprehensible

     Reprehensible refers to someone or something deserving of blame or scolding. His daughter’s reprehensible behavior changed the way his neighbors viewed his family. Irreproachable means without fault and therefore impossible to criticize. This candidate’s irreproachable behavior contrasts with that of his opponent, a rude and brawly man. Staggered means very shocked or surprised. I was staggered at the painting’s beauty. Homeopathic means relating to a method of treating diseases which involves using extremely small amounts of natural substances. The brilliant doctor questions the effectiveness of homeopathic remedies.

305. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Female crabs prefer males that perform faster dances as part of their mating ritual.
     • Something that serves as tangible proof or evidence
     • The process of creating an exact copy of a plant or animal by using its cells
     • A set of fixed actions and sometimes words performed regularly, especially as part of a ceremony
     • The act of judging or deciding the amount, value, quality, or importance of something

     Correct answer: A set of fixed actions and sometimes words performed regularly, especially as part of a ceremony

     Ritual refers to a set of fixed actions and sometimes words performed regularly, especially as part of a ceremony. Having a cup of tea and checking my email is part of my morning ritual. An assessment is the act of judging or deciding the amount, value, quality, or importance of something. The specialist didn’t consider the journalist’s opinion to be a fair assessment of the situation. A testament is something that serves as tangible proof or evidence. The multiple schools that the Princess inaugurated are a testament to her endless philanthropy. Cloning is the process of creating an exact copy of a plant or animal by using its cells. Human cloning raises many ethical questions

306. What is the meaning of “inferior”?
     • Of little or less importance, value, or merit
     • Positioned at or towards the front
     • Positioned at or towards the back
     • Better than average or better than other people or things of the same type

     Correct answer: Of little or less importance, value, or merit

     Inferior means of little or less importance, value, or merit. One could spot the inferior quality of the produce from a mile. Anterior refers to something that is positioned at or towards the front. Anterior teeth are easier to brush than molars. Posterior refers to something that is positioned at or towards the back. The doctor detected an ulcer on the posterior wall of the patient’s stomach. Superior means better than average or better than other people or things of the same type. He had regarded them as intellectually superior and was appalled to discover how ignorant they were.

307. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The study conducted last summer wasn′t able to accept or refute the hypothesis.
     • An educated guess or theory
     • Something that gives proof or leads to a conclusion
     • The underlying reason why something happened
     • Connection or interdependence between two or more things

     Correct answer: An educated guess or theory

     Answer: an educated guess or theory A hypothesis is an educated guess or theory. Evidence is something that gives proof or leads to a conclusion. Causation is the underlying reason why something happened. A correlation is a connection or interdependence between two or more things.

308. What word meaning “lesser; secondary” fits best in the following sentence? Holistically speaking, bottle-feeding is _________ to breastfeeding.
     • Inferior
     • Superior
     • Benign
     • Analogous

     Correct answer: Inferior

     Inferior means of little or less importance, value, or merit. One could spot the inferior quality of the produce from a mile. Superior means better than average or better than other people or things of the same type. He had regarded them as intellectually superior and was appalled to discover how ignorant they were. Benign means pleasant and kind; not harmful or severe. Albert had been worried about a tumor his mother has in one of her breasts, but it turned out to be benign. Analogous means having similar features to another thing and therefore able to be compared with it. The civil code of Romania is in many respects noticeably analogous to that of France.

309. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? His reprehensible actions have cost him one too many friendships.
     • Based on or using good judgment, and therefore fair and practical
     • Intended to seduce someone
     • Deserving of blame or scolding
     • Very beautiful and very good

     Correct answer: Deserving of blame or scolding

     Reprehensible refers to someone or something deserving of blame or scolding. His daughter’s reprehensible behavior changed the way his neighbors viewed his family. Angelic means very beautiful and very good. The angelic baby she remembered had grown into a handsome man. Seductive means intended to seduce someone. Her seductive look melted his insides. Reasonable refers to someone or something that is based on or using good judgment, and therefore fair and practical. Since Fernando lives closer to our house, the most reasonable thing to do was to pick him up earlier than Monica, whose apartment is across town.

310. What is another word for “maintenance of body fluid balance?”
     • Hydration
     • Equilibrium
     • Aegis
     • Etiology

     Correct answer: Hydration

     Answer: hydration Hydration: maintenance of body fluid balance. Remember to hydrate when exercising – you should drink plenty of water. Equilibrium: balance. The patient was experiencing dizziness as the medication had affected her equilibrium. Etiology: the cause or origin of a disease or illness. The etiology of his high blood pressure included smoking and a lack of exercise. Aegis: control. Policies of the hospital are under the aegis of the chief physician.

311. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The patient suffered a virulent attack of smallpox when he was only four years old.
     • Unusual or exceptional
     • Based on stories and retellings
     • Moderate or pleasant
     • Extremely harmful or severe

     Correct answer: Extremely harmful or severe

     Answer: extremely harmful or severe. The definition of virulent is something very dangerous or harmful. It also is being especially bitter, ardent and hostile. Ebola is a virulent infection killing almost 90% of those it infects.

312. What is another word for “verbal?”
     • Otic
     • Renal
     • Oral
     • Audible

     Correct answer: Oral

     Answer: oral. Verbal means spoken, using words. Oral, which refers to anything dealing with the mouth, is the best answer. Audible means that something can be heard. If someone speaks, they likely intend for it to be audible so that it can be heard, but audible does not mean “spoken.” Renal refers to anything relating to the kidneys. Otic refers to anything relating to the ears.

313. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The impending court ruling will have serious effects on healthcare.
     • Ominous
     • Inauspicious
     • Important
     • Occurring in the near future

     Correct answer: Occurring in the near future

     Answer: occurring in the near future. Impending means occurring in the near future. If something is impending, then it is definitely going to happen and will happen soon. Inauspicious and ominous both mean “giving the impression that something bad might happen in the future.”

314. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The patient appeared flushed.
     • Pale
     • Pigmented
     • Ruddy
     • Exhausted

     Correct answer: Ruddy

     Answer: ruddy. Flushed means reddened or ruddy appearance. The runner’s face was flushed after finishing the half marathon. Exhausted is another word for fatigue. I was exhausted after working a double shift. Pigmented means colored. More expensive makeup tends to be more pigmented than cheap makeup, which is typically diluted and devoid of color.

315. Select the word that means “diminished”. The nursing care regiment for impaired skin integrity calls for the assessment of high-risk areas like bony prominences, skin staging, and proper hydration.
     • Regiment
     • Prominence
     • Impaired
     • Integrity

     Correct answer: Impaired

     Answer: impaired. Impaired means “diminished or lacking some usual quality or level.” Impaired skin integrity is a nursing diagnosis referring to skin damage. Regiment means plan. Integrity means strong, together, undivided. Bony prominences refers to areas of the body that stick out more (elbows, knees).

316. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. A lack of proper oral hygiene was what caused the man’s gingivitis.
     • Maintenance of body fluid balance
     • Medication
     • Measures contributing to cleanliness and good health
     • Nourishment

     Correct answer: Measures contributing to cleanliness and good health

     Answer: measures contributing to cleanliness and good health. Hygiene: measures contributing to cleanliness and good health. It is good hygiene to wash your hands every time you use the bathroom.

317. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. That patient in room 246 is exasperating all of the nurses: he keeps yelling at them that they don′t know how to do their job properly.
     • To give up hope
     • To appeal to someone's sense of humor
     • To give someone approval
     • To make worse or frustrate

     Correct answer: To make worse or frustrate

     Answer: to make worse or frustrate. Exasperate means to make worse or frustrate. The kids were so rambunctious today that I was totally exasperated by the early afternoon. Praise means “to give someone approval, communication about someone’s good work or qualities”. The nurse was praised for her masterful handling of the rude patient. Amuse means “to appeal to someone′s sense of humor”. The nurse told a funny joke to amuse the grumpy patient. Despair means “to give up hope”. The patient in room 246 was acting so belligerently because he was in great despair. His prognosis was not good.

318. Select the word that means “to put into action”. The nursing staff wants to implement a strict diet regiment for the patient comprised entirely of clear fluids supplemented with essential vitamins and electrolytes.
     • Comprised
     • Implement
     • Supplemented
     • Regiment

     Correct answer: Implement

     Answer: implement. Implement means “to put into action” or “to cause something to happen.” Regiment means plan. Comprised means “made up of.” The patient’s diet, in this case, will be completely made up of clear fluids. Supplemented means “to take in addition to something else” or “to complete.” In this question, the nurse is going to add vitamins and electrolytes to the patient’s diet.

319. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The incidence of new HIV infections has dropped in the past decade due to increased awareness of how to mitigate the transmission of the disease.
     • Symptoms
     • Virulence
     • Ubiquity
     • Occurrence

     Correct answer: Occurrence

     Answer: occurrence. Incidence means occurrence and is the correct answer. People with obesity tend to have a high incidence of sleep apnea. Virulence refers to how harmful or severe a disease is. Although this word would seem to fit given the context clues, the word “incidence” is best defined as an occurrence, so it is still our best answer. Ebola is a disease with high virulence. It can take over a host with infection extremely quickly. Ubiquity means that something is very common or appearing everywhere. Smartphones have become ubiquitous because they are so common in society now. A symptom is an indication of a problem. Sneezing is a symptom of the common cold.

320. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The doctor gave her rationale as to why the patient should assent to the surgery.
     • Prognosis
     • Underlying reason
     • Plea
     • Instructions

     Correct answer: Underlying reason

     Answer: underlying reason. Rationale means underlying reason. The doctor is giving the patient her rationale (reasoning) behind why the patient should assent (agree) to have the surgery. Assent is to agree or approve of. I assented to the dietary regiment recommended to me by my nurse. A prognosis is the expected outcome. The doctor’s prgonosis is that the patient would regain her strength in a couple of days.

321. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. My great-grandmother, who was a nurse too, worked at a hospital for indigent patients.
     • Poor, needy
     • Likely to end in death
     • Exhibiting financial success
     • Unprotected

     Correct answer: Poor, needy

     Answer: poor, needy. Indigent means “poor, needy, someone who has little or nothing”. The indigent man could not afford food or clothing. Terminal is something that is likely to end in death. Inoperable brain cancer is an example of a terminal illness. Prosperous is something or somebody exhibiting financial success. My friend became very prosperous after selling her own makeup company.

322. What is another word for “enhance”?
     • Imply
     • Improve
     • Scrutinize
     • Predispose

     Correct answer: Improve

     Answer: improve. Enhance means “to make something better or to improve”. We have enhanced the flavor of our sodas by adding even more corn syrup! Imply means “to suggest without explicitly stating”. His short, passive-aggressive, one-word-answer text responses implied that he was annoyed with me. Predispose means “to make more susceptible or more likely to occur”. People with a family history of certain cancers are predisposed to getting cancer themselves. Scrutinize means “to examine closely”. The teacher scrutinized the student’s lab report, looking very closely for mistakes.

323. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. A lot of people don′t know you can′t fight a virus with antibiotics.
     • A very common, mild viral infection of the nose and throat
     • Inflammation of the vermiform appendix
     • Any of a group of tiny infectious agents composed mainly or entirely of protein
     • Microscopic infectious agent capable of replicating only in living cells, usually causing infectious disease

     Correct answer: Microscopic infectious agent capable of replicating only in living cells, usually causing infectious disease

     Answer: microscopic infectious agent capable of replicating only in living cells, usually causing infectious disease. The common cold is a very common, mild viral infection of the nose and throat. Appendicitis means “inflammation of the vermiform appendix”. A prion is any of a group of tiny infectious agents composed mainly or entirely of protein.

324. What word meaning “concise” fits best in the sentence? The nurse put it in a _______ way: if James didn′t stop smoking he would never recover.
     • Precocious
     • Susceptible
     • Artificial
     • Terse

     Correct answer: Terse

     Answer: terse. The definition of terse is language that is brief and to the point, free of superfluous words. His terse, one-word responses told me he was upset. Artificial refers to something that is simulated or made by humans, not by nature. Artificial sweeteners including aspartame and acesulfame potassium were created by humans to replace natural but more caloric sweeteners like sugar. Susceptible means “likely or liable to be influenced or harmed by a particular thing”. After he recovered from the accident, the patient was informed that he had scar tissue on his lung and would be susceptible to pneumonia. Precocious means “showing maturity at a young age”. She was very precocious, taking graduate-level calculus as a first-year college student.

325. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The nurse entered the room to conduct an initial examination of the patient.
     • Final
     • Complete
     • First
     • Written

     Correct answer: First

     Answer: first. Initial means first. In this sentence, the nurse is coming into the room to do the first examination on a patient.

326. Select the word that means “feeling anger because of something unjust”. This hospital is seriously understaffed. It′s indignant to see ailing patients waiting for hours to be seen by an exhausted medical professional.
     • Understaffed
     • Indignant
     • Exhausted
     • Ailing

     Correct answer: Indignant

     Answer: indignant. Indignant means “feeling or showing anger because of something unjust”. I was indignant after being punished so harshly when I didn’t even do anything wrong! Ailing means “sickly, in poor health”. My previously ailing hamster made a miraculous recovery and is now in excellent health!

327. Fill the blank with the correct word. Romania’s population is shrinking and aging because thousands of young Romanians ___________ every year.
     • Emigrate
     • Expand
     • Import
     • Immigrate

     Correct answer: Emigrate

     Emigrate means to leave a country permanently and go to live in another one. Thousands of Spaniards emigrated to Latin American countries during the first half of the 20th century. Import means to buy or bring in products from another country. We started importing cars from Japan in 1995; before that, we dedicated exclusively to European cars. Immigrate means to come to live permanently in a country that is not your own. Both of our fathers, who had grown up in the same Irish town, immigrated to Canada around the same time. Expand means to increase in size, number, or importance, or to make something increase in this way. The company has been constantly growing since it expanded its retail operations thirty years ago.

328. Which word can be defined as “tired; slow; lazy”?
     • Neophyte
     • Agile
     • Languid
     • Dissonant

     Correct answer: Languid

     Answer: languid. Languid: tired or slow to move. The child was languid after playing all day at the park with friends. Neophyte: beginner. Because I have such limited experience in the kitchen, I am a neophyte when it comes to baking. Agile: quick to move. She was a fast basketball player, but she was also agile – she could turn on a dime. Dissonant: lack of harmony; not in agreement. There was a great dissonance in what he says and what he does. He does not practice what he preaches.

329. Which word can be defined as “a feeling of general discomfort”? While taking these pills, patients may experience migraines, nausea, loss of appetite, and malaise.
     • Loss of appetite
     • Nausea
     • Migraines
     • Malaise

     Correct answer: Malaise

     Answer: malaise. Migraines, loss of appetite, and nausea are certainly all uncomfortable conditions. However, malaise is the best answer choice as it means “a vague/general feeling of physical discomfort or uneasiness, as early in an illness”.

330. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The nurse noticed that the joints in the patient’s fingers were inflamed.
     • Swollen
     • Jammed
     • Broken
     • Blanched

     Correct answer: Swollen

     Answer: swollen. Inflamed means reddened, swollen, warm, and tender (sore). In this example, the patient’s joints were red, swollen, and sore. Blanched means white.

331. What is the meaning of “laden”?
     • Having a lot of ideas and enthusiasm
     • Carrying or holding a lot of something
     • Extremely stupid
     • Showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern

     Correct answer: Carrying or holding a lot of something

     Laden refers to someone or something that is carrying or holding a lot of something. Every Christmas, uncle Darius comes laden with presents for his nephews and nieces. Apathetic refers to someone who shows or feels no interest, enthusiasm, or concern. To the salsa band’s dismay, the apathetic audience refused to leave their seats during the whole concert. Asinine refers to someone or something that is extremely stupid. I don’t have time for asinine comments, but come see me if you want to have an actual discussion. Dynamic refers to someone who has a lot of ideas and enthusiasm. The team needs somebody young and dynamic that can help us expand through social media.

332. Which word in the sentence means “easily dealt with”? The horse, enormous and daunting, turned out to be tractable and used to deal with children, so Judy, who was exhilarated, can’t wait for her parents to take her horseback riding again this weekend.
     • Exhilarated
     • Enormous
     • Tractable
     • Daunting

     Correct answer: Tractable

     Tractable refers to someone or something that is easily dealt with, controlled, or persuaded. The problem with the database turned out to be more tractable than we had imagined: we just needed to make a new copy of our data sets. Enormous refers to someone or something that is extremely large. His enormous salary was more than enough to provide for his entire family. Daunting refers to someone or something that makes you feel slightly frightened or worried about your ability to achieve something. The child, who had been told not to play ball inside the house, was faced with the daunting prospect of convincing his mother he hadn’t broken the lamp. Exhilarated refers to someone who is very excited and happy. The fans, exhilarated by the team’s win, partied all night.

333. Select the word that means “contamination or invasion of body tissue by pathogenic organisms”. The pathology report indicated that infection was the cause of the patient’s labile symptoms.
     • Infection
     • Pathology
     • Symptoms
     • Labile

     Correct answer: Infection

     Answer: infection. Infection means “contamination or invasion of body tissue of pathogenic organisms (like bacteria or viruses).” Pathology refers to the processes, causes, and effects of a disease. Labile means “changing rapidly and often.” Symptoms refer to characteristics that indicate a problem or disease. Sneezing, coughing and runny nose are all symptoms of the common cold.

334. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? The trees, laden with fruits, had benefited from the rainy weather.
     • Carrying or holding a lot of something
     • Needing a lot of time and effort
     • Too poor to produce much or any vegetation
     • Having a very bright or beautiful appearance

     Correct answer: Carrying or holding a lot of something

     Laden refers to someone or something that is carrying or holding a lot of something. Every Christmas, uncle Darius comes laden with presents for his nephews and nieces. Resplendent refers to someone or something that has a very bright or beautiful appearance. While all the women in the ballroom looked outstanding, my wife was resplendent in her purple long dress. Laborious refers to something that needs a lot of time and effort. After two weeks of tedious work, Nicoleta had finished the laborious task of entering all the data. Barren refers to land that is too poor to produce much or any vegetation. The barren and rocky landscape reminded Rochelle of her trip through the Gobi desert.

335. What is the meaning of “immigrant”?
     • A medical student in training
     • A person who leaves their own country in order to settle permanently in another
     • A person who comes to live permanently in a foreign country
     • A member of a group of people who move from one place to another rather than living in one place all of the time

     Correct answer: A person who comes to live permanently in a foreign country

     An immigrant is a person who comes to live permanently in a foreign country. My grandfather, an immigrant from China, learned how to speak English by watching television. A resident is a medical student in training. First-year residents still have a long way to go before becoming doctors. A nomad is a member of a group of people who move from one place to another rather than living in one place all of the time. These tribes of desert nomads don’t spend more than three or four weeks in the same place. An emigrant is a person who leaves their own country in order to settle permanently in another. Millions of emigrants have fled from the most dangerous countries in Central America.

336. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Her fortitude definitely helped her recover from severe trauma.
     • Strength and endurance during a difficult time
     • Educated guess or theory
     • Doing what is right
     • Strict isolation

     Correct answer: Strength and endurance during a difficult time

     Answer: strength and endurance during a difficult time. Fortitude means “strength and endurance during a difficult time”. It took great fortitude for Helen Keller to not only endure being deaf and blind but to become a champion for social reform. Quarantine means “strict isolation imposed to prevent the spread of disease” We quarantined all of the townspeople who were exposed to the zombie virus by locking them in the school gym. Integrity means “doing what is right”. The athlete showed integrity by admitting she had committed the foul. A hypothesis is an educated guess or theory. The Greek mathematician Pythagoras was one of the first to develop the hypothesis that Earth was round.

337. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The nurse practitioner instructed the patient to ingest three doses of medication daily.
     • Swallow
     • Inject
     • Prescribe
     • Insufflate

     Correct answer: Swallow

     Answer: swallow. Ingest means to swallow. I ingested the pills prescribed by my doctor. Insufflate means to blow a gas or powder medication into a cavity of the body (think allergy medicine that you sniff out of a bottle). He insufflated the nasal allergy spray through each nostril. It was gross. Prescribe is when a medical practitioner advises and authorizes the use of a medicine to treat an injury or illness. I ingested the pills prescribed by my doctor. Inject means to force a liquid into a person’s body using a syringe (needle). Using a hypodermic needle, the nurse injected the infant patient with the booster shot.

338. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence? The two political parties have devoted their efforts to demonize the country’s immigrant population in, as they say, an attempt to prevent our culture from disappearing.
     • Someone who leaves their own country, often for political reasons or because of war, and who travels to another country hoping that the government will protect them and allow them to live there
     • A person who comes to live permanently in a foreign country
     • A person who leaves their own country in order to settle permanently in another
     • A member of a group of people who move from one place to another rather than living in one place all of the time

     Correct answer: A person who comes to live permanently in a foreign country

     An immigrant is a person who comes to live permanently in a foreign country. My grandfather, an immigrant from China, learned how to speak English by watching television. A nomad is a member of a group of people who move from one place to another rather than living in one place all of the time. These tribes of desert nomads don’t spend more than three or four weeks in the same place. An emigrant is a person who leaves their own country in order to settle permanently in another. Millions of emigrants have fled from the most dangerous countries in Central America. An asylum seeker is someone who leaves their own country, often for political reasons or because of war, and who travels to another country hoping that the government will protect them and allow them to live there. In the last ten years, almost a million asylum seekers have made a formal application for the right to remain in France.

339. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Her nephew, who used to work as a contractor, was kind enough to offer assistance in building our new garage.
     • Something that will solve all problems
     • The quality of being friendly and cheerful
     • A system of graphic symbols with a specialized use, other than ordinary writing
     • The action of helping someone by sharing work

     Correct answer: The action of helping someone by sharing work

     Assistance is the action of helping someone by sharing work. Let Dana know if you need assistance with the new photocopy machine: she’s the only one who knows how to properly use it. Geniality is the quality of being friendly and cheerful. The new receptionist at the funeral home, Jasmine, was endowed with geniality and a good sense of humor, which I’m sure was very much appreciated in such a mournful workplace. A system of graphic symbols with a specialized use, other than ordinary writing is called a notation. Berzelius’ chemical symbolism or notation consists in the abbreviated Latin names of the elements and superscripts that designate the number of atoms of each element present in the compound. A panacea is something that will solve all problems. Technology is not a panacea for all our problems and we should focus on preventing rather than solving them.

340. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The patient implied she wouldn′t feel as comfortable with a male gynecologist.
     • To state or announce something publicly
     • To very quietly relay information to someone else
     • To suggest without explicitly stating
     • To raise your voice and shout

     Correct answer: To suggest without explicitly stating

     Answer: to suggest without explicitly stating. Declare means “to state or announce something publicly”. “I declare bankruptcy!” – Michael Scott.Whisper means “to very quietly relay information to someone else”. Kathy always looks at me and then whispers to her friend… I don’t like Kathy. Yell means “to raise your voice and shout”. My uncle Ted likes to yell at the cat whenever the Jets lose. He says it’s therapeutic.

341. What word meaning “extremely stupid” fits best in the sentence? Everybody pretended they hadn’t heard his __________ remark about what kind of clothes decent women should wear, but Linda still felt self-conscious in her miniskirt.
     • Auspicious
     • Burgeoning
     • Asinine
     • Illogical

     Correct answer: Asinine

     Asinine refers to someone or something that is extremely stupid. I don’t have time for asinine comments, but come see me if you want to have an actual discussion. Illogical refers to someone or something that lacks sense or clear, sound reasoning. The solutions the committee proposed were illogical; how can you improve people’s health by closing hospitals? Burgeoning refers to something that is growing or developing quickly. The burgeoning tourist industry will help the island country’s economy recover, but an excess of visitors could negatively affect the ecosystem. Auspicious refers to someone or something that shows or suggests that future success is likely. Her career’s auspicious beginning would soon be eclipsed by her history of addiction.

342. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Morphine and codeine are the two most common types of narcotics.
     • A drug that relieves pain and induces drowsiness, stupor, or insensibility
     • A small, solid pill containing a drug that is put inside the anus, where it dissolves easily
     • Something that causes an increase in the production of urine
     • A drug or other substance that prevents or slows down the process of blood forming a clot

     Correct answer: A drug that relieves pain and induces drowsiness, stupor, or insensibility

     A narcotic is a drug that relieves pain and induces drowsiness, stupor, or insensibility. Narcotics such as morphine were used to relieve the patient’s pain. Diuretic refers to something that causes an increase in the production of urine. People suffering from eating disorders sometimes use diuretic substances to lose weight, but they will only make them lose liquid. An anticoagulant is a drug or other substance that prevents or slows down the process of blood forming a clot. Did you know leech saliva contains an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting? A suppository is a small, solid pill containing a drug that is put inside the anus, where it dissolves easily. I use suppositories and enemas when I suffer from severe constipation.

343. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The patient was happy to hear that the virus was latent.
     • Inactive
     • Cured
     • Untransmittable
     • Not fatal

     Correct answer: Inactive

     Answer: inactive. Latent means present but not active or visible, making inactive our best answer. The symptoms of the disease may remain latent for years before becoming suddenly visible. Untransmittable means that the virus is not contagious. HIV is untransmittable through the air.

344. Which word has a similar meaning to “child”?
     • Resident
     • Graduate
     • Toddler
     • Immigrant

     Correct answer: Toddler

     A toddler is a young child, especially one who is learning or has just learned to walk. Toddlers love exploring the world surrounding them, but parents must make sure they do it in a safe environment. A person who leaves one country to settle permanently in another is an immigrant. My grandfather, an immigrant from Guatemala, learned how to speak English by watching television.A graduate is someone who has completed a school program. The graduates patiently waited for the dean to finish his impossibly long and laudatory speech.A resident is a medical student in training. First-year residents still have a long way to become doctors.

345. What word meaning “producing a great number of something” fits best in the following sentence? Rabbits are very _________ animals: put a male and a female together and you’ll have tens of rabbit kits in the blink of an eye.
     • Vacuous
     • Prolific
     • Rigorous
     • Fatal

     Correct answer: Prolific

     Prolific refers to someone producing a great number or amount of something. Having written over 3,000 poems, she was one of the most prolific poets of the 20th century. Vacuous refers to someone or something that doesn’t express or show intelligent thought or purpose. In contrast to his intelligent and brave male characters, the author’s female characters come across as vacuous and purposeless. Rigorous refers to someone or something that is extremely thorough and careful. We make sure our products go through rigorous testing before hitting supermarket shelves. Fatal means resulting in death. The illness is serious and, when left untreated, can be fatal.

346. Fill the blank with the correct word. The veterinarian administered a(n) __________ solution to get the cat to vomit the poisoned food.
     • Palliative
     • Analgesic
     • Emetic
     • Laxative

     Correct answer: Emetic

     Emetic refers to something that causes vomit. Remember that it is an emetic plant: don’t even taste it if you don’t want to spend the night vomiting. Analgesic refers to something used to stop people from feeling pain, or relating to the stopping of pain. After the surgery, analgesic drugs might be needed to control the pain. A laxative is a substance that helps a person excrete the contents of the bowels. The medical team uses a wide array of laxatives before performing rectal and bowel examinations. Palliative refers to something that reduces pain without curing the cause of the pain. Facing a terminal illness, my grandfather chose palliative care only.

347. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Everyone could hear the toddler throwing a tantrum because his mother wouldn’t allow him to get out of the stroller.
     • A person who knows everything
     • A young child
     • Someone who leaves a country to settle in a new country
     • A medical student in training

     Correct answer: A young child

     A toddler is a young child, especially one who is learning or has just learned to walk. Toddlers love exploring the world surrounding them, but parents must make sure they do it in a safe environment. A person who knows or sees everything is omniscient. Growing up, my mother was omniscient; she always knew where I had been and what I had done. Someone who leaves a country to settle in a new country is an emigrant. Millions of emigrants, who have fled from the most dangerous countries in Central America, have been welcomed by the United States. A resident is a medical student in training. First-year residents still have a long way to become doctors.

348. What is the meaning of “prolific”?
     • Someone producing a great number or amount of something
     • Something that makes you feel very weak and without energy
     • Showing hard work, care, and attention to detail
     • Lasting for only a short time

     Correct answer: Someone producing a great number or amount of something

     Prolific refers to someone producing a great number or amount of something. Having written over 3,000 poems, she was one of the most prolific poets of the 20th century. Enervating refers to something that makes you feel very weak and without energy. The heatwave was extremely enervating and a lot of people, especially the elderly, had to be hospitalized. Ephemeral refers to something lasting for only a short time. The effects of the new treatment were ephemeral, and the patient started suffering seizures again after a couple of days. Assiduous refers to someone who shows hard work, care, and attention to detail. She was an assiduous nursing student, taking meticulous notes and studying every night.

349. Fill the blank with the correct word. As long as you see _______ or lice in your hair, you should avoid close contact with other people and sharing hats or brushes.
     • Ringlets
     • Nits
     • Bed bugs
     • Dandruff

     Correct answer: Nits

     A nit is the egg of an insect, especially a louse. Jimmy has nits, so we need to check his siblings’ hair too. A bed bug is a very small insect that lives mainly in beds and feeds by sucking people’s blood. You do not need to throw out your mattress after a bed bug infestation. Dandruff refers to the small, white pieces of dead skin from the head that collect in the hair or fall on the clothes. Dandruff shampoo is not bad for your hair. A ringlet is a curled piece of long hair. Her hair, which reached nearly to her waist, fell loose in ringlets.

350. Which of the following best describes a nit?
     • The eggs of a fish especially when still enclosed in the ovarian membrane
     • The egg of an insect, especially a louse
     • A disease
     • An animal or plant that lives on or in another animal or plant of a different type and feeds from it.

     Correct answer: The egg of an insect, especially a louse

     A nit is the egg of an insect, especially a louse. Jimmy has nits, so we need to check his siblings’ hair too. A malady is a disease. Some mysterious malady is killing all the chestnut trees in the area. A parasite is an animal or plant that lives on or in another animal or plant of a different type and feeds from it. Parasites that can cause disease in humans are divided in three main classes: protozoa, helminths, and ectoparasites. Roe refers to the eggs of a fish, especially when still inclosed in the ovarian membrane. We had toast topped with smoked salmon roe.

351. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Western media denounces that the tyrannical regime exhibits no respect for fundamental human rights.
     • Having or showing desire or interest
     • Resulting in death
     • Something that forms the base, from which everything else develops
     • Of or at the beginning

     Correct answer: Something that forms the base, from which everything else develops

     Fundamental refers to someone or something that forms the base, from which everything else develops. My family and I decided to make fundamental changes to our consumption patterns, starting by ditching single-use plastics. Eager means having or showing desire or interest. Eager to determine the causes of the illness, the research team has spent over five years studying different pathogens. Fatal means resulting in death. The illness, when left untreated, can be fatal. Initial refers to something that is of or at the beginning. Initial reports state that thirteen cars were involved in the crash, though this has not yet been verified.

352. What word has a similar meaning to “harmful; pernicious”?
     • Injurious
     • Salubrious
     • Mediocre
     • Exquisite

     Correct answer: Injurious

     Injurious refers to something or somebody that causes damage or harm. It’s common knowledge that tobacco and alcohol are injurious to health. Salubrious means health-giving; healthy. Laden with garbage and rodents, this part of town was everything but salubrious. Mediocre means just acceptable but not good; not good enough. The predictable plot and the mediocre acting made me walk out of the theater. Exquisite refers to something that is very beautiful and delicate. I’ve found the most exquisite pieces of china in a thrift shop.

353. Which word has a similar meaning to “analgesic; opiate”?
     • Vasodilator
     • Disinfectant
     • Narcotic
     • Antibiotic

     Correct answer: Narcotic

     A narcotic is a drug that relieves pain and induces drowsiness, stupor, or insensibility. Narcotics such as morphine were used to relieve the patient’s pain. An antibiotic is a medicine or chemical that can destroy harmful bacteria in the body or limit their growth. The doctor prescribed a strong antibiotic to treat the patient’s infection. Disinfectant refers to a substance that contains chemicals that kill bacteria. After cutting the chicken in pieces, she cleaned the kitchen counter using a disinfectant. Vasodilators are medications that open or dilate blood vessels. The doctor administered a vasodilator to ease blood flow.

354. Fill the blank in the following question. __________ about not having been elected club president, Cynthia stopped attending the weekly meetings.
     • Mercurial
     • Resentful
     • Injurious
     • Obdurate

     Correct answer: Resentful

     Resentful means feeling or expressing bitterness or indignation at having been treated unfairly. She was resentful of her coworker’s attempt to plagiarize her work, and refused to offer him her help. Mercurial refers to someone or something that changes suddenly and often. His mercurial mood swings made him both interesting and unpredictable. Injurious refers to something or somebody that causes damage or harm. It’s common knowledge that tobacco and alcohol are injurious to health. Obdurate refers to somebody who stubbornly refuses to change their opinion or course of action.

355. What is the meaning of “rigorous”?
     • Lacking enthusiasm and effort
     • Cruel and criticizing in a humorous way
     • Extremely thorough and careful
     • Illegal or disapproved of by society

     Correct answer: Extremely thorough and careful

     Rigorous refers to someone or something that is extremely thorough and careful. We make sure our products go through rigorous testing before hitting supermarket shelves. Lackadaisical means lacking enthusiasm and effort. The restaurant was pleasantly decorated and the food was delightful, but the service was lackadaisical: they made you feel as if they were doing you a favor. Mordant means cruel and criticizing in a humorous way. His mordant remarks, the kind you’d expect to hear at a stand-up comedy show, did not sit well among the funeral attendees. Illicit refers to something illegal or disapproved of by society. The congressman’s illicit remarks about minorities cost him his reputation.

356. What is the meaning of “emetic”?
     • Something that causes an increase in the production of urine
     • A substance that helps a person excrete the contents of the bowels
     • Something that causes vomit
     • A medicine or chemical that can destroy harmful bacteria in the body or limit their growth

     Correct answer: Something that causes vomit

     Emetic refers to something that causes vomit. Remember that it is an emetic plant: don’t even taste it if you don’t want to spend the night vomiting. A laxative is a substance that helps a person excrete the contents of the bowels. The medical team uses a wide array of laxatives before performing rectal and bowel examinations. Diuretic refers to something that causes an increase in the production of urine. People suffering from eating disorders sometimes use diuretic substances to lose weight, but they will only make them lose liquid. An antibiotic is a medicine or chemical that can destroy harmful bacteria in the body or limit their growth. The doctor prescribed a strong antibiotic to treat the patient’s infection.

357. What word has a similar meaning to “truthful and honest”?
     • Apathetic
     • Querulous
     • Candid
     • Secretive

     Correct answer: Candid

     Candid refers to someone or something that is honest and telling the truth, especially about something difficult or painful. The former actor had a candid talk with the experienced journalist, in which she spoke about her relationship with her parents, her drug addiction, and the abrupt end of her career. Secretive refers to someone inclined to conceal feelings and intentions or not to disclose information. Kristina is very secretive about her past: we’ve been friends for over ten years and I don’t even know where she was born. Querulous refers to someone who complains in a rather petulant or whining manner. The querulous passenger complained throughout the entire trip; it was too cold, it was too hot, the food was too spicy, the water was too warm… Apathetic refers to someone who shows or feels no interest, enthusiasm, or concern. To the salsa band’s dismay, the apathetic audience refused to leave their seats during the whole concert.

358. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Her coworkers ostracized her after she snitched on them.
     • To accept behaviour and beliefs that are different from your own, although you might not agree with or approve of them
     • To criticize something or someone strongly, usually for moral reasons
     • To exclude from a society or group
     • To behave in a way which shows that you consider yourself to be better or more intelligent than other people

     Correct answer: To exclude from a society or group

     To ostracize means to exclude from a society or group. Many cultures, thinking that menstruating women are impure, ostracize them during that time of the month. To condemn is to criticize something or someone strongly, usually for moral reasons. The movie was condemned for its sexist depiction of women. To condescend is to behave in a way which shows that you consider yourself to be better or more intelligent than other people. Now that he is a billionaire, I wonder if Rahul will condescend to visit his old neighborhood. To tolerate is to accept behaviour and beliefs that are different from your own, although you might not agree with or approve of them. I need a houseplant that tolerates low light conditions.

359. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? During my trip to Germany, many occasions arose when I could use my knowledge of French.
     • Emerged
     • Augmented
     • Engendered
     • Ostracized

     Correct answer: Emerged

     The meaning of arose is emerged. Some complications arose, but I called Michael and he helped me solve the problem. To engender means to cause or give rise to a feeling, situation, or condition. Too little discipline might engender mischief among the younger students. To augment means to make something greater by adding to it. Use of disposable plastics is augmenting at an alarming rate. To ostracize means to exclude from a society or group. Many cultures, thinking that menstruating women are impure, ostracize them during that time of the month.

360. Fill the blank with the correct word. Beware, the selection process is remarkably __________, and most candidates are rejected at the very beginning.
     • Fatal
     • Aggrieved
     • Garrulous
     • Rigorous

     Correct answer: Rigorous

     Rigorous refers to someone or something that is extremely thorough and careful. We make sure our products go through rigorous testing before hitting supermarket shelves. Fatal means resulting in death. The illness, when left untreated, can be fatal. Aggrieved means unhappy and angry because of unfair treatment. One aggrieved parent complained that he still hadn’t been able to have a meeting with the teacher despite requesting it multiple times. Garrulous means having the habit of talking a lot, especially about things that are not important. His normally garrulous roommate had been surprisingly quiet that evening.

361. Fill the blank with the correct word. I’m aware I’m using an enormous amount of __________ in describing a restaurant, but in this case, it is well justified: I wish I could eat there every day.
     • Hyperbole
     • Simile
     • Ballad
     • Oxymoron

     Correct answer: Hyperbole

     Hyperbole means exaggerated statements or claims not meant to be taken literally. Christine, who isn’t given to hyperbole, said the hamburgers were the size of her head. A simile is an expression comparing one thing with another, always including the words “as” or “like.” An example of a simile is “he is as good as a saint”, whereas an example of a metaphor is “he is a saint.” A ballad is a song or poem that tells a story, or a slow love song. From the end of the 15th century, there are printed ballads that imply a magnificent tradition of popular music. Oxymoron refers to two words used together that have, or seem to have, opposite meanings. According to Groucho Marx, military intelligence is an oxymoron.

362. Which word in the sentence has a similar meaning to “truthful and honest”? I know working as an accountant can be tedious but, to be candid with you, I think quitting your job without a Plan B will have a pernicious effect on your finances.
     • Accountant
     • Tedious
     • Pernicious
     • Candid

     Correct answer: Candid

     Candid refers to someone or something that is honest and telling the truth, especially about something difficult or painful. The former actor had a candid talk with the experienced journalist, in which she spoke about her relationship with her parents, her drug addiction, and the abrupt end of her career. An accountant is someone who keeps or examines the records of money received, paid, and owed by a company or person. The accountant contacted her a couple of days ago to discuss something about her taxes. Tedious means boring. The 2300-page Ph.D. candidate’s thesis on Thomas Aquinas was tedious in the extreme to read. Pernicious means having a very harmful effect or influence. The closing of the coal mine, and the high levels of unemployment that derived from it, had a pernicious effect on the community’s economy.

363. Fill the blank with the correct word. Laurence __________ the answer to his question by looking at his father’s bitter face.
     • Inferred
     • Clamored
     • Augmented
     • Minimized

     Correct answer: Inferred

     To infer means to deduce or conclude something from evidence and reasoning. After reading the report, we can infer that the company’s choices are driving us to bankruptcy. To clamor means to make a loud complaint or demand. The baby, bored after two hours of sitting in her stroller, was clamoring for attention. To minimize means to reduce something to the least possible level or amount. We wear masks and use hand sanitizer to minimize the risk of infection. To augment means to make something greater by adding to it. Use of disposable plastics is augmenting at an alarming rate.

364. What word has a similar meaning to “to own”?
     • Arose
     • Possess
     • Enhance
     • Augment

     Correct answer: Possess

     To possess means to have or own something, or to have a particular quality. The flowers of this plant are known to possess healing powers. To enhance means to improve the quality, amount, or strength of something. You can make a quick marinade with garlic and soy sauce to enhance the flavor of the fish. The meaning of arose is happened. Some complications arose, but I called Michael and he helped me solve the problem. To augment means to make something greater by adding to it. Use of disposable plastics is augmenting at an alarming rate.

365. What word meaning “a disease of the blood that causes the skin and the white part of the eyes to turn yellow” fits best in the following sentence? _____________ is prevalent in newborns because their undeveloped livers are not able to remove bilirubin efficiently.
     • Amputation
     • Hepatitis
     • Jaundice
     • Constipation

     Correct answer: Jaundice

     Jaundice is a disease of the blood that causes the skin and the white part of the eyes to turn yellow. Sunbathing and frequent and effective feedings are crucial measures to decrease jaundice in newborns. Constipation is a condition which makes someone unable to empty their bowels as often as they should. She suffers from constipation every time she travels. Amputation is the cutting off of a part of the body. In any case, the amputation of the limb is our last option, and we are focusing on saving the patient’s hand. Hepatitis is a disease or condition marked by inflammation of the liver. Before being the poster child for healthy living, the rockstar received 9 months of antiviral therapy to treat her hepatitis C.

366. Which word has a similar meaning to “extremely stupid”?
     • Indigent
     • Asinine
     • Endogenous
     • Aggrieved

     Correct answer: Asinine

     Asinine refers to someone or something that is extremely stupid. I don’t have time for asinine comments, but come see me if you want to have an actual discussion. Aggrieved means unhappy and angry because of unfair treatment. One aggrieved parent complained that he still hadn’t been able to have a meeting with the teacher despite requesting it multiple times. Indigent means having no money or anything else of value. Many indigent families try to cross the border daily, in a quest to find a better life for themselves and their loved ones. Endogenous means found or coming from within something, for example a system or a person’s body or mind. People with type 2 diabetes eventually suffer a decrease in endogenous insulin levels.

367. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The nurse initiated the new diet regiment for the patient.
     • Analyzed
     • Started
     • Planned
     • Cancelled

     Correct answer: Started

     Answer: started. Initiate means to start or begin. That was our inititial meeting. We had never met before that occasion.

368. Fill the blank with the correct word. To see this psychiatrist, you need a _________ from a psychologist.
     • Referral
     • Treatment
     • Probability
     • Prescription

     Correct answer: Referral

     Referral refers to an act of sending someone or something to a person or place where what is wanted or needed can be obtained. After hearing about the patient’s symptoms, the doctor didn’t hesitate to give him a referral to a specialist. Probability is the level of possibility of something happening or being true. Oba mentioned he has lunch in this café almost every day, so there’s a strong probability that he’ll be here. Treatment refers to the use of drugs, exercises, etc. to cure a person of an illness or injury. The effects of the new treatment were ephemeral, and the patient started suffering seizures again after a couple of days. A prescription is a doctor’s written direction for the medicine that someone needs and how it is to be used, or the medicine itself. I only bought some paracetamol because the pharmacist wouldn’t sell me antibiotics without a prescription.

369. What is the meaning of “to ostracize”?
     • To become less strong
     • To become part of or form a close relationship with a group or organization
     • To stop something from being active, either temporarily or permanently
     • To exclude from a society or group

     Correct answer: To exclude from a society or group

     To ostracize means to exclude from a society or group. Many cultures, thinking that menstruating women are impure, ostracize them during that time of the month. If something lessens or is lessened, it becomes less strong. A healthy diet lessens the risk of diabetes and other diseases. To affiliate means to become part of or form a close relationship with a group or organization. I’ve never been affiliated with any political party. To suspend means to stop something from being active, either temporarily or permanently. The game was suspended due to rain on Thursday night.

370. Which word has a similar meaning to “to move from one place to another”?
     • Repudiate
     • Migrate
     • Clamor
     • Smuggle

     Correct answer: Migrate

     To migrate is to move from one country or region to another, often temporarily. Every September, European cranes migrate from Scandinavia to Spain. To smuggle means to take things or people to or from a place secretly and often illegally. They were caught trying to smuggle several art pieces out of the country. To clamor means to make a loud complaint or demand. The baby, bored after two hours of sitting in her stroller, was clamoring for attention. To repudiate means to refuse to accept something or someone as true, good, or reasonable. I utterly repudiate your aunt’s insensitive remarks.

371. Which word has a similar meaning to “basic; essential”?
     • Enervating
     • Inviolable
     • Fundamental
     • Perpetual

     Correct answer: Fundamental

     Fundamental refers to someone or something that forms the base, from which everything else develops. My family and I decided to make fundamental changes to our consumption patterns, starting by ditching single-use plastics. Enervating refers to something that makes you feel very weak and without energy. The heatwave was extremely enervating and a lot of people, especially the elderly, had to be hospitalized. Inviolable refers to something that must be respected and not removed or ignored. Everyone has an inviolable right to a fair trial. Perpetual refers to someone or something that lasts forever, or is never-ending. While hiding in the mountains, the prisoners lived in a perpetual fear of being discovered.

372. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Honey bees neither migrate nor hibernate during the winter: you don’t see them around because they spend the coldest months in the hive working to keep the queen warm.
     • To make a continuous, low sound
     • To move from one country or region to another, often temporarily
     • To reproduce sexually
     • To spend the winter sleeping

     Correct answer: To move from one country or region to another, often temporarily

     To migrate is to move from one country or region to another, often temporarily. Every September, European cranes migrate from Scandinavia to Spain. To hibernate is to spend the winter sleeping. The bear found a comfortable cave to hibernate all winter long. To procreate is to reproduce sexually. Mandatory celibacy for the priesthood means priests cannot get married or procreate. To buzz is to make a continuous, low sound. Open the window! I can hear something buzzing!

373. Which word has a similar meaning to “aggrieved; indignant”?
     • Garrulous
     • Resentful
     • Indigent
     • Taciturn

     Correct answer: Resentful

     Resentful means feeling or expressing bitterness or indignation at having been treated unfairly. She was resentful of her coworker’s attempt to plagiarize her work, and refused to offer him her help. Garrulous means having the habit of talking a lot, especially about things that are not important. His normally garrulous roommate had been surprisingly quiet that evening. Indigent means having no money or anything else of value. Many indigent families try to cross the border daily, in a quest to find a better life for themselves and their loved ones. Taciturn means tending not to speak much. Mary, whom I had regarded as a taciturn and reserved person, turned out to be a very friendly and outgoing coworker.

374. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The laceration wasn′t severe and the nurse cleaned and stitched it within minutes.
     • A purplish mark on the skin
     • Rapid loss of blood
     • Cut; tear
     • Superficial wound

     Correct answer: Cut; tear

     Answer: cut; tear. A laceration is a deep cut or jagged wound. A bruise is a purplish mark on the skin. A scratch is a superficial wound (superficial means on the very surface). Hemorrhage is a rapid loss of blood.

375. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Nurses are required to wear impervious gloves when handling bodily fluids to prevent transmission of infection.
     • Sanitary
     • Recyclable
     • Impenetrable
     • Insoluble

     Correct answer: Impenetrable

     Answer: Impenetrable. Impervious means impenetrable, or not allowing anything to pass through. Nurses need to wear impervious gloves when dealing with bodily fluids to keep them from getting exposed to infection. If something is insoluble, then it cannot dissolve in water.

376. What is the meaning of “burgeoning”?
     • Likely to result in success, or showing signs of success
     • Slow and awkward because of being very heavy or large
     • Growing or developing quickly
     • Having or showing extreme greed for wealth or material gain

     Correct answer: Growing or developing quickly

     Burgeoning refers to something that is growing or developing quickly. The burgeoning tourist industry will help the island country’s economy recover, but an excess of visitors could negatively affect the ecosystem. Avaricious means having or showing extreme greed for wealth or material gain. The avaricious scheme has conned tens of people out of thousands of dollars. Ponderous means slow and awkward because of being very heavy or large. You would expect Peter, who weighs over 300 pounds, to have a ponderous manner, but he is remarkably agile and fast. Propitious means likely to result in success, or showing signs of success. With a new doughnut shop opening across the road, it was not a propitious time to think about quitting sugar.

377. What is the meaning of “ritual”?
     • Something that you accept as true without question or proof
     • The act of making or doing something with whatever is available at the time.
     • An understanding thought, or picture in your mind
     • A set of fixed actions and sometimes words performed regularly, especially as part of a ceremony

     Correct answer: A set of fixed actions and sometimes words performed regularly, especially as part of a ceremony

     Ritual refers to a set of fixed actions and sometimes words performed regularly, especially as part of a ceremony. Having a cup of tea and checking my email is part of my morning ritual. An idea is an understanding, thought, or picture in your mind. She didn’t accept the offer because she didn’t like the idea of moving to Norway. Improvisation refers to the act of making or doing something with whatever is available at the time. Because I continuously forget to go grocery shopping, improvisation is always one of the ingredients in my meals. An assumption is something that you accept as true without question or proof. People tend to make assumptions about you when you’re a single mom of three.

378. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? She was the young and dynamic version of her predecessor.
     • A person who knows or sees everything
     • Having a very bright or beautiful appearance
     • Someone who has a lot of ideas and enthusiasm
     • Based on clear thought and reason

     Correct answer: Someone who has a lot of ideas and enthusiasm

     Dynamic refers to someone who has a lot of ideas and enthusiasm. The team needs somebody young and dynamic that can help us expand through social media. A person who knows or sees everything is omniscient. Growing up, my mother was omniscient; she always knew where I had been and what I had done. Resplendent refers to someone or something that has a very bright or beautiful appearance. While all the women in the ballroom looked outstanding, my wife was resplendent in her purple long dress. Rational refers to someone or something based on clear thought and reason. I don’t believe a ghost has been stealing all the cookies, there must be a rational explanation for what happened.

379. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The nurse checked the patient’s gauze to make sure that it was intact.
     • Dry
     • Tight
     • Latent
     • Whole

     Correct answer: Whole

     Answer: whole. Intact: whole or unharmed. Latent refers to something being present but inactive or not apparent. Some viruses are latent – they are present within the body but do not produce any symptoms.

380. What is the meaning of “latter”?
     • Positioned at or towards the back
     • Positioned at or towards the front
     • Existing or happening before someone or something
     • Occurring or situated nearer to the end of something than to its beginning

     Correct answer: Occurring or situated nearer to the end of something than to its beginning

     Latter refers to something occurring or situated nearer to the end of something than to its beginning. The nation’s economy expanded during the latter half of the 16th century. Preceding means existing or happening before someone or something. In conclusion, the preceding arguments should be enough to encourage the party leaders to take a stand against discrimination. Anterior refers to something that is positioned at or towards the front. Anterior teeth are easier to brush than molars. Posterior refers to something that is positioned at or towards the back. The doctor detected an ulcer on the posterior wall of the patient’s stomach.

381. Fill the blank in the following sentence. If pressing with a piece of cloth is not enough to _______ the wound, you can make a tourniquet by wrapping a strip of cloth around the limb, two inches above the wound.
     • Augment
     • Infer
     • Staunch
     • Lessen

     Correct answer: Staunch

     To staunch means to stop something happening, or to stop liquid, especially blood, from flowing out. Not being able to find anything better, Teodora handed him a diaper to press on the wound and staunch the flow of blood. To infer means to deduce or conclude something from evidence and reasoning. After reading the report, we can infer that the company’s choices are driving us to bankruptcy. If something lessens or is lessened, it becomes less strong. A healthy diet lessens the risk of diabetes and other diseases. To augment means to make something greater by adding to it. Use of disposable plastics is augmenting at an alarming rate.

382. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Manifestations of the infection include fever and gastrointestinal inflammation.
     • Liver
     • Kidney
     • Stomach
     • Muscle

     Correct answer: Stomach

     Answer: stomach. Gastrointestinal refers to anything relating to the stomach or intestines. In this question, one of the manifestations (symptoms or a way an underlying illness presents itself) of the infection include swelling and soreness in the stomach and intestines. Hepatic refers to anything relating to the liver. Renal refers to anything relating to the kidneys. Muscular or musculoskeletal may refer to muscle.

383. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? You don’t learn the murderer’s identity until the latter part of the novel.
     • Coming or happening after something else in order or time
     • Related to the basic elements of a subject
     • Occurring or situated nearer to the end of something than to its beginning
     • Of or at the beginning

     Correct answer: Occurring or situated nearer to the end of something than to its beginning

     Latter refers to something occurring or situated nearer to the end of something than to its beginning. The nation’s economy expanded during the latter half of the 16th century. Initial refers to something that is of or at the beginning. Initial reports state that thirteen cars were involved in the crash, though this has not yet been verified. Elementary refers to something related to the basic elements of a subject. I signed up for an elementary French course, but keeping up with it has been a challenge. Following means coming or happening after something else in order or time. Exhausted after working on his manuscript all day, the writer determined it would be preferable to take a break and resume the task the following morning.

384. What word has a similar meaning to “active; vital”?
     • Parsimonious
     • Gradual
     • Diluted
     • Dynamic

     Correct answer: Dynamic

     Dynamic refers to someone who has a lot of ideas and enthusiasm. The team needs somebody young and dynamic that can help us expand through social media Parsimonious refers to someone who is not willing to spend money or to give or use a lot of something. My lovely but parsimonious coworker has never, in the seven years we’ve been working together, bought me a cup of coffee, whereas I treat her to a muffin or pastry weekly. Diluted refers to something made weaker or less pure by the addition of another substance. The bone broth can be diluted with some water if it’s too salty for your taste. Gradual refers to something that takes place or progresses slowly, or by degrees. The government is trying a gradual introduction of new environment-friendly regulations.

385. Which of the following words has a similar meaning to “relocate”?
     • Evict
     • Import
     • Export
     • Immigrate

     Correct answer: Immigrate

     Immigrate means to come to live permanently in a country that is not your own. Both of our fathers, who had grown up in the same Irish town, immigrated to Canada around the same time. Export means to send goods to another country for sale. Spanish wines are exported to many European and American countries. Import means to buy or bring in products from another country. We started importing cars from Japan in 1995; before that, we dedicated exclusively to European cars. Evict means to force someone to leave a place. Even though this was the first time I had fallen behind in my rent, the landlord threatened to evict me.

386. What is the meaning of “emigrate”?
     • To send goods to another country for sale
     • To come to live permanently in a country that is not your own
     • To leave a country permanently and go to live in another one
     • To request something, usually officially, especially in writing or by sending in a form

     Correct answer: To leave a country permanently and go to live in another one

     Emigrate means to leave a country permanently and go to live in another one. Thousands of Spaniards emigrated to Latin American countries during the first half of the 20th century. Apply means to request something, usually officially, especially in writing or by sending in a form. By the time I heard about the internship, it was already too late to apply. Immigrate means to come to live permanently in a country that is not your own. Both of our fathers, who had grown up in the same Irish town, immigrated to Canada around the same time. Export means to send goods to another country for sale. Spanish wines are exported to many European and American countries.

387. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Gently pat with a paper towel to absorb the remaining moisture.
     • To stop something happening, or to stop liquid, especially blood, from flowing out
     • To have or own something, or to have a particular quality
     • To improve the quality, amount, or strength of something
     • To take something in, especially gradually

     Correct answer: To take something in, especially gradually

     To absorb means to take something in, especially gradually. Plants have the ability to absorb carbon dioxide from the air. To staunch means to stop something happening, or to stop liquid, especially blood, from flowing out. Not being able to find anything better, Teodora handed him a diaper to press on the wound and staunch the flow of blood. To enhance means to improve the quality, amount, or strength of something. You can make a quick marinade with garlic and soy sauce to enhance the flavor of the fish. To possess means to have or own something, or to have a particular quality. The flowers of this plant are known to possess healing powers.

388. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. An aneurysm is a common example of a neurovascular disorder.
     • Stomach & intestines
     • Muscle & skeleton
     • Nervous system & blood vessels
     • Cranial

     Correct answer: Nervous system & blood vessels

     Answer: nervous system & blood vessels Neurovascular refers to anything related to the nervous system and blood vessels. An aneurysm refers to a weakening of an artery wall that creates a bulge, or distention, of the artery. At their most severe stage, some can rupture, leading to life-threatening internal bleeding. Cranium means skull. Musculoskeletal refers to anything relating to the muscles and skeleton. Gastrointestinal refers to anything relating to the stomach & intestines.

389. What is the meaning of “tractable”?
     • Not able or not likely to cause harm
     • Easily dealt with, controlled, or persuaded
     • Having or expressing a lively, cheerful, and self-confident manner
     • Looking bright and attractive but in fact cheap and of low quality

     Correct answer: Easily dealt with, controlled, or persuaded

     Tractable refers to someone or something that is easily dealt with, controlled, or persuaded. The problem with the database turned out to be more tractable than we had imagined: we just needed to make a new copy of our data sets. Harmless refers to someone or something that is not able or not likely to cause harm. Despite what the man’s size and manners might tell you, he’s pretty harmless. Jaunty means having or expressing a lively, cheerful, and self-confident manner. His jaunty walk showed how happy he was about the promotion. Tawdry refers to something that looks bright and attractive but is in fact cheap and of low quality. Many residents complained about the tawdry Christmas lights that had burned out just days after setting them up.

390. What is the best description for the word etiology?
     • The anticipated or expected course or outcome
     • The processes and effects of a disease
     • The identification of an injury or disease
     • The origin or cause of a disease or condition

     Correct answer: The origin or cause of a disease or condition

     Answer: The origin or cause of a disease or condition. Etiology refers to the origin or cause of a disease or condition. The etiology of the patient’s rabies infection was a bite from a dog. Pathology refers to the processes and effects of a disease. The difference between pathology and etiology is that etiology just refers to the factors that caused the disease. Pathology refers to the changes in normal physiology (symptoms) that occur as a result of the disease. The cancer’s pathology is to take over healthy cells and grow cancerous tumors. Prognosis is the anticipated or expected outcome for a patient. The doctor’s prognosis was that the patient would feel better after 48 hours of antibiotics and fluid intake. Diagnosis is the identification of an injury or disease. The doctor’s diagnosis of my cough is bronchitis.

391. What is the meaning of “invalid”?
     • Someone who does not suffer from a disease but has the infection or genetic fault that causes it and can give the disease to someone else
     • A result of a scientific test that appears to show something exists or is present when this is not correct
     • Unable to see
     • A person who is ill or injured for a long time and usually has to be cared for by others

     Correct answer: A person who is ill or injured for a long time and usually has to be cared for by others

     An invalid is a person who is ill or injured for a long time and usually has to be cared for by others. My father, who became an invalid after having a stroke, lives in a nursing home. A carrier is someone who does not suffer from a disease but has the infection or genetic fault that causes it and can give the disease to someone else. The nation has an estimated 1.8 million HIV carriers. Blind means unable to see. Vitamin A deficiency can make you go blind by making your cornea very dry. A false positive is a result of a scientific test that appears to show something exists or is present when this is not correct. We can’t rely on this kind of test because it produces an excessive number of false positives.

392. Select the word that means “of or relating to muscle and skeleton”. The nursing student studied the neurovascular system in addition to the gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal, and integumentary system in her first semester.
     • Neurovascular
     • Integumentary
     • Gastrointestinal
     • Musculoskeletal

     Correct answer: Musculoskeletal

     Answer: musculoskeletal. Musculoskeletal refers to anything relating to muscle and skeleton. Neurovascular refers to anything relating to the nervous system and blood vessels. Gastrointestinal refers to anything relating to the stomach and intestines. Integumentary refers to the organ system consisting of skin, hair, nails, and exocrine glands.

393. What is the meaning of “arose”?
     • Inferred
     • Emerged
     • Faltered
     • Implied

     Correct answer: Emerged

     The meaning of arose is emerged. Some complications arose, but I called Michael and he helped me solve the problem. Falter is defined as to move in an uncertain way or to hesitate in word or action. He faltered through the dark hallway, unable to see the sconce against which he would soon hit his head. To imply means to indicate the truth or existence of something by suggestion. His evasive comment implied that he wouldn’t be available for a date anytime soon. To infer means to deduce or conclude something from evidence and reasoning. After reading the report, we can infer that the company’s choices are driving us to bankruptcy.

394. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Germany’s new immigration programs apply to eligible temporary residents who want to immigrate to any German province or territory.
     • To leave a country permanently and go to live in another one
     • To come to live permanently in a country that is not your own
     • To request something, usually officially, especially in writing or by sending in a form
     • To encourage people to like, buy, use, do, or support something

     Correct answer: To come to live permanently in a country that is not your own

     Immigrate means to come to live permanently in a country that is not your own. Both of our fathers, who had grown up in the same Irish town, immigrated to Canada around the same time. Emigrate means to leave a country permanently and go to live in another one. Thousands of Spaniards emigrated to Latin American countries during the first half of the 20th century. Apply means to request something, usually officially, especially in writing or by sending in a form. By the time I heard about the internship, it was already too late to apply. Promote means to encourage people to like, buy, use, do, or support something. Promote your giveaway contest to the right audience and you will acquire more followers.

395. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The patient was emotionally labile, showing exaggerated changes in mood from one moment to the next.
     • Volatile
     • Stable
     • Compose
     • Angry

     Correct answer: Volatile

     Answer: volatile. Labile means “volatile or unstable.” Someone who is emotionally labile will have drastic changes in mood from one moment to the next. The stock market has been labile as of late, going up and down drastically. Angry is incorrect because someone who is emotionally labile may be angry sometimes, but their emotions change dramatically. Feverish is a trap answer because it is the definition of a similar-sounding HESI vocab word, febrile. Stable would be the opposite of volatile.

396. What is the meaning of “vertigo”?
     • Pieces of paper containing official information
     • A sensation of whirling and loss of balance
     • A good reason or explanation for something
     • The cutting off of a part of the body

     Correct answer: A sensation of whirling and loss of balance

     Vertigo is a sensation of whirling and loss of balance. The patient reports experiencing vertigo since the boogie jumping accident, but, even though he’s at risk of falling, he refuses to use a walking stick. Amputation is the cutting off of a part of the body. In any case, the amputation of the limb is our last option, and we are focusing on saving the patient’s hand. Justification refers to a good reason or explanation for something. The missionary believed there was no justification for ignoring those in need. Documentation refers to pieces of paper containing official information. The applicant was the ideal candidate, but she didn’t have the documentation needed to formalize her application.

397. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Based on the patient′s blood analysis, we can infer he needs to increase his iron intake if he wants to stay clear from anemia.
     • Conclude from evidence
     • Make a guess
     • Come up with an answer by logic
     • To assume something without conviction

     Correct answer: Conclude from evidence

     Answer: conclude from evidence. Infer means “to conclude from evidence or assumptions”. Deduce means “to come up with an answer by logic”. Suppose means “to assume something without conviction”.

398. Select the meaning for the underlined word in the sentence. The patient presented multiple fractures in his ribs and arms.
     • Deep cut
     • A part of the body that has been damaged due to injury or disease
     • Injured area that becomes discolored
     • A break, usually in a bone

     Correct answer: A break, usually in a bone

     Answer: a break, usually a bone. A fracture is a break, usually in a bone. Laceration means deep cut. A bruise is an injured area that becomes discolored. A lesion is a part of the body that has been damaged due to injury or disease.

399. What is the meaning of “referral”?
     • An act of sending someone or something to a person or place where what is wanted or needed can be obtained
     • A contrary or opposite opinion, concept, or characteristic
     • A piece of paper which proves that money or goods have been received
     • A statement listing goods or services provided and their prices, used in business as a record of sale

     Correct answer: An act of sending someone or something to a person or place where what is wanted or needed can be obtained

     Referral refers to an act of sending someone or something to a person or place where what is wanted or needed can be obtained. After hearing about the patient’s symptoms, the doctor didn’t hesitate to give him a referral to a specialist. A receipt is a piece of paper which proves that money or goods have been received. Her controlling husband forces her to give him every receipt of every item she purchases. An invoice is a statement listing goods or services provided and their prices, used in business as a record of sale. We can’t give you a refund if you don’t show us a copy of the invoice. Antithesis is a contrary or opposite opinion, concept, or characteristic. The four-hour documentary on Turkish bandwagons was the antithesis of entertainment.

400. What is the best description for the word “ilium”?
     • Main artery in the human body
     • Uppermost and largest part of the hip bone
     • Small hollow organ where bile is stored
     • First section of the small instestine

     Correct answer: Uppermost and largest part of the hip bone

     Answer: uppermost and largest part of the hip bone. The ilium is the uppermost and largest part of the hip bone. The gallbladder is the small hollow organ where bile is stored. The duodenum is the first section of the small intestine. The aorta is the main artery in the human body.

401. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The nurse practitioner prescribed a medicine that would inhibit the patient’s serotonin reuptake.
     • Initiate
     • Reduce
     • Create
     • Increase

     Correct answer: Reduce

     Answer: reduce. Inhibit means to hold back, constrain, reduce, or slow. A serotonin reuptake inhibitor is a common medication to ease depression. It works by slowing (inhibiting) the reabsorption of serotonin in the brain so there is more serotonin available in the body. Initiate means to start.

402. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Internal bleeding was the cause of death.
     • Inside the body
     • Serious
     • Outside the body
     • Uncontrollable

     Correct answer: Inside the body

     Answer: Inside the body. Internal means inside the body. Internal bleeding is when there is bleeding inside the body, particularly in the chest cavity, belly cavity, or muscles, that may be caused by major trauma. External means outside the body. External bleeding is when there is bleeding outside the body, i.e. blood exiting the body through some type of wound. Remember that external and exit both start with ‘ex’.

403. What word meaning “of or relating to the nervous system” fits best in the sentence? It was clear to the nurse that the patient, whose cognitive abilities had drastically diminished, had developed a ____________ disorder from the accident.
     • Musculoskeletal
     • Cranial
     • Neurological
     • Neurovascular

     Correct answer: Neurological

     Answer: neurological. Neurological means “of or relating to the nervous system.” In this sentence, the patient has acquired a neurological (nervous system) disorder from an accident. This is clear to the nurse as his cognitive (thinking) abilities have drastically diminished (decreased). Neurovascular refers to the nervous system AND blood vessels. Cranium is another word for skull. Musculoskeletal refers to the muscles and skeleton.

404. What is the meaning of “jaundice”?
     • A disease in which the body cannot control the level of sugar in the blood
     • An infectious disease spread by dirty water and food, causing a high body temperature, red spots on the upper body, severe pains in the bowels, and sometimes death
     • The egg of an insect, especially a louse
     • A disease of the blood that causes the skin and the white part of the eyes to turn yellow

     Correct answer: A disease of the blood that causes the skin and the white part of the eyes to turn yellow

     Jaundice is a disease of the blood that causes the skin and the white part of the eyes to turn yellow. Sunbathing and frequent and effective feedings are crucial measures to decrease jaundice in newborns. Diabetes is a disease in which the body cannot control the level of sugar in the blood. Diabetic retinopathy, the leading cause of new cases of blindness in adults, is a complication of diabetes. Typhoid fever is an infectious disease spread by dirty water and food, causing a high body temperature, red spots on the upper body, severe pains in the bowels, and sometimes death. Two essential measures to prevent typhoid fever are careful food preparation and washing of hands. A nit is the egg of an insect, especially a louse. Jimmy has nits, so we need to check his siblings’ hair too.

405. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Within the milieu of the hospital’s waiting room, there was a sense of tension and anticipation.
     • People
     • Chairs
     • Cafeteria
     • Atmosphere

     Correct answer: Atmosphere

     Answer: atmosphere. Milieu refers to the social environment or the general atmosphere of a place. The atmosphere in the hospital’s waiting room was tense.

406. What is another word for “legacy”?
     • Heritage
     • Liability
     • Quandary
     • Quarantine

     Correct answer: Heritage

     Answer: heritage. Legacy: money or property left to someone by a will; reputation someone leaves behind. After having championed the importance of good hygiene and sanitary conditions in medicine, Florence Nightingale left a legacy of being one of the most influential nurses in history. Liability: the state of being responsible for something, especially by law. Most workplaces require the nurses they employ to purchase liability insurance to protect themselves in the case of a lawsuit. Quandary: dilemma The car broke down in the middle of the highway during rush hour in the rain. It was quite the quandary. Quarantine: means “strict isolation imposed to prevent the spread of a disease”. We tried to quarantine those exposed to the zombie virus by locking them in the school gymnasium. But they escaped!

407. What is the meaning of “lens”?
     • Any bulge or swelling of an anatomical structure or part
     • A system of graphic symbols with a specialized use, other than ordinary writing
     • A swollen, inflamed area in bodily tissues in which pus gathers
     • A piece of glass with curved sides used for concentrating or dispersing light rays

     Correct answer: A piece of glass with curved sides used for concentrating or dispersing light rays

     A lens is a piece of glass with curved sides used for concentrating or dispersing light rays. The elder man needed a magnifying lens to read the newspaper’s fine print. Any bulge or swelling of an anatomical structure or part is called a node. Various diseases, from pharyngitis to cancer, manifest themselves as inflammations of the lymph nodes.A system of graphic symbols with a specialized use, other than ordinary writing, is called a notation. Berzelius’ chemical symbolism or notation consists of abbreviated Latin names of the elements and superscripts that designate the number of atoms of each element present in the compound. A swollen, inflamed area in bodily tissues in which pus gathers is called an abscess. The endodontist performed a root canal to drain the abscess in the patient’s molar.

408. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The patient’s circulation to her left arm was occluded, leading to numbness and skin that was blue in color.
     • Lacerated
     • Obstructed
     • Open
     • Broken

     Correct answer: Obstructed

     Answer: obstructed. Occluded means closed or obstructed. The patient’s arm turned blue and numb because of an obstructed artery. Since I do not like people looking inside of my car, I use tints to occlude my windows from view. Lacerated means cut or torn. A cut or torn artery would lead to excessive bleeding. The accident created a deep laceration on the patient’s thigh, which resulted in significant loss of blood.

409. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? My mother, who suffers from vertigo, sometimes has to spend the day lying on her bed to reduce the spinning feeling.
     • The process of removing one or all of the organs from the inside of a body
     • The quality of having a friendly and cheerful manner
     • A sensation of whirling and loss of balance
     • A swollen, inflamed area in bodily tissues, in which pus gathers

     Correct answer: A sensation of whirling and loss of balance

     Vertigo is a sensation of whirling and loss of balance. The patient reports experiencing vertigo since the boogie jumping accident, but, even though he’s at risk of falling, he refuses to use a walking stick. Evisceration is the process of removing one or all of the organs from the inside of a body. The student felt uneasy as the professor explained the different evisceration techniques pathologists employ. Geniality is the quality of having a friendly and cheerful manner. The new receptionist at the funeral home, Jasmine, was endowed with geniality and a good sense of humor, which I’m sure was very much appreciated in such a mournful workplace. A swollen, inflamed area in bodily tissues, in which pus gathers is called an abscess. The endodontist performed a root canal to drain the abscess in the patient’s molar.

410. What word meaning “sickly; disabled” fits best in the following sentence? Tuberculosis made the novelist become a bedridden __________.
     • Node
     • Ascetic
     • Delirium tremens
     • Invalid

     Correct answer: Invalid

     An invalid is a person who is ill or injured for a long time and usually has to be cared for by others. My father, who became an invalid after having a stroke, lives in a nursing home. Delirium tremens is a rapid onset of confusion usually caused by withdrawal from alcohol. Some of the symptoms of delirium tremens are nightmares, agitation, global confusion, disorientation, hallucinations, and fever. Any bulge or swelling of an anatomical structure or part is called a node. Various diseases, from pharyngitis to cancer, manifest themselves as inflammations of the lymph nodes. An ascetic is someone who avoids physical pleasures and lives a simple life, often for religious reasons. Ascetics believe a purified body leads to a purified soul.

411. What is the meaning of “assistance”?
     • The number or amount of a group, or a part of something compared to the whole
     • Lack of interest in someone or something
     • The ability to produce intended results
     • The action of helping someone by sharing work

     Correct answer: The action of helping someone by sharing work

     Assistance is the action of helping someone by sharing work. Let Dana know if you need assistance with the new photocopy machine; she’s the only one who knows how to properly use it. The number or amount of a group, or a part of something compared to the whole is called a proportion. The proportion of people who go to work by bicycle increased by 40% in the last ten years; now, almost one-third of Californians use this means of transport in their commutes. The lack of interest in someone or something is called indifference. Many locals show indifference towards the neighborhood, which they never need to visit and regard as a “tourist trap.” The ability to produce intended results is called efficacy. The efficacy of the new drug is astonishing; 97% of patients recover in less than one week.

412. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The patient was preparing to undergo invasive surgery.
     • Controlled
     • Rapid
     • Entering a body part
     • Occurring in the near future

     Correct answer: Entering a body part

     Answer: Entering a body part. Invasive means “entering into a body part.” In this context, the patient was preparing to undergo an operation requiring the surgeons to enter his/her body.

413. What is the best description for the word “gaping”?
     • Wide open
     • Restricted
     • Shut down
     • Speed up

     Correct answer: Wide open

     Answer: wide open. Gaping means “deep and wide open”. Roger had no idea that his potato gun was powerful enough to blow a gaping hole in the garage door.

414. Fill the blank with the correct word. Keeping your camera ________ clean is crucial for taking good photos; even the tiniest smudge can ruin the quality of your pictures.
     • Plethora
     • Panacea
     • Lens
     • Vista

     Correct answer: Lens

     A lens is a piece of glass with curved sides used for concentrating or dispersing light rays. The elder man needed a magnifying lens to read the newspaper’s fine print. A vista is a view, especially a beautiful view from a high position. The suite’s balcony offered a magnificent panoramic vista of the sea. A panacea is something that will solve all problems. Technology is not a panacea for all our problems and we should focus on preventing rather than solving them. A plethora is a very large amount of something. There’s a plethora of books about the royal family, but this is the first one that explores the relationship between the King and his cousin.

415. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Amber, a material widely used for jewelry, decorative objects, and for its healing purposes, is fossilized tree resin.
     • A new growth of a plant
     • A clear, yellow, sticky substance produced by some trees and plants and used to make varnish, medicine, or plastics, or a similar substance produced chemically for use in industry
     • The part of a tree, arm, etc. that is left after another part has been removed
     • A grey, green, or yellow plant-like organism that grows on rocks, walls, and trees

     Correct answer: A clear, yellow, sticky substance produced by some trees and plants and used to make varnish, medicine, or plastics, or a similar substance produced chemically for use in industry

     Resin is a clear, yellow, sticky substance produced by some trees and plants and used to make varnish, medicine, or plastics, or a similar substance produced chemically for use in industry. This resin, specifically designed for kitchen countertops, bar tops, and the like, will provide you with a glossy, smooth, and low maintenance surface. A sprout is a new growth of a plant. Keep in mind that sprouts have a risk of foodborne illness because the warm, moist conditions required to grow them are ideal for the growth of bacteria. A stump is the part of a tree, arm, etc. that is left after another part has been removed. It took the workers a whole day of work to remove the stump in our front yard. Lichen is a grey, green, or yellow plant-like organism that grows on rocks, walls, and trees. The tree, covered in lichen, had been cut several weeks before.

416. Fill in the blank with the correct word: Everybody thought Portugal’s national team would easily win the championship, but Bulgaria proved to be an _________ opponent, and the match ended in a tie.
     • Harmless
     • Palatable
     • Obdurate
     • Emetic

     Correct answer: Obdurate

     Obdurate refers to someone who stubbornly refuses to change their opinion or course of action. The actor explained that he didn’t want to discuss his ex-wife’s personal life, but the obdurate journalist refused to drop the subject. Palatable refers to something that is satisfactory or acceptable; pleasant to taste. He didn’t find the hard liquor to be palatable at all: it burned down his throat and had a strong alcoholic taste. Harmless refers to someone or something that is not able or not likely to cause harm. Despite what the man’s size and manners might tell you, he’s pretty harmless. Emetic refers to something that causes vomit. Remember that it is an emetic plant: don’t even taste it if you don’t want to spend the night vomiting.

417. Which word has a similar meaning to “vaccination”?
     • Inoculation
     • Proportion
     • Abundance
     • Embolism

     Correct answer: Inoculation

     Inoculation is the action of giving someone a weak form of a disease as protection against it. Vaccination involved many risks in the past: if the conditions weren’t sterile the inoculation didn’t work, or worse, introduced a new disease. Abundance is the situation in which there is more than enough of something. The dancer had talent in abundance, but she lacked the motivation to practice every day. The number or amount of a group or part of something, when compared to the whole, is called a proportion. The proportion of people who go to work by bicycle increased by 40% in the last ten years; now, almost one third of Californians use this means of transport in their commutes. Embolism is an obstruction of an artery, typically by a clot of blood or an air bubble. The difference between thrombosis and embolism is that a thrombus is a blood clot that forms in a vein, whereas an embolus is anything that moves through the blood vessels until it reaches a vessel that is too small to let it pass.

418. What is the meaning of “graduate”?
     • The person in charge of a university or school
     • A person who leaves school, college, or university before completing a qualification
     • Someone who completed a school program
     • A person who teaches in a college or university

     Correct answer: Someone who completed a school program

     A graduate is someone who completed a school program. The graduates patiently waited for the dean to finish his impossibly long and laudatory speech. The rector is the person in charge of a university or school. The rectors of the best universities of the country agreed the proposed reform would deeply affect low-income students. A dropout is a person who leaves school, college, or university before completing a qualification. Nobody expected the college dropout to become such a successful entrepreneur. An academic is a person who teaches in a college or university. All the academics I know constantly complain about all the papers they have to grade.

419. What is the meaning of “patency”?
     • The action of helping someone by sharing work.
     • A piece of glass with curved sides used for concentrating or dispersing light rays
     • The condition of being open or unobstructed
     • Excessive admiration or praise

     Correct answer: The condition of being open or unobstructed

     Patency is the condition of being open or unobstructed. The first thing we need to do is a tubal patency ultrasound to check whether your Fallopian tubes are open or blocked. A lens is a piece of glass with curved sides used for concentrating or dispersing light rays. The elder man needed a magnifying lens to read the newspaper’s fine print. Assistance is the action of helping someone by sharing work. Her nephew, who used to work as a contractor, was kind enough to offer his assistance in building our new garage. Adulation is excessive admiration or praise. After a while, it becomes hard to cope with the adulation of fans: you can’t even go grocery shopping without somebody stopping you to praise your work.

