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FREE Praxis Audiology (5343) Study Guide 2026

Every ETS Praxis Audiology (5343) content category — foundations, prevention & screening, assessment, intervention, and professional responsibilities — taught to the exam, with labeled clinical diagrams, built-in quizzes, and flashcards.

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This free Praxis Audiology (5343) study guide teaches to ETS’s test — every content category the exam measures, organized the way the test is built.[1] The 5343 is the national examination in audiology and is required by ASHA for the Certificate of Clinical Competence in Audiology (CCC-A); it replaced the retired 5342.[3]

The test is 120 selected-response questions in 120 minutes, computer-delivered, with a scaled score from 100 to 200 and an ASHA passing score of 162.[4] This guide is interactive, not a wall of text: every category has a built-in checkpoint quiz, hover-able glossary terms, and labeled clinical diagrams — audiograms, tympanograms, the auditory pathway — so you learn by doing.

Read this guide category by category, test yourself at each checkpoint, then round out your free Praxis 5343 prep with our practice questions and flashcards.

Praxis 5343 Exam Snapshot

Praxis Audiology (5343) at a glance (2026)
DetailPraxis Audiology (5343)
Questions120 selected-response questions
Time120 minutes (2 hours), computer-delivered
ContentFoundations (~24, 20%), Prevention & Screening (~12, 10%), Assessment (~42, 35%), Intervention (~30, 25%), Professional & Ethical (~12, 10%)
Score scale100–200 scaled; ASHA CCC-A passing score 162 (state boards may set their own)
Test fee$146 (subject to change — verify on ETS)
Retake waitMinimum 28 days before retaking the same test
Guessing penaltyNone — answer every question
Required forASHA Certificate of Clinical Competence in Audiology (CCC-A)
PublisherETS (Educational Testing Service)
How the Praxis Audiology (5343) is built — 5 content categories

One test of 120 selected-response questions in 120 minutes, computer-delivered. Scores scale 100–200; ASHA’s CCC-A passing score on the 5343 is 162.

  1. I · Foundations of Audiology≈ 24 questions (20%). Acoustics & psychoacoustics, anatomy/physiology of the auditory & vestibular systems, pathophysiology, and psychometrics & instrumentation.
  2. II · Prevention and Screening≈ 12 questions (10%). Patient education, exposure/risk mitigation and hearing conservation, and screening — including newborn hearing screening.
  3. III · Assessment≈ 42 questions (35%) — the heaviest category. Behavioral & physiologic evaluation (pure-tone, speech, immittance, OAE, AEP/ABR), balance/vestibular testing, and integrating results.
  4. IV · Intervention≈ 30 questions (25%). Treatment planning, device selection, verification & validation (real-ear measures), and audiological (re)habilitation.
  5. V · Professional and Ethical Responsibilities≈ 12 questions (10%). Scope of practice, codes of ethics, confidentiality, evidence-based practice, documentation, and professional liability.

120 questions · 120 minutes. The 5343 is the national examination in audiology and is required by ASHA for the Certificate of Clinical Competence in Audiology (CCC-A).

Because Assessment is 35% of the exam — the single heaviest category — and Intervention adds another 25%, those two areas alone make up 60% of your score. Spend time across all five categories, but lead with the heavy hitters:

Praxis 5343 content categories (2026 approximate shares)
Assessment35% · 35% (~42 questions)
Intervention25% · 25% (~30 questions)
Foundations of Audiology20% · 20% (~24 questions)
Prevention & Screening10% · 10% (~12 questions)
Professional & Ethical10% · 10% (~12 questions)

ETS groups the test into five scored categories.[1] This guide teaches all five as study modules, in the official 5343 order, with the core skill clusters of each as checkable subsections.

1 · Foundations of Audiology

About 20% of the exam. Acoustics and psychoacoustics, anatomy and physiology of the auditory and vestibular systems, pathophysiology of hearing and balance disorders, and the psychometrics and instrumentation behind the measurements you make.[1]

Auditory & Vestibular Anatomy & Physiology

Sound travels outer → middle → inner ear. The pinna and canal collect sound; the and impedance-match it to cochlear fluid; and the transduces vibration to neural signals via hair cells.

The act as the cochlear amplifier. The vestibular labyrinth — semicircular canals plus utricle and saccule — senses head motion and gravity.

Anatomy of the ear — outer, middle, and inner divisions
Outer earPinna (auricle) · ear canal (external auditory meatus)Collects and funnels sound to the eardrum; resonance boosts speech frequencies.
Middle earTympanic membrane (eardrum) · ossicles — malleus, incus, stapes · Eustachian tubeImpedance-matches air-borne sound to cochlear fluid; the stapes footplate drives the oval window.
Inner earCochlea (organ of Corti, hair cells) · vestibular labyrinth — semicircular canals, utricle, sacculeTransduces vibration into neural signals (hearing) and senses head motion & gravity (balance).

Sound path: pinna → ear canal → eardrum → malleus → incus → stapes → oval window → cochlea → auditory (VIII) nerve. Outer/middle problems cause conductive loss; cochlear/nerve problems cause sensorineural loss.

The central auditory pathway — cochlea to cortex
  1. 1. CochleaHair cells transduce vibration into neural firing (place-coded by frequency).
  2. 2. Auditory (VIII) nerveSpiral ganglion afferents carry the signal centrally; site of acoustic neuroma.
  3. 3. Cochlear nucleusFirst brainstem relay (Wave III region of the ABR).
  4. 4. Superior olivary complexFirst binaural convergence — interaural time & level cues for localization.
  5. 5. Lateral lemniscus → inferior colliculusAscending midbrain relay (Wave V, the most robust ABR peak).
  6. 6. Medial geniculate body (thalamus)Thalamic gateway routing to the cortex.
  7. 7. Auditory cortex (temporal lobe)Heschl's gyrus — conscious perception and processing of sound.