420. Which of the following words has a similar meaning to “infamous”?
     • Injurious
     • Obdurate
     • Notorious
     • Ambivalent

     Correct answer: Notorious

     Notorious has a similar meaning to “infamous”. Notorious refers to something or somebody who is famous or well known, typically for some bad quality or deed. The neighborhood is notorious as a resort for unfriendly dogs, so be careful when walking yours in that area. Injurious refers to something or somebody that causes damage or harm. It’s common knowledge that tobacco and alcohol are injurious to health. Obdurate refers to somebody who stubbornly refuses to change their opinion or course of action. The actor explained that he didn’t want to discuss his ex-wife’s personal life, but the obdurate journalist refused to drop the subject. Ambivalent refers to someone who has mixed feelings or contradictory ideas about something or someone. Patricia was ambivalent about her breakup with Aysha; she hadn’t been happy enough to stay, but the idea of living alone frightened her.

421. Which word has a similar meaning to “stubborn, obstinate”?
     • Apathetic
     • Burgeoning
     • Obdurate
     • Auspicious

     Correct answer: Obdurate

     Obdurate refers to someone who stubbornly refuses to change their opinion or course of action. The actor explained that he didn’t want to discuss his ex-wife’s personal life, but the obdurate journalist refused to drop the subject. Burgeoning refers to something that is growing or developing quickly. The burgeoning tourist industry will help the island country’s economy recover, but an excess of visitors could negatively affect the ecosystem. Auspicious refers to someone or something that shows or suggests that future success is likely. Her career’s auspicious beginning would soon be eclipsed by her history of addiction. Apathetic refers to someone who shows or feels no interest, enthusiasm, or concern. To the salsa band’s dismay, the apathetic audience refused to leave their seats during the whole concert.

422. Fill in the blank with the correct word. Bonnie and Clyde, the criminal couple __________ for their bank robberies, actually preferred to rob small stores and rural gas stations.
     • Notorious
     • Reasonable
     • Rigorous
     • Exhilarating

     Correct answer: Notorious

     Notorious refers to something or somebody who is famous or well known, typically for some bad quality or deed. The neighborhood is notorious as a resort of thieves, so be careful about your bag and wallet. Reasonable refers to something or someone that has sound judgment, and is fair and sensible. Marcia wasn’t being reasonable; she wanted to fill a complaint form because the server’s beard was too long. Exhilarating refers to someone or something that makes one feel very happy, animated, or elated. Visiting the Natural History Museum, where you can learn about dinosaurs, ecosystems, or minerals, is an always exhilarating experience for a passionate scientist like me. Rigorous refers to someone or something that is extremely thorough and careful. We make sure our products go through rigorous testing before hitting supermarket shelves.

423. What is the meaning of “resin”?
     • Cooked sugar used to give flavor and a brown color to food
     • A clear, yellow, sticky substance produced by some trees and plants and used to make varnish, medicine, or plastics, or a similar substance produced chemically for use in industry
     • A hard substance that forms the branches and trunks of trees and can be used as a building material, for making things, or as a fuel
     • A type of hard stone, often with a pattern of irregular lines going through it, that is used as a building material and in statues

     Correct answer: A clear, yellow, sticky substance produced by some trees and plants and used to make varnish, medicine, or plastics, or a similar substance produced chemically for use in industry

     Resin is a clear, yellow, sticky substance produced by some trees and plants and used to make varnish, medicine, or plastics, or a similar substance produced chemically for use in industry. This resin, specifically designed for kitchen countertops, bar tops, and the like, will provide you with a glossy, smooth, and low maintenance surface. Wood is a hard substance that forms the branches and trunks of trees and can be used as a building material, for making things, or as a fuel. Houses made of wood are very quaint, but also very flammable. Marble is a type of hard stone, often with a pattern of irregular lines going through it, that is used as a building material and in statues. On rainy days, many people slipped and fell on the church’s marble polished floor. Caramel is cooked sugar used to give flavor and a brown color to food. When making caramel, be careful to not burn the sugar and, most importantly, to not burn yourself.

424. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? The doctor explained that antihistamine used may increase the risk of apneic episodes, so she recommended an evaluation of airway patency before initiating the treatment.
     • A subjective idea or theory
     • A sensation of whirling and loss of balance
     • The condition of being open or unobstructed
     • The quality of being friendly and cheerful

     Correct answer: The condition of being open or unobstructed

     Patency is the condition of being open or unobstructed. The first thing we need to do is a tubal patency ultrasound to check whether your Fallopian tubes are open or blocked. Vertigo is a sensation of whirling and loss of balance. My mother, who suffers from vertigo, sometimes has to spend the day lying on her bed to reduce the spinning feeling. A construct is a subjective idea or theory. History is substantially an ideological construct and thus, it might be subject to change. Geniality is the quality of being friendly and cheerful. The new receptionist at the funeral home, Jasmine, was endowed with geniality and a good sense of humor, which I’m sure was very much appreciated in such a mournful workplace.

425. Fill the blank with the correct word: After ___________ with the second dose of the vaccine, some patients might experience a mild fever.
     • Inoculation
     • Adulation
     • Evisceration
     • Paroxysm

     Correct answer: Inoculation

     Inoculation is the action of giving someone a weak form of a disease as protection against it. Vaccination involved many risks in the past: if the conditions weren’t sterile the inoculation didn’t work, or worse, introduced a new disease. Abundance is the situation in which there is more than enough of something. The dancer had talent in abundance, but she lacked the motivation to practice every day. The number or amount of a group or part of something when compared to the whole is called a proportion. The proportion of people who go to work by bicycle increased by 40% in the last ten years; now, almost one third of Californians use this means of transport in their commutes. Embolism is an obstruction of an artery, typically by a clot of blood or an air bubble. The difference between thrombosis and embolism is that a thrombus is a blood clot that forms in a vein, whereas an embolus is anything that moves through the blood vessels until it reaches a vessel that is too small to let it pass.

426. Fill the blank in the following sentence. For years, we’ve wrongly believed different parts of the tongue are sensitive to different __________.
     • Stimuli
     • Stimula
     • Stimuluses
     • Stimulus

     Correct answer: Stimuli

     The correct spelling is stimuli. A stimulus is something that causes growth, activity, or reaction. An online petition calling for monthly stimulus checks has now surpassed 3 million signatures. The correct spelling is stimuli. A stimulus is something that causes growth, activity, or reaction. An online petition calling for monthly stimulus checks has now surpassed 3 million signatures. The correct spelling is stimuli. A stimulus is something that causes growth, activity, or reaction. An online petition calling for monthly stimulus checks has now surpassed 3 million signatures. The correct spelling is stimuli. A stimulus is something that causes growth, activity, or reaction. An online petition calling for monthly stimulus checks has now surpassed 3 million signatures.

427. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? She knew accepting the present would imply that she had forgiven him.
     • To encourage someone strongly to do something or to ask that something be done
     • To look at something or someone carefully in order to discover information
     • To indicate the truth or existence of something by suggestion
     • To remove parts of something, such as a book, movie, or letter, that you do not want someone to see or hear

     Correct answer: To indicate the truth or existence of something by suggestion

     To imply means to indicate the truth or existence of something by suggestion. His evasive comment implied that he wouldn’t be available for a date anytime soon. To censor is to remove parts of something, such as a book, movie, or letter, that you do not want someone to see or hear. To avoid losing access to China’s lucrative box office market, Hollywood has been censoring movies to appease Beijing. To urge is to encourage someone strongly to do something or to ask that something be done. Anita’s teacher urged her to apply for several scholarships. To inspect is to look at something or someone carefully in order to discover information. Two people from the Health Department came to inspect the restaurant a couple of days ago.

428. Which word has a similar meaning to “wary; unwilling to take risks”?
     • Pugnacious
     • Enervating
     • Circumspect
     • Avaricious

     Correct answer: Circumspect

     Circumspect refers to someone who is careful not to take risks. The police were circumspect about revealing too many details about the suspects. Avaricious means having or showing an extreme greed for wealth or material gain. The avaricious scheme has conned tens of people out of thousands of dollars. Enervating refers to something that makes you feel very weak and without energy. The heatwave was extremely enervating and a lot of people, especially the elderly, had to be hospitalized. Pugnacious means eager or quick to argue, quarrel, or fight. His pugnacious attitude got him involved in many fights when he was a teenager.

429. What is the meaning of “infer”?
     • To express a thought, feeling, or idea so that it is understood by other people
     • To fail to give needed care or attention to someone or something
     • To deduce or conclude something from evidence and reasoning
     • To become part of or form a close relationship with a group or organization

     Correct answer: To deduce or conclude something from evidence and reasoning

     To infer means to deduce or conclude something from evidence and reasoning. After reading the report, we can infer that the company’s choices are driving us to bankruptcy. To neglect means to fail to give needed care or attention to someone or something. Marissa neglected to communicate to her employer she would take Monday off. To convey means to express a thought, feeling, or idea so that it is understood by other people. I never intended to convey the impression that I don’t care about animal welfare. To affiliate means to become part of or form a close relationship with a group or organization. I’ve never been affiliated with any political party.

430. What word has a similar meaning to “exaggeration”?
     • Antithesis
     • Hyperbaton
     • Hyperbole
     • Conjugation

     Correct answer: Hyperbole

     Hyperbole means exaggerated statements or claims not meant to be taken literally. Christine, who isn’t given to hyperbole, said the hamburgers were the size of her head. Conjugation refers to the complete set of grammatical forms of a verb. Do you know the conjugation of the Spanish verb “tener”?. A hyperbaton is a transposition or inversion of idiomatic word order. Góngora’s poems, riddled with hyperbatons, are like puzzles that need to be assembled. Antithesis is a contrary or opposite opinion, concept, or characteristic. The four-hour documentary on Turkish bandwagons was the antithesis of entertainment.

431. Fill the blank with the correct word. The principal said that these types of interactions are ________ and reflect poorly on our entire school.
     • Embarrasing
     • Embarrassing
     • Embarassing
     • Embarasing

     Correct answer: Embarrassing

     The correct spelling is embarrassing. Embarrassing means causing a feeling of self-consciousness, shame, or awkwardness. My teacher was so laudatory it was almost embarrassing. The correct spelling is embarrassing. Embarrassing means causing a feeling of self-consciousness, shame, or awkwardness. My teacher was so laudatory it was almost embarrassing. The correct spelling is embarrassing. Embarrassing means causing a feeling of self-consciousness, shame, or awkwardness. My teacher was so laudatory it was almost embarrassing. The correct spelling is embarrassing. Embarrassing means causing a feeling of self-consciousness, shame, or awkwardness. My teacher was so laudatory it was almost embarrassing.

432. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Her research focuses on understanding why certain groups of registered voters appear apathetic about local elections.
     • Wanting to discover as much as you can about things, sometimes in a way that annoys people
     • Extremely bad in a way that is very noticeable
     • Showing no interest or energy and unwilling to take action
     • Exercising power in a cruel or arbitrary way

     Correct answer: Showing no interest or energy and unwilling to take action

     Apathetic refers to someone who shows or feels no interest, enthusiasm, or concern. To the salsa band’s dismay, the apathetic audience refused to leave their seats during the whole concert. Inquisitive means wanting to discover as much as you can about things, sometimes in a way that annoys people. My inquisitive 5-year-old asked the man sitting in front of us why he was picking his nose, leaving me mortified. Egregious means extremely bad in a way that is very noticeable. The soldiers were accused of committing egregious human rights abuses. Tyrannical means exercising power in a cruel or arbitrary way. Tyrannical regimes brutally oppress their people.

433. Which word has a similar meaning to “abundance; excess”?
     • Antithesis
     • Veracity
     • Plethora
     • Secession

     Correct answer: Plethora

     A plethora is a very large amount of something. There’s a plethora of books about the royal family, but this is the first one that explores the relationship between the King and his cousin. Antithesis is a contrary or opposite opinion, concept, or characteristic. The four-hour documentary on Turkish bandwagons was the antithesis of entertainment. Veracity is conformity to facts; accuracy. Claudia wasn’t sure of the veracity of the source and decided to keep on researching. Secession is breaking away from an organization, country, etc. The secession of the eastern part of the country, well-known for its ore deposits, supposed a violent shock to the nation’s economy.

434. What word meaning “plethora; plenty” fits best in the sentence? There was a(n) ___________ of food at the party, but none of the seven dishes they served was vegetarian.
     • Density
     • Plutocracy
     • Abundance
     • Scarcity

     Correct answer: Abundance

     Abundance is the situation in which there is more than enough of something. The dancer had talent in abundance, but she lacked the motivation to practice every day. Density refers to the quality of being close together and difficult to go or see through. I noticed a change in my hair’s density during that stressful period. Scarcity refers to a situation in which something is not easy to find or get. The scarcity of young children has led to the closing of the local school. Plutocracy is a system of government in which the richest people in a country rule or have power. The fact that almost all politicians are filthy rich makes it obvious that we live in a plutocracy.

435. Fill the blank with the correct word. Because the Historical Association deeply valued academic achievements, one of the requirements was that only History ___________ could become scholarship recipients.
     • Aficionados
     • Virtuosos
     • Graduates
     • Connoisseurs

     Correct answer: Graduates

     A graduate is someone who completed a school program. The graduates patiently waited for the dean to finish his impossibly long and laudatory speech. An aficionado is someone who is very interested in and enthusiastic about a particular subject. My husband, an aficionado of Swedish cinema, doesn’t mind reading subtitles. A connoisseur is a person who knows a lot about and enjoys one of the arts, or food, drink, etc. and can judge quality and skill in that subject. I consider myself a wine connoisseur and I guarantee that this cheap wine has sugar added to increase the alcohol content. A virtuoso is a person highly skilled in music or another artistic pursuit. The soloist, a celebrated violin virtuoso, filled the theater with emotion.

436. Which word has a similar meaning to “to stop liquid, especially blood, from flowing out”?
     • Staunch
     • Decant
     • Adhere
     • Fluctuate

     Correct answer: Staunch

     To staunch means to stop something happening, or to stop liquid, especially blood, from flowing out. Not being able to find anything better, Teodora handed him a diaper to press on the wound and staunch the flow of blood. To fluctuate means to change, especially continuously and between one level or thing and another. Gas prices fluctuate according to demand. To adhere means to stick or be attached firmly to a surface. More people started adhering to our association after we appeared on that fantastic show on Channel 6. To decant means to pour a liquid from one container into another. She carefully decanted the wine into a jug trying not to disturb the sediment at the bottom of the bottle.

437. Which word has a similar meaning to “plethora; plenty”?
     • Aptitude
     • Abundance
     • Scarcity
     • Dearth

     Correct answer: Abundance

     Abundance is the situation in which there is more than enough of something. The dancer had talent in abundance, but she lacked the motivation to practice every day. Dearth refers to a scarcity or lack of something. The school district is suffering from a dearth of middle school teachers. Scarcity refers to a situation in which something is not easy to find or get. The scarcity of young children has led to the closing of the local school. Aptitude refers to a natural ability or skill. My husband has no aptitude for finance: give him any amount of money and he will inadvertently spend it.

438. What is the meaning of “stimulus”?
     • A thing that discourages or is intended to discourage someone from doing something
     • Something that makes progress, movement, or achieving something difficult or impossible
     • Something that causes growth, activity, or reaction
     • An ability to understand, recognize, value, or react to something

     Correct answer: Something that causes growth, activity, or reaction

     A stimulus is something that causes growth, activity, or reaction. An online petition calling for monthly stimulus checks has now surpassed 3 million signatures. A deterrent is a thing that discourages or is intended to discourage someone from doing something. Security cameras act as a deterrent to any potential offenders. An impediment is something that makes progress, movement, or achieving something difficult or impossible. The family faced shortages of food and many other impediments before being able to emigrate to Europe. Sense refers to an ability to understand, recognize, value, or react to something. With their excellent sense of smell, wolves can track their prey from miles away.

439. Fill the blank in the following sentence. There are a __________ of potential causes for your dog’s hair loss: it could be a parasite, a hormonal disorder, or a result of the dog licking the area excessively, among others.
     • Patency
     • Plethora
     • Indifference
     • Dearth

     Correct answer: Plethora

     A plethora is a very large amount of something. There’s a plethora of books about the royal family, but this is the first one that explores the relationship between the King and his cousin. Patency is the condition of being open or unobstructed. The doctor explained that antihistamine use may increase the risk of apneic episodes, so she recommended an evaluation of airway patency before initiating the treatment. Dearth refers to a scarcity or lack of something. The school district is suffering from a dearth of middle school teachers. The lack of interest in someone or something is called indifference. Many locals show indifference towards the neighborhood, which they never need to visit and regard as a “tourist trap.”

440. Which word has a similar meaning to “suggest; insinuate”?
     • Evince
     • Infer
     • Imply
     • Shelve

     Correct answer: Imply

     To imply means to indicate the truth or existence of something by suggestion. His evasive comment implied that he wouldn’t be available for a date anytime soon. To evince means to make something obvious or show something clearly. The tedious look on his face evinced little interest in the story I was telling. To infer means to deduce or conclude something from evidence and reasoning. After reading the report, we can infer that the company’s choices are driving us to bankruptcy. To shelve means to decide not to proceed with a project or plan, either temporarily or permanently. Fortunately, the plans to close the school permanently have been shelved, and our children will be able to continue attending.

441. What is the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence? Even though the results of the study were inconclusive, medical professionals are circumspect about recommending this treatment.
     • Having or showing desire or interest
     • Someone who is careful not to take risks
     • Found or coming from within something, for example a system or a person's body or mind
     • Someone who will never change his mind, or something that will never be changed

     Correct answer: Someone who is careful not to take risks

     Circumspect refers to someone who is careful not to take risks. Out of an abundance of caution, the police were circumspect about revealing too many details about the suspects. Eager means having or showing desire or interest. Eager to determine the causes of the illness, the research team has spent over five years studying different pathogens. Endogenous means found or coming from within something, for example a system or a person’s body or mind. People with type 2 diabetes eventually suffer a decrease in endogenous insulin levels. Adamant refers to someone who will never change his mind, or something that will never be changed. The doctors had been absolutely adamant that the patient wouldn’t be able to walk again and they were astounded by his sudden recovery.

442. What word has a similar meaning to “shaming; humiliating”?
     • Stupefied
     • Embarrassing
     • Jaunty
     • Glutinous

     Correct answer: Embarrassing

     Embarrassing means causing a feeling of self-consciousness, shame, or awkwardness. My teacher was so laudatory it was almost embarrassing. Glutinous refers to something that is like glue in texture; sticky. I had sweet glutinous rice with red bean paste for breakfast. Stupefied refers to someone who is very surprised or shocked. His girlfriend was stupefied to learn that he didn’t know how to clean a toilet. Jaunty means having or expressing a lively, cheerful, and self-confident manner. His jaunty walk showed how happy he was about the promotion.

443. What word has a similar meaning to “to take something in”?
     • Gag
     • Absorb
     • Clamor
     • Urge

     Correct answer: Absorb

     To absorb means to take something in, especially gradually. Plants have the ability to absorb carbon dioxide from the air. To clamor means to make a loud complaint or demand. The baby, bored after two hours of sitting in her stroller, was clamoring for attention. To urge is to encourage someone strongly to do something or to ask that something be done. Anita’s teacher urged her to apply for several scholarships. To gag means to experience the sudden uncomfortable feeling of tightness in the throat and stomach that makes you feel like you are going to vomit. The smell of raw fish makes me gag.

444. What is the meaning of “apathetic”?
     • Full of activity, or very busy and fast
     • Showing no interest or energy and unwilling to take action
     • Careful not to take risks
     • Very pleasant, attractive, or enjoyable

     Correct answer: Showing no interest or energy and unwilling to take action

     Apathetic refers to someone who shows or feels no interest, enthusiasm, or concern. To the salsa band’s dismay, the apathetic audience refused to leave their seats during the whole concert Hectic means full of activity, or very busy and fast. Crystal’s hectic schedule doesn’t allow her a lot of time for hobbies. Delightful means very pleasant, attractive, or enjoyable. My son’s new girlfriend is delightful and I can’t wait for her to become my daughter-in-law. Circumspect refers to someone who is careful not to take risks. The police were circumspect about revealing too many details about the suspects.

445. Choose the correct word for the blank in the following sentence: One would expect Jamie, the analyst, to know _______ about his own job.
     • More much
     • Much
     • More
     • Most

     Correct answer: More

     more is the irregular comparative form of the adjective much. We use a comparative adjective when we are only comparing two things. In this sentence, we are comparing Jamie’s actual knowledge and the knowledge one would expect him to have. more much. This is incorrect because much is an irregular adjective. We do not use more or most in front of irregular superlative and comparative adjectives. much. This is incorrect because much is the regular form of the adjective, and regular forms are not used to compare things.most . This is incorrect because most is the irregular superlative form of the adjective much. We use a superlative adjective when comparing more than two things. This sentence only compares two things.

446. Upon arrival, they saw a swimming pool behind the house full of blue water. Which phrase should be moved to the end of the sentence?
     • A swimming pool
     • Behind the house
     • They saw
     • Upon arrival

     Correct answer: Behind the house

     A modifier is a phrase that functions as an adjective/descriptor for a noun or verb. In this sentence, the phrase, “behind the house,” is the modifier, but it is misplaced. We need to move it to the end of the sentence for it to correctly state that they saw a swimming pool full of blue water that was behind the house. a swimming pool This is incorrect because if we moved the answer choice to the end of the sentence, it would read like this: Upon arrival, they saw behind the house full of blue water a swimming pool. This sentence is grammatically incorrect. they saw . This is incorrect because if we moved the answer choice to the end of the sentence, it would read like this: Upon arrival, a swimming pool behind the house full of blue water they saw. This sentence is grammatically incorrect. upon arrival .This is incorrect because if we moved the answer choice to the end of the sentence, it would read like this: They saw a swimming pool behind the house full of blue water upon arrival. This sentence is grammatically incorrect.

447. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the following sentence. The _________ road to my aunt’s house is the one through the woods.
     • Shortest
     • More short
     • Shorter
     • Most short

     Correct answer: Shortest

     shortest The correct form of the adjective is the superlative adjective. A superlative adjective is used when comparing more than two things. In this sentence, we are comparing a road with all the other roads that go to the aunt’s house. Most short. Most short is not correct. If the adjective is more than two syllables long and does not end in -y, use the form “most + adjective.” For example: mysterious → most mysterious. This adjective is only two syllables, so we do not put most in front of it. More short. More short is not correct. For adjectives with two syllables that do not end in -y or for adjectives with more than two syllables, use the form “more + adjective.” For example: exciting → more exciting. Since short only has one syllable, this is incorrect. Shorter. Shorter is a comparative adjective. We use comparative adjectives when only comparing two things. In this sentence, the road is being compared to all the other roads, so this is the incorrect form of the adjective.

448. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
     • The national flag of Ghana consists of a horizontal triband of red, gold, and green.
     • The national flag of Ghana consists of a horizontal triband of red, gold, and, green.
     • The national flag of Ghana consists of a horizontal triband of red gold and green.
     • The national flag of Ghana consists of a horizontal triband of red, gold and green.

     Correct answer: The national flag of Ghana consists of a horizontal triband of red, gold, and green.

     This is the only sentence that is grammatically correct. We must use commas when including a series or a list of three or more words/phrases in a sentence. This includes a comma between each thing in the list and before the words and/or when they come before the last thing in the list. All other sentences use commas in a series incorrectly. They do not have a comma between each item in the series, so they are grammatically incorrect.

449. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the following sentence. During my trip to Thailand I tasted the _______ pepper they sold in the street market.
     • Spicier
     • Spiciest
     • Most spicy
     • More spicy

     Correct answer: Spiciest

     spiciest. The correct form of the adjective is the superlative adjective. A superlative adjective is used when comparing more than two things. In this sentence, we are comparing a pepper with all the other peppers in the street market. For adjectives ending in -y, replace the -y with and -i and add -est. For example, spicy → spicier. More spicy. More spicy is not correct. For adjectives with two syllables that do not end in -y or for adjectives with more than two syllables, use the form “more + adjective.” For example: exciting → more exciting. This adjective ends in -y, so we would not use more spicy. Spicier. Spicier is a comparative adjective. We use comparative adjectives when only comparing two things. In this sentence, the pepper is being compared to all the other peppers, so this is the incorrect form of the adjective. Most spicy. Most spicy is not correct. If the adjective is more than two syllables long and does not end in -y, use the form “most + adjective.” For example: mysterious → most mysterious. This adjective is only two syllables, so we do not put most in front of it.

450. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the sentence below: As it was established in _____ statement to the press, we will not make any further comment.
     • Ourselves
     • Our
     • Us
     • We

     Correct answer: Our

     Our is the correct pronoun to use here because it’s the only possessive pronoun. Possessive pronouns are used to show ownership. As it was established in us statement to the press, we will not make any further comment. “Us” is an objective pronoun. Objective pronouns are used as objects in sentences. If something is used as an object in a sentence, it means that the person or thing is receiving an action, rather than performing it. As it was established in we statement to the press, we will not make any further comment. “We” is a subjective pronoun. Subjective pronouns are used as the subjects of sentences. The subject of a sentence refers to the person or thing that is performing an action. As it was established in ourselves statement to the press, we will not make any further comment. “Ourselves” is a reflexive pronoun. Reflexive pronouns are used to show that the subject and the object in a sentence are the same. In other words, that the same person or thing is both performing and receiving the action.

451. Choose the correct word for the blank in the following sentence: Before going to Italy, the ________ I had traveled was New York City.
     • Farther
     • Far
     • More far
     • Farthest

     Correct answer: Farthest

     farthest is the irregular superlative form of the adjective far. A superlative adjective is used when comparing more than two things. In this sentence, we are comparing how far New York City is and how far all my previous trips have taken me. farther .This is incorrect because farther is the comparative form of the adjective far. We use a comparative adjective when we are only comparing two things. far. This is incorrect because far is the regular form of the adjective, and regular forms are not used to compare things. more far. This is incorrect because far is an irregular adjective. We do not use more or most in front of irregular superlative and comparative adjectives.

452. Which word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? My father, from who I have learned so much, has had an immense effect on my career as a nurse.
     • Effect
     • Who
     • Learned
     • Immense

     Correct answer: Who

     Who should be used to refer to the subject of a sentence. Whom would be used to refer to the object of a verb or preposition. Since who is an object of the preposition (from), we must use whom. Hint: If you can replace the word with he or she, use who. If you can replace it with him or her, use whom.

453. Select the word or phrase in the following sentence that is not used correctly: The baby’s cry woke up the twins’ who were sleeping in their mother’s bed.
     • Mother's
     • Twins'
     • Baby's
     • Their

     Correct answer: Twins'

     Twins’ is the only word not used correctly. The word twins does not require an apostrophe as it does not show ownership or possession of anything in the sentence. The correct way to use the word in this sentence is twins. Their is incorrect since it is used correctly in the sentence. It does not require an apostrophe because it is a possessive pronoun, so it already shows ownership or possession over something else in the sentence. Baby’s is incorrect since it is used correctly in the sentence. This word requires an apostrophe because the cry belongs to the baby. So, we add the apostrophe to show possession. Mother’s is incorrect since it is used correctly in the sentence. This word requires an apostrophe because the bed belongs to the mother. So, we add the apostrophe to show possession.

454. Which sentence is grammatically correct?
     • When Lin drove the car through the garage door, she damaged it badly.
     • The middle schoolers like to eat lunch off-campus so that they have more choices of food.
     • When Harry dropped the wand onto the glass table, it broke.
     • Lindsey told her mother that her sweater had a hole in it.

     Correct answer: The middle schoolers like to eat lunch off-campus so that they have more choices of food.

     The middle schoolers like to eat lunch off-campus so that they have more choices of food. This sentence is grammatically correct. It has a pronoun (they) with a clear antecedent (middle schoolers), so it is not confusing to understand. A sentence with pronouns is grammatically correct if each pronoun has a clear antecedent. All other choices are grammatically incorrect. They use unclear pronoun references. We cannot tell what/who the pronouns are referring to so it is confusing and hard to understand.

455. Which sentence is grammatically incorrect?
     • Scott checked his schedule before going to class.
     • The students followed the directions they had been given.
     • Macie asked if she could use the restroom.
     • The teacher told the student that she would return the quizzes on Thursday.

     Correct answer: Macie asked if she could use the restroom.

     This is the only sentence that is grammatically incorrect. This sentence uses an unclear pronoun reference with she. We cannot tell if the pronoun she refers to the teacher or to the student, so it is unclear. A sentence with pronouns is grammatically correct if each pronoun has a clear antecedent. All of the other sentences are grammatically correct. They have pronouns with clear antecedents, so they are not confusing to understand.

456. Which use of an apostrophe in the following sentence is correct? My dad’s neighbors’ are cheap stake’s: they never turn their Christmas’ lights on.
     • Dad’s
     • Neighbors’
     • Stake’s
     • Christmas’

     Correct answer: Dad’s

     dad’s is the only word that uses the apostrophe correctly. It indicates that the neighbors in the sentence belong to my dad. So, an apostrophe is necessary to show possession. neighbor’s is incorrect. It does not require an apostrophe because this word does not show ownership or possession of something else in the sentence. stake’s is incorrect. It does not require an apostrophe because this word does not show ownership or possession of something else in the sentence. Christmas’ is incorrect. It does not require an apostrophe because this word does not show ownership or possession of something else in the sentence.

457. The barista that was too bitter had prepared an enormous cup of black coffee. Which phrase should be moved to the end of the sentence?
     • That was too bitter
     • An enormous cup
     • Had prepared
     • The barista

     Correct answer: That was too bitter

     A modifier is a phrase that functions as an adjective/descriptor for a noun or verb. In this sentence, the phrase, “that was too bitter,” is the modifier, but it is misplaced. We need to move it to the end of the sentence for it to correctly state that the coffee was too bitter. had prepared .This is incorrect because if we moved the answer choice to the end of the sentence, it would read like this: The barista that was too bitter an enormous cup of black coffee had prepared. This sentence is grammatically incorrect. the barista. This is incorrect because if we moved the answer choice to the end of the sentence, it would read like this: That was too bitter had prepared an enormous cup of black coffee the barista. This sentence is grammatically incorrect. an enormous cup. This is incorrect because if we moved the answer choice to the end of the sentence, it would read like this: The barista that was too bitter had prepared of black coffee an enormous cup. This sentence is grammatically incorrect.

458. Which word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? That medicine had a lot of weird side affects, such as constantly sneezing and somnolence.
     • Medicine
     • Affects
     • Sneezing
     • Constantly

     Correct answer: Affects

     affects. Affect is normally used as a verb that means “to influence or to change” e.g. The decisions made by the management team have affected my workload. Effect may be used as a noun or a verb. As a noun, it means “result or outcome” e.g. The decision made by the management team has had an effect on my workload. Therefore, the correct sentence should be: That medicine had a lot of weird side effects, such as constantly sneezing and somnolence.

459. Select the best word or words for the blank in the following sentence. As far as I know, he, who loved the sea and its waves, _________ a professional surfer because of his grandfather.
     • Don′t become
     • Was
     • Are
     • Were

     Correct answer: Was

     A subject must agree with its verb in number. The subject in this sentence (he) is singular so we need a singular verb (was). The trap here is that the subject is separated from the verb. When checking for subject-verb agreement, look at just the subject and the verb. Ignore everything else. “He” is the subject – not “waves.” As far as I know, he, who loved the sea and its waves, was a professional surfer because of his grandfather.

460. Select the best word or words for the blank in the following sentence. My mom thinks that fishing and hunting _____ very boring activities.
     • Has
     • Is
     • Was
     • Are

     Correct answer: Are

     A subject must agree with its verb in number. The subject in this sentence (fishing and hunting) is a compound subject. When we have two singular subjects joined by the word “and” the verb will be plural. Are is the only plural verb out of our answer choices. My mom thinks that fishing and hunting are very boring activities.

461. Which sentence contains text-speak?
     • I know the next car I buy will be an SUV, but I haven’t decided on the brand yet.
     • Louisa was diagnosed with ADHD when she was seven years old.
     • BTW, don’t forget to bring a coat, we may come back after it gets dark.
     • Do you remember when sending an SMS cost money?

     Correct answer: BTW, don’t forget to bring a coat, we may come back after it gets dark.

     Answer: BTW, don’t forget to bring a coat, we may come back after it gets dark. The abbreviation BTW stands for by the way and is an example of text-speak. You would only use this abbreviation when texting or using other informal methods of communication online. ADHD is the abbreviation for “Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder.” SMS is the abbreviation for “Short Message System.” SUV is the abbreviation for “Sports Utility Vehicle.”

462. Choose the correct word for the blank in the sentence. Poor Nicole didn’t know our English Literature paper was ____ the day before yesterday.
     • Du
     • Doo
     • Do
     • Due

     Correct answer: Due

     Due is the only word that makes this sentence correct. Due is an adjective that refers to something that is owing or owed, irrespective of whether the time of payment has arrived. Doo. Doo is a noun that refers to a dove or pigeon. Do. Do is a verb that refers to the act of performing or executing. Du. Du is a word that can be found in names of French derivation, a contraction of de and the article le.

463. Select the best word or phrase for the blank in the following sentence. His car broke down last month, and now he _____ to work by bicycle.
     • Came
     • Will come
     • Comes
     • Will have come

     Correct answer: Comes

     Answer: comes The word “now” places the action in the present; therefore, the present tense verb “comes” is required. The verb “came” places the action in the past. The verbs “will come” and “will have come” place the action in the future.

464. Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence. He had a small _______ of wealth that will be shared among a great _______ of nephews and nieces.
     • Number, number
     • Amount, amount
     • Number, amount
     • Amount, number

     Correct answer: Amount, number

     amount, number. Amount is used when referring to things in bulk that cannot be easily counted (paperwork, homework, oil). Example: The amount of fur on that dog is unbelievable. Number is used when referring to things that can be individually counted. Example: The number of teeth that dog has is unbelievable. Since wealth cannot be counted, amount is the best answer for the first blank. Nephews and nieces can be counted, so number is the best answer for the second blank.

465. Select the best word or phrase for the blank in the following sentence. Promise me you _______ me when you arrive.
     • Call
     • Have called
     • Called
     • Will call

     Correct answer: Will call

     will call. The phrase when you arrive places the action in the future; therefore, the future tense verb will call is required. The verbs have called and called place the action in the past. The verb call places the action in the present.

466. Which of the following sentences is grammatically incorrect?
     • Last summer we went to the Alps, but this year we feel like going to the beach.
     • Last summer we went to the Alps this year we feel like going to the beach.
     • Last summer we went to the Alps, and this year we feel like going to the beach.
     • Last summer we went to the Alps, so this year we feel like going to the beach.

     Correct answer: Last summer we went to the Alps this year we feel like going to the beach.

     Last summer we went to the Alps this year we feel like going to the beach. Last summer we went to the Alps this year we feel like going to the beach is grammatically incorrect because it is a run-on sentence. Run-on sentences are when two or more complete sentences are written as one sentence. Run-on sentences can be fixed by adding a dash (-), a semicolon (;), or a colon (:) between the two sentences. You could also add a coordinating conjunction with a comma (, but) or make them two separate sentences with a period (.). Any of these would be considered correct: Last summer we went to the Alps, so/but/and this year we feel like going to the beach. Last summer we went to the Alps; this year we feel like going to the beach. Last summer we went to the Alps – this year we feel like going to the beach. Last summer we went to the Alps: this year we feel like going to the beach. Last summer we went to the Alps. This year we feel like going to the beach.

467. Select the best word or phrase for the blank in the following sentence. Starting next week, the dancers __________ every day until the end of the season next August.
     • Have rehearsed
     • Rehearsed
     • Rehearse
     • Will rehearse

     Correct answer: Will rehearse

     Answer: will rehearse The phrases “starting next week” and “until the end of next season next August” place the action in the future; therefore, the future tense verb “will rehearse” is required. The verbs “rehearsed” and “have rehearsed” place the action in the past. The verb “rehearse” places the action in the present.

468. Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence. There were three girls in the coffee shop, none of _____ looked like my sister.
     • That
     • Which
     • Who
     • Whom

     Correct answer: Whom

     whom. Whom should be used to refer to the object of a verb or preposition. Who should be used to refer to the subject of a sentence. Since the blank in this sentence is an object of the preposition (of), we must use whom. It is considered impolite to refer to a person as “that” or “which”, so neither of those answer choices are appropriate. Hint: If you can replace the word with “he” or “she”, use who. If you can replace it with “him” or “her,” use whom.

469. Select the best word or phrase for the blank in the following sentence. In 1950, the town _____ a population of five thousand.
     • Will have had
     • Had
     • Has
     • Is having

     Correct answer: Had

     had. The words “in 1950” place the action in the past; therefore, the past tense verb “had” is required. The verbs “has” and “is having” place the action in the present. The verb “will have had” places the action in the future.

470. The sentence below uses which type of word/phrase? Gloria and Jennifer have been BFFs since they met on their first day of high school: you could say it was friendship at first sight!
     • Cliché
     • Euphemism
     • Text-speak
     • None of the above.

     Correct answer: Text-speak

     Answer: Text-speak The abbreviation BFF stands for Best Friends Forever and is an example of text-speak. You would only use this abbreviation when texting or using other informal methods of communication online. The sentence does not contain any euphemisms or clichés.

471. Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence: There were a significant ______ of applicants to the nursing program this year
     • Aggregate
     • Stacks
     • Number
     • Amount

     Correct answer: Number

     Answer: number “Amount” is used when referring to things in bulk that cannot be easily counted (paperwork, homework, oil). Example: The amount of fur on that dog is unbelievable. “Number” is used when referring to things that can be individually counted. Example: The number of teeth that dog has is unbelievable. Since “applicants” can be counted, “number” is the best answer.

472. Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence. Of course, I _____ stand the heat of this food but _____ I have some water, please?
     • Can, may
     • May, may
     • Can, can
     • May, can

     Correct answer: Can, may

     can, may. Can and could imply ability. Example: I can run a mile in under 7 minutes. Example: I could eat this entire cake. May and might imply permission. Example: May I go to my friend’s house? Example: My mom might let me go to my friend’s house. In this example, the person is able to stand the heat of the food but is still asking for water.

473. Select the best word or phrase for the blank in the following sentence. The fruit _______ to rot soon if we don′t hire more people for the harvest.
     • Has started
     • Will start
     • Is starting
     • Starts

     Correct answer: Will start

     Answer: will start The word “soon” places the action in the future; therefore, the future tense verb “will start” is required. The verbs “starts”, “has started”, and “is starting” place the action in the present.

474. Select the best word or phrase for the blank in the following sentence. There _____ no time to work on that at this moment, let′s finish Mrs. Harris’ project first.
     • Is
     • Will be
     • Had been
     • Was

     Correct answer: Is

     Answer: is The phrase “at this moment” places the action in the present; therefore, the present tense verb “is” is required. The verbs “was” and “had been” place the action in the past. The verb “will be” places the action in the future.

475. Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence. This decision will ______ our working relationship, but I hope we can remain friends.
     • Cause
     • Affect
     • Effect
     • Produce

     Correct answer: Affect

     affect. Affect is normally used as a verb that means “to influence or to change”. This decision will affect our working relationship, but I hope we can remain friends. Effect may be used as a noun or a verb. As a noun, it means “result or outcome”. The decision made by the management team has had an effect on my workload.

476. Which word in the following sentence is a noun? The man walked quickly down the hall.
     • Down
     • Walked
     • Man
     • Quickly

     Correct answer: Man

     Answer: man. A noun is a word for a person, place, thing, or idea. The word “man” is a noun because it is a person. The word “down” is a preposition. Prepositions are used to connect nouns, pronouns, or phrases (called the object of the preposition) to other words within a sentence and typically describe the location, direction, or timing related to the noun. “Down” is the beginning of the prepositional phrase “down the hall” which describes where the man was walking. The word “walked” is a verb. A verb shows action or state of being. It answers “what is the subject doing?” The word “quickly” is an adverb. An adverb modifies a verb, adjective, or another adverb. The word “quickly” describes the verb “walked.”

477. Which word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? Who said the police station is among the post office and the French bakery?
     • Among
     • Post
     • French
     • Who

     Correct answer: Among

     among. Use “among” to show a relationship involving more than two persons or things being considered as a group. I was among the few students chosen for the scholarship. Use “between” to show a relationship involving only two persons or things. I sit between Samantha and Sara in homeroom. This sentence should be “The police station is between the post office and the French bakery.”

478. Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence. His walk took him ______ than he had wanted and he took a bus to go back home.
     • Farther
     • Farer
     • More far
     • Further

     Correct answer: Farther

     farther. Farther refers to a measurable distance. The drive home was much farther than I remembered. Further refers to a figurative distance and means “to a great degree” or “to a greater extent” We will cover this topic further in the next meeting. Since we are talking about a measurable distance, we need to use farther. His walk took him farther than he had wanted and he took a bus to go back home.

479. Select the best word or phrase for the blank in the following sentence. My parents _______ to Chicago before I was born.
     • Move
     • Moved
     • Are moving
     • Will move

     Correct answer: Moved

     moved. The phrase before I was born places the action in the past; therefore, the past tense verb moved is required. The verbs move and are moving place the action in the present. The verb will move places the action in the future.

480. Which word in the following sentence is an interjection? Wow! I have never seen a plate of nachos so big!
     • I
     • Wow
     • Nachos
     • Big

     Correct answer: Wow

     Wow is the interjection in this sentence. An interjection expresses strong feelings or emotions. It can be a word or a phrase. “Wow” expresses a feeling of being surprised or impressed. Big is an adjective. An adjective describes a noun or a pronoun. It tells what kind, which one, or how many. Nachos is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. I is a pronoun. A pronoun is a word that takes the place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting like a noun in a sentence.

481. Which word in the following sentence is a verb? The water feels warm on a hot day.
     • Water
     • Hot
     • On
     • Feels

     Correct answer: Feels

     Feels is the linking verb in this sentence. It tells us about the state of being of the water – the water feels warm. Water is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. Hot is an adjective. An adjective describes a noun or a pronoun by telling what kind, which one, or how many. In this sentence, hot describes the sun. On is a preposition. A preposition combines with a noun or a pronoun to form a phrase that tells us something about another word in the sentence.

482. A mechanical wave is associated with materials or substances known as mediums. Which of the following is not a type of mechanical wave?
     • Water waves
     • Spring waves
     • Radio waves
     • Seismic waves

     Correct answer: Radio waves

     Answer: Radio waves. As it is stated in the question; a mechanical wave is associated with materials or substances known as mediums. Vibrating materials or substances of mediums such as water, rocks, and springs create water waves, seismic waves and spring waves respectively. Some may think that radio waves are vibrations of air particles; however, radio waves are electromagnetic waves which do not need a medium to be transmitted.

483. Which word in the following sentence is an adverb? You have to turn in the research project on Wednesday.
     • You
     • Have
     • Wednesday
     • Project

     Correct answer: Wednesday

     Wednesday is the adverb in this sentence. An adverb describes a verb, adjective, or another adverb. It tells us how, when, where, or to what degree. Wednesday tells us when you have to turn in (verb) the project. You turn it in on Wednesday. You is a pronoun. A pronoun is a word that takes the place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting as a noun in a sentence. Have is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being. Project is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea.

484. Which word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? I work with two women, Rachel and Martha, both of who attended Harvard University at the same time I did.
     • Work
     • Who
     • Both
     • Attended

     Correct answer: Who

     who. Who should be used to refer to the subject of a sentence. Whom should be used to refer to the object of a verb or preposition. Since “who” in this sentence is an object of the preposition (of), we must use “whom.” So, the sentence should read: I work with two women, Rachel and Martha, both of whom attended Harvard University at the same time I did. NurseHub Hint: If you can replace the word with “he” or “she”, use who. If you can replace it with “him” or “her,” use whom.

485. Which word in the following sentence is a pronoun? Did you see that beautiful painting that Carlos did at the art show yesterday?
     • See
     • You
     • Painting
     • Beautiful

     Correct answer: You

     The pronoun is you. You refers to the person that the speaker is talking to directly. See is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being. Painting is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. Beautiful is an adjective. An adjective describes a noun or a pronoun.

486. Which word in the following sentence is an adjective? Anthony finished his race in first place.
     • In
     • First
     • Anthony
     • Finished

     Correct answer: First

     First is the adjective in this sentence. First describes the place (noun) by telling us “which place.” An adjective describes a noun and tells what kind, which one, or how many. Anthony is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. Finished is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It also describes a state of being. In is a preposition. A preposition combines with a noun or a pronoun to form a phrase that tells something about another word in the sentence.

487. Identify the COMPLETE sentence.
     • Only active at night.
     • My house is in Kyoto.
     • Misses her grandmother this summer.
     • After the choir performance.

     Correct answer: My house is in Kyoto.

     My house is in Kyoto. This is the only complete sentence. It has a subject (my house), a predicate (is in Kyoto), and expresses a complete idea. It is complete. Only active at night. This is not a complete sentence. It does not tell us who or what (subject) is active at night. It is not a complete thought. It is incomplete. Misses her grandmother this summer. This is not a complete sentence. It does not tell us who or what (subject) misses her grandmother. It is not a complete thought. It is incomplete. After the choir performance. This is not a complete sentence. It does not tell us who or what (subject) does what (predicate) after the choir performance. It is not a complete thought. It is incomplete.

488. Which sentence uses SECOND as an adjective?
     • Shonte lives in the second house on the left.
     • I will be with you in one second.
     • He had to settle for his second favorite ice cream.
     • I second the motion to elect Jose as head of the student body.

     Correct answer: Shonte lives in the second house on the left.

     Shonte lives in the second house on the left. In this sentence, second describes the house (noun) by telling us which one. It describes the noun by telling us which one, therefore it is an adjective. I will be with you in one second. In this sentence, second refers to a unit of time. It is a thing therefore it is a noun. He had to settle for his second favorite ice cream. In this sentence, second is used to describe the adjective favorite to show that it is not the speaker’s absolute favorite ice cream. Since it describes an adjective (favorite), it is an adverb. I second the motion to elect Jose as head of the student body. In this sentence, second refers to the action of agreeing with someone. It is an action therefore it is a verb.

489. Which word in the following sentence is a conjunction? Tyrone loves being able to spend time with his family during the holidays, yet he does not quite agree with all of their political beliefs.
     • Quite
     • At
     • Yet
     • Spend

     Correct answer: Yet

     Yet is the conjunction in this sentence. A conjunction joins together two or more words, phrases, or clauses. Quite is an adverb. An adverb describes an adjective, a verb, or another adverb. It tells how, when, where, or to what degree. Spend is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being. At is a preposition. A preposition combines with a noun or a pronoun to form a phrase that tells something about another word in the sentence.

490. Which word in the following sentence is a noun? I would love to travel to Thailand because it is so beautiful and sunny.
     • I
     • Because
     • Sunny
     • Thailand

     Correct answer: Thailand

     Thailand is the noun in this sentence. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. Thailand is a place, so it is a noun. Sunny is an adjective. An adjective describes a noun or a pronoun. Because is a conjunction. A conjunction joins together two or more words, phrases, or clauses. I is a pronoun. A pronoun is used in place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting as a noun in a sentence.

491. In the following sentence, what is the independent clause? As Julianna had fallen sick with the flu, the rest of the team had to improvise a completely different project.
     • As Julianna
     • The rest of the team had to improvise a completely different project
     • Had to improvise a completely different project
     • As Julianna had fallen sick with the flu

     Correct answer: The rest of the team had to improvise a completely different project

     The rest of the team had to improvise a completely different project is the independent clause. An independent clause expresses a complete thought and can stand alone as a complete sentence. As Julianna had fallen sick with the flu is a dependent clause. A dependent clause has both a subject and a verb, but does not express a complete thought and cannot stand alone as a complete sentence. Had to improvise a completely different project and As Julianna are neither dependent nor independent clauses. Remember that a clause (either type) must have both a subject and a verb. Neither of these phrases has both.

492. Which word or phrase in the following sentence is the indirect object? On sunny days, Doreen and her colleague buy themselves a cup of ice cream before driving home.
     • Themselves
     • Doreen and her colleague
     • A cup of ice-cream
     • Buy

     Correct answer: Themselves

     themselves is the indirect object. The indirect object is the person or thing that is receiving the direct object. Doreen and her colleague receive the cups of ice cream they buy. buy is the verb. A verb describes the action or state of being of a thing or person (the subject). doreen and her colleague is the subject. A subject is the person, place, thing, or idea that is doing something or being described. a cup of ice-cream is the direct object. A direct object is the person or thing that is receiving the action of the verb (buy).

493. In the following sentence, which is the complete predicate? Marcy and her sister went to the farmer’s market and bought apples, kale, and some plants.
     • Went
     • Went to the farmer's market and bought apples, kale, and some plants
     • Marcy and her sister
     • Apples, kale, and some plants

     Correct answer: Went to the farmer's market and bought apples, kale, and some plants

     Went to the farmer’s marker and bough apples, kale, and some plants is the complete predicate. The complete predicate is the main verb (went) and all the words after it that tell us what happened in the sentence. To find the complete predicate, you first find the main verb or the verb phrase. Then you must include all of the words after the verb that tells us what happened in the sentence. Went is the simple predicate. The simple predicate is the verb that states something about the subject of the sentence. Apples, kale, and some plants are not verbs (they are nouns). A complete predicate includes the verb in the sentence. Marcy and her sister is the complete subject. The complete subject is the person, place, thing, or idea that is doing something or being described, including all of its modifiers or adjectives.

494. Which word in the following sentence is a preposition? Vanessa put the bath towel beside the sink to dry her hands.
     • Her
     • Put
     • Beside
     • Hands

     Correct answer: Beside

     Beside is the preposition in this sentence. A preposition combines with a noun or a pronoun to form a phrase that tells something about another word in a sentence. Beside shows the location of the towel in relation to the sink. Put is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being. Her is a pronoun. A pronoun is a word that takes the place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting as a noun in a sentence. Hands is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. Note: To is also a preposition in this sentence. Some sentences have more than one preposition but there will only be one correct answer choice.

495. Which of the following is a complex sentence?
     • My husband and I will spend the summer in Romania, an Eastern European country.
     • While Paolo drives to work, his coworker Melanie prefers to ride her bike.
     • Since a stable long-term growth.
     • He gained a lot of weight, so he had to stop eating pie every day.

     Correct answer: While Paolo drives to work, his coworker Melanie prefers to ride her bike.

     While Paolo drives to work, his coworker Melanie prefers to ride her bike. This is a complex sentence. A complex sentence has an independent clause (“his coworker Melanie prefers to ride her bike”) and at least one dependent clause (“while Paolo drives to work”). He gained a lot of weight, so he had to stop eating pie every day. This is a compound sentence. A compound sentence is a sentence that has at least two independent clauses (“he gained a lot of weight” and “he had to stop eating pie every day”) joined by a semicolon or, in this case, comma and a conjunction (so). Since a stable long-term growth. This is a sentence fragment. A sentence fragment does not have both a subject and a predicate, and it does not express a complete thought. My husband and I will spend the summer in Romania, an Eastern European country. This is a simple sentence. A simple sentence is a sentence consisting of only one clause, with a single subject (My husband and I) and predicate (will spend).

496. Which sentence contains a predicate nominative?
     • My daughter’s favorite pastime is drawing.
     • The investment was too risky for my cautious brother.
     • The councilman’s speech alarmed the audience.
     • Dinosaurs became extinct many years ago.

     Correct answer: My daughter’s favorite pastime is drawing.

     My daughter’s favorite pastime is drawing. Drawing is the predicate nominative. A predicate nominative is a noun or pronoun (drawing) that follows a linking verb (is) and helps to explain or rename the subject (my daughter’s favorite pastime). The investment was too risky for my cautious brother. This sentence does have a noun (brother) in the predicate, but it is not used to describe or rename the subject (the investment). The councilman’s speech alarmed the audience. This sentence does not have a predicate nominative that modifies or renames the subject (the councilman’s speech), nor does it have a linking verb. Dinosaurs became extinct many years ago. This sentence does not have a predicate nominative that modifies or renames the subject (dinosaurs).

497. In the following sentence, what is the independent clause? The TV chef instructed to finely slice the mushrooms while the oven reaches the desired temperature.
     • To finely slice the mushrooms
     • Reaches the desired temperature
     • The TV chef instructed to finely slice the mushrooms
     • While the oven reaches the desired temperature

     Correct answer: The TV chef instructed to finely slice the mushrooms

     The TV chef instructed to finely slice the mushrooms is the independent clause. An independent clause expresses a complete thought and can stand alone as a complete sentence. While the oven reaches the desired temperature is a dependent clause. A dependent clause has both a subject and a verb, but does not express a complete thought and cannot stand alone as a complete sentence. To finely slice the mushrooms and reaches the desired temperature are neither dependent nor independent clauses. Remember that a clause (either type) must have both a subject and a verb. Neither of these phrases has both.

498. Which word or phrase in the following sentence is the indirect object? As a tradition, every Christmas, the grandmother tells all of her grandchildren the same exciting story.
     • Grandchildren
     • The same exciting story
     • The grandmother
     • Tells

     Correct answer: Grandchildren

     grandchildren is the indirect object. The indirect object is the person or thing that is receiving the direct object. All of her grandchildren listen to (receive) the same exciting story. tells is the verb. A verb describes the action or state of being of a thing or person (the subject). the grandmother is the subject. A subject is the person, place, thing, or idea that is doing something or being described. the same exciting story is the direct object. A direct object is the person or thing that is receiving the action of the verb (tells).

499. Select the best word or words for the blank in the following sentence. She runs a small children′s charity and ____ in need of volunteers.
     • Were
     • Are
     • Be
     • Is

     Correct answer: Is

     A subject must agree with its verb in number. The subject in this sentence (she) is singular so we need a singular verb (is). The trap here is that the subject is separated from the verb. When checking for subject-verb agreement, look at just the subject and the verb. Ignore everything else. She runs a small children′s charity and is in need of volunteers.

500. Which of the following is a simple sentence?
     • Although it was complex, the manual was still useful.
     • As the new and luxurious apartment.
     • Carlos washed the dishes; Anna dried them.
     • My personal trainer follows a strict gluten-free diet.

     Correct answer: My personal trainer follows a strict gluten-free diet.

     My personal trainer follows a strict gluten-free diet. This is a simple sentence. A simple sentence is a sentence consisting of only one clause, with a single subject (my personal trainer) and predicate (follows). Carlos washed the dishes; Anna dried them. This is a compound sentence. A compound sentence is a sentence that has at least two independent clauses (“Carlos washed the dishes” and “Anna dried them”) joined by a comma and a conjunction or, as in this case, a semicolon. As the new and luxurious apartment. This is a sentence fragment. A sentence fragment does not have both a subject and a predicate, and it does not express a complete thought. Although it was complex, the manual was still useful. This is a complex sentence. A complex sentence has an independent clause (“the manual was still useful”) and at least one dependent clause (“although it was complex”).

501. Which word or phrase in the following sentence is the indirect object? During the press conference, the reckless journalist asked the mayor several tricky questions.
     • Several tricky questions
     • During the press conference
     • The mayor
     • The reckless journalist

     Correct answer: The mayor

     the mayor is the indirect object. The indirect object is the person or thing that is receiving the direct object. The mayor received several tricky questions. the reckless journalist is the subject. A subject is the person, place, thing, or idea that is doing something or being described. During the press conference is an adverbial phrase that indicates when the verb’s action occurred. several tricky questions is the direct object. A direct object is the person or thing that is receiving the action of the verb (asked).

502. Which statement contains a predicate adjective?
     • The road becomes narrow after the left turn.
     • Manuel broke up with that woman.
     • Susan voted for the youngest candidate.
     • A massive whale washed ashore last week.

     Correct answer: The road becomes narrow after the left turn.

     The road becomes narrow after the left turn. Narrow is the predicate adjective in this sentence. A predicate adjective is an adjective that follows a linking verb (becomes) and helps to modify or describe the subject (the road). Manuel broke up with that woman. This sentence does not contain an adjective or a linking verb. Susan voted for the youngest candidate. While this sentence does contain the adjective youngest, it does not contain a linking verb, therefore the adjective is not a predicate adjective. A massive whale washed ashore last week. While this sentence does contain the adjective massive, it does not contain a linking verb, therefore the adjective is not a predicate adjective.

503. Which word or phrase in the following sentence is the direct object?
     • His girlfriend, Angela
     • Eric
     • Yesterday
     • Bouquet of red roses

     Correct answer: Bouquet of red roses

     bouquet of red roses is the direct object. A direct object is the person or thing that is receiving the action of the verb (sent). We can ask ourselves “sent what?” Eric sent a nice bouquet of red roses. Eric is the subject. A subject is the person, place, thing, or idea that is doing something or being described. Yesterday is an adverb that indicates when the verb’s action occurred. his girlfriend, Angela is the indirect object. The indirect object is the person or thing that is receiving the direct object.

504. In the following sentence, what is the independent clause? I had to wait outside for an hour because I had forgotten my keys at the office.
     • Because I had forgotten my keys at the office
     • I had to wait outside for an hour
     • To wait outside for an hour
     • My keys at the office

     Correct answer: I had to wait outside for an hour

     I had to wait outside for an hour is the independent clause. An independent clause expresses a complete thought and can stand alone as a complete sentence. Because I had forgotten my keys at the office is a dependent clause. A dependent clause has both a subject and a verb, but does not express a complete thought and cannot stand alone as a complete sentence. To wait outside for an hour and my keys at the office are neither dependent nor independent clauses. Remember that a clause (either type) must have both a subject and a verb. Neither of these phrases has both.

505. Which use of an apostrophe in the following sentence is correct? The photos’ that belong to Mary’s mother got destroyed when the floods’ happened all over the city of Grand Rapid’s.
     • Photos'
     • Rapid's
     • Mary's
     • Floods'

     Correct answer: Mary's

     Mary’s is the only word that uses the apostrophe correctly. It indicates that the mother in the sentence belongs to Mary. Rapid’s is incorrect. It does not require an apostrophe because this word does not show ownership or possession of something else in the sentence. Floods’ is incorrect. It does not require an apostrophe because this word does not show ownership or possession of something else in the sentence. Photos’ is incorrect. It does not require an apostrophe because this word does not show ownership or possession of something else in the sentence.

506. Identify the dependent clause in the following sentence: If you want to avoid heavy traffic in the city, I advise you to leave before noon.
     • I advise you to leave before noon.
     • To leave before noon
     • If you want to avoid heavy traffic in the city
     • To avoid heavy traffic in the city

     Correct answer: If you want to avoid heavy traffic in the city

     If you want to avoid heavy traffic in the city is the dependent clause. A dependent clause does not express a complete thought and cannot stand alone as a complete sentence. I advise you to leave before noon is the independent clause. An independent clause expresses a complete thought and can stand alone as a complete sentence. To avoid heavy traffic in the city and to leave before noon are neither dependent nor independent clauses. Remember that a clause (either type) must have both a subject and a verb. Neither of these phrases has both.

507. Just before the power went out, the baker in the oven had managed to put the cherry, peach, and apple pies.
     • Had managed to put
     • The baker
     • In the oven
     • Just before

     Correct answer: In the oven

     A modifier is a phrase that functions as an adjective/descriptor for a noun or verb. In this sentence, the phrase, “in the oven,” is the modifier, but it is misplaced. We need to move it to the end of the sentence for it to correctly state that the baker put the pies in the oven. had managed to put .This is incorrect because if we moved the answer choice to the end of the sentence, it would read like this: Just before the power went out, the baker in the oven the cherry, peach, and apple pies had managed to put. This sentence is grammatically incorrect. the baker This is incorrect because if we moved the answer choice to the end of the sentence, it would read like this: Just before the power went put, in the oven had managed to put the cherry, peach, and apple pies the baker. This sentence is grammatically incorrect. Just before. This is incorrect because if we moved the answer choice to the end of the sentence, it would read like this: The power went out, the baker in the oven had managed to put the cherry, peach, and apple pies just before. This sentence is grammatically incorrect.

508. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the following sentence. I preferred Mrs. Edwards over Mrs. Smith as a Math teacher because the latter was _______.
     • Patientest
     • Most patient
     • Patienter
     • More patient

     Correct answer: More patient

     More patient is the correct form of the adjective. We use the comparative form when we are only comparing two things (Mrs. Edwards and Mrs. Smith). Comparative adjectives are used to compare differences between the two items they modify. For adjectives with two syllables that not end in -y or for adjectives with more than two syllables, use the form “more + adjective.” For example, exciting → more exciting. Patientest. This is not an actual word. To make a superlative with a single syllable, you would add -est. This is not a single syllable word, so it is incorrect. Patienter. This is not an actual word. To make a comparative adjective with a single syllable, you would add -er. This is not a single syllable word, so it is incorrect. Most patient. Most + adjective is used with the superlative form, which compares more than two things. This sentence compares only two things, so you must use the comparative form.

509. Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly. Eliza went over to Shonda’s house to study for their exams’.
     • House
     • Shonda's
     • Exams'
     • Their

     Correct answer: Exams'

     Exams’ is the only word not used correctly. The word exams does not require an apostrophe as it does not show ownership or possession of anything in the sentence. The correct way to use the word in this sentence is exams. Shonda’s is incorrect since it is used correctly in the sentence. This word requires an apostrophe because the house belongs to Shonda. So, we add the apostrophe to show possession. House is incorrect since it is used correctly in the sentence. It does not require an apostrophe because this word does not show ownership or possession of something else in the sentence. Their is incorrect since it is used correctly in the sentence. It does not require an apostrophe because it is a possessive pronoun. So, it already shows ownership or possession of something else in the sentence.

510. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the following sentence. The climate in Florida is __________ than in Arizona, where we live.
     • More humid
     • Humider
     • Humidest
     • Most humid

     Correct answer: More humid

     More humid is the correct form of the adjective. We use the comparative form when we are only comparing two things (the climate in Florida and in Arizona). Comparative adjectives are used to compare differences between the two items they modify. For adjectives with two syllables that do not end in -y or for adjectives with more than two syllables, use the form “more + adjective.” For example, exciting → more exciting. Humider This is not an actual word. To make a comparative adjective with a single syllable, you would add -er. This is not a single syllable word, so it is incorrect. Most humid. Most + adjective is used with the superlative form, which compares more than two things. This sentence compares only two things, so you must use the comparative form. Humidest. This is not an actual word. To make a superlative with a single syllable, you would add -est. This is not a single syllable word, so it is incorrect.

511. Choose the correct word for the blank in the following sentence: The therapist advised him to find a _______ stressful way to earn some extra money.
     • Little
     • More little
     • Least
     • Less

     Correct answer: Less

     less is the irregular comparative form of the adjective little. We use a comparative adjective when we are only comparing two things. In this sentence, we are comparing his current way to earn some extra money and another job. little. This is incorrect because little is the regular form of the adjective, and regular forms are not used to compare things. more little. This is incorrect because little is an irregular adjective. We do not use more or most in front of irregular superlative and comparative adjectives. least. This is incorrect because least is the irregular superlative form of the adjective little. We use a superlative adjective when comparing more than two things. This sentence only compares two things.

512. Identify the cliché used in the following sentence: I know you’re upset about losing the championship, but you have to remember that time heals all wounds and that you won’t be winning any trophies if you don’t get out of bed.
     • Get out of bed
     • Upset about losing
     • Time heals all wounds
     • Winning any trophies

     Correct answer: Time heals all wounds

     Answer: time heals all wounds. Time heals all wounds is a cliché used to say that feelings of sadness, disappointment, etc., gradually go away as time passes.

513. Select the best word or words for the blank in the following sentence. Both dogs, mine and Tommy′s, _____ been chasing the cat for hours.
     • Was
     • Have
     • Were
     • Has

     Correct answer: Have

     A subject must agree with its verb in number. This means both need to be singular or both need to be plural. The subject in this sentence (both dogs) is plural so we need a plural verb (have). Both dogs, mine and Tommy′s, have been chasing the cat for hours.

514. Which sentence contains a cliché?
     • My great-grandfather is as old as the hills, but he walks five miles every day.
     • You can tell the dog is scared because he has his tail between his legs.
     • Victoria ate the last piece of cake, even though I had told her I was saving it for Julia.
     • The students could admire several diamonds in the rough during Geology class.

     Correct answer: My great-grandfather is as old as the hills, but he walks five miles every day.

     Answer: My great-grandfather is as old as the hills, but he walks five miles every day. The phrase “as old as the hills” is a cliché used to describe a very old person. None of the other sentences contain clichés.

515. Choose the correct word for the blank in the sentence. The singer’s ______ voice could be heard from across the hall.
     • Hoars
     • Hoarse
     • Horse
     • Hearse

     Correct answer: Hoarse

     Hoarse is the only word that makes this sentence correct. Hoarse is an adjective that refers to something that is harsh and grating in sound, or that sounds rough and husky. Hearse. Hearse is a noun that refers to a vehicle used for conveying a coffin to a church or cemetery. Horse. Horse is a noun that refers to a domesticated or wild mammal (Equus caballus), raised in many breeds, having a large body and head, four usually long, thin legs, and a long, flowing tail. Hoars. Hoars is a noun that means frost.

516. Choose the correct word for the blank in the sentence. This new study estimates the change of policy could _______ well over 70% of American families.
     • Afect
     • Effect
     • Efect
     • Affect

     Correct answer: Affect

     Affect is the only word that makes this sentence correct. Affect is a verb that means to have an influence on or effect a change in. Effect. Effect is a verb that means to bring about; make happen; cause or accomplish. Afect and efect. These words are incorrect. Their correct spellings are affect and effect.

517. Worried her passengers wouldn’t arrive on time, _______________. Which of the following correctly completes the sentence?
     • The stop sign was hidden behind a tree
     • The little girl started to cry
     • The front wheels began to slide on the ice
     • The driver pressed the accelerator

     Correct answer: The driver pressed the accelerator

     This is correct. A modifier is a phrase that functions as an adjective that modifies the noun that comes directly before or after the phrase. In this example, the driver is the only subject that makes the sentence correct. This implies that the driver was worried that she and her passengers wouldn’t make it on time so she pressed the accelerator. All of the other answer choices make the modifier, “worried her passengers wouldn’t arrive on time,” a dangling modifier. This is because, in each of these examples, the modifier is placed next to a noun that it does not describe. Worried her passengers wouldn’t arrive on time, the front wheels began to slide on the ice. This is incorrect because this sentence implies that the front wheels were the ones driving the car. Worried her passengers wouldn’t arrive on time, the little girl started to cry. This is incorrect because this sentence implies that the little girl was the one driving the car. Worried her passengers wouldn’t arrive on time, the stop sign was hidden behind a tree. This is incorrect because this sentence implies that the stop sign was the one driving the car.

518. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the sentence below: Remember to check all the contracts have been signed before you mail _____.
     • Themselves
     • They
     • Their
     • Them

     Correct answer: Them

     Them is the correct pronoun to use here because it’s the only objective pronoun. Objective pronouns are used as objects in sentences. If something is used as an object in a sentence, it means that the person or thing is receiving an action, rather than performing it. Remember to check all the contracts have been signed before you mail themselves. “Themselves” is a reflexive pronoun. Reflexive pronouns are used to show that the subject and the object in a sentence are the same. In other words, that the same person or thing is both performing and receiving the action. Remember to check all the contracts have been signed before you mail they. “They” is a subjective pronoun. Subjective pronouns are used as the subjects of sentences. The subject of a sentence refers to the person or thing that is performing an action. Remember to check all the contracts have been signed before you mail their. “Their” is an adjective possessive pronoun. Possessive pronouns are used to show ownership.

519. Choose the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. The debate moderator found Roberta’s argument quality to be _______ than Juan’s.
     • More bad
     • Bad
     • Worst
     • Worse

     Correct answer: Worse

     Worse is the irregular comparative adjective of bad. We use a comparative adjective when we are only comparing two things (Roberta’s argument quality and Juan’s). More bad. This answer is incorrect. We do not use more or most in front of the irregular superlative or comparative adjectives. Bad. Bad is the regular form of the adjective. The regular form is not used to compare things, so it is incorrect. Worst. Worst is the irregular superlative form of the adjective bad. We use a superlative adjective when comparing more than two things. This sentence only compares two things. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.

520. Identify the INCOMPLETE sentence.
     • Does this look correct to you?
     • The waterfall at the top of the creek.
     • I really do not like snakes.
     • Laura wants a new car.

     Correct answer: The waterfall at the top of the creek.

     The waterfall at the top of the creek. This is the only incomplete sentence. It does not have a predicate (action). We do not know what happens at the waterfall or what it does and it is not a complete thought. Laura wants a new car. This is a complete sentence. It has a subject (Laura), a predicate (wants a new car), and it is a complete thought. Does this look correct to you? This is a complete sentence. It has a subject (this), a predicate (look correct), and it is a complete thought. I really do not like snakes. This is a complete sentence. It has a subject (I), a predicate (do not like), and it is a complete thought.

521. Select the best word or words for the blank in the following sentence. John, despite his children′s opinion, _____ going to sell the house they all grew in.
     • Is
     • Be
     • Are
     • Were

     Correct answer: Is

     A subject must agree with its verb in number. The subject in this sentence (John) is singular so we need a singular verb (is). The trap here is that the subject is separated from the verb. When checking for subject-verb agreement, look at just the subject and the verb. Ignore everything else. John, despite his children′s opinion, is going to sell the house they all grew in.

522. Select the best word or words for the blank in the following sentence. My coworkers and Sheila, who will arrive from Oslo tomorrow, _____ meeting next week.
     • Is
     • Was
     • Be
     • Are

     Correct answer: Are

     A subject must agree with its verb in number. The subject in this sentence (my coworkers and Sheila) is plural so we need a plural verb (are). The trap here is that the subject is separated from the verb. When checking for subject-verb agreement, look at just the subject and the verb. Ignore everything else. My coworkers and Sheila, who will arrive from Oslo tomorrow, are meeting next week.

523. Choose the correct word for the blank in the sentence. I became friends with Marianne long before ____ children started going to school together.
     • Hour
     • Ours
     • Are
     • Our

     Correct answer: Our

     Our is the only word that makes this sentence correct. Our is a possessive pronoun that refers to something of, belonging to, made by, or done by us. Ours. Ours is a pronoun that refers to that or those belonging to us: the possessive form of we, used without a following noun, often after of. Are. Are is the second-person singular of the verb “to be.” Hour. Hour is a noun that refers to a point or period of time.

524. Choose the correct word for the blank in the sentence. The music was so loud that she couldn’t ______ what I was saying.
     • Hire
     • Hear
     • Here
     • Hair

     Correct answer: Hear

     Hear is the only word that makes this sentence correct. The meaning of hear is to perceive by the ear. Here Here is an adverb that means in this place or in this spot. Hire. Hire is a verb that means to engage the services of a person or persons for wages or other payment. Hair. Hair is a noun that refers to any of the numerous fine filaments growing from the skin of humans and animals or to an aggregate of those filaments.

525. The sentence below uses which type of word/phrase? The juror was not selected after he made it clear that he was against capital punishment.
     • None of the above
     • Euphemism
     • Cliché
     • Text-speak

     Correct answer: Euphemism

     Answer: Euphemism The phrase “capital punishment” is a euphemism for death penalty. There are no clichés or examples of text speak used in this sentence.

526. Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence. I broke my radius and ulna (___, my forearm) and now I have to do some exercises (___, stretching, running).
     • i.e., e.g.
     • i.e., i.e.
     • e.g., i.e.
     • e.g., e.g.

     Correct answer: i.e., e.g.

     i.e., e.g. I.e. means “that is” or “in other words” and specifies, explains, or re-states. Example: I like to study film, i.e. movies. E.g. means “for example” Example: I like horror movies, e.g. Halloween, Scream, and Friday the 13th

527. Which part of the sentence below is a euphemism? My irresponsible brother-in-law is between jobs and he keeps asking my naive wife for small loans I know he’s not going to return.
     • Between jobs
     • Irresponsible brother-in-law
     • Small loans
     • I know he’s not going to return

     Correct answer: Between jobs

     Answer: between jobs. “Between jobs” is a euphemism that refers to a situation of unemployment.

528. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the sentence below: The packages hadn’t been properly secured and ______ kept moving around the van.
     • Them
     • Their
     • They
     • Themselves

     Correct answer: They

     They is the correct pronoun to use here because it’s the only subjective pronoun. Subjective pronouns are pronouns that are used as the subjects of sentences. The subject of a sentence refers to the person or thing that is performing an action. The packages hadn’t been properly secured and them kept moving around the van. “Them” is an objective pronoun. Objective pronouns are used as objects in sentences. If something is used as an object in a sentence, it means that the person or thing is receiving an action, rather than performing it. This sentence doesn’t have an object. The packages hadn’t been properly secured and their kept moving around the van. “Their” is an adjective possessive pronoun. Possessive pronouns are used to show ownership. The packages hadn’t been properly secured and themselves kept moving around the van. “Themselves” is a reflexive pronoun. Reflexive pronouns are used to show that the subject and the object in a sentence are the same. In other words, that the same person or thing is both performing and receiving the action.

529. Select the best word or phrase for the blank in the following sentence. My grandparents ________ my cousins in Georgia next weekend.
     • Will visit
     • Have visited
     • Visited
     • Visit

     Correct answer: Will visit

     will visit. The phrase “next weekend” places the action in the future; therefore, the future tense verb will visit is required. The verbs have visited and visited place the action in the past. The verb visit places the action in the present.

530. Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence. The track star could not practice any ______ . She knew that she could run _______ than anyone else.
     • Farther, further
     • Further, farther
     • Further, further
     • Farther, farther

     Correct answer: Further, farther

     further, farther. Farther refers to a measurable distance. The drive home was much farther than I remembered. Further refers to a figurative distance and means “to a great degree” or “to a greater extent”. We will cover this topic further in the next meeting.

531. Select the best word or words for the blank in the following sentence. The Emperor′s army ______ winning the battle.
     • Be
     • Is
     • Are
     • Were

     Correct answer: Is

     is. A subject must agree with its verb in number. This means both need to be singular or both need to be plural. The subject in this sentence (army) is a collective noun. A collective noun is a noun that denotes a group of individuals (e.g. crowd, group, committee, team, pack) but almost always requires a singular verb. The Emperor′s army is winning the battle.

532. Select the best word or phrase for the blank in the following sentence. I _______ well two days ago, that′s why I called in sick.
     • Don′t feel
     • Am not feeling
     • Didn′t feel
     • Won′t feel

     Correct answer: Didn′t feel

     didn′t feel. The phrase “two days ago” places the action in the past; therefore, the past tense verb didn′t feel is required. The verbs don′t feel and am not feeling place the action in the present. The verb will feel places the action in the future.

533. Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence. _______ all of my dresses I think my final choice will be _______ the blue and the red one.
     • Among, between
     • Between, among
     • Between, between
     • Among, among

     Correct answer: Among, between

     among, between. Use “among” to show a relationship involving more than two persons or things being considered as a group. Example: I was among the few students chosen for the scholarship. Use “between” to show a relationship involving only two persons or things (I sit between Samantha and Sara in homeroom), to compare one person or thing with an entire group (What is the difference between this soap and all the other soaps?), or to compare more than two things in a group if everything in the group is considered separately (We need to decide between going to the movies, going to the beach, or staying at home). Among goes in the first blank because we are showing a relationship involving more than two things (all of this person’s dresses). Between goes in the second blank because we are now only comparing two things.

534. Which word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? Books can learn you many great and wonderful things about the world we inhabit.
     • Inhabit
     • Can
     • Learn
     • Many

     Correct answer: Learn

     Answer: learn Books can teach you many great and wonderful things about the world we inhabit. “Learn” means “to receive knowledge” (I learned how to tie a tie from YouTube video). “Teach” means “to give knowledge” (I teach people how to tie a tie on my YouTube video).

535. Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence. My new earrings, _____ are golden, are in a small box _____ Sylvia gave me.
     • Which, which
     • That, which
     • Which, that
     • That, that

     Correct answer: Which, that

     which, that. That is used to introduce essential clauses. An essential clause is needed to make the sentence clear. Do not use commas to introduce an essential clause. Example: My bike that has a flat tire is in the shed. The example above infers that the speaker may have multiple bikes, so we have to specify that the bike that has the flat tire is the one that we are discussing. Which is used to introduce non-essential clauses. A non-essential clause adds information to the sentence but is not necessary to make the meaning of the sentence clear. Use commas to set off non-essential clauses. Example: My bike, which has a flat tire, is in the shed. This example infers that the speaker only has one bike so we know the bike they are speaking of, but adding that the bike has a flat tire makes the sentence more descriptive and interesting. NurseHub Hint: If the blank comes after a comma, choose “which.” If the blank does not come after a comma, choose “that.”

536. Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence. Your English is so ______ I thought you were a native speaker.
     • Well
     • Better
     • Badly
     • Good

     Correct answer: Good

     good. Good is an adjective. Use “good“ before nouns (You speak good English) or after linking verbs (Your English is good). Well is an adverb. When modifying a verb, use “well“ (You speak English well).

537. Which word in the following sentence is a verb? The woman eagerly accepted the job offer last week.
     • Last
     • Woman
     • Eagerly
     • Accepted

     Correct answer: Accepted

     Accepted is the action verb in this sentence. It tells us what the woman did – She accepted the job. Woman is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. Eagerly is an adverb. An adverb describes a verb, adjective, or another adverb. An adverb tells how, when, where, or to what degree. Last is an adjective in this sentence. An adjective describes a noun or a pronoun by telling what kind, which one, or how many. In this sentence, last describes the noun week by telling us “which week.”

538. Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence. If they keep cooking so ______, I predict the restaurant will be closed before the year ends.
     • Awful
     • Good
     • Badly
     • Bad

     Correct answer: Badly

     Answer: badly. “Bad” is an adjective. Use bad before nouns (He is a bad writer) or after linking verbs (My cat is very bad). “Badly” is an adverb. When modifying a verb, use badly (My cat behaves badly).

539. Which word in the following sentence is an adjective? Give me those cookies, please.
     • Me
     • Those
     • Please
     • Give

     Correct answer: Those

     Those is the adjective in the sentence. Those describes the cookies (noun) by telling us “which ones.” An adjective describes a noun and tells what kind, which one, or how many. Give is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It also describes a state of being. Please is an adverb. An adverb describes a verb, adjective, or another adverb. An adverb tells how, when, where, or to what degree. Me is a pronoun. A pronoun is used in place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting as a noun in a sentence.

540. Which word in the following sentence is an interjection? Oops, I accidentally dropped the glass and it broke.
     • And
     • It
     • Dropped
     • Oops

     Correct answer: Oops

     Oops is the interjection in this sentence. An interjection expresses strong feelings or emotions. It can be a word or a phrase. “Oops” expresses shock, surprise, or embarrassment. Dropped is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being. It is a pronoun. A pronoun is a word that takes the place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting as a noun in a sentence. And is a conjunction. A conjunction joins together two or more words, phrases, or clauses.

541. In the following sentence, which is the simple predicate? Their friendship became stronger and stronger each day.
     • Friendship
     • Became stronger and stronger each day
     • Became
     • Stronger

     Correct answer: Became

     Became is the simple predicate. The simple predicate is the verb that states the action or state of being of the subject of the sentence. Became is the verb that tells us about the state of being of the subject (friendship). Stronger is not a verb. It is not the predicate. Became strong and stronger each day is the complete predicate. The complete predicate is the main verb and all the words after it that tell us what happened in the sentence. To find the complete predicate, you first find the main verb or the verb phrase. Then you must include all of the words after the main verb that tells us what happened in the sentence. Friendship isthe simple subject. The simple subject is the person, place, thing, or idea that is doing something or being described. It does not include the modifiers/ adjectives related to the subject.

542. Which word in the following sentence is a noun? He showed great bravery by saving them yesterday.
     • Bravery
     • He
     • Saving
     • By

     Correct answer: Bravery

     Bravery is the noun in this sentence. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. Bravery is an idea. He is a pronoun. A pronoun is used in place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting as a noun in a sentence. Saving is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It also describes a state of being. By is a preposition. A preposition combines with a noun or a pronoun to form a phrase that tells something about another word in the sentence.

543. Which word in the following sentence is an adverb? Jennifer quietly walked into the library.
     • Quietly
     • Into
     • Library
     • Walked

     Correct answer: Quietly

     Quietly is the adverb in this sentence. An adverb describes a verb, adjective, or another adverb. It tells us how, when, where, or to what degree. Quietly tells us how she walked (verb) into the room. She walked quietly. Walked is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being. Into is a preposition. A preposition combines with a noun or a pronoun to form a phrase that tells something about another word in the sentence. Library is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea.

544. Which word in the following sentence is a preposition? London stayed awake until his mom came home that night.
     • Until
     • Mom
     • Stayed
     • His

     Correct answer: Until

     Until is the preposition in this sentence. A preposition combines with a noun or a pronoun to form a phrase that tells something about another word in a sentence. Until shows the relationship between how long London stayed up and when his mom came home. Mom is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. Stayed is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being. His is a pronoun. A pronoun is a word that takes the place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting as a noun in a sentence.

545. Which sentence uses ROSE as an adjective?
     • She wore a rose dress for the wedding reception.
     • The farmer’s market was selling a single rose for six dollars.
     • Carmen picked a rose from the back garden.
     • Father rose from his deep slumber to answer the door.

     Correct answer: She wore a rose dress for the wedding reception.

     She wore a rose dress for the wedding reception. In this sentence, the word rose refers to the color of the dress. It is a description that tells us what kind of dress, therefore it is an adjective. Father rose from his deep slumber to answer the door. In this sentence, the word rose refers to what the father did. It is an action, therefore it is a verb. Carmen picked a rose from the back garden. In this sentence, the word rose refers to a flower. It is a thing, therefore it is a noun. The farmer’s market was selling a single rose for six dollars. In this sentence, the word rose refers to a flower. It is a thing, therefore it is a noun.

546. Which word in the following sentence is a conjunction? Sharon’s grandmother baked several apple pies today, so her house smelled like sweet cinnamon.
     • Baked
     • Sweet
     • So
     • Her

     Correct answer: So

     So is the conjunction in this sentence. A conjunction joins together two or more words, phrases, or clauses. Sweet is an adjective. An adjective describes a noun or a pronoun. It tells what kind, which one, or how many. Baked is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being. Her is a pronoun. A pronoun is a word that takes the place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting as a noun in a sentence.

547. Which word in the following sentence is a pronoun? The teacher gave her back the essay last week.
     • Teacher
     • Last
     • Her
     • Gave

     Correct answer: Her

     Her is the pronoun. In this example, there is no specific antecedent, but we can conclude that the pronoun her refers to a girl or a woman (noun) who is receiving the essay from the teacher. Teacher is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. Gave is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being. Last is an adjective. An adjective describes a noun or a pronoun. An adjective tells what kind, which one, or how many. In this example, it describes the noun “week” in order to indicate when the event took place.

548. Which word in the following sentence is a conjunction? I don’t want to have to work from home any longer, nor do I want to attend a virtual happy hour.
     • Attend
     • I
     • Nor
     • Home

     Correct answer: Nor

     Nor is the conjunction in this sentence. A conjunction joins together two or more words, phrases, or clauses. Home is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. I is a pronoun. A pronoun is a word that takes the place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting as a noun in a sentence. Attend is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being.

549. Which word in the following sentence is an interjection? Huh? I do not understand what you mean by that.
     • Huh
     • You
     • Understand
     • By

     Correct answer: Huh

     Huh is the interjection in this sentence. An interjection expresses strong feelings or emotions. It can be a word or a phrase. “Huh?” expresses the feeling of being confused. Understand is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being. You is a pronoun. A pronoun is a word that takes the place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting as a noun in a sentence. By is a preposition. A preposition combines with a noun or a pronoun to form a phrase that tells something about another word in the sentence.

550. Which word in the following sentence is a noun? The dog learned how to sit, shake, and play fetch.
     • Learned
     • And
     • How
     • Dog

     Correct answer: Dog

     Dog is the noun in this sentence. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. A dog is a thing. Learned is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It also describes a state of being. And is a conjunction. A conjunction joins together two or more words, phrases, or clauses. How is an adverb. An adverb describes a verb, adjective, or another adverb. An adverb tells how, when, where, or to what degree.

551. Which word in the following sentence is a pronoun? The teacher gave me another chance to submit my late assignment.
     • Teacher
     • Late
     • Me
     • Submit

     Correct answer: Me

     Me is the pronoun in this sentence. Me takes the place of the person (noun) getting another chance. The use of me indicates that it is the speaker of the sentence who is getting another chance. Submit is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. Late is an adjective. An adjective describes a noun or a pronoun by telling what kind, which one, or how many. In this example, it is describing the word “assignment.” Teacher is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea.

552. Which sentence uses NOTE as a verb?
     • She paid four hundred dollars a month for her car note.
     • Tanya passed a note to her best friend in the class.
     • Please note in your planners, you must have your presentation finished by Friday.
     • Carolina hit a very high note in her performance.

     Correct answer: Please note in your planners, you must have your presentation finished by Friday.

     Please note in your planners, you must have your presentation finished by Friday. In this sentence, note is the action of writing in the planner. It is an action, therefore it is a verb. Tanya passed a note to her best friend in the class. In this sentence, note refers to the thing she is passing to her friend. It is a thing, therefore it is a noun. Carolina hit a very high note in her performance. In this sentence, note refers to a musical sound being made. It is a thing, therefore it is a noun. She paid four hundred dollars a month for her car note. In this sentence, note refers to the bill she has to pay for her car. It is a thing, therefore it is a noun.

553. Which word in the following sentence is an adjective? The baby has a dirty diaper right now.
     • Now
     • Has
     • Baby
     • Dirty

     Correct answer: Dirty

     Dirty is the adjective in the sentence. Dirty describes the diaper (noun) by telling us “what kind” of a diaper. An adjective describes a noun and tells what kind, which one, or how many. Baby is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. Has is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It also describes a state of being. Now is an adverb. An adverb describes a verb, adjective, or another adverb. An adverb tells how, when, where, or to what degree.

554. In the following sentence, which is the complete subject? The family next door loves to have cookouts when it is sunny.
     • Loves to have
     • Have
     • Family
     • The family next door

     Correct answer: The family next door

     The family next door is the complete subject. The complete subject is the person, place, thing, or idea that is doing something or being described, including all of its modifiers. The people doing something are the family and we include the modifier next door to have the complete subject. Loves to have is not the subject. It is part of the predicate because it includes the verb loves and provides information about the subject. Have is not the subject. It is part of the predicate because it further describes what the subject (family) loves to do. Family is the simple subject. It is the person, place, thing, or idea that is doing something or being described in the sentence. A simple subject does not include the modifiers/ adjectives related to the subject.

555. Identify the dependent clause in the following sentence: Whenever the weatherman announces rain, the sun shines as bright as in a summer afternoon.
     • Whenever the weatherman announces rain
     • As bright as in a summer afternoon
     • Whenever the weatherman
     • The sun shines as bright as in a summer afternoon

     Correct answer: Whenever the weatherman announces rain

     Whenever the weatherman announces rain is the dependent clause. A dependent clause does not express a complete thought and cannot stand alone as a complete sentence. The sun shines as bright as in a summer afternoon is the independent clause. An independent clause expresses a complete thought and can stand alone as a complete sentence. As bright as in a summer afternoon and whenever the weatherman are neither dependent nor independent clauses. Remember that a clause (either type) must have both a subject and a verb. Neither of these phrases has both.

556. Which word in the following sentence is an adverb? I don’t think you’ve studied enough for your exam.
     • Studied
     • Think
     • You
     • Enough

     Correct answer: Enough

     Two of the children were asleep. Asleep is the predicate adjective in this sentence. A predicate adjective is an adjective that follows a linking verb (were) and helps to modify or describe the subject (two of the children). The student got an A+ on the assignment. This sentence does not contain an adjective or a linking verb. They bought an enormous truck. While this sentence does contain the adjective enormous, it does not contain a linking verb, therefore the adjective is not a predicate adjective. My grandparents took a long trip to Europe. While this sentence does contain the adjective long, it does not contain a linking verb, therefore the adjective is not a predicate adjective.

557. Which sentence contains a predicate adjective?
     • My grandparents took a long trip to Europe.
     • They bought an enormous truck.
     • The student got an A+ on the assignment.
     • Two of the children were asleep.

     Correct answer: Two of the children were asleep.

     Two of the children were asleep. Asleep is the predicate adjective in this sentence. A predicate adjective is an adjective that follows a linking verb (were) and helps to modify or describe the subject (two of the children). The student got an A+ on the assignment. This sentence does not contain an adjective or a linking verb. They bought an enormous truck. While this sentence does contain the adjective enormous, it does not contain a linking verb, therefore the adjective is not a predicate adjective. My grandparents took a long trip to Europe. While this sentence does contain the adjective long, it does not contain a linking verb, therefore the adjective is not a predicate adjective.

558. Which word in the following sentence is a verb? The birds fly through the halls quickly.
     • Birds
     • Quickly
     • Fly
     • Through

     Correct answer: Fly

     Fly is the action verb in this sentence. It tells us what the birds are doing. Birds is a noun. A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. Through is a preposition. A preposition combines with a noun or a pronoun to form a phrase that tells us something about another word in the sentence. In this sentence, it tells us that the birds are flying through the halls. Quickly is an adverb. An adverb describes a verb, adjective, or another adverb. An adverb tells how, when, where, or to what degree.

559. Which word or phrase in the following sentence is the direct object? Despite closing the door, my sister’s cat got inside and scratched the sofa.
     • Sofa
     • Scratched
     • Cat
     • My sister's

     Correct answer: Sofa

     sofa is the direct object. A direct object is the person or thing that is receiving the action of the verb (scratched). We can ask ourselves “scratched what?” The cat scratched the sofa.

560. Which of the following is a compound sentence?
     • Do you want to go to the cinema before or after dinner?
     • Thea has never been to China, but she has visited many Asian countries.
     • My son should get a haircut because his hair is starting to get into his eyes.
     • He thinks he can do whatever he wants because he is a well-known celebrity.

     Correct answer: Thea has never been to China, but she has visited many Asian countries.

     Thea has never been to China, but she has visited many Asian countries. This is the only compound sentence. A compound sentence is a sentence that has at least two independent clauses (“Thea has never been to China” and “she has visited many Asian countries”) joined by a semicolon or, in this case, a comma and a conjunction (but). Do you want to go to the cinema before or after dinner? This is a simple sentence. A simple sentence is a sentence consisting of only one clause, with a single subject (you) and a predicate (want to go). My son should get a haircut because his hair is starting to get into his eyes. This is a complex sentence. A complex sentence has an independent clause (“my son should get a haircut”) and at least one dependent clause (“because his hair is starting to get into his eyes”). He thinks he can do whatever he wants because he is a well-known celebrity. This is a complex sentence. A complex sentence has an independent clause (“he thinks he can do whatever he wants”) and at least one dependent clause (“because he is a well-known celebrity”).

561. Which word or phrase in the following sentence is the direct object? The morning after the surgery, before the arrival of his visitors, the patient ate a light breakfast.
     • The morning
     • The patient
     • Breakfast
     • Ate

     Correct answer: Breakfast

     breakfast is the direct object. A direct object is the person or thing that is receiving the action of the verb (ate). We can ask ourselves “ate what?” The patient ate a light breakfast. The morning is an adverbial phrase that indicates when the verb’s action occurred. the patient is the subject. A subject is the person, place, thing, or idea that is doing something or being described. ate is the verb. A verb describes the action or state of being of a thing or person (the subject).

562. Before visiting her grandfather in the countryside, _________. Which of the following phrases will make the sentence correct?
     • Frank learned how to drive
     • Julia got her driver’s license
     • The grandmother sent a letter
     • The grandfather got ill with the flu

     Correct answer: Julia got her driver’s license

     This is correct. A modifier is a phrase that functions as an adjective that modifies the noun that comes directly before or after the phrase. In this example, Julia is the only subject that makes the sentence correct. It implies that Julia got her driver’s license and then visited her grandfather. All of the other answer choices make the modifier, “before visiting her grandfather in the countryside,” a dangling modifier. This is because, in each of these examples, the modifier is placed next to a noun that it does not describe. Before visiting her grandfather in the countryside, Frank learned how to drive. This is incorrect because in this example, the pronoun her (feminine) doesn’t agree with the noun Frank (masculine). Before visiting her grandfather in the countryside, the grandmother sent a letter. This is incorrect because it would imply that the grandmother sent a letter and then visited her own grandfather. Before visiting her grandfather in the countryside, the grandfather got ill with the flu. In this example, the pronoun her (feminine) doesn’t agree with the noun grandfather (masculine).

563. Identify the dependent clause in the following sentence: It’s wise to make a shopping list with the things you need before you go to the grocery store.
     • Shopping list with the things you need
     • It’s wise to make a shopping list with the things you need
     • Wise to make a shopping list
     • Before you go to the grocery store

     Correct answer: Before you go to the grocery store

     Before you go to the grocery store is the dependent clause. A dependent clause does not express a complete thought and cannot stand alone as a complete sentence. It’s wise to make a shopping list with the things you need is the independent clause. An independent clause expresses a complete thought and can stand alone as a complete sentence. Shopping list with the things you need and wise to make a shopping list are neither dependent nor independent clauses. Remember that a clause (either type) must have both a subject and a verb. Neither of these phrases has both a subject and a verb.

564. Which use of an apostrophe in the following sentence is correct? My supervisor’s job disappeared due to budget cuts’, so he will be posting his resume on various’ website’s.
     • Site's
     • Various'
     • Supervisor's
     • Cuts'

     Correct answer: Supervisor's

     Supervisor’s is the only word that uses the apostrophe correctly. The job belongs to the supervisor, so an apostrophe is necessary to indicate possession. Cuts’ is incorrect. It does not require an apostrophe because this word does not show ownership or possession of something else in the sentence. Various’ is incorrect. It does not require an apostrophe because this word does not show ownership or possession of something else in the sentence. Website’s is incorrect. It does not require an apostrophe because this word does not show ownership or possession of something else in the sentence.

565. Choose the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. The nearest gas station was _________ than the bus driver had expected.
     • Farther
     • Farthest
     • Most far
     • More far

     Correct answer: Farther

     Farther is the irregular comparative form of the adjective far. We use a comparative adjective when we are only comparing two things. In this sentence, we are comparing how far the gas station was and how far the bus driver had expected it to be. more far and most far. These are incorrect because far is an irregular adjective. We do not use more or most in front of irregular superlative and comparative adjectives. farthest .This is incorrect because farthest is the irregular superlative form of the adjective far. We use a superlative adjective when comparing more than two things. This sentence only compares two things.

566. Select the word or phrase in the following sentence that is not used correctly: Lakita’s dog has been missing for two week’s, so she decided to put up signs around her neighborhood with his picture.
     • Lakita's
     • Signs
     • His
     • Week's

     Correct answer: Week's

     Week’s is the only word not used correctly in the sentence. Weeks does not require an apostrophe as it does not show ownership or possession of anything in the sentence. The correct way to use the word in this sentence is weeks. Lakita’s is incorrect since it is used correctly in the sentence. This word requires an apostrophe because the dog belongs to Lakita, so we add the apostrophe to show possession. Signs is incorrect since it is used correctly in the sentence. It does not require an apostrophe because this word does not show ownership or possession of something else in the sentence. His is incorrect since it is used correctly in the sentence. It does not require an apostrophe because it is already a possessive pronoun, which shows that the picture is that of the dog.

567. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the following sentence. For the first time, my accomplishments felt _______ than my brother’s.
     • Most great
     • Greatest
     • Greater
     • More great

     Correct answer: Greater

     Greater is the correct form of the adjective. We use the comparative form when we are only comparing two things (my accomplishments and my brother’s). Comparative adjectives are used to compare the differences between the two items they modify. Greatest. Greatest is a superlative adjective. A superlative adjective is used when comparing more than two things. In this sentence, we are comparing only two things, so this adjective is used incorrectly. More great. This is not the correct form of the adjective great. For adjectives with two syllables that do not end in -y or for adjectives with more than two syllables, use the form “more + adjective.” For example, exciting → more exciting. Since great only has one syllable, this is incorrect. Most great. This is not the correct form of the adjective great. If the adjective is more than two syllables long and does not end in -y, use the form “most + adjective.” For example: mysterious → most mysterious. Since great is only one syllable, this is incorrect.

568. Which word in the following sentence is a preposition? The small flock of birds flew toward the horizon and the bird watcher took several photos.
     • And
     • Small
     • Flew
     • Toward

     Correct answer: Toward

     Toward is the preposition in this sentence. A preposition combines with a noun or a pronoun to form a phrase that tells something about another word in a sentence. Toward tells the location to where the birds flew in relation to the horizon. Small is an adjective. An adjective describes a noun or a pronoun. It tells what kind, which one, or how many. And is a conjunction. A conjunction joins together two or more words, phrases, or clauses. Flew is a verb. A verb tells what someone or something is doing. It can also express a state of being. Note: Of is also a preposition in this sentence. Some sentences have more than one preposition but there will only be one correct answer choice.

569. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the following sentence. The pile of presents was ______ than last year’s, but the children didn’t seem to care.
     • More small
     • Most small
     • Smallest
     • Smaller

     Correct answer: Smaller

     Smaller is the correct form of the adjective. We use the comparative form when we are only comparing two things (this year’s pile of presents and last year’s). Comparative adjectives are used to compare the differences between the two items they modify. More small. This is not the correct form of the adjective small. For adjectives with two syllables that do not end in -y or for adjectives with more than two syllables, use the form “more + adjective.” For example, exciting → more exciting. Since small only has one syllable, this is incorrect. Smallest. Smallest is a superlative adjective. A superlative adjective is used when comparing more than two things. In this sentence, we are comparing only two things, so this adjective is used incorrectly. Most small. This is not the correct form of the adjective small. If the adjective is more than two syllables long and does not end in -y, use the form “most + adjective.” For example: mysterious → most mysterious. Since small is only one syllable, this is incorrect.

570. Choose the correct word for the blank in the following sentence: He has rejected my offer because he thinks he can find a _______ deal.
     • Better
     • Most good
     • Best
     • More good

     Correct answer: Better

     better is the irregular comparative form of the adjective good. We use a comparative adjective when we are only comparing two things. In this sentence, we are comparing how good my offer was and how good is the deal he thinks he can find. more good and most good. These are incorrect because good is an irregular adjective. We do not use more or most in front of irregular superlative and comparative adjectives. best. This is incorrect because best is the irregular superlative form of the adjective good. We use a superlative adjective when comparing more than two things. This sentence only compares two things.

571. The concept of gravity put forth by Sir Isaac Newton is an example of:
     • Theory
     • Hypothesis
     • Controlled experimentation
     • Universal law

     Correct answer: Universal law

     If the results continue to support a scientific theory even after altering certain factors, a theory can be called a universal law. Sir Issac Newton’s concept of gravity fulfills these criteria. So, the concept of gravity is a Universal law. A hypothesis is a proposed scientific statement that can be tested and proven scientifically through experimentation and results. A theory is a hypothesis that is tested successfully and accepted widely in the scientific community. Controlled experimentation involves a set of procedures that are used to test a particular hypothesis with a control group and an experimental group.

572. A researcher has concluded his experiment and has shared the results with the scientific community. One additional step is included in the scientific method where feedback is accepted by the researcher. What is this step called?
     • Introduction
     • An iterative process
     • Peer-review
     • Concluding remarks

     Correct answer: An iterative process

     An iterative process is an interactive session for the researcher to reflect on the results of the experiment and take valuable inputs. Peer review is a process where peer scientists and experts check the originality and logical reasoning, the findings of the research. The introduction is the section of a research publication that introduces the topic of the study. Concluding remarks come last in the scientific method. Here, the conclusions are drawn based on the results of the experiment.

573. Which of the following is true for all living things?
     • All organisms can move.
     • All living organisms are multicellular in nature.
     • All living things can reproduce.
     • All living things can make their own food.

     Correct answer: All living things can reproduce.

     All living things can reproduce, either sexually or asexually, to give rise to offspring. Not all living things can move. Plants are immovable but still possess all the characteristics of living things. Not all living things are multicellular in nature. Bacteria, algae, and protozoa are examples of single-celled organisms. Except for plants and certain photosynthetic bacteria, none of the other organisms can make their own food and depend on nature.

574. Plants usually grow towards the sunlight. What kind of characteristic is this?
     • Metabolism
     • Homeostasis
     • Response
     • Development

     Correct answer: Response

     Response to the stimuli is an instant reaction of the organism or species to its external environment. In this case, plants grow towards the sunlight. This is the plant’s response to external factors (i.e., sunlight). Metabolism is a term used to describe all the chemical reactions in the cell. Homeostasis is the process of maintaining a stable internal environment of the body. The growth and development of the organism ensure the survival of the fit species in the environment and allow them to reproduce.

575. Which property of hydrogen results in the formation of a hydrogen bond with an electronegative atom?
     • Weak negative charge
     • Weak positive charge
     • Strong negative charge
     • Strong positive charge

     Correct answer: Weak positive charge

     Hydrogen has one electron and one proton. When it is bonded to a strongly electronegative atom, its one electron is pulled a bit toward the other atom. This results in the hydrogen atom having a slight positive charge. This weak positive charge attracts other electronegative atoms to form a bond. Hydrogen does not have a weak negative, strong negative, or strong positive charge.

576. How many hydrogen bonds can one water molecule form?
     • 2
     • 4
     • 3
     • 1

     Correct answer: 4

     Each water molecule has two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. Each hydrogen atom can form one hydrogen bond and the oxygen atom can form two hydrogen bonds. So, each water molecule can form four hydrogen bonds.

577. Which of the following best describes amino acids that cannot be naturally produced by the body and, therefore, are obtained through the organism’s diet?
     • Nonessential amino acids
     • Essential amino acids
     • Enzymes
     • Steroids

     Correct answer: Essential amino acids

     Answer: Essential amino acids. Essential amino acids cannot be made by the body. As a result, they must come from food. Nonessential amino acids are amino acids that can be made by the human body, so they are not essential to the human diet. Steroids are a type of lipid. Steroids have two main functions: they are important parts of cell membranes; and they act as signaling molecules. Enzymes are a type of protein that act as a catalyst to bring about a specific biochemical reaction.

578. Which of the following best describes the structure of proteins?
     • Polymers of fatty acids
     • Polymers of nucleic acids
     • Polymers of amino acids
     • Polymers of steroids

     Correct answer: Polymers of amino acids

     Answer: Polymers of amino acids. Proteins are made of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, which are arranged as chains (polymers) of amino acids. Lipids are polymers of fatty acids. They contain a long, nonpolar hydrocarbon chain with a small, polar part containing oxygen. Nucleic acids are composed of nucleotides, which are the monomers made of three components: a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. Nucleic acids are DNA and RNA. Steroids are a type of lipid. Steroids have two main functions: they are important parts of cell membranes; and they act as signaling molecules.

579. Which of these is a function of the ribosome?
     • Ribosomes help in amino acid assembly and in the formation of peptide bonds.
     • Ribosomes help in transcribing the DNA information onto the RNA strand.
     • Ribosomes are responsible for the intracellular digestion of waste products.
     • Ribosomes carry out cellular respiration to release oxygen.

     Correct answer: Ribosomes help in amino acid assembly and in the formation of peptide bonds.

     Ribosomes help in amino acid assembly and in the formation of peptide bonds is the correct answer. The main function of the ribosome is to aid in protein synthesis. Ribosomes are able to decode the mRNA and help in amino acid assembly. They also help in the formation of peptide bonds that link the amino acids together in order to form proteins. Ribosomes are RNA units and do not digest any waste products in the cell. Cellular respiration occurs in mitochondria and not in ribosomes. The transcription of DNA takes place in the nucleus, which creates RNA.

580. Which of the following body cells have large amounts of ribosomes?
     • Muscle cell
     • Egg cell
     • Skin cell
     • Adipose cell

     Correct answer: Muscle cell

     Muscle cell is the correct answer. The muscle cells / tissues have a large number of ribosomes and, therefore, a higher rate of protein synthesis. They require proteins that help in the contraction and relaxation of muscles or any muscle movement. An egg cell is a gamete that consists of a fair amount of ribosomes required only for its growth. Skin cells also have ribosomes, but not in as large quantities as the muscles. Adipose cells store fat and do not contain as large of a number of ribosomes as compared to muscle cells.

581. Which of the following products of glucose oxidation are necessary for oxidative phosphorylation?
     • Acetyl CoA
     • NADPH and ATP
     • Pyruvate
     • NADH and FADH2

     Correct answer: NADH and FADH2

     NADH: High energy electron carrier used to transport electrons generated in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle to the electron transport chain. FADH2: High energy electron carrier used to transport electrons generated in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle to the electron transport chain. In the matrix, NADH and FADH2 deposit their electrons in the chain (at the first and second complexes of the chain, respectively). Finally, the electrons are passed to oxygen, which accepts them along with protons to form water. Reduced electron carriers (NADH and FADH2) from other steps of cellular respiration transfer their electrons to molecules near the beginning of the transport chain. In the process, they turn back into NAD+ and FAD, which can be reused in other steps of cellular respiration.

582. The first step in the breakdown of glucose to extract energy for cellular metabolism is __________.
     • Glycolysis
     • Oxidative phosphorylation
     • Fermentation
     • Gluconeogenesis

     Correct answer: Glycolysis

     In organisms that perform cellular respiration, glycolysis is the first stage of this process. However, glycolysis doesn’t require oxygen, and many anaerobic organisms—organisms that do not use oxygen—also have this pathway. Glycolysis is a series of reactions that extract energy from glucose by splitting it into two three-carbon molecules called pyruvates. Glycolysis is an ancient metabolic pathway, meaning that it evolved long ago, and it is found in a great majority of organisms alive today.

583. Which of the following provides the carbon that the plant uses to produce glucose?
     • Chlorophyll
     • NADP
     • Light energy
     • Carbon dioxide

     Correct answer: Carbon dioxide

     Carbon dioxide provides the carbon that the plant uses to produce glucose. Carbon dioxide is combined with water using the energy from sunlight. The carbon enters photosynthesis in the Calvin cycle in which one carbon is fixated for every cycle. During the process of photosynthesis, cells use carbon dioxide and energy from the sun to make sugar molecules and oxygen. These sugar molecules are the basis for more complex molecules made by the photosynthetic cell, such as glucose.

584. Which of the following are the two steps/processes involved in photosynthesis?
     • Light reaction and Krebs cycle
     • Light reaction and glycolysis
     • Light reaction and Calvin cycle
     • Krebs cycle and glycolysis

     Correct answer: Light reaction and Calvin cycle

     The light-dependent reactions and the Calvin cycle are the two main stages of photosynthesis. Photosynthesis has two steps. The photoelectric light reactions produce ATP and a reducing agent such as NADPH2 (or NADH2 in some photosynthetic bacteria). Photosynthesis using chlorophyll A uses water as a proton and electron source and produces oxygen (O2) as a by-product. Some photosynthetic bacteria use bacteriochlorophyll and do not use water as an electron source. They use Fe2+, hydrogen sulfide, and other compounds as electron sources but the overall light reactions still make ATP and a reducing agent. Carbon fixation is the conversion of CO2 into glucose. This biochemical pathway is a complex process called the Calvin cycle. It uses ATP and NADPH2 (or NADH2 in some cases) to make glucose. The key enzyme is RUBISCO (Ribulose Bisphosphate Carboxylase/Oxygenase). Carbon fixation reactions are independent of light.

585. Which of the following is correct about sister chromatids?
     • Sister chromatids are the two identical copies of a chromosome.
     • A chromosome has four identical sister chromatids.
     • Sister chromatids are different from one another.
     • Sister chromatids are attached to each other by a protein called chitin.

     Correct answer: Sister chromatids are the two identical copies of a chromosome.

     As a cell prepares to divide, it must make a copy of each of its chromosomes. The two copies of a chromosome are called sister chromatids. The sister chromatids are identical to one another and are attached to each other by proteins called cohesins. The attachment between sister chromatids is tightest at the centromere, a region of DNA that is important for their separation during later stages of cell division. A chromosome is made up of two identical sister chromatids.

586. Which of the following statements best describes what happens during prophase?
     • A cell plate is formed
     • Splitting of chromatids occurs
     • The nucleolus shrinks and disappears
     • Two identical daughter nuclei are formed

     Correct answer: The nucleolus shrinks and disappears

     Prophase is the first phase of mitosis or cell division. During prophase, the nuclear membrane disappears. This is followed by the beginning of condensation of the chromatid material into visible chromosomes. In the metaphase, the chromosomes align at the center of the cell with their centromeres on the spindle fibers. Splitting of chromatids occurs in anaphase and two identical daughter cells are formed in the telophase of mitosis.

587. How many chromosomes are in daughter cells produced by meiosis?
     • 138
     • 23
     • 92
     • 46

     Correct answer: 23

     23 is the correct answer. The number of chromosomes in a cell is halved during meiosis I and maintained during meiosis II. So, when a cell containing 46 chromosomes undergoes gametogenesis, the resulting daughter cells each contain 23 chromosomes after meiosis I and 23 chromosomes after meiosis II. The process results in four daughter cells that are haploid, which means they contain half the number of chromosomes of the diploid parent cell. Meiosis has both similarities to and differences from mitosis, which is a cell division process in which a parent cell produces two identical daughter cells.

588. The phenotype represents _______ expression:
     • All of the above
     • Metabolic speed
     • Gene
     • Organism age

     Correct answer: Gene

     Answer: gene. The phenotype is the composite of an organism’s observable characteristics or traits, such as its morphology, development, biochemical or physiological properties, behavior, and products of behavior (such as a bird’s nest). A genotype is the combination of alleles. It is the genetic makeup of an individual organism. An individual’s genotype functions as a set of instructions for the growth and development of its body.

589. Using genetic crossing, we can predict how _______ combine during fertilization:
     • Carbohydrates
     • Proteins
     • Alleles
     • Nucleotides

     Correct answer: Alleles

     Answer: alleles. A genetic cross may be defined as the conscious breeding of two different individuals resulting in offspring that carries a portion of the genetic material of both the parent individuals. Using genetic crossing we obtain a summary of possible combinations of maternal alleles with paternal alleles. These tables can be used to examine the genotypic outcome probabilities of the offspring of a single trait (allele), or when crossing multiple traits from the parents.

590. Transcription is:
     • Synthesizing peptides from mRNA
     • Synthesizing tRNA from mRNA
     • Synthesizing DNA from mRNA
     • Synthesizing mRNA from DNA

     Correct answer: Synthesizing mRNA from DNA

     Answer: synthesizing mRNA from DNA. Transcription is when the DNA in a gene is copied to produce an RNA transcript called messenger RNA (mRNA). Transcription is carried out by an enzyme called RNA polymerase which uses available bases from the nucleus of the cell to form the mRNA. RNA is a chemical similar in structure and properties to DNA, but it only has a single strand of bases and instead of the base thymine, RNA has a base called uracil.

591. Translation takes place:
     • In the lysosomes
     • In the cell nucleus
     • In the cell cytoplasm
     • In the cell membrane

     Correct answer: In the cell cytoplasm

     Answer: in the cell cytoplasm. Translation is the process in which ribosomes in the cytoplasm or endoplasmic reticulum synthesize proteins after the transcription of DNA to RNA in the cell’s nucleus. Once mRNA is produced, it leaves the nucleus and protein synthesis – translation – occurs in the cytoplasm. The message carried by the mRNA is read by a carrier molecule called transfer RNA (tRNA). The mRNA is read three letters (a codon) at a time. Each codon specifies a particular amino acid. Each amino acid is attached specifically to its own tRNA molecule.When the mRNA sequence is read, each tRNA molecule delivers its amino acid to the ribosome and binds temporarily to the corresponding codon on the mRNA molecule. Once the tRNA is bound, it releases its amino acid and the adjacent amino acids all join together into a long chain called a polypeptide. This process continues until a protein is formed.

592. The molecule that is used as the energy currency of the cell is which of the following?
     • Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
     • Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
     • Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH)
     • Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)

     Correct answer: Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

     Answer: Adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Many biologists consider adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to be the energy currency of life. ATP is the high-energy molecule that stores the energy we need to do just about everything we do. The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ATP molecules for energy storage. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH) is an important molecule involved in cellular respiration, but is not the energy currency of the cell. NADH is used in the third step of cellular respiration (the electron transport chain) where it is oxidized (this means it gives away an electron) to produce water and oxygen. Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) is also involved in cellular respiration as an electron carrier during the electron transport chain. Adenosine triphosphate is an adenosine molecule bonded to three phosphate groups. To access the energy in ATP, one of the three phosphate bonds are broken, leaving two remaining phosphate groups attached to the adenosine molecule. This result is adenosine diphosphate (ADP).

593. What is the first step of cellular respiration when glucose is converted to pyruvate?
     • The Krebs cycle
     • Electron transport chain
     • Glycolysis
     • The Calvin cycle

     Correct answer: Glycolysis

     Answer: Glycolysis. Glucose is converted into pyruvate during glycolysis, which is the first step of cellular respiration. Cellular respiration is a set of metabolic reactions and processes that take place in the cell to convert biochemical energy from nutrients (glucose) into ATP (energy). Cellular respiration occurs in three steps: 1. Glycolysis: The first step is the conversion of glucose to pyruvate. This step takes place in the cytosol (the jelly-like substance in the cytoplasm of the cell) and produces two molecules of ATP, two molecules of pyruvate, and two molecules of NADH. 2. The Krebs Cycle: The Krebs cycle is also known as the citric acid cycle. In this step, the pyruvate created during glycolysis is transported to the mitochondrion where it is used in a series of reactions. Two ATP molecules, six carbon dioxide molecules, and six NADH molecules are produced. 3. Electron transport chain: The third step oxidizes NADH molecules to produce oxygen and water. The electron transport chain produces the most energy: 28 to 32 molecules of ATP. The Calvin cycle is the second stage of photosynthesis when the molecules produced by light reactions are used to produce sugar.

594. Which cell organelle functions in the detoxification and metabolism of multiple molecules?
     • Lysosomes
     • Golgi apparatus
     • Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
     • Rough endoplasmic reticulum

     Correct answer: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

     Answer: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for the detoxification and metabolism of multiple molecules. Its other functions include synthesis of carbohydrates, lipids, and steroid hormones; and the storage of calcium ions used for muscle contraction. Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell. Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes which allow them to hydrolyze (break down) proteins, fats, sugars, and nucleic acids taken into the cell as well as break down other worn out organelles within the cell. Lysosomes contain an acidic environment with a pH of around 4.5. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the organelle responsible for membrane production. The rough ER is the part of the endoplasmic reticulum that is covered in ribosomes, which gives it its rough appearance. The rough ER is also the site of protein synthesis (the ribosomes attached to the rough ER synthesize the proteins). The Golgi apparatus is the cell organelle responsible for packaging, processing, and shipping proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) throughout the cell.

595. A flagellum is a whip-like appendage found on the surface of some cells. What is their primary purpose?
     • Movement of the cell
     • Detoxification of medications and poisons
     • Transport proteins throughout the cell
     • Membrane production

     Correct answer: Movement of the cell

     Answer: Movement of the cell. A flagellum (or flagella for plural) is the slender threadlike “leg” on the surface of the cell. The primary purpose of the flagellum is locomotion, which means that it helps the cell move. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the organelle responsible for membrane production. The rough ER is the part of the endoplasmic reticulum covered in ribosomes, which gives it its rough appearance. The rough ER is also the site of protein synthesis. The Golgi apparatus is the organelle responsible for transporting proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum throughout the cell. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the organelle responsible for detoxification of medications and poisons in the cell. Its other functions include synthesis of carbohydrates, lipids, and steroid hormones; and the storage of calcium ions used for muscle contraction.

596. Cells with a high rate of protein synthesis generally have a large number of:
     • Ribosomes
     • Vacuoles
     • Lysosomes
     • Mitochondria

     Correct answer: Ribosomes

     Answer: Ribosomes. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis. Ribosomes read RNA produced in the nucleus and translate the genetic instructions provided to produce proteins. Cells with a high rate of protein synthesis typically contain a high number of ribosomes. The mitochondrion is the powerhouse of most eukaryotic cells and is the site of cellular respiration. Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell. Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes which allow them to hydrolyze (break down) proteins, fats, sugars, and nucleic acids taken into the cell as well as break down other worn out organelles within the cell. Lysosomes contain an acidic environment with a pH of around 4.5. Vacuoles provide storage for the cell. Vacuoles are membrane-enclosed structures that have a variety of functions depending on cell type. Many cells uptake food through the cell membrane (this process is called phagocytosis), creating a food vacuole. Plant cells have a central vacuole that functions as storage, waste disposal, protection, and hydrolysis.

597. Which of the following organelles are responsible for producing energy for the cell?
     • Nucleus and mitochondrion
     • Mitochondrion and chloroplast
     • Nucleus and chloroplast
     • Chloroplast and cellular membrane

     Correct answer: Mitochondrion and chloroplast

     Answer: Mitochondrion and chloroplast. There are two distinct organelles responsible for producing cell energy: the mitochondrion and the chloroplast. The mitochondrion is the powerhouse of most eukaryotic cells and is the site of cellular respiration. Chloroplasts are found in plants and are the site of photosynthesis. The nucleus contains the DNA of the cell. The cellular membrane contributes to protecting the cell outside elements, controls the passage of substances into and out of the cell, and engages in communication with other cells.

598. Which organelle is responsible for cellular respiration?
     • Golgi apparatus
     • Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
     • Mitochondria
     • Rough endoplasmic reticulum

     Correct answer: Mitochondria

     Answer: Mitochondria. Cellular respiration takes place inside the mitochondria, which is the powerhouse of the cell. In the mitochondria, ATP (energy) is produced in three stages, which collectively are referred to as cellular respiration: ⦁ Glycolysis ⦁ Citric acid cycle ⦁ Oxidative phosphorylation. The Golgi apparatus is the cell organelle responsible for packaging, processing, and shipping proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) throughout the cell. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for the detoxification and metabolism of multiple molecules. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) detoxifies medications and poisons in the cell. Its other functions include synthesis of carbohydrates, lipids, and steroid hormones; and the storage of calcium ions used for muscle contraction. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the organelle responsible for membrane production. The rough ER is the part of the endoplasmic reticulum that is covered in ribosomes, which gives it its rough appearance. The rough ER is also the site of protein synthesis (the ribosomes attached to the rough ER synthesize the proteins).

599. Which type of organism is made up of prokaryotic cells?
     • Fungi
     • Bacteria
     • Plants
     • Protists

     Correct answer: Bacteria

     Answer: bacteria. Fungi, plants, animals, and protists (single-celled organisms) are all made up of eukaryotic cells. Bacteria are prokaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cells are the simpler of the two cell types. They lack a defined nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.

600. A researcher came up with a hypothesis about the behavior of reptiles in the rainforest. Which step would be prior to stating the hypothesis?
     • A control group
     • Good observation
     • Detailed experimental design
     • Predicting results

     Correct answer: Good observation

     Good observation raises numerous questions which can give rise to a hypothetical statement. Detailed experimental design can be implemented only after a hypothesis is proposed. Predicted results are a product of a given hypothesis and provide numerous possible conclusions. A control group is used in the experimentation procedures while testing the hypothesis.

601. After the completion of a particular experiment, the findings have to be shared with the scientific community. How is this typically done?
     • By advertising the data in top research institutes
     • By sharing the results with only those involved in the experimentation
     • By sharing only the conclusion with everybody
     • By publishing in scientific journals

     Correct answer: By publishing in scientific journals

     Publications in scientific journals indicate that the study is valid and reliable since it has undergone peer-review procedures and has been accepted by the scientific community. Sharing the results with only those involved in the experimentation is not accepted since the information would only be available to a limited audience. Sharing only the conclusion of the experiment does not make it a valid study since all the other information about the experiment is not shared. Advertising the data in top research institutes is not the right method to share the experiment results, as the data will be available only to a limited audience.

602. Homo sapiens have changed drastically when compared to the early humans from around five million years ago. The changes are due to __________.
     • Metabolism
     • Reproduction
     • Evolution
     • Homeostasis

     Correct answer: Evolution

     Evolution is the changes observed in species over a long period of time. It favors the survival of species in their given environment. Reproduction is the process of giving birth to offspring. Homeostasis is the process of maintaining a stable internal environment of the body. Metabolism is all the chemical reactions that take place in the cell to maintain various cellular functions.

603. Which of the following statements is true for cells?
     • Cells are hereditary factors passed on from parents to offspring.
     • Cells are small, structural, and functional units of life.
     • Cells are the main evolutionary factors.
     • Cells are growth and developmental factors in the species.

     Correct answer: Cells are small, structural, and functional units of life.

     Cells are small, structural, and functional units of life, which carry out all the metabolic processes that favor the growth and survival of an organism. Evolution occurs because of variation in the genetic diversity amongst a species. These evolutionary changes are embedded in the DNA structure and not in the whole cell. The hereditary factors passed on from parents to offspring are called genes, which are present in the chromosomes. The factors responsible for the growth and development are present in the cell. So, without the cells, an organism will not grow.

604. What does polarity allow water to do?
     • Repel ions
     • Transport molecules
     • Synthesize substances
     • Destroy toxins

     Correct answer: Transport molecules

     Polarity makes water a good solvent in which a wide range of substances can dissolve. This property helps in transporting substances. For example, minerals get dissolved in water and are transported in the xylem of plants. Water cannot destroy toxins. It can dissolve toxins and excrete them out of the body. Water cannot synthesize substances. Polarity allows ions to dissolve in water, not repel them.

605. Which atoms CANNOT bond to hydrogen by hydrogen bonding?
     • Carbon
     • Oxygen
     • Nitrogen
     • Fluorine

     Correct answer: Carbon

     The bond between carbon and hydrogen is a covalent bond. A hydrogen bond is can be formed between hydrogen and electronegative atoms such as nitrogen, oxygen, and fluorine.

606. DNA and RNA are subunits of which type of biologic molecule?
     • Proteins
     • Lipids
     • Nucleic acids
     • Carbohydrates

     Correct answer: Nucleic acids

     Answer: Nucleic acids. Nucleic acids are components of the molecules of inheritance. They include DNA, which includes all of the genetic code that is necessary for replication; and RNA which is a messenger that transfers information from DNA to proteins.

607. Bodybuilders are concerned with putting on a significant amount of muscle mass. Which biologic molecule would you recommend a bodybuilder increase consumption of to gain muscle mass?
     • Nucleic acids
     • Carbohydrates
     • Lipids
     • Proteins

     Correct answer: Proteins

     Answer: Proteins. Proteins are the most significant contributor to cellular function. They are polymers (long chains) of 20 amino acid molecules and are an integral part of the structural components of the body, including muscle. Carbohydrates are polymers (long chains) of sugars. Their purposes include storage, structure, and energy. Lipids are fats that include fatty acids, phospholipids, and steroids. Phospholipids and steroids are both integral parts of cellular membranes. Nucleic acids are components of the molecules of inheritance. They include DNA, which includes all of the genetic code that is necessary for replication; and RNA which is a messenger that transfers information from DNA to proteins.

608. Which of the following best defines the function of the cell nucleus during reproduction?
     • The nucleus is responsible for the production of egg and sperm cells.
     • The nucleus contains hereditary units which are passed on from parents to offspring during reproduction.
     • The nucleus helps the fertilization process by attracting the sperm cell to the egg cell.
     • The nucleus plays a major role in zygote formation.

     Correct answer: The nucleus contains hereditary units which are passed on from parents to offspring during reproduction.

     The nucleus contains hereditary units which are passed on from parents to offspring during reproduction is the correct answer. The nucleus contains hereditary units in the form of DNA, which contains genes. The DNA is passed on from the parents to their offspring during reproduction. The nucleus is not responsible for the production of egg and sperm cells. These are formed from germ cells in the reproductive organs. The nucleus does not attract the sperm cell. The nucleus of a sperm cell fuses with the nucleus of an egg cell. They do not play any other role.

609. Which of the following functions are carried out by the nucleus?
     • The nucleus synthesizes ribosomes.
     • The nucleus is responsible for the storage of substances in the cell.
     • The nucleus helps in the disposal of wastes from the cell.
     • The nucleus regulates the DNA transcription and translation process.

     Correct answer: The nucleus regulates the DNA transcription and translation process.

     The nucleus regulates the DNA transcription and translation process is the correct answer. The cell’s nucleus regulates the transcription process, within itself, and also the process of translation (protein synthesis) in the cytoplasm. It synthesizes mRNA during transcription and regulates its exit into the cytoplasm where protein synthesis takes place. The nucleus does not store substances in the cell. This is done by the vacuole. The nucleus does not play a role in disposing of wastes from the cell. This is done by vacuoles and lysosomes. Ribosomes are synthesized in the cytoplasm.

610. What are the processes that are involved in fermentation?
     • Glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, and NAD+ regeneration
     • Krebs cycle, glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation
     • NAD+ regeneration and glycolysis only
     • Glycolysis only

     Correct answer: NAD+ regeneration and glycolysis only

     Fermentation and cellular respiration begin the same way, with glycolysis. In fermentation, however, the pyruvate made in glycolysis does not continue through oxidation and citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain is not functional. As the electron transport chain isn’t functional, the NADH made in glycolysis cannot drop its electrons off there to turn back into NAD+. The purpose of the extra reactions in fermentation, then, is to regenerate the electron carrier NAD+ from the NADH produced in glycolysis. The extra reactions accomplish this by letting NADH drop its electrons off with an organic molecule (such as pyruvate, the end product of glycolysis). This drop-off allows glycolysis to keep running by ensuring a steady supply of NAD+.

611. Which of the following is not a product in the net reaction for glycolysis?
     • ADP
     • NADH
     • Water
     • Pyruvate

     Correct answer: ADP

     The glycolysis reaction follows two steps. The initiation requires the input of two ATP, which are converted to ADP (adenosine diphosphate). Later in the process, however, four ADP are required to produce four ATP products. ADP is consumed in a greater quantity than it is produced, eliminating it from the net. Glucose+2ADP+2NAD+→2Pyruvate+2ATP+2NADH+2H2O Once ATP has released energy, it becomes ADP, which is a low-energy molecule. ADP is recharged back into ATP by adding phosphate. This requires energy. These molecules are recycled so that a constant stream of energy-rich ATP is available for all metabolic pathways in the cell.

612. Which of the following is the main source of electrons and hydrogen atoms during photosynthesis?
     • Water
     • Chlorophyll
     • Carbon dioxide
     • Light energy

     Correct answer: Water

     Water is one of the most essential parts of photosynthesis. Six water molecules react with six carbon molecules to form one molecule of glucose. This, in turn, releases oxygen molecules in the atmosphere where it gets converted into oxygen gas that is required by animals for respiration. Water provides the electrons and hydrogen ions needed to power the light-dependent and light-independent phases of photosynthesis. NADPH plays a crucial role in the light-independent reaction when it is used, along with ATP, to produce high-energy sugars.

613. Which of the following is NOT the function of mitosis?
     • Production of germ cells from diploid cells
     • Growth and development
     • Repair of a wound
     • Replacement of lost or damaged cells

     Correct answer: Production of germ cells from diploid cells

     Growth and development: All human beings are made up of billions of cells and all cells have the same genetic component. Genetic stability is achieved by mitosis. All humans begin as a zygote (fertilized egg) and then the zygote undergoes mitosis to form genetically identical cells as the embryo grows and develops. Repair: In the case of wound healing, the cells lost or damaged should be replaced with the same type of cells with the same genetic quality. This is achieved by mitosis. Replacement: Take blood cells as an example. A red blood cell has a lifespan of 120 days. After that, it should be replaced by new cells. This is achieved by mitosis. Similarly, skin cells are replaced continuously. Mitosis is not involved in gamete cells (germ cell formation or division): Mitosis occurs in somatic cells; this means that it takes place in all types of cells that are not involved in the production of gametes. Prior to each mitotic division, a copy of every chromosome is created. Therefore, following cell division, a complete set of chromosomes is found in the nucleus of each new cell.

614. Which of the following mechanisms involves the division of a single cell to form cells with half of the original amount of genetic material?
     • Mitosis
     • Binary fission
     • Budding
     • Meiosis

     Correct answer: Meiosis

     Meiosis is the correct answer. Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes in the parent cell by half and produces four gamete cells. This process is required to produce egg and sperm cells for sexual reproduction. Mitosis is a process where a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells (cell division). During mitosis, one cell divides once to form two identical cells. The major purpose of mitosis is the growth and replacement of worn-out cells. The major difference between mitosis and meiosis is that mitosis produces diploid cells (46 chromosomes) whereas meiosis produces haploid cells (23 chromosomes). Binary fission is asexual reproduction by a separation of the body into two new bodies. In the process of binary fission, an organism duplicates its genetic material, or deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and then divides into two parts (cytokinesis), with each new organism receiving one copy of DNA. (Remember: Bi means two and Fission means separation.) Budding is an asexual mode of producing new organisms. In this process, a new organism is developed from a small part of the parent’s body. A bud that is formed detaches to develop into a new organism.

615. Which of the following lists the phases of meiosis in the correct order?
     • Prophase II, Prophase II, Metaphase II, Metaphase I, Anaphase Ii, Anaphase I, Telophase II, Telophase I, Cytokinesis
     • Prophase I, Prophase II, Metaphase I, Metaphase II, Anaphase I, Anaphase II, Telophase I, Telophase II, Cytokinesis
     • Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II, cytokinesis. Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I, Cytokinesis
     • Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I, Cytokinesis, Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II, Cytokinesis

     Correct answer: Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I, Cytokinesis, Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II, Cytokinesis

     Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I, Cytokinesis, Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II, Cytokinesis is the correct answer. Before Meiosis I: Since cell division occurs twice during meiosis, one starting cell can produce four gametes (eggs or sperm). In each round of division, cells go through four stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Before entering meiosis I, a cell must first go through interphase. As in mitosis, the cell grows during the G_1 phase, copies all of its chromosomes during the S phase, and prepares for division during the G_2 phase. During Meiosis I: During prophase I, differences from mitosis begin to appear. As in mitosis, the chromosomes begin to condense, but in meiosis I, they also pair up. This process, in which homologous chromosomes trade parts, is called crossing over. It’s helped along by a protein structure called the synaptonemal complex that holds the homologous chromosomes together. During metaphase I, homologous pairs—not individual chromosomes—line up at the metaphase plate for separation. In anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes are pulled apart and move apart to opposite ends of the cell. The sister chromatids of each chromosome, however, remain attached to one another and do not come apart. Finally, in telophase I, the chromosomes arrive at opposite poles of the cell. In some organisms, the nuclear membrane reforms and the chromosomes decondense, although in others, this step is skipped—since cells will soon go through another round of division, meiosis II. Cytokinesis usually occurs at the same time as telophase I, forming two haploid daughter cells. Meiosis II: The cells that enter meiosis II are the ones made in meiosis I. These cells are haploid—have just one chromosome from each homologous pair—but their chromosomes still consist of two sister chromatids. In meiosis II, the sister chromatids separate, making haploid cells with non-duplicated chromosomes. During Meiosis II: During prophase II, chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down if needed. The centrosomes move apart, spindle forms between them, and spindle microtubules begin to capture chromosomes. In metaphase II, the chromosomes line up individually along with the metaphase plate. In anaphase II, the sister chromatids separate and are pulled towards opposite poles of the cell. In telophase II, nuclear membranes form around each set of chromosomes and the chromosomes decondense. Cytokinesis splits the chromosome sets into new cells, forming the final products of meiosis: four haploid cells in which each chromosome has just one chromatid. In humans, the products of meiosis are sperm or egg cells.

616. Predict the proportions of the produced genotypes for the following Punnett square:
     • 100% GG
     • 50% Gg and 50% gg
     • 100% gg
     • 100% Gg

     Correct answer: 100% Gg

     Answer: 100% Gg. By using a diagram called a Punnett square, it is possible to predict the genetic makeup (genotypes) and observable traits and characteristics (phenotypes) of the offspring of sexual reproduction. All the peas of this F1 generation have a Gg genotype. All the zygotes received one G allele (from the green parent) and one g allele (from the yellow parent). The completed version of the Punnett square for this problem would be: Gg Gg Gg Gg

617. The color purple (P) is dominant in a plant. If you have a purple plant with an unknown genotype and cross it with a white plant (pp) and get offspring which are 100% purple, what is the genotype of the unknown plant?
     • Uncertain
     • PP
     • Pp
     • Pp

     Correct answer: PP

     Answer: PP. Before we walk through this explanation together, let’s review some important terms to know: Allele: An allele is one of the possible forms of a gene. Most genes have two alleles. An allele can either be a dominant allele (represented by a capital letter in a Punnett square) or a recessive allele (represented by a lowercase letter in a Punnett Square). Homozygous: Having two of the same alleles (both dominant or both recessive) of a particular gene. If both alleles are dominant, then the dominant trait is expressed. If both alleles are recessive, then the recessive trait is expressed. Heterozygous: Having two different alleles (one dominant and one recessive) of a particular gene. In this case, the dominant trait would be expressed. Genotype: The genetic makeup of an organism (e.g. bb, Bb, or BB). Phenotype: How the genetic makeup of an organism expresses itself (e.g. brown hair, blonde hair, red hair). The best way to determine the genotypes of parents or offspring is to draw Punnett Squares to represent each possibility. In order for all the plants to have purple flowers, there can be no recessive alleles in the original (parent) purple plant. Since the purple allele is dominant, we know that the white plant must have two recessive alleles, otherwise it would be purple. If the parent purple plant’s genotype was Pp, however, the cross between the two would look like this: If the purple plant was Pp, then 50% of the offspring would have white flowers because their genotype would be pp. Since all of the offspring have purple flowers, we can conclude that the original (parent) purple plant had to be PP.

618. RNA is composed of:
     • Two long parallel polynucleotide chains
     • One single stranded polynucleotide chain
     • One double stranded polynucleotide chain
     • Two long polynucleotide chains twisted in a double helix

     Correct answer: One single stranded polynucleotide chain

     Answer: one single stranded polynucleotide chain. Ribonucleic acid, or RNA is one of the three major biological macromolecules that are essential for all organisms along with DNA and proteins. When the cell needs to produce a certain protein, it activates the protein’s gene and produces multiple copies of that piece of DNA in the form of messenger RNA or mRNA. The multiple copies of mRNA are then used to translate the genetic code into protein through the ribosomes. Thus, RNA expands the quantity of a given protein that can be made at one time from one given gene, and it provides an important control point for regulating when and how much protein gets made. Unlike DNA, RNA is composed of only one polynucleotide chain – it is single-stranded.

619. Transcription takes place:
     • In the vacuole
     • In the cytoplasm
     • In the endoplasmic reticulum
     • In the nucleus

     Correct answer: In the nucleus

     Answer: in the nucleus. Transcription is when the DNA in a gene is copied to produce an RNA transcript called messenger RNA (mRNA). This is carried out by an enzyme called RNA polymerase which uses available bases from the nucleus of the cell to form the mRNA. RNA is a chemical similar in structure and properties to DNA, but it only has a single strand of bases and instead of the base thymine, RNA has a base called uracil. The DNA template strand is the one that mRNA is complementary to during transcription, it is the template used to produce a protein! Transcription takes place in the cell nucleus.

620. What is the function of lysosomes?
     • Storage
     • Digestion
     • Protein synthesis
     • Energy production

     Correct answer: Digestion

     Answer: Digestion. Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell. Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes which allow them to hydrolyze (break down) proteins, fats, sugars, and nucleic acids taken into the cell as well as break down other worn out organelles within the cell. Lysosomes contain an acidic environment with a pH of around 4.5. Vacuoles provide storage for the cell. Vacuoles are membrane-enclosed structures that have a variety of functions depending on cell type. Many cells uptake food through the cell membrane (this process is called phagocytosis), creating a food vacuole. Plant cells have a central vacuole that functions as storage, waste disposal, protection, and hydrolysis. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis. Ribosomes read RNA produced in the nucleus and translate the genetic instructions provided to produce proteins. Cells with a high rate of protein synthesis typically contain a high number of ribosomes. Because the rough ER is covered in ribosomes, the rough ER is considered the site of protein synthesis. You can think of ribosomes as the workers that make the proteins and the rough ER as the assembly line where the ribosomes are making the proteins. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are the organelles responsible for energy production. The mitochondrion is the powerhouse of most eukaryotic cells and is the site of cellular respiration. Chloroplasts are found in plants and are the site of photosynthesis.

621. Which of the following is the fundamental unit of biology?
     • Cell
     • Nucleus
     • Atom
     • Carbohydrates

     Correct answer: Cell

     Answer: Cell. The cell is the fundamental unit of biology. The nucleus is the cell organelle that contains the cell’s genetic materials. Atoms are the smallest unit of a chemical element. They are the building block of all ordinary matter in the universe, living and non-living. Biology is the study of living things, so although the atom is very important, we would not consider it the fundamental unit of biology. Carbohydrates are molecular compounds made from just three elements: carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. They are generally long chains (which we call polymers) of sugars. Carbohydrates are important cell structure, storage, and energy.

622. If an animal cell is left in an unknown solution overnight, and the next day the cell bursts, it can be assumed that the unknown solution is:
     • Tonic
     • Hypertonic
     • Isotonic
     • Hypotonic

     Correct answer: Hypotonic

     Answer: hypotonic. When animal cells are left in a hypotonic solution overnight, they will lyse (burst). This is because in a hypotonic solution there is a greater concentration of solute inside of the cell than outside of the cell. Through osmosis, water enters the cell to equalize the difference in concentration, causing it to burst.

623. Which organelle is responsible for storing, modifying and sending out products of the endoplasmic reticulum, such as proteins?
     • Endoplasmic reticulum
     • Lysosomes
     • Ribosomes
     • Golgi apparatus

     Correct answer: Golgi apparatus

     Answer: Golgi apparatus. The Golgi apparatus is the cell organelle responsible for packaging, processing, and shipping proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) throughout the cell. Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell. Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes which allow them to hydrolyze (break down) proteins, fats, sugars, and nucleic acids taken into the cell as well as break down other worn out organelles within the cell. Lysosomes contain an acidic environment with a pH of around 4.5. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis. Ribosomes read RNA produced in the nucleus and translate the genetic instructions provided to produce proteins. Cells with a high rate of protein synthesis typically contain a high number of ribosomes. The endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle that is attached to the nuclear membrane and has two continuous parts: the rough ER and smooth ER. The rough ER is the part of the endoplasmic reticulum that is covered in ribosomes, which gives it its rough appearance (see diagram below). The rough ER is responsible for membrane production and is the site of protein synthesis. The smooth ER is responsible for the detoxification and metabolism of multiple molecules. Its other functions include synthesis of carbohydrates, lipids, and steroid hormones; and the storage of calcium ions used for muscle contraction.

624. If a substance is moving across a plasma membrane against the concentration gradient, what type of transport is required?
     • Osmosis
     • Diffusion
     • Passive transport
     • Active transport

     Correct answer: Active transport

     Answer: Active transport. Active transport is one of the ways materials move across the plasma membrane. In active transport, a protein moves the material across the membrane from a region of lower concentration to a higher concentration. Because this movement is happening against the concentration gradient (going from low to high concentration rather than high to low) the cell must use energy to make the transportation happen. Passive transport involves moving substances from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Osmosis and diffusion are examples of passive transport.

625. Of the following choices, choose the best description of a prokaryotic cell:
     • Contains chromosomes, ribosomes, a plasma membrane and is enclosed in a cell wall
     • Contains a nucleus, cytosol, and cytoplasm but lacks a plasma membrane and cell wall
     • Contains a nucleoid region without chromosomes, cytoplasm and is enclosed in a cell wall
     • Lacks a cell wall and organelles but contains chromosomes, a plasma membrane and is enclosed in a capsule

     Correct answer: Contains chromosomes, ribosomes, a plasma membrane and is enclosed in a cell wall

     Answer: Contains chromosomes, ribosomes, a plasma membrane and is enclosed in a cell wall. Prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells share some common features, such as a plasma membrane, cytosol, chromosomes, and ribosomes. The primary difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells is the location of their DNA. A prokaryotic cell’s DNA is located in the nucleoid region of the cell, which is not bound by a membrane. A eukaryotic cell’s DNA is located in a membrane-bound nucleus. Also, eukaryotic cells are larger than prokaryotic cells. Eukaryotic cells also contain membrane-bound organelles, while prokaryotic cells do not.

626. What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
     • Protein synthesis and membrane production
     • Detoxification and metabolism of multiple molecules
     • Cellular respiration
     • Digesting substances in the cell and recycling organelles

     Correct answer: Protein synthesis and membrane production

     Answer: Protein synthesis and membrane production. The rough ER is the part of the endoplasmic reticulum that is covered in ribosomes, which gives it its rough appearance. The rough ER is responsible for membrane production and is the site of protein synthesis. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for the detoxification and metabolism of multiple molecules. Its other functions include synthesis of carbohydrates, lipids, and steroid hormones; and the storage of calcium ions used for muscle contraction. Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration. Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell. Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes which allow them to hydrolyze (break down) proteins, fats, sugars, and nucleic acids taken into the cell as well as break down other worn out organelles within the cell. Lysosomes contain an acidic environment with a pH of around 4.5.

627. Which of the following organelles is responsible for water balance and storage of inorganic ions in plants?
     • Golgi apparatus
     • Lysosome
     • Vacuole
     • Chloroplast

     Correct answer: Vacuole

     Answer: Vacuole. Vacuoles provide storage for the cell. Vacuoles are membrane-enclosed structures that have a variety of functions depending on cell type. Many cells uptake food through the cell membrane (this process is called phagocytosis), creating a food vacuole. Plant cells have a central vacuole that functions as storage, waste disposal, protection, and hydrolysis. The Golgi apparatus is the cell organelle responsible for packaging, processing, and shipping proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) throughout the cell. Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell. Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes which allow them to hydrolyze (break down) proteins, fats, sugars, and nucleic acids taken into the cell as well as break down other worn out organelles within the cell. Lysosomes contain an acidic environment with a pH of around 4.5. Chloroplasts are responsible for cell energy in plant cells. They are the site of photosynthesis.

628. Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane?
     • Control the movement of substances into and out of the cell
     • Transport of protein from the endoplasmic reticulum to other parts of the cell
     • Intercellular communication
     • Protect the cell from its surroundings

     Correct answer: Transport of protein from the endoplasmic reticulum to other parts of the cell

     Answer: Transport of protein from the endoplasmic reticulum to other parts of the cell. The cell membrane is the most important component of the cell and is responsible for protection, communication, and passage of substances into and out of the cell. The Golgi apparatus is responsible for the transport of protein from the endoplasmic reticulum to other parts of the cell.

629. Proteins are made of chains of:
     • Phospholipids
     • Sugars
     • Amino acids
     • Nucleotides

     Correct answer: Amino acids

     Answer: amino acids. Proteins are made up of smaller building blocks called amino acids, joined together in chains called polymers. There are 20 different amino acids. Some proteins are just a few amino acids long, while others are made up of several thousand.

630. What is considered research within the scientific method?
     • A suggested explanation of an event, which can be tested and proven later
     • Analyzing data and its validity
     • Combining data from past experiments and using it to investigate a particular topic in consideration
     • Using tools and technology to obtain data for comparison and further investigation

     Correct answer: Combining data from past experiments and using it to investigate a particular topic in consideration

     Combining data from past experiments and using it to investigate a particular topic in consideration is called research. Using tools and technology to obtain data for comparison and further investigation is called experimentation. Analyzing data and its validity is called evaluation. A suggested explanation of an event or a phenomenon which can be tested and proven later is called a hypothesis.

631. What is the name of the ability of a living thing to maintain constant internal body conditions, despite changes in external conditions?
     • Metabolism
     • Evolution
     • Adaptation
     • Homeostasis

     Correct answer: Homeostasis

     Homeostasis is the process of maintaining a constant internal environment, despite changes in the external environment. Adaptation is the process of responding and adjusting to the external environment, favoring the living organism’s growth and survival. Evolution is a process observed for hundreds of years that causes changes in the species in favor of their survival in external environmental conditions. Metabolism is a term used to describe all the chemical reactions in the cell.

632. Which of the following microtubules can be used to move the cell?
     • Centrosomes
     • Centrioles
     • Filaments
     • Flagella

     Correct answer: Flagella

     Answer: Flagella. Flagella use a whip-like motion to propel the cell. Examples include sperm and algae. Another locomotor device of cells is the cilia, which uses a back-and-forth, oar-like motion to propel itself. Centrioles are small, cylindrical organelles near the nucleus in animal cells. They occur in pairs (called centrosomes) and are involved in the development of spindle fibers in cell division. A filament is a long chain of proteins, such as those found in hair, muscle, or in flagella. They are often bundled together for strength and rigidity.

633. How are plant cells different from animal cells?
     • Plant cells contain mitochondria; Animal cells contain chloroplasts
     • Plant cells have a nucleoid region; Animal cells have a defined nucleus
     • Plant cells have membrane-bound organelles; Animal cells do not have membrane-bound organelles
     • Plant cells have a cell wall; Animal cells do not have a cell wall

     Correct answer: Plant cells have a cell wall; Animal cells do not have a cell wall

     Answer: Plant cells have a cell wall; Animal cells do not have a cell wall. Plant cells have a cell wall, but animal cells do not. Plant cells also contain chloroplasts, while animal cells do not. Both plant and animal cells are eukaryotic, meaning they have membrane-bound organelles and a defined nucleus. Prokaryotic cells do not have membrane-bound organelles or a defined nucleus.

634. In humans, the trait for brown eyes is dominant (B) and blue eyes is recessive (b). Which alleles would be present in the gametes of a human if that human is heterozygous for eye color?
     • Each gamete would include both the dominant and recessive alleles for eye color regardless of the parent's traits.
     • Half of the gametes would contain only the dominant allele while the other half would contain only the recessive allele.
     • Each gamete would include both the dominant and recessive alleles for eye color because the parent is heterozygous, for that trait.
     • Only B would be present because it is the dominant allele.

     Correct answer: Half of the gametes would contain only the dominant allele while the other half would contain only the recessive allele.

     Answer: Half of the gametes would contain only the dominant allele while the other half would contain only the recessive allele. Most plant and animal cells are diploid. The term diploid means “double” or “two”. When we refer to a cell as being diploid, we mean that the cell contains pairs of chromosomes. For example, human cells have 46 chromosomes organized in 23 pairs. A gamete is a sex cell (sperm in males, eggs in females). Gametes are formed through meiosis – a process in which the number of chromosomes is halved. So, for example, a human gamete would contain half of the 46 chromosomes, which is 23 chromosomes. We call gametes haploid, which means “single”. This is because the chromosomes are no longer in pairs. During sexual reproduction, these haploid gametes (a sperm and an egg) unite with each other to create a diploid, fertilized egg cell, called a zygote. In this question, we are asked which alleles would be present in a gamete. The different forms of a gene are called alleles. In this question, the two alleles discussed are the dominant allele for eye color in humans – brown, which we repesent with a capital letter (B) – and the recessive allele for eye color in humans – blue, which we represent with a lowercase letter (b). Because the parent is heterozygous (they have both the dominant and recessive alleles for eye color), and a gamete is a haploid cell, half of the parent’s gametes will contain the dominant allele while the other half will contain the recessive allele.

635. Which of the following is not true about water?
     • Hydrogen bonding results in water having strong cohesive and adhesive properties.
     • When water freezes, it forms a lattice crystal, causing ice to float.
     • The polarity of water’s bonds allows for covalent bonding between molecules.
     • Large bodies of water stabilize climates due to water’s high specific heat.

     Correct answer: The polarity of water’s bonds allows for covalent bonding between molecules.

     Answer: The polarity of water’s bonds allows for covalent bonding between molecules. The atoms (2 hydrogens and 1 oxygen) that form water molecules are bonded together covalently. However, the polarity of water’s bonds allows for hydrogen bonding between molecules.

636. Which of the following statements about water is incorrect?
     • Water’s high specific heat allows it to resist temperature shifts.
     • The polarity of water allows it to act as a versatile solvent.
     • The polarity of water allows for covalent bonding between molecules.
     • Water’s cohesive and adhesive properties allow water molecules to bond to other molecules and stick to substances.

     Correct answer: The polarity of water allows for covalent bonding between molecules.

     Answer: The polarity of water allows for covalent bonding between molecules. Water has a very simple molecular structure. It is made up of two Hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one atom of Oxygen. This setup leads to 4 pairs of electrons around the oxygen atom. 2 pairs of electrons are involved in the covalent bond that attaches the hydrogen atoms to the oxygen atom. This leaves two unshared pairs of electrons on the opposite side of the oxygen atom. This uneven distribution in electron density is known as polarity. The polarity of water is important because it allows water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules (including other molecules of water). Hydrogen bonding results in many benefits, including: High specific heat: it requires a lot of heat to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius, Strong cohesive properties: water can stick to itself, Strong adhesive properties: water can stick to other molecules, Versatile solvent properties: water dissolves many polar and charged molecules. One thing to remember for the HESI A2: covalent bonds attach the hydrogen atoms to the oxygen atom in a molecule of water, but hydrogen bonds are what connect water molecules to other molecules (of water and other types of molecules).

637. Which of the following statements about endoplasmic reticulum is true?
     • The endoplasmic reticulum is attached to the cell membrane.
     • The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for storing calcium ions.
     • The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is covered in ribosomes.
     • The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for the assembly of proteins.

     Correct answer: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for storing calcium ions.

     Answer: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for storing calcium ions. The part of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) that is covered in ribosomes is the rough ER. This part of the ER creates proteins for use outside of the cell. The part of the endoplasmic reticulum not covered in ribosomes is the smooth ER. The smooth ER is responsible for the detoxification and metabolism of multiple molecules and the storage of calcium ions. The endoplasmic reticulum is not attached to the cell membrane. It is attached to the nuclear membrane.

638. Although animal cells lack cell walls, they do have an elaborate system of glycoproteins that provide support to the outside of the cell called the:
     • Cytosol
     • Extracellular matrix
     • Endomembrane system
     • Cytoskeleton

     Correct answer: Extracellular matrix

     Answer: extracellular matrix. Animal cells are supported by a system of glycoproteins embedded in the plasma membrane called the extracellular matrix. The endomembrane system refers to the different membranes that are suspended in the cytoplasm within a eukaryotic cell. This includes the organelles and other membranes inside of the cell. The cytoskeleton refers to all of the tubules and filaments that give the cell its shape, offers support, and facilitates the movement of the cell. The cytoskeleton is located inside of the cell. Cytosol is the liquid that makes up the cytoplasm inside the cell.

639. What are the two categories of fatty acids?
     • Trans fat and unsaturated fat
     • Saturated and unsaturated fat
     • Steroids and enzymes
     • Phospholipids and polyunsaturated fats

     Correct answer: Saturated and unsaturated fat

     Answer: Saturated and unsaturated fat. There are two categories of fatty acids: saturated and unsaturated fats. Saturated fats contain no double bonds in their hydrocarbon tail. As a result, saturated fats are solid at room temperature and are considered detrimental to your health. Unsaturated fats contain one or more double bonds in their hydrocarbon tail. As a result, unsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature. Phospholipids are a type of lipid. They consist of two fatty acids bonded to a phosphate group. The phosphate group is polar and soluble in water whereas the hydrocarbon tail of the fatty acids is nonpolar and non-soluble in water. This quality is important in the function of cellular membranes, including the plasma membrane, as the molecules organize themselves in a way that creates a barrier to protect the cell. Steroids are a type of lipid but are not a fatty acid. They are a component of membranes and an essential part of many hormones and drugs. Enzymes are a type of protein. They catalyze (cause or accelerate) different reactions and processes. Almost all cellular function is catalyzed by some type of enzyme.

640. The two types of cells are:
     • Animal and plant
     • Eukaryotic and prokaryotic
     • Animal and eukaryotic
     • Eukaryotic and plant

     Correct answer: Eukaryotic and prokaryotic

     Answer: eukaryotic and prokaryotic. There are two types of cells: eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cells do not have a defined nucleus and do not contain membrane-bound organelles. Eukaryotic cells are more complex than prokaryotic cells. They contain a defined, membrane-enclosed nucleus as well as membrane-bound organelles. Animal cells and plant cells are eukaryotic cells.

641. Grocery stores sometimes spray water on their produce to keep the vegetables looking fresh. The cells in these vegetables can be described as:
     • Lysed
     • Turgid
     • Flaccid
     • Plasmolyzed

     Correct answer: Turgid

     Answer: turgid. Plant cells with more water coming into the cell than leaving through the process of osmosis are referred to as turgid. Water pushes on the inside of the plant cell walls, similar to how air pushes on the inside of a balloon. This makes the cell look full, or plump, giving produce a healthy appearance. When animal cells burst due to osmosis, they are described as lysed. Plant cells in an isotonic solution (where two solutions have the same osmotic pressure across a semipermeable membrane) are flaccid. Plants in a hypertonic solution (higher concentration of solutes outside the cell) are plasmolyzed, which means the plant cell membrane has shriveled away from the cell wall.

642. What characteristic of water allows for intermolecular hydrogen bonding?
     • Water’s solvent properties
     • Water’s adhesive properties
     • Water’s cohesive properties
     • Water’s polar nature

     Correct answer: Water’s polar nature

     Answer: Water’s polar nature. Water has a very simple molecular structure. It is made up of two Hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one atom of Oxygen. This setup leads to 4 pairs of electrons around the oxygen atom. 2 pairs of electrons are involved in the covalent bond that attaches the hydrogen atoms to the oxygen atom. This leaves two unshared pairs of electrons on the opposite side of the oxygen atom. This uneven distribution in electron density is known as polarity. The polarity of water is important because it allows water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules (including other molecules of water). Hydrogen bonding results in many benefits, including: High specific heat: it requires a lot of heat to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius, Strong cohesive properties: water can stick to itself, Strong adhesive properties: water can stick to other molecules, Versatile solvent properties: water dissolves many polar and charged molecules. One thing to remember for the HESI A2: covalent bonds attach the hydrogen atoms to the oxygen atom in a molecule of water, but hydrogen bonds are what connect water molecules to other molecules (of water and other types of molecules).

643. Which of the following could cause errors in a scientific experiment?
     • Repeated experimental trials
     • Using double-blind studies
     • Small sample size and limited experimental trials
     • Including all data and using placebos

     Correct answer: Small sample size and limited experimental trials

     Small sample size and limited experimental trials can hinder the data by possibly missing some factors. That is, a factor can be missed if the sample size is small and if there are no proper trials. Repeated experimental trials rule out any erroneous factors arising due to a limited sample space and trials. Including all data and using placebos is important for recording accurate findings and deriving a conclusion at the end of a study. Using double-blind studies ensures that the true effects of a drug/medicine are found without any researcher-subject bias.

644. State the correct order of a scientific process.
     • Theory, observation, evaluation, conclusion
     • Evaluation, theory, experiment, observation, conclusion
     • Hypothesis, experiment, observation, conclusion
     • Observation, hypothesis, experiment, evaluation, conclusion

     Correct answer: Observation, hypothesis, experiment, evaluation, conclusion

     Observation is the first step of the scientific method. It entails noticing and describing minute details about a certain event or phenomenon. Hypothesis is the second step. It is a proposed scientific statement that can be tested and proven scientifically through experimentation and results. Experimentation is the third step. It involves testing a hypothesis through various experiments. Evaluation is the fourth step. It involves a critical analysis of the recorded results and findings of the experiment. Conclusion is the last step of the scientific process. It explains the findings of the experiments and concludes whether or not the results support the hypothesis.