The ABR tracks this pathway: Wave I = distal VIII nerve, Wave III = cochlear nucleus region, Wave V = lateral lemniscus / inferior colliculus — the peak used for threshold estimation.

Acoustics & Psychoacoustics

Frequency (Hz) is perceived as pitch and intensity (dB) as loudness. Master the three decibel scales: (physical reference), (referenced to normal hearing, so the audiometer reads 0 dB HL as normal), and (above an individual’s own threshold). The decibel is logarithmic: L=20log10 ⁣(pp0) L = 20 \log_{10}\!\left(\dfrac{p}{p_0}\right) , so every 20 dB is a tenfold change in pressure.

Hearing-Loss Types & Etiologies

The classifies the loss. (outer/middle ear — cerumen, effusion, otosclerosis) elevates air conduction but spares bone conduction. (cochlea or nerve — presbycusis, noise, ototoxicity) elevates both with no gap. Mixed loss combines the two.

Checkpoint · Category · Foundations of Audiology

Question 1 of 10

The speed at which sound propagates through a medium is determined primarily by which two physical properties of that medium?

2 · Prevention & Screening

About 10% of the exam. Educating patients about causes and prevention of hearing and balance disorders, assessing and mitigating exposure risk (hearing conservation, fall risk), and screening — including newborn hearing screening and risk identification.[1]

Newborn Hearing Screening (EHDI)

sets the 1-3-6 benchmarks: screen by 1 month, diagnose by 3 months, and enroll in early intervention by 6 months. Screening uses and/or automated (AABR). NICU infants get AABR because it catches that OAEs alone would miss.[3]

Noise Exposure & Hearing Conservation

Noise-induced hearing loss is preventable. Hearing-conservation programs combine exposure assessment, engineering and administrative noise controls, hearing protection (with a real-world derated noise reduction rating), and audiometric monitoring to catch a standard threshold shift early. The classic noise-notch sits at 3000–6000 Hz, often deepest at 4000 Hz.

Ototoxicity, Cerumen & Tinnitus

agents — aminoglycosides, cisplatin, loop diuretics, high-dose salicylates — typically cause high-frequency sensorineural loss, so monitoring uses high-frequency audiometry and OAEs. Cerumen management is within the audiology scope. For tinnitus, evidence-based options include sound therapy, tinnitus retraining therapy (TRT), and cognitive-behavioral approaches.

Checkpoint · Category · Prevention & Screening

Question 1 of 10

What is the primary purpose of ototoxic monitoring in audiological prevention and screening?

3 · Assessment

The heaviest category — about 35% of the exam. Behavioral and physiologic evaluation (pure-tone, speech, immittance, OAE, evoked potentials), balance and vestibular testing, pediatric assessment, and integrating results into a diagnosis and recommendations.[1]

Pure-Tone & Speech Audiometry

Pure-tone air- and bone-conduction thresholds build the . the non-test ear prevents cross-hearing. In speech audiometry the should agree with the pure-tone average (validating the audiogram), while the gauges clarity at a comfortable level.

Immittance, Tympanometry & Acoustic Reflexes

probes the middle ear — Types A, As, Ad, B, and C each map to a condition. The (stapedius contraction to loud sound) and its decay help separate middle-ear, cochlear, and retrocochlear sites of lesion. Equivalent ear-canal volume distinguishes the causes of a flat Type B.

Tympanogram types — middle-ear pressure vs. compliance
Type ANormalPeak near 0 daPa, normal height — healthy middle ear.
Type AsShallowPeak at 0 but low height — stiff system (otosclerosis, tympanosclerosis).
Type AdDeepPeak at 0 but very high — flaccid eardrum / ossicular discontinuity.
Type BFlatNo peak — effusion (fluid), perforation, or impacted cerumen.
Type CNeg. pressurePeak shifted negative — Eustachian-tube dysfunction.

Tympanometry probes the middle ear: peak pressure (daPa, x-axis) and compliance (height, y-axis). A flat Type B with normal canal volume suggests effusion; with large volume, a perforation or patent tube.

OAEs & Auditory Evoked Potentials

measure outer-hair-cell function — present with near-normal cochlear status, absent above roughly 30–40 dB of loss. The measures neural synchrony and estimates threshold when behavioral testing isn’t possible; it also screens for retrocochlear pathology. Present OAEs with an absent/abnormal ABR is the signature of .

The audiologic assessment battery — cross-checking results
Pure-tone audiometryAir- & bone-conduction thresholds → degree, configuration, and TYPE of loss (the air-bone gap).
Speech audiometrySRT (validates pure-tone average) and word-recognition score (WRS) at suprathreshold level.
Immittance — tympanometry & reflexesMiddle-ear status and acoustic-reflex arc; cross-checks the air-bone gap.
Otoacoustic emissions (OAE)Outer-hair-cell integrity — present with normal/near-normal cochlea, absent with loss > ~30–40 dB.
Auditory evoked potentials (ABR/ECochG/ASSR)Neural synchrony & threshold estimation when behavioral testing isn't possible; retrocochlear screening.

No single test stands alone. The cross-check principle: each result must agree with at least one independent measure (e.g., SRT should agree with the pure-tone average within ≈ 6–10 dB).

Balance & Vestibular Assessment

VNG/ENG (including caloric testing), rotary chair, vHIT, and testing isolate which canal or otolith organ and which branch of the vestibular nerve is involved. , the most common cause of vertigo, is identified positionally (Dix–Hallpike) and treated with canalith-repositioning (Epley) maneuvers — within