645. The entire biochemical reactions taking place in a cell are referred to as __________.
     • Adaptation
     • Homeostasis
     • Response to stimuli
     • Metabolism

     Correct answer: Metabolism

     Metabolism is a term used to describe all the chemical reactions that take place in the cell to keep it alive. Response to the external environmental stimuli is not responsible for the entire biochemical reactions in the cell. Homeostasis is the process of maintaining a constant internal environment. Adaptation is the process of responding and adjusting to the external environment.

646. Intense workouts can cause sweating in humans. Which of the following characteristics of life does it depict?
     • Maintaining a stable internal environment of the body
     • Cells produce energy for muscle movement
     • Responding to the external stimuli
     • Growth and development

     Correct answer: Maintaining a stable internal environment of the body

     Maintaining a stable internal body condition is called homeostasis and causes sweating, which helps to cool down your body. Cells produce energy for muscle movement during workouts but are not the reason for sweating. Growth and development of the body do not cause sweating. Intense workouts are not changes in the external environment.

647. Which of these is NOT true for the polarity of a water molecule?
     • A partial negative charge is on the hydrogen atom.
     • There is no net charge on a water molecule.
     • The polarity is due to the formation of polar covalent bonds.
     • It gives the power of attraction to the water molecule.

     Correct answer: A partial negative charge is on the hydrogen atom.

     The polar covalent bond between oxygen and hydrogen results in a partial positive charge on the hydrogen atom and a partial negative charge on the oxygen atom. The polarity of the water molecule is due to the polar covalent bonds. The net charge on a water molecule is zero. The power of attraction of water molecules is due to this polar nature.

648. Polarity allows water to be a good __________.
     • Molecule
     • Solution
     • Solvent
     • Solute

     Correct answer: Solvent

     Polarity allows water to be a good solvent and other polar substances can be dissolved in water easily. Water is not a solute or a solution. Polarity does not make water a good molecule – there is no such thing as a “good” molecule.

649. Polymers of which of the following make up proteins?
     • Steroids
     • Nucleic acids
     • Enzymes
     • Amino acids

     Correct answer: Amino acids

     Answer: Amino acids. A polymer is a large molecule made up of many repeated subunits that look like a long chain. Proteins are polymers of 20 amino acid molecules. Steroids are a type of lipid. They are a component of membranes and an essential part of many hormones and drugs. Enzymes are a type of protein. They catalyze (cause or accelerate) different reactions and processes. Almost all cellular function is catalyzed by some type of enzyme. Nucleic acids are components of the molecules of inheritance, DNA, and RNA.

650. How are phospholipids important in the function of cells?
     • They are important components of the cytoplasm.
     • They are important components of the cell wall.
     • They are important components of the cytoplasmic skeleton.
     • They are important components of the plasma membrane.

     Correct answer: They are important components of the plasma membrane.

     Answer: They are important components of the plasma membrane. Phospholipids are a type of lipid. They consist of two fatty acids bonded to a phosphate group. The phosphate group is polar and soluble in water whereas the hydrocarbon tail of the fatty acids is non-polar and non-soluble in water. This quality is important in the function of cellular membranes, including the plasma membrane, as the molecules organize themselves in a way that creates a barrier to protect the cell.

651. The sum of all chemical reactions that occur in an organism is:
     • Synthesis
     • Metabolism
     • Cytokinesis
     • Cellular respiration

     Correct answer: Metabolism

     Answer: Metabolism. Metabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions in an organism. Cellular respiration is a catabolic pathway (a set of metabolic reactions and processes) that takes place in cells that result in energy production for the cell. Synthesis is the creation of something. It is the process of combining two or more components to create something new. For example, ribosomes synthesize protein for cells by combining amino acids. Note that the rough endoplasmic reticulum is covered in ribosomes and is also considered the site of protein synthesis in the cell. Cytokinesis is the second process associated with cell division. This phase, which is separate from the phases of mitosis, the cell pinches in two, forming two separate but identical cells.

652. The cytoskeleton of a eukaryotic cell has the following characteristic features except:
     • It has microfilaments made up of proteins.
     • It has fibres that stabilize the cell.
     • It contains microtubules that stimulate cell movement.
     • It is present inside the nucleus.

     Correct answer: It is present inside the nucleus.

     It is present inside the nucleus is the correct answer. The cytoskeleton is present inside the cytoplasm, which holds microfilaments, microtubules, and fibers that aid in cellular movement. The cytoskeleton is made up of microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments. Microfilaments are made up of protein. Microtubules stimulate cell movement. Intermediate filaments are cellular structural elements that stabilize the cells.

653. Which one of the following statements justifies the comparison of plant and animal cells?
     • Plant cells have only one large central vacuole, and animal cells have one or more small vacuoles.
     • Both plant and animal cells have a cell wall.
     • Chloroplast is present in both animal and plant cells.
     • Animal cells have a fixed shape while plant cells have an irregular shape.

     Correct answer: Plant cells have only one large central vacuole, and animal cells have one or more small vacuoles.

     Plant cells have only one large central vacuole, and animal cells have one or more small vacuoles is the correct answer. Plant cells have one large central vacuole, making up to 90% of cell volume, that stores water. Animal cells have one or more smaller vacuoles that store nutrients, water, and waste material. Animal cells do not have a cell wall. Both animal and plant cells have a fixed shape. Chloroplasts are not present in animal cells.

654. Some organisms are able to convert energy without the presence of oxygen continually. They undergo glycolysis to generate energy. What type of process is this?
     • Gluconeogenesis
     • Fermentation
     • Lipolysis
     • Photosynthesis

     Correct answer: Fermentation

     Fermentation is the breaking down of sugar molecules into simpler compounds to produce substances that can be used in making chemical energy. Chemical energy, typically in the form of ATP, is important as it drives various biological processes. Fermentation does not use oxygen; thus, it is “anaerobic.” It releases lactic acid as a by-product. NurseHub Note: When you participate in strenuous exercise, your body will create lactic acid because it is low in the oxygen that’s required to convert glucose into energy. Lactic acid buildup can cause muscle pain, cramps, or fatigue. Photosynthesis is an anabolic process in which plants or autotrophic organisms consume carbon dioxide, water, and light energy to produce glucose and oxygen. Gluconeogenesis refers to the synthesis of new glucose from noncarbohydrate precursors, providing glucose when dietary intake is insufficient or absent. It also is essential in the regulation of acid-base balance, amino acid metabolism, and synthesis of carbohydrate-derived structural components. You can remember it as “Gluco” refers to glucose, “Neo” means new, and “Genesis” means formation. Lipolysis is the process of breaking down lipids (fats) into fatty acids and glycerol. It can be remembered as “Lipo” means lipids and “Lysis” means breakdown.

655. What is the primary difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
     • Aerobic respiration occurs in the cytoplasm while anaerobic respiration occurs in the mitochondria.
     • Aerobic respiration produces a smaller amount of ATP than anaerobic respiration.
     • Aerobic respiration requires oxygen and anaerobic respiration does not.
     • Aerobic respiration produces lactic acid and anaerobic respiration does not.

     Correct answer: Aerobic respiration requires oxygen and anaerobic respiration does not.

     Aerobic respiration occurs in the presence of oxygen. Anaerobic respiration does not require oxygen to proceed. Aerobic respiration occurs in the cytoplasm (glycolysis) and mitochondria, whereas anaerobic respiration occurs in the cytoplasm. Aerobic respiration does not produce lactic acid, but anaerobic does. Large amounts of ATP (36) are produced by aerobic respiration, but only 2 ATPs are released during anaerobic respiration.

656. Why do plants need to undergo photosynthesis?
     • To reproduce more cells
     • To produce glucose
     • To break down glucose into ATP
     • To remove waste products

     Correct answer: To produce glucose

     Plants are autotrophs, which means they produce their own food. They use the process of photosynthesis to transform water, sunlight, and carbon dioxide into oxygen, and simple sugars that the plant uses as fuel. These primary producers form the base of an ecosystem and fuel the next trophic levels. Like all other organisms, plants require energy to grow and thrive in their environment. The process of cellular respiration allows plants to break down glucose into ATP. Although plants use photosynthesis to produce glucose, they use cellular respiration to extract energy from that glucose.

657. The process of photosynthesis is the reverse of which of the following?
     • Cellular respiration
     • Meiosis
     • Mitosis
     • Reflex action

     Correct answer: Cellular respiration

     Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and water, produces glucose and oxygen, and it takes place in chloroplasts. Cellular respiration uses glucose and oxygen, produces carbon dioxide, water, and ATP, and it takes place in mitochondria. They both are opposite processes. Mitosis and meiosis are cellular division processes. Reflex action does not take place in plants. It is the simplest form of response in the nervous system. A reflex action is an automatic response to a stimulus that is not under the voluntary control of the brain. Plants respond to stimuli through the action of hormones.

658. Which of the following correctly identifies the steps of cellular respiration?
     • Glycolysis—Pyruvate oxidation—Citric acid cycle—Oxidative phosphorylation
     • Glycolysis—Citric acid cycle—Pyruvate oxidation—Oxidative phosphorylation
     • Glycolysis—Oxidative phosphorylation—Citric acid cycle—Pyruvate oxidation
     • Glycolysis—Citric acid cycle—Oxidative phosphorylation—Pyruvate oxidation

     Correct answer: Glycolysis—Pyruvate oxidation—Citric acid cycle—Oxidative phosphorylation

     To see how a glucose molecule is converted into carbon dioxide and how its energy is harvested as ATP and NADH/FADH2 in one of your body’s cells, let’s walk step by step through the four stages of cellular respiration. 1. Glycolysis: In glycolysis, glucose—a six-carbon sugar—undergoes a series of chemical transformations. In the end, it gets converted into two molecules of pyruvate, a three-carbon organic molecule. In these reactions, ATP is made, and NAD + is converted to NADH. 2. Pyruvate oxidation: Each pyruvate from glycolysis goes into the mitochondrial matrix—the innermost compartment of mitochondria. There, it’s converted into a two-carbon molecule bound to Coenzyme A, known as acetyl CoA. Carbon dioxide is released, and NADH is generated. 3. Citric acid cycle: The acetyl CoA made in the last step combines with a four-carbon molecule and goes through a cycle of reactions, ultimately regenerating the four-carbon starting molecule. ATP, NADH, FADH2 are produced, and carbon dioxide is released. 4. Oxidative phosphorylation: The NADH and FADH2 made in other steps deposit their electrons in the electron transport chain, turning them back into their “empty” forms (NAD+ and FAD). As electrons move down the chain, energy is released and used to pump protons out of the matrix, forming a gradient. Protons flow back into the matrix through an enzyme called ATP synthase, making ATP. At the end of the electron transport chain, oxygen accepts electrons and takes up protons to form water.

659. During sexual reproduction, the zygote is formed when a male gamete fuses with a female gamete. How many chromosomes does the zygote cell contain?
     • 4n
     • N
     • 2n
     • 3n

     Correct answer: 2n

     2n is the correct answer. Sexual reproduction is a mode of reproduction involving the fusion of haploid female gamete (egg cell) and haploid male gamete (sperm cell). The fusion of these gametes occurs at fertilization, resulting in the formation of a diploid zygote (2n). You can simply remember it by mathematical calculation, i.e. when haploid gametes fuse together, they give rise to a diploid zygote. n+n=2n, (male gamete + female gamete = zygote)

660. Which of the following lists the phases of mitosis in the correct order?
     • Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
     • Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase
     • Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
     • Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase

     Correct answer: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

     Mitosis is a type of cell division in which one cell (the mother) divides to produce two new cells (the daughters) that are genetically identical to itself. The mitotic cell cycle is divided into certain phases. Before Mitosis: Interphase: Interphase is the longest part of the cell cycle. This is when the cell grows and copies its DNA before moving into mitosis. During Mitosis: Prophase: The cell starts to break down some structures and build others up, setting the stage for the division of the chromosomes. Chromosomes start to condense, spindle formation begins, nuclear membrane disappears, microtubules bind to chromosomes at the kinetochore—a patch of protein found on the centromere of each sister chromatid—and aster is formed. Metaphase: Meta means middle or center. In metaphase, all the chromosomes are lined up at the middle of the cell called the metaphase plate. Anaphase: Ana means up. In anaphase, sister chromatids separate from each other and are pulled towards opposite ends of the cell. Telophase: In telophase, the cell is nearly done dividing, and it starts to re-establish its normal structures as cytokinesis (a division of the cell contents) takes place. Two nuclei are formed, nuclear membrane reforms, and chromosomes decondense. Tip to remember: You can remember the order of the phases with the famous mnemonic: [Please] Pee on the MAT.

661. In his genetic experiments, Mendel used:
     • Pea plants
     • Basil plants
     • Cherry trees
     • Apple trees

     Correct answer: Pea plants

     Answer: pea plants. Gregor Mendel conducted hybridization experiments on around 29,000 pea plants. Peas were an ideal choice for Mendel to use because they had easily observable traits.

662. Which of the following correctly differentiates diploid cells from haploid cells?
     • There are (2n) number of chromosomes in diploid cells and (n) number of chromosomes in haploid cells.
     • The sex cells are diploid cells whereas somatic cells are haploid cells.
     • Diploid cells contain only one set of chromosomes and haploid cells contain two sets of chromosomes.
     • Haploid cells are formed in mitosis whereas diploid cells are formed in meiosis.

     Correct answer: There are (2n) number of chromosomes in diploid cells and (n) number of chromosomes in haploid cells.

     The term “ploidy” means the number or set of chromosomes a cell’s nucleus has. The two most prominent forms of cells are diploid (having 2 sets of chromosomes) and haploid (having one set of chromosomes). Diploid cells, as the name suggests, contain 2 sets of chromosomes (2n) whereas haploid cells contain only one set of chromosomes (n). In the higher organisms, such as humans, haploid cells are only used for sex cells and all other cells are diploid. Examples of diploid cells include blood cells, skin cells, and muscle cells. These cells are known as somatic cells. In addition, haploid cells are formed in meiosis but diploid cells undergo a mitotic cell cycle.

663. Alleles of the same type are called:
     • Homozygous
     • Dominant
     • Heterozygous
     • Mutations

     Correct answer: Homozygous

     Answer: homozygous. For every trait expressed in a sexually reproducing organism, there are at least two alternative versions of a gene, called alleles. An allele is a variant form of a given gene. Sometimes, different alleles can result in different observable phenotypic traits, such as different pigmentation. If the pair of chromosomes have the same alleles (such as GG or gg), then the organism is said to be homozygous for that characteristic. If the alleles are different (such as Gg), then the organism is said to be heterozygous.

664. Which of the following are produced as a result of photosynthesis?
     • Oxygen and water
     • Water and carbon dioxide
     • Carbon dioxide and glucose
     • Glucose and oxygen

     Correct answer: Glucose and oxygen

     Photosynthesis is represented by; $\ce{6CO2 + 6H2O -> C6H12O6 + 6O2}$ During photosynthesis, energy from the sun is used to produce glucose and oxygen from carbon dioxide and water. Water and carbon dioxide are the reactants in photosynthesis, not the products.

665. Which of the following best describes the molecular structure of water?
     • Two oxygen atoms ionically bonded to one hydrogen atom
     • Two oxygen atoms covalently bonded to one hydrogen atom
     • Two hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one oxygen atom
     • Two hydrogen atoms ionically bonded to one oxygen atom

     Correct answer: Two hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one oxygen atom

     Answer: Two hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one oxygen atom. The water molecule consists of two hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one oxygen atom. A covalent bond is when two or more atoms share electrons.

666. Which organelle is correctly paired with its function?
     • Endoplasmic reticulum – locomotion
     • Nucleus – stores DNA
     • Mitochondria – protein synthesis
     • Peroxisome – cellular respiration

     Correct answer: Nucleus – stores DNA

     Answer: Nucleus – stores DNA. The nucleus is the organelle that stores DNA. Peroxisomes are organelles in the cytoplasm that contain enzymes that convert water to hydrogen peroxide. The mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration and are responsible for producing ATP for energy. The endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle that is attached to the nuclear membrane and has two continuous parts: the rough ER and smooth ER. The rough ER is the part of the endoplasmic reticulum that is covered in ribosomes, which gives it its rough appearance. The rough ER is responsible for membrane production and is the site of protein synthesis. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for the detoxification and metabolism of multiple molecules. Its other functions include synthesis of carbohydrates, lipids, and steroid hormones; and the storage of calcium ions used for muscle contraction.

667. Messenger RNA transfers information:
     • From DNA to proteins
     • From RNA to DNA
     • From DNA to ribosomes
     • From DNA to glucose

     Correct answer: From DNA to ribosomes

     Answer: from DNA to ribosomes. Messenger RNA is a large family of RNA molecules that convey genetic information from DNA to ribosomes, where they specify the amino acid sequence of the protein products of gene expression. Transcription is when the DNA in a gene is copied to produce an RNA transcript called messenger RNA (mRNA). This is carried out by an enzyme called RNA polymerase which uses available bases from the nucleus of the cell to form the mRNA. Translation is the process in which ribosomes in the cytoplasm or ER synthesize proteins after the process of transcription of DNA to RNA in the cell’s nucleus. Once mRNA is produced, it leaves the nucleus and protein synthesis – translation – occurs in the cytoplasm. The message carried by the mRNA is read by a carrier molecule called transfer RNA (tRNA). The mRNA is read three letters (a codon) at a time. Each codon specifies a particular amino acid. Each amino acid is attached specifically to its own tRNA molecule. When the mRNA sequence is read, each tRNA molecule delivers its amino acid to the ribosome and binds temporarily to the corresponding codon on the mRNA molecule. Once the tRNA is bound, it releases its amino acid and the adjacent amino acids all join together into a long chain called a polypeptide. This process continues until a protein is formed.

668. A repeatable procedure of gathering data to support or refute a hypothesis is known as
     • Drawing a conclusion
     • Developing a theory
     • Conducting an experiment
     • The scientific method

     Correct answer: Conducting an experiment

     Answer: Conducting an experiment. For any experiment to be adequately conducted, the Scientific Method must be followed. The order of the Scientific Method is: 1. Observation: The first step is to make an observation. New observations are made, or old data are studied. 2. Hypothesis: The second step is to form a hypothesis. A hypothesis is a statement or explanation of certain events or happenings based on limited evidence. 3. Experiment: The third step is to conduct an experiment. An experiment is a repeatable procedure of gathering data to confirm or refute the hypothesis developed in the previous step. For the experiment to be valid, it must be repeatable. 4. Conclusion: The final step is to draw a conclusion. The conclusion is where the results of the experiment and its significance are explained.

669. Which of the following needs to be present in order for a substance to be considered a nucleotide?
     • 5 carbon sugar, nitrogenous base, triphosphate
     • Deoxyribose, adenosine, triphosphate
     • Ribose, amino acid, phosphate
     • 5 carbon sugar, nitrogenous base, phosphate group

     Correct answer: 5 carbon sugar, nitrogenous base, phosphate group

     Answer: 5 carbon sugar, nitrogenous base, phosphate group. Nucleic acids are small biomolecules essential to all known forms of life. They are composed of nucleotides, which are monomers. All nucleotides consist of a 5-carbon sugar, either ribose or deoxyribose, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group.

670. What function do cholesterol molecules serve within the cell membrane?
     • They allow the cell membrane to be selectively permeable by making the bilayer structure more flexible.
     • They allow for carbohydrate chains to extend beyond the cell membrane to communicate with other cells.
     • They stabilize the flexible bilayer structure to prevent breakage.
     • They act as transport highways for molecular movement into and out of the cell.

     Correct answer: They stabilize the flexible bilayer structure to prevent breakage.

     Answer: They stabilize the flexible bilayer structure to prevent breakage. Phospholipids are molecules composed of two parts: a hydrophilic (attracts water) phosphate head and a hydrophobic (repels water) lipid tail. The cell membrane consists of a bilayer of phospholipids where the phospholipids line up tail-to-tail. This bilayer creates a hydrophobic region between two layers of lipids, making it selectively permeable. Cholesterol molecules help stabilize the flexible phospholipid bilayer structure to prevent breakage. Protein channels pass completely through the cell membrane. These proteins act as transport highways from molecular movement into and out of the cell.

671. Many cells uptake food through the cell membrane creating a food vacuole in a process known as
     • Photosynthesis
     • Cytokinesis
     • Osmosis
     • Phagocytosis

     Correct answer: Phagocytosis

     Answer: Phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is the process in which a cell will engulf food through the cell membrane creating a food vacuole. Osmosis is the process by which water molecules move from areas of high water concentration to areas of low water concentration through a selectively permeable membrane. Photosynthesis is the process used by plants and other autotrophs to capture light energy and use it to power chemical reactions that convert carbon dioxide and water into oxygen and carbohydrates. Cytokinesis is the part of cell division when the cytoplasm of a single eukaryotic cell divides (pinches) into two daughter cells.

672. Which of the following is found in animal cells but not plant cells?
     • Cytoskeleton
     • Cytoplasm
     • Chloroplast
     • Centrioles

     Correct answer: Centrioles

     Answer: centrioles. Centrioles are small, cylindrical organelles near the nucleus in animal cells. They occur in pairs (called centrosomes) and are involved in the development of spindle fibers in cell division. Chloroplasts are found in plant cells, but not animal cells. Chloroplasts are the site of photosynthesis, which does not occur in animals. The cytoskeleton gives a cell its shape, offers support, and facilitates movement through three main components: microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules. The cytoskeleton is in both animal cells and plant cells. The cytoplasm is the part of the cell between the cell membrane and the nuclear envelope. Cytoplasm includes cytosol (the jelly-like substance that the cell parts are floating in) and the organelles except for the nucleus. The cytoplasm is a part of both animal and plant cells.

673. In the Scientific Method, which of the following is a statement or explanation of certain events or happenings based on limited evidence?
     • Hypothesis
     • Conclusion
     • Experiment
     • Observation

     Correct answer: Hypothesis

     Answer: Hypothesis. For any experiment to be adequately conducted, the Scientific Method must be followed. The order of the Scientific Method is: 1. Observation: The first step is to make an observation. New observations are made, or old data are studied. 2. Hypothesis: The second step is to form a hypothesis. A hypothesis is a statement or explanation of certain events or happenings based on limited evidence. 3. Experiment: The third step is to conduct an experiment. An experiment is a repeatable procedure of gathering data to confirm or refute the hypothesis developed in the previous step. For the experiment to be valid, it must be repeatable. 4. Conclusion: The final step is to draw a conclusion. The conclusion is where the results of the experiment and its significance are explained.

674. Which of the following best describes why polarity is the most important characteristic of water?
     • The benefits of polarity are hydrogen bonding, a high specific heat value, strong cohesive and adhesive properties, and its versatility as a solvent.
     • The benefits of polarity are hydrogen bonding, a high specific heat value, weak cohesive and adhesive properties, and its versatility as a solvent.
     • The benefits of polarity are covalent bonding, a high specific heat value, strong cohesive and adhesive properties, and its versatility as a solvent.
     • The benefits of polarity are hydrogen bonding, a low specific heat value, strong cohesive and adhesive properties, and its versatility as a solvent.

     Correct answer: The benefits of polarity are hydrogen bonding, a high specific heat value, strong cohesive and adhesive properties, and its versatility as a solvent.

     Answer: The benefits of polarity are hydrogen bonding, a high specific heat value, strong cohesive and adhesive properties, and its versatility as a solvent. Water has a very simple molecular structure. It is made up of two Hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one atom of Oxygen. This setup leads to 4 pairs of electrons around the oxygen atom. 2 pairs of electrons are involved in the covalent bond that attaches the hydrogen atoms to the oxygen atom. This leaves two unshared pairs of electrons on the opposite side of the oxygen atom. This uneven distribution in electron density is known as polarity. The polarity of water is important because it allows water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules (including other molecules of water). Hydrogen bonding results in many benefits, including: High specific heat: it requires a lot of heat to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius, Strong cohesive properties: water can stick to itself, Strong adhesive properties: water can stick to other molecules, Versatile solvent properties: water dissolves many polar and charged molecules. One thing to remember for the HESI A2: covalent bonds attach the hydrogen atoms to the oxygen atom in a molecule of water, but hydrogen bonds are what connect water molecules to other molecules (of water and other types of molecules).

675. Cells are made up of components referred to as:
     • Nucleic acids
     • Amino acids
     • Organelles
     • Phospholipids

     Correct answer: Organelles

     Answer: Organelles. Cells are made up of smaller components called organelles. Each organelle has its own specific function within the cell. The nucleus, the mitochondrion, the chloroplast, the Golgi apparatus, the lysosome, and the endoplasmic reticulum are all examples of organelles. The diagram below shows a cell with its organelles listed. Phospholipids are the molecules that make up cellular membranes. Phospholipids are composed of two parts: a hydrophilic (attracts water) phosphate head and a hydrophobic (repels water) lipid tail. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. Nucleic acids are the main information-carrying molecules of the cell. DNA and RNA are the two main classes of nucleic acids.

676. Epistasis can be defined as:
     • Interaction between two viruses
     • Interaction between two genes
     • Interaction between DNA and RNA
     • Type of mutation

     Correct answer: Interaction between two genes

     Answer: interaction between two genes. Epistasis is the interaction between two non-linked genes which causes one gene to mask the expression of the other in the phenotype. An example of this is pigmentation in mice. There are two separate genes involved – the gene that dictates the color and the gene that dictates the production of pigment. If a mouse is recessive for the production gene, it cannot produce pigment, no matter what gene it has for the color. Therefore, the gene for pigment production ultimately masks the expression of the gene for color.

677. The process of asexual reproduction when a prokaryotic cell divides to form two identical cells where each has the potential to grow and become an independent cell is called:
     • Budding
     • Binary fission
     • Conjugation
     • Transformation

     Correct answer: Binary fission

     Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction that involves the separation of the cell into two new but identical cells. In the process of binary fission, an organism duplicates its genetic material, or deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and then divides into two parts (cytokinesis). Each new organism receives one copy of DNA. Each newly formed cell has the potential to become an independent organism. Conjugation is a form of sexual reproduction. It is the process by which one organism transfers genetic material to another through direct contact. During conjugation, one organism serves as the donor of the genetic material, and the other serves as the recipient. Budding is an asexual mode of reproduction. In this process, a new organism is developed from a small part of the parent’s body. A bud that is formed detaches to develop into a new organism. Transformation is a type of asexual reproduction in which a cell can take up DNA found within the environment that has originated from other prokaryotic cells.

678. Which of the following lists the steps of the Scientific Method in the correct order?
     • Hypothesis, observation, experiment, conclusion
     • Observation, experiment, hypothesis, conclusion
     • Theory, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion
     • Observation, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion

     Correct answer: Observation, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion

     Answer: observation, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion. For any experiment to be adequately conducted, the Scientific Method must be followed. The order of the Scientific Method is: 1. Observation: The first step is to make an observation. New observations are made, or old data are studied. 2. Hypothesis: The second step is to form a hypothesis. A hypothesis is a statement or explanation of certain events or happenings based on limited evidence. 3. Experiment: The third step is to conduct an experiment. An experiment is a repeatable procedure of gathering data to confirm or refute the hypothesis developed in the previous step. For the experiment to be valid, it must be repeatable. 4. Conclusion: The final step is to draw a conclusion. The conclusion is where the results of the experiment and its significance are explained.

679. Photosynthesis is the precursor to which other important cellular process?
     • Sexual reproduction
     • Genetic mutation
     • Cellular respiration
     • Cell division

     Correct answer: Cellular respiration

     Photosynthesis makes the glucose that is used in cellular respiration to make ATP. The glucose is then turned back into carbon dioxide, which is used in photosynthesis. While photosynthesis requires carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, cellular respiration requires oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.

680. Which of the following shows the correct pair of the reactants and products of cellular respiration?
     • Reactants: Lactic acid and carbon dioxide; Products: Glucose
     • Reactants: Glucose; Products: Lactic acid and carbon dioxide
     • Reactants: Carbon Dioxide, water, ATP; Products: Oxygen and glucose
     • Reactants: Oxygen and glucose; Products: Carbon dioxide, water, ATP

     Correct answer: Reactants: Oxygen and glucose; Products: Carbon dioxide, water, ATP

     Cellular respiration can occur both aerobically (using oxygen) or anaerobically (without oxygen). During aerobic cellular respiration, glucose reacts with oxygen, forming ATP that can be used by the cell. Carbon dioxide and water are created as by-products. The overall equation for aerobic cellular respiration is: $\ce{C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + 36ATP}$. Some organisms are able to convert energy without the presence of oxygen continually. They undergo glycolysis, followed by the anaerobic process of fermentation, to make ATP. Muscle cells can continue to produce ATP when oxygen runs low using lactic acid fermentation. However, this often results in muscle fatigue and pain. Many yeasts use alcoholic fermentation to produce ethanol. For this reason, humans have domesticated yeast to use for any commercial purposes, including baking as well as beer and wine production. In the absence of oxygen, glucose breaks down to lactic acid and carbon dioxide, releasing only 2 molecules of ATP.

681. Which of the following is correct about the difference between sexual and asexual reproduction?
     • In asexual reproduction, there is the involvement of two parents. In sexual reproduction, there is an involvement of one parent only.
     • The process of sexual reproduction takes longer than sexual reproduction.
     • In asexual reproduction, daughter cells are genetically different from parent cells. In sexual reproduction, daughter cells are genetically identical to parent cells.
     • In asexual reproduction, diploid parent cells produce diploid daughter cells. In sexual reproduction, diploid parent cells produce haploid daughter cells that combine to form diploid offspring.

     Correct answer: In asexual reproduction, diploid parent cells produce diploid daughter cells. In sexual reproduction, diploid parent cells produce haploid daughter cells that combine to form diploid offspring.

     In asexual reproduction, diploid parent cells produce diploid daughter cells. In sexual reproduction, haploid parent cells produce diploid daughter cells is the correct answer. In asexual reproduction, diploid cells (2n) divide to produce cells with a diploid number of chromosomes. Asexual reproduction involves one parent and produces offspring that are genetically identical to each other and to the parent. Sexual reproduction involves two parents and produces offspring that are genetically unique. Sexual reproduction takes a lot of time whereas asexual reproduction is a quick and less time-consuming process.

682. Which of these is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
     • Ribosome
     • Vacuole
     • Endoplasmic reticulum
     • Lysosome

     Correct answer: Ribosome

     Ribosome is the correct answer. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have ribosomes. A vacuole is a membrane-bound organelle that can be used to store waste products, food, or water. They are not found in prokaryotic cells since they lack membrane-bound organelles. The endoplasmic reticulum is a membrane-bound organelle that plays an important role in the synthesis, folding, modification, and transportation of proteins. You will not find an endoplasmic reticulum in a prokaryotic cell because they lack membrane-bound organelles. A lysosome is a membrane-bound organelle that contains digestive enzymes. These enzymes are important to the lysosome’s function, which is to break down waste materials and/or aid in the destruction of viruses or bacteria. You would not find a lysosome in a prokaryotic cell because they lack membrane-bound organelles.

683. Humans have 46 chromosomes in each somatic cell. How many chromosomes will be there in each daughter cell that has been formed after mitosis?
     • 69
     • 46
     • 23
     • 92

     Correct answer: 46

     All human cells (except gametes) have 46 chromosomes. Once mitosis is complete, the cell has two groups of 46 chromosomes, each enclosed with its own nuclear membrane. The cell then splits in two by a process called cytokinesis, creating two clones of the original cell, each with 46 monovalent chromosomes. Always remember that the number of chromosomes of each daughter cell remains equal (unchanged) to their mother cell or parent cell. The chromosomes in the mitotic cell cycle are diploid (2n) where n is the number of pairs of chromosomes, which is 23. So 2 x 23 =46. This means that humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes. As each duplicated chromosome consists of two identical sister chromatids joined at a point called the centromere, these structures now appear as X-shaped bodies when viewed under a microscope. Remember each chromosome has 2 sister chromatids so each cell has 92 chromatids, not 92 chromosomes.

684. Which of these structures does not differentiate a prokaryotic from a eukaryotic cell?
     • Organelles
     • Type of DNA
     • Cell membrane
     • Nucleus

     Correct answer: Cell membrane

     Cell membrane is the correct answer. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have a cell membrane that separates the contents of the cell from the external environment. DNA is circular and single-stranded in prokaryotic cells, while it is double-stranded and helical in eukaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus. Instead, they have a nucleoid region in which their DNA is present. Eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nucleus. Cell organelles are absent in prokaryotic cells, while they are present in eukaryotic cells.

685. Metabolic reactions in a cell progress from a standpoint of ________.
     • High energy to low energy
     • Low energy to high energy
     • Moderate energy to increased energy
     • Moderate energy to decreased energy

     Correct answer: High energy to low energy

     Answer: high energy to low energy. In a cell, reactions take place in a series of steps called metabolic pathways, progressing from a standpoint of high energy to low energy.

686. The polarity of a water molecule is due to the __________.
     • Uneven distribution of partial charges
     • Even distribution of complete charges
     • Even distribution of partial charges
     • Uneven distribution of complete charges

     Correct answer: Uneven distribution of partial charges

     Polarity in a water molecule is due to the uneven distribution of partial charges. A slight positive charge on one atom (hydrogen) and a slight negative charge on the other atom (oxygen) makes the molecule polar.

687. Humans and other animals require nitrogen; however, they cannot obtain it from the air or soil. What must animals consume in order to obtain the nitrogen they need?
     • Protein
     • Lipids
     • Glucose
     • Carbohydrates

     Correct answer: Protein

     Answer: Protein. Animals and humans obtain the nitrogen they require by consuming protein. Proteins are made of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, which are arranged as chains (polymers) of amino acids.

688. Which of these correctly defines a prokaryotic cell?
     • A cell without cytoplasm
     • A cell without ribosomes
     • A cell without a nucleus
     • A cell without a cell membrane

     Correct answer: A cell without a nucleus

     A cell without a nucleus is the correct answer. A prokaryotic cell is a cell that lacks a well-defined nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Bacteria is an example of a prokaryotic organism. Prokaryotic cells have cell membranes, cytoplasm, and ribosomes.

689. Which of the following statements defines a “theory”?
     • The results from an experiment that also explains its significance
     • A fact that is widely accepted
     • A concept that is yet to be proven scientifically
     • A concept that is well tested and has valid explanations for an event

     Correct answer: A concept that is well tested and has valid explanations for an event

     A theory is a hypothesis in which the concept is tested successfully and accepted widely in the scientific community due to the presence of valid explanations. A hypothesis is a concept yet to be proven. It is a proposed scientific statement that can be tested and proven scientifically through experimentation and results. A fact is a statement which is proved and explains something in reality. A conclusion is the result from an experiment that also explains its significance.

690. All metabolic reactions in a cell are catalyzed by which of the following?
     • Amino acids
     • Enzymes
     • Phospholipids
     • Steroids

     Correct answer: Enzymes

     Answer: Enzymes. Enzymes are a type of protein. They catalyze (cause or accelerate) different reactions and processes. Almost all cellular function is catalyzed by some type of enzyme. Amino acids are what make up proteins. Proteins are polymers of 20 amino acids. Phospholipids are a type of lipid. They consist of two fatty acids bonded to a phosphate group. The phosphate group is polar and soluble in water whereas the hydrocarbon tail of the fatty acids is nonpolar and non-soluble in water. This quality is important in the function of cellular membranes, including the plasma membrane, as the molecules organize themselves in a way that creates a barrier to protect the cell. Steroids are a type of lipid. They are a component of membranes and an essential part of many hormones and drugs.

691. A metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose and produces ATP is called __________.
     • Photosynthesis
     • Lipolysis
     • Cellular respiration
     • Gluconeogenesis

     Correct answer: Cellular respiration

     Cellular respiration is a metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose and produces ATP. The stages of cellular respiration include glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, citric acid or Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. Photosynthesis is an anabolic process in which plants or autotrophic organisms consume carbon dioxide, water, and light energy to produce glucose and oxygen. Gluconeogenesis refers to the synthesis of new glucose from noncarbohydrate precursors, providing glucose when dietary intake is insufficient or absent. It is also essential in the regulation of acid-base balance, amino acid metabolism, and synthesis of carbohydrate-derived structural components. You can remember it as “Gluco” refers to glucose, “Neo” means new, and “Genesis” means formation. Lipolysis is the process of breaking down lipids (fats) into fatty acids and glycerol. It can be remembered as “Lipo” means lipids and “Lysis” means breakdown.

692. The process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy to chemical energy in the form of sugars is called ___________.
     • Photosynthesis
     • Mutation
     • Respiration
     • Cell division

     Correct answer: Photosynthesis

     Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy to chemical energy in the form of sugars. During photosynthesis, photoautotrophs use energy from the sun, along with carbon dioxide and water, to produce glucose and oxygen. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are almost opposite processes. Looking at their equations, they differ only in the form of energy that is being absorbed or released. However, they are not simply the reversal of each other, as each one takes place in its own particular series of steps.

693. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of life?
     • Organisms can move around.
     • Organisms can produce offspring.
     • Organisms are made up of cells.
     • Organisms can maintain homeostasis.

     Correct answer: Organisms can move around.

     Not all living things can move around, such as plants. However, they are still living things because they share all of the other characteristics of life. Characteristics of living things include: Made Up of Cells, Ability to Reproduce, Have a Metabolism, Maintain Homeostasis, Respond to Stimuli, Grow and Develop, Adapt Through Evolution. Through homeostasis, all living organisms maintain their constant internal body conditions such as temperature, water content, etc. All living things are made up of cells—single-celled or multicellular—to carry out various metabolic functions. All living things reproduce either by sexual or asexual reproduction.

694. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about daughter cells formed during mitotic cell division?
     • Mitotic daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes than their parent cell.
     • Mitotic daughter cells are formed as a result of crossing over of genetic materials.
     • Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells to their parent cell.
     • Mitotic cell division gives rise to four unique daughter cells.

     Correct answer: Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells to their parent cell.

     Mitosis is the nuclear cell division that occurs in eukaryotic cells when a single parent cell divides into two identical daughter cells. The image below shows the phases of the mitotic cell cycle. You can see that after telophase, the cell divides into two identical daughter cells. The mitotic cycle does not lead to four daughter cells. Instead, the formation of four daughter cells occurs in meiosis. As discussed above, mitosis leads to identical daughter cells, therefore, both of them have the same number of chromosomes as their parent cell. This is why their genetic material is also identical. Crossing over is a process in which there is an exchange of genetic materials between the cells and only takes place during Prophase 1 of meiosis when the homologous chromosomes line up with one another. This leads to genetic variation. However, in mitosis, the cells are completely identical to their parents which means that their genetic material is also identical to their parent cells. Chromosomes do not pair up during mitosis, which is why no crossing over takes place. Remembering that crossing over gives rise to unique cells (non-identical cells) will help you remember that it cannot happen in mitosis

695. If for peas, a round shape is the dominant allele (A), and a wrinkly shape is the recessive allele (a), what is the genotype of a round pea?
     • Aa
     • AA or Aa
     • AA
     • Aa

     Correct answer: AA or Aa

     Answer: AA or Aa. For every trait expressed in a sexually reproducing organism, there are at least two alternative versions of a gene, called alleles. In this question, there are two alleles: the dominant allele for pea shape (round) and the recessive allele for pea shape (wrinkly). A genotype is the combination of alleles. It is the genetic makeup of an individual organism. An individual’s genotype functions as a set of instructions for the growth and development of its body. A phenotype represents the traits that will be expressed. In this question, a pea’s genotype and phenotype could be: Dominant homozygous – AA – pea will be round, Recessive homozygous – aa – pea will be wrinkly, Dominant heterozygous – Aa – pea will be round. In our case, since the round shape is dominant, it will be visually present in both homozygous and heterozygous individuals who have the dominant allele (AA or Aa).

696. A recessive allele is only expressed as a phenotype in an organism if:
     • The organism is heterozygous recessive for that trait
     • The organism is homozygous dominant for that trait
     • The organism is homozygous recessive for that trait
     • The organism is heterozygous dominant for that trait

     Correct answer: The organism is homozygous recessive for that trait

     Answer: the organism is homozygous recessive for that trait. Genes are forms of DNA that are passed on from parent to child and are an important part of what decides how children look and act. Genes affect the way our bodies work, including how we look. Our eye, hair and skin color are decided by genes. The different forms of a gene are called alleles. A simplified example would be dark or light eye color in humans. Some alleles are dominant, which means they overshadow the other allele, which is recessive. Building off our previous example, the allele for dark eye color is the dominant allele and the allele for light eye color is the recessive allele. This means that if a human were to have both the dominant allele (dark eyes) and recessive allele (light eyes) for eye color, the dominant allele (dark eyes) would show. A genotype is the combination of alleles present in an organism. For a person’s eye color, the genotype may consist of two alleles for dark eyes (homozygous dominant), two alleles for light eyes (homozygous recessive), or one of each alleles (heterozygous). The phenotype is the expression of the genes. An example of a phenotype is simply “dark eyes” or “light eyes”. The genotype determines the phenotype. The only way that a recessive allele can be expressed as a phenotype is if it is homozygous recessive. The genotypes and phenotypes for dark eyes (D) and light eyes (d): DD = homozygous dominant = dark eyes, Dd = heterozygous = dark eyes, dd = homozygous recessive = light eyes

697. The process of nuclear division in eukaryotic cells that occurs when a parent cell divides to produce two identical daughter cells is known as:
     • Fragmentation
     • Binary fission
     • Mitosis
     • Meiosis

     Correct answer: Mitosis

     Mitosis is a form of asexual reproduction that takes place only in eukaryotic cells. In mitosis, the parent cell undergoes several phases and divides into two identical cells that are called daughter cells. Meiosis is the basis for sexual reproduction where a single cell divides twice to produce four daughter cells containing half the original amount of genetic information. These cells, produced through meiosis, are our sex cells—sperm in males and eggs in females. Binary fission is also a mode of asexual reproduction, but it occurs in prokaryotic organisms. The organism duplicates its DNA and then divides into two identical cells. Remember “bi” means “two” and “fission” means “division.” This simply means one cell divides into two identical cells.

698. DNA is:
     • Nucleic acid
     • Hydrochloric acid
     • Lactic acid
     • An inorganic compound

     Correct answer: Nucleic acid

     Answer: nucleic acid. Nucleic acids are biopolymers, or small biomolecules, essential to all known forms of life. They are composed of nucleotides, which are monomers made of three components: a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base. DNA is a long molecule that contains our unique genetic code. It holds the instructions for making all the proteins in our bodies. DNA is a double helical structure that contains the four nitrogenous bases: adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine. Each base forms hydrogen bonds with another base on the complementary strand. The bases have a precise bonding pattern. Adenine bonds with thymine and guanine bonds with cytosine (remember: AT/GC). Because of this method of bonding, the strands can be replicated, producing identical strands of DNA.

699. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the interphase of mitosis?
     • It is the shortest phase of the mitotic cell cycle
     • In this phase, the sister chromatids begin to separate from one another
     • In this phase, the cell grows and copies its DNA before moving into mitosis
     • Crossing over takes place in this phase

     Correct answer: In this phase, the cell grows and copies its DNA before moving into mitosis

     In this phase, the cell grows and copies its DNA before moving into mitosis is the correct answer. Interphase is the longest part of the cell cycle. This is when the cell grows and copies its DNA before moving into mitosis. During mitosis, chromosomes will align, separate, and move into new daughter cells. The prefix inter means between, so interphase takes place between one mitotic (M) phase and the next. Sister chromatids begin to separate from one another in anaphase instead of the interphase of mitosis. Likewise, crossing over occurs in meiosis, not mitosis.

700. DNA is read in terms of how many bases?
     • 3
     • 4
     • 6
     • 5

     Correct answer: 3

     Answer: 3. A codon is a sequence of three DNA or RNA nucleotides that corresponds with a specific amino acid or stop signal during protein synthesis and the full set of codons is called the genetic code. You may use the diagram below as a visual reference for how each codon (set of three nucleotides) corresponds to a particular amino acid. In this case, you can see that the tRNA brings over the amino acid Cys by matching up with the codon ACG on the mRNA strand.

701. In the hierarchic system of classification, which of the following is least inclusive?
     • Phylum
     • Class
     • Order
     • Family

     Correct answer: Family

     Answer: Family. The hierarchic system of classification, from most inclusive to least inclusive, is: Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species. Use the following mnemonic device to help you memorize this: Kids Prefer Candy Over Fresh Green Salads

702. The cell membrane is composed of which of the following?
     • A rigid layer of cytoskeleton
     • A bilayer of phospholipid molecules
     • A single layer of phospholipid molecules
     • A wall of cholesterol and phospholipids

     Correct answer: A bilayer of phospholipid molecules

     Answer: A bilayer of phospholipid molecules. Phospholipids are molecules composed of two parts: a hydrophilic (attracts water) phosphate head and a hydrophobic (repels water) lipid tail. The cell membrane consists of a bilayer of phospholipids where the phospholipids line up tail-to-tail. This bilayer creates a hydrophobic region between two layers of lipids, making it selectively permeable. Selectively permeable means that the cell membrane allows specific molecules or ions to pass through it while keeping others out.

703. What are the three types of lipids?
     • Fatty acids, phospholipids, and enzymes
     • Fatty acids, phospholipids, and steroids
     • Fatty acids, saturated fats, and unsaturated fats
     • Fatty acids, enzymes, and steroids

     Correct answer: Fatty acids, phospholipids, and steroids

     Answer: Fatty acids, phospholipids, and steroids. Lipids are one of the most important molecules in biology along with carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids. Lipids are better known as fats, but specifically, they are fatty acids, phospholipids, and steroids. Enzymes are a type of protein. They catalyze (cause or accelerate) different reactions and processes. Almost all cellular function is catalyzed by some type of enzyme. Saturated fats are one of the two categories of fatty acids. Saturated fats contain no double bonds in their hydrocarbon tail. As a result, saturated fats are solid at room temperature and are considered detrimental to your health. Unsaturated fats are one of the two categories of fatty acids. Unsaturated fats contain one or more double bonds in their hydrocarbon tail. As a result, unsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature.

704. Where in the cell does active transport take place?
     • Nucleus
     • Mitochondria
     • Plasma membrane
     • Chloroplast

     Correct answer: Plasma membrane

     Answer: Plasma membrane. The plasma membrane (also known as the cell membrane) is the outermost surface of the cell, which separates the cell from the external environment. Whenever material has to move into or out of the cell, it must pass through the plasma membrane. Active transport is one of the ways materials move across the plasma membrane. In active transport, a protein moves the material across the membrane from a region of lower concentration to a higher concentration. Because this movement is happening against the concentration gradient (going from low to high concentration rather than high to low) the cell must use energy to make the transportation happen. Mitochondria are the cell organelle involved in energy release and storage. The nucleus is the organelle that contains all the genetic material. Chloroplasts are organelles that are present only in plant cells. They contain chlorophyll (the green pigment that allows plants to absorb light for photosynthesis) and are where photosynthesis takes place.

705. Which of the following correctly lists the hierarchic system of classification from most inclusive to least inclusive?
     • Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Family, Class, Genus, Species
     • Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species
     • Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
     • Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Family, Order, Genus, Species

     Correct answer: Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

     Answer: Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species. The hierarchic system of classification, from most inclusive to least inclusive, is: Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species. Use the following mnemonic device to help you memorize this: Kids Prefer Candy Over Fresh Green Salads

706. Which of the following is not a benefit of the intermolecular hydrogen bonding of water?
     • Versatile solvent properties
     • A relatively low specific heat
     • Strong adhesive properties
     • Strong cohesive properties

     Correct answer: A relatively low specific heat

     Answer: A relatively low specific heat. Water has a very simple molecular structure. It is made up of two Hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one atom of Oxygen. This setup leads to 4 pairs of electrons around the oxygen atom. 2 pairs of electrons are involved in the covalent bond that attaches the hydrogen atoms to the oxygen atom. This leaves two unshared pairs of electrons on the opposite side of the oxygen atom. This uneven distribution in electron density is known as polarity. The polarity of water is important because it allows water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules (including other molecules of water). Hydrogen bonding results in many benefits, including: High specific heat: it requires a lot of heat to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius, Strong cohesive properties: water can stick to itself, Strong adhesive properties: water can stick to other molecules, Versatile solvent properties: water dissolves many polar and charged molecules. One thing to remember for the HESI A2: covalent bonds attach the hydrogen atoms to the oxygen atom in a molecule of water, but hydrogen bonds are what connect water molecules to other molecules (of water and other types of molecules).

707. In the hierarchic system of classification, which of the following is most inclusive?
     • Genus
     • Species
     • Phylum
     • Order

     Correct answer: Phylum

     Answer: Phylum. The hierarchic system of classification, from most inclusive to least inclusive, is: Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species. Use the following mnemonic device to help you memorize this: Kids Prefer Candy Over Fresh Green Salads

708. The organelle that contains the cell’s DNA is the nucleus. The DNA is organized in masses called
     • Chromosomes
     • Nucleotides
     • Nucleic acids
     • Amino acids

     Correct answer: Chromosomes

     Answer: chromosomes. The nucleus is the organelle that contains the cell’s DNA. Within the nucleus, DNA is organized in x-shaped masses called chromosomes. Chromosomes contain all of the genetic information for the regeneration of the cell and the instructions for the function of the cell. DNA is one of the two types of nucleic acids. The other nucleic acid is RNA. Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) are made up of even smaller building blocks called nucleotides.

709. Which of the following statements best describes a valid hypothesis?
     • It is always proven successful and is accepted as a valid law in the scientific world.
     • It is a part of the experiment that can vary or change during the experimental procedure.
     • It can be tested and even falsified after numerous experimental results.
     • It can be accepted or rejected solely based on research data.

     Correct answer: It can be tested and even falsified after numerous experimental results.

     A valid hypothesis is one that can be tested numerous times and proven to be false after a series of experiments. A hypothesis is not always proven correct or accepted throughout the scientific world as a law. It can be rejected as well. A part of the experiment that can vary or change during the experimental procedure is not a valid hypothesis, since the results should be constant over a certain period of time. A hypothesis cannot be accepted or rejected solely based on research data, without conducting any valid experiments and their results.

710. In a cell, reactions take place in a series of steps called ____________?
     • Catabolic pathways
     • Cellular respiration
     • The electron transport chain
     • Metabolic pathways

     Correct answer: Metabolic pathways

     Answer: Metabolic pathways. In a cell, reactions take place in a series of steps called metabolic pathways. The electron transport chain is the third step of cellular respiration. This step begins with the oxidation of NADH molecules to produce oxygen and finally to produce water. Cellular respiration is a catabolic pathway (a set of metabolic reactions and processes) that takes place in cells and results in energy production for the cell. Catabolic pathways are a type of metabolic pathway. Metabolic pathways refer to all the reactions that take place in an organism. Metabolism can be divided into two distinct categories: catabolic (breaking things down) and anabolic (building things up). Therefore, catabolic pathways only cover half of the reactions that occur in the cell making metabolic pathways the best answer.

711. How are carbohydrates absorbed into the bloodstream?
     • Carbohydrates are turned into oxygen and are absorbed into the blood via the lungs.
     • Carbohydrates are turned into fatty acids and absorbed into the blood via the walls of the large intestine.
     • Carbohydrates are turned into disaccharides and absorbed into the blood via the walls of the stomach.
     • Carbohydrates are turned into glucose and absorbed into the blood via the walls of the small intestine.

     Correct answer: Carbohydrates are turned into glucose and absorbed into the blood via the walls of the small intestine.

     Answer: Carbohydrates are turned into glucose and absorbed into the blood via the walls of the small intestine. When your stomach digests food, carbohydrates (sugars and starches) in the food you ate gets broken down into another type of smaller sugar, called glucose. The small intestines absorb the glucose and then release it into the bloodstream.

712. What is the correct number of atoms in one molecule of water?
     • 1 Hydrogen and 1 Oxygen
     • 2 Hydrogen and 1 Oxygen
     • 1 Hydrogen and 2 Oxygen
     • 2 Hydrogen and 2 Oxygen

     Correct answer: 2 Hydrogen and 1 Oxygen

     One molecule of water contains 2 atoms of hydrogen and 1 atom of oxygen.

713. Through which characteristic of life does the new progeny (offspring) of species receive their hereditary (inherited) traits?
     • Reproduction
     • Growth and development
     • Response to stimuli
     • Evolution

     Correct answer: Reproduction

     Hereditary characteristics are traits passed down from parents to offspring (e.g., hair color, eye color, height, etc.). These hereditary (genetic) characteristics are passed on to the new species or offspring through the process of reproduction. Organisms or species undergo body changes through the growth and developmental process, which ensures their survival. Although organisms may grow and develop based on inherited characteristics, this is not how these characteristics are passed along to offspring. Evolution is a process observed for hundreds of years that causes changes in the species in favor of their survival in external environmental conditions. Although patterns of inheritance drive the changes that take place during evolution, it is not how hereditary traits are passed along to offspring. Response to stimuli is the instant body response to a changing external environment.

714. Which biologic molecule is comprised of polymers of amino acids?
     • Carbohydrates
     • Lipids
     • Proteins
     • Nucleic acids

     Correct answer: Proteins

     Answer: Proteins. Proteins are made of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, which are arranged as chains (polymers) of amino acids. Carbohydrates are made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Lipids are polymers of fatty acids. They contain a long, nonpolar hydrocarbon chain with a small, polar part containing oxygen. Nucleic acids are composed of nucleotides, which are the monomers made of three components: a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base.

715. The hydrogen atoms in a water molecule are linked to the oxygen atom by a(n) __________.
     • All of these
     • Van der waal interaction
     • Ionic bond
     • Covalent bond

     Correct answer: Covalent bond

     Each hydrogen atom in a water molecule is connected to the same oxygen atom by a covalent bond. A covalent bond is a bond that is formed through the sharing of electrons between two atoms or molecules.

716. Which of the following numbers does the prefix “deka” represent?
     • 1,000
     • 0.01
     • 10
     • 100

     Correct answer: 10

     Answer: 10. here are 20 accepted prefixes in the metric system. A prefix may be used to identify multiples of the original unit or fractions of the original unit. For example, kilo- denotes a multiple of a thousand, so there are one thousand meters in a kilometer. Milli- denotes a thousandth; therefore, there are one thousand millimeters in a meter. The prefix “deka” means 10 (or 101). To illustrate this, a dekameter would be 10 meters. Three dekameters would be 3 x 10 meters = 30 meters.

717. Which of the following occurs at 100°C?
     • Pure water sublimes
     • Pure water boils
     • Ice melts
     • Pure water freezes

     Correct answer: Pure water boils

     Answer: Pure water boils. 100°C is the temperature at which water begins to boil, while 0°C is the freezing point of water. The melting point of water is also 0oC. This is because, at this particular temperature, the substance can exist as either a solid or a liquid. Once the temperature drops below the freezing/melting point, the substance becomes solid.

718. Which of the following options correctly shows 4,752,100 in scientific notation?
     • 4.7521 $\times 10^{5}$
     • 4.7521 $\times 10^{-6}$
     • 4.7521 $\times 10^{6}$
     • 4.7521 $\times 10^{-5}$

     Correct answer: 4.7521 $\times 10^{6}$

     Answer: 4.7521 $\times 10^{6}$. Scientific notation is a way to write very large or very small numbers. This method of notation is useful to scientists when they are writing very large or very small numbers, so they don’t have to write so many zeroes! To convert from standard form to scientific notation: Move the decimal point until there is only one digit to the left of the decimal. 4,752,100 -> 4.752100. Drop trailing zeroes 4.752100 -> 4.7521. Append $\times$ 10e, where the “e” is the number of spaces you moved the decimal. We moved the decimal 6 spaces to get from 4,752,100 to 4.752100 so our exponent will be 6. Double-check the sign of your exponent. If you moved the decimal to the left, your exponent will be positive. If you moved the decimal to the right, your exponent will be negative. Since we moved the decimal to the left, our exponent should be positive. So, 4,752,100 -> 4.7521 $\times 10^{6}$

719. Which option correctly converts 4.51 $\times 10^{-5}$ to standard notation?
     • 0.00000451
     • 0.0000451
     • 4,510,000
     • 4,510

     Correct answer: 0.0000451

     Answer: 0.0000451. Scientific notation is a way to write very large or very small numbers. This method of notation is useful to scientists when they are writing very large or very small numbers, so they don’t have to write so many zeroes! To convert from scientific notation to standard form, look at the exponent: The value of the exponent tells you how many spaces to move the decimal. Since the value of the exponent in 4.51 $\times 10^{-5}$ is 5, this tells us we will need to move the decimal 5 spaces. The sign of the exponent tells you which direction we are going. A positive exponent tells us to move the decimal to the right. A negative decimal tells us to move the decimal to the left. Since the sign of the exponent in 4.51 $\times 10^{-5}$ is negative, this means we will be moving the decimal to the left. So, since the exponent is negative and has a value of 5, so we just need to move the decimal 5 places to the left to arrive at the answer, 0.0000451.

720. Which option correctly translates 5.67 $\times 10^{8}$ into standard form?
     • 567,000,000
     • 5,670,000,000
     • 0.0000000567
     • 56,700,000

     Correct answer: 567,000,000

     Answer: 567,000,000. Scientific notation is a way to write very large or very small numbers. This method of notation is useful to scientists when they are writing very large or very small numbers, so they don’t have to write so many zeroes! To convert from scientific notation to standard notation, look at the exponent: The value of the exponent tells you how many spaces to move the decimal. Since the value of the exponent in 5.67 $\times 10^{8}$ is 8, this tells us we will need to move the decimal 8 spaces. The sign of the exponent tells you which direction we are going. A positive exponent tells us to move the decimal to the right. A negative decimal tells us to move the decimal to the left. Since the sign of the exponent in 5.67 $\times 10^{8}$ is positive, this means we will be moving the decimal to the right. So, since the exponent is positive and has a value of 8, so we just need to move the decimal 8 places to the right to arrive at the answer, 567,000,000.

721. Which of the following options represents the SI base unit of mass?
     • Pound
     • Ounce
     • Kilogram
     • Gram

     Correct answer: Kilogram

     Answer: Kilogram. The International System of Units (SI, abbreviated from the French Système international) is the modern form of the metric system and is the most widely used system of measurement in the world. It comprises a system of units of measurement built on seven base units, which are: Unit | Symbol | Quantity; meter m length, second s time, kilogram kg mass, ampere A electric current, kelvin K temperature, mole mol amount of substance, candela cd luminous intensity (brightness). As you can see in the chart above, the metric system uses the kilogram as the base unit of mass. While a gram is a measure of mass, it is not the SI base unit for mass. The SI base unit for mass is recognized as the kilogram (this is because of historical reasons). Ounces and pounds are measurements of mass, but are part of the Imperial System of measurement and not the International System of Units. The kilometer is an SI unit of length but is not the base unit. We rarely ever see these used in science.

722. Which option is the correct scientific notation of 734,000,000?
     • 7.34 $\times 10^{8}$
     • 7.34 $\times 10^{-8}$
     • 7.34 $\times 10^{7}$
     • 7.34 $\times 10^{-7}$

     Correct answer: 7.34 $\times 10^{8}$

     Answer: 7.34 $\times 10^{8}$. Scientific notation is a way to write very large or very small numbers. This method of notation is useful to scientists when they are writing very large or very small numbers, so they don’t have to write so many zeroes! To convert from standard form to scientific notation: Move the decimal point until there is only one digit to the left of the decimal. 734,000,000 -> 7.34000000. Drop trailing zeroes 7.34000000 -> 7.34. Append $\times$ 10e, where the “e” is the number of spaces you moved the decimal. We moved the decimal 8 spaces to get from 734,000,000 to 7.34 so our exponent will be 8. Double-check the sign of your exponent. If you moved the decimal to the left, your exponent will be positive. If you moved the decimal to the right, your exponent will be negative. Since we moved the decimal to the left, our exponent should be positive. So, 734,000,000 -> 7.34 $\times 10^{8}$

723. Which of the following is a property of noble gases?
     • They have a -1 charge
     • They have a full octet of valence electrons
     • They are highly reactive
     • They are easily ionized

     Correct answer: They have a full octet of valence electrons

     Answer: They have a full octet of valence electrons. The noble gases make up a group of chemical elements with similar properties; under standard conditions, they are all: odorless, colorless, very low chemical reactivity because each noble gas has a complete octet of valence electrons (their outermost electron orbital is full). The six naturally occurring noble gases are helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon, and radon. They are all in the last group (group 18) of the periodic table.

724. Which of the following is represented by the atomic number of an element?
     • An element’s number of protons and neutrons
     • An element’s number of neutrons
     • An element’s number of protons, neutrons, and electrons
     • An element’s number of protons

     Correct answer: An element’s number of protons

     Answer: An element’s number of protons. The atomic number of an element shows the number of protons located in the nucleus of the atom. The number of protons determines the identity of the atom. For example, if an atom has 6 protons, it is Carbon. Therefore, the atomic number for carbon is 6.

725. Which of the following is the correct symbol for arsenic?
     • Al
     • As
     • At
     • Ar

     Correct answer: As

     Answer: As. The symbol for an element is found on its entry in the periodic table. Arsenic has an atomic number of 33. The other symbols stand for aluminum (Al), astatine (At), and argon (Ar).

726. Which of the following isotopes of iron has 26 protons, 30 neutrons, and 26 electrons?
     • 56Fe
     • 26Fe
     • 30Fe
     • 55Fe

     Correct answer: 56Fe

     Answer: 56Fe. An isotope is an atom with the same number of protons and electrons, but a different number of neutrons. The superscript before the chemical symbol of iron (Fe) represents the mass number of the isotope. The mass number is the number of neutrons and protons in the sample, and in this problem, that number is: 26 + 30 = 56

727. Which of the following represents an ion?
     • 6 protons, 6 neutrons, and 6 electrons
     • 6 protons, 4 neutrons, and 5 electrons
     • 6 protons, 5 neutrons, and 6 electrons
     • 6 protons, 4 neutrons, and 6 electrons

     Correct answer: 6 protons, 4 neutrons, and 5 electrons

     Answer: 6 protons, 4 neutrons, and 5 electrons. An ion is an atom where the number of protons and electrons are not equal. This gives the atom either a positive or a negative charge, depending on whether the number of protons or electrons is greater. More electrons than protons = negatively charged ion (this is called an anion). More protons than electrons = positively charged ion (this is called a cation). When there are a different number of protons and neutrons, this is called an isotope.

728. Which subatomic particle has a positive charge?
     • Protons
     • Electrons
     • Neutrons
     • Photons

     Correct answer: Protons

     Answer: Protons. Protons are located in an atom’s nucleus and have a positive charge. Neutrons have no charge (they are neutral) and are also located inside of the atom’s nucleus. Electrons orbit the nucleus and have a negative charge. Photons are not a subatomic particle. They are particles representing a quantum of light or other electromagnetic radiation

729. Which of the following is a true statement?
     • Protons have a positive charge.
     • Electrons have a positive charge.
     • Neutrons orbit the nucleus.
     • Electrons are located in the nucleus.

     Correct answer: Protons have a positive charge.

     Answer: Protons have a positive charge. An electron is a negatively charged particle that orbits the nucleus of an atom. Protons (positively-charged) and neutrons (neutral) are located in the nucleus that the electron orbits.

730. Which of the following describes a catalyst?
     • A gas that evolves from the reaction
     • A solid that precipitates out of a reaction
     • A substance that slows down a reaction.
     • A substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction

     Correct answer: A substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction

     Answer: A substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction. A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by lowering the activation energy. A catalyst is not consumed in a chemical reaction and is regenerated after each reaction it catalyzes.

731. Which of the following is not an example of a solution?
     • Alloy
     • Unsaturated
     • Emulsion
     • Saturated

     Correct answer: Emulsion

     Answer: Emulsion. An emulsion is formed when two immiscible liquids are combined together. In these mixtures, one liquid is dispersed into another. Emulsions are part of a broader class of mixtures called ‘colloids.’

732. Which state of matter can contain a solution?
     • Gases and solids
     • Liquids and gases
     • Solids, liquids, and gases
     • Solids and liquids

     Correct answer: Solids, liquids, and gases

     Answer: Solids, liquids, and gases. Although we typically associate solutions with liquids, solutions can be composed of any state of matter. For example, seawater is a solid (NaCl) in a liquid (H2O), metal alloys are solid-solid solutions, and air is a gas-gas solution.

733. Which of the following is not an example of an alloy?
     • A mixture of copper and aluminum
     • A mixture of silver and gold
     • A mixture of bromine and oxygen
     • A mixture of iron and lead

     Correct answer: A mixture of bromine and oxygen

     Answer: A mixture of bromine and oxygen. An alloy is a mixture of a metal with another element. Both bromine and oxygen are nonmetals. Most often, an alloy is comprised of two or more metals that are mixed together. Steel (a mixture of iron and carbon) is an example of a metal (iron) and nonmetal (carbon) alloy.

734. Which of the following describes a non-polar covalent bond?
     • An even sharing of electrons between atoms
     • An uneven sharing of protons between atoms
     • An even sharing of protons between atoms
     • An uneven sharing of electrons between atoms

     Correct answer: An even sharing of electrons between atoms

     Answer: An even sharing of electrons between atoms. In a non-polar covalent bond, electrons are shared evenly between the atoms in the molecule. This means that the overall molecule does not have a dipole. In a polar covalent bond, electrons are shared unevenly between atoms because one atom is more electronegative than the other.

735. Which of the following describes a single covalent bond?
     • A bond that shares a single proton
     • A bond that shares no electron pairs
     • A bond that shares two electron pairs
     • A bond that shares one electron pair

     Correct answer: A bond that shares one electron pair

     Answer: A bond that shares one electron pair. In covalent bonds, electrons are shared between two atoms. This differs from ionic bonds, where electrons are completely donated from one atom to another. In a single covalent bond, one electron pair is shared, while in a double covalent bond, two electron pairs are shared.

736. Which of the following has an ionic bond?
     • $\ce{NaCl}$
     • $\ce{H2O2}$
     • $\ce{C6H12O6}$
     • $\ce{H2O}$

     Correct answer: $\ce{NaCl}$

     Answer: NaCl. NaCl is an ionic compound because it is composed of a metal (Na) and a nonmetal (Cl). In an ionic bond, electrons are completely transferred from the metal to the nonmetal. The other answer choices are all molecular compounds.

737. Which of the following is not an intermolecular force?
     • Hydrogen bond
     • Dipole-dipole interaction
     • Metallic bond
     • Dispersion force

     Correct answer: Metallic bond

     Answer: Metallic bond. Metallic bonds hold metal lattices together and are an intramolecular force. Other examples of intramolecular forces are covalent bonds and ionic bonds. The other options are intermolecular forces that determine how other molecules interact with one another.

738. Which of the following is the correct term for chemicals on the left side of the reaction arrow?
     • Products
     • Equation
     • Reactants
     • Ions

     Correct answer: Reactants

     Answer: Reactants. The reactants are the chemical species that are used to generate the products. Reactants are always on the left side of the reaction arrow, and products are always on the right side.

739. Which of the following substances has the ability to form strong hydrogen bonds?
     • $\ce{C6H6}$
     • $\ce{H2O}$
     • $\ce{CH4}$
     • $\ce{BF3}$

     Correct answer: $\ce{H2O}$

     Answer: H2O. Hydrogen bonding occurs only in molecules where hydrogen is covalently bonded to one of three elements: fluorine (F), oxygen (O), nitrogen (N). These three elements are so electronegative (i.e., they attract shared electrons when forming a chemical bond) that they absorb the majority of the electrons in the covalent bond with hydrogen, leaving the H atom very electron-deficient. H2O (water) forms strong hydrogen bonds with other water molecules. There are no hydrogens in BF3. In CH4 and C6H6, the hydrogens are bonded only to carbon, which isn’t very electronegative.

740. During oxidation, what happens to a chemical species?
     • It loses one mole of oxygen
     • It gains electrons
     • It gains one mole of oxygen
     • It loses electrons

     Correct answer: It loses electrons

     Answer: It loses electrons. Oxidation is defined as the loss of electrons. These electrons are transferred to the chemical species that is reduced. This type of reaction is termed a redox reaction.

741. Which of the following occurs during a redox reaction?
     • One species is reduced, while another is oxidized
     • The number of electrons in a reaction increases
     • All chemicals are reduced
     • All chemicals are oxidized

     Correct answer: One species is reduced, while another is oxidized

     Answer: One species is reduced, while another is oxidized. Redox, which is short for “reduction/oxidation,” occurs when one atom is oxidized and another is reduced. Since each of these processes occurs, neither “all chemicals are oxidized” nor “all chemicals are reduced” are sufficient answer choices. The number of electrons in the system remains constant.

742. Which of the following is a property of bases?
     • They corrode metals
     • They taste sour
     • They have pka values below 7.
     • They change red litmus paper to blue

     Correct answer: They change red litmus paper to blue

     Answer: They change red litmus paper to blue. Litmus paper is used to quickly and qualitatively determine whether a solution is acidic or basic. Red litmus paper turns blue when exposed to a basic solution. If it comes into contact with an acidic solution, it will remain red.

743. Lemon juice contains citric acid. Which of the following pH values would lemon juice most likely have?
     • 2
     • 7
     • 14
     • 8

     Correct answer: 2

     Answer: 2. Since lemon juice contains an acid, it will most likely have an acidic pH. The only acidic pH in the options above is 2. In fact, the pH of citric acid is 2.2.

744. What type of bonds hold polysaccharides together?
     • Double bonds
     • Glycosidic bond
     • Alkenes
     • Esters

     Correct answer: Glycosidic bond

     Answer: Glycosidic bond. A glycosidic bond (or linkage) is a covalent bond that holds a carbohydrate molecule together with another group. This bond can be broken by glycoside hydrolases, which are enzymes that hydrolyze glycosidic bonds.

745. Where are triglycerides stored?
     • Skin cells
     • Fat cells
     • Blood
     • Bones

     Correct answer: Fat cells

     Answer: Fat cells. Explanation: When the body receives more calories than it needs, it stores them in the form of triglycerides in fat cells. The body releases the triglycerides in between meals when the body needs energy.

746. What is 6.5 $\times 10^{-5}$ equal to in standard form?
     • 0.0065
     • 650,000
     • 0.000065
     • 0.00065

     Correct answer: 0.000065

     Answer: 0.000065. Scientific notation is a way to write very large or very small numbers. This method of notation is useful to scientists when they are writing very large or very small numbers, so they don’t have to write so many zeroes! To convert from scientific notation to standard notation, look at the exponent: The value of the exponent tells you how many spaces to move the decimal. Since the value of the exponent in 6.5 $\times$ 10-5 is 5, this tells us we will need to move the decimal 5 spaces. The sign of the exponent tells you which direction we are going. A positive exponent tells us to move the decimal to the right. A negative decimal tells us to move the decimal to the left. Since the sign of the exponent in 6.5 $\times$ 10-5 is negative, this means we will be moving the decimal to the left. So, since the exponent is negative and has a value of 5, so we just need to move the decimal 5 places to the left to arrive at the answer, 0.000065. You may use the examples below as a visual reference for how scientific notation represents numbers.

747. What is 85oC in degrees Fahrenheit.
     • 23 °F
     • 54 °F
     • 155 °F
     • 185 °F

     Correct answer: 185 °F

     Answer: 185 °F. To convert from degrees Celsius to degrees Fahrenheit, use the following formula: [°F] = [°C] $\times$ 9/5 + 32. Substitute 85oC into the [oC] term and perform multiplication then addition to get 185oF as the answer. [°F] = 85°C $\times$ 9/5 + 32, [°F] = 153 + 32, [°F] = 185

748. Which metric prefix is represented numerically by $10^{-3}$?
     • Deci-
     • Kilo-
     • Milli-
     • Centi-

     Correct answer: Milli-

     There are 20 accepted prefixes in the metric system. A prefix may be used to identify multiples of the original unit or fractions of the original unit. For example, kilo- denotes a multiple of a thousand, so there are one thousand meters in a kilometer. Milli- denotes a thousandth; therefore, there are one thousand millimeters in a meter. Milli- is one-thousandth of a number, so this means that it will have a value of $10^{-3}$. Kilo is on the opposite side ($10^{3}$). It is important to note that the kilogram is the only SI unit with a prefix as part of its name and symbol.

749. Which of the following is the metric system’s basic measure of distance?
     • Inch
     • Meter
     • Mile
     • Kilometer

     Correct answer: Meter

     Answer: meter. The International System of Units (SI, abbreviated from the French Système international) is the modern form of the metric system and is the most widely used system of measurement in the world. It comprises a system of units of measurement built on seven base units, which are: Unit | Symbol | Quantity; meter m length, second s time, kilogram kg mass, ampere A electric current, kelvin K temperature, mole mol amount of substance, candela cd luminous intensity (brightness). As you can see in the chart above, the metric system uses the meter as the base unit of length. The kilometer is an SI unit of length but is not the base unit. Inches and miles are used in the Imperial System of measurement. We rarely ever see these used in science.

750. Which of the following is the SI unit of length?
     • Kilometer
     • Inches
     • Meter
     • Feet

     Correct answer: Meter

     Answer: meter. The International System of Units (SI, abbreviated from the French Système international) is the modern form of the metric system and is the most widely used system of measurement in the world. It comprises a system of units of measurement built on seven base units, which are: Unit | Symbol | Quantity; meter m length, second s time, kilogram kg mass, ampere A electric current, kelvin K temperature, mole mol amount of substance, candela cd luminous intensity (brightness). As you can see in the chart above, the metric system uses the meter as the base unit of length/distance. The kilometer is an SI unit of length but is not the base unit. Note: the kilogram is the only base unit with a prefix. Inches and feet are used in the Imperial System of measurement. We rarely ever see these used in science.

751. Which of the following is the SI unit used to measure the amount of a substance?
     • Gram
     • Mole
     • Kilogram
     • Meter

     Correct answer: Mole

     Answer: Mole. The International System of Units (SI, abbreviated from the French Système international) is the modern form of the metric system and is the most widely used system of measurement in the world. It comprises a system of units of measurement built on seven base units, which are: Unit | Symbol | Quantity; meter m length, second s time, kilogram kg mass, ampere A electric current, kelvin K temperature, mole mol amount of substance, candela cd luminous intensity (brightness). As you can see in the chart above, the SI Unit to measure the amount of a substance is the mole and is generally used to represent atoms. The kilogram is the SI base unit of mass, while a meter is the SI base unit of length. A gram is an SI unit of mass, but note that it is not a base unit. The base unit for mass is the kilogram.

752. Which of the following Kelvin temperatures represents the freezing point of water?
     • -273.15 K
     • 273.15 K
     • 373.15 K
     • 0 K

     Correct answer: 273.15 K

     Answer: 273.15 K. Kelvin is the SI unit for temperature. 0 degrees Kelvin is known as Absolute Zero and is the point where all molecular movement stops. Note that this means Kelvin cannot be negative. To convert Celsius to Kelvin, we add 273.15. Since the freezing point of water is 0 degrees Celsius, we simply add 273.15 to 0. °K = °C + 273.15, °K = 0°C + 273.15, °K = 273.15. The boiling point of water is 100°C. This means that the boiling point of water in Kelvin would be: °K = °C + 273.15, °K = 100°C + 273.15, °K = 373.15

753. Which of the following best describes a cation?
     • An atom that has more neutrons than protons
     • An atom that has more electrons than protons
     • An atom with a negative charge
     • An atom that has more protons than electrons

     Correct answer: An atom that has more protons than electrons

     Answer: An atom that has more protons than electrons. An ion is an atom with a net positive or negative charge due to an unequal number of protons and electrons. More electrons than protons = negatively charged ion (this is called an anion). More protons than electrons = positively charged ion (this is called a cation). When there are a different number of protons and neutrons, this is called an isotope.

754. Which of the following best describes an ion?
     • A charged atom
     • An atom that does not react
     • A neutral atom
     • A pair of atoms with different mass numbers

     Correct answer: A charged atom

     Answer: A charged atom. An ion is an atom with a net positive or negative charge due to an unequal number of protons and electrons. More electrons than protons = negatively charged ion (this is called an anion). More protons than electrons = positively charged ion (this is called a cation).

755. Which of the following correctly defines the term isotope?
     • Atoms that have different numbers of neutrons, electrons, and protons.
     • Atoms with the same number of neutrons and electrons, but a different number of protons.
     • Atoms that have the same number of protons and neutrons, but a different number of electrons.
     • Atoms with the same number of protons and electrons, but a different number of neutrons.

     Correct answer: Atoms with the same number of protons and electrons, but a different number of neutrons.

     Answer: Atoms with the same number of protons and electrons, but a different number of neutrons. Isotopes have the same number of protons and electrons, but a different number of neutrons. Isotopes can be either natural or artificial. Many isotopes undergo radioactive decay because they are unstable.

756. Which of the following elements is a halogen?
     • Cl
     • Al
     • H
     • Ne

     Correct answer: Cl

     Answer: Cl. Halogens are located in group 17 of the periodic table, just to the left of the noble gases. Each of these atoms has 7 valence electrons. The halogens are fluorine (F), chlorine (Cl), bromine (Br), iodine (I), and astatine (At).

757. Which of the following elements is a non-metal?
     • Lithium
     • Chlorine
     • Lead
     • Zinc

     Correct answer: Chlorine

     Answer: Chlorine. The three broad categories of elements are metals, nonmetals, and metalloids. Most elements are metals. In general, metals are located on the left of the periodic table and non-metals are located on the right of the periodic table (with Hydrogen being an exception). Metalloids are make up the stair-shaped block of elements between metals and non-metals. Chlorine (Cl) is a non-metal. Properties of metals: metallic luster (shiny), high electrical and thermal conductivity, usually hard solids (mercury is liquid), usually ductile (capable of being drawn into a wire) and malleable (capable of being hammered into thin sheets), most have high melting points, readily lose electrons (low electron affinity) to create cations (a positively charged ion), low ionization energies (does not require a lot of energy to lose an electron). Properties of metalloids: metalloids have multiple forms, can be made to conduct electricity under special conditions (semiconductors), Properties of non-metals, usually poor conductors of heat and electricity, often liquids or gases at room temperature and pressure, lack metallic luster (not shiny), readily gain electrons (high electron affinity), high ionization energy (takes a lot of energy to lose an electron)

758. Which of the following exists as a diatomic element?
     • Xenon
     • Helium
     • Sodium
     • Chlorine

     Correct answer: Chlorine

     Answer: Chlorine. Diatomic elements are elements that exist in nature as two identical atoms bonded together. There are seven of them: H2, F2, N2, O2, Cl2, Br2, and I2. Here is a tip to remember the seven diatomic elements: I → Iodine, I2. Baked → Bromine, Br2, Cookies → Chlorine, Cl2, For → Fluorine, F2, Our → Oxygen, O2, New → Nitrogen, N2, Houseguests → Hydrogen, H2

759. Which of the following elements is a metal?
     • Neon
     • Bromine
     • Strontium
     • Helium

     Correct answer: Strontium

     Answer: Strontium. The three broad categories of elements are metals, nonmetals, and metalloids. Most elements are metals. In general, metals are located on the left of the periodic table and non-metals are located on the right of the periodic table (with Hydrogen being an exception). Metalloids are make up the stair-shaped block of elements between metals and non-metals. Strontium (Sr) is in group 2 and is part of the alkaline earth metals.

760. Which of the following occurs when ice melts?
     • None of these
     • Water molecules gain kinetic energy.
     • Water molecules lose kinetic energy.
     • The kinetic energy of water molecules does not change.

     Correct answer: Water molecules gain kinetic energy.

     Answer: Water molecules gain kinetic energy. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. As the ice melts, the water molecules move faster and gain more kinetic energy. This kinetic energy allows the water molecules to move farther and farther apart, eventually turning ice from a solid into a liquid.

761. Which of the following represents the original units for a concentration of a solution described as wt/wt%?
     • G/g
     • Mol/kg
     • G/mL
     • mL/g

     Correct answer: G/g

     Answer: g/g. wt/wt% represents “weight by weight percent.” Thus, both units in the percentage must be mass-related units. In the other options, only one of the units is mass.

762. Which of the following best describes a saturated solution?
     • An unstable solution where crystals form
     • A solution where more solute can dissolve
     • A solution that contains salt
     • A solution where no more solute can dissolve

     Correct answer: A solution where no more solute can dissolve

     Answer: A solution where no more solute can dissolve. A solution that is described as “saturated” has the maximum amount of solute dissolved in it. An unsaturated solution can still have more solute dissolved in it. A supersaturated solution contains more solute than could be dissolved by the solvent under normal circumstances.

763. When brass is created by mixing zinc and copper, what type of solution is created?
     • Liquid-liquid
     • Alloy
     • Emulsion
     • Compound

     Correct answer: Alloy

     Answer: Alloy. Alloys are created when a metal and another element (either another metal or a nonmetal) are combined. An emulsion is a mixture of two or more liquids that are normally immiscible (unmixable or unblendable). A compound is a molecule composed of two or more different elements.

764. What kind of bond would hold carbon and hydrogen together?
     • Ionic bond
     • Metallic bond
     • Covalent bond
     • Hydrogen bond

     Correct answer: Covalent bond

     Answer: Covalent bond. Although you might be tempted to say hydrogen bond for this answer, remember that hydrogen bonds are intermolecular forces and don’t hold molecules together. Covalent bonds are formed when electrons are shared between two atoms, like hydrogen and carbon. Although hydrogen and carbon are on opposite sides of the periodic table, hydrogen generally behaves as a nonmetal, like carbon.

765. What type of bond is formed when a bond’s electrons are equally shared?
     • Polar covalent bond
     • Ionic bond
     • Hydrogen bond
     • Nonpolar covalent bond

     Correct answer: Nonpolar covalent bond

     Answer: Nonpolar covalent bond. In covalent bonds, electrons are shared between the two atoms that participate in the bond. the In a polar covalent bond, the electrons are shared unequally, with more electrons being centered around the more electronegative element. In a non-polar bond, electrons are shared equally.

766. What type of bonding exists in $\ce{NaCl}$?
     • Isotopic
     • Stoic
     • Synthetic
     • Ionic

     Correct answer: Ionic

     Answer: Ionic. NaCl is an ionic compound, which consists of a metal (Na) and a nonmetal (Cl). In this type of compound, ionic bonds are formed between the two atoms where the metal completely donates its electrons to the nonmetal.

767. What type of reaction is shown below: $\ce{2C5H5 + Fe -> Fe(C5H5)2}$
     • Double displacement
     • Single displacement
     • Synthesis
     • Decomposition

     Correct answer: Synthesis

     Answer: Synthesis. Although it may look like a single displacement reaction at first, the reaction above is a synthesis reaction since two different reactants combine into a single product.

768. When methane ($\ce{CH4}$) is heated in the presence of oxygen, water and CO2 are produced. What type of reaction is this?
     • Synthesis
     • Decomposition
     • Combustion
     • Double replacement

     Correct answer: Combustion

     Answer: Combustion. Combustion occurs when a chemical (a hydrocarbon) is heated in the presence of oxygen. The products of this reaction are always carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O).

769. Which is the strongest intramolecular force?
     • Polar covalent bond
     • Ionic bonding
     • Metallic bonding
     • Nonpolar covalent bond

     Correct answer: Metallic bonding

     Answer: Metallic bonding. Metallic bonding occurs between metal atoms. In this type of bonding, the valence electrons of metals are delocalized and can move about the metal lattice. Metallic bonds exist in pure metals, like gold.

770. Which of the following is the oxidation number of magnesium in an ionic compound?
     • 1+
     • 2+
     • 1–

     Correct answer: 2+

     Answer: 2+. Magnesium is in Group 2 of the periodic table. These elements (called Alkaline Earth Metals) all carry a 2+ oxidation charge when in ionic compounds or in solution. This is because they prefer to lose two electrons in order to adopt the more stable electron configuration of their nearest noble gas. For Mg, this noble gas is Neon (Ne).

771. What is the oxidation number of oxygen?
     • 2–
     • 1–
     • 1+

     Correct answer: 2–

     Answer: 2– Oxygen is part of the Group 16 of the periodic table and carries a 2- charge. This is because it prefers to gain two electrons to form a full octet to adopt the electron configuration of the closest noble gas (Neon).

772. Which of the following does pH measure?
     • The strength of an acid
     • The concentration of hydrogen ions
     • Acid concentration
     • The concentration of hydroxide ions

     Correct answer: The concentration of hydrogen ions

     Answer: The concentration of hydrogen ions. This is a tricky question. pH is defined mathematically as -log[H+]. As you can see, it is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions. Although we use pH to determine the acidity of a solution, it does not give any indication as to the strength of an acid (that is what pka does).

773. Which of the following represents a normal blood pH level?
     • 14
     • 7.40
     • 7.0
     • 0

     Correct answer: 7.40

     Answer: 7.40 A person’s pH should fall within the range of 7.35 to 7.45. Numerous health issues could arise if the pH deviates from this narrow range, including tremors, fainting, paralysis, or even death. 7.0 is considered neutral pH, in general, but is not the pH for human blood.

774. Which of the following is emitted during beta decay?
     • Proton
     • Electron
     • Neutron
     • Nucleus

     Correct answer: Electron

     Answer: Electron, Beta particles are high-energy, high-speed electrons that are emitted from an atomic nucleus. Beta decay can also emit a positron, and this is called β+ decay.

775. What type of radiation produces a particle with no mass?
     • Gamma radiation
     • Beta radiation
     • Positron emission
     • Alpha radiation

     Correct answer: Gamma radiation

     Answer: Gamma radiation. Gamma radiation only produces a photon and energy during its decay. Since it has no mass, gamma radiation can travel much farther than alpha and beta radiation. Alpha radiation produces a helium nucleus and beta radiation produces an electron or a positron.

776. In a redox reaction, oxidation is the _______ of electrons and reduction is the _______ of electrons.
     • Loss, gain
     • Gain, loss
     • Gain, gain
     • Loss, loss

     Correct answer: Loss, gain

     Answer: loss, gain. In a redox reaction, oxidation is the loss of electrons, and reduction is the gain of electrons. A good way to remember this is OIL RIG: Oxidation Is Loss Reduction Is Gain

777. How many days will it take 128 kilograms of a radioactive substance to decay to 16 kilograms if it has a half-life of 32 days?
     • 48
     • 4
     • 3
     • 96

     Correct answer: 96

     Answer: 96 For a radioactive substance to decay from 128 kilograms to 16 kilograms, it must undergo 3 half-lives (128 → 64 → 32 → 16). When the half-life of a radioactive substance is 32 days, then 3 half-lives would equal 96 days (3 $\times$ 32 = 96).

778. Which of the options correctly shows the oxidation that occurs in the following reaction? $\ce{2Na + 2H2O -> 2NaOH + H2}$
     • $\text{O}^{2}$- to O°
     • $\text{O}^{2}$- to $\text{O}^{1}$- →
     • →H° to $\text{H}^{1}$+
     • Na° to $\text{Na}^{1}$+ →→

     Correct answer: Na° to $\text{Na}^{1}$+ →→

     Answer: Na° to $\text{Na}^{1}$+ →→ The oxidation state of Na in the reactants is 0. In the products, its oxidation number is 1+ (we can see this if we “break apart” the NaOH molecule into its constituent ions: Na+ and OH–). Therefore, Na has lost an electron, causing it to gain a more positive charge, and has been oxidized.

779. Which of the following pairs would result in an acid-base neutralization reaction?
     • $\ce{KOH + H2SO4}$
     • $\ce{NaOH + LiCl}$
     • $\ce{H2 + O2}$
     • $\ce{NaHCO3 + NaBr}$

     Correct answer: $\ce{KOH + H2SO4}$

     Answer: KOH + H2SO4 A neutralization reaction requires that both an acid and a base be present in the reaction. The only option above that contains both an acid and a base is KOH + H2SO4. NaHCO3 is a base, but NaBr is not an acid. NaOH is a base, but LiCl is just a salt. Neither H2 nor O2 is an acid or a base.

780. When ethylamine is added to water, it creates an alkaline solution. Which of option below would best represent the pH of this solution?
     • 5.0
     • 7.0
     • 1.5
     • 11.9

     Correct answer: 11.9

     Answer: 11.9 Alkaline solutions are basic solutions. Since basic solutions have pH values greater than 7, the best option for the pH of an ethylamine solution would be 11.9, since this is the only basic option listed.

781. What functional group do fatty acids contain?
     • Amine
     • Carboxylic acid
     • Hydrochloric acid
     • Phenols

     Correct answer: Carboxylic acid

     Answer: Carboxylic acid. The ‘acid’ portion of fatty acids comes from the presence of a carboxylic acid at one end of the fat. The other portion of the molecule is comprised of a linear hydrocarbon chain.

782. What are the two types of particles that can be emitted during beta decay?
     • Positron and electron
     • Proton and electron
     • Proton and neutron
     • Positron and neutron

     Correct answer: Positron and electron

     Answer: Positron and electron. Beta decay can occur in either β+, which produces a positron or β–, which produces an electron. A positron is the antimatter counterpart to an electron and has a +1 charge.

783. Which of the following orbits the nucleus of an atom?
     • Electron
     • Gamma particle
     • Proton
     • Neutron

     Correct answer: Electron

     Answer: Electron. An electron is a negatively charged particle that orbits the nucleus of an atom. Protons (positively-charged) and neutrons (neutral) are located in the nucleus that the electron orbits.

784. What does the atomic mass of an element represent?
     • The number of protons in one atom
     • The average mass of all isotopes of that element
     • The number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in one atom
     • The number of protons and neutrons in one atom

     Correct answer: The average mass of all isotopes of that element

     Answer: The average mass of all isotopes of that element. The atomic mass is the average mass of all isotopes of a particular element. It is approximately equal to the number of protons plus the number of neutrons in one atom. The atomic number is the number of protons in one atom.

785. Sucrose is an example of what type of carbohydrate?
     • Oligosaccharide
     • Disaccharide
     • Polysaccharide
     • Monosaccharide

     Correct answer: Disaccharide

     Answer: a. Disaccharide. Explanation: Disaccharides are formed when two monosaccharides are bonded together through a glycosidic bond. Sucrose is a disaccharide that is composed of glucose and fructose and has the chemical formula, C12H22O11.

786. Which of the following is the atomic number for the element francium?
     • 223
     • 88
     • 87
     • 348

     Correct answer: 87

     Answer: 87. The atomic number of francium (Fr) is 87, which represents the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of Fr. 223 amu is the atomic mass of Fr.

787. Which of the following is not a subatomic particle?
     • Ion
     • Proton
     • Electron
     • Neutron

     Correct answer: Ion

     Answer: Ions. Subatomic particles are located in and orbiting around the nucleus. They include protons, neutrons, and electrons. Together, these three particles determine the chemical identity and properties of an atom. Ions are atoms with either a positive or negative charge, meaning they have a different number of electrons than protons. More electrons than protons = a net negative charge (called an anion) Fewer electrons than protons = a net positive charge (called a cation)

788. An atom with 7 protons, 8 neutrons, and 10 electrons has which of the following charges?
     • -1
     • -3
     • 3

     Correct answer: -3

     Answer: -3 The charge of an atom is determined by the difference between its number of protons and electrons. To calculate the charge of an atom, we subtract the number of electrons from the number of protons. The result is the net charge of the atom. In this atom, there are 7 protons and 10 electrons. 7 – 10 = -3 Therefore, the atom’s net charge is -3. Note whenever there are more electrons than protons, the atom has a negative charge.

789. $\ce{H2O}$ is an example of which of the following:
     • Atom
     • Sub-atomic particle
     • Element
     • Compound

     Correct answer: Compound

     Answer: Compound. A compound is a molecule that is composed of two or more atoms from different elements. An atom is the smallest unit of an element, and an element is the purest form of a substance in nature. A sub-atomic particle is a division of an atom and include protons, neutrons, and electrons. H2O could also be described as a molecule, which is when two or more atoms combine.

790. Which of the following particles has a negative charge?
     • Proton
     • Neutron
     • Electron
     • Positron

     Correct answer: Electron

     Answer: Electron. Electrons are the negatively-charged particle that orbits an atom’s nucleus. A proton and positron are positively charged, and a neutron has no charge.

791. Which of the following phase transition describes the change from ice into steam?
     • Evaporation
     • Melting
     • Freezing
     • Sublimation

     Correct answer: Sublimation

     Answer: Sublimation. The transition in the question involves going directly from ice (a solid) into steam (a gas), without going through a transition to a liquid first. This is called sublimation. Freezing is going from a liquid to a solid. Melting is from a solid to a liquid. Evaporation is from a liquid to a gas.

792. Which of the states of matter have a definite volume?
     • Gas and liquid
     • Gas, liquid, and volume
     • Gas and solid
     • Liquid and solid

     Correct answer: Liquid and solid

     Answer: Liquid and solid. A solid has both a definite shape and volume. A liquid has a definite volume, but not a definite shape. A gas has neither a definite volume nor a definite shape.

793. Which of the following states of matter for a certain substance is generally the densest?
     • Liquid
     • Solid
     • Gas
     • All are equally dense.

     Correct answer: Solid

     Answer: Solid. Solids are generally the densest state of matter of any given substance. This is because the molecules in a solid do not have enough kinetic energy to move around. Liquids and gasses each have enough kinetic energy to move apart from each other, which reduces their density compared to a solid.

794. Which of the following states of matter take the shape of the container they are placed in?
     • Liquid and solid
     • Liquid and gas
     • Gas, liquid, and solid
     • Gas and solid

     Correct answer: Liquid and gas

     Answer: Liquid and gas. Liquids and gases can spread out to adopt the shape of whatever container they are placed into. A solid has a definite shape, so it will remain in its original shape no matter what container it is placed into.

795. What atom property determines if a bond is polar or non-polar?
     • Polarity
     • Electron affinity
     • Ionization energy
     • Electronegativity

     Correct answer: Electronegativity

     Answer: Electronegativity. The electronegativity of an atom is its ability to attract electrons to itself. If two atoms have the same electronegativity, the bond will be non-polar. If two atoms have very different electronegativities, the bond will be polar.

796. What state of matter are unsaturated fats at room temperature?
     • Gas
     • Solid
     • Liquid
     • Plasma

     Correct answer: Liquid

     Answer: Liquid. Unsaturated fats have alkenes in their fatty acid chain. The double bonds introduce bends in the long chains, which prevents the chains from packing efficiently. As a result, their melting points are much lower than saturated fats and are liquids at room temperature.

797. Scientific notation is used by scientists to write very large and very small numbers. Which option correctly represents the scientific notation of 0.000001846?
     • 18.46 $\times 10^{-5}$
     • 1.846 $\times 10^{-6}$
     • 1.846 $\times 10^{6}$
     • 1.846 $\times 10^{-5}$

     Correct answer: 1.846 $\times 10^{-6}$

     Answer: 1.846 $\times 10^{-6}$ Scientific notation is a way to write very large or very small numbers. This method of notation is useful to scientists when they are writing very large or very small numbers, so they don’t have to write so many zeroes! To convert from standard form to scientific notation: Move the decimal point until there is only one digit to the left of the decimal. 0.000001846 -> 0000001.846. Drop trailing zeroes, 0000001.846 -> 1.846. Append $\times$ 10e, where the “e” is the number of spaces you moved the decimal. We moved the decimal 6 spaces to get from 0.000001846 to 1.846 so our exponent will be 6. Double-check the sign of your exponent. If you moved the decimal to the left, your exponent will be positive. If you moved the decimal to the right, your exponent will be negative. Since we moved the decimal to the right, our exponent should be negative. So, 0.000001846 -> 1.846 $\times 10^{-6}$.

798. Which of the following describes a decomposition reaction?
     • Chemicals are burned in oxygen
     • Chemicals combine to form products
     • Chemicals switch ions
     • Chemicals are broken apart to form products

     Correct answer: Chemicals are broken apart to form products

     Answer: Chemicals are broken apart to form products. In a decomposition reaction, the reactants are broken down into their constituent parts. A synthesis reaction occurs when chemicals combine with each other. A combustion reaction occurs when chemicals are burned in oxygen. A displacement reaction occurs when ions switch places with one another.

799. Which intermolecular force is the strongest?
     • Dipole-dipole interactions
     • Ionic bonds
     • Dispersion forces
     • Hydrogen bonds

     Correct answer: Hydrogen bonds

     Answer: Hydrogen bonds. Intermolecular forces are interactions that occur between molecules in proximity to one another. Hydrogen bonds, the strongest intermolecular force, occur when hydrogen is bonded to an incredibly electronegative atom, such as oxygen or chlorine, from a neighboring molecule. Dipole-dipole interactions and dispersion forces are both types of intermolecular forces, but neither is stronger than a hydrogen bond. Ionic bonds are considered intramolecular forces.

800. Which element on the periodic table has 8 protons?
     • Carbon
     • Boron
     • Oxygen
     • Nitrogen

     Correct answer: Oxygen

     Answer: Oxygen. An atom’s identity is determined by the number of protons contained within its nucleus. On the periodic table, the atomic number represents the number of protons in an atom. Oxygen has an atomic number of 8, indicating that it has 8 protons.

801. Which element does the electron configuration $1s^2\,2s^2\,2p^4$ represent?
     • Nitrogen
     • Oxygen
     • Fluorine
     • Carbon

     Correct answer: Oxygen

     Answer: Oxygen. The electron configuration listed in the problem has 8 total electrons, as represented by the superscripts of each subshell (2 + 2 + 4 = 8). Assuming the charge of the atom is neutral, 8 electrons means this atom will also have 8 protons and, therefore, an atomic number of 8. So, the correct answer will be the element with atomic number 8, which is oxygen.

802. Which of the following subatomic particles are located in the nucleus?
     • Protons and neutrons
     • Positrons and electrons
     • Electrons and neutrons
     • Protons, neutrons, and electrons

     Correct answer: Protons and neutrons

     Answer: Protons and neutrons. The nucleus of an atom is composed of protons (+) and neutrons (neutral charge). Electrons (-) orbit the nucleus of the atom.

803. What is 540 Kelvin in degrees Celsius?
     • 713.15 °C
     • 266.85 °C
     • 813.15°C
     • 366.85 °C

     Correct answer: 266.85 °C

     Answer: 266.85 °C. The equation to convert from Kelvin to Celsius is °K = °C + 273.15. We can plug in the Kelvin value we are provided in the problem and solve: 540 = °C + 273.15, 540 – 273.15 = °C + 273.15 – 273.15, 266.85 = °C

804. What is the other name for the metric system?
     • International System of Units
     • The Official Measurement System
     • The Imperial System
     • The English System

     Correct answer: International System of Units

     Answer: International System of Units. The metric system is called the International System of Units, but you’ll often just see it abbreviated as “SI units.” It is the most widely-used measurement system around the world. It comprises a system of units of measurement built on seven base units, which are: Unit | Symbol | Quantity: meter m length, second s time, kilogram kg mass, ampere A electric current, kelvin K temperature, mole mol amount of substance, candela cd luminous intensity (brightness). The Imperial System of measurement is what is used in the United States. Examples of Imperial System units would be feet, miles, yards. We rarely ever see the Imperial System used in science.

805. Which of the following is correct?
     • 273.15 Kelvin = 100 degrees Celsius
     • 0 kelvin = 32 degrees Celsius
     • 0 Kelvin = -273.15 degrees Celsius
     • 100 Kelvin = 0 degrees Celsius

     Correct answer: 0 Kelvin = -273.15 degrees Celsius

     Answer: 0 Kelvin = -273.15 degrees Celsius. The temperature T in Kelvin (K) is equal to the temperature T in degrees Celsius (°C) plus 273.15: °K = °C + 273.15. We can plug in our numbers to double check: 0°K = -273.15°C + 273.15. Remeber Kelvin is always 273.15 more than Celsius.

806. An oxidizing agent does which of the following?
     • Loses electrons
     • Reduces another chemical
     • Oxidizes another chemical
     • Is oxidized by the reducing agent

     Correct answer: Oxidizes another chemical

     Answer: Oxidizes another chemical. An oxidizing agent is a substance that oxidizes another substance. The oxidizing agent itself is reduced, which means that it gains electrons. The reducing agent is responsible for reducing another chemical.

807. The mass of a grain of sand is 1.672 $\times 10^{-4}$ kg. Express this number in standard notation.
     • 0.0001672 kg
     • 0.00001672 kg
     • 1,672 kg
     • 1,672,000 kg

     Correct answer: 0.0001672 kg

     Answer: 0.0001672 kg. Scientific notation is a way to write very large or very small numbers. This method of notation is useful to scientists when they are writing very large or very small numbers, so they don’t have to write so many zeroes! To convert from scientific notation to standard notation, look at the exponent: The value of the exponent tells you how many spaces to move the decimal. Since the value of the exponent in 1.672 $\times 10^{-4}$ is 4, this tells us we will need to move the decimal 4 spaces. The sign of the exponent tells you which direction we are going. A positive exponent tells us to move the decimal to the right. A negative decimal tells us to move the decimal to the left. Since the sign of the exponent in 1.672 $\times 10^{-4}$ is negative, this means we will be moving the decimal to the left. So, since the exponent is negative and has a value of 4, so we just need to move the decimal 4 places to the left to arrive at the answer, 0.0001672.

808. Which is the reducing agent in the following reaction? $\ce{HNO3 + HI -> NO + I2 + H2O}$
     • I
     • O
     • N
     • H

     Correct answer: I

     Answer: I In the reactants, I has an oxidation state of 1-, while it is in the 0 oxidation state in the products. This means it has lost an electron and been oxidized to become less negative. The substance that is oxidized in a redox reaction is by definition the reducing agent.

809. On which of the following temperature scales can a negative number not exist?
     • Joule
     • Fahrenheit
     • Kelvin
     • Celsius

     Correct answer: Kelvin

     Answer: Kelvin. The Kelvin temperature scale is an absolute temperature scale, meaning its lowest value is zero. 0°K is known as “absolute zero,” where all molecular motion stops. Joule isn’t a measurement of temperature at all (it is a measurement of energy), while Fahrenheit and Celsius both allow for negative temperature values.

810. Which of the following is not likely to have a dipole?
     • Nonpolar compound
     • Salt
     • Polar compound
     • Ionic compound

     Correct answer: Nonpolar compound

     Answer: Nonpolar compound. A dipole occurs when there is an unequal sharing of electrons between two atoms in a molecule. In the dipole, there will be both a partially – positive and a partially-negative side. The more electronegative atom will be on the partially-negative side since it will be able to attract more electrons to itself.

811. What does the mass number of an atom represent?
     • Protons, electrons, and neutrons
     • Protons and neutrons
     • Protons and electrons
     • Protons

     Correct answer: Protons and neutrons

     Answer: Protons and neutrons. An atom’s mass number represents the total number of protons and neutrons contained within that atom. The atomic number represents the number of protons of the atom.

812. When a chemist dips a piece of blue litmus paper into a solution, no color change is observed. Why?
     • The solution is acidic
     • The solution is basic
     • pH is less than 7
     • The pH paper is too old

     Correct answer: The solution is basic

     Answer: The solution is basic When placed into an acid solution, blue litmus paper turns red. When it is placed into a basic solution, the color of the pH paper does not change at all. Therefore, we can assume that the solution is basic.

813. How many electrons does a neutral atom of nitrogen have?
     • 5
     • 7
     • 8
     • 6

     Correct answer: 7

     Answer: 7The atomic number of nitrogen is 7, which means it has 7 protons. In a neutral atom, the number of protons equals the number of electrons. Therefore, a neutral atom of nitrogen has 7 electrons.

814. If a solution is neutral, where would its pH lie?
     • Below 7.0
     • Above 7.0
     • 7.0

     Correct answer: 7.0

     Answer:7.0 A pH value of 7 is considered to be neutral. Values below 7 are acidic and values above 7 are basic. Although it may seem like 0 would be a neutral value, a value of 0 is an acidic pH.

815. Which of the following represents the correct electron configuration for sodium (Na)?
     • $1s^2\,2s^2\,2p^6$
     • 2s1 2s2
     • $2s^2\,2p^6\,3s^1$
     • $1s^2\,2s^2\,2p^6\,3s^1$

     Correct answer: $1s^2\,2s^2\,2p^6\,3s^1$

     Answer:1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1. Sodium has an atomic number of 11. This means sodium has 11 protons and 11 electrons when it is neutral. The superscripts of the electron configurations indicate the number of electrons that are in each subshell. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 is the only option where the superscripts total 11.

816. Cesium-137 has a half-life of 30 years. If a 2.0 g sample of cesium-137 decays over 120 years, how much would remain?
     • 1.4 g
     • 0.5 g
     • 0.125 g
     • 0.25 g

     Correct answer: 0.125 g

     Answer: 0.125 g. Since cesium-137 has a half-life of 30 years, this means that half of the sample will disappear every 30 years. Over a period of 120 years, cesium-137 will undergo 4 half-lives (120/30 = 4). So, to get the final answer, we divide 2.0g in half four times: 30 years: 2 $\div$ 2 = 1, 60 years: 1 $\div$ 2 = 0.5, 90 years: 0.5 $\div$ 2 = 0.25, 120 years: 0.25 $\div$ 2 = 0.125. So after 120 years, only 0.125 g would remain.

817. The half-life of As-81 is 33 seconds. If only 12.5 g of a 100.0 g sample of As-81 is left, how long did it take for the original sample to decay to its current mass?
     • 16.5 s
     • 33 s
     • 66 s
     • 99 s

     Correct answer: 99 s

     Answer: 99 s We first need to determine how many half-lives have occurred to create a mass of 12.5 g from the original 100 g sample. 100 → 50 → 25 → 12.5. This means that three half-lives have occurred. Since each half-life is 33 seconds, multiply 33 by 3 to obtain 99 seconds as the time it has taken for the As-81 to decay.

818. Which of the following is located in Group 2 of the periodic table?
     • Hydrogen
     • Neon
     • Barium
     • Lithium

     Correct answer: Barium

     Answer: Barium. Groups and periods are two ways of categorizing elements in the periodic table. Periods are horizontal rows (across) the periodic table, while groups are vertical columns (down) the table. Atomic number (the number of protons in an atom of an element) increases as you move down a group or across a period. Elements in Group 2 include beryllium, magnesium, calcium, strontium, barium, and radium.

819. If a fat has more than one double bond, what is it called?
     • Polyunsaturated
     • Trans fat
     • Monounsaturated
     • Saturated

     Correct answer: Polyunsaturated

     Answer: Polyunsaturated. ‘Unsaturation’ refers to double bonds in the hydrocarbon chain of the fat. When only one double bond is present, the fat is called ‘monounsaturated.’ When more than one double bond is present, the fat is called ‘polyunsaturated.’ When no double bonds are present, the fat is called ‘saturated.’

820. How many neutrons does 58Cr have?
     • 35
     • 34
     • 36
     • 58

     Correct answer: 34

     Answer: 34. 58Cr (also written as Chromium-58) is an isotope of the element Chromium. An isotope is an atom with the same number of protons and electrons, but a different number of neutrons. The 58 in 58Cr indicates the atomic mass of that particular isotope, which is the number of protons + the number of neutrons in a single atom. Since chromium has an atomic number of 24 we know that chromium has 24 protons. We can subtract the 24 protons from the total atomic mass (58) to get the number of neutrons: 58 – 24 = 34

821. How many total amino acids are needed for the human body to produce all the proteins it needs?
     • 11
     • 10
     • 9
     • 20

     Correct answer: 20

     Answer: 20 Amino acids, which contain an amine and a carboxylic acid, are needed by the body to produce proteins. There are 20 amino acids that the body needs for protein synthesis, and they are grouped into two categories: essential and non-essential.

822. Which of the following elements is located in period 2 of the periodic table?
     • Oxygen
     • Hydrogen
     • Helium
     • Magnesium

     Correct answer: Oxygen

     Answer: Oxygen. Groups and periods are two ways of categorizing elements in the periodic table. Periods are horizontal rows (across) the periodic table, while groups are vertical columns (down) the table. Atomic number (the number of protons in an atom of an element) increases as you move down a group or across a period. Period 2 contains lithium (Li), beryllium (Be), boron (B), carbon (C), nitrogen (N), oxygen (O), fluorine (F), and neon (Ne).

823. Which element is located in both Group 2 and Period 4?
     • Potassium
     • Magnesium
     • Calcium
     • Barium

     Correct answer: Calcium

     Answer: Calcium. Groups and periods are two ways of categorizing elements in the periodic table. Periods are horizontal rows (across) the periodic table, while groups are vertical columns (down) the table. Atomic number (the number of protons in an atom of an element) increases as you move down a group or across a period. Calcium is in Group 2 (the second column from the left) and Period 4 (fourth row down).

824. What is 6,987,000 in scientific notation?
     • 6.987 $\times 10^{5}$
     • 6.987 $\times 10^{6}$
     • 0.6987 $\times 10^{7}$
     • 69.87 $\times 10^{5}$

     Correct answer: 6.987 $\times 10^{6}$

     Answer: 6.987 $\times 10^{6}$. Scientific notation is a way to write very large or very small numbers. This method of notation is useful to scientists when they are writing very large or very small numbers, so they don’t have to write so many zeroes! To convert from standard form to scientific notation: Move the decimal point until there is only one digit to the left of the decimal. 6,987,000 -> 6.987000. Drop trailing zeroes, 6.987000 -> 6.987. Append $\times$ 10e, where the “e” is the number of spaces you moved the decimal. We moved the decimal 6 spaces to get from 6,987,000 to 6.987 so our exponent will be 6. Double-check the sign of your exponent. If you moved the decimal to the left, your exponent will be positive. If you moved the decimal to the right, your exponent will be negative. Since we moved the decimal to the left, our exponent should be positive. So, 6,987,000 -> 6.987 $\times 10^{6}$

825. Which of the following comprise an ionic compound?
     • Electron and quark
     • Cation and anion
     • Anion and neutron
     • Cation and proton

     Correct answer: Cation and anion

     Answer: Cation and anion. An ionic compound is composed of a metal and a nonmetal. The metal is typically the cation and is positively-charged. The non-metal is typically the anion and is negatively-charged. A common example of an ionic compound is table salt, sodium chloride (NaCl).

826. How many protons does the element xenon (Xe) have?
     • 54
     • 18
     • 55
     • 53

     Correct answer: 54

     Answer: 54 The atomic number of xenon is 54, which represents its number of protons. In a neutral atom, this is also the number of electrons.

827. What are the three main components of a number that is expressed in scientific notation?
     • Significant digit, mathematical sign, and exponential
     • Mathematical sign, root, and exponential
     • Mathematical sign, significand, and exponential
     • Exponential, logarithm, and mathematical sign

     Correct answer: Mathematical sign, significand, and exponential

     Answer: Mathematical sign, significand, and exponential. The mathematical sign (+ or -), the significand (the base value of the number), and the exponential (a multiplier in powers of 10) are the components of a number that is expressed in scientific notation. This method of notation is useful to scientists when they are writing very large or very small numbers, so they don’t have to write so many zeroes!

828. Why does increasing the surface area of reactants or catalysts increase the rate of a reaction?
     • It reduces the amount of precipitate that is formed during the reaction.
     • It introduces charges on the surface of the particles, which makes them more reactive.
     • It increases the likelihood of molecules encountering one another.
     • The activation energy of the reaction is lowered.

     Correct answer: It increases the likelihood of molecules encountering one another.

     Answer: It increases the likelihood of molecules encountering one another. Increased surface area increases the opportunity for reactants to collide with one another. The more surface area that something possesses, the more sites it has available to react.

829. What is the percent concentration of benzene in a solution containing 59 mL of benzene and 150 mL toluene?
     • 56.4 %
     • 14.1 %
     • 28.2 %
     • 39.3 %

     Correct answer: 28.2 %

     Answer: 28.2 %. In order to get this answer, we need to first divide the volume of benzene (59 mL) by the total volume of the solution ( 59 + 150 = 209 mL). 59 $\div$ 209 = 0.282. We then multiply by 100 to convert the decimal in a percent 0.282 $\times$ 100 = 28.2%.

830. Which of the following best describes what occurs when an equilibrium is established in a reaction?’
     • The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
     • The catalyst is fully consumed, terminating the reaction.
     • All reagents have been consumed.
     • All products have precipitated from the solution.

     Correct answer: The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.

     Answer: The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction. When equilibrium is established, reactants and products are being formed at an equal rate, so the reactants are creating the same number of products as the products are creating reactants. Note: this does NOT mean that the overall amounts of reactants and products are equal.

831. What is the name given to a negatively-charged atom?
     • Anion
     • Cation
     • Isotope
     • Ion

     Correct answer: Anion

     Answer: Anion. An ion is an atom with a net positive or negative charge due to an unequal number of protons and electrons. More electrons than protons = negatively charged ion (this is called an anion). More protons than electrons = positively charged ion (this is called a cation). When there are a different number of protons and neutrons, this is called an isotope.

832. Which of the following is a positively-charged atom?
     • Anion
     • Protons
     • Ion
     • Cation

     Correct answer: Cation

     Answer: Cation. A cation is a positively-charged ion. In ionic compounds, cations combine with negatively-charged anions to form the compound. Protons, while positively-charged, are a subatomic particle and are not an atom or ion.

833. How many moles of LiOH are in 500 mL of a 1.50 M $\ce{LiOH}$ solution?
     • 3.0 moles LiOH
     • 0.75 moles LiOH
     • 2.25 moles LiOH
     • 0.375 moles LiOH

     Correct answer: 0.75 moles LiOH

     Answer: 0.75 moles LiOH. We need to perform two calculations here. In the first, we convert the 500 mL to liters since the units of molarity are mol/L. To do that, we just divide the number of mL by 1,000 to get 0.500 L. Then, we multiply this number by the molarity so that L cancels out and we are left with moles, as shown below: 0.500 L X 1.50 mol/L = 0.75 mol LiOH.

834. Which species is the oxidizing agent in the following reaction? $\ce{Mg + 2HCl -> MgCl2 + H2}$
     • Mg0 to Mg2+
     • H1+ to H0
     • Cl1- to Cl2-
     • Cl0 to Cl2-

     Correct answer: H1+ to H0

     Answer: H1+ to H0. The oxidizing agent is the chemical species that oxidizes another chemical. The oxidizing agent itself is reduced. This means it has gained electrons. H0 has one more electron than H+, so it has been reduced.

835. Elements in the modern periodic table are arranged by increasing what?
     • Atomic number
     • Atomic radius
     • Atomic mass
     • Number of electrons

     Correct answer: Atomic number

     Answer: Atomic number. Elements are arranged from left to right and top to bottom in order of increasing atomic number, which is the number of protons in an atom of that element. Atomic mass is the mass of an atom, which is calculated by adding the number of protons and the number of neutrons. Although the periodic table is not organized by atomic radius, there are predictable trends on the radius (size) of an atom based on its location on the periodic table. In general, the atomic radius increases as you go up and to the right of the periodic table. Other predictable trends include: ionization energy: how much energy it takes for an element to lose an electron/ how much energy it takes to become a positive ion, electron affinity: how easy it is for an element to gain an electron/ how easy it is to become a negative ion

836. In a chemical equation, what do (aq), (l), (g), and (s) represent?
     • Products
     • States of matter
     • Reactants
     • Solubility of reactants

     Correct answer: States of matter

     Answer: States of matter. The information in parenthesis next to reactants and products in a chemical equation represent the state of matter that the chemical exists in during the reaction. Chemicals can be present as a liquid (l), solid (s), or gas (g). They can also be aqueous (aq), which means that the chemical is ionized in water during the reaction.

837. If a temperature were to decrease by 100 Kelvins, how much would this temperature decrease on the Celsius scale?
     • 37 degrees Celsius
     • 273 degrees Celsius
     • 0 degrees Celsius
     • 100 degrees Celsius

     Correct answer: 100 degrees Celsius

     Answer: 100 degrees Celsius. The Kelvin scale is an extension of the Celsius scale, so the same magnitude of decrease on the Kelvin scale will result in the same decrease on the Celsius scale. Another way of look at this is that Kelvin is always 273.15 more than Celsius. So, if there is a 100-degree decrease in Celsius, there will also be a decrease of 100 Kelvins. The Kelvin scale is a scale of temperature with absolute zero as zero degrees. Absolute zero is where all molecular movement stops. Absolute zero (0 K) is equivalent to −273.15 °C.

838. Which of the following correctly states Le Chatlier’s principle?
     • A system in equilibrium cannot be disturbed by an outside influence.
     • When a system in equilibrium is disturbed, the system will adjust to counteract this disturbance.
     • As the amount of a catalyst is increased, the rate of a reaction will also increase.
     • Changes to a system in equilibrium are indicated by a color change in the reaction.

     Correct answer: When a system in equilibrium is disturbed, the system will adjust to counteract this disturbance.

     Answer: When a system in equilibrium is disturbed, the system will adjust to counteract this disturbance. Many chemical reactions are irreversible, permanently changing one substance into another. However, some chemical reactions are reversible, and we can take the products of the reaction and turn them back into the reactants. These reversible reactions can, under certain conditions, reach what we call equilibrium. Equilibrium is the state in which reactants are forming products at the same rate as products are forming reactants. Le Chatlier’s principle is often used to predict the effect that a change in conditions will have on a system in equilibrium. Changes such as temperature, volume, concentration, and pressure are known to affect the position of the equilibrium.

839. If a certain reversible reaction was at equilibrium, what would happen to this equilibrium if more reactants were added?
     • The reaction would heat up.
     • Nothing since the reaction is in equilibrium.
     • The position of the equilibrium would shift to form more reactants.
     • The equilibrium would shift to form more products.

     Correct answer: The equilibrium would shift to form more products.

     Answer: The equilibrium would shift to form more products. LeChatlier’s principle states that any disturbance to a system in equilibrium will result in the system adjusting itself to counteract the effect of this disturbance. If more reactants are added, the reaction system will shift the relative amounts of products and reactants to form more products to offset the extra reactants that were added.

840. Calculate the molarity of a solution that contains 2.5 moles in 195 liters
     • 0.013 M
     • 1.865 M
     • 0.231 M
     • 0.019 M

     Correct answer: 0.013 M

     Answer: 0.013 M. Molarity is defined as moles of solute divided by liters of solution and has units of mol/L. To get this answer, you just divide the number of moles by the volume in liters: 2.5 mol/195L = 0.013 M.

841. A chemist wants to make 5 L of a solution of $\ce{NaCl}$ that has a molarity of 0.5. How many moles of NaCl do they need?
     • 25 moles
     • 1.25 moles
     • 2.5 moles
     • 5.0 moles

     Correct answer: 2.5 moles

     Answer: 2.5 moles. In this problem, we are given the desired concentration and the volume, and we need to find the number of moles. molarity x volume = moles. So, to get the number of moles, we just need to multiply the solution concentration by the volume, like this: 0.5 M x 5 L = 2.5 moles

842. How many neutrons are in germanium-62?
     • 32
     • 30
     • 62
     • 31

     Correct answer: 30

     Answer: 30. Germanium-62 (also written as 62Ge) is an isotope of the element Germanium. An isotope is an atom with the same number of protons and electrons, but a different number of neutrons. The 62 in Germanium-62 indicates the atomic mass of that particular isotope, which is the number of protons + the number of neutrons in a single atom. Since Germanium’s atomic number is 32 we know that Germanium has 32 protons. We can subtract the 32 protons from the total atomic mass (62) to get the number of neutrons: 62 – 32 = 30

843. Normal body temperature is considered to be 98.6oF. What is the normal body temperature in degrees Celsius?
     • 100° C
     • 32° F
     • 21° C
     • 37° C

     Correct answer: 37° C

     Answer: 37 degrees C. To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, use the formula C = (F - 32) x 5/9. Substitute the body temperature: C = (98.6 - 32) x 5/9 = 66.6 x 5/9 = 37 degrees C. So normal body temperature, 98.6 degrees F, equals 37 degrees C.

844. Which of the options correctly shows the reduction that occurs in the following reaction? $\ce{Fe + 3O2 -> 2Fe2O3}$
     • Fe° to $\text{Fe}^{3}$+
     • O° to $\text{O}^{2}$-
     • Fe° to $\text{Fe}^{2}$+
     • O° to $\text{O}^{1}$-

     Correct answer: O° to $\text{O}^{2}$-

     Answer: O° to $\text{O}^{2}$- The oxidation state of O in the reactants is 0, and in the products, it is 2- (Fe2O3 ions: Fe3+ and O2-). This means it has gained two electrons, which is termed reduction. The oxidation that occurs is with Fe0 to Fe3+, since Fe lost electrons to become more positive.

845. Which of the following options correctly shows the products between the acid-base reaction between NaOH and HCl?
     • HCl + H2O
     • NaHCO3 + H2O
     • $\ce{NaCl + H2O}$
     • NaOH + H2O

     Correct answer: $\ce{NaCl + H2O}$

     Answer: NaCl + H2O. When acids and bases neutralize each other, they form a salt and water. The OH from the base and the H from the acid combine to form water (H2O). The Na from the base and the Cl from the acid combine to form NaCl.

846. Which of the following is not a property of an acid?
     • Compounds that taste sour
     • Compounds that turn blue litmus paper red
     • Compounds that are corrosive to metals
     • Compounds that are proton acceptors

     Correct answer: Compounds that are proton acceptors

     Answer: Compounds that are proton acceptors. Acids tend to taste sour (think of citric acid in lemons), and they corrode metals if they are concentrated enough. They also turn blue litmus paper red. However, acids donate protons, not accept them.

847. F-21 has a half-life of 5 seconds. How long will it take a 50 g sample of F-21 to decay to a mass of 12.5 g?
     • 10s
     • 15s
     • 20s
     • 25s

     Correct answer: 10s

     Answer: 10 s The number of half-lives needed for 50 g to decay to 12.5 g is 2. 50 → 25 → 12.5. Therefore, you just multiply 5 seconds by 2 to get 10s as the amount of time it took for this mass to decay.

848. Which of the following shows a synthesis reaction?
     • AB + DC → AD + BC
     • AB → A+ + B-
     • $\ce{A + B -> AB}$
     • $\ce{AB -> A + B}$

     Correct answer: $\ce{A + B -> AB}$

     Answer: $\ce{A + B -> AB}$. In a synthesis reaction, two different chemicals are combined into a product. The opposite of this reaction is a decomposition reaction, where a chemical breaks apart. Synthesis is the most important type of chemical reaction and is used to make a variety of chemicals.

849. What percentage of an original sample of iodine-131 will remain after 64 days if iodine-131 has a half-life of 8 days?
     • 6.25 %
     • 12.5 %
     • 25%
     • 0.39 %

     Correct answer: 0.39 %

     Answer: 0.39% First, determine the number of half-lives that will occur over a 64-day period. Do this by dividing the 64-day period by the 8-day half-life. 64 $\div$ 8 = 8. This tells us that there will be 8 half-lives during this 64 day period. The half-life of a substance is the time it takes for that substance to decay. After each half-life, half of the starting amount will have decayed. In this case, every 8 days, half of the amount of iodine-131 decays. Since this problem doesn’t give us a starting amount and instead, asks us to find the percentage, we can start by plugging in 100g as the starting amount. This way, the ending amount will automatically give us the percentage that’s left, because it is already out of 100. For each half-life, we divide the starting amount in half, like this: Half-life: 1 100 → 50, Half-life: 2 50 → 25, Half-life: 3 25 → 12.5, Half-life: 4 12.5 → 6.25, Half-life: 5 6.25 → 3.125, Half-life: 6 3.125 → 1.5625, Half-life: 7 1.5625 → 0.78125, Half-life: 8 0.78125 → 0.390625. The ending amount is 0.39g out of 100g that we started with. Therefore, the remaining amount after 8 half-lives (64 days) is 0.39% of the starting amount.

850. Which of the following represents the general form of a decomposition reaction?
     • $\ce{AB -> A + B}$
     • $\ce{AB + CD -> AD + BC}$
     • $\ce{AB + C -> AC + B}$
     • $\ce{A + O2 -> H2O + CO2}$

     Correct answer: $\ce{AB -> A + B}$

     Answer: $\ce{AB -> A + B}$. A decomposition reaction occurs when a compound breaks apart to form its constituent atoms. It looks like this: $\ce{AB -> A + B}$. A combustion reaction occurs when fuel and oxygen yield water and carbon dioxide. $\ce{A + O2 -> H2O + CO2}$. A single replacement reaction occurs when one element replaces another in a single compound. $\ce{AB + C -> AC + B}$. A double replacement reaction (also called a metathesis reaction) occurs when the cations and anions switch between two reactants to form new products. $\ce{AB + CD -> AD + BC}$

851. Glycosidic bonds are found in what type of molecules?
     • Monosaccharides
     • Polysaccharides
     • Proteins
     • Amino acids

     Correct answer: Polysaccharides

     Answer: Polysaccharides. Polysaccharides are monosaccharides that are linked together through covalent bonds called glycosidic bonds. These bonds can be hydrolyzed to break down the polysaccharide into its constituent monosaccharide or oligosaccharides.

852. Which of the following types of chemicals participates in a double replacement reaction?
     • Molecular compounds
     • Elements
     • Ionic compounds
     • Diatomic molecules

     Correct answer: Ionic compounds

     Answer: Ionic compounds. A double replacement reaction is represented by the general reaction diagram $\ce{AB + CD -> AB + BD}$. The reactants are two ionic compounds, and two different ions switch places with each other to form two new ionic compounds in the products. Elemental metals can participate in single replacement reactions.

853. What type of electrons participate in chemical bonds?
     • Auger electrons
     • Valence electrons
     • Core electrons
     • Inner shell electrons

     Correct answer: Valence electrons

     Answer: Valence electrons. Valence electrons occupy the outermost shell of electrons and have the highest energy of an atom’s electrons. Core (inner shell) electrons do not participate in bonding.

854. Glycogen is composed of which of the following sugars?
     • Fructose
     • Sucrose
     • Glucose
     • Dextrose

     Correct answer: Glucose

     Answer: Glucose. Glycogen is the body’s way of storing excess glucose until it is needed. Since many different glucose molecules comprise glycogen, it is considered to be a polysaccharide. When energy is needed, the body releases glycogen so that glucose can be metabolized.

855. What generally happens to a reaction when the temperature increases?
     • The reaction rate decreases.
     • The reaction rate increases.
     • Temperature generally has no effect on the rate of a reaction.
     • A precipitate usually forms.

     Correct answer: The reaction rate increases.

     Answer: The reaction rate increases. Increasing the temperature in a reaction generally results in an increase in the reaction rate. This is because the molecules in the reaction have greater kinetic energy when the temperature is higher, which allows them to collide with each other more frequently. This increases the likelihood that a reaction will occur.

856. Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?
     • Cellulose
     • Starches
     • Glucose
     • Glycogen

     Correct answer: Glucose

     Answer: Glucose. Polysaccharides are carbohydrates where more than one monosaccharide is bonded together. Since glucose is only one molecule, it is a monosaccharide (also called a ‘simple sugar’). Examples of polysaccharides include starch and cellulose.

857. A certain isotope of manganese has 25 protons, 17 neutrons, and 25 electrons. What is the correct name for this isotope?
     • Manganese-67
     • Manganese-42
     • Manganese-50
     • Manganese-17

     Correct answer: Manganese-42

     Answer: Manganese-42. If an atom has a different number of neutrons than protons, it is called an isotope. The correct way to identify an isotope is by its mass number, which is the number of protons and neutrons. Since this isotope of manganese has 25 protons and 17 neutrons, it is called manganese-42. We can also write manganese-42 as 42Mn.

858. What is meant by the phrase “the equilibrium lies far to the right”?
     • The reaction has gone to completion.
     • The equilibrium has been destroyed.
     • The equilibrium greatly favors the reactants.
     • The equilibrium greatly favors the products.

     Correct answer: The equilibrium greatly favors the products.

     Answer: The equilibrium greatly favors the products. In equilibrium, almost all the reactants are consumed in the reaction to produce products. If we were to take a sample of this reaction, we would find almost no reactants remaining. However, since the reverse reaction is still occurring, we cannot say that this reaction has gone to completion.

859. If necessary, use the periodic table to answer the following question. Click here to open the periodic table in a new tab. How many elements are in period 3 of the periodic table?
     • 4
     • 10
     • 3
     • 8

     Correct answer: 8

     Answer: 8 Periods are the rows of the periodic table and are numbered increasing from top to bottom. Period 3 contains 8 elements: sodium, magnesium, aluminum, silicon, phosphorous, sulfur, chlorine, and argon. The columns of the periodic table are called groups.

860. What are the units of molarity?
     • Mol/L
     • G/L
     • Kg/L
     • G/mL

     Correct answer: Mol/L

     Answer: mol/L Molarity describes the concentration of a solution in terms of the number of moles of a solute per liter of solvent. The other options describe concentration in terms of mass.

861. Which of the following is an intramolecular force?
     • Dipole-dipole interactions
     • Hydrogen bonding
     • Covalent bonds
     • Dispersion forces

     Correct answer: Covalent bonds

     Answer: Covalent bonds. ntramolecular forces hold different atoms together in a molecule. Intramolecular forces are much stronger than intermolecular forces, which are attractions between different molecules. Ionic bonds, covalent bonds, and metallic bonds are all intramolecular forces. Hydrogen bonds are a type of intermolecular force, where the hydrogen atom is bonded to an electromagnetic atom (such as oxygen) of a different molecule.

862. What is the molarity of an aqueous solution with 0.40 moles of sugar dissolved in 5 liters of water?
     • 0.08 M
     • 8.0 M
     • 0.04 M
     • 800.0 M

     Correct answer: 0.08 M

     Answer: 0.08 M Molarity is defined as moles of solute divided by liters of solution and has units of mol/L. To get this answer, you just divide the number of moles by the volume in liters: 0.40 mol/5 L = 0.08 M

863. Use the periodic table to answer the following question, if needed. What is the identity of an atom with 24 protons, 30 neutrons, and 24 electrons?
     • Zinc
     • Xenon
     • Chromium
     • Vanadium

     Correct answer: Chromium

     Answer: Chromium. An atom’s identity is determined solely by its number of protons, which is also its atomic number. The atom in this problem has 24 protons, so it is the element with atomic number 24 on the periodic table, chromium (Cr).

864. Which plane divides the body into left and right sides?
     • Coronal
     • Frontal
     • Sagittal
     • Transverse

     Correct answer: Sagittal

     Sagittal. A sagittal plane is a vertical plane that runs from the front to the back, dividing the body into left and right sides. If a sagittal plane runs through the midline, it is called a median plane.A coronal plane (also called a frontal plane) is a vertical plane that divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior) sections. Cuts through the sagittal and frontal (coronal) planes produce longitudinal sections. Both of them run through the long axis of the body. A transverse plane is a horizontal plane that divides the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) parts. Cuts through the transverse plane produce cross-sections. PLANES: Sagittal - Left and right portions, Median (through the midline) - Left and right portions, Coronal/ Frontal - Front and back portions, Transverse - Upper and lower portions.

865. Mitochondria is to energy production as ribosome is to __________.
     • Protein storage
     • Lipid synthesis
     • Protein synthesis
     • Protein packaging

     Correct answer: Protein synthesis

     Protein synthesis. The mitochondria are the site for energy production and the ribosome is the site for protein synthesis. Secretory vesicles store proteins. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes lipids. The Golgi apparatus packages proteins. Organelle | Description | Function: Cell membrane ; A lipid bilayer that surrounds the cell. It protects the cell and regulates the transport of substances in and out of the cell. Nucleus; Organelle bound by a double membrane called nuclear membrane. It contains the genetic material of the cell. It is the control center of the cell. Nucleolus; Spherical structure is rich in RNA found within the nucleus. Manufacture and assembly of ribosomes. Cytoplasm; The fluid portion of the cell, excluding the nucleus. Suspends cell organelles. Mitochondria; Sausage-shaped structure with two membranes. The inner membrane is arranged into folds called cristae. Energy production. It is often called the powerhouse of the cell. Ribosomes ; Small granules are found free in the cell or attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Protein synthesis. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum; Membranous tubular structure. Synthesis of lipids and steroids. Rough endoplasmic reticulum ; Membranous tubular structure with ribosomes attached to it. Synthesis of protein for export out of the cell. Golgi apparatus ; Stacks of membrane sacs. Packaging of proteins into vesicles. They are the warehouse of the cells. Lysosomes ; Vesicles containing lysozyme. Digestion/break down of large particles and damaged cellular structures. Secretory vesicles ; Membrane-bound sacs. Contain substances to be secreted outside the cell.

866. Which of the following correctly describes the functions of the epidermis?
     • Physical barrier, waterproofing, and sweat production
     • Sensation, waterproofing and sebum production
     • Physical barrier, biological barrier and waterproofing
     • Sweat production, sebum production, and sensation

     Correct answer: Physical barrier, biological barrier and waterproofing

     The epidermis is mainly made up of keratinocytes, which produce the keratin that strengthens the skin and makes it waterproof. Langerhan cells in the epidermis help to ward off pathogens. The functions of the epidermis are: Physical protection, Biologic protection, WaterproofingSensation. The functions of the dermis are: Supporting the epidermis by supplying the basal layer with nutrients, Sweat production, Sebum production, Cushioning the body, Thermoregulation by dilating and constricting the blood vessels. Defence: Immune cells are also present in the dermis which help to ward off infections

867. Bones embedded within tendons are called?
     • Irregular bone
     • Flat bone
     • Short bone
     • Sesamoid bone

     Correct answer: Sesamoid bone

     Sesamoid bones are bones that grow within the tendon. An example is the patella (the kneecap). Short bones are cuboidal with a similar length and width. Examples are the carpals and the tarsals. Flat bones are thin and flat. Examples are the sternum, ribs, scapula, and bones of the skull, such as the occipital bone, the parietal bone, the frontal bone, etc. Irregular bones have an irregular shape. They consist mainly of spongy bone with a thin layer of compact bone. Examples are the vertebrae of our spine. You may use the chart below when reviewing the different types of bones: Name - Description - Examples: Long bones Consists of a shaft and two extremities (epiphyses) which are covered by cartilage Femur, tibia, fibula, humerus, ulnar, radius, clavicle, phalanges, metacarpals, and metatarsals. Short bones Cuboidal with similar length and width Carpals, tarsals. Flat bones Thin and broad Sternum, ribs, scapula, occipital bone, parietal bone, frontal bone. Irregular bones Irregular in shape Vertebrae, hip bone, sacrum, coccyx, maxilla, mandible, temporal bone, sphenoid bone, zygomatic bone, hyoid bone Sesamoid bone Small bones within tendons Patella

868. The rod-like structure that makes up muscle fibers is called _____________.
     • Actin
     • Intercalated disc
     • Myofibrils
     • Tropomyosin

     Correct answer: Myofibrils

     The correct answer is Myofibrils. Myofibrils are rod-like structures that make up the muscle fibers. Each muscle cell/fiber is made up of numerous myofibrils. These myofibrils are made up of smaller units called myofilaments. Actin and tropomyosin are part of the thin myofilaments. The intercalated discs are junctions where cardiac muscle cells connect.

869. The part of the neuron that receives impulses is called ___________.
     • Axon
     • Myelin sheath
     • Cell body
     • Dendrite

     Correct answer: Dendrite

     The correct answer is Dendrite. A neuron has: One cell body, Processes. Many dendrites: The dendrites are extensions of the cell body and receive incoming impulses which they convey towards the cell body. Dendrites are shorter than axons and have many branches. One axon: The axon is longer and transmits impulses away from the cell body and connects the neuron to its target. The axon terminates as terminal bodies. A neuron has one cell body but this is not the part that receives impulses. The axon transmits impulses away from the cell body to the effector site. It does not receive impulses. The myelin sheath covers the axons and insulates it. Myelinated neurons have small unmyelinated junctions called the Nodes of Ranvier. These help to increase the speed of transmission as impulses jump from node to node (saltatory movement).

870. Which of the following glands is known as the master gland?
     • Pancreas
     • Pituitary gland
     • Hypothalamus
     • Adrenal gland

     Correct answer: Pituitary gland

     The correct answer is Pituitary gland. The pituitary gland is called the master gland. It produces several hormones called tropic hormones that regulate the activities of several endocrine glands. The anterior pituitary gland produces growth hormone (somatotropin), adrenocorticotropic hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, and prolactin. Hypothalamus control hormone | Hormones of anterior pituitary | Function: Growth hormone releasing hormone Growth hormone Growth of skeleton and soft tissue, Gonadotropin releasing hormone Follicle stimulating hormone Stimulates growth of ovarian follicles in females and spermatogenesis in males, Gonadotropin releasing hormone Luteinizing hormone Stimulates ovulation in females and production of testosterone in males, Corticotropin releasing hormone Adrenocorticotropic hormone Stimulates secretion of hormones of the adrenal cortex, Thyrotropin releasing hormone Thyroid stimulating hormone Stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormone, Prolactin releasing hormone/Prolactin inhibitory hormone Prolactin Stimulates development of the mammary gland and milk production. The posterior pituitary gland originates from nervous tissue. Their cell bodies are in the hypothalamus and their axon is in the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract. Hormones are produced in the cell bodies in the hypothalamus and stored in vesicles in the posterior pituitary. Posterior pituitary hormones are: Antidiuretic hormone which is triggered by increased osmolarity. Antidiuretic hormone acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption, Oxytocin stimulates uterine contraction and lets down of milk.

871. Where does erythropoiesis take place?
     • Thymus
     • Red bone marrow
     • Yellow bone marrow
     • Heart

     Correct answer: Red bone marrow

     The correct answer is Red bone marrow. Erythropoiesis is the process of producing red blood cells. The red bone marrow produces red blood cells and the process of erythropoiesis is regulated by erythropoietin, a hormone produced by the kidney. The thymus is the site where T lymphocytes mature. Yellow bone marrow stores fat. The heart pumps blood but does not produce red blood cells.

872. Another name for the windpipe is the _________________.
     • Epiglottis
     • Trachea
     • Larynx
     • Lungs

     Correct answer: Trachea

     The correct answer is Trachea. The trachea is also called the windpipe. It conducts air to the right and left bronchi. The larynx is also called the voice box. The larynx is made up of several types of cartilage. Two folds of membranous tissue (vocal cords) also run from its wall to the interior and act as vibrators that produce sound. The larynx lies in front of the pharynx and serves as a passage for air that moves from the pharynx to the larynx and then to the trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and, finally, to the alveoli where gas exchange takes place. Food does not pass through the larynx. The epiglottis is a cartilaginous structure that covers the larynx during swallowing to prevent food particles or water from entering the larynx. The lungs are spongy organs sitting on top of the diaphragm. They contain the bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli, connective tissue, and blood vessels. They oxygenate blood and help to eliminate carbon dioxide from the blood, which has been produced by cells of the body. Structure | Description | Function: Nose and nasal cavity Entrance into the respiratory passages $\cdot$ Warms air $\cdot$ Filters air $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Olfaction, Pharynx Runs behind the nasal cavity, oral cavity, and larynx Continues as the esophagus $\cdot$ Passage for air and food, Larynx Also called voice box Begins at the laryngopharynx, runs in front of the pharynx, and opens into the trachea $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Prevents food and water from getting into the lungs $\cdot$ Phonation, Trachea Also called windpipe Divides into the right and left bronchi $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Warms air, Bronchi Divide into many branches Smallest branches are the terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Air passage, Cilia Hair-like structures that line most of the respiratory tract $\cdot$ Move mucus and trapped materials towards the pharynx where they are swallowed or expelled by coughing, Alveoli Tiny sacs at the end of terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Gas exchange between the respiratory tract and the blood vessels, Lungs Spongy structure located in the thoracic cavity They are covered by the pleura (visceral and parietal) and rest on the diaphragm Contain the alveoli, bronchi and their branches, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics $\cdot$ Gas exchange, Diaphragm A dome shaped muscular structure separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity $\cdot$ Acts as a respiratory muscle Contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm helps in breathing

873. Which of the following structures is correctly paired with its function?
     • Trachea—Production of sounds
     • Lungs—Olfaction
     • Nose—Gas exchange
     • Diaphragm—Increases volume of thoracic cavity

     Correct answer: Diaphragm—Increases volume of thoracic cavity

     The correct answer is Diaphragm-Increases volume of thoracic cavity. The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscular structure separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Contractions of the diaphragm increase the volume of the thoracic cavity, reduce the pressure in the thoracic cavity, and pull air into the lungs. Production of sounds is by the larynx. The trachea (also called the windpipe) conducts air into the bronchi. Gas exchange occurs in the alveoli. The nose warms, filters, and humidifies air. Olfaction is not a function of the lungs. The lungs are for gas exchange. The nose is the organ of olfaction (smell). Structure | Description | Function: Nose and nasal cavity Entrance into the respiratory passages $\cdot$ Warms air $\cdot$ Filters air $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Olfaction, Pharynx Runs behind the nasal cavity, oral cavity, and larynx Continues as the esophagus $\cdot$ Passage for air and food, Larynx Also called voice box Begins at the laryngopharynx, runs in front of the pharynx, and opens into the trachea $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Prevents food and water from getting into the lungs $\cdot$ Phonation, Trachea Also called windpipe Divides into the right and left bronchi $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Warms air, Bronchi Divide into many branches Smallest branches are the terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Air passage, Cilia Hair-like structures that line most of the respiratory tract $\cdot$ Move mucus and trapped materials towards the pharynx where they are swallowed or expelled by coughing, Alveoli Tiny sacs at the end of terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Gas exchange between the respiratory tract and the blood vessels, Lungs Spongy structure located in the thoracic cavity They are covered by the pleura (visceral and parietal) and rest on the diaphragm Contain the alveoli, bronchi and their branches, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics $\cdot$ Gas exchange, Diaphragm A dome shaped muscular structure separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity $\cdot$ Acts as a respiratory muscle Contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm helps in breathing

874. Which organ of the digestive system is not covered by the peritoneum?
     • Pharynx
     • Jejunum
     • Stomach
     • Liver

     Correct answer: Pharynx

     Pharynx is the correct answer. The pharynx is in the thoracic cavity and, so, is not covered by the peritoneum. The peritoneum is a membrane with two layers: The parietal layer lines the abdominal wall The visceral layer lines organs in the abdomen and pelvis. The liver, stomach, and jejunum are in the peritoneal cavity. The peritoneum helps to limit the spread of infection in the abdominal and pelvic cavities. Not all organs in the abdominal cavity lie within the peritoneal cavity. Retroperitoneal organs (organs outside of the peritoneal cavity) include the esophagus, the proximal part of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, the ascending colon, the descending colon, the kidneys, and the adrenal glands.

875. Which of the following correctly describes the passage of food from the mouth to the anus?
     • Mouth → esophagus → pharynx → stomach → duodenum → jejenum → ileum → ascending colon → transverse colon → descending colon → sigmoid colon → rectum → anus
     • Mouth → pharynx → esophagus → stomach → duodenum → jejunum → ileum → ascending colon → transverse colon → descending colon → sigmoid colon → rectum → anus
     • Mouth → pharynx → esophagus → stomach → jejunum → ileum → duodenum → ascending colon → transverse colon → descending colon → sigmoid colon → rectum → anus
     • Mouth → pharynx → esophagus → duodenum → stomach → jejunum → ileum → ascending colon → descending colon → transverse colon → sigmoid colon → rectum → anus

     Correct answer: Mouth → pharynx → esophagus → stomach → duodenum → jejunum → ileum → ascending colon → transverse colon → descending colon → sigmoid colon → rectum → anus

     Mouth: Food is ingested. In the oral cavity, the teeth grind the food which is mixed with saliva, rolled into a bolus, and sent to the pharynx. ↓ Pharynx: The pharynx propels food into the esophagus. ↓ Esophagus: The esophagus propels bolus into the stomach.↓ Stomach: The stomach mixes and churns the bolus with the acidic gastric juice, converting the bolus to chyme. The HCl in the stomach also kills pathogens and activates pepsinogen. The stomach sends chyme into the duodenum. ↓ Duodenum: The duodenum neutralizes the acidic chyme. It mixes chyme with bile from the gallbladder and pancreatic juice from the pancreas before sending the chyme into the jejunum. ↓ Jejunum: The jejunum absorbs nutrients from the chyme digested in the duodenum by the activity of the pancreatic enzymes. ↓ Ileum: The ileum absorbs vitamin B12 and any nutrient not absorbed by the jejunum. ↓ Large intestine: It absorbs water and forms feces. The ileum passes its content to the cecum and from there it moves to the ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and the sigmoid colon which moves feces into the rectum. ↓ Rectum: The rectum stores the formed feces until defecation when the feces are moved into the anal canal and, subsequently, passed out of the digestive system.

876. Which of the following structure-function pairs is incorrect?
     • Convoluted tubule—A tubelike structure that empties urine into the collecting duct
     • Urethra—A tubelike structure that empties urine outside the body
     • Ureter—A tubelike structure that empties urine into the bladder
     • Collecting duct—A tubelike structure that empties urine into the ureter

     Correct answer: Collecting duct—A tubelike structure that empties urine into the ureter

     The correct answer is Collecting duct—A tubelike structure that empties urine into the ureter. The collecting duct drains into the papillary duct which drains into the renal pelvis. The collecting duct does not empty into the ureter. The distal convoluted tubule drains into the collecting duct. The ureter drains into the bladder. Urine leaves the bladder to the exterior through the urethra.

877. Which of the following does not occur in the convoluted tubules?
     • Filtration
     • Secretion
     • Reabsorption
     • Diffusion

     Correct answer: Filtration

     The correct answer is Filtration. Filtration occurs across semi-permeable membranes of the glomerulus. As glomerular filtrate moves down the tubules, its constituents are changed by the process of: Reabsorption: Useful substances are reabsorbed back into the blood. Reabsorption may be by passive transport like simple diffusion or by active transport. Most substances are reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubules. The proximal convoluted tubules have microvilli that help to increase the surface area. Secretion: Some substances like drugs and hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the tubules to be excreted in the urine.

878. Which of the following correctly describes an eosinophil?
     • Contains a bilobed nucleus
     • Presents antigens to lymphocyte
     • Contains horseshoe-shaped nucleus
     • Contains granules that take up basic dyes

     Correct answer: Contains a bilobed nucleus

     The correct answer is Contains a bilobed nucleus. An eosinophil has a bilobed nucleus and many granules. They take up eosin which is an acidic dye and stain red or pink. Basophils contain granules that take up basic dyes and stain purple-black. Monocytes have horseshoe-shaped nuclei and present antigens to lymphocytes. Other antigen-presenting cells are dendritic cells and Langerhans cells.

879. Which of the following is not characteristic of a neutrophil?
     • Innate immunity
     • Acquired immunity
     • Multilobed nuclei
     • Small granules

     Correct answer: Acquired immunity

     The correct answer is Acquired immunity. Neutrophils have multilobed nuclei and many granules. They are phagocytes and are primarily involved in innate immunity. Lymphocytes are involved in acquired immunity.

880. Which of the following is not a function of testosterone in a male?
     • Stimulates growth of larynx and deepening of voice
     • Stimulates growth of hair on the scalp, along with the armpits
     • Stimulates growth of muscle and bone
     • Stimulates enlargement of the penis and scrotum

     Correct answer: Stimulates growth of hair on the scalp, along with the armpits

     Although testosterone stimulates growth of hair on the armpit, perineum, and face, it does not stimulate the growth of hair on the scalp. Testosterone is responsible for sexual maturation. The following are the function of testosterone: Enlargement of the penis, scrotum, and prostate, Spermatogenesis, Libido, Secondary sexual characteristics such as the development of pubic, axillary, and facial hair; growth of larynx; deepening of the voice, Growth of muscle and bone

881. Which of the following statements is incorrect about estrogen?
     • It is produced by the cells of the ovarian follicle
     • It stimulates the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle
     • It is responsible for the female secondary sex characteristics
     • It stimulates ovulation

     Correct answer: It stimulates ovulation

     Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates ovulation. Estrogen is the sex hormone responsible for the female secondary sex characteristics, such as: development of breasts, widening of hips, axillary and pubic hair. Estrogen is produced by the granulosa cells of the ovarian follicle. In addition to the secondary sex characteristics, estrogen has the following roles in the menstrual cycle: It stimulates the thickening of the endometrium before ovulation (proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle). It stimulates the release of FSH in the first half of the menstrual cycle. It triggers an LH surge.

882. Which of the following sequences correctly describes how light rays from an object get to the retina?
     • Cornea – lens – aqueous humor – pupil – vitreous humor – retina
     • Cornea – vitreous humor – pupil – lens – aqueous humor – retina
     • Cornea – aqueous humor – pupil – lens – vitreous humor – retina
     • Cornea – aqueous humor – lens – pupil – vitreous humor – retina

     Correct answer: Cornea – aqueous humor – pupil – lens – vitreous humor – retina

     Light rays from an object enter the eye through the transparent cornea. They travel across the aqueous humor and pass through the pupil to get to the lens. The lens refracts the rays which travel across the vitreous humor to reach the retina. The diagram below illustrates how light passes through the eye.

883. Which of the following is not found in the bony labyrinth of the ear?
     • Vestibule
     • Cochlea
     • Auditory ossicles
     • Semicircular canals

     Correct answer: Auditory ossicles

     The ear can be broken up into three sections: The outer ear: It is also called the auricle or pinna and consists of cartilage and skin. The middle ear: It is an air-filled cavity that sits between the eardrum (tympanic membrane) and the inner ear and includes three tiny bones called ossicles. These bones are the incus, malleus, and stapes. The inner ear: It is made up of the bony labyrinth (the semicircular canals, vestibule, and cochlea), membranous labyrinth, and eustachian tube.

884. What does the presence of antidiuretic hormone stimulate?
     • Calcium reabsorption by the nephrons
     • The increase of calcium levels in the blood
     • Water reabsorption from the urinary filtrate
     • The release of water into the bladder to be voided as urine

     Correct answer: Water reabsorption from the urinary filtrate

     Answer: Water reabsorption from the urinary filtrate. The most important job of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is to conserve water in the body by reducing the loss of water in urine. It does this by telling your kidneys how much water it needs to put back into your body instead of voiding it as urine. Antidiuretic hormone binds to receptors on cells in the collecting ducts of the kidney and promotes reabsorption of water back into the circulation. Parathyroid hormone is the hormone that increases the levels of calcium in the blood. NurseHub Hint: Use the following mnemonic device to remember the purpose of ADH: ADH = Ain’t Dumping H2O

885. Which of the following is defined as “a group of similar cells and their intercellular matrix that carry out a specific function together?”
     • Neuroglia
     • Organ systems
     • Organs
     • Tissues

     Correct answer: Tissues

     Answer: Tissues. Histology is the study of tissues. A tissue is a group of structurally and functionally similar cells that work together to perform specific functions in the body. There are four fundamental types of tissues in the body: Epithelial: these cells cover, line, and protect the body and its internal organs. Connective: these cell groups are the framework for the body, providing structure and support for the organs. This is the most abundant type of tissue in the body. Muscle: tissues that have the ability to contract (shorten). Nervous: the tissues of the nervous system, composed of neurons and connective tissue called neuroglia. Organs are groups of tissues working together to perform specific functions. The stomach, liver, and heart are all examples of organs. Organ systems are groups of organs that work together to perform specific functions in the body. The digestive system, circulatory system, and respiratory system are examples of organ systems.

886. Which type of tissue is most widely distributed throughout the body?
     • Connective tissue
     • Nervous tissue
     • Muscle tissue
     • Epithelial tissue

     Correct answer: Connective tissue

     Answer: Connective tissue. A tissue is a group of cells that work together to perform specific functions in the body. There are four fundamental types of tissues: Epithelial: these cells cover, line, and protect the body and its internal organs. Connective: these cell groups are the framework for the body, providing structure and support for the organs. Muscle: tissues that have the ability to contract (shorten). Nervous: the tissues of the nervous system, composed of neurons and connective tissue called neuroglia. Connective tissue is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue throughout the body. It includes fibrous tissues, fat, cartilage, bone, bone marrow, and blood. Connective tissue serves as the framework of the body by providing support and structure for organs.

887. What is the function of the sebaceous glands?
     • To secrete oil that lubricates the skin and prevents drying.
     • To secrete the aqueous layer of the tear film to lubricate the eye.
     • To secrete a watery substance onto the surface of the skin to regulate body temperature.
     • To secrete earwax to protect the ear from bacteria and viruses.

     Correct answer: To secrete oil that lubricates the skin and prevents drying.

     Answer: To secrete oil that lubricates the skin and prevents drying. The sebaceous glands secrete an oil (called sebum) onto the skin and hair for lubrication and to prevent drying. The eccrine sweat glands secrete a watery substance (sweat) onto the surface of the skin to be evaporated, cooling down the body. Eccrine sweat glands play a significant role in body temperature regulation. Ceruminous glands are a type of apocrine gland. They secrete earwax into the ear canal to protect the ear from bacteria and viruses. Lacrimal glands secrete tears to lubricate the eyes.

888. What, in addition to adenosine triphosphate, must be present for a muscle to contract?
     • Calcium
     • Oxygen
     • Lactate
     • Sodium

     Correct answer: Calcium

     Answer: Calcium. Calcium and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) must be present for a muscle cell to contract. Nervous stimulation from efferent (motor) neurons causes the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle. The calcium ions then attach to inhibitory proteins of the actin filaments within the cell, moving them aside so that cross-bridges can form between actin and myosin filaments. Then, using energy supplied by ATP, the filaments slide together to contract. Lactate (lactic acid) does not play a role in muscle contraction but does cause a burning sensation in muscles when your muscles run low on oxygen. The diagram of muscle contraction below is more in-depth than what you will need to know for the HESI A2. However, note that the nerves stimulate the muscle, releasing calcium, allowing for muscle contraction.

889. Which part of the eye allows us to see color?
     • Pupil
     • Aqueous humor
     • Iris
     • Retina

     Correct answer: Retina

     Answer: Retina. The retina is a thin layer of tissue that lines the back of the inside of the eye, near the optic nerve. The purpose of the retina is to receive light that the lens has focused, convert the light into neural signals, and send those signals to the brain for visual recognition. There are two types of photoreceptor cells found in the retina: rods and cones. Rod cells can function in low levels of light but do not pick up on colors. This is why things we see can see at night but things tend to look more grey and fuzzy. Rods also help with our peripheral vision, as they are concentrated on the outer edges of the retina. Cone cells need more intense light to function and are the receptors that allow us to see colors. Most cone cells are found in the fovea, at the back of the retina. The fovea helps us see details in objects we are looking at. The human eye contains three different types of cone cells: blue, red, and green. The different types of colorblindness arise from one, two, or all three types of cone cells not working properly (or not working at all). The iris is the pigmented (colored) part of the eye. The iris dilates and constricts to change the diameter and size of the pupil and thus the amount of light reaching the retina. The pupil is the black opening in the center of the iris. The purpose of the pupil is to allow light to enter the eye so it can be focused on the retina to begin the process of sight. Aqueous humor is the clear liquid found between the cornea and the lens of the eye. The aqueous humor helps maintain intraocular pressure and nourishes the lens and cornea.

890. Which of the following structures functions in directing sound waves into the ear?
     • External Auditory Canal
     • Modiolus
     • Eardrum
     • Auricle

     Correct answer: Auricle

     Answer: Auricle. The Auricle (also known as the Pinna) is the part of the external ear that functions in directing sound waves into the ear. The External Auditory Canal serves as the channel for the sound wave and air. Sound waves are then transmitted to the inner ear through the vibration of the eardrum or tympanic membrane. The Modiolus is the bony core of the cochlea.

891. Which of the following is the correct sequence of transport of filtrate from the nephrons to the renal pelvis?
     • Minor Calyx – Major Calyx – Proximal Convoluted Tubule – Distal Convoluted Tubule – Loop of Henle – Collecting Duct – Renal Pelvis
     • Distal Convoluted Tubule – Proximal Convoluted Tubule – Loop of Henle – Collecting Duct – Minor Calyx – Major Calyx – Renal Pelvis
     • Collecting Duct – Proximal Convoluted Tubule – Loop of Henle – Distal Convoluted Tubule – Minor Calyx – Major Calyx – Renal Pelvis
     • Proximal Convoluted Tubule – Loop of Henle – Distal Convoluted Tubule – Collecting Duct – Minor Calyx – Major Calyx – Renal Pelvis

     Correct answer: Proximal Convoluted Tubule – Loop of Henle – Distal Convoluted Tubule – Collecting Duct – Minor Calyx – Major Calyx – Renal Pelvis

     Answer: Proximal Convoluted Tubule – Loop of Henle – Distal Convoluted Tubule – Collecting Duct – Minor Calyx – Major Calyx – Renal Pelvis. From nephrons, glomerular filtrate is transported from the Proximal Convoluted Tubule to the Loop of Henle, then to the Distal Convoluted Tubule, and finally on to Collecting Ducts. The Collecting ducts come together to form the minor calyces which forms the major calyces, and eventually the renal pelvis.

892. The tube that connects the larynx to the bronchi is called ____________.
     • Diaphragm
     • Alveoli
     • Pharynx
     • Trachea

     Correct answer: Trachea

     Answer: Trachea. The trachea is the tube that connects the larynx to the bronchi. The alveoli are tiny air-filled sacs which are used to diffuse oxygen through capillaries. The pharynx is the passageway leading from the oral and nasal cavities in the head to the esophagus and larynx. The diaphragm is a sheet of internal skeletal muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity.

893. The _________________ carry oxygen rich blood away from the heart, while the ________________ carry oxygen-depleted blood back towards the heart.
     • Veins; arteries
     • Capillaries; veins
     • Arteries; veins
     • Veins; arterioles

     Correct answer: Arteries; veins

     Answer: arteries; veins. Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart to the body. Veins are blood vessels that carry blood low in oxygen from the body back to the heart to be reoxygenated. Arteries and veins are two of the body’s main types of blood vessels. However, there is one exception: pulmonary arteries are the only arteries that carry deoxygenated blood, and the pulmonary veins are the only veins that carry oxygenated blood. If you see “pulmonary”, which means “lungs”, then the roles are switched.

894. Which of the following best describes the location of the chest?
     • Inferior to the vertebral column
     • Superior to the vertebral column
     • Posterior to the vertebral column
     • Anterior to the vertebral column

     Correct answer: Anterior to the vertebral column

     Anterior to the vertebral column. The chest is in front of the vertebral column (the spine), so we would say “the chest is anterior to the vertebral column.” The chest is not posterior to the vertebral column. This would indicate that the chest is behind the vertebral column, which is not true. The chest is not superior to the vertebral column. This would indicate that the chest is above the vertebral column, which is not true. The chest is not inferior to the vertebral column. This would indicate that the chest is below the vertebral column, which is not true. Terminology | Other names | Meaning: Anterior Ventral Front, Posterior Dorsal Back, Superior Cranial Above, Inferior Caudal Below, Medial Closer to the midline, Lateral Further from the midline, Proximal Closer to the trunk/point of attachment or origin, Distal Further from the trunk/point of attachment or origin.

895. Ribosomes are synthesized in the ______.
     • Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
     • Nucleolus
     • Nucleus
     • Rough endoplasmic reticulum

     Correct answer: Nucleolus

     Nucleolus: The nucleolus is a dense area within the nucleus where ribosomal RNA is produced and combined with proteins to form ribosomes. The nucleus contains the genetic material of the cell. The rough endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes proteins. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is covered in ribosomes which synthesize proteins. This is not to be confused with the correct answer, which is the nucleolus that synthesizes the ribosomes. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes lipids and steroids. Organelle | Description | Function: Cell membrane ; A lipid bilayer that surrounds the cell. It protects the cell and regulates the transport of substances in and out of the cell. Nucleus; Organelle bound by a double membrane called nuclear membrane. It contains the genetic material of the cell. It is the control center of the cell. Nucleolus; Spherical structure is rich in RNA found within the nucleus. Manufacture and assembly of ribosomes. Cytoplasm; The fluid portion of the cell, excluding the nucleus. Suspends cell organelles. Mitochondria; Sausage-shaped structure with two membranes. The inner membrane is arranged into folds called cristae. Energy production. It is often called the powerhouse of the cell. Ribosomes ; Small granules are found free in the cell or attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Protein synthesis. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum; Membranous tubular structure. Synthesis of lipids and steroids. Rough endoplasmic reticulum ; Membranous tubular structure with ribosomes attached to it. Synthesis of protein for export out of the cell. Golgi apparatus ; Stacks of membrane sacs. Packaging of proteins into vesicles. They are the warehouse of the cells. Lysosomes ; Vesicles containing lysozyme. Digestion/break down of large particles and damaged cellular structures. Secretory vesicles ; Membrane-bound sacs. Contain substances to be secreted outside the cell.

896. Which of the following is not found in the dermis?
     • Langerhan cells
     • Sensory receptors
     • Sebaceous gland
     • Nerves

     Correct answer: Langerhan cells

     The dermis is the layer of the skin that has a high number of blood vessels, and is also rich in elastic and collagen fibers. They also contain sensory receptors, nerves, sweat glands, hair, sebaceous glands and lymphatic vessels. The dermis is divided into two layers: The superficial papillary layer has fingerlike projections that protrude into the epidermis and contain blood capillaries. Since the epidermis lacks blood vessels, the deepest layers of the epidermis receive nutrients from this papillary layer. The deeper reticular area strengthens the skin and provides elasticity. It contains the sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and hair follicles. Langerhan cells are found in the epidermis and not in the dermis.

897. Which type of bone has a diaphysis and two epiphyses?
     • Irregular bone
     • Short bone
     • Flat bone
     • Long bone

     Correct answer: Long bone

     Long bones have a shaft (diaphysis) and two ends (epiphyses). Examples are the femur, the tibia, the fibula, the ulnar, the radius, and the humerus. Short bones are cuboidal with a similar length and width. Examples are the carpals and the tarsals. Flat bones are thin and flat. Examples are the sternum, ribs, scapula, and bones of the skull, such as the occipital bone, the parietal bone, the frontal bone, etc. Irregular bones have an irregular shape. They consist mainly of spongy bone with a thin layer of compact bone.Examples are the vertebrae of our spine. You may use the chart below when reviewing the different types of bones: Name - Description - Examples: Long bones Consists of a shaft and two extremities (epiphyses) which are covered by cartilage Femur, tibia, fibula, humerus, ulnar, radius, clavicle, phalanges, metacarpals, and metatarsals. Short bones Cuboidal with similar length and width Carpals, tarsals. Flat bones Thin and broad Sternum, ribs, scapula, occipital bone, parietal bone, frontal bone. Irregular bones Irregular in shape Vertebrae, hip bone, sacrum, coccyx, maxilla, mandible, temporal bone, sphenoid bone, zygomatic bone, hyoid bone. Sesamoid bone Small bones within tendons Patella

898. Muscles attach to the bones through a _______________.
     • Tendon
     • Ligament
     • Cartilage
     • Joint

     Correct answer: Tendon

     The correct answer is Tendon. A tendon attaches a muscle to a bone. A ligament connects a bone to a bone. Cartilages can be found at the end of some bones and in some joints. They provide a smooth surface against which bones can move in a joint. A joint is where two bones meet.

899. A neuron has ______________.
     • One cell body, one dendrite, and many axons
     • Many cell bodies, one dendrite, and one axon
     • One cell body, one dendrite, and one axon
     • One cell body, many dendrites, and one axon

     Correct answer: One cell body, many dendrites, and one axon

     The correct answer is One cell body, many dendrites, and one axon. A neuron has one cell body, many dendrites, and one axon. The dendrites are extensions of the cell body and receive impulses which they convey towards the cell body. The axon is longer and transmits impulses away from the cell body. The axon terminates as terminal bodies.

900. Which of the following describes negative feedback control of the endocrine system?
     • Production of a hormone leads to increased production of tropic hormones
     • Increased production of tropic hormones leads to increased production of target hormone
     • Production of a hormone feeds back to increase its own production
     • Production of a hormone feeds back to decrease its own production

     Correct answer: Production of a hormone feeds back to decrease its own production

     The correct answer is Production of a hormone feeds back to decrease its own production. The hypothalamus is principally controlled by a negative feedback mechanism. In negative feedback, a hormone feeds back to inhibit its own production. Once an adequate amount of the hormone has been produced, it sends back signals to inhibit its production. This is useful since it prevents excess amounts of the hormone from being produced. For example, the hypothalamus releases corticotropin hormone which acts on the anterior pituitary to cause the production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). ACTH acts on the adrenal cortex to cause the secretion of cortisol. When an adequate quantity of cortisol is produced, it feeds back to shut down further production of CRH by the hypothalamus. This ultimately slows down the production of cortisol. In typical functioning of the endocrine system, the tropic hormone acts on the target gland to increase production of its hormone. This is not negative feedback.

901. Which type of blood cell is responsible for clotting?
     • Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
     • Platelets
     • Lymphocytes
     • Erythrocytes

     Correct answer: Platelets

     The correct answer is Platelets. Platelets are cellular fragments responsible for blood clotting. Erythrocytes transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes play a role in innate immunity. Lymphocytes are responsible for acquired immunity.

902. The cartilaginous structure which covers the larynx during swallowing is called the ____________.
     • Epiglottis
     • Diaphragm
     • Cilia
     • Trachea

     Correct answer: Epiglottis

     The correct answer is Epiglottis. The epiglottis is a cartilaginous structure that covers the larynx during swallowing. It prevents food particles and water from entering the larynx. The trachea, also called the windpipe, conducts air to the bronchi. The cilia cover most of the respiratory passage. The respiratory passages are lined by mucus that traps particles. The cilia in the respiratory passage sweep mucus upward to the pharynx where they are coughed up or swallowed. This process has also been referred to as the mucociliary escalator. The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscular structure separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Contractions of the diaphragm increase the volume of the thoracic cavity and pull air into the lungs. Structure | Description | Function: Nose and nasal cavity Entrance into the respiratory passages $\cdot$ Warms air $\cdot$ Filters air $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Olfaction, Pharynx Runs behind the nasal cavity, oral cavity, and larynx Continues as the esophagus $\cdot$ Passage for air and food, Larynx Also called voice box Begins at the laryngopharynx, runs in front of the pharynx, and opens into the trachea $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Prevents food and water from getting into the lungs $\cdot$ Phonation, Trachea Also called windpipe Divides into the right and left bronchi $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Warms air, Bronchi Divide into many branches Smallest branches are the terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Air passage, Cilia Hair-like structures that line most of the respiratory tract $\cdot$ Move mucus and trapped materials towards the pharynx where they are swallowed or expelled by coughing, Alveoli Tiny sacs at the end of terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Gas exchange between the respiratory tract and the blood vessels, Lungs Spongy structure located in the thoracic cavity They are covered by the pleura (visceral and parietal) and rest on the diaphragm Contain the alveoli, bronchi and their branches, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics $\cdot$ Gas exchange, Diaphragm A dome shaped muscular structure separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity $\cdot$ Acts as a respiratory muscle Contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm helps in breathing

903. The part of the lungs where gas exchange takes place is called _________________.
     • Bronchi
     • Trachea
     • Alveoli
     • Larynx

     Correct answer: Alveoli

     The correct answer is Alveoli. The alveoli are sacs at the terminal part of the respiratory tract. This is where gas exchange takes place. Oxygen from inhaled air diffuses into the blood. Carbon dioxide from the blood diffuses into the alveoli and is expelled in exhaled air. The trachea and bronchi conduct air into the lungs. The trachea divides into the right and left bronchi. Gas exchange does not occur in the trachea or bronchi. The larynx conducts air from the pharynx to the trachea and also helps in phonation. Gas exchange does not occur in the larynx. Structure | Description | Function: Nose and nasal cavity Entrance into the respiratory passages $\cdot$ Warms air $\cdot$ Filters air $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Olfaction, Pharynx Runs behind the nasal cavity, oral cavity, and larynx Continues as the esophagus $\cdot$ Passage for air and food, Larynx Also called voice box Begins at the laryngopharynx, runs in front of the pharynx, and opens into the trachea $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Prevents food and water from getting into the lungs $\cdot$ Phonation, Trachea Also called windpipe Divides into the right and left bronchi $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Warms air, Bronchi Divide into many branches Smallest branches are the terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Air passage, Cilia Hair-like structures that line most of the respiratory tract $\cdot$ Move mucus and trapped materials towards the pharynx where they are swallowed or expelled by coughing, Alveoli Tiny sacs at the end of terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Gas exchange between the respiratory tract and the blood vessels, Lungs Spongy structure located in the thoracic cavity They are covered by the pleura (visceral and parietal) and rest on the diaphragm Contain the alveoli, bronchi and their branches, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics $\cdot$ Gas exchange, Diaphragm A dome shaped muscular structure separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity $\cdot$ Acts as a respiratory muscle Contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm helps in breathing

904. Which of the following correctly describes chyme?
     • Partially digested food mixed with pancreatic secretions
     • Partially digested food mixed with gastric juice
     • Partially digested food mixed with saliva
     • Partially digested food mixed with an intestinal secretion

     Correct answer: Partially digested food mixed with gastric juice

     Chyme is the correct answer. Chyme is partially digested food mixed with gastric juice. The bolus formed in the oral cavity is propelled to the pharynx, then the esophagus, and finally into the stomach. The stomach mixes the bolus with gastric juice through repeated contractions to form chyme.

905. What is the function of the mucus-bicarbonate barrier?
     • Protection of the gastric mucosa
     • Digestion of chyme
     • Lubrication of chyme
     • Converting bolus to chyme

     Correct answer: Protection of the gastric mucosa

     Protection of the gastric mucosa is the correct answer. The mucosa of the stomach is covered by the mucus-bicarbonate barrier. It protects the stomach from the corrosive action of hydrochloric acid secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach. The mucus physically protects the mucosa while the bicarbonate neutralizes the hydrochloric acid. The mucus-bicarbonate barrier does not lubricate chyme. The mucus-bicarbonate barrier does not convert bolus to chyme. Instead, it is the hydrochloric acid that mixes with the bolus to form chyme. Digestion of chyme takes place in the small intestine when chyme mixes with bile and pancreatic enzymes.

906. What is the functional unit of the kidney?
     • Glomerulus
     • Ureter
     • Tubules
     • Nephron

     Correct answer: Nephron

     The correct answer is Nephron. The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney. There are about one million nephrons in each kidney. Each nephron is made up of the glomerulus and the tubule. Blood is filtered across the glomerulus of each nephron and the glomerular filtrate is altered by the process of reabsorption and secretion as the filtrate moves down the tubules into the collecting duct. The collecting ducts empty urine into the renal pelvis. Urine moves from the renal pelvis to the ureter and into the bladder where it is stored until the person has an urge to urinate. The glomerulus is not the functional unit of the kidney. Instead, it is a part of the nephron and the nephron is the functional unit of the kidney. The tubule is not the functional unit of the kidney. Instead, it is a part of the nephron and the nephron is the functional unit of the kidney. The ureter is not a part of the kidney. Instead, it is a tube that connects the kidneys with the bladder.

907. Which of the following correctly describes the glomerulus?
     • A network of capillaries in the kidneys that surround the tubules.
     • A cuplike structure that contains a tuft of capillaries
     • A network of capillaries that surround the loop of Henle
     • A tuft of capillaries across which filtration of blood occurs in the nephron

     Correct answer: A tuft of capillaries across which filtration of blood occurs in the nephron

     The correct answer is A tuft of capillaries across which filtration of blood occurs in the nephron. The glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries across which filtration occurs. It is found in the Bowman’s capsule. The cuplike structure that contains a tuft of capillaries is the Bowman’s capsule. The network of capillaries that surround the tubules are the peritubular capillaries. The network of tubules that surround the loop of Henle are the vasa recta. Blood pressure drives glomerular filtrate across the membranes of these capillaries. Substances move across the membrane via diffusion and glomerular filtrate is collected in the Bowman’s space. As glomerular filtrate moves down the tubules (proximal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubules), their constituent is altered by the process of reabsorption and secretion. The end-product, which is urine, enters into the collecting duct which drains into the renal pelvis via the papillary duct and calyces. The renal pelvis empties into the ureter that conveys the urine to the bladder.

908. Sam just had an allergic reaction to a nut. Which of the listed cells is likely to be involved in the reaction?
     • Macrophage
     • Basophil
     • Neutrophil
     • NK cell

     Correct answer: Basophil

     The correct answer is Basophil. Basophils promote inflammation and play a role in allergic reactions. Basophils have a bilobed nucleus and many granules. They take up basic dyes and stain purple-black. The granules of basophils contain heparin and histamine. Mast cells are like basophils. Unlike basophils which are found in blood, mast cells are found in tissues. Neutrophils have a multilobed nucleus and many granules. They take up both acidic and basic dyes. They are phagocytes and they engulf bacteria and cell debris which they destroy. A macrophage is a large agranulocyte that has a large nucleus. It is a phagocyte and as such engulfs and destroys pathogens. They clear debris and also present antigens to lymphocytes and so act as a bridge between the innate and acquired immunity. In addition, macrophages produce cytokines. NK cells resemble lymphocytes. They have large rounded nuclei. They have granules, which contain proteases and perforins that play a role in cell destruction.

909. Which of the following would help in getting rid of a roundworm infestation?
     • Eosinophil
     • Mast cell
     • Basophil
     • Neutrophil

     Correct answer: Eosinophil

     The correct answer is Eosinophil. Eosinophils are involved in the elimination of parasites and allergic reactions. Basophils are also involved in allergic reactions. Neutrophils phagocytose and destroy pathogens. Mast cells are tissue basophils and play a role in allergic reactions.

910. Which of the following hormones produced by the pituitary gland is a reproductive tropic hormone?
     • Growth hormone
     • Thyroid-stimulating hormone
     • Estrogen
     • Luteinizing hormone

     Correct answer: Luteinizing hormone

     Tropic hormones are hormones that act on other endocrine glands. Two hormones of the pituitary gland act primarily on the reproductive system, and they are: Follicle-stimulating hormone, Luteinizing hormone. Estrogen is not produced by the pituitary gland but by the granulosa cells of the ovary. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is produced by the pituitary gland and acts on the thyroid gland. Growth hormone is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the growth of tissues in the body.

911. Which of the following correctly describes the function of luteinizing hormone?
     • It stimulates the production of testosterone in males
     • It stimulates spermatogenesis in males
     • It stimulates the maturation of the ovarian follicle in females
     • It stimulates the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle in females

     Correct answer: It stimulates the production of testosterone in males

     The luteinizing hormone stimulates the Leydig cells to produce testosterone in males. In females, it stimulates ovulation. FSH stimulates spermatogenesis in males and the maturation of the ovarian follicle in females. Estrogen stimulates the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle in females.

912. Light enters the eye through which of the following structures?
     • Lens
     • Cornea
     • Sclera
     • Iris

     Correct answer: Cornea

     Light passes through the transparent cornea and the pupils to get to the lens. The lens refracts the light rays, and subsequently, the rays travel across the vitreous humor to hit the retina. The iris is a pigmented structure that contains smooth muscles that regulate the pupil’s size, controlling how much light enters the eye. Light does not pass through the iris; instead, it passes through the pupil, which is an opening in the middle of the iris. The lens is a biconvex structure that refracts and focuses light rays that have entered the eye. The ciliary body controls the shape of the lens. The sclera is the white part of the eye. Light rays do not pass through it. Instead, it protects the eye, maintains the shape of the eyes, and serves as a point of attachment to the muscles. The diagram below illustrates how light passes through the eye.

913. Which of the following sequences shows how visual impulses move from the retina to the brain where they are interpreted?
     • Retina – optic radiations – optic chiasm – optic nerve – optic tract – thalamus – cerebral cortex
     • Retina – optic radiations – optic nerve – thalamus – optic chiasm – optic tract – cerebral cortex
     • Retina – thalamus – optic tract – optic nerve – optic radiations – optic chiasm – cerebral Cortex
     • Retina – optic nerve – optic chiasm – optic tract – thalamus – optic radiations – cerebral cortex

     Correct answer: Retina – optic nerve – optic chiasm – optic tract – thalamus – optic radiations – cerebral cortex

     All sensory information must reach the cerebral cortex in the brain to be perceived. Here is the pathway that information follows: Retina: The retina is made up of two types of photoreceptors, rods and cones, which are neurons that detect light. Rods process low levels of light and motion while cones distinguish color and detail. Optic nerve: The visual information received by the rods and cones in the retina is then sent through the optic nerve and out the back of the eye towards your brain. Optic chiasm: The nerves then cross over in an area called the optic chiasm. This crossover allows your primary cortex to get information from both eyes. The optic chiasm is where visual information is sorted and broken up for more processing. The left field of vision is processed by the right side (or cerebral hemisphere), and the right field of vision is processed by the left cerebral hemisphere. Optic Tract: The optic nerve then continues from the optic chiasm to the thalamus. This part of the optic nerve is called the optic tract. Thalamus: All sensory information enters the thalamus. In particular, it enters a part of the thalamus called the LGN (lateral geniculate nucleus). From here, visual information is organized and sent off to the primary cortex. Optic Radiations: The organized information is then sent through axons (nerve fibers) to the cerebral cortex. This series of nerve fibers is called optic radiations. Cerebral Cortex: This is where images received from your retina begin to get processed and is the very beginning of your brain’s process of interpreting and recognizing what you see. Here, depth perception is processed and shapes, color, and motion are perceived.

914. What is the function of endocrine glands?
     • They secrete hormones directly into the blood.
     • They transmit nerve impulses between parts of the body.
     • They secrete products directly into a duct that carries the products to where they are needed.
     • They are a group of cells that respond to specific hormones.

     Correct answer: They secrete hormones directly into the blood.

     Answer: They secrete hormones directly into the blood. A gland is an organ that produces and releases substances that perform a specific function in the body. There are two types of glands: endocrine and exocrine. Endocrine glands produce hormones and secrete them directly into the blood. Exocrine glands secrete their products into a duct that carries the products to the target tissue. Your sweat glands are an example of exocrine glands. “A group of cells that respond to specific hormones” are target tissues. The nervous system transmits nerve impulses between parts of the body. Below is an illustration of the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands. Note that endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the blood.

915. Which of the following best describes the anatomical position?
     • Standing upright, facing away from the observer, upper extremities at the body's sides, feet flat and directed forward, and the palms facing towards anteriorly.
     • Standing upright, facing away from the observer, upper extremities at the body's sides, feet flat and directed outward, and the palms facing anteriorly.
     • Standing upright, facing the observer, upper extremities at the body's sides, feet flat and directed forward, and the palms facing posteriorly
     • Standing upright, facing the observer, upper extremities at the body's sides, feet flat and directed forward, and the palms facing anteriorly

     Correct answer: Standing upright, facing the observer, upper extremities at the body's sides, feet flat and directed forward, and the palms facing anteriorly

     Answer: anteriorly. The anatomical position is defined as standing erect (straight up) with feet forward and palms facing anteriorly (towards the front) with the thumbs facing outwards. Below are the important terms of direction as well as a diagram of the anatomical position to use as a visual reference: Superior (above), Inferior (below), Anterior (toward the front; in front of), Posterior (toward the back; behind), Medial (toward the midline), Lateral (away from the midline or toward the sides), Proximal (closer to the point of attachment – usually in reference to limbs), Distal (farther away from the point of attachment – usually in reference to limbs)

916. Which of the following is located in the thoracic cavity?
     • The urinary and reproductive organs
     • The small intestine
     • The mediastinum
     • The adrenal glands

     Correct answer: The mediastinum

     Answer: The mediastinum. The mediastinum is the area in the chest between the lungs that contains the heart, part of the windpipe (the trachea), the esophagus, the ascending aorta (the large artery which carries blood from the left ventricle of the heart on its way to the rest of the body) and right and left pulmonary arteries. It is located in the thoracic cavity. The urinary and reproductive organs are located in the pelvic cavity. The adrenal glands are the endocrine glands responsible for secreting cortisol (which helps regulate metabolism and helps your body respond to stress) and aldosterone (which helps control blood pressure). They are located on top of each kidney in the abdominal cavity. The small intestine is located in the abdominal cavity. The small intestine is the organ where food’s nutrients are absorbed for the body. Below is a diagram of the various body cavities. Note the mediastinum’s location in the thoracic cavity. Also note that the thoracic cavity and abdominal cavity are separated by the diaphragm.

917. Which of the following options correctly lists the layers of the epidermis from the most superficial to the deepest layer?
     • Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum germinativum
     • Stratum germinativum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, stratum granulosum
     • Stratum germinativum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum
     • Stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum germinativum, stratum corneum

     Correct answer: Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum germinativum

     Answer: Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum germinativum. The skin (called the integumentary system) is the largest organ of the body. The skin consists of two layers: the epidermis (the outermost protective layer made of dead, keratinized epithelial cells) and the dermis (the underlying layer of connective tissue with blood vessels, nerve endings, and the associated skin structures). The layers of the epidermis, from the most superficial layer (outer) to the deepest layer (inner), are: stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum germinativum (made up of two sub-sections – the stratum basale and the stratum spinosum). The visual below is a diagram illustrating the layers of the skin. Note: The innermost layer, stratum germinativum, is not specifically labeled below. The stratum germinativum is made up of two sublayers – the stratum basale and the stratum spinosum.

918. In what area of the body would you expect to find especially thick stratum corneum?
     • In the ear canal
     • On the scalp
     • Back of the hand
     • Heel of the foot

     Correct answer: Heel of the foot

     Answer: Heel of the foot. The stratum corneum is the very top layer of the epidermis and exists to protect the inner layers of skin. Areas of skin like your eyelids can be thinner, while other layers such as on the palms of your hands and heels of your foot may be thicker.

919. Which of the following could result from a damaged olfactory nerve?
     • Reduced sense of smell
     • Distorted vision
     • Discomfort in the lumbar region
     • Loss of sensation in the arm

     Correct answer: Reduced sense of smell

     Answer: Reduced sense of smell. The olfactory nerve is located deep in the nasal cavity and is associated with the sense of smell. A compromised or damaged olfactory nerve could result in a reduced sense of smell or loss of your sense of smell, entirely. The optic nerve is located behind the eye. A damaged optic nerve could lead to distorted, reduced, or total loss of vision. The lumbar region refers to the lower back. Damage to the lumbar or sciatic nerve could result in lower back pain or discomfort. Damage to the ulnar or radial nerve, which are both located in the arm, could lead to a loss of sensation in the arm.

920. Which of the following about the hyoid bone is correct?
     • It is formed via intramembranous ossification.
     • It is the only bone that does not articulate with any other bone.
     • It is one of the three bones that comprise the bones of the ear, called ossicles.
     • It is located on the dorsal side of the body.

     Correct answer: It is the only bone that does not articulate with any other bone.

     Answer: It is the only bone that does not articulate with any other bone. The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located at the root of the tongue in the anterior (front) of the neck and between the mandible (lower jaw) and the largest cartilage of the larynx (voice box). The primary function of the hyoid bone is to serve as an anchoring structure for the tongue. It is the only bone with no articulation with other bones. This means it is not connected to any other bone. Intramembranous ossification is the process where bone is formed in sheet-like layers that resemble a membrane. This is how the flat bones of the skull, mandible (jaw), and clavicles (collarbone) are formed. The hyoid bone is formed via endochonral ossification. The hyoid bone is located on the ventral (front) side of the body – not the dorsal (back). The three bones that comprise the ossicles, or bones of the ear, are the malleus, incus, and stapes.

921. The hormone __________ assists estrogen in stimulating the formation of the endometrium.
     • Testosterone
     • Oxytocin
     • Progesterone
     • Luteinizing hormone

     Correct answer: Progesterone

     Answer: progesterone. Progesterone is a hormone produced by the ovaries and is responsible for maintaining the uterine lining, or endometrium. Oxytocin is a hormone that is involved with the processes of childbirth and milk production and is released by the pituitary gland. Luteinizing hormone is also an important hormone for the female reproductive system; however, it is not involved with the formation or maintenance of the endometrium. Instead, it stimulates ovulation along with estrogen. It is also not produced by the reproductive organs but by the pituitary gland in the brain. Testosterone is the primary male reproductive hormone, however, it is produced in smaller amounts by the ovaries in women. The role of testosterone in women is to regulate libido, body composition, and muscular strength.

922. Which muscle is located towards the front of the lower leg?
     • Vastus lateralis
     • Tibialis anterior
     • Tibialis posterior
     • Adductor longus

     Correct answer: Tibialis anterior

     Answer: Tibialis anterior. The tibialis anterior is located towards the front of the tibia (the shin bone). The tibialis posterior is located towards the back of the tibia. The vastus lateralis is located towards the outside of the leg. The adductor longus is located towards the inside of the leg. This muscle adducts (move toward the midline) the leg. NurseHub Hint: Remember that anterior is the anatomical term for “towards the front”. Knowing this would allow you to make an educated guess that tibialis anterior must be located towards the front of the body. Most muscles are named after their location or points of attachment, so use your knowledge of anatomical terms (like anterior and posterior) to your advantage.

923. The _______________ artery is located in the upper arm, and is a continuation of the ________________ artery.
     • Brachial; axillary
     • Axillary; brachial
     • Brachial; carotid
     • Carotid; axillary

     Correct answer: Brachial; axillary

     Answer: brachial; axillary. The brachial artery is located in the upper arm and supplies blood to the upper arm region. Since the path of blood flow moves from proximal to distal, or away from the heart, the brachial artery is a continuation of the more proximal axillary artery which originates in the axilla, or underarm area. The carotid artery is found in the neck area and has the primary responsibility of supplying blood to the brain.

924. The ________ is a sac-like structure that stores urine.
     • Bladder
     • Kidney
     • Prostate
     • Urethra

     Correct answer: Bladder

     The correct answer is Bladder. The bladder is a pear shaped muscular sac which lies behind the pubis symphysis. It stores urine until the individual is ready to urinate. The are three openings to the bladder: The two upper ureteric orifices through which urine pass from the ureter to the bladder . The lower urethral orifice through which urine leaves the bladder to enter the urethra. The kidneys are bean-shaped structures that produce urine. The urethra is a tube-like structure that conveys urine from the bladder to the exterior. The prostate is a walnut-sized gland in males that produces fluid that is part of the semen. Structure | Function: Ureter A muscular tube that conveys urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder, Bladder A muscular sac that stores urine until micturition, Urethra A muscular tube that conveys urine from the bladder to the exterior.

925. A patient with a lower than normal amount of thrombocytes could be at risk of ____________.
     • Unnecessary blood clotting
     • Extensive bleeding
     • Fatigue and shortness of breath
     • Inability to fight infection

     Correct answer: Extensive bleeding

     Answer: extensive bleeding. Thrombocytes (platelets) are one of the main components of your blood. The purpose of thrombocytes is to help the blood clotting process by gathering at the site of an injury, sticking to the lining of the injured blood vessel, and forming a platform on which blood coagulation can occur. A patient with a lower than normal amount of thrombocytes will experience difficulty with blood clotting, which would lead to extensive bleeding. On the other hand, a person with a higher than normal amount of thrombocytes will experience unnecessary blood clotting, which can lead to stroke or heart attack. Leukocytes (white blood cells) help the body fight infection. A lower than normal amount of leukocytes would result in a decreased ability to fight infection. Erythrocytes (red blood cells) contain a special protein called hemoglobin, which helps carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and then returns carbon dioxide from the body to the lungs so it can be exhaled. A lower than normal amount of erythrocytes would lead to fatigue and shortness of breath.

926. Which of the following does not correctly pair the structure with its function?
     • Iris: regulates the size of the pupil
     • Choroid: prevents light that enters the eye from reflecting
     • Ciliary body: secretes aqueous humor
     • Aqueous humor: supplies nutrients to the retina

     Correct answer: Aqueous humor: supplies nutrients to the retina

     The aqueous humor does not supply nutrients to the retina. It supplies nutrients and oxygen to the structures in the anterior segment of the eye, i.e., the cornea and the lens. The ciliary body has epithelial cells which secrete aqueous humor into the anterior segment of the eye. Additionally, the ciliary body is attached to the lens, and it regulates the size and thickness of the lens. The iris is a pigmented structure that regulates the size of the pupil and gives the eye its color. The choroid is the vascular layer of the eye and supplies it with oxygen and nutrients. It also prevents light entering into the eye from reflecting. Structure | Description | Function: Sclera The outer fibrous layer of the eye. Protects the eye, Cornea The transparent anterior section of the outer layer of the eye. Light rays enter the eye through the cornea, Aqueous humor The nutrient-rich fluid that is produced by the ciliary body. It is present in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye. Provides nutrients to the cornea and lens, Iris The pigmented structure of smooth muscles divides the anterior segment of the eye into anterior and posterior chambers. It gives the eye its characteristic color. It also regulates the diameter of the pupils to allow more or less light into the eye, Pupils The central opening in the iris. Light rays entering the eye pass through the pupil to reach the lens. The pupil regulates the amount of light that gets to the sensitive retina, Choroid The middle vascular layer of the eye. It supplies oxygen and nutrients to the eye. After light rays that enter the eye stimulate the retina, the choroid absorbs the light rays to prevent reflection, Ciliary body Continuation of the choroid, which holds the lens in place. It secretes aqueous humor. It controls the size and shape of the lens and helps in accommodation, Vitreous humor Transparent gelatinous structure in the posterior cavity of the eye. It maintains the shape of the eye and also refracts light rays to the retina, Retina The nervous layer of the eye. Converts images to visual impulses and transmits them to the brain, where they are interpreted.

927. Which of the following correctly describes the retina?
     • The middle layer of the eye which focuses light rays
     • The middle layer of the eye which supplies nutrients to the eye
     • The outer layer of the eye which protects the eye
     • The inner layer of the eye which generates nerve impulses

     Correct answer: The inner layer of the eye which generates nerve impulses

     The inner, nervous layer of the eye is called the retina. The eye comprises an outer layer, a middle layer, and an inner layer. The outer fibrous layer has two parts: The sclera – the white portion of the outer eye. It protects and supports the eyes. The cornea – the transparent portion that lies anteriorly to the pupil. It protects the pupil and helps refract light entering the eye. The middle vascular layer has three parts: The choroid – supplies the eye with oxygen and nutrients and prevents light that enters the eye from being reflected. The ciliary body – has epithelial cells that secrete aqueous humor into the anterior segment of the eye. Additionally, the ciliary body is attached to the lens, and it regulates the size and thickness of the lens. The iris – a pigmented structure with smooth muscles. It regulates the size of the pupils and gives individuals their characteristic eye color. The inner nervous layer is the retina, which includes two types of photosensitive receptors: Rods to see black and white, Cones to see color. The central part of the retina is called the macula and is rich in cones.

928. Which of the following is not the sex organ found in males?
     • Urethra
     • Seminal vesicle
     • Cervix
     • Vas deferens

     Correct answer: Cervix

     The cervix is found in the female reproductive system. The male reproductive system comprises of: Testes (primary sex organ), Scrotum, epididymis, vas deferens, and ejaculatory duct, Accessory glands: Seminal vesicle, prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland, Urethra and penis.

929. Where does digestion begin in the alimentary canal?
     • Esophagus
     • Stomach
     • Oral cavity
     • Small intestine

     Correct answer: Oral cavity

     Answer: Oral cavity. The alimentary canal is the digestive tube and consists of the primary organs of the digestive system. Those organs, in order, are: mouth (oral cavity), pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus. Mechanical digestion begins in the mouth as the food is chewed. Chemical digestion involves breaking down the food into simpler nutrients that can be used by the cells. Chemical digestion also begins in the mouth when food mixes with saliva. Saliva contains the enzyme amylase, which begins the breakdown of carbohydrates.

930. Which of the four chambers of the heart has the thickest muscular wall?
     • Left ventricle
     • Right ventricle
     • Left atrium
     • Right atrium

     Correct answer: Left ventricle

     Answer: Left ventricle. There are four chambers in the heart: The right atrium receives oxygen-depleted blood from the body and pumps it to the right ventricle. The right ventricle pumps the oxygen-depleted blood to the lungs to be re-oxygenated. The left atrium receives the re-oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle. The left ventricle pumps the re-oxygenated blood to the body. The left ventricle has to send blood the furthest (throughout your entire body), which takes a lot of pressure. This is why the left ventricle has the thickest muscular wall of the four chambers in your heart.

931. Which of the following is not a type of granulocyte?
     • Monocyte
     • Neutrophil
     • Basophil
     • Eosinophil

     Correct answer: Monocyte

     Monocyte is the correct answer. Monocytes are agranulocytes. They have large horseshoe-shaped nuclei and no granules. They are the largest white blood cells. Monocytes migrate into tissues where they transform into macrophages. Granulocytes are white blood cells that have multiple lobed nuclei and granules in their cytoplasm. The granules contain enzymes that digest pathogens and induce inflammation. Granulocytes are also called polymorphonucleocytes. They include: Eosinophils: They have a bilobed nucleus and many granules. They take up eosin which is an acidic dye and stain red or pink. Basophils: They have a bilobed nucleus and many granules. They take up basic dyes and stain purple-black. Neutrophils: They have a multilobed nucleus and many granules. They take up both acidic and basic dyes. They stain light pink to purple-blue.

932. Which of the following statements about the endocrine system is false?
     • The hypothalamus is commonly known as the "master gland."
     • The adrenal glands secrete cortisol and aldosterone.
     • Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are stored in and secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.
     • Growth of pubic and axillary hair is induced by testosterone and estrogen.

     Correct answer: The hypothalamus is commonly known as the "master gland."

     Answer: The hypothalamus is commonly know as the “master gland.” The hypothalamus plays a role in regulating your body temperature, releasing hormones, and maintaining homeostasis. The pituitary gland is a small, pea-sized endocrine gland in the brain that is commonly known as the “master gland” because it produces hormones that control other endocrine glands and several body functions including growth. The pituitary consists of the anterior and posterior pituitary. Below are the various secretions of the pituitary gland and the effects of those secretions on their target tissues. Anterior (front) Pituitary Gland. Growth hormone (GH) stimulates growth in muscles and bones. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) stimulates the production of melanin in the skin. Melanin is the pigment in the skin that gives it its color and protects the skin from UV rays. Gonadotropins (FSH and LH) stimulate the gonads (testis in males; ovaries in females) and are vital to sexual development and reproductive function. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) stimulates the thyroid to produce hormones that stimulate the metabolism of almost every tissue in the body. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol (the stress hormone) Prolactin stimulates the breast to make breast milk. Posterior (back) Pituitary Gland Antidiuretic hormone, which helps the kidney regulate osmolarity, the electrolyte-water balance in the body. Oxytocin, which also acts on the breast to stimulate lactation.

933. Which of the following hormones is primarily produced and secreted by the male reproductive system?
     • Prolactin
     • Growth Hormone
     • Estrogen
     • Testosterone

     Correct answer: Testosterone

     Answer: Testosterone. Hormones play an important role in regulating and stimulating various processes. Testosterone is the primary male reproductive hormone and is responsible for producing sperm, as well as regulating the development of secondary sex characteristics such as facial and body hair, muscle, and bone mass. One of the hormones produced by the female reproductive system is estrogen, which stimulates is ovulation. Every month estrogen levels increase and stimulate the ovaries to release eggs for the possibility of fertilization. Growth hormone is a hormone that is important for tissue growth and repair but is not produced by the reproductive system. It is secreted by the pituitary gland in the brain. Prolactin is a female hormone that stimulates milk production.

934. Eccrine glands secrete a watery substance onto the surface of the skin to maintain temperature homeostasis through which process?
     • Evaporation
     • Condensation
     • Absorption
     • Precipitation

     Correct answer: Evaporation

     Answer: Evaporation. Eccrine glands (also called merocrine glands) are the most widely distributed sweat glands in the body. They secrete a watery substance (sweat) onto the skin, which cools the body when it evaporates (turns from liquid into a gas). This process is called evaporative cooling. As heat from your body causes the water (sweat) on the surface of your skin to evaporate (and leave) it cools your body down because the evaporating sweat takes heat with it. Condensation is the process of gas turning into a liquid. Water collecting on grass as dew in the early morning is an example of condensation. Absorption is the process by which one substance takes up another substance through minute pores or spaces between its molecules. A paper towel picking up water is an example of absorption. Precipitation is rain, snow, sleet, or hail — any kind of weather condition where something’s falling from the sky.

935. Which structure lies between the thoracic and abdominal cavities?
     • Lungs
     • Sternum
     • Mediastinum
     • Diaphragm

     Correct answer: Diaphragm

     Answer: Diaphragm. The diaphragm is a thin muscle that separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity and is a vital structure when it comes to breathing. When you inhale, the diaphragm contracts, which enlarges the chest cavity and draws air into the lungs. When you exhale, the diaphragm relaxes and the air is pushed out of the lungs. The mediastinum is the area in the chest between the lungs that contains the heart, part of the windpipe (the trachea), the esophagus, the ascending aorta (the large artery which carries blood from the left ventricle of the heart on its way to the rest of the body) and right and left pulmonary arteries. It is located in the thoracic cavity but does not separate the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. The sternum is a long flat bone located in the central part of the chest. Ribs are attached to the sternum. There are three parts of the sternum: Manubrium (top), Body (middle), Xyphoid process (bottom). Below is a diagram of the various body cavities. Note that the thoracic cavity and abdominal cavity are separated by the diaphragm.

936. In which part of the body would you find aqueous humor?
     • In the cavities of synovial joints
     • Within the mediastinum
     • Between the lens and cornea in the eye
     • Throughout the lymphatic system

     Correct answer: Between the lens and cornea in the eye

     Answer: Between the lens and cornea in the eye. Aqueous humor is the clear liquid found between the cornea and the lens of eye. The aqueous humor helps maintain intraocular pressure and nourishes the lens and cornea. Synovial fluid is found in the cavities of synovial joints. Synovial fluid lubricates the articular cartilage of synovial joints allowing them to move freely. The lymphatic system is a network of tissues and organs that help rid the body of toxins, waste and foreign substances. The primary function of the lymphatic system is to transport lymph, a fluid containing infection-fighting white blood cells (called antibodies), throughout the body. Lymph also works closely with the circulatory system by returning body fluids to the blood. The mediastinum is the area in the chest between the lungs that contains the heart, part of the windpipe (the trachea), the esophagus, the ascending aorta (the large artery which carries blood from the left ventricle of the heart on its way to the rest of the body) and right and left pulmonary arteries. It is located in the thoracic cavity. The mediastinum contains a tiny amount of serous fluid to lubricate the pleural surface (the lining of the lungs) and makes it easy for them to slide over each other during lung inflation and deflation.

937. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes occur in various parts of the renal tubules. In which segment is sodium mostly reabsorbed?
     • Loop of Henle
     • Distal Convoluted Tubules
     • Collecting Ducts
     • Proximal Convoluted Tubules

     Correct answer: Proximal Convoluted Tubules

     Answer: Proximal Convoluted Tubules. 60% of Na+ is reabsorbed in Proximal Convoluted Tubules while 30% is reabsorbed in thick ascending Loop of Henle. The remaining 10% is reabsorbed in Distal Convoluted Tubules and Collecting Ducts.

938. Which blood vessel returns blood from the lungs back to the heart?
     • Superior vena cava
     • Pulmonary artery
     • Inferior vena cava
     • Pulmonary vein

     Correct answer: Pulmonary vein

     Answer: Pulmonary veins. The pulmonary veins are the veins that transfer oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. The pulmonary arteries are the arteries that deliver deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs. The inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries the deoxygenated blood from the lower and middle body into the right atrium of the heart. The superior vena cava is a large vein that carries the deoxygenated blood from the upper body into the right atrium of the heart. NurseHub Hint: Remember that veins carry blood to the heart, whereas arteries carry blood away from the heart. Also, “pulmonary” is the word that refers to the lungs. Knowing this, we could determine that it must be the pulmonary vein that returns blood from the lungs to the heart.

939. Which of the following refers to the term “distal”?
     • Farther from the trunk or point of attachment
     • Towards the midline
     • Closer to the trunk or point of attachment
     • Away from the midline

     Correct answer: Farther from the trunk or point of attachment

     Farther from the trunk or point of attachment. Distal refers to being farther from the trunk or the point of attachment. The carpus (the wrist) is distal to the antebrachium (the forearm). Proximal refers to being closer to the trunk or point of attachment. The antebrachium (the forearm) is proximal to the carpus (the wrist). The terms proximal and distal are frequently used for the upper limbs and lower limbs. They are also used in describing blood vessels and the intestines, using their point of origin as the reference point. The term lateral refers to being further “away from the midline.” The term medial “means closer to the midline.” The vastus lateralis muscle of the thigh is lateral to the vastus medialis muscle. Terminology | Other names | Meaning: Anterior Ventral Front, Posterior Dorsal Back, Superior Cranial Above, Inferior Caudal Below, Medial Closer to the midline, Lateral Further from the midline, Proximal Closer to the trunk/point of attachment or origin, Distal Further from the trunk/point of attachment or origin.

940. Which of the following organelles is responsible for lipid synthesis?
     • Secretory vesicles
     • Lysosomes
     • Golgi apparatus
     • Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

     Correct answer: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

     Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Synthesis, in anatomy, refers to putting different things together to create a new entity. For example, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes—or puts together—different molecules in the cell to create lipids. The Golgi apparatus is responsible for the packaging of proteins. Lysosomes are membranous sacs that contain lysozyme. They digest large molecules and cellular debris. Secretory vesicles are membranous sacs containing substances to be transported outside the cell. Organelle | Description | Function: Cell membrane ; A lipid bilayer that surrounds the cell. It protects the cell and regulates the transport of substances in and out of the cell. Nucleus; Organelle bound by a double membrane called nuclear membrane. It contains the genetic material of the cell. It is the control center of the cell. Nucleolus; Spherical structure is rich in RNA found within the nucleus. Manufacture and assembly of ribosomes. Cytoplasm; The fluid portion of the cell, excluding the nucleus. Suspends cell organelles. Mitochondria; Sausage-shaped structure with two membranes. The inner membrane is arranged into folds called cristae. Energy production. It is often called the powerhouse of the cell. Ribosomes ; Small granules are found free in the cell or attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Protein synthesis. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum; Membranous tubular structure. Synthesis of lipids and steroids. Rough endoplasmic reticulum ; Membranous tubular structure with ribosomes attached to it. Synthesis of protein for export out of the cell. Golgi apparatus ; Stacks of membrane sacs. Packaging of proteins into vesicles. They are the warehouse of the cells. Lysosomes ; Vesicles containing lysozyme. Digestion/break down of large particles and damaged cellular structures. Secretory vesicles ; Membrane-bound sacs. Contain substances to be secreted outside the cell.

941. The layer of skin that contains a high number of blood vessels, as well as elastic and collagen fibers is the ____________.
     • Dermis
     • Stratum germinativum
     • Epidermis
     • Hypodermis

     Correct answer: Dermis

     The dermis is the layer of the skin that has a high number of blood vessels, and is also rich in elastic and collagen fibers. It is divided into two layers: The superficial papillary layer has fingerlike projections that protrude into the epidermis and contain blood capillaries. Since the epidermis lacks blood vessels, the deepest layers of the epidermis receive nutrients from this papillary layer. The deeper reticular area strengthens the skin and provides elasticity. It contains the sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and hair follicles. The stratum germinativum is a part of the epidermis and the epidermis is not vascularized (does not have blood vessels). The hypodermis is the subcutaneous tissue. It is mostly made up of fat and serves as the main structural support for the skin and is important in providing insulation to the rest of the body. The epidermis is not vascularized (does not have blood vessels).

942. ______________ is a connective tissue that joins two bones.
     • Joint
     • Cartilage
     • Ligament
     • Tendon

     Correct answer: Ligament

     A ligament connects a bone to a bone. Cartilage can be found at the end of some bones and in some joints. Cartilage provides a smooth surface against which bones can move within a joint. A tendon connects a muscle to a bone. A joint is where two bones meet. They are classified into: Fibrous joints: The bones are joined by fibrous tissue. These joints are not moveable. Example: Joints in the skull. Cartilaginous joints: The bones are joined by fibrocartilage. They have no movement or very limited movement. Example: Joints in the vertebrae. Synovial joints: These are the most mobile joints. They usually have a capsule lined with a synovial membrane, which secretes synovial fluid that acts as a lubricant. The bones are joined by ligaments. The surfaces of the bones in contact with each other are covered with articular cartilage. The degree of movement at the joint depends on the kind of synovial joint. Some types of synovial joints are: ball and socket joint* hinge joint, gliding joint, pivot joint, condyloid joint, saddle joint *The ball and socket joint allows for a wide range of movement.

943. Which of the following contains nonstriated muscle fibers?
     • The heart
     • Pectoralis major
     • Quadricep muscle
     • The intestine

     Correct answer: The intestine

     The correct answer is The intestine. Smooth muscles are spindle-shaped, nonstriated, and have a single nucleus. They are involuntary muscles. Smooth muscles are present in the gastrointestinal tract, walls of blood vessels, uterus, bladder, ureter, and urethra. Cardiac muscles have branched, striated fibers that have a single nucleus. The fibers join at the intercalated discs. Cardiac muscles, which are found exclusively in the heart, are not under voluntary control. Skeletal muscles have striated, multinucleated cylindrical fibers, and their action is under voluntary control. Pectoralis major and quadricep muscles are skeletal muscles.

944. What is the function of a neuron?
     • Production of the myelin sheath
     • Phagocytosis
     • Generation and transmission of impulses
     • Providing nutrients

     Correct answer: Generation and transmission of impulses

     The correct answer is Generation and transmission of impulses. The nervous system comprises neurons and neuroglia. Neurons generate and transmit impulses. Neuroglia support and protect the neurons. Schwann cells produce myelin sheath which wraps the axons of neurons. Myelin sheath insulates the neuron. Astrocytes (neuroglia) provide nutrients to neurons and protect the neurons. The circulatory system is responsible for transporting nutrients to the cells of the body. The microglia are a kind of glial cells (non-excitable nervous cells) with phagocytic activity. They can remove microbes and dead tissue from sites of inflammation.

945. Which hormone controls the hypothalamus by positive feedback?
     • Oxytocin
     • Cortisol
     • Antidiuretic hormone
     • Thyroid hormone

     Correct answer: Oxytocin

     The correct answer is Oxytocin. The hypothalamus is controlled by a feedback mechanism. This helps to prevent disease states by abnormal production of hormones. Most hormones act by negative feedback except for oxytocin which acts by positive feedback. In late pregnancy, stretching of the uterine walls stimulates release of oxytocin. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of the uterus and, as the baby moves down, the cervix stretches. This sends a positive feedback to the hypothalamus to produce more oxytocin. More oxytocin leads to increased contraction and the amplification continues throughout labour until delivery. The hypothalamus is principally controlled by a negative feedback mechanism. In negative feedback, a hormone feeds back to inhibit its own production. Once an adequate amount of the hormone has been produced, it sends back signals to inhibit its production. This is useful since it prevents excess amounts of the hormone from being produced. For example, the hypothalamus releases corticotropin hormone which acts on the anterior pituitary to cause production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). ACTH acts on the adrenal cortex to cause secretion of cortisol. When an adequate quantity of cortisol is produced, it feeds back to shut down further production of CRH by the hypothalamus. This ultimately slows down production of cortisol.

946. Which of the following components of blood is correctly paired with its function?
     • Monocytes-clotting
     • Lymphocytes-acquired immunity
     • Platelets-transport of gases
     • Granulocyte-production of antibodies

     Correct answer: Lymphocytes-acquired immunity

     The correct answer is Lymphocytes-acquired immunity. Leukocytes are responsible for defense. There are different kinds of white blood cells: Granulocytes are white blood cells that have multiple lobed nuclei and granules in their cytoplasm. They are also called polymorphonuclear leukocytes. They include: Eosinophils have a bilobed nucleus and many granules. They take up eosin which is an acidic dye and stain red or pink. Basophils have a bilobed nucleus and many granules. They take up basic dyes and stain purple-black. Neutrophils have a multilobed nucleus and many granules. They take up both acidic and basic dyes. They stain light pink to purple-blue. Lymphocytes are agranulocytes (they have no granules). They possess a large rounded nucleus. Lymphocytes are responsible for acquired immunity. There are two types of lymphocytes: B lymphocytes, which produce antibodies. T lymphocytes kill infected cells. They also produce cytokines, activate other immune cells, and regulate the immune response. There are different types of T lymphocytes: cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells, and regulatory T cells. A monocyte is an agranulocyte (contains no granules) with a large kidney-shaped or horseshoe-shaped nucleus. It is a phagocyte and it also produces cytokines that modulate the production of activated T cells and induce inflammation. Monocytes are found in the blood. When monocytes migrate to the tissue, they develop into macrophages. Platelets and not monocytes are responsible for blood clotting. Erythrocytes transport gases. B lymphocytes produce antibodies.

947. Which structure divides into the left and right bronchi?
     • Bronchioles
     • Trachea
     • Larynx
     • Pharynx

     Correct answer: Trachea

     The correct answer is Trachea. The trachea conducts air from the larynx to the lungs. It divides into the right and left bronchi. The pharynx conducts air from the nasal cavity and oral cavity to the larynx. The larynx conducts air from the pharynx to the trachea. It is also called the voice box as it contains the vocal cords that act as vibrators to produce sounds. The bronchioles are branches of the bronchi. Air is conducted to the lungs in this order: Air enters through the nose and/or mouth- Pharynx-Larynx-Trachea-Bronchi-Bronchioles-Alveoli. Structure | Description | Function: Nose and nasal cavity Entrance into the respiratory passages $\cdot$ Warms air $\cdot$ Filters air $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Olfaction, Pharynx Runs behind the nasal cavity, oral cavity, and larynx Continues as the esophagus $\cdot$ Passage for air and food, Larynx Also called voice box Begins at the laryngopharynx, runs in front of the pharynx, and opens into the trachea $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Prevents food and water from getting into the lungs $\cdot$ Phonation, Trachea Also called windpipe Divides into the right and left bronchi $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Warms air, Bronchi Divide into many branches Smallest branches are the terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Air passage, Cilia Hair-like structures that line most of the respiratory tract $\cdot$ Move mucus and trapped materials towards the pharynx where they are swallowed or expelled by coughing, Alveoli Tiny sacs at the end of terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Gas exchange between the respiratory tract and the blood vessels, Lungs Spongy structure located in the thoracic cavity They are covered by the pleura (visceral and parietal) and rest on the diaphragm Contain the alveoli, bronchi and their branches, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics $\cdot$ Gas exchange, Diaphragm A dome shaped muscular structure separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity $\cdot$ Acts as a respiratory muscle Contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm helps in breathing

948. The bolus is formed in which part of the digestive system?
     • Oral cavity
     • Pharynx
     • Stomach
     • Esophagus

     Correct answer: Oral cavity

     Oral cavity is the correct answer. In the oral cavity, the teeth tear and grind food into small bits. Saliva moistens the food and the tongue helps to move the food and roll it into a bolus. Thereafter, the tongue moves the bolus to the back of the oral cavity where it is swallowed. There are 3 stages of swallowing: The oral stage, which is voluntary and achieved when the tongue sends the bolus to the back of the oral cavity. The pharyngeal stage, which is involuntary. Muscles of the pharynx contract and propel the bolus into the esophagus. The esophageal stage, which is involuntary. The presence of the bolus in the esophagus initiates peristalsis that propels the bolus into the stomach.

949. The urethra conveys urine from the __________.
     • Bowman’s capsule to the collecting duct
     • Bladder to the exterior
     • Kidney to the bladder
     • Tubules to the renal pelvis

     Correct answer: Bladder to the exterior

     The correct answer is Bladder to the exterior. The urethra conveys urine from the bladder to the exterior. The collecting duct conveys urine from the tubules to the renal pelvis. The ureter conveys urine from the kidney to the bladder. The tubules convey glomerular filtrate from the Bowman’s capsule to the collecting duct. Blood is filtered across the glomerulus of each nephron into the Bowman’s capsule. The glomerular filtrate is altered by the process of reabsorption and secretion as the filtrate moves from the Bowman’s capsule down the tubules into the collecting duct. The collecting ducts empty urine into the renal pelvis. Urine moves from the renal pelvis to the ureter and into the bladder where it is stored until the person has an urge to urinate. Urine from the bladder passes through the urethra to get to the exterior. Structure | Function: Glomerulus Tufts of capillaries in the Bowman’s capsule. Blood filters across the glomerulus into the Bowman’s space. Bowman’s capsule A cup-like structure at the end of the tubule contains the glomerulus. Proximal convoluted tubule The first part of the tubule, and is a continuation of the Bowman’s capsule. Reabsorption and secretion take place here. Loop of Henle The continuation of the proximal convoluted tubule that loops down so that the two limbs are parallel to each other. Site responsible for producing the concentration gradient of the kidney via the countercurrent mechanism. Distal convoluted tubule The continuation of the loop of Henle. Reabsorption and secretion take place here. Collecting duct Distal convoluted tubules drain into it. The antidiuretic hormone acts at this point. It empties through the papillary duct to the calyces which coalesce to form the renal pelvis. Renal pelvis A funnel-shaped structure is formed by the coalescing of the major calyces. It drains into the ureter. Ureter A muscular tube that conveys urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder. Bladder A muscular sac that stores urine until micturition. Urethra A muscular tube that conveys urine from the bladder to the exterior.

950. A granulocyte with bilobed nucleus and granules that contain histamine is ________.
     • Basophil
     • Neutrophil
     • Macrophage
     • Monocyte

     Correct answer: Basophil

     Basophil is the correct answer. Basophils have a bilobed nucleus and many granules. The granules contain heparin and histamine. They take up basic dyes and stain purple-black. Neutrophils have a multilobed nucleus and many granules. They take up both acidic and basic dyes. A monocyte is an agranulocyte (contains no granules) with a large kidney-shaped or horseshoe-shaped nucleus. It is a phagocyte and it also produces cytokines, which modulate the production of activated T cells and induce inflammation. Monocytes are found in the blood. When monocytes migrate to the tissue, they develop into macrophages.

951. Which of the following is a part of the female reproductive system?
     • Epididymis
     • Urethra
     • Bulbourethral gland
     • Bartholin’s gland

     Correct answer: Bartholin’s gland

     Bartholin’s gland is a part of the female reproductive system. The female reproductive system is comprised of: Internal sex organs: Ovaries (paired), Fallopian tube (paired), Uterus: The parts of the uterus are the fundus, body, and cervix. Vagina. External sex organs: Mons pubis, Labia majora, Labia minora, Clitoris, Bartholin’s gland (also called vestibular gland). Accessory gland: Breasts. The male reproductive system is comprised of: Testes (primary sex organ), Scrotum, epididymis, vas deferens, and ejaculatory duct, Accessory glands: Seminal vesicle, prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland, Urethra and penis

952. Which of the following structures gives the eye its color?
     • Lens
     • Iris
     • Retina
     • Cornea

     Correct answer: Iris

     The iris is a pigmented structure with smooth muscles. It controls how much light is let into the eye by regulating the size of the pupils and gives individuals their characteristic eye color. The retina is the inner nervous layer of the eye. It contains photoreceptors and nerves. Light rays trigger the photoreceptors so that the retina generates impulses that travel through the nerves to the brain, where the impulses are interpreted. The cornea is the transparent portion of the outer layer of the eye and lies anteriorly to the pupil. The cornea protects the pupil and helps refract light entering the eye. The pupil is an opening in the center of the iris. Furthermore, the size of the pupils is controlled by the iris. Light passes through the pupils to reach the lens.

953. What is the purpose of gastric mucous?
     • To protect the stomach lining from acid and digestive enzymes.
     • To trap waste products to be turned into fecal matter.
     • To prevent pathogens from being absorbed by the stomach lining and into the bloodstream.
     • To help break down fibrous foods.

     Correct answer: To protect the stomach lining from acid and digestive enzymes.

     Answer: To protect the stomach lining from acid and digestive enzymes. Hydrochloric (HCL) acid is highly corrosive and can cause significant damage when it comes in contact with skin. However, HCL acid is secreted into the stomach to aid in chemical digestion. To protect itself from its own acid, the stomach is lined with a special mucal layer. People with stomach ulcers have a hole in this layer, allowing the acid to get to the skin underneath. HCl is present in our stomach to aid digestion – especially with dismantling the bolus (food) coming from the esophagus.

954. The endocrine system uses ___________ to maintain homeostasis.
     • Hormones
     • Electrical impulses
     • Nucleic acids
     • Enzymes

     Correct answer: Hormones

     The correct answer is Hormones. The endocrine system maintains homeostasis by producing and secreting chemical messengers called hormones. Hormones act at sites different from where they are produced. They are carried in the blood to their target tissue where they bind to a specific receptor to exert a specific response. There are different kinds of hormones” Steroid hormones are lipophilic and act on intracellular receptors. Non-steroid hormones are hydrophilic and act on cell surface receptors.

955. How does serotonin affect the body?
     • It helps to regulate mood, anxiety, sleep, memory, and appetite.
     • It stimulates the uterine muscles to contract during childbirth and promotes lactation.
     • It helps to regulate urine output and maintains osmolarity.
     • It helps to regulate motivation, euphoria, and fine motor function.

     Correct answer: It helps to regulate mood, anxiety, sleep, memory, and appetite.

     Answer: It helps to regulate mood, anxiety, sleep, memory, and appetite. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter. Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers within the brain that allow communication between nerve cells. Serotonin is involved in regulating mood, stress and anxiety, sleep, overall happiness, and appetite. Low serotonin levels have been linked to depression. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is involved in regulating motivation, euphoria (pleasure), and fine motor function (the coordination of small muscle movements). Antidiretic hormone (also called vasopressin) is involved in regulating urine output and maintaining osmolarity (the electrolyte-water ratio in your body). Oxytocin is involved in stimulating the uterine muscles to contract during childbirth and promoting lactation. NOTE 1: Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are both hormones and are not neurotransmitters. They are both produced by the hypothalamus gland and stored in the posterior pituitary gland for later release. NOTE 2: Neurotransmitters are different from hormones because hormones are secreted by endocrine glands directly into the blood, whereas neurotransmitters are messages between nerve cells in the brain.

956. Which of the following structures in the retina is responsible for night vision?
     • Rods
     • Macula
     • Fovea
     • Cones

     Correct answer: Rods

     The rods are photosensitive receptors found in the retina. They function in low light intensity, so they are for night vision and black and white vision. The cones are also photoreceptors found in the retina. They function in high light intensity, so they function in daytime and color vision. The macula is the central part of the retina. As it is rich in cones, it has high visual acuity (sharpness). The central portion of the macula is the fovea. It contains only cones so it has the highest visual acuity (sharpness).

957. Where is the popliteal artery located?
     • Near the top of the cubital fossa
     • Below the jaw line between the trachea and sternomastoid muscle
     • Behind the knee
     • On the underside of the wrist

     Correct answer: Behind the knee

     Answer: Behind the knee. The popliteal artery is the artery located behind the knee. The artery located on the underside of the wrist is the radial artery. The cubital fossa is the triangular area that is in front of the elbow. This is where you palpate the brachial artery. The artery located below the jawline between the trachea and sternomastoid muscle is the carotid artery.

958. T-lymphocytes are developed by which of the following glands?
     • Lymph nodes
     • Thyroid
     • Hypothalamus
     • Thymus

     Correct answer: Thymus

     Answer: Thymus. Lymphocytes are a type of leukocyte (white blood cells) that are crucial to our immune systems. There are three main types known as T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells. Lymphocytes are part of our immune defense and act to recognize antigens, produce antibodies, and destroy cells that could cause damage. T-lymphocytes (also called T cells), specifcally, are at the core of adaptive immunity, the part of the immune system that customizes the body’s immune response to specific pathogens. You can think of T cells as soldiers in your body who search out and destroy the targeted invaders. T-lymphocytes are developed in the thymus (hence the “T” in the name), which is located directly posteriorly (behind) to the mediastinum (a part of the sternum). Lymph nodes are small glands that filter lymph, the clear fluid that circulates through the lymphatic system. The lymphatic system produces antibodies and works closely with the circulatory system by returning body fluids to the blood. The hypothalamus is the portion of the brain that maintains the body’s internal balance and regulates the body’s temperature. The thyroid gland produces hormones that regulate the body’s metabolic rate. The thyroid is located on the anterior (front) surface of the trachea. Note the locations of the thyroid (in front of the trachea) and thymus (behind the mediastinum of the sternum) in the illustration below.

959. What is erythropoiesis and where does it occur?
     • The formation of red blood cells; Red bone marrow
     • The formation of bile; Liver
     • The formation of red blood cells; Heart
     • The formation of white blood cells; Spleen

     Correct answer: The formation of red blood cells; Red bone marrow

     Answer: Red bone marrow. Erythropoiesis is the production of red blood cells. In the early development of a fetus, erythropoiesis takes place in the yolk sac, spleen, and liver. However, after birth, all erythropoiesis occurs in the bone marrow.

960. Which of the following best describes the function of the mitral valve?
     • Lets blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle
     • Lets blood flow from the right ventricle to the right atrium
     • Lets blood flow from the left ventricle to the left atrium
     • Lets blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle

     Correct answer: Lets blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle

     Answer: Lets blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. The heart has 4 chambers: 2 upper chambers (the right and left atrium) and 2 lower chambers (the right and left ventricles). Blood passes through a valve before leaving each chamber of the heart. The purpose of these valves is to prevent the backward flow of blood. There are 4 valves: Tricuspid valve: This valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. It allows blood to flow from the right atrium into the right ventricle. Pulmonary valve: The pulmonary valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. It allows blood to flow from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery to be taken to the lungs to be re-oxygenated. Mitral valve: This valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle. It allows blood to flow from the left atrium into the left ventricle. This valve is also called the bicuspid valve. Aortic valve: The aortic valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta. It allows blood to flow from the left ventricle into the aorta. NurseHub Hint: When talking about blood flow, the atrium always comes before the ventricle. Think “A before V.” Note the location of the mitral valve in the diagram below. You will find it between the left atrium and left ventricle.

961. Which of the following suggests a location towards the head?
     • Superior
     • Posterior
     • Inferior
     • Caudal

     Correct answer: Superior

     Superior. Superior means “above” or “closer to the head.” The head is superior to the abdomen. Inferior means “lower” or “further from the head.” The ankle is inferior to the knee. Caudal also means “lower” or “further from the head.” The ankle is caudal to the knee. Posterior means “behind.” The buttocks are posterior to the genitals. Terminology | Other names | Meaning: Anterior Ventral Front, Posterior Dorsal Back, Superior Cranial Above, Inferior Caudal Below, Medial Closer to the midline, Lateral Further from the midline, Proximal Closer to the trunk/point of attachment or origin, Distal Further from the trunk/point of attachment or origin.

962. The following are functions of the gonads except ____________.
     • Development of secondary sexual characteristics
     • Production of hormones
     • Transporting of egg cells to fertilization site
     • Production of gametes

     Correct answer: Transporting of egg cells to fertilization site

     The fallopian tubes function as the channels through which released eggs travel toward the uterus. Fertilization usually takes place in the fallopian tubes, so these structures also play a role in transporting the fertilized egg to the uterus. The gonads are the primary sex organs. The primary sex organ is the ovary in females and the testes in males. Gonads produce gametes and hormones. The sex hormones produced by the gonads are responsible for secondary sexual characteristics.

963. Which structure transports urine from the kidney to the bladder?
     • Prostate
     • Ureter
     • Urethra
     • Collecting duct

     Correct answer: Ureter

     The correct answer is Ureter. The ureter conveys urine from the kidneys to the bladder. The urethra transports urine from the bladder to the exterior. The collecting duct transports urine from the distal convoluted tubule to the renal pelvis. The prostate is part of the male reproductive system and its secretions constitute about 20% of the semen. Structure | Function: Ureter A muscular tube that conveys urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder, Bladder A muscular sac that stores urine until micturition, Urethra A muscular tube that conveys urine from the bladder to the exterior.

964. Which of the following is not found in the epidermis?
     • Melanocyte
     • Blood vessels
     • Keratinocyte
     • Langerhan cells

     Correct answer: Blood vessels

     The epidermis is the outer superficial layer of the skin. It does not contain blood vessels. It has 5 layers: Stratum corneum, Stratum lucidum, Stratum granulosum, Stratum spinosum, Stratum basale. Cells that are found in the epidermis include: Keratinocytes synthesize keratin. Keratin makes the skin tough and waterproof. Melanocytes produce melanin that gives the skin its distinct colour. It also protects the body from UV light. Langerhan cells are macrophages. They protect the body from pathogens by ingesting and destroying bacteria or other harmful organisms. Mechanoreceptors and merkel cells that facilitate sensation.

965. The ________________ is a passage for air and food.
     • Pharynx
     • Larynx
     • Alveoli
     • Bronchi

     Correct answer: Pharynx

     The correct answer is Pharynx. The pharynx is a passage that starts behind the nasal cavity. It runs behind the mouth and larynx and continues on as the esophagus. The pharynx has three parts: The nasopharynx The oropharynx, The laryngopharynx (hypopharynx). The pharynx serves as a passage for food going to the esophagus and air entering the larynx and into the lungs. The larynx is located in front of the pharynx and serves as a passage for air that moves from the pharynx to the larynx and then to the trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and, finally, to the alveoli where gas exchange takes place. Food does not pass through the larynx. The epiglottis, which is a cartilaginous structure, covers the larynx during swallowing to prevent food particles or water from entering the larynx. The bronchi are branches of the trachea and they are conduits for air to reach the alveoli. The alveoli are tiny sacs at the end of the respiratory passages. This is where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the respiratory system and the blood occurs. Structure | Description | Function: Nose and nasal cavity Entrance into the respiratory passages $\cdot$ Warms air $\cdot$ Filters air $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Olfaction, Pharynx Runs behind the nasal cavity, oral cavity, and larynx Continues as the esophagus $\cdot$ Passage for air and food, Larynx Also called voice box Begins at the laryngopharynx, runs in front of the pharynx, and opens into the trachea $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Prevents food and water from getting into the lungs $\cdot$ Phonation, Trachea Also called windpipe Divides into the right and left bronchi $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Warms air, Bronchi Divide into many branches Smallest branches are the terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Air passage, Cilia Hair-like structures that line most of the respiratory tract $\cdot$ Move mucus and trapped materials towards the pharynx where they are swallowed or expelled by coughing, Alveoli Tiny sacs at the end of terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Gas exchange between the respiratory tract and the blood vessels, Lungs Spongy structure located in the thoracic cavity They are covered by the pleura (visceral and parietal) and rest on the diaphragm Contain the alveoli, bronchi and their branches, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics $\cdot$ Gas exchange, Diaphragm A dome shaped muscular structure separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity $\cdot$ Acts as a respiratory muscle Contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm helps in breathing

966. Which of the following correctly describes the skeletal muscles?
     • Spindle-shaped, multinucleated, nonstriated fibers
     • Branched, striated fibers with a single nucleus
     • Striated, multinucleated cylindrical fibers
     • Spindle-shaped, nonstriated fibers with a single nucleus

     Correct answer: Striated, multinucleated cylindrical fibers

     The correct answer is Striated multinucleated cylindrical fibers. Skeletal muscle has striated multinucleated cylindrical fibers, and its action is under voluntary control. Cardiac muscles have branched, striated fibers that have a single nucleus. The fibers join at the intercalated discs. Cardiac muscles, which are found exclusively in the heart, are not under voluntary control. Smooth muscles are spindle-shaped, nonstriated, and have a single nucleus. They are involuntary muscles. Smooth muscles are present in the gastrointestinal tract, walls of blood vessels, uterus, bladder, ureter, and urethra.

967. A(n)________ is a group of tissues working together to perform a similar function.
     • Organism
     • Cell
     • System
     • Organ

     Correct answer: Organ

     Organ. A group of tissues performing a specific function is an organ. The cell is the basic functional unit of an organism. A group of cells performing a specific function is a tissue. A group of organs performing a specific function is a system. Different organ systems combine to form an organism.

968. The process of breaking down food into smaller particles in the mouth is called ________.
     • Mastication
     • Peristalsis
     • Propulsion
     • Mass movement

     Correct answer: Mastication

     Mastication is the correct answer. Mastication is the process of breaking down food into smaller particles in the oral cavity. The oral cavity serves as the point at which food gains entrance to the digestive system. The oral cavity is bounded by the lips, cheek muscles on the side, the soft and hard palate superiorly, and the floor of the oral cavity inferiorly. The oral cavity contains the teeth and tongue. The teeth are responsible for tearing and grinding food into small bits. Saliva moistens the food, and the tongue helps to move the food and roll it into a bolus. Peristalsis is muscle contractions that help to move things from one part of a tubular organ to another. Peristalsis occurs in the digestive system and urinary system. Propulsion of food refers to the movement of food from one part of the digestive system to another. This is usually achieved by peristalsis. Mass movement occurs in the large intestine where strong contractions sweep the contents of the colon into the rectum.

969. White blood cells with granules in their cytoplasm are called __________.
     • Monocyte
     • Granulocyte
     • NK cells
     • Lymphocyte

     Correct answer: Granulocyte

     Granulocyte is the correct answer. Granulocytes are white blood cells that have multiple lobed nuclei and granules in their cytoplasm. The three types of granulocytes are: Eosinophils: They have a bilobed nucleus and many granules in their cytoplasm. We can identity eosinophils using a microscope by exposing them to the dye eosin. These cells take up eosin, an acidic dye, which stains them red or pink. Basophils: They have a bilobed nucleus and many granules. We can identity basophils using a microscope by exposing them to basic dyes, which stains them purple-black. Neutrophils: They have a multilobed nucleus and many granules. We can identity neutrophils using a microscope by exposing them to acidic or basic dyes, which stains them light pink to purple-blue. Lymphocytes are agranulocytes (they have no granules). They possess a large rounded nucleus. NK cells resemble lymphocytes. They have large rounded nuclei. In addition, they have granules, which contain proteases and perforins that play a role in cell destruction. Monocytes are also agranulocytes. They have large nuclei and no granules. They are the largest white blood cells.

970. Which of the following is also called the voice box?
     • Pharynx
     • Trachea
     • Nose
     • Larynx

     Correct answer: Larynx

     The correct answer is Larynx. The larynx is also called the voice box. The larynx is made up of several types of cartilage. Two folds of membranous tissue (vocal cords) run from its wall to the interior and act as vibrators that produce sound. The larynx lies in front of the pharynx and serves as a passage for air that moves from the pharynx to the larynx and then to the trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and, finally, to the alveoli where gas exchange takes place. Food does not pass through the larynx. The epiglottis, which is a cartilaginous structure, covers the larynx during swallowing to prevent food particles or water from entering the larynx. The nose serves as an entry point of air into the respiratory tract. The nose performs the following functions: Warms air that enters it. The hairs in the nose help to filter air entering the respiratory passages. Mucus also helps to trap particles entering the respiratory passages. Humidifies the air entering the respiratory passage. Organ of smell. The pharynx is a passageway that starts behind the nasal cavity. It runs behind the mouth and larynx and continues as the esophagus. The pharynx has three parts: The nasopharynx, The oropharynx, The laryngopharynx (hypopharynx). The pharynx serves as a passage to food going to the esophagus and air going to the larynx and into the lungs. The trachea is also called the windpipe. It receives air from the larynx. It divides into the right and left bronchi. Structure | Description | Function: Nose and nasal cavity Entrance into the respiratory passages $\cdot$ Warms air $\cdot$ Filters air $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Olfaction, Pharynx Runs behind the nasal cavity, oral cavity, and larynx Continues as the esophagus $\cdot$ Passage for air and food, Larynx Also called voice box Begins at the laryngopharynx, runs in front of the pharynx, and opens into the trachea $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Prevents food and water from getting into the lungs $\cdot$ Phonation, Trachea Also called windpipe Divides into the right and left bronchi $\cdot$ Air passage $\cdot$ Humidifies air $\cdot$ Warms air, Bronchi Divide into many branches Smallest branches are the terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Air passage, Cilia Hair-like structures that line most of the respiratory tract $\cdot$ Move mucus and trapped materials towards the pharynx where they are swallowed or expelled by coughing, Alveoli Tiny sacs at the end of terminal bronchioles $\cdot$ Gas exchange between the respiratory tract and the blood vessels, Lungs Spongy structure located in the thoracic cavity They are covered by the pleura (visceral and parietal) and rest on the diaphragm Contain the alveoli, bronchi and their branches, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics $\cdot$ Gas exchange, Diaphragm A dome shaped muscular structure separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity $\cdot$ Acts as a respiratory muscle Contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm helps in breathing

971. Cerumen is secreted by apocrine glands located in which of the following structures?
     • The cochlea
     • The external auditory canal
     • The eustachian tube
     • The organ of corti

     Correct answer: The external auditory canal

     Answer: The external auditory canal. Cerumen is earwax. It is secreted by the ceruminous glands (a type of apocrine sweat gland) near the outer opening of the auditory (ear) canal, which is located in the external auditory canal. If there is an excess of earwax, this is where it would accumulate. The eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, which consists of the upper throat and the back of the nasal cavity. It controls the pressure within the middle ear, making it equal to the air pressure outside the body. The cochlea is an internal structure of the inner ear that looks like a snail shell. It is the structure that turns sound pressure waves into nerve impulses, allowing us to hear. The organ of corti is considered “the true organ of hearing.” It is a spiral structure inside the cochlea containing hair cells that are stimulated by sound vibrations.

972. Which structure in the epidermis is responsible for cooling the body to maintain temperature homeostasis?
     • Sebaceous glands
     • None of these
     • Eccrine glands
     • Ceruminous glands

     Correct answer: Eccrine glands

     Answer: Eccrine glands. A derivative of the epidermis (or epidermal derivative) refers to anything that comes out of the epidermis, which is the top and most protective layer of the skin. Epidermal derivatives include sweat glands, sebaceous glands, mammary glands, hair, and nails. The epidermal derivative that helps regulate your body temperature are the eccrine glands (also called merocrine glands), which are the glands of the skin that produce a thin, watery secretion (sweat) that cools the body when it evaporates (turns from liquid into a gas). The sebaceous glands secrete an oil (called sebum) onto the skin and hair for lubrication and to prevent drying. Ceruminous glands are a type of apocrine gland. They secrete earwax into the ear canal to protect the ear from bacteria and viruses.

973. Which of the following structure is correctly matched to its description?
     • Cartilage – Connective tissue found between bones in a joint
     • Tendon – Connective tissue which attaches a muscle to a ligament
     • Ligament – Connective tissue which attaches a muscle to a bone
     • Joint – Point of attachment for muscles

     Correct answer: Cartilage – Connective tissue found between bones in a joint

     Cartilage can be found at the end of some bones and in some joints. It provides a smooth surface against which bones can move within a joint. A tendon connects a muscle to a bone. A ligament connects a bone to a bone. A joint is where two bones meet. They are classified into: Fibrous joints: The bones are joined by fibrous tissue. These joints are not moveable. Example: Joints in the skull. Cartilaginous joints: The bones are joined by fibrocartilage. They have no movement or very limited movement. Example: Joints in the vertebrae. Synovial joints: These are the most mobile joints. They usually have a capsule lined with a synovial membrane, which secretes synovial fluid that acts as a lubricant. The bones are joined by ligaments. The surfaces of the bones in contact with each other are covered with articular cartilage. The degree of movement at the joint depends on the kind of synovial joint. Some types of synovial joints are: ball and socket joint* hinge joint, gliding joint, pivot joint, condyloid joint, saddle joint. *The ball and socket joint allows for a wide range of movement.

974. Of the following, which structure has the highest visual acuity?
     • Aqueous humor
     • Fovea
     • Retina
     • Macula

     Correct answer: Fovea

     The central depressed portion of the macula is called the fovea centralis, and it contains only cones. As such, the fovea centralis is the point with the highest visual acuity. The retina is the inner nervous layer of the eye. It contains photoreceptors and nerves. Light rays trigger the photoreceptors so that the retina generates impulses that travel through the nerves to the brain, where the impulses are interpreted. The aqueous humor is the clear fluid filling the space in the front of the eyeball between the lens and the cornea. It supplies nutrients and oxygen to the structures in the anterior segment of the eye, i.e., the cornea and the lens. The macula is the central portion of the retina. It is rich in cones, and so, it has high visual acuity. However, the fovea centralis has the highest visual acuity.

975. Which structure in the nervous system works together with the endocrine system?
     • Medulla oblongata
     • Pons
     • Hypothalamus
     • Cerebral cortex

     Correct answer: Hypothalamus

     The correct answer is Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus and the pituitary gland work with endocrine glands and are often referred to as the neuro-endocrine axis. The hypothalamus is connected to the pituitary gland (master gland that controls the activities of several endocrine glands). The activity of the pituitary gland is regulated by the hypothalamus. In addition to regulating the endocrine glands, the hypothalamus is also responsible for; Sleep wake cycle, Body temperature, Thirst and water balance, Appetite and satiety. The medulla oblongata is a part of the brain stem. It lies inferior to the pons and continues inferiorly with the spinal cord. It has the: Cardiovascular centre, Respiratory center which works with the pons to control the rate and depth of respiration, Reflex centers for vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and swallowing. The pons is a part of the brain stem and it lies below the midbrain. It controls respiration. The cerebral cortex has two hemispheres connected by the corpus callosum. Each hemisphere has several lobes (frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital). The functions of the cerebrum are: Initiating voluntary movement, Interpretation of sensory impulses, Higher functions like memory, reasoning, learning, decision making, behavior, etc. Structure | Function: Cerebrum - Memory, behavior, learning, reasoning, and interpretation of sensory input, Cerebellum - Coordination of posture, balance, and voluntary muscle contraction, Midbrain - Auditory and visual reflexes, Pons - Regulates respiration, Medulla oblongata - Rate and force of cardiac contraction, rate of respiration, reflexes like coughing, sneezing and swallowing, Hypothalamus - Regulates cardiovascular system, temperature, water balance, and thirst, hunger, wakefulness, pituitary gland, Pituitary gland - Regulates the endocrine system.

976. What is one of the functions of the hypothalamus?
     • Regulating body temperature
     • Regulating calcium levels in the blood
     • Regulating heart rate and blood pressure
     • Regulating blood sugar levels

     Correct answer: Regulating body temperature

     Answer: Regulate body temperature. The hypothalamus is a small region of the brain that regulates your body temperature, releases hormones, and helps to maintain homeostasis. The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone, which is responsible for regulating blood calcium levels. Parathyroid hormone is released whenever blood calcium levels are low. PTH increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts, which break down bone to release calcium into the bloodstream. Several endocrine glands and other organs play a part in regulating your blood pressure including the kidneys, adrenal glands, and pituitary glands. The pancreas is the organ that produces insulin, a hormone that helps regulate blood glucose (sugar) levels.

977. Which of the following is a function of blood?
     • Movement
     • Development of secondary sex characteristics
     • Excretion of wastes
     • Transport of gases

     Correct answer: Transport of gases

     The correct answer is Transport of gases. Blood is a fluid connective tissue. It is made up of plasma and cells. Plasma contains proteins like albumin, globulin, and clotting factors. There are three kinds of blood cells: Red blood cells, White blood cells, Platelets. Functions of the blood include: Transport of nutrients, Transport of wastes, Transport of gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide, Transport of heat (thermoregulation), Defence against pathogens, Acid base balance, Hemostasis, Excretion of wastes is carried out by the urinary system, respiratory system, and integumentary system. Movement is controlled by the muscular system and skeletal system. Development of secondary sex characteristics is controlled by the reproductive system.

978. Which type of blood cell transports oxygen?
     • Lymphocytes
     • Polymorphonuclear cells
     • Erythrocytes
     • Platelets

     Correct answer: Erythrocytes

     The correct answer is Erythrocytes. Erythrocytes transport oxygen. The red blood cells contain hemoglobin. Hemoglobin has four binding sites for oxygen. Erythrocytes have no organelles and are biconcave in shape. Their biconcave shape increases their surface area for gas exchange and the thin central portion allows gas to move in and out of the cell quickly. Polymorphonuclear cells and lymphocytes fight pathogens and protect the organism. Platelets are responsible for blood clotting.

979. Which structure controls the activity of the endocrine system?
     • Hypothalamus
     • Parathyroid gland
     • Thyroid gland
     • Pituitary gland

     Correct answer: Hypothalamus

     The correct answer is Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is a structure in the brain that lies inferior to the thalamus. It is connected to the pituitary gland by a stalk. It acts as the control center for the endocrine system. Hypothalamus produces hormones that regulate the activities of the anterior pituitary gland. These include: Growth hormone releasing hormone, Thyrotropin releasing hormone, Corticotropin releasing hormone, Gonadotropin releasing hormone, Prolactin controlling hormones. The hypothalamus also produces hormones that are stored in the vesicles in the posterior pituitary gland, and they are: Antidiuretic hormone, Oxytocin. The pituitary gland is the master gland as it produces several hormones that regulate the activities of other glands. The thyroid gland produces thyroid hormone. The parathyroid gland produces parathyroid hormone and it is responsible for calcium homeostasis.

980. Which of the following correctly lists organs that are part of the digestive system?
     • Liver, pancreas, large intestine, and rectum
     • Pharynx, esophagus, small intestine, and bladder
     • Stomach, salivary glands, liver, and thyroid gland
     • Stomach, rectum, kidneys, and anal canal

     Correct answer: Liver, pancreas, large intestine, and rectum

     Liver, pancreas, large intestine, and rectum is the correct answer. The digestive system is made up of: Mouth and oral cavity, Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach, Small Intestine: duodenum, jejunum, and ileum, Large intestine: ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon, Rectum and anal canal, Accessory organs like the liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and salivary glands. The kidneys and bladder belong to the urinary system while the thyroid gland belongs to the endocrine system.

981. Which of the following is a primary function of the male and/or female reproductive systems?
     • To produce gametes
     • To transport blood and oxygen
     • To regulate the process of mitosis
     • To protect against infections

     Correct answer: To produce gametes

     Answer: To produce gametes. The reproductive systems of both males and females have two primary roles which are: producing gametes (i.e. sex cells) and producing the hormones testosterone and estrogen. Gametes (egg cells in females and sperm in males) are cells produced by the reproductive system that contain one set of chromosomes. The reproductive systems are not involved in regulating the process of mitosis. Mitosis is the division and replication of all cells (except sex cells) throughout the body as they age or become damaged and need to be replaced. The process of the sex cells dividing and replicating is called meiosis. The immune system is responsible for protecting the body against infection. The circulatory system is responsible for the transport of blood and oxygen within the body.

982. Which of the following means the same thing as anterior?
     • Inferior
     • Superior
     • Caudal
     • Ventral

     Correct answer: Ventral

     Ventral. Ventral (also called anterior) refers to the” front” or “being closer to the front.” The chest, abdomen, and shins are located on the ventral part of the body. Posterior (also called dorsal) refers to the “back” or “closer to the back.” The popliteus (the muscle behind the knee) is posterior to the patella (the kneecap). Inferior ( also called caudal) refers to “below.” The mandible (the lower jawbone) is inferior to the maxilla (the upper jawbone). Superior (also called cranial) refers to “above.” The maxilla (the upper jawbone) is superior to the mandible (the lower jawbone). Anterior and posterior are opposites. Terminology | Other names | Meaning: Anterior Ventral Front, Posterior Dorsal Back, Superior Cranial Above, Inferior Caudal Below, Medial Closer to the midline, Lateral Further from the midline, Proximal Closer to the trunk/point of attachment or origin, Distal Further from the trunk/point of attachment or origin.

983. What type of cell division occurs in the gonads?
     • Meiosis
     • Mitosis
     • Binary fission
     • Hemopeiosis

     Correct answer: Meiosis

     Answer: Meiosis. The gonads are the primary reproductive organs, which are the testes in males and the ovaries in females. The gonads have two functions: to produce hormones and to produce gametes. Gametes are our sex cells – sperm in males and ovum in females. Gametes are produced through the process of meiosis. In meiosis, one cell divides twice to produce four daughter cells, each containing half the original amount of chromosomes (the chromosomes are reduced from 46 to 23). This is important because when a sperm and ovum unite, the zygote (fertilized egg) will contain the full number of chromosomes – 23 from each parent. Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two daughter cells each having the same number and kind of chromosomes as the parent cell. This type of cell division is necessary for growth and repair. Binary fission is a kind of asexual reproduction. It is the most common form of reproduction in prokaryotes such as bacteria. Hemopeiosis is the production of blood cells and platelets, which occurs in the bone marrow.

984. Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?
     • Absorption of fat in the intestine
     • Secretion of bile
     • Drainage of interstitial fluid
     • Body defense

     Correct answer: Secretion of bile

     Secretion of bile is the correct answer. Bile is secreted by the gallbladder, which is part of your biliary system. The lymphatic system is made up of lymph, lymphatic vessels, primary lymphoid tissue (bone marrow and thymus), and secondary lymphoid organs (spleen, lymph nodes, adenoids, tonsils, and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue). The function of the lymphatic system includes: Drainage of interstitial fluid from the tissue, Transportation of large molecules like fat, Immunity/defense of the body

985. Which systems are primarily responsible for homeostasis?
     • Endocrine system and digestive system
     • Endocrine system and urinary system
     • Endocrine system and nervous system
     • Endocrine system and integumentary system

     Correct answer: Endocrine system and nervous system

     The correct answer is Endocrine system and nervous system. Homeostasis is the process by which the body maintains a steady and stable environment. It is a regulatory mechanism the body uses to maintain optimal physical and chemical conditions. The endocrine and nervous system work closely together to achieve homeostasis. The nervous system uses impulses that act fast and are short-lived. In contrast, the endocrine system uses chemical messengers carried to their target sites through the bloodstream. The actions of these chemical messengers (hormones) have a slower onset than nervous impulses but their action is more prolonged. The urinary system primarily excretes waste but it also regulates water balance and blood pressure. The digestive system is mainly responsible for breaking down food and absorbing nutrients. The integumentary system is primarily responsible for protection.

986. Which of the following correctly describes the function of the muscular system?
     • Posture and secondary sex characteristics
     • Movement and acquired immunity
     • Movement and regulation of respiration
     • Posture and thermoregulation

     Correct answer: Posture and thermoregulation

     The correct answer is Posture and thermoregulation. The muscular system performs the following functions: Movement, Posture, Thermoregulation. The lymphatic system is responsible for acquired immunity. The reproductive system is responsible for secondary sex characteristics.

987. Which of the following is not a function of the circulatory system?
     • Transport of nutrients
     • Transport of wastes
     • Regulation of blood sugar
     • Thermoregulation

     Correct answer: Regulation of blood sugar

     The correct answer is Regulation of blood sugar. Regulation of blood sugar is a function of the endocrine system. Functions of the circulatory system include: Transport of nutrients, Transport of wastes, Transport of gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide, Transport of heat (thermoregulation), Immunity, Acid base balance, Hemostasis

988. The study of the microscopic structure of tissues is called _________.
     • Histology
     • Gross anatomy
     • Physiology
     • Biology

     Correct answer: Histology

     Histology. Histology is the study of the microscopic structure of tissues. Gross anatomy is the study of anatomy at the visible or macroscopic level. It is the opposite of histology, which can only be studied using a microscope. Physiology is the study of how an organism or body part functions. Biology is the study of living things.

989. Which of the following is a function of the digestive system?
     • Production of vitamin D from sunlight
     • Development of secondary sexual characteristics
     • Filtration of waste
     • Absorption of nutrients

     Correct answer: Absorption of nutrients

     Absorption of nutrients is the correct answer. The digestive system is responsible for: Ingestion of food, Breakdown of food into smaller particles, Propulsion of food down the digestive system, Absorption of nutrients, Elimination of wastes. The urinary system filters waste. The reproductive system is responsible for the development of secondary sex characteristics. The integumentary system produces vitamin D from sunlight.

990. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
     • Excretion
     • Protection
     • Fluid balance
     • Gas exchange

     Correct answer: Protection

     The skeletal system is comprised of bones, ligaments, cartilage, tendons, and joints. They provide a framework for the body. The skeletal system performs the following functions: Protection: The bones protect the organs. For example, the skull protects the brain, the vertebral column protects the spinal cord, and the thoracic cage protects the lungs and the heart. Support: It provides a framework for the body. It is also the point of attachment for our muscles. Movement: The skeletal system works with the muscular system to facilitate movement. As such, both are often referred to as the musculoskeletal system. Hematopoiesis: This refers to the production of blood cells. Hematopoiesis occurs in the bone marrow. Storage: Bones also store fat and mineral salts, like calcium and phosphate. Detoxification: The bones are able to absorb heavy metals and toxins from the blood and, as a result, prevent the levels in the blood from reaching dangerous levels. In this case, the bones do not eliminate the toxins from the body but merely remove them from the blood. Fluid balance is a function of the urinary system. Gas exchange is a function of the respiratory system. Excretion is a function of the urinary, respiratory, digestive, and integumentary systems.

991. Which of the following terms refers to “behind or toward the back”?
     • Anterior
     • Ventral
     • Superior
     • Dorsal

     Correct answer: Dorsal

     Dorsal. Dorsal (also called posterior) means “back” or “closer to the back.” The popliteus (the muscle behind the knee) is dorsal to the patella (the kneecap). In contrast, anterior means “front” or “closer to the front.” The patella (the kneecap) is anterior to the patella (the kneecap). Ventral is another anatomical term meaning “toward the front.” The chest, abdomen, and shins are located on the ventral part of the body. Superior means “above.” The maxilla (the upper jawbone) is superior to the mandible (the lower jawbone). Terminology | Other names | Meaning: Anterior Ventral Front, Posterior Dorsal Back, Superior Cranial Above, Inferior Caudal Below, Medial Closer to the midline, Lateral Further from the midline, Proximal Closer to the trunk/point of attachment or origin, Distal Further from the trunk/point of attachment or origin.

992. Which of the following is not a function of the nose?
     • Humidification
     • Warming air
     • Filtering air
     • Gas exchange

     Correct answer: Gas exchange

     The correct answer is Gas exchange. Gas exchange occurs in the alveoli and not in the nose. The nose serves as an entry point of air into the respiratory tract. The nose performs the following functions: Warms air that enters it, Filters air entering the respiratory passages. The hair in the nostrils filter the air. Mucus also helps trap particles entering the respiratory passages. Humidifies the air entering the respiratory passage, Olfaction: The nose is the organ of smell.

993. Which of the following is not a function of the kidney?
     • Production of renin
     • Production of urine
     • Production of erythropoietin
     • Production of albumin

     Correct answer: Production of albumin

     The correct answer is Production of albumin. The kidneys produce urine, erythropoietin, and renin. The liver produces albumin. The kidneys are two bean-shaped structures found in the posterior abdomen on each side of the spine. They are enclosed by the renal fascia and the adrenal gland is on the top of each kidney. The kidney performs several functions: Excretory: It produces urine, and nitrogenous wastes are excreted in the urine. Regulatory: It regulates blood volume, blood pressure, acid-base balance, and fluid and electrolyte balance. Endocrine: It produces some hormones i.e., erythropoietin and renin. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells while renin regulates blood pressure.

994. The pulse point located on the neck is palpated over which artery?
     • Popliteal
     • Carotid
     • Femoral
     • Median cubital

     Correct answer: Carotid

     Answer: Carotid. “Palpate” means “to examine a part of the body by touch.” The carotid arteries are in the neck. Specifically, you would palpate the area below the jawline between the trachea and sternomastoid muscle to get a pulse reading from the carotid artery. The popliteal artery is the artery located behind the knee. The femoral artery is a large artery in the thigh and the main arterial supply to the thigh and leg. The median cubital is a vein that is located in the medial (center) position of the arm within the triangular area inside the elbow known as the cubital fossa. This is a very important vein in nursing as this is the vein used when drawing blood from the antecubital region (just below the elbow).

995. Which of the following is not a function of the integumentary system?
     • Blood sugar regulation
     • Synthesis
     • Thermoregulation
     • Excretion

     Correct answer: Blood sugar regulation

     Answer: Blood sugar regulation. The integumentary system is made up of the skin, glands, nails, and hair. There are several functions performed by the integumentary system, including the following: Protection: The skin serves as a physical barrier to environmental factors and to microbes. In addition, immune cells like Langerhan cells help to keep off pathogens. The skin also receives signals from sensory stimuli, which helps us to withdraw from harmful stimuli and prevent further injury. Thermoregulation: When body heat increases, the blood vessels closest to the skin’s surface dilate so that more heat can be transferred out from the skin. When the temperature falls, the same blood vessels constrict to conserve heat. Sweating also helps to cool the body when the temperature rises. Hydroregulation: Skin is waterproof, so it helps to protect the body from drying out. Sensation: Sensory receptors are present in the skin. They pick up different sensory signals such as pain, temperature, pressure, and touch. Synthesis: The skin synthesizes vitamin D, keratin, and melanin. Cutaneous absorption: Certain substances can be absorbed from the skin. Excretion: Certain waste substances are excreted via sweat. Blood sugar regulation is a function of the endocrine system and not of the integumentary system.

996. The central part of the retina with high visual acuity (sharpness) is called the __________.
     • Rods
     • Aqueous humor
     • Cones
     • Macula

     Correct answer: Macula

     The macula is the central part of the retina. It contains a lot of cones, which are the photoreceptors that perceive color. Thus, the macula has high visual acuity. The rods are photosensitive cells that perceive black and white. The aqueous humor is the clear fluid filling the space in the front of the eyeball between the lens and the cornea. It supplies nutrients.

997. Which of the following is not a function of the reproductive system?
     • Transport of gametes
     • Support of developing fetus
     • Transport of nutrients to the body cells
     • Production of hormones

     Correct answer: Transport of nutrients to the body cells

     The circulatory system, not the reproductive system, is responsible for transporting nutrients. The reproductive system is responsible for ensuring the survival of a species. The reproductive system achieves this through: Producing gametes (sex cells – sperm and egg cells), Transporting gametes (gametes are transported from where they are produced to where fertilization will take place), Producing hormones, Supporting the developing fetus.

998. Which of the following organelles would you expect to find an abundance of in leukocytes?
     • Ribosomes
     • Golgi bodies
     • Lysosomes
     • Mitochondria

     Correct answer: Lysosomes

     Answer: Lysosomes. Lysosomes are organelles that contain digestive enzymes. They digest excess or worn-out organelles, food particles, and engulfed viruses or bacteria. Lysosomes are found in all animal cells but are most numerous in infection-fighting cells, such as white blood cells (leukocytes). This is because white blood cells must digest more material than most other types of cells as their main job is to attack bacteria, viruses, and other foreign intruders. Ribosomes are organelles that make protein for cells. Mitochondria are organelles that are the site of cellular respiration and provide energy for the cell. Golgi bodies sort and process the proteins made by the ribosomes.

999. Which organ is responsible for most of the nutrient absorption in the body?
     • Gall bladder
     • Large intestine
     • Small intestine
     • Stomach

     Correct answer: Small intestine

     Answer: Small intestine. The small intestine is the part of the digestive system where 90% of the digestion and absorption of food occurs. The other 10% taking place in the stomach and large intestine. The main function of the small intestine is absorption of nutrients and minerals from food. Digested nutrients pass into the blood vessels in the wall of the small intestine through a process of diffusion. The gallbladder is a hollow organ that is part of the digestive system. It is involved with the production, storage and transportation of bile. Bile is a yellowish-brown fluid produced by the liver that is used to break up and digest fatty foods in the small intestine.

1000. Which of the following lists the correct pathway of blood through the circulatory system?
      • Left ventricle, aorta, systemic circuit, vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium
      • Right ventricle, aorta, systemic circuit, vena cava, left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium
      • Left ventricle, vena cava, systemic circuit, aorta, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium
      • Right ventricle, vena cava, systemic circuit, aorta, left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium

      Correct answer: Left ventricle, aorta, systemic circuit, vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium

      Answer: Left ventricle, aorta, systemic circuit, vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium. The pathway of blood through the circulatory system is comprised of 8 steps. 4 steps happen in the right side of the heart and 4 steps happen in the left. Right Side of the Heart.The goal of the right side of the heart is to pump un-oxygenated blood (the blood that your body has used) into the lungs so that the blood can be re-supplied with oxygen. It happens in this order: The un-oxygenated blood is collected by the vena cava, where the superior vena cava (SVC) collects blood from the upper extremities, and the inferior vena cava (IVC) collects blood from the lower extremities. The vena cava then delivers the un-oxygenated blood directly into the right atrium. The blood is then squeezed through the tricuspid valve and into the right ventricle. Then the blood is squeezed through the pulmonic valve and shot up through the pulmonary artery and into the lungs to be re-oxygenated. Left Side of the Heart. The goal of the left side of the heart is to pump the re-oxygenated blood from the lungs into the rest of the body so oxygen can be delivered to the other organs and tissues. The re-oxygenated blood leaves the lungs through the pulmonary vein and goes back into the left atrium. The blood is then squeezed through the bicuspid (mitral) valve into the left ventricle. From there, the blood is ejected out through the aortic valve and through the aorta, which is the large artery leaving the heart. Blood is then distributed throughout the body (i.e. systemic circuit). Note that this is a circuit. Thus, the correct answer does not necessarily have to start at the first step and end at the last.

1001. Which of the following best describes the primary function of hemoglobin?
      • Carries oxygen to tissues and organs
      • Regulates balance and thermoregulation
      • Detects increases in carbon dioxide and decreases in oxygen in the blood
      • Engages in the process of phagocytosis

      Correct answer: Carries oxygen to tissues and organs

      Answer: To carry oxygen to tissues and organs. Hemoglobin is a protein in your red blood cells that carries oxygen to your body’s organs and tissues and transports carbon dioxide from your organs and tissues back to your lungs. The hypothalamus is a small endocrine gland located at the base of the brain, near the pituitary gland. The primary funciton of the hypothalamus is to regulate balance and body temperature. The medulla oblongata is the structure that is responsible for normal respiratory function – it sends signals to the muscles involved in breathing. Chemoreceptors are receptors in the medulla oblongata (and in some arteries) that detect an increase in carbon dioxide or a decrease in oxygen, and then signal the medulla to correct those changes. Phagocytosis is the ingestion of bacteria or other material by phagocytes. There are two types of white blood cells that are phagocytic: neutrophils and macrophages.

1002. Which system is responsible for receiving information from the environment; processing and integrating the information; initiating a response?
      • Circulatory system
      • Endocrine system
      • Nervous system
      • Digestive system

      Correct answer: Nervous system

      The correct answer is Nervous system. The nervous system receives and transmits information from the environment (internal and external environment). Functions of the nervous system are listed below: It processes and interprets received impulses, It generates and transmits responses to impulses, It regulates the endocrine system, It is responsible for behavior, memory, and learning

1003. Which of the following is the primary organ of the female reproductive system responsible for releasing mature eggs?
      • Ovaries
      • Uterus
      • Fallopian tubes
      • Endometrium

      Correct answer: Ovaries

      Answer: ovaries. The ovaries are located in the female pelvic region and have the primary role of releasing eggs every month during menstruation. In addition, they produce and release estrogen, which is the primary female reproductive hormone. Ovaries exist in pairs, with one on each side of the uterus. The uterus is the pear shaped organ located centrally in the pelvis, which is where a fertilized egg will implant and develop into a fetus. The uterus is lined with the endometrium, which thickens every month in preparation for implantation of an embryo. If fertilization does not occur, the lining is not needed and the endometrium will shed during menstruation. In order for an egg to travel from the ovaries to the uterus, it must travel down the Fallopian tubes, or oviducts.

1004. Which exocrine gland produces sweat on the epidermal surface?
      • Eccrine
      • Apocrine
      • Sebaceous
      • Ceruminous

      Correct answer: Eccrine

      Answer: Eccrine. The epidermis is the top layer of your skin. Eccrine glands (also called merocrine glands) produce a thin, watery secretion (sweat) directly onto the surface of the epidermis that cools the body when it evaporates. Apocrine glands open into the hair follicle, leading to the surface of the skin. Apocrine glands develop in areas abundant in hair follicles, such as on your scalp, armpits, and groin. The sweat produced from apocrine glands contain bits of cell cytoplasm that is consumed by bacteria, which produces body odor. The sebaceous glands secrete an oil (called sebum) onto the skin and hair for lubrication and to prevent drying. Ceruminous glands are a type of apocrine gland. They secrete earwax into the ear canal to protect the ear from bacteria and viruses.

1005. What is secreted by the adrenal glands?
      • Progesterone and estrogen
      • Cortisol and aldosterone
      • Oxytocin only
      • Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone

      Correct answer: Cortisol and aldosterone

      Answer: Cortisol and aldosterone. The adrenal glands are small glands located on top of each kidney. Adrenal glands secrete cortisol and aldosterone. Cortisol is a hormone that regulates a wide range of processes throughout the body, but is best known as being the body’s “stress hormone.” Aldosterone affects the body’s ability to regulate blood pressure. Oxytocin stimulates lactation. It is produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. Antidiuretic hormone, which helps the kidney regulate osmolarity ( the electrolyte-water balance in the body) is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. Progesterone prepares the endometrium of the uterus for pregnancy. It is produced mainly by the corpus luteum in the ovaries. Estrogen is a hormone that is important for sexual and reproductive development, mainly in women. It is also produced in the ovaries.

1006. Which structure in the eye is responsible for color vision?
      • Lens
      • Cones
      • Iris
      • Rods

      Correct answer: Cones

      The cones are photoreceptors found in the retina. They function in high light intensity and, as such, are for daytime and color vision. The rods are another type of photoreceptor found in the retina. They function in low light intensity and are for night vision and black and white color. The lens is a structure held in place by ligaments attached to the ciliary body (an extension of the iris). They focus and refract light rays from objects, which enter the eyes through the pupils. The iris is a pigmented structure that regulates the size of the pupils. It is also responsible for the color of the eyes.

1007. Which of the following terms describes the process of forming new red blood cells?
      • Autopoiesis
      • Thrombopoiesis
      • Hematopoiesis
      • Erythropoiesis

      Correct answer: Erythropoiesis

      Answer: Erythropoiesis. If you remember that red blood cells are also called erythrocytes, it makes sense that erythropoiesis is the term for forming new red blood cells. “Poiesis” means “to make.” In the early development of a fetus, erythropoiesis takes place in the yolk sac, spleen, and liver. After birth, all erythropoiesis occurs in the bone marrow. Hematopoiesis is the process of forming new blood cells, however, this is inclusive of all blood cells, not just red blood cells. Thrombopoiesis is the process of forming thrombocytes, which is another term for platelets. The term autopoiesis is a more general term referring to the ability of an organism to be self-sustaining; this term is not related specifically to the formation of blood cells.

1008. A tissue sample studied under a microscope exhibits the following characteristics: an extracellular matrix providing rigidity to the tissue, and the presence of lacunae. Which type of tissue is this?
      • Bone
      • Adipose
      • Epithelial
      • Nervous

      Correct answer: Bone

      Answer: Bone. Bone (particularly spongy bone) is a type of connective tissue that consists of a rigid extracellular matrix. Lacunae are small spaces in the bone tissue. Each lacuna contains an osteocyte, which is a mature bone cell. Adipose, or fat, is another type of connective tissue. Adipose tissue is loose. It is white or yellowish in color. It does not contain lacunae (only bone and cartilage do). Epithelial tissues form the covering of all body surfaces, line body cavities and hollow organs, and are the major tissue in glands. Epithelial cells fit closely together and form continuous sheets. Nervous tissue is specialized tissue found in the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. It consists of neurons and supporting cells called neuroglia. Nervous tissue, under a microscope, looks like large dark cells with long projections sticking out of them (like stars).

1009. Which of the following statements about the skin is correct?
      • The dermis is deep and has 2 layers
      • The epidermis is superficial and has 2 layers
      • The epidermis is deep and has 5 layers
      • The dermis is superficial and has 5 layers

      Correct answer: The dermis is deep and has 2 layers

      Answer: The dermis is deep and has 2 layers. The skin is made up of the outer superficial epidermis that has five layers and the deeper dermis that has two layers. The layers of the epidermis from superficial to deep are: Stratum corneum, Stratum lucidum, Stratum granulosum, Stratum spinosum, Stratum basale (also called germinativum). The layers of the dermis from superficial to deep are: Papillary layer, Reticular layer

1010. Which of the following represents the correct order of organization from the simplest to the most complex?
      • Cell-organ-tissue-system-organism
      • Cell-tissue-system-organ-organism
      • Cell-tissue-organ-system-organism
      • Cell-system-tissue-organ-organism

      Correct answer: Cell-tissue-organ-system-organism

      Cell-tissue-organ-system-organism. The cell is the basic functional unit of an organism. A group of cells performing a specific function is a tissue. A group of tissues performing a specific function is an organ. A group of organs performing a specific function is a system. Different organ systems combine to form an organism.

1011. The nervous system is divided into two parts, namely ___________ and ____________.
      • The central nervous system and autonomic nervous system
      • The central nervous system and somatic nervous system
      • The central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
      • The central nervous system and spinal cord

      Correct answer: The central nervous system and peripheral nervous system

      The correct answer is The central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. The central nervous system comprises the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system comprises the cranial nerves, spinal nerves, peripheral nerves and ganglia. Functionally, the peripheral nervous system can be classified into the: Somatic nervous system (voluntary): They innervate skeletal muscle. Autonomic nervous system (involuntary): They innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, and viscera. The autonomic nervous system is a part of the peripheral nervous system. The somatic nervous system is a part of the peripheral nervous system. The spinal cord is a part of the central nervous system.

1012. Which type of muscles have striated muscle fibers that join at the intercalated disc?
      • Skeletal muscle
      • Smooth muscle
      • Cardiac muscle
      • Vascular muscles

      Correct answer: Cardiac muscle

      The correct answer is Cardiac muscle. Cardiac muscles have branched, striated fibers that have a single nucleus. The fibers join at the intercalated discs. Cardiac muscles, which are found exclusively in the heart, are not under voluntary control. Skeletal muscle has striated multinucleated cylindrical fibers, and its action is under voluntary control. Smooth muscles are spindle-shaped, nonstriated, and have a single nucleus. They are involuntary muscles. Smooth muscles are present in the gastrointestinal tract, walls of blood vessels, uterus, bladder, ureter, and urethra. Muscles in blood vessels are smooth muscles and, so, are spindle-shaped, nonstriated, and have a single nucleus.

1013. Which of the following includes some of the functions of the skeletal system?
      • Support, Movement, Haematopoiesis, Mineral storage, Fat storage
      • Support, Movement, Haematopoiesis, Mineral storage, Blood pressure regulation
      • Support, Movement, Protection, Muscle attachment, Heat generation
      • Support, Movement, Protection, Thermoregulation, Haematopoiesis,

      Correct answer: Support, Movement, Haematopoiesis, Mineral storage, Fat storage

      The skeletal system comprises bones, ligaments, cartilage, tendon, and joints. They provide a framework for the body. The skeletal system performs the following functions: Protection: The bones protect the organs. For example, the skull protects the brain, the vertebral column protects the spinal cord, and the thoracic cage protects the lungs and the heart. Support: It provides a framework for the body. It is also the point of attachment for our muscles. Movement: The skeletal system works with the muscular system to facilitate movement. As such, both are often referred to as the musculoskeletal system. Hematopoiesis: This refers to the production of blood cells. Hematopoiesis occurs in the bone marrow. Storage: Bones also store fat and mineral salts, like calcium and phosphate. Detoxification: The bones are able to absorb heavy metals and toxins from the blood and, as a result, prevent the levels in the blood from reaching dangerous levels. In this case, the bones do not eliminate the toxins from the body but merely remove them from the blood. Heat generation is a function of the muscular system. Thermoregulation is a function of the skin. Blood pressure regulation is a function of the urinary system.

1014. What is the distance a car travels in 6 seconds if it travels at an average speed of 42 m/s?
      • 240 m
      • 70 m
      • 230 m
      • 252 m

      Correct answer: 252 m

      We know that average speed is the distance an object travels divided by the time the object travels. However, this question asks for the distance. Step 1: Rearrange the average speed equation (s = d/t) to solve for distance. s = d/t, s * t = (d/t) * t, st = d, d = st. The distance is the average speed of the car multiplied by the time the car traveled. Step 2: Calculate the distance traveled. Now, we multiply the car’s average speed (42 m/s) by the time it travels (6 s) to compute the distance. d = st, d = 42 m/s * 6 s, d = 252 m. The car travels 252 m.

1015. The average speed of a motorcycle is 59 m/s. How far does the motorcycle travel in 2 min?
      • 7,000 m
      • 118 m
      • 8,070 m
      • 7,080 m

      Correct answer: 7,080 m

      We know that average speed is the distance an object travels divided by the time the object travels. However, this question asks for the distance. Step 1: Rearrange the average speed equation (s = d/t) to solve for distance. s = d/t, s * t = (d/t) * t, st = d, d = st. The distance traveled is the average speed of the motorcycle multiplied by the time the motorcycle traveled. Step 2: Convert time from minutes to seconds. Time must be expressed in seconds. So, we need to convert the time the motorcycle travels from minutes to seconds before computing the distance. 2 min * (60 s / 1 min) = 120 s, 2 minutes is 120 seconds. Step 3: Calculate the distance traveled. To calculate the distance traveled by the motorcycle, we multiply its average speed (59 m/s) by the new value for time (120 s). d = s * t , d = 59 m/s * 120 s, d = 7,080 m The motorcycle travels 7,080 m.

1016. A car traveling at 60 m/s takes 2 minutes to come to a complete stop. What is the magnitude of the car’s acceleration?
      • -2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -0.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: -0.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Acceleration is the change of velocity over a period of time. Acceleration is represented mathematically by the following equation, where a =acceleration (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vf = final velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vi = initial velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and Δt = change in time (expressed in s). a = (vf – vi) / Δt Note that since the car is slowing down, the value of the acceleration will be negative. Step 1: Convert time from minutes to seconds. Since the time interval must be expressed in seconds, we need to convert the time given in the problem from minutes to seconds. 2 min * (60 s / 1 min) = 120 s. 2 minutes is equal to 120 seconds. Step 2: Calculate acceleration using the acceleration formula To compute the acceleration of the object, substitute the given values into the acceleration formula: the initial velocity (vi = 60 m/s), the final velocity (vf = 0 m/s), and our new value of the time interval (Δt = 120 s). a = (vf – vi) / Δt, a = (0 m/s – 60 m/s) / 120s, a = -60 m/s / 120s, a = -0.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The car is accelerating at -0.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ . The negative value of the acceleration is because the velocity of the car is decreasing as it comes to a complete stop.

1017. A car traveling at 64.8 km/hr comes to a complete stop after 9 seconds. What is the acceleration of the car?
      • -1 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -3 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -4 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: -2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Acceleration is the change of velocity over a period of time. Acceleration is represented mathematically by the following equation, where a = acceleration (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vf =final velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vi = initial velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and Δt = change in time (expressed in s). a = (vf – vi) / Δt Step 1: Convert the initial velocity from km/h to m/s. The initial velocity must be expressed in m/s, so we convert from km/h to m/s using the appropriate conversion factors (1,000 m is 1km) and (1 h is 3,600 s): 64.8 km/h * (1,000 m/ 1 km) * 1 h / 3,600 s) = 18 m/s, 64.8 km/h equals 18 m/s. Step 2: Calculate acceleration using the acceleration formula. Now we substitute the new value of the initial velocity (vi = 18 m/s), the given final velocity (vf = 0 m/s), and the time interval (Δt = 9 seconds) into the acceleration formula: a = (vf – vi) / Δt, a = (0 m/s – 18 m/s) / 9s, a = (- 18 m/s) / 9 s, a =-2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The car is accelerating at -2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. Note the negative value of the acceleration is because the velocity of the car is decreasing since it comes to a complete stop.

1018. A marble dropped from a bridge strikes the water below in 10 seconds. What is the height of the bridge?
      • 980 m
      • 49 m
      • 490 m
      • 50 m

      Correct answer: 490 m

      Since the marble falls freely, it moves only under the force of gravity. Therefore, its acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to gravity. The bridge’s height is the same as the vertical distance required in this problem. The mathematical formula to calculate distance given uniform acceleration is given as follows: dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$$\text{)gt}^{2}$ + vi t where dy = vertical distance, g = acceleration due to gravity, t = time, and vi = initial velocity. Step 1: Calculate the vertical distance traveled by the marble. To calculate the vertical distance, substitute the initial velocity vi = 0 m/s (since the marble is dropped from rest), the acceleration (g = 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and the time (t = 10 s). dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$$\text{)gt}^{2}$ + vi t, vi t cancels out because the initial velocity is 0. dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$$\text{)gt}^{2}$, dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$) (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$) * (10 s)2, dy = 4.9 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ * 100 $\text{s}^{2}$, dy = 490 m The height of the bridge is 490 m.

1019. A tennis ball is thrown vertically with a speed of 15 m/s. How high will the tennis ball be after 2 seconds?
      • 25.1 m
      • 10.4 m
      • 401.2 m
      • 50.2 m

      Correct answer: 10.4 m

      Since the tennis ball will rise in the air, it will move against the force of gravity. Gravity pulls the tennis ball downward, so it decelerates. Therefore, the sign of the free-fall acceleration is negative, and the mathematical formula for vertical distance is now: dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$$\text{)gt}^{2}$ + vi t Where dy = vertical distance, g = acceleration due to gravity, t = time, and vi = initial velocity Step 1: Calculate the vertical distance traveled by the tennis ball. To calculate the vertical distance, we will substitute the following values into the distance formula: the initial velocity ( vi = 15 m/s), the deceleration (g = –9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and the time (t = 2 s). dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$)-$\text{gt}^{2}$+ vi t , dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$)(-9.8 $\text{m/s}^2$)(2 s)2 + (15 m/s* 2 s) dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$)(-9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$)(4 s2) + (30 m) , dy = 10.4 m. The tennis ball will be 10.4 m high after 2 seconds.

1020. A football of mass 450 g is lying on the ground. Two forces are acting on the football in opposing directions. If the magnitude of the two forces are 52 N and 63 N, what is the magnitude of the acceleration of the football? (Assume that there is no friction between the football and the ground)
      • 255.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 24.44 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.02 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • .25 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: 24.44 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Step 1: Convert mass from grams to kilograms The force is given in Newtons, and the mass is in grams. A Newton is kg $\times$ $\text{m/s}^2$. Therefore, we need to convert the mass from g to kg. 450 g * (1 kg / 1000 g) = 0.45 kg Step 2: Calculate the net force on the object.To determine the object’s acceleration, we must first determine the net force acting on the object. According to the question, there are two forces: Force one, F1 = 52 N Force two, F2 = 63 N The forces are in opposite directions. The magnitude of the net force can be calculated as: Fnet = F1 + (- F2 ), Fnet = 52 N – 63 N, Fnet = -11 N Step 3: Calculate the acceleration using Newton’s second law of motion. Now that the net force (-11 N) is determined, we can use Newton’s second law of motion to determine the magnitude of the acceleration of the box: F = ma Where F = force, k = the constant of proportionality, and a = acceleration First, we convert the formula to solve for acceleration: F = ma, (F/m) = (ma / m), a = F/m Next, we substitute the values for net force (-11 N) and our new value for mass (0.45 kg) a = (-11 N / 0.45 kg), a = -24.44 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ We are only asked for the magnitude of the acceleration, so we can ignore the negative sign. The acceleration of the football is 24.44 $\text{m/s}^{2}$.

1021. A box of mass 23 kg is lying on a table. Two forces of magnitudes 143 N and 356 N are acting on the box in the same direction. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the box as it starts moving? (Assume no friction exists between the box and table)
      • 19.26 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 2.17 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 21.7 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 9.26 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: 21.7 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Step 1: Calculate the net force acting on the box. To determine the box’s acceleration, we must first determine the net force acting on the object. According to the question, there are two forces: Force one, F1 = 143 N, Force two, F2 = 356 N Both the forces are in the same direction. The magnitude of the net force can be calculated as: Fnet = F1 + F2, Fnet = 143 N + 356 N, Fnet = 499 N Step 2: Calculate the acceleration using Newton’s second law of motion. Now that the net force (499 N) is determined, we can use Newton’s second law of motion to determine the magnitude of the acceleration of the box: F = ma Where F=force, k = the constant of proportionality, and a=acceleration. First, we convert the formula to solve for acceleration: F = ma, (F/m) = (ma / m), a = F/m. Next, we substitute the values for net force (499 N) and our value for mass (23 kg): a = (499 N / 23 kg), a = 21.7 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ .The box is accelerating at 21.7 $\text{m/s}^{2}$.

1022. A box is being dragged on the ground and experiences a friction force of 420 N. If the coefficient of friction between the box and the ground is 0.4, what is the mass of the box?
      • 125.96 kg
      • 111.83 kg
      • 107.14 kg
      • 10.71 kg

      Correct answer: 107.14 kg

      Here, we need to solve for the mass. The frictional force (420 N) and the coefficient of friction (0.4) are given to us. We also know that the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. Step 1: Combine the frictional force and normal force equations: We know that frictional force is represented mathematically by the following equation: Ff = μFN Where Ff = frictional force, μ = coefficient of friction, and FN = normal force. And we know that the normal force is represented by this equation: FN = mg Where FN = normal force, m = mass, and g = acceleration due to gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$). Therefore, we can translate the frictional force equation by replacing the normal force with its components: Ff = μmg, Where Ff = frictional force, μ = coefficient of friction, m = mass, and g = acceleration due to gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$). Step 2: Manipulate the equation to solve for mass. Ff = μmg, (Ff / μg) = (μmg / μg), m = Ff / μg Step 3: Calculate the mass of the box. Next, we can plug in the given values for the frictional force (420 N), coefficient of friction (0.4), and the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$) into the frictional force equation to calculate the frictional force: m = Ff / μg , m = (420 N) / (0.4)*(9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$) ,m = (420 N) / (3.92 $\text{m/s}^{2}$) ,m = 107.14 kg. The mass of the car is 107.14 kg.

1023. A block of mass 5 kg rests on top of a table. An external force of 12 N is applied to the box towards the right. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the table is 0.5, find the net force acting on the block.
      • 24.5 N towards the right
      • 24.5 N towards the left
      • 12.5 N towards the right
      • 12.5 N towards the left

      Correct answer: 12.5 N towards the left

      The net force acting on an object is simply the sum of all forces acting on that object. The applied force is given to us, but we must also know the frictional force to calculate the net force acting on the block. The frictional force is a force that opposes motion and is expressed in Newton. It is represented mathematically as: Ff = μFN Where Ff = frictional force, μ = coefficient of friction, and FN = normal force. The coefficient of friction is given to us (μ=0.5), but we still need to calculate the normal force. Step 1: Calculate the normal force. The normal force is represented mathematically as: FN = mg Where FN = normal force, m = mass, and g = acceleration due to gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$). When plugging in the given values for mass (5 kg) and gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$): FN = (5 kg)*(9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$) FN = 49 N Step 2: Calculate the frictional force. Next, we can plug in our calculated value for normal force (49 N) and our given value for the coefficient of friction (0.5) into the frictional force equation to calculate the frictional force: Ff = μFN, Ff = (0.5)*(49 N), Ff = 24.5 N. The frictional force is 24.5 N. Step 3: Calculate the net force on the block. The magnitude of the net force acting on an object is simply the sum of all forces acting on the object. Friction is a force that opposes motion, so it is acting in the opposite direction of the applied force. Because the two forces are opposing each other, the applied force (in this case, 12 N acting towards the right of the box) is considered positive, and the frictional force (24.5 N acting towards the left) is considered to be negative. We calculate the net force using the following equation: Fnet = Fright + (- Fleft), Fnet = 24.5 N + (-12 N), Fnet = 12.5 N.The magnitude of the frictional force (acting towards the left) is greater than the magnitude of the external force applied on the block. Hence, the direction of the net force will also be towards the left. The net force is 12.5 N towards the left. Note: When the frictional force is greater than the applied force, the object will not move. The applied force must be greater than the frictional force to overcome the friction and move the object.

1024. A ball attached to a pole by a rope swings around in a circular path for 4.5 m. If the distance from the pole to the ball at the end of the rope is 3.5 m, what is the angular displacement of the ball?
      • 4.5
      • 0.78
      • 1.3
      • 15.8

      Correct answer: 1.3

      Answer: 1.3 Explanation: Use the equation for angular displacement (Θ) to solve this equation. Θ = S/r, Where: S = 4.5 m, r = 3.5 m. Solve for the angular displacement: Θ = 4.5 m / 3.5 m, Θ = 1.3

1025. An object is traveling in a circle in an arc length of 5 m. If the circle radius is 14 m, what is the object’s angular displacement?
      • 0.36
      • 2.8
      • 14 m
      • 70

      Correct answer: 0.36

      Answer: 0.36 Use the equation for angular displacement (Θ) to solve this equation. Θ = S / r , Where: S = 5 m and r = 14 m. Θ = 5 m / 14 m, Θ = 0.36 Note: Since the unit (m) is in both the numerator and denominator, they cancel out, and Θ is a unitless number.

1026. A 2 kg cannon ball attached to a rope is rotated about a 1.25 meter radius. If the rope broke when it has a centripetal acceleration of 20, how fast was the cannon ball moving?
      • 5 m/s
      • 25 m/s
      • 2.5 m/s
      • 12.5 m/s

      Correct answer: 5 m/s

      Answer: 5 To find out the velocity of the ball, we use the formula for the centripetal acceleration; a= $\text{v}^{2}$/r a = centripetal acceleration, V = velocity, r = radius of the circular path Convert the equation: v = $\sqrt{ar}$. Fill in the values: v = $\sqrt{20}$ $\text{m/s}^{2}$ * 1.25m = 5 m/s

1027. A 200 g stone attached to a string is rotated about a 2 meter radius. If the string broke when it was at 18 N of tension, how fast was the ball moving?
      • 13.42 m/s
      • 17.45 m/s
      • 19.28 m/s
      • 21.10 m/s

      Correct answer: 13.42 m/s

      Answer: 13.42. In this question, we use the formula for the centripetal acceleration; a= $\text{v}^{2}$/r, a = centripetal acceleration, V = velocity, r = radius of the circular path STEP 1. Since acceleration is not given, we find it out by using Newton’s second law of motion equation; F = ma, Filling in the values: 18N = 0.2 kg*a, a = $\text{90m/s}^{2}$. STEP 2. Then, we use the formula for the centripetal acceleration to find out the velocity of the ball. a= $\text{v}^{2}$/r a = centripetal acceleration V = velocity, r = radius of the circular path. Convert the equation: v = $\sqrt{ar}$. Fill in the values: v = $\sqrt{90}$ $\text{m/s}^{2}$ * 2m = 13.42m/s

1028. If a person has a weight of 815 N on earth, what is their mass in kg?
      • 83.1 kg
      • 77.5 kg
      • 76.2 kg
      • 81.3 kg

      Correct answer: 83.1 kg

      Answer: 83.1 kg Weight = mg. To find the mass of the person, we must isolate mass by dividing both sides by the gravitational constant. W/g = mg/g, W/g = m. The gravitational constant for Earth is 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The person’s weight is 815 N. Mass = 815 N / 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ = 83.1 kg

1029. James pulls a rope and he has a mass of 77 kg. He pulls 20 m of the rope and does 40 N$\times$m of work on the rope. What was the force he put on the rope to pull it up?
      • 4620 N
      • 1540 N
      • $\frac{1}{2}$ N
      • 2 N

      Correct answer: 2 N

      Answer: 2 N In physics, work is done on an object when energy is transferred to that object. Work is always measured in Nxm (pronounced Newton meters)The equation used to find the constant force acting on a particle is Work Done = Acting Force $\times$ Distance. W = F x d. If we want to find the force, we must isolate force by dividing both sides by distance: W/d = Fd/d, W / d = F, Force = W / d. The work is 40 Nxm. The distance is 20 m. Force = 40 Nxm / 20 m = 2 N

1030. A 1 kg soccer ball traveling at 1.25 m/s strikes a 10 kg gym bag and bounces back with a velocity of 0.5 m/s. How fast will the gym bag move?
      • 0.075 m/s
      • 75 m/s
      • 0.75 kg m/s
      • 7.5 m/s

      Correct answer: 0.075 m/s

      Answer: 0.075 m/s The equation for momentum is p = mv. Here, however, there is a change in momentum due to a collision. Thus, the change in momentum is written as p = mΔv. Since there are two objects, momentum must be conserved and the change in momentum is written as: m1v1 + m2v2 = m1v1’ + m2v2’. After plugging in the values from the equation, you would have: (1 kg)(1.25 m/s) + (10 kg)(0 m/s) = (1 kg)(0.5 m/s) + (10 kg)v2’. Perform multiplication and rearrange the formula to solve for v2’. 1.25 kg m/s + 0 = 0.5 kg m/s + (10 kg)v2’ 1.25 kg m/s – 0.5 kg m/s = (10 kg)v2’, 1.25 kg m/s – 0.5 kg m/s = (10 kg)v2’, 0.75 kg m/s = (10 kg)v2’, v2’ = (0.75 kg m/s)/10 kg, v2’ = 0.075 m/s

1031. A 45 kg bowling ball rolling at 0.75 m/s strikes a stationary 2.5 kg bowling pin and knocks it back with a velocity of 1.5 m/s. How fast will the bowling ball be moving?
      • 0.67 kg m/s
      • 0.67 m/s
      • 6.7 m/s
      • 67 m/s

      Correct answer: 0.67 m/s

      Answer: 0.67 m/sTo calculate the momentum of a two-body problem, use the following equation: m1v1 + m2v2 = m1v1’ + m2v2’ Once you plug in the values from the word problem, you would have: (45 kg)(0.75 m/s) + (2.5 kg)(0 m/s) = (45 kg)v1’ + (2.5 kg)(1.5 m/s), 33.75 kg m/s + 0 m/s = (45 kg)v1’ + 3.75 kg m/s, 30 kg m/s = (45 kg)v1’, v1’ = (30 kg m/s) / (45 kg), v1’ = 0.67 m/s

1032. If a wave in a string travels at 52 m/s and has a wavelength of 0.65 m, what is the frequency?
      • 80 Hz
      • 65 Hz
      • 0.0125 Hz
      • 12.5 Hz

      Correct answer: 80 Hz

      Answer: 80 Hz. Use the following equation (derived from the original equation speed = frequency $\times$ wavelength): frequency = speed/wavelength. Then plugging in the related values: frequency = 52 m/s / 0.65 m, frequency = 80 Hz.

1033. In which of the following medium can only electromagnetic waves can travel through?
      • Steel
      • Air
      • Water
      • Space

      Correct answer: Space

      Mechanical waves are associated with materials or substances known as mediums. Mechanical waves require a medium to travel. Therefore, water, air, or steel can be a medium for mechanical waves. Mechanical waves cannot travel through space because space does not have materials or substances to vibrate. On the other hand, electromagnetic waves can travel through space and they do not need a medium to travel.

1034. Snell’s law is used to describe which of the following phenomena?
      • Refraction
      • Diffraction
      • Reflection
      • Scattering

      Correct answer: Refraction

      Answer: Refraction. Refraction is the bending of light when it passes from one medium into another. Snell’s law is a formula that is used to describe what happens to light when it passes between two mediums in terms of the angle of incidence and angle of refraction. It also uses the index of refraction, which is a dimensionless ratio between the speed of light in a vacuum and the speed of light in a certain medium.

1035. The point at which the rays of light converge after passing through a lens is called what?
      • Focal length
      • Image distance
      • Focal point
      • Divergence point

      Correct answer: Focal point

      Answer: Focal point. In a convex (or converging) lens, after parallel rays of light have passed through the lens, they all converge at a single point called the focal point. This point is sometimes referred to as the principal focus, and the distance between the focal point and the center of the lens is called the focal length.

1036. What kind of a force do charged objects exert on one another when their charges are similar (either both negative or positive).
      • Gravitational
      • Attractive
      • Nuclear
      • Repulsive

      Correct answer: Repulsive

      Answer: Repulsive. The electrostatic force between two charged objects can be either attractive or repulsive. The relative charges on the two objects determine whether the electrostatic force is attractive or repulsive. If the objects have similar charges the force is repulsive, while if their charges are opposite, then the force is attractive.

1037. What would be the magnitude and direction of a force that is acting on a charge of – 35 μC if an electric field of magnitude 150,000 N/C points due West at a certain spot?
      • 52.5 N to the West
      • 5.25 N to the West
      • 52.5 N to the East
      • 5.25 N to the East

      Correct answer: 5.25 N to the East

      Answer: 5.25 N to the East. In order to find the magnitude of the force acting on a charge, you will need to multiply the electric field’s magnitude by the test charge’s magnitude. When a charge is positive, it will act in the same direction as the electric field’s direction. When a charge is negative, it will act in the opposite direction to the electric field’s direction. Force = (Electric Field's Magnitude)*(Test Charge's Magnitude).Step 1: Convert μC to C (1 μC = 1 $\times 10^{-6}$ C), – 35 μC = -35 $\times 10^{-6}$ C. Step 2: Insert the values into the equation: Force = (150,000 N/C) * (-35 $\times 10^{-6}$ C). Force = -5.25N. The magnitude of the force is 5.25 N to the East

1038. An object travels at a velocity of -54 m/s for 11 seconds. What is its speed?
      • 54 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 54 m/s
      • 4.9 m/s
      • -4.9 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: 54 m/s

      Answer: 54 m/s. Velocity is a vector quantity meaning that it contains information about both the direction and the magnitude of the quantity. 54 is the magnitude and the negative sign gives direction. Speed is a scalar quantity, meaning that it only gives you information about the magnitude of the quantity. Speed is the magnitude of velocity. Example: A scalar quantity is 10 steps. A vector quantity is 10 steps to the right. To find the scalar quantity from a vector quantity, you remove the information about direction. For one dimensional quantities, this means taking the absolute value, removing the negative sign if there is one. |-54 m/s| = 54 m/s. Note that $\text{m/s}^2$ is the unit for acceleration, not speed.

1039. A ball is set in motion down a constant slope. At a certain point in its descent, the ball is rolling at 16 m/s and accelerates to 32 m/s in 8 seconds. How fast is the acceleration?
      • -2 m/s
      • 2 m/s
      • 2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -2 $\text{m/s}^2$

      Correct answer: 2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Answer: 2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. Step 1: Find the acceleration; Acceleration = change in velocity $\div$ time taken. The ball starts at 16 and accelerates to 32 m/s which makes the change in velocity: 24 m/s – 16 m/s= 16 m/s. The ball took 8 seconds to reach the 24 m/s velocity so the time taken equals 8 s. Enter these numbers into the acceleration formula: acceleration = 16 m/s $\div$ 8 s; acceleration = 2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

1040. A New Caledonian Crow releases a nut from a height to collect the meat once it breaks. If it takes the nut 4 secs to hit the ground, what was the height of the crow when she released the nut?
      • 78 m
      • 96 m
      • 69 m
      • 88 m

      Correct answer: 78 m

      Answer: 78 m. The basic equation for total distance traveled is: d = (Vinitital)(t) + (0.5)a(t2), d = displacement of the object (distance traveled), Vinitial = initial velocity, t = time, a = acceleration. Step 1: Determine the information from the word problem you can plug into the equation. d = unknown (this is what we are solving for) , t = 4 seconds, a = 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The object in this scenario is falling, so the acting force is gravity. The acceleration for any object moving under the sole influence of gravity (i.e. hanging from a spring) is the gravitational constant which is 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ so the equation is now: V = 0. Since the object starts from rest, the initial velocity is 0. Step 2: Solve for the distance traveled. d = 78m

1041. Carlos walks to school everyday. It talks his 15 minutes in the morning and 10 minutes after school. If his school is 1 mile away. What is his average speed in the morning and the afternoon?
      • 4 mph in the morning and 6 mph in the afternoon
      • 6 mph in the morning and 4 mph in the afternoon
      • 1/4 mph in the morning and 1/6 mph in the afternoon
      • 1/6 mph in the morning and 1/4 mph in the afternoon

      Correct answer: 4 mph in the morning and 6 mph in the afternoon

      Answer: 4 mph in the morning and 6 mph in the afternoon. Step 1: Convert the times to hours, Morning: 15 minutes / 60 minutes = 1/4 hour, Afternoon: 10 minutes / 60 minutes = 1/6 hour Step 2: divide the distance traveled by the time to obtain average speed, Morning: 1 mile $\div$ 1/4 hour = 4 mph, Afternoon: 1 mile $\div$ 1/6 hour = 6 mph.

1042. Sahil went to the grocery store. He was gone for a total of 28 minutes and spent 13 minutes in the store. The store is 3 miles away from his house. What is his average speed while driving (not including the time in the store)?
      • 32 mph
      • 24 mph
      • 20 mph
      • 15 mph

      Correct answer: 24 mph

      Answer: 24 mph. Step 1: Find the distance traveled, convert any units needed. It is 3 miles to the store and 3 miles back to his house. So the total distance traveled is 6 miles. Step 2: Find the time taken to travel this distance, convert any units needed. Sahil spent 28 minutes in total traveling but was in the store for 13 minutes. 28-13= 15. Now you need to convert the minutes into hours. 15 minutes / 60 minutes = 0.25 hours Step 3: Find the average speed by dividing the distance traveled by the time, 6 miles / 0.25 hours = 24mph

1043. A cyclist is riding a path in a park that is a distance of 23 miles. He takes an hour and 15 minutes to complete the path and finishes the circuit to finish where he started. What value would you find to find his pace?
      • Average velocity
      • Average speed
      • Average displacement
      • Average acceleration

      Correct answer: Average speed

      Answer: average speed. The values you are given are distance (23 miles) and time (one hour and 15 minutes). Since the track is a circuit, he starts and ends in the same spot. His displacement is 0 and thus his average velocity is 0 m/s. We do not know how his velocity is changing throughout the course and average displacement has no useful meaning in most contexts. The value that would tell you his pace would be distance/time which is the equation for average speed.

1044. An object travels a distance of 300 km in 30 min. What is the average speed of the object?
      • 167 m/s
      • 166.67 m/s
      • 160 m/s
      • 170 m/s

      Correct answer: 166.67 m/s

      Average speed is the distance an object travels divided by the time the object travels. It is represented mathematically by the following equation, where s = average speed (expressed in m/s), d = distance (expressed in m), and t = time (expressed in s). s = d/t Step 1: Convert distance from kilometers to meters. Distance must be expressed in meters; so we must first convert the distance traveled by the object from kilometers to meters before the average speed is determined: 300 km * (1,000 m / 1 km) = 300,000 m ,300 km is 300,000 m. Step 2: Convert time from minutes to seconds. Now we need to convert the time taken elapsed from minutes to seconds before computing the average speed. 30 min * (60 s / 1 min) = 1,800 s, 30 minutes is 1,800 seconds. Step 3: Calculate the average speed. We now divide the new value for the distance traveled by the object (300,000 m) by the new value for time elapsed (1,800 s) to determine the average speed of the object. s = d/t , s = 100,000 m / 1,800 s, s = 166.67 m/s The average speed of the object is 166.67 m/s.

1045. The average speed of an athlete is 3.5 m/s. What is the distance traveled by the athlete in 70 seconds?
      • 245 m
      • 200 m
      • 350 m
      • 20 m

      Correct answer: 245 m

      We know that average speed is the distance an object travels divided by the time the object travels. However, this question asks for the distance. Step 1: Rearrange the average speed equation (s = d/t) to solve for distance. s = d/t, s*t = (d/t)*t, st = d, d = st The distance traveled is the average speed of the athlete multiplied by the time elapsed. Step 2: Calculate the distance traveled. Now, we multiply the athlete’s average speed (3.5 m/s) by the time (70 s) to compute the distance they traveled. d = st . d = 3.5 m/s * 70 s, d = 245 m. The athlete travels 245 m.

1046. A motorcycle has an initial velocity of at 49 m/s at the bottom of a hill. Seven seconds later, it reaches the top of the hill with a final velocity of 21 m/s. What was the acceleration of the motorcycle?
      • -3 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -4 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: -4 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Acceleration is the change of velocity over a period of time. Acceleration is represented mathematically by the following equation, where a = acceleration (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vf = final velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vi = initial velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and Δt = change in time (expressed in s). a = (vf – vi) / Δt Step 1: Calculate acceleration using the acceleration formula. Substitute our values for initial velocity (vi = 49), its final velocity (vf = 21 m/s), and the time interval ( Δt = 7s) into the acceleration equation: a = (vf – vi) / Δt, a = (21 m/s – 49 m/s) / 7 s, a = -28 m/s / 7s a = – 4 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The motorcycle is accelerating at -4 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. Note that the negative value of the acceleration is because the velocity of the motorcycle is decreasing: because the initial velocity is larger in magnitude than the final velocity.

1047. An object traveling at 18 m/s starts to decelerate steadily. It comes to a complete stop in 3 seconds. What is its acceleration?
      • -8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -6 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -7 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: -6 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Acceleration is the change of velocity over a period of time. Acceleration is represented mathematically by the following equation, where a = acceleration (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vf = final velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vi = initial velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and Δt = change in time (expressed in s). a = (vf – vi ) / Δt Step 1: Calculate acceleration using the acceleration formula. Substitute our given values for initial velocity ( vi = 18 m/s), its final velocity (vf = 0m/s), and the time interval (Δt = 3 s) into the acceleration formula. a = (vf – vi ) / Δt a = (0 m/s – 18 m/s ) /3s, a = – 18 m/s /3s, a = – 6 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The object is accelerating at – 6 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The negative value of the acceleration is because the velocity of the object is decreasing as it comes to a complete stop.

1048. A particle is projected at an angle of 56° above the horizontal with an initial velocity of 130 m/s. How far will it travel horizontally 4 minutes after being projected?
      • 290.78 m
      • 17,472 m
      • 17,010 m
      • 520 m

      Correct answer: 17,472 m

      The horizontal distance traveled by the projected particle can be determined by using the following formula: dx= vx *t where dx = horizontal distance, vx = horizontal velocity, and t = time. Step 1: Calculate the horizontal velocity of the projectile. We need to know the horizontal velocity to be able to compute the horizontal distance. But the horizontal velocity is not given to us. Instead, we are told that the particle has a velocity of 130 m/s but is launched at an angle (56°), which takes into account the vertical and horizontal velocities. We need to find just the horizontal velocity. To calculate the horizontal velocity, we multiply the initial velocity of the projectile (in this case, 130 m/s) by cosθ: vx = vi * cos θ Where vx = horizontal velocity, vi = initial velocity, and θ = angle above the horizontal. We substitute our values into the horizontal velocity equation (vi = 130 m/s; θ = 56°). vx = vi * cos θ, vx = 130 m/s * cos (56°), vx = 130 m/s * 0.56, vx = 72.8 m/s Step 2: Convert time from minutes to seconds. Time is given to us in minutes (4 minutes), but the velocity is given in meters per second. Therefore, we need to convert minutes to seconds to solve. 4 min * (60 s / 1 min) = 240 s, 4 minutes is 240 seconds. Step 3: Calculate the horizontal distance traveled by the particle. Now we plug our value for the horizontal velocity (72.8 m/s) and our new value for time (240 s) into the horizontal distance formula: dx = vx * t, dx = 72.8 m/s * 240 s, dx = 17,472 m. The particle will travel 17,472 m in the horizontal direction. Note: In some of these problems, you will have to round your work along the way (we recommend to the nearest hundredths place) and then choose the closest answer choice. This is how it will be on your HESI exam.

1049. A body falls freely from rest. What is the distance it falls in 40 seconds?
      • 196 m
      • 15,680 m
      • 7,840 m
      • 400 m

      Correct answer: 7,840 m

      Since the body falls freely, it moves only under the force of gravity. Therefore, its acceleration is uniform (constant) and equal to the acceleration due to gravity. The mathematical formula to solve for vertical distance (dy) given uniform acceleration is: dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$) $\text{gt}^{2}$ + vi t , where dy = vertical distance, g = acceleration due to gravity, t = time, and vi = initial velocity. Step 1: Calculate the vertical distance traveled by the freely falling body. To calculate the vertical distance, we substitute the given values into the formula: The initial velocity vi =0 m/s (since it falls from rest), the acceleration (g=9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and the time (t= 40 s). dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$) $\text{gt}^{2}$+ vi t, vi t cancels out because the initial velocity is 0. dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$) $\text{gt}^{2}$, dy = ($\frac{1}{2}$) (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$) * (40 s)2, dy = 4.9 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ * 1600 $\text{s}^{2}$, dy = 7,840 m The body will freely fall 7,480 m in 40 seconds. Note: When we say “body” in physics, that is simply another word for an object.

1050. Two forces of magnitudes 136 N and 145 N act upon a box in the same direction. The box has a mass of 25 kg. What is the acceleration of the box? (Ignore the effects of friction)
      • 0.36 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 11.24 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 2.78 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.09 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: 11.24 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      The net force acting on the box is simply the sum of all forces acting on the box. Since the two forces are in the same direction, both forces are considered positive. The net force is represented by the following equation: Fnet = F1 + F2 Step 1: Calculate the net force. To determine the box’s acceleration, we must first determine the net force acting on the book. According to the question, there are two forces: Force one, F1 = 136 N, Force two, F2 = 145 N Both forces are acting in the same direction. The magnitude of the net force can be calculated as: Fnet = F1 + F2, Fnet = 136 N + 145 N, Fnet = 281 N Step 2: Calculate the acceleration using Newton’s second law of motion. Now that the net force (281 N) is determined, we can use Newton’s second law of motion to determine the magnitude of the acceleration of the box: F = ma Where F = force, k = the constant of proportionality, and a = acceleration. First, we convert the formula to solve for acceleration: F = ma, (F/m) = (ma / m), a = F/m Next, we substitute the values for net force and the mass of the box: a = 281 N / 25 kg, a = 11.24 $\text{m/s}^2$. The acceleration of the box is 11.24 $\text{m/s}^{2}$.

1051. Two forces are acting upon an object of mass 50 kg. One of the forces has a magnitude of 234 N and is acting to the right. The other force has a magnitude of 546 N and is acting to the left. What is the acceleration of the object? (Ignore effects of friction)
      • 6.24 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ to the left
      • 15.6 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ to the right
      • 6.24 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ to the right
      • 15.6 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ to the left

      Correct answer: 6.24 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ to the left

      Step 1: Calculate the net force. To determine the object’s acceleration, we must first determine the net force acting on the object. According to the question, there are two forces: Force acting to the left, Fleft = 546 N, Force acting to the right, Fright = 234 N, Fleft ＞Fright , and therefore the net force on the object will be towards the left. The magnitude of this net force is: Fnet = Fleft+ (- Fright), Fnet = 546 N – 234 N, Fnet = 312 N Step 2: Calculate the acceleration using Newton’s second law of motion. Now that the net force (312 N to the left) is determined, we can use Newton’s second law of motion to determine the magnitude of the acceleration of the box: F = ma Where F=force, k = the constant of proportionality, and a=acceleration. First, we convert the formula to solve for acceleration: F = ma, (F/m) = (ma / m), a = F/m. Next, we substitute the values for net force and the mass of the object: a = (312 N / 50 kg), a = 6.24 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The acceleration of the object is 6.24 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ to the left.

1052. An object of mass 552 g is moving across a surface and experiences a frictional force of 1.6 N. What is the coefficient of friction between the object and the surface it is moving across?
      • μ = 0.35
      • μ = 0.3
      • μ = 0.45
      • μ = 0.4

      Correct answer: μ = 0.3

      Here, we need to solve for the coefficient of friction. The frictional force is given to us (1.6 N) as well as the information required to calculate the normal force (552 g of mass and the acceleration due to gravity, which is 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$), so we can manipulate the equation for frictional force (Ff = μFN) to solve for the coefficient of friction. But first, let’s check our units. Step 1: Convert mass from grams to kilograms. The force is given in Newtons, and the mass is in grams. A Newton is kg $\times$ $\text{m/s}^{2}$. Therefore, we need to convert the mass from g to kg. 552 g * (1 kg / 1,000 g) = 0.552 kg, 552 g equals 0.552 kg. Now, let’s find the normal force. Step 2: Calculate the normal force. The normal force is represented mathematically as: FN = mg, Where FN = normal force, m = mass, and g = acceleration due to gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$). We plug in our new value for mass (0.552 kg) and gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$): FN = (0.552 kg)*(9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$), FN = 5.4 N. The normal force is 5.4 N. Step 3: Rearrange the equation for frictional force to solve for the coefficient of friction. Now we rearrange the equation for frictional force (Ff = μFN) to solve for the coefficient of friction. Ff = μFN, (Ff / FN)= (μFN/ FN) , μ = Ff / FN Step 4: Calculate the coefficient of friction. Next, we can plug in our calculated value for normal force (5.4 N) and our given value for the frictional force (1.6 N) into the frictional force equation to calculate the frictional force: μ = Ff / FN, μ = 1.6 N / 5.4 N, μ = 0.8. The coefficient of friction between the box and the surface is 0.3.

1053. A car is moving on a road and experiences a frictional force of 7,644 N. If the coefficient of friction between the car and the road is 0.6, what is the car’s mass?
      • 1,300 kg
      • 1,475 kg
      • 990 kg
      • 1,576 kg

      Correct answer: 1,300 kg

      Here, we need to solve for the mass. We are given frictional force (7,644 N) and the coefficient of friction (0.6). We also know that acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. Step 1: Combine the frictional force and normal force equations: We know that frictional force is represented mathematically by the following equation: Ff = μFN Where Ff = frictional force, μ = coefficient of friction, and FN = normal force. And we know that the normal force is represented by this equation: FN = mg Where FN = normal force, m = mass, and g = acceleration due to gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$). Therefore, we can translate the frictional force equation by replacing the normal force with its components: Ff = μmg Where Ff = frictional force, μ = coefficient of friction, m = mass, and g = acceleration due to gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$). Step 2: Rearrange the equation to solve for mass. Ff = μmg, (Ff / μg) = (μmg / μg), m = Ff / μg Step 3: Calculate the mass of the car. Next, we can plug in the given values for the frictional force (7,644 N), coefficient of friction (0.6), and the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$) into the frictional force equation to calculate the frictional force: m = Ff / μg ,m = (7,644 N) / (0.6)*(9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$) , m = (7,644 N) / (5.88 $\text{m/s}^{2}$) ,m = 1,300 kg. The mass of the car is 1,300 kg.

1054. A car drives in a circle in a radius of 145 m and travels 678 m. What is the angular displacement of the car?
      • 678
      • 4.7
      • 0.21
      • 98,310

      Correct answer: 4.7

      Answer: 4.7 Use the equation for angular displacement (Θ) to solve this equation. Θ = S / r, Where: S = 678 m, r = 145 m. Solve for the angular displacement: Θ = 678 m / 145 m, Θ = 4.7

1055. What two parameters are necessary to calculate angular displacement?
      • Acceleration and circle radius
      • Circle radius and velocity
      • Arc length and circle radius
      • Velocity and arc length

      Correct answer: Arc length and circle radius

      Answer: Arc length and circle radius Angular displacement (Θ) is a measure of the distance between two points when an object has undergone circular motion. The formula for this is: Θ = S / r, Where S is the arc length, and r is the radius of the circle. Since the formula has a distance in both the numerator and denominator, angular displacement is a unitless value.

1056. A 100 g tennis ball attached to a string is rotated about a 3 meter radius. If the string broke when it was at 15 N of tension, how fast was the ball moving?
      • 33.65 m/s
      • 21.21 m/s
      • 27.45 m/s
      • 25.15 m/s

      Correct answer: 21.21 m/s

      Answer: 21.21. In this question, we use the formula for the centripetal acceleration; a = centripetal acceleration, a= $\text{v}^{2}$/r, V = velocity, r = radius of the circular path STEP 1. Since acceleration is not given, we find it out by using Newton’s second law of motion equation; F = ma. Filling in the values; 15N = 0.1kg*a, a = 150 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. STEP 2. Then, we use the formula for the centripetal acceleration to find out the velocity of the ball. a= $\text{v}^{2}$/r, a= centripetal acceleration V= velocity r= radius of the circular path Convert the equation: v = $\sqrt{ar}$. Fill in the values: v = $\sqrt{150}$ $\text{m/s}^{2}$ * 3m = 21.21m/s

1057. Energy, both Kinetic and Potential, are expressed in what units?
      • Kilometers
      • Joules
      • Meters/second
      • Kilograms

      Correct answer: Joules

      Answer: Joules. All Energy is expressed in Joules. It does not matter if it is stored energy or kinetic or thermal. All energy is expressed in Joules.

1058. A person has a mass of 76 kg. What is this person’s weight on Earth?
      • 455 N
      • 820 N
      • 745 N
      • 690 N

      Correct answer: 745 N

      Answer: 745 N Weight = mg. The mass of the person is 76 kg. The gravitational constant for Earth is 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. Weight = 76 kg x 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ = 744.8 N = 745 N

1059. A cyclist weighs 60 kg, and her bicycle weighs 6.8 kg. What is the momentum of the cyclist when riding her bike at 4 m/s southward?
      • 240 kg m/s south
      • 267.2 kg m/s south
      • 27.2 kg m/s south
      • 16.7 kg m/s south

      Correct answer: 267.2 kg m/s south

      Answer: 267.2 kg m/s south Since both the cyclist and her bicycle are traveling at 4 m/s, we need to account for the combined mass, which is 66.8 kg. She is riding southward, so the answer needs to include the direction (south) as well. p = momentum (measured in kg⋅m/s), m = mass (measured in kg), v = velocity (measure in m/s). Thus, the momentum, p, is: p = 66.8 kg x 4 m/s, p = 267.2 kg m/s south

1060. A 2 kg dog runs southwest at a velocity of 1.5 m/s. What is its momentum?
      • 4.5 kg m/s southwest
      • 2 kg m/s southwest
      • 3.0 kg m/s southwest
      • 2.5 kg m/s southwest

      Correct answer: 3.0 kg m/s southwest

      Answer: 3.0 kg m/s southwest To calculate momentum, p, multiply the mass and velocity together and include the direction of travel. p = momentum (measured in kg⋅m/s), m = mass (measured in kg), v = velocity (measure in m/s). p = 2 kg x 1.5 m/s, p = 3.0 kg m/s southwest

1061. If a basketball bounces 15 times every 20 seconds, what is its frequency?
      • 0.2 Hz
      • 0.75 Hz
      • 1.33 Hz
      • 3 Hz

      Correct answer: 0.75 Hz

      Answer: 0.75 Hz. Use the equation. F = l / T; F=frequency, l=vibrations (i.e. bounces), T=time. Then: F = l / T, F = 15 / 20 s, F = 0.75 Hz.

1062. If a patient breathes 720 times in 60 minutes, what is the breathing period of this patient in seconds?
      • 12 s
      • 8.3 s
      • 5 s
      • 0.083 s

      Correct answer: 5 s

      Answer: 5 s. Step 1: Convert 60 minutes to seconds: 60 min = 60 min $\times$ 60 s/min = 3600 seconds. Step 2: Find the period: So if there are 720 breathes in 3600 seconds, then the period of each breath is T = 3600 s /720, T = 5s.

1063. If an object is magnified by a factor of 2 in a convex lens and has an image height of 4.5 cm, what is the height of the object?
      • 2.25 cm
      • 9.0 cm
      • 0.44 cm
      • 45 cm

      Correct answer: 2.25 cm

      Answer: 2.25 cm The magnification equation is written as M = hi / ho.Where: M is the magnification, hi is the image height, ho is the object height. Solve for the object’s height, ho, M = hi / ho, 2 = 4.5 cm / ho, ho = 2.25 cm

1064. If the speed of light is 2.0 x 108 m/s in glass, what is the index of refraction for glass?
      • 1.5
      • 1.33
      • 1.67
      • 0.67

      Correct answer: 1.5

      Answer: 1.5 To calculate this answer, use the following formula: n = c /v, where n is the index of refraction, c is the speed of light in a vacuum (3.00 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s), and v is the velocity of light in the medium. n = c /v, n = (3.00 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s) / 2.0 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s, n = (3.00 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s) / 2.0 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s, n = 1.5

1065. Two balloons carrying charges of 5 μC and 8μC are 25 cm apart. Determine the magnitude of the force between them.
      • 4.75 N
      • 6.69 N
      • 5.76 N
      • 3.24 N

      Correct answer: 5.76 N

      Answer: 5.76 N To find the magnitude of the resulting force between the two objects, use Coulomb’s Law: F = k ($\text{Q1Q2/r}^{2}$), Q1 = the charge on the point-like object one (unit of measure is Coulomb, ) Q2 = the charge on the point-like object two (unit of measure is Coulomb, ), r = the distance between the two objects (unit of measure is meter, ), k = the proportionality constant (unit of measure is ); k = 9.0 $\times 10^{9}$ N $\text{m}^{2}$$\text{/C}^{2}$. Step 1: Convert μC to C (1 μC = 1 $\times 10^{-6}$ C) and convert centimeters to meters 5 = 5 $\times 10^{-6}$ C, 8 = 8 $\times 10^{-6}$ C, 25 = 0.25 m. Step 2: Insert the values into the equation; Q1 = = 5 $\times 10^{-6}$ C, Q2 8 $\times 10^{-6}$ C, r = 0.25. F = 5.76N

1066. Two point-like charges carrying charges of + 0.5 μC and – 0.4 μC are 2 m apart. Determine the magnitude of the force between them.
      • 65 $\times 10^{-5}$ N
      • 55 $\times 10^{-5}$ N
      • 45 $\times 10^{-5}$ N
      • 75 $\times 10^{-5}$ N

      Correct answer: 45 $\times 10^{-5}$ N

      Answer: 45 $\times 10^{-5}$ N To find the magnitude of the resulting force between the two objects, use Coulomb’s Law: F = k ($\text{Q1Q2/r}^{2}$), Q1 = the charge on the point-like object one (unit of measure is Coulomb, ) Q2 = the charge on the point-like object two (unit of measure is Coulomb, ), r = the distance between the two objects (unit of measure is meter, ), k = the proportionality constant (unit of measure is ); k = 9.0 $\times 10^{9}$ N $\text{m}^{2}$$\text{/C}^{2}$. Step 1: Convert μC to C (1 μC = 1 $\times 10^{-6}$ C); +0.5 μC = 5 $\times 10^{-6}$ C, – 0.4 μC = 4 $\times 10^{-6}$ C Step 2: Insert the values into the equation Q1 = 5 x 10-6 C, Q2 = 4 x 10-6 C, r = 2. The magnitude of the force is F = 45 $\times 10^{-5}$ N The minus sign is a result of the two point charges having opposite signs; therefore, the electrostatic force is attractive.

1067. A ball is kicked off the edge of a roof that is 34 meters tall. The horizontal speed given to the ball is 12.5 m/s. If there is no air resistance, how far out from the base of the building will the ball land
      • 30.80 m
      • 19.35 m
      • 28.44 m
      • 32.86 m

      Correct answer: 32.86 m

      Answer: 32.86 m. This problem provides the vertical distance (height of the roof of the building), vertical acceleration (gravitational constant), and the initial horizontal velocity (speed of the ball). Vx = Horizontal velocity (12.5 m/s), dy= vertical displacement of the object (34 m), dx = unknown (this is what we are solving for), t = unknown (flight time), a = 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. Since we assume there is no air resistance, dx = Vx t. We solve this problem in two steps. Step 1: Calculate flight time. We want to use the distance equation (dx = Vx t) to solve this problem. However, we are not given the flight time (t) in the problem so we must solve for this. The equation to solve for flight time is: Flight Time = $\sqrt{\;}$((vertical distance)/(1/2)(vertical acceleration)). Plugging in our known quantities we get: Flight Time = $\sqrt{\;}$((34 m)/(1/2)(9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$)) Flight Time = 2.63 s Step 2: Use the horizontal distance equation to solve for the horizontal distance; dx = vxt, dx = 12.5 m/s x 2.63 s, dx = 32.86 m. Since there is no air resistance, the ball will land 32.86 m from the building.

1068. Acceleration due to Earth’s gravity is -9.8 $\text{m/s}^2$. Which part of this number gives the information on direction, making it a vector quantity?
      • We know it is a vector quantity because the seconds are squared in the units.
      • We know it is a vector quantity because the negative sign tells us the acceleration is upward.
      • We know it is a vector quantity because the negative sign tells us the acceleration is downward.
      • We know it is a vector quantity because the negative sign tells us the magnitude of the acceleration.

      Correct answer: We know it is a vector quantity because the negative sign tells us the acceleration is downward.

      Answer: We know it is a vector quantity because the negative sign tells us the acceleration is downward. Vector quantities carry meaning of direction and magnitude. Scalar quantities only carry meaning in regards to the magnitude of the quantity. The gravitational acceleration constant for Earth: -9.8 $\text{m/s}^2$ is the unit of the quantity. This tells us that the quantity is acceleration (because the units of acceleration are length/time2). It also tells us that we are working in SI units. If a problem gives quantities in another metric system, we must convert something. 9.8 is the magnitude of the quantity. This tells us how much of the quantity we have. We can find this, if the problem asks for it, by taking the absolute value of the quantity. – (The negative sign) gives us the direction of the quantity. In cases where the value is positive, the positive sign + is usually omitted. We know that the quantity is a vector based on context and its name. For example, a car’s speedometer tells you the speed of the car is 35mph. We know that speed is a scalar quantity and so we cannot say anything about its direction. If a problem tells you that a ball is thrown with a velocity of 35 mph, you can assume the ball is not being thrown backward and this sets your frame of reference for the rest of the problem. Gravity on Earth pulls us to the surface. So we know that the negative sign on the gravitational acceleration constant tells us that gravity is downward.

1069. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
      • 10 steps up
      • 10 miles north
      • 10 paces
      • 10 yards to the right

      Correct answer: 10 paces

      Answer: 10 paces. Vector quantities carry meaning of direction and magnitude. Scalar quantities only carry meaning in regards to the magnitude of the quantity. The question asks for a scalar quantity, so we are looking for the answer with no information about direction. The only option that does not give information about the direction is 10 paces.

1070. A track team is warming up. They jog around the track (1/4 mile) three times and finish exactly where they started. Which of the following statements it true?
      • Their displacement is 0 miles and their distance traveled is $\frac{3}{4}$ mile.
      • Their displacement is 0 mile and their distance traveled is also 0 mile.
      • Their displacement is $\frac{3}{4}$ mile and their distance traveled is 0 miles.
      • Their displacement is $\frac{3}{4}$ mile and their distance traveled is also $\frac{3}{4}$ mile.

      Correct answer: Their displacement is 0 miles and their distance traveled is $\frac{3}{4}$ mile.

      Answer: Their displacement is 0 miles and their distance traveled is $\frac{3}{4}$ mile. Displacement is the shortest distance between two points (the starting and the ending point). In this case, the points are the same and so the displacement is 0. Distance traveled is the total length that the object travels. The track is $\frac{1}{4}$ mile and they ran around three times. $\frac{1}{4}$ miles x 3 times around the track = $\frac{3}{4}$ mile

1071. A man jumps out of an airplane with a parachute. When he opens his parachute, he is plummeting to the ground at a rate of 100 mph. When he touches the ground 5 minutes later, he lands at a comfortable 10mph. What is his average acceleration during this time?
      • 18 miles/hour
      • -1080 miles/hour
      • -18 miles/hour
      • 1080 miles/hour

      Correct answer: -1080 miles/hour

      Answer: -1080 mph Step 1: Find the acceleration: Acceleration = change in velocity $\div$ time taken. The man starts at 100 mph and accelerates to 10 mph which makes the change in velocity: 10mph-100mph= -90mph *Remember final velocity-initial velocity. So in this case, since the man starts out fast and slows down the acceleration is negative. The man took 5 minutes to reach the 10 mph velocity so the time taken equals 5 minutes. Solve for a: a = -90 mph / 5 minutes = -18 mph/minute. Step 2: Convert units: -18 mph/minute $\times$ 60 minutes = -1080 mph/hour

1072. Chester walked from his house to his friend’s house which is 140 meters from his house to the right. They decide to go to a café for lunch which is down the street, left of Chester’s house 50 meters. They walk to the café together and pass by Chester’s house. Which of the following statements is true when they are at the café?
      • Chester’s distance traveled and his displacement are both greater than his friend’s respective quantities.
      • Chester’s distance traveled is less than his friend’s distance traveled but his displacement is greater than his friend’s. displacement
      • Chester’s distance traveled is greater than his friend’s distance traveled but his displacement is less than his friend’s displacement.
      • Chester’s distance traveled and his displacement are both less than his friend’s respective quantities.

      Correct answer: Chester’s distance traveled is greater than his friend’s distance traveled but his displacement is less than his friend’s displacement.

      Answer: Chester’s distance traveled is greater than his friend’s distance traveled but his displacement is less than his friend’s displacement. Step 1: Find Chester’s distance traveled and displacement. Chester first walked to his friend’s house and then to the café. For total distance traveled we simply add these two distances. Chester’s distance traveled = distance to his friend’s house + distance from friend’s house to café. The distance to his friend’s house is 140 meters. The distance between his friend’s house to the café = 140 meters – 50 meters = 90 meters. Chester’s distance traveled = 140 meters + 90 meters = 230 meters. Chester’s displacement is the shortest distance between his starting point and his ending point. That is the distance between his house and the café which is 50 meters. Step 2: Find Chester’s friends displacement and distance traveled. Chester’s friends only traveled from his house to the café. That means his displacement and total distance traveled are both 90 meters. Step 3: Compare Chester’s displacement: 50 meters, Chester’s distance traveled: 230 meters, Friend’s displacement: 90 meters, Friend’s distance traveled: 90 meters, Chester’s displacement is less than his friends but his total distance traveled is greater than his friends.

1073. An ice skater, who has a mass of 70 kg has 1500 J of Kinetic Energy. What is the velocity of the skater?
      • 42.85 m/s
      • 171.38 m/s
      • 6.54 m/s
      • 13.09 m/s

      Correct answer: 6.54 m/s

      Answer: 6.54 Kinetic Energy is the energy an object possesses because of its velocity. Any object that is in motion is using kinetic energy: a child running, a thrown ball, someone skiing down a hill, or a book falling off of a shelf. This is why the equation takes into account the object’s mass and the rate at which they are traveling (their velocity). KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ x $\text{mv}^{2}$ KE = Kinetic energy (expressed in Joules – J), m = mass (expressed in kilograms), $\text{v}^{2}$ = velocity (expressed in meters per second squared). To find the velocity we must isolate it: 2 x KE = 2 x $\frac{1}{2}$ x $\text{mv}^{2}$, 2 x KE = $\text{mv}^{2}$, 2 x KE / m = $\text{mv}^{2}$ / m, 2 x KE / m = $\text{v}^{2}$, m = 70 kg, KE = 1500 J, $\text{v}^{2}$ = 2 x 1500 J / 70 kg = 42.85 $\text{m}^{2}$$\text{/s}^{2}$. We then take the $\sqrt{\;}$ of this and v = 6.54 m/s *Don’t forget that the velocity is squared*

1074. Three hockey pucks collide on the ice. Hockey puck A hits hockey puck B with a force of 9N to the right. Hockey puck B hits hockey puck C at the same moment and in the same direction with a force of 4 N, not including the force from puck A. What is the resulting force on hockey puck A?
      • 13 N to the right
      • 9 N to the left
      • 5 N to the right
      • 4 N to the left

      Correct answer: 9 N to the left

      Answer: 9N to the left. In this problem, it is crucial to remember Newton’s Third Law which is: The mutual forces of action and reaction between two bodies are equal, opposite and collinear. Puck A collides with puck B with a force of 9N to the right. Because of Newton’s Third Law, we know that puck A experiences a force that is equal and opposite, so the resultant force on A in 9 N to the left.

1075. Two objects are placed 75 m apart. If the two objects have masses of 3.6 kg and 3.5 kg, what is the force of attraction between the objects?
      • 1.5 $\times 10^{-13}$ N
      • 3.0 $\times 10^{-13}$ N
      • 4.6 $\times 10^{-13}$ N
      • 1.5 $\times 10^{-11}$ N

      Correct answer: 1.5 $\times 10^{-13}$ N

      Answer: 1.5 $\times 10^{-13}$ N To calculate the force between two objects, use the equation for Newton’s Universal Law of Gravitation, which has the form: F = Gm1m2/r2, Where G is the universal gravitational constant (6.67 x 10-11 N $\text{m}^{2}$ kg-${}^{2}$), m1 and m2 are the masses of the two objects, and r is the distance between the objects. Insert the values from the question, and solve for F. F = (6.67 $\times 10^{-11}$ N $\text{m}^{2}$ kg-${}^{2}$)(3.6 kg)(3.5 kg)/(75 $\text{m)}^{2}$, F = 1.5 $\times 10^{-13}$ N

1076. A pendulum makes 26 vibrations every 13 seconds. What is the frequency?
      • 0.5 Hz
      • 0.077 Hz
      • 5 Hz
      • 2 Hz

      Correct answer: 2 Hz

      Answer: 2 Hz. Use the equation F = l / T, F = frequency, l = vibrations (i.e. bounces) T = time. Then: F = l / T, F = 26 / 13 s, F = 2 Hz.

1077. Which two quantities are needed to determine the momentum of an object?
      • Velocity and direction
      • Mass and direction
      • Mass and velocity
      • Mass and acceleration

      Correct answer: Mass and velocity

      Answer: Mass and velocity Momentum, p, is mathematically defined as p = mv. The m represents the mass of the object, while v represents the velocity of the object. Thus, momentum is directly proportional to both an object’s mass and its velocity.

1078. Object 1 has a charge of 25 μC and is placed 35 cm from Object 2 that has a charge of 40 μC. What is the magnitude of the resulting force between the two objects?
      • 55.01 N
      • 60.18 N
      • 73.47 N
      • 53.88 N

      Correct answer: 73.47 N

      Answer: 73.47 N To find the magnitude of the resulting force between the two objects, use Coulomb’s Law: F = k ($\text{Q1Q2/r}^{2}$), Q1 = the charge on the point-like object one (unit of measure is Coulomb, ) Q2 = the charge on the point-like object two (unit of measure is Coulomb, ), r = the distance between the two objects (unit of measure is meter, ), k = the proportionality constant (unit of measure is ); k = 9.0 $\times 10^{9}$ N $\text{m}^{2}$$\text{/C}^{2}$. Step 1: Convert μC to C (1 μC = 1 $\times 10^{-6}$ C) and convert centimeters to meters. 25 μC = 25 $\times 10^{-6}$ C, 40 μC = 40 $\times 10^{-6}$ C, 35 cm = 0.35 m. Step 2: Insert the values into the equation; Q1 = = 25 $\times 10^{-6}$ C, Q2 = 40 $\times 10^{-6}$ C, r = 0.35 m. F = 73.47N

1079. Experiments have shown that the maximum wavelength of a sound wave that a healthy person can hear is 17 meters. What would be the frequency of this sound? (The speed of sound is 340 m/s)
      • 0.05 Hz
      • 0.34 Hz
      • 20 Hz
      • 25 Hz

      Correct answer: 20 Hz

      Answer: 20 Hz. Use the equation. frequency = speed / wavelength , (derived from the equation speed = frequency $\times$ wavelength). Then plugging in the related values: frequency = 340 m/s / 17 m, frequency = 20 Hz.

1080. Marsha goes cliff jumping. She has a mass of 72 kilograms and is accelerating at almost 10 $\text{m/s}^2$. What is the Force she experiences when she hits the water?
      • 75 N down
      • 72 N up
      • 720 N down
      • 720 N up

      Correct answer: 720 N up

      Answer: 720 N up, The formula to find the required force is force = mass in kg $\times$ acceleration in $\text{m/s}^{2}$. F=ma, F = 72 kg x 10 $\text{m/s}^{2}$, F = 720 N. She exerts of force on the water of 720 N down and because of Newton’s Third Law (The mutual forces of action and reaction between two bodies are equal, opposite and collinear), she also experiences a force of 720 N up. The force is up because her acceleration is upward. This is why she slows down when she hits the water.

1081. What is the general rule for magnetic charges?
      • Like charges repel and opposites attract.
      • Like charges attract and opposites repel.
      • Like charges attract and opposites also attract.
      • Like charges repel and opposites also repel

      Correct answer: Like charges repel and opposites attract.

      Answer: Like charges repel and opposites attract. When two objects are charged with like (two positive or two negative) charges, they will repel one another. When two objects are charged with opposite charges (one positive and one negative), they will be attracted to one another.

1082. Three hockey pucks collide on the ice. Hockey puck A hits hockey puck B with a force of 9N to the right. Hockey puck B hits hockey puck C at the same moment and in the same direction with a force of 4 N. What is the resultant force on hockey puck C?
      • 13 N to the right
      • 5 N to the left
      • 4 N to the right
      • 9 N to the left

      Correct answer: 13 N to the right

      Answer: 13 N to the right. To determine the net force of an object that has two forces in the same direction, simply add them use the following equation: NetForce = F1 + F2, NetForce = F1 + F2, NetForce = 9 N + 4 N, NetForce = 13 N to the right (remember that the hockey pucks traveled to the right)

1083. A ball is thrown downward with a force of 34 N. The Force of gravity acting on the ball is an additional 10 N. What is the net force on the ball?
      • 44 N down
      • 24 N up
      • 24 N down
      • 44 N up

      Correct answer: 44 N down

      Answer: 44 N down. To determine the net force of an object that has two forces in the same direction, simply add them use the following equation: NetForce = F1 + F2, NetForce = F1 + F2, NetForce = 34 N + 10 N, NetForce = 44 N down (remember that the ball was thrown downward)

1084. If a particular substance has a refractive index of 2.25, how fast does light travel through it?
      • 1.23 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s
      • 1.78 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s
      • 1.33 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s
      • 5.33 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s

      Correct answer: 1.33 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s

      Answer: 1.33 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s. Use the following formula: n = c /v, where n is the index of refraction, c is the speed of light in a vacuum (3.00 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s), and v is the velocity of light in the medium. n = c /v, 2.25 = (3.00 x 108 m/s) / v, v = (3.00 x 108 m/s) / 2.25, v = 1.33 x 108 m/s

1085. A certain material has an index of refraction of 1.33. What is the speed of light in this material?
      • 3.56 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s
      • 2.26 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s
      • 1.26 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s
      • 2.9 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s

      Correct answer: 2.26 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s

      Answer: 2.26 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s To calculate this answer, use the following formula: n = c /v, where n is the index of refraction, c is the speed of light in a vacuum (3.00 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s), and v is the velocity of light in the medium. n = c /v, 1.33 = (3.00 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s) / v, v = (3.00 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s) / 1.33, v = 2.26 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s

1086. Amelia drives her car at with an average speed of 35 mph for 15 minutes. How far did she travel?
      • 8.75 miles
      • 5 miles
      • 2.33 miles
      • 10 miles

      Correct answer: 8.75 miles

      Answer: 8.75 miles The equation for average speed is: Average speed = distance traveled / time. If we multiply both sides by time we get the equation for distance traveled given average speed and time: Distance traveled = (average speed) x (time). The average speed is 35 mph. The time is 15 minutes, which must be converted to hours: 15 min / 60 min = $\frac{1}{4}$ hour. If we plug in the numbers we get: Distance traveled = (35 mph)(1/4 hours) = 8.75 miles

1087. A ship is traveling from Italy to Santorini. It travels a distance of 56 km in 7,200 seconds. What is the average speed of the ship?
      • 8.87 m/s
      • 7.78 m/s
      • 16.5 m/s
      • 15.6 m/s

      Correct answer: 7.78 m/s

      Average speed is the distance an object travels divided by the time the object travels. It is represented mathematically by the following equation, where s = average speed (expressed in m/s), d = distance (expressed in m), and t = time (expressed in s). s = d/t Step 1: Convert kilometers to meters. Distance must be expressed in meters, so we must first convert the distance traveled by the ship from kilometers to meters before the average speed is determined: 56 km * (1,000 m / 1 km) = 56,000 m, 56 km is 56,000 m. Step 2: Calculate the average speed. We now divide the new value for the distance the ship traveled (56,000 m) by the time traveled (7,200 s) to determine the average speed of the ship. s = d/t, s = 56,000 m / 7,200 s, s = 7.78 m/s The average speed of the ship is 7.78 m/s.

1088. A car travels 1,600 meters in 3 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?
      • 53.33 m/s
      • 0.12 m/a
      • 8.89 m/s
      • 3,200 m/s

      Correct answer: 8.89 m/s

      Average speed is the distance an object travels divided by the time the object travels. It is represented mathematically by the following equation, where s = average speed (expressed in m/s), d = distance (expressed in m), and t = time (expressed in s). s = d/t Step 1: Convert minutes to seconds. Time must be expressed in seconds, so we must first convert the time elapsed from minutes to seconds before the average speed is determined: 3 min * (60 s / 1 min) = 180 s, 3 minutes is 180 seconds. Step 2: Calculate the average speed. We now divide the distance traveled by the car (1,600 m) by the new value for time elapsed (180 s) to determine the average speed of the car. s = d/t s = 1,600 m / 180 s, s = 8.89 m/s. The average speed of the car is 8.89 m/s.

1089. A train moves from rest to a speed of 36 km/h in 30 minutes. What is its acceleration?
      • 0.06 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.03 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.0056 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.04 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: 0.0056 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Acceleration is the change of velocity over a period of time. Acceleration is represented mathematically by the following equation, where a = acceleration 9expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vf = final velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vi = initial velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and Δt = change in time (expressed in s). a = (vf – vi) /Δt Step 1: Convert final velocity from km/h to m/s. Velocity must be expressed in m/s, so we need to convert our final velocity from km/h to m/s. 36 km/h * (1,000 m / 1 km) * (1h / 3.600 s) = 10 m/s , 36 km/h equals 10 m/s. Step 2: Convert time from minutes to seconds. The problem gives us the time in minutes. We need to convert the minutes to seconds to solve. 30 min * (60 s/ 1 min) = 1,800 s Step 3: Calculate acceleration using the acceleration formula. We plug the following into the acceleration formula: the initial velocity (vi = 0 m/s), the new value of the final velocity (vf = 10 m/s), and the new value of the time interval (Δt = 1,800 s): a = (vf – vi) /Δt, a = (10 m/s – 0 m/s) /1,800 s, a = 10 m/s /1,800 s, a = 0.0056 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The train is accelerating at 0.0056 $\text{m/s}^{2}$.

1090. An object with an initial velocity of 5 m/s uniformly accelerates until it reaches a final velocity of 23 m/s in half an hour. What is the acceleration of that object?
      • 0.04 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.03 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.02 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.01 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: 0.01 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Acceleration is the change of velocity over a period of time. Acceleration is represented mathematically by the following equation, where a = acceleration (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vf = final velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vi = initial velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and Δt = change in time (expressed in s). a = (vf – vi ) / Δt Step 1: Convert the time from hours to seconds. Time must be expressed in seconds, so we need to convert our units from hours to seconds. 0.5 h * (60 min / 1 h) * (60 s/ 1 min) = 1,800 s Half an hour (0.5 h) is equal to 1,800 seconds. Step 2: Calculate acceleration using the acceleration formula. Substitute the following into the acceleration formula: the object’s initial velocity (vi = 5 m/s), its final velocity (vf = 23 m/s), and the new value of the time interval (Δt = 1,800 s): a = (vf – vi ) / Δt, a = (23 m/s- 5 m/s) / 1,800 s a = 18 m/s/ 1,800 s, a = 0.01 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ The object is accelerating at 0.01 $\text{m/s}^{2}$.

1091. A toy rocket is launched with an initial speed of 48 m/s at an angle of 50°. How far does the projectile travel horizontally after 42 seconds?
      • 1290 m
      • 1480 m
      • 2010 m
      • 1000 m

      Correct answer: 1290 m

      The horizontal distance traveled by the toy rocket can be determined using the following formula: dx = vx * t where dx = horizontal distance, vx = horizontal velocity, and t = time. Step 1: Calculate the horizontal velocity of the projectile. We need to know the horizontal velocity to be able to compute the horizontal distance. But the horizontal velocity is not given to us. Instead, we are told that the toy rocket has a velocity of 48 m/s but is launched at an angle (50°), which takes into account the vertical and horizontal velocities. We need to find just the horizontal velocity. To calculate the horizontal velocity, we multiply the initial velocity of the projectile (in this case, 48 m/s) by cosθ: vx = vi * cos θ Where vx = horizontal velocity, vi = initial velocity, and θ = angle above the horizontal. We substitute our values into the horizontal velocity equation (vi = 48 m/s; θ = 50°). vx = vi * cos θ, vx = 48 m/s * cos (50°), vx = 48 m/s * 0.64 , vx = 30.72 m/s Step 2: Calculate the horizontal distance traveled by the golf ball. Now that we have the horizontal velocity (30.72 m/s), we can plug that value and the value for time (42 s) into the horizontal distance formula: dx = vx * t, dx = 30.72 m/s * 42 s, dx = 1290 m The toy rocket will travel 1290 m in the horizontal direction. Note: In some of these problems, you will have to round your work along the way (we recommend to the nearest hundredths place) and then choose the closest answer choice. This is how it will be on the HESI exam.

1092. A motorcyclist accelerates his bike over a period of 3 seconds, and the motorcycle wheel increases from 23 revolutions per minute to 34 revolutions per minute. What is the angular acceleration of the wheel?
      • 3.7 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$
      • 102 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$
      • -3.7 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$
      • 33 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: 3.7 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$

      Answer: 3.7 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$ The formula for angular acceleration (α) is: α = Δω/Δt ,Where:, Δω is the change in angular velocity (expressed in revolutions per second – rev/s), Δt is the change in time (expressed in seconds), Δω = ω2 – ω1, Δt = t2 – t1. Solve for angular acceleration: α = (34 rev/s – 23 rev/s) / 3 s, α = 11 rev/s / 3 s, α = 3.7 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$

1093. In an amusement park, a 21 kg girl is riding on the merry-go-round that has a radius of 6 m. When it reaches its full speed, the velocity of the girl is 7 m/s. What would be the centripetal force acting on the girl?
      • 217 N
      • 89 N
      • 310 N
      • 171.5 N

      Correct answer: 171.5 N

      Answer: 171.5 N In this question, we use the formula for the centripetal force: F = ($\text{mV}^{2}$)/r, F = centripetal force, m = mass, V = velocity, r = radius of the circular path. Filling in the values: F = (21 kg $\times$ 7 $\text{m/s}^{2}$)/(6 m), F = 171.5 N

1094. A 2 kg basketball is thrown through the air northward with a velocity of 2 m/s. What is its momentum?
      • 2 kg m/s north
      • 40 kg m/s north
      • 4 kg m/s north
      • 8 kg m/s north

      Correct answer: 4 kg m/s north

      Answer: 4 kg m/s north The equation for momentum is p = mv. In this question, m = 2 kg, and v = 2 m/s. Just multiply the two quantities together and include the direction (north) to obtain the answer. p= momentum (measure in kg⋅m/s), m = mass (measured in kg), v = velocity (measure in m/s), p = 2 kg x 2 m/s, p = 4 kg m/s north

1095. What is the force of attraction that exists between a car and a motorcycle if they are parked 1.4 m away from each other. The car weighs 1,375 kg and the motorcycle weighs 180 kg.
      • 1.1 $\times 10^{-5}$ N
      • 8.4 $\times 10^{-6}$ N
      • 4.2 $\times 10^{-6}$ N
      • 1.6 $\times 10^{-5}$ N

      Correct answer: 8.4 $\times 10^{-6}$ N

      Answer: 8.4 $\times 10^{-6}$ N To calculate the force between two objects, use the equation for Newton’s Universal Law of Gravitation, which has the form: F = Gm1m2/r2, Where G is the universal gravitational constant (6.67 x 10-11 N $\text{m}^{2}$ kg-${}^{2}$), m1 and m2 are the masses of the two objects, and r is the distance between the objects. Insert the values from the question, and solve for F. F = (6.67 $\times 10^{-11}$ N $\text{m}^{2}$ kg-${}^{2}$)(1,375 kg)(180 kg)/(1.4 $\text{m)}^{2}$, F = 8.4 $\times 10^{-6}$ N

1096. Two unlike charges are placed near each other. What will happen?
      • They will oscillate
      • They will orbit each other
      • They will repel each other
      • They will attract

      Correct answer: They will attract

      Answer: They will attract. When two objects are charged with like (two positive or two negative) charges, they will repel one another. When two objects are charged with opposite charges (one positive and one negative), they will be attracted to one another.

1097. A bowling ball and pin collide. The ball hits the pin and experiences a force of 20 N. What is the force on the bowling pin during the collision?
      • -20 N
      • 20 N
      • 0 N
      • 10 N

      Correct answer: -20 N

      Answer: -20 N. Newton’s Third Law: The mutual forces of action and reaction between two bodies are equal, opposite and collinear. Another way to imagine this is with bumper cars. When one bumper car slams into the other, both cars move in opposite directions. This is in the case in every scenario but it gets more difficult to see (especially when there are other forces stopping it). The force on the bowling is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. So it is -20N. Newton’s Laws of Motion: First law: The velocity of a body remains constant unless the body is acted upon by an external force. Second law: The acceleration (a) of a body is parallel and directly proportional to the net force (F) and inversely proportional to the mass (m), i.e., F = ma. Third law: The mutual forces of action and reaction between two bodies are equal, opposite and collinear.

1098. The equation for force, given by Newton’s Second Law, is $F=ma$. M (mass) is measured in kilograms and acceleration is measured in $\text{m/s}^2$. What is force measured in?
      • Naughts
      • Coulombs
      • Newtons
      • Meters/kilogram

      Correct answer: Newtons

      Answer: Newtons. Newton’s Second Law The acceleration (a) of a body is parallel and directly proportional to the net force (F) and inversely proportional to the mass (m), i.e., F = ma. Mass is measured in kilograms (kg), Acceleration is measured in meters per second squared ($\text{m/s}^2$), Force is measured in Newtons (N) which is equivalent to (kg) x (m) / $\text{s}^2$. This unit is easily obtained from the equation by simply plugging in the units rather than numbers. F = ma = [kg] x [$\text{m/s}^2$] = (kg) x (m) / (s2 ) = N. Newton’s Laws of Motion: First law: The velocity of a body remains constant unless the body is acted upon by an external force. Second law: The acceleration (a) of a body is parallel and directly proportional to the net force (F) and inversely proportional to the mass (m), i.e., F = ma. Third law: The mutual forces of action and reaction between two bodies are equal, opposite and collinear.

1099. Two bumper cars ram into a third bumper car from opposite sides. The first hits the third with a force of 51N to the right. The second hits the third with a force of 43 N to the left. What is the net force on the third bumper car assuming that it was not accelerating during the collision? (The right direction is negative and the left is positive)
      • -94 N
      • 94 N
      • -8N
      • 8 N

      Correct answer: 8 N

      Answer: 8 N. To determine the net force of an object that has two opposing forces, use the following equation: Net Force = Fleft + (-) Fright. NetForce = Fleft + (-) Fright, NetForce = 43 N + (-) 51 N, NetForce = -8 N

1100. A fan that was rotating at a speed of 450 revolutions per second for 5 minutes had its speed setting turned down to 240 revolutions per second after 5.5 minutes. What is the angular acceleration over this period of time?
      • 420 $\text{rev/min}^{2}$
      • -420 $\text{rev/min}^{2}$
      • 7 $\text{rev/min}^{2}$
      • -7 $\text{rev/min}^{2}$

      Correct answer: -7 $\text{rev/min}^{2}$

      Answer: – 7 $\text{rev/sec}^{2}$ The formula for angular acceleration (α) is: α = Δω/Δt, Where: Δω is the change in angular velocity (expressed in revolutions per second – rev/s), Δt is the change in time (expressed in seconds), Δω = ω2 – ω1, Δt = t2 – t1 Convert units: 5.5 minutes = 330 seconds, 5 minutes = 300 seconds, α = (240 rev/sec – 450 rev/s) / (330s – 300s), α = – 210 rev/sec / 30s, α = – 7 $\text{rev/sec}^{2}$. Since the speed was turned down, the sign is negative.

1101. A wave travels 36 m/s and has a wavelength of 5.3 m. What would be the frequency of the wave?
      • 0.15 Hz
      • 4.37 Hz
      • 6.79 Hz
      • 0.83 Hz

      Correct answer: 6.79 Hz

      Answer: 6.79 Hz. Use the equation: frequency = speed/wavelength, (derived from the equation speed = frequency $\times$ wavelength). Then plugging in the related values: frequency = 36 m/s / 5.3 m, frequency = 6.79 Hz.

1102. Which of the following forces is a type of contact force that opposes the motion of a body when it comes in contact with another surface?
      • Magnetic force
      • Normal force
      • Electric force
      • Frictional force

      Correct answer: Frictional force

      Frictional force is a type of contact force that opposes the motion of a body when it comes in contact with another surface. Electric force is a type of attractive or repulsive force between charged objects. The normal force is a component of the contact force that is normal to the surface with which an object is in contact. Magnetic force is a type of force that arises due to the motion of electrical charges. Frictional force is the type of force that satisfies the given statement.

1103. What are the three elements that are influenced in magnetic fields?
      • Aluminium, Nickel, Cobalt
      • Iron, Nickel, Cobalt
      • Aluminium, Iron, Cobalt
      • Iron, Nickel, Aluminium

      Correct answer: Iron, Nickel, Cobalt

      Answer: Iron, Nickel, Cobalt .The only elements that are ferromagnetic are Iron, Nickel, and Cobalt. There are also some alloys of rare earth metals that are also ferromagnetic. They are magnetic because there are some free electrons that are unpaired, meaning that their spin can be altered by the magnetic field they are in. Other metal elements do not have unpaired electrons. Non-metals do not even have free electrons, so they cannot conduct electricity.

1104. A 4.5 m tall object is placed 1.4 m away from a convex mirror and has an image height of 3.5 m. What is the image distance?
      • -1.09 m
      • -1.79 m
      • 1.09 m
      • -0.54 m

      Correct answer: -1.09 m

      Answer: -1.09 m The magnification equation needs to be used, which has the following formula: hi / ho = – di / do Where: hi is the image height, ho is the object height, do is the object distance, di is the image distance. Solve for the image distance: hi / ho = – di / do, 3.5 m / 4.5 m = – di /1.4 m, 0.78 m = – di /1.4 m, di = – 1.09 m

1105. A box of mass 72 kg is moving across an uneven surface. If the frictional force experienced by the block is 565 N, what is the coefficient of friction between the box and the surface?
      • μ = 1.2
      • μ = 0.3
      • μ = 0.8
      • μ = 0.7

      Correct answer: μ = 0.8

      Here, we need to solve for the coefficient of friction. The frictional force (565 N) and the information required to calculate the normal force (72 kg of mass and the acceleration due to gravity, which is 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$) are given to us, so we can manipulate the equation for the frictional force (Ff = μFN) to solve for the coefficient of friction. First, let’s find the normal force. Step 1: Calculate the normal force. The normal force is represented mathematically as: FN = mg Where FN = normal force, m = mass, and g = acceleration due to gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$). The values for mass (72 kg) and gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$) are given to us: FN = (72 kg)*(9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$), FN = 705.6 N The normal force is 705.6 N. Step 2: Rearrange the equation for frictional force to solve for the coefficient of friction. Now we rearrange the equation for frictional force (Ff = μFN) to solve for the coefficient of friction: Ff = μFN, (Ff / FN) = (μFN / FN), μ = Ff / FN Step 3: Calculate the coefficient of friction. Next, we can plug in our calculated value for normal force (705.6 N) and our given value for the frictional force (565 N) into the frictional force equation to calculate the frictional force: μ = Ff / FN, μ = 565 N / 705.6 N, μ = 0.8. The coefficient of friction between the box and the surface is 0.8.

1106. A circuit consists of 5 identical light bulbs with 80 Ohm resistance each. If the bulbs are placed in a series and then wired to a 120 V power supply, what would be the current flowing in the circuit
      • 3.33 A
      • 3 A
      • 0.3 A
      • 0.03 A

      Correct answer: 0.3 A

      Answer: 0.3 A. To determine the circuit’s current, use the Ohm’s law equation: V = I $\times$ R; V = Voltage, I = Current, R = Resistance Step 1: Determine the total resistance in a series The total resistance in a series is the sum of all resistances. R total = R1+R2+R3+R4+R5 = (80*5)Ω = 400Ω. Step 2: Use the Ohm’s law equation V = I $\times$ R to determine the current in the circuit by converting the equation to solve for the current: I = V / R Insert the values into the equation I = 120 / 200, I = 0.3 A

1107. A bicycle’s wheels are moving at a speed of 0.78 revolutions per second. The cyclist sees a log in the road and brakes, slowing the bicycle to 0.05 revolutions per second over 4 seconds. What is the angular acceleration of the bicycle wheel?
      • -2.9 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$
      • 2.9 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$
      • -0.18 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$
      • 0.18 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: -0.18 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$

      Answer: -0.18 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$ The formula for angular acceleration (α) is: α = Δω/Δt, Where: Δω is the change in angular velocity (expressed in revolutions per second – rev/s), Δt is the change in time (expressed in seconds), Δω = ω2 – ω1 Δt = t2 – t1. Solve for angular acceleration: α = (0.05 rev/s – 0.78 rev/s) / 4 s, α = – 0.73 rev/s / 4 s, α = – 0.18 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$. The negative sign indicates the rate has slowed because the cyclist has braked.

1108. A person jumps in the air. When they reach their peak height, they are 0.65m off of the ground. The person as a mass of 83 kg. What is their gravitational potential energy?
      • 515 J
      • 530 J
      • 545 J
      • 560 J

      Correct answer: 530 J

      Answer: 530 J Potential Energy is the energy that is stored in some way. For example chemical bonds store energy. The energy due to their position in a gravitational field, i.e. are very high off the ground, is gravitational potential energy. The formula for gravitational potential energy is PE = mgh, PE = potential energy (measured in Joules – J), m = mass (measure in kilograms – kg), g = gravitational acceleration (- 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$), h = height of the object (measured in meters – m). The mass of the person is 83kg, The gravitational constant for Earth is 9.81 $\text{m/s}^{2}$, The height of the person is 0.65m, PE = 83 kg x 9.81 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ x 0.65m = 529.24 J which is about 530 J

1109. Arrange the following frictional forces in decreasing order of their strength: static, sliding, rolling.
      • Rolling friction > Sliding friction > Static friction
      • Static friction > Sliding friction > Rolling friction
      • Static friction > Rolling friction > Sliding friction
      • Sliding friction > Static friction > Rolling friction

      Correct answer: Static friction > Sliding friction > Rolling friction

      Static friction is the contact force that comes into play when one object is at rest with respect to another object. Since all surfaces are irregular, a greater amount of force is required to overcome the interlocking between the two surfaces of the bodies in contact, which is why it is the strongest force. Sliding friction is the contact force that comes into play when one object is moving over the surface of another object. Since the time of contact between the two surfaces is less, the interlocking of the irregularities of the two surfaces is not as strong. This is why sliding friction is weaker compared to static friction. Rolling friction is a contact force that comes into play when one object rolls over another object. The irregularities have less space and time to lock, and hence, it is much easier to break them apart. This is why rolling friction is easier to overcome than static and sliding friction. The frictional forces arranged in decreasing order of strength are Static friction > Sliding friction > Rolling friction.

1110. Which of the following is an example of a vector quantity?
      • Distance
      • Speed
      • Velocity
      • Time

      Correct answer: Velocity

      A vector quantity is described in units of magnitude and direction. Velocity is a vector quantity because it is expressed in units of magnitude and the direction of motion. Simply put, velocity is speed (e.g., meters/second) but with the direction of motion specified (e.g., upwards). A scalar quantity is described simply by a numeric value and is expressed in units of magnitude. Quantities like speed, distance, and time only need their magnitudes to be fully described.

1111. A baseball that weighs 0.125 kg is thrown at 40.1 m/s. What is the Kinetic Energy of the ball?
      • 201 J
      • 101 J
      • 5.0 J
      • 2.5 J

      Correct answer: 101 J

      Answer: 101 J Kinetic Energy is the energy an object possesses because of its velocity. Any object that is in motion is using kinetic energy: a child running, a thrown ball, someone skiing down a hill, or a book falling off of a shelf. This is why the equation takes into account the object’s mass and the rate at which they are traveling (their velocity). KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ x $\text{mv}^{2}$, KE = Kinetic energy (expressed in Joules – J), m = mass (expressed in kilograms), $\text{v}^{2}$ = velocity (expressed in meters per second squared), KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ x $\text{mv}^{2}$ , m = 0.125 kg, v = 40.1 m/s, KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ x (0.125 kg) x (40.1 $\text{m/s)}^{2}$ = 100.5 J which rounds to 101 J *Don’t forget to square the velocity*

1112. Which of the following is the name of the force acting on a body in circular motion that is directed away from the center?
      • Centripetal Force
      • Centrifugal Force
      • Nuclear Force
      • Electrical Force

      Correct answer: Centrifugal Force

      Answer: Centrifugal Force. The centrifugal force is the tendency of an object following a circular path. The direction of the Centrifugal force is away from the center of curvature. The centrifugal force is not considered as a real force, but it is the inertia of motion. The name of the force acting on a body in circular motion that is directed toward the center is centripetal force. The centripetal force always acts towards the center of the circle. The centripetal force, measured in Newtons (N).

1113. A LED light bulb with 120 Ohm resistance is powered by a 220 Volt power source. What is the current being drawn?
      • 18.3 A
      • 5.5 A
      • 0.55 A
      • 1.83 A

      Correct answer: 1.83 A

      Answer: 1.83 A To determine the circuit’s current, use the Ohm’s law equation: V = I $\times$ R; V = Voltage, I = Current, R = Resistance. We would like to find I in the equation, so when we convert the equation; I = v / R, Insert the values into the equation; I = 220 /120, I = 1.83 A

1114. A rocket travels horizontally for 3 minutes at 160 m/s before it hits its target. How far is the target from the point where the rocket was launched?
      • 28,800 m
      • 480 m
      • 14,400 m
      • 240 m

      Correct answer: 28,800 m

      We can determine the horizontal distance the rocket travels by using the horizontal distance formula: dx = vx * t, where dx = horizontal distance, vx = horizontal velocity, and t = time. Step 1: Convert time from minutes to seconds. The velocity is given in meters per second, and our answer must be expressed in meters. Therefore, we must convert the given time from minutes to seconds: 3 min * (60 s / 1 min) = 180 s Step 2: Calculate the horizontal distance the rocket travels. To calculate the horizontal distance the rocket travels, plug the given horizontal velocity vx = (60 m/s) and the new value for time (t= 180 s) into the horizontal distance formula. dx = vx * t, dx = 160 m/s * 180 s, dx = 28,800 m The rocket travels 28,800 m in 3 minutes.

1115. What is the force of attraction between two objects, if Object 1 has a mass of 2.5 kg and Object 2 as a mass of 5.5 kg if the objects are placed 4.5 m apart?
      • 2.3 $\times 10^{-11}$ N
      • 4.5 $\times 10^{-11}$ N
      • 9.0 $\times 10^{-11}$ N
      • 2.0 $\times 10^{-10}$ N

      Correct answer: 4.5 $\times 10^{-11}$ N

      Answer: 4.5 $\times 10^{-11}$ N To calculate the force between two objects, use the equation for Newton’s Universal Law of Gravitation, which has the form: F = Gm1m2/r2 Where G is the universal gravitational constant (6.67 $\times 10^{-11}$ N $\text{m}^{2}$ kg-${}^{2}$), m1 and m2 are the masses of the two objects, and r is the distance between the objects. Insert the values from the question, and solve for F. F = (6.67 $\times 10^{-11}$ N $\text{m}^{2}$ kg-${}^{2}$)(2.5 kg)(5.5 kg)/(4.5 m)2, F = 4.5 $\times 10^{-11}$ N. Note that the units kg and m cancel, leaving N as the only unit.

1116. Two opposing forces are acting upon a book. If the magnitude of both forces is 50 N, in which direction will the book move? And what is the value of the net force and on the book? (Assume the book is lying on a frictionless surface)
      • The book will move to the left and Fnet = 100 N
      • The book will not move, and Fnet = 100 N
      • The book will not move, and Fnet = 0 N
      • The book will move to the right and Fnet = 100 N

      Correct answer: The book will move to the right and Fnet = 100 N

      The net force acting on the book is simply the sum of all forces acting on the book. Because the two forces are opposing each other, one force is considered positive and the other is considered negative. Net force is represented by the following equation: Fnet = F1 + (- F2 ) Step 1: Calculate the net force. According to the question, Force to the left, F1 = 50 N, Force to the right, F2 = 50 N. The magnitude of this net force is: Fnet = F1 + (- F2 ), Fnet = 50 N + (-50 N), Fnet = 0 N. Since the forces are opposite in direction and equal in magnitude, the net force on the book is 0 N. This means that the book will not move. The book will not move, and Fnet = 0 N

1117. If a 1.5 m painting is placed 1.5 m away from a convex mirror that has a focal length of 1.75 m, what is the image distance of the painting?
      • 1.25 m
      • 3.0 m
      • 10 m
      • -10 m

      Correct answer: -10 m

      Answer: -10 m To answer this question, the lens equation needs to be used, which has the following formula: 1/f = 1/do + 1/di , Where: f is the focal length. do is the object distance, di is the image distance. Solve for the image distance: 1/f = 1/do + 1/di , 1/1.75 m = 1/1.5 m + 1/di, 0.57 m-1– 0.67 m-1 = 1/di, -0.1 m-1 = 1/di, di = – 10 m. A negative image distance means that the image is on the same side of the mirror lens as the object.

1118. A box is lying on a table. Two forces of values 150 N and 235 N act on the box in the same direction (to the left). What is the resultant force on the box lying on the table? (Assume the table to be frictionless)
      • 85 N to the left
      • 85 N to the right
      • 385 N to the right
      • 385 N to the left

      Correct answer: 385 N to the left

      The net force acting on the box is simply the sum of all forces acting on the box. Because the two forces are in the same direction, both forces are considered positive. The net force is represented by the following equation: Fnet = F1 + F2 Step 1: Calculate the net force. According to the question, Force one, F1 = 150 N Force two, F2 = 235 N Both forces act towards the left; therefore, the net force will also be towards the left. The magnitude of this net force can be found as: Fnet = F1 + F2, Fnet = 150 N + 235 N, Fnet = 385 N The net force acting on the box is 385 N to the left.

1119. A motorcycle’s velocity at the top of a hill is 20 m/s. Four seconds later, it reaches the bottom of the hill with a velocity of 52 m/s. What was the magnitude of the motorcycle’s acceleration?
      • 9 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 11 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 10 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: 8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Acceleration is the change of velocity over a period of time. Acceleration is represented mathematically by the following equation, where a = acceleration (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vf = final velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vi = initial velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and Δt = change in time (expressed in s). a = (vf – vi )/ Δt Step 1: Calculate acceleration using the acceleration formula. We substitute the following into the acceleration formula: the initial velocity (vi = 20 m/s, its final velocity (vf = 52 m/s), and the time interval (Δt = 4 s): a = (vf – vi )/ Δt , a = (52 m/s – 20 m/s )/ 4s , a = 32 m/s / 4s, a = 8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The motorcycle is accelerating at 8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$.

1120. An object of mass 53 kg is on the ground. If the coefficient of friction between the object and the ground is 0.7, what is the frictional force on the object?
      • 450.91 N
      • 519.4 N
      • 363.58 N
      • 243.12 N

      Correct answer: 363.58 N

      The frictional force is a force that opposes motion and is expressed in Newtons. It is represented mathematically as: Ff = μFN, Where Ff = frictional force, μ = coefficient of friction, and FN = normal force. The coefficient of friction is given to us (μ = 0.7), but we still need to calculate the normal force. Step 1: Calculate the normal force. The normal force is represented mathematically as: FN = mg Where FN = normal force, m = mass, and g = acceleration due to gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$). When plugging in the given values for mass (53 kg) and gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$): FN = (53 kg)*(9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$), FN = 519.4 N Step 2: Calculate the frictional force. Next, we can plug in our calculated value for the normal force (519.4 N) and our given value for the coefficient of friction (0.7) into the frictional force equation to calculate the frictional force: Ff = μFN, Ff = (0.7)*(519.4 N), Ff = 363.58 N. The frictional force between the object and the ground is 363.58 N.

1121. Which of the following statements describes Newton’s second law of motion?
      • The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the external force on the body.
      • For a body of constant mass, its acceleration is inversely proportional to the external force acting on it.
      • None of these
      • The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to the rate of change of external force acting on it.

      Correct answer: The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the external force on the body.

      Newton’s second law of motion states that for a body of constant mass, its acceleration is directly proportional to the external force acting on the body. This is mathematically given as: F = ma Where F = force, k = the constant of proportionality, and a = acceleration This equation means that as an external force acting on an object increases, the acceleration of the object increases.

1122. A basket of oranges sits on a table. The basket has 58.6 J of gravitational Potential Energy and the table is 1.25 m high. What is the mass of the basket?
      • 4.32 kg
      • 4.65 kg
      • 4.78 kg
      • 4.98 kg

      Correct answer: 4.78 kg

      Answer: 4.78 kg Potential Energy is the energy that is stored in some way. For example chemical bonds store energy. The energy due to their position in a gravitational field, i.e. are very high off the ground, is gravitational potential energy. The formula for gravitational potential energy is PE = mgh, PE = potential energy (measured in Joules – J), m = mass (measure in kilograms – kg) g = gravitational acceleration (- 9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$), h = height of the object (measured in meters – m). To find mass we must isolate it by dividing both sides by gh. PE / gh = mgh / gh, PE / gh = m. The PE of the basket is 58.6 J. The gravitational constant for Earth is 9.81 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The height of the table is 1.25m. Mass = 58.6 / (9.81 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ x 1.25m) = 4.778 kg which is about 4.78 kg

1123. The tendency of an object in motion to remain in motion is referred to as which of the following?
      • Inertia
      • Mass
      • Force
      • Balance

      Correct answer: Inertia

      Answer: Inertia More broadly, inertia is the tendency of an object to resist any change in its motion. Thus, it also applies to the tendency of objects at rest to remain at rest. Both inertia and momentum depend on the mass of an object, which is a measure of how much matter an object contains. The force is any interaction that changes the motion of an object, while balance occurs when two forces with equal magnitudes act upon an object.

1124. A train travels a distance of 1,500 meters in 150 seconds. What is the average speed of the train?
      • 10 m/s
      • 0.1 m/s
      • 15 m/s
      • 225,000 m/s

      Correct answer: 10 m/s

      Average speed is the distance an object travels divided by the time the object travels. It is represented mathematically by the following equation, where s = average speed (expressed in m/s), d = distance (expressed in m), and t = time (expressed in s). s = d/t Step 1: Calculate the average speed. We divide the distance covered by the train (1,500 m) by the time elapsed (150 s) to determine the average speed of the train. s = d/t , s = 1,500 m / 150 s, s = 10 m/s. The average speed of the train is 10 m/s.

1125. A 100 g tennis ball attached to a string is rotated about a 3 meter radius. If the ball’s velocity is approximately 9 m/s, how much force is being generated?
      • 3.0 N
      • 0.9 N
      • 2.7 N
      • 3.9 N

      Correct answer: 2.7 N

      Answer: 2.7 N In this question, we use the formula for the centripetal force: F = ($\text{mV}^{2}$)/r, F = centripetal force, m = mass, V = velocity, r = radius of the circular path. Filling in the values: F = (0.1 kg $\times$ 9 $\text{m/s}^{2}$)/(3 m), F = 2.7 N

1126. “A boy jumps from the ground applying a force on the ground, at the same time the ground applies an upward force which is equal to the magnitude of the force applied by the boy. This is what propels the boy in the air.” Which of the following laws describe this phenomenon?
      • Newton’s second law of motion
      • Newton’s first law of motion
      • Newton’s third law of motion
      • Newton’s universal law of gravitation

      Correct answer: Newton’s third law of motion

      According to Newton’s third law of motion, every action (or force) has an equal and opposite reaction. When the boy jumps, he exerts a force on the ground. In return, the ground exerts a force on the boy, which is equal in magnitude and propels the boy up in the air. Newton’s third law of motion describes this phenomenon.

1127. A car moving at 45 m/s accelerates uniformly to a speed of 117 m/s in 12 minutes. What is the acceleration of the car?
      • 0.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.1 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.3 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.2 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: 0.1 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Acceleration is the change of velocity over a period of time. Acceleration is represented mathematically by the following equation, where a = acceleration (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vf = final velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), vi = initial velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and Δt = change in time (expressed in s). a = (vf – vi ) / Δt Step 1: Convert time from minutes to seconds. We need to express the given values for initial velocity (vi = 45 m/s), its final velocity (vf = 117 m/s), and the new value of the time interval (Δt = 720 s) into the acceleration formula: a = (vf – vi ) / Δt, a = (117 m/s – 45 m/s ) / Δt, a = 72 m/s / 720 s , a = 0.1 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ The car is accelerating at 0.1 $\text{m/s}^{2}$.

1128. A golf ball is struck and leaves the ground at 24 m/s at a 60° angle above the horizontal. How far will it travel horizontally after 15 seconds?
      • 120 m
      • 360 m
      • 180 m
      • 200 m

      Correct answer: 180 m

      The horizontal distance of the golf ball can be determined using the following formula: dx = vx * t where dx = horizontal distance, vx = horizontal velocity, and t = time. Step 1: Calculate the horizontal velocity of the projectile. We need to know the horizontal velocity to be able to compute the horizontal distance. But the horizontal velocity is not given to us. Instead, we are told that the ball has a velocity of 24 m/s and is launched at an angle (60°), which takes into account the vertical and horizontal velocities. We need to find just the horizontal velocity. To calculate the horizontal velocity, we multiply the initial velocity of the projectile (in this case, 24 m/s) by cos θ: vx = vi * cos θ Where vx = horizontal velocity, vi = initial velocity, and θ = angle above the horizontal. We substitute our values into the horizontal velocity equation (vx = 24 m/s, θ = 60°) vx = vi * cos θ, vx = 24 m/s * cos (60°), vx = 24 m/s * 0.5, vx = 12 m/s Step 2: Calculate the horizontal distance traveled by the golf ball. Now that we have the horizontal velocity (12 m/s), we can plug that value and the value for time (15 s) into the horizontal distance formula: dx =vx * t, dx = 12 m/s * 15 s, dx = 180 m The golf ball will travel 180 m in the horizontal direction.

1129. A puma runs a distance of 840 meters in 40 seconds. What is the average speed of the puma?
      • 23 m/s
      • 21 m/s
      • 20 m/s
      • 19 m/s

      Correct answer: 21 m/s

      Average speed is the distance an object travels divided by the time the object travels. It is represented mathematically by the following equation, where s = average speed (expressed in m/s), d = distance (expressed in m), and t = time (expressed in s). s = d/t Step 1: Calculate the average speed. We divide the distance covered by the puma (840 m) by the time elapsed (40 s) to determine the average speed of the puma. s = d/t, s = 840 m / 40 s, s = 21 m/s. The average speed of the puma is 21 m/s.

1130. Vector quantities, such as momentum, require which two characteristics to fully describe them?
      • Mass and time
      • Velocity and direction
      • Magnitude and direction
      • Mass and speed

      Correct answer: Magnitude and direction

      Answer: Magnitude and direction. Vector quantities have two characteristics that are used to describe them: their magnitude (or number) and a direction. This differs from scalar quantities, which do not depend on direction.

1131. Which of the following options correctly lists the universal gravitation constant?
      • 6.67 $\times 10^{-11}$ N $\text{m}^{2}$ kg-${}^{2}$
      • 9.8 mᐧs-${}^{2}$
      • 3.0 x 108 mᐧ$s^{-1}$
      • 6.626 $\times 10^{-34}$ Jᐧs

      Correct answer: 6.67 $\times 10^{-11}$ N $\text{m}^{2}$ kg-${}^{2}$

      Answer: 6.67 $\times 10^{-11}$ N $\text{m}^{2}$ kg-${}^{2}$The universal gravitational constant has a value of 6.67 $\times 10^{-11}$ N $\text{m}^{2}$ kg-${}^{2}$ and is used to calculate the effects of gravity on objects. This constant always has units of Newtons (N), meters (m), and kilograms (kg). 3.0 x 108 mᐧ$s^{-1}$ is the speed of light. This constant has units of meters (m) and seconds (s). 9.8 mᐧ$s^{-2}$ is the acceleration due to gravity and is expressed using meters (m) and seconds (s). 6.626 $\times 10^{-34}$ Jᐧs is Planck’s constant and is expressed in Joules (J) and seconds (s).

1132. A ball, with a mass of 2.3 kg, rolls across a table with a velocity of 0.2 m/s. What is the Kinetic Energy of the ball?
      • 0.46 J
      • 0.23 J
      • 0.12 J
      • 0.023 J

      Correct answer: 0.46 J

      Answer: 0.46 J Kinetic Energy is the energy an object possesses because of its velocity. Any object that is in motion is using kinetic energy: a child running, a thrown ball, someone skiing down a hill, or a book falling off of a shelf. This is why the equation takes into account the object’s mass and the rate at which they are traveling (their velocity). KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ x $\text{mv}^{2}$, KE = Kinetic energy (expressed in Joules – J), m = mass (expressed in kilograms) v2 = velocity (expressed in meters per second squared), KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ x $\text{mv}^{2}$ m = 2.3 kg, v = 0.2 m/s, KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ x (2.3 kg) x (0.2 $\text{m/s)}^{2}$ = 0.46 J *Don’t forget to square the velocity*

1133. A car wheel is rotating at 6 revolutions per second and then accelerates to 7.5 revolutions per second over a period of 4.5 seconds. What is the angular acceleration of the wheel?
      • 1.25 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$
      • -0.33 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$
      • 0.66 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$
      • 0.33 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: 0.33 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$

      Answer: 0.33 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$ Explanation: The formula for angular acceleration (α) is: α = Δω/Δt, Where: Δω is the change in angular velocity (expressed in revolutions per second – rev/s). Δt is the change in time (expressed in seconds), Δω = ω2 – ω1, Δt = t2 – t1. Solve for angular acceleration: α = (7.5 rev/s – 6 rev/s) / 4.5 s, α = 1.5 rev/s / 4.5 s, α = 0.33 $\text{rev/s}^{2}$

1134. Two people are pushing a box on the ground. One person applies a force of 146.5 N to the left, whereas the second person applies a force of 90.6 N to the right. What is the net force on the box, and in which direction is it moving? (Ignore the effects of friction)
      • 237.1 N to the left
      • 55.9 N to the right
      • 237.1 N to the right
      • 55.9 N to the left

      Correct answer: 55.9 N to the left

      The net force acting on the box is simply the sum of all forces acting on the box. Since the two forces are opposing each other, one force is considered positive and the other is considered negative. The net force is represented by the following equation: Fnet = Fleft + (-Fright ) Step 1: Calculate the net force. According to the question, Force to the left, Fleft = 146.5 N , Force to the right, Fright = 90.6 N Fleft ＞Fright , and therefore the net force on the box will be towards the left. We plug in the given values to calculate the magnitude of the force: Fnet = Fleft + (-Fright ), Fnet = 146.5 N + (-90.6 N), Fnet= 55.9 N. The net force acting on the box is 55.9 N to the left.

1135. A bug flies at a rate of 0.5 m/s. This bug has 0.000625 J of Kinetic Energy. What is the mass of the bug?
      • 0.0005 kg
      • 0.005 kg
      • 0.5 kg
      • 0.05 kg

      Correct answer: 0.005 kg

      Answer: 0.005 kg Kinetic Energy is the energy an object possesses because of its velocity. Any object that is in motion is using kinetic energy: a child running, a thrown ball, someone skiing down a hill, or a book falling off of a shelf. This is why the equation takes into account the object’s mass and the rate at which they are traveling (their velocity). KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ x $\text{mv}^{2}$, KE = Kinetic energy (expressed in Joules – J), m = mass (expressed in kilograms), $\text{v}^{2}$ = velocity (expressed in meters per second squared). To find the mass we must isolate it: 2 x KE = 2 x $\frac{1}{2}$ x $\text{mv}^{2}$, 2 x KE = $\text{mv}^{2}$, 2 x KE / $\text{v}^{2}$ = $\text{mv}^{2}$ / $\text{v}^{2}$, 2 x KE / $\text{v}^{2}$ = m, v = 0.5 m/s, KE = 0.000625 J, m = 2 x 0.000625 J / (0.5 kg)2 = 0.005 kg

1136. Which of the following is the name of the force acting on a body in circular motion that is directed toward the center?
      • Electrical Force
      • Nuclear Force
      • Centrifugal Force
      • Centripetal Force

      Correct answer: Centripetal Force

      Answer: Centripetal Force. The name of the force acting on a body in circular motion that is directed toward the center is centripetal force. The centripetal force always acts towards the center of the circle. The centripetal force is measured in Newtons (N). The centrifugal force is the tendency of an object following a circular path. The direction of the Centrifugal force is away from the center of curvature. The centrifugal force is not considered as a real force, but it is the inertia of motion.

1137. A ball is set in motion. The ball has an initial velocity of 10 m/s and moves for 30 seconds. At the end of these 30 seconds, the ball’s velocity is 40 m/s. What is the magnitude of the ball’s acceleration?
      • 1 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 0.67 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 10 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 1.67 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: 1 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Acceleration is the change of velocity over a period of time. Acceleration is represented mathematically by the following equation, where a = acceleration (expressed in $\text{m/s}^2$), vf = final velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^2$), vi = initial velocity (expressed in $\text{m/s}^{2}$), and Δt = change in time (expressed in s). a = (vf – vi) /Δt Step 1: Calculate acceleration using the acceleration formula. We can determine the acceleration of the ball by dividing the change in the ball’s velocity by the time interval the ball was in motion: a = (vf – vi) /Δt, a = (40 m/s – 10 m/s) / 30 s, a = 30 m/s / 30 s, a = 1 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The ball is accelerating at 1 $\text{m/s}^{2}$.

1138. A group of students wants to measure the speed of sound. They have a computer program with which they can produce sound and flash a light while producing it. A couple of students stand at a distance of 800 meters, and they measure the time gap between seeing the light and hearing the sound by using a chronometer. They measured the time as 2.34 s. So, at what is the speed of the sound wave?
      • 319.2 m/s
      • 345 m/s
      • 341.9 m/s
      • 349.4 m/s

      Correct answer: 341.9 m/s

      Answer: 341.9 m/s. Speed is defined as the distance traveled in unit time and shown as Speed = distance / time, Speed = 800 m / 2.34 s, Speed = 341.9 m/s

1139. A baseball is hit in the horizontal direction at 25 m/s. How far does it travel after 4 seconds?
      • 12.5 m
      • 25 m
      • 100 m
      • 50 m

      Correct answer: 100 m

      We can determine the horizontal distance the baseball travels by using the horizontal distance formula: dx = vx *t where dx = horizontal distance, vx = horizontal velocity, and t = time. Step 1: Calculate the horizontal distance traveled by the baseball. To calculate the horizontal distance traveled by the baseball, we substitute the given values (vx =25 ms, t= 4s) into the distance formula. dx = vx * t, dx = 25 m/s * 4 s, dx = 100 m The baseball travels 100 m after 4 seconds.

1140. A block of mass 22 kg is placed on a table with a coefficient of friction equal to 0.3. What is the frictional force on the block?
      • 198.63 N
      • 64.68 N
      • 215.6 N
      • 120.81 N

      Correct answer: 64.68 N

      The frictional force is a force that opposes motion and is expressed in Newton. It is represented mathematically as: Ff = μFN, Where Ff = frictional force, μ = coefficient of friction, and FN = normal force. The coefficient of friction is given to us (μ = 0.3), but we still need to calculate the normal force. Step 1: Calculate the normal force. The normal force is represented mathematically as: FN = mg, Where FN = normal force, m = mass, and g = acceleration due to gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$). When plugging in the given values for mass (22 kg) and gravity (9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$): FN = (22 kg)*(9.8 $\text{m/s}^{2}$), FN = 215.6 N Step 2: Calculate the frictional force. Next, we can plug in our calculated value for the normal force (215.6 N) and our given value for the coefficient of friction (0.3) into the frictional force equation to calculate the frictional force: Ff = μFN, Ff= (0.3)*(215.6 N), Ff = 64.68 N. The frictional force between the block and the table is 64.68 N.

1141. A wave moves through a medium at a speed of 2.65 m/s with a wavelength of 0.53 meters. What is the frequency of the wave?
      • 5 Hz
      • 0.2 Hz
      • 50 Hz
      • 5.3 Hz

      Correct answer: 5 Hz

      Answer: 5 Hz. Use the equation. frequency = speed / wavelength, (derived from the equation speed = frequency $\times$ wavelength). Then plugging in the related values: frequency = 2.65 m/s / 0.53 m; frequency = 5 Hz.

1142. A 2.4 Volt beard trimmer has a 12 Ohm resistance. What current flows through the trimmer?
      • 20 A
      • 0.02 A
      • 0.2 A
      • 2 A

      Correct answer: 0.2 A

      Answer: 0.2 A. To determine the circuit’s current, use the Ohm’s law equation: V = I $\times$ R, V = Voltage, I = Current, R = Resistance. Rearranging the equation to solve for I, we get: I = V / R. Insert the values into the equation I = 2.4 / 12, I = 0.2 A

1143. Which of the following statements describes Newton’s first law of motion?
      • An object’s motion remains unaffected by an external unbalanced force.
      • An object continues to be in a state of rest unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force.
      • An object continues to be in a state of motion unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force.
      • An object continues to be in a state of rest or motion unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force.

      Correct answer: An object continues to be in a state of rest or motion unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force.

      Newton’s first law of motion states that an object will continue to stay in a state of rest or motion unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force. This is mathematically represented as: F = ma Where F = force, k = the constant of proportionality, and a = acceleration Here, k is the constant of proportionality. According to this equation, if the net external force is zero or unchanged, there will be no change in the object’s acceleration. An object continues to be in a state of rest or motion unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force.

1144. Which of the following statements correctly defines both scalar and vector quantities?
      • Scalar quantities are expressed in both units of magnitude and direction of motion; vector quantities are expressed in units of magnitude.
      • Scalar quantities are expressed by direction of motion but not units of magnitude; vector quantities are expressed in both units of magnitude and direction of motion.
      • Scalar quantities are expressed in both units of magnitude and direction of motion; vector quantities are expressed in direction of motion.
      • Scalar quantities are expressed in units of magnitude but not direction of motion; vector quantities are described in both units of magnitude and direction of motion.

      Correct answer: Scalar quantities are expressed in units of magnitude but not direction of motion; vector quantities are described in both units of magnitude and direction of motion.

      A scalar quantity is described simply by a numeric value and is expressed in units of magnitude. Some examples of scalar quantities are: Volume: 2 liters , Speed: 5 m/s, Mass: 10 kg, Time: 25 seconds. A vector quantity is expressed in units of magnitude and direction. Some examples of vector quantities are: Velocity: 3 m/s south, Acceleration: 3 $\text{m/s}^2$ upwards, Force: 3 Newtons to the right

1145. Chloroform has an index of refraction of 1.44. What is the speed of light in this medium?
      • 3.08 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s
      • 4.6 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s
      • 2.27 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s
      • 2.08 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s

      Correct answer: 2.08 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s

      Answer: 2.08 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s Use the following formula: n = c / v, where n is the index of refraction, c is the speed of light in a vacuum (3.00 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s), and v is the velocity of light in the medium. n = c /v, 1.44 = (3.00 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s) / v, v = (3.00 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s) / 1.44, v = 2.08 $\times 10^{8}$ m/s

1146. A desk is being pushed to the other side of the room with a force of 640 N, while friction is acting against the legs of the desk with a force of 200 N. What is the net force acting upon the desk?
      • 840 N
      • 440 N
      • 640 N
      • 200 N

      Correct answer: 440 N

      The net force is the sum of all the forces acting on the desk. In this case, the forces are the applied force from pushing the desk (640 N) and the friction acting against the desk (200 N). Since the two forces are acting directly opposite each other, they have opposite signs. The net force is expressed by: Net force = Applied force + Friction force, Net force = 640 N + (-200 N), Net force = 440 N Remember that friction is working against the applied force (in the opposite direction), so it is a negative value.

1147. A 2 m tall lamp is placed 1.25 m from a double convex lens that has a focal length of 0.75 cm. What is the image height of the lamp?
      • -3.78 m
      • 0.75 m
      • 1.89 m
      • 0.945 m

      Correct answer: -3.78 m

      Answer: -3.78 m To answer this question, the lens equation needs to be used, which has the following formula: 1/f = 1/do + 1/di, Where: f is the focal length, do is the object distance, di is the image distance. Solve for the image height: 1/f = 1/do + 1/di, 1/0.75 m = 1/1.25 m + 1/di, 1.33 m-1– 0.8 m-1 = 1/di, 0.53 m-1 = 1/di, di =1.89 m. Then, the magnification equation needs to be used, which has the following formula: hi / ho = – di /do where hi is the image height, ho is the object height, do is the object distance, and di is the image distance. hi / 2 m = – 1.89 m /1 m, hi = – 3.78 m

1148. Which of the following elements are attracted by magnetism?
      • Oxygen
      • Gold
      • Iron
      • Silver

      Correct answer: Iron

      Answer: Iron The only elements that are attracted to magnetism are all metals. Because oxygen is not a metal, it is not ferromagnetic. The only elements that are ferromagnetic are Iron, Nickel, and Cobalt. There are also some alloys of rare earth metals that are also ferromagnetic. They are magnetic because there are some free electrons that are unpaired, meaning that their spin can be altered by the magnetic field they are in. Other metal elements do not have unpaired electrons. Non-metals do not even have free electrons, so they cannot conduct electricity.

1149. A wooden box is being pushed across a floor with a force of 60 N. Friction is acting on the box with a force of 5 N. Which of the following is the net force acting on the box?
      • 65 N
      • 55 N
      • 60 N
      • 50 N

      Correct answer: 55 N

      Answer: 55 N. The net force acting on the box is the sum of the individual forces, which includes the applied force and the friction. Since they act in opposition to one another, they have opposite signs. Net force = Applied force + Friction force, Net force = 60 N + (-5 N), Net force = 55 N. Remember that friction is working against the applied force (in the opposite direction), so it is a negative value.

1150. A cement block is pulled by a side handle with a force of 150 N. As the block slides, friction slows it with a force of 50 N. What is the magnitude of the net force acting on the block?
      • 200 N
      • 150 N
      • 50 N
      • 100 N

      Correct answer: 100 N

      To determine the net force acting on an object, just add together all of the forces acting on the object. The two forces are the applied force and friction, and since they are working directly against each other, the net force (Fnet) can simply be expressed as: Net force = Applied force + Friction force, Net force = 150 N + (-50 N), Net force = 50 N. Remember that friction is working against the applied force (in the opposite direction), so it is a negative value.

1151. A circuit has a current of 0.5 amperes and a voltage of 120 V. What is the circuit’s resistance?
      • 2400 Ohms
      • 60 Ohms
      • 6 Ohms
      • 240 Ohms

      Correct answer: 240 Ohms

      Answer: 240 Ohms To determine the circuit’s resistance, use the Ohm’s law equation: V = I $\times$ R, v = Voltage, I = Current, R = Resistance. Isolate R to solve for Resistance: R = V / I, R = 120 / 0.5, R = 240 Ohms

1152. Three hockey pucks collide on the ice. Hockey puck A hits hockey puck B with a force of 9N to the right. Hockey puck B hits hockey puck C at the same moment and in the same direction with a force of 4 N, not including the force from puck A. What is the resultant force on hockey puck B?
      • 13 N to the right
      • 9 N to the left
      • 5 N to the right
      • 4 N to the left

      Correct answer: 5 N to the right

      Answer: 4 N to the left. In this problem, it is crucial to remember Newton’s Third Law which is: The mutual forces of action and reaction between two bodies are equal, opposite and collinear. Step 1: Analyze the collision between Puck A and Puck B We know that puck A hits puck B with a force of 9N to the right. Step 2: Analyze the collision between Puck B and Puck C. When puck B collides with puck C with the combined force of both puck A (9N to the right) and the force puck B brings (4 N to the right). To determine the net force of an object that has two forces in the same direction, simply add them use the following equation: NetForce = F1 + F2. NetForce = F1 + F2, NetForce = 9 N + 4 N, NetForce = 13 N to the right. Because there is an equal and opposite force from the collision, Puck B also experiences a force of 13 N from the collision between B and C but to the left. Step 3: Combine to get the net force. To determine the net force of an object that has two opposing forces, use the following equation: NetForce = Fleft + (-) Fright. Force on B from collision A/B: 9 N to the right. Force on B from collision B/C: 13 N to the left. NetForce = Fleft + (-) Fright, NetForce = 13 N + (-) 9 N, NetForce = 4 N = 4 N to the left

1153. When an object is moved across a floor with a 95 N force, friction acts against the movement with a force of 15 N. What is the net force on the object?
      • 105 N
      • 80 N
      • 95 N
      • 100 N

      Correct answer: 80 N

      Answer: 80 N When the object is pushed across the floor, two forces act on it in opposite directions. The applied force is 95 N, and friction is 15 N, and the two have opposite signs. Net force = Applied force + Friction force, Net force = 95 N + (-15 N), Net force = 80 N

1154. A ball rolls down a hill. The mass of the ball is 2.70 kg and is accelerating at a rate of 1.60 $\text{m/s}^2$. What is the force on the ball?
      • 8.53 N down the hill
      • 5.97 N down the hill
      • 3.54 N down the hill
      • 4.32 N down the hill

      Correct answer: 4.32 N down the hill

      Answer: 32 N down the hill. The formula to find the required force is force = mass in kg $\times$ acceleration in $\text{m/s}^{2}$. F=ma, F = 2.70 kg x 1.60 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. F = 4.32 N. The ball experiences a force of 4.32 kg. The ball is accelerating down the hill.

1155. A bowling ball hits a bowling pin. The ball has a mass of 5.3 kg and accelerates at a rate of 2 $\text{m/s}^2$ backward. What is the force on the bowling ball?
      • 5.3 N backward
      • 5.3 N forward
      • 10.6 N forward
      • 10.6 N backward

      Correct answer: 10.6 N backward

      Answer: 10.6 N backward The formula to find the required force is force = mass in kg $\times$ acceleration in $\text{m/s}^{2}$. F=ma, F = 5.3 kg x 2 $\text{m/s}^2$, F = 10.6 N. The ball experiences a force from the pin of 26.5 N backward. This is why the ball slows down and accelerates in the backward direction.

1156. Which of the following is the correct equation for Newton’s 2nd Law of Motion?
      • $F = \frac{1}{ma}$
      • $F = ma$
      • $F = \frac{m}{a}$
      • $F = \frac{a}{m}$

      Correct answer: $F = ma$

      Answer: F = ma. Newton’s Second Law The acceleration (a) of a body is parallel and directly proportional to the net force (F) and inversely proportional to the mass (m), i.e., F = ma. Newton’s Laws of Motion: First law: The velocity of a body remains constant unless the body is acted upon by an external force. Second law: The acceleration (a) of a body is parallel and directly proportional to the net force (F) and inversely proportional to the mass (m), i.e., F = ma. Third law: The mutual forces of action and reaction between two bodies are equal, opposite and collinear.

1157. A car that has a mass of 800 kg slows down. The brakes exert a force of -2780 N. What is the acceleration of the car?
      • 3.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -2.7 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • -3.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$
      • 2.7 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Correct answer: -3.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

      Answer: -3.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$. The formula to find the required force is force = mass in kg $\times$ acceleration in $\text{m/s}^{2}$. F=ma. To find the acceleration of an object we must isolate acceleration. To do this, we divide both sides by the mass. F/m = ma/m, F/m = a. Then we plug in the numbers from the problem. -2780 N / 800 kg = -3.475 $\text{m/s}^{2}$ which rounds up to -3.5 $\text{m/s}^{2}$

1158. A box is sitting on a table. The mass of the box is 5.2 kg. The gravitational acceleration constant of Earth is approximately 10 $\text{m/s}^2$. What is the force that the table is exerting on the box to keep the box from accelerating towards the ground?
      • 5.2 N upward
      • 52 N downward
      • 5.2 N downward
      • 52 N upward

      Correct answer: 52 N upward

      Answer: 52 N upward. The formula to find the required force is force = mass in kg $\times$ acceleration in $\text{m/s}^{2}$. F=ma, F = 5.2 kg x 10 $\text{m/s}^{2}$, F = 52 N. The box experiences a force of 52 N from gravity and this force is down. Because of Newton’s Third Law (The mutual forces of action and reaction between two bodies are equal, opposite and collinear), the table is pushing the box back up with the same force of 52 N upward. This is why the box does not crash to the floor. If the box was heavier and the table was not able to push upwards with the force required, the table would break and the box would crash to the floor.

1159. Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence. Puffy, my cat, is very _____ and always behaves _______.
      • Bad, bad
      • Badly, bad
      • Bad, badly
      • Badly, badly

      Correct answer: Bad, badly

      bad, badly. “Bad” is an adjective. Use bad before nouns (He is a bad writer) or after linking verbs (My cat is very bad). “Badly“ is an adverb. When modifying a verb, use badly (My cat behaves badly).

1160. Find the sum of $56.7$ and $34.56$
      • 80.26
      • 90.26
      • 91.26
      • 81.26

      Correct answer: 91.26

      91.26. Line up the decimal points and add: 56.70 + 34.56 = 91.26. Keeping the place values aligned (tenths under tenths, hundredths under hundredths) gives 91.26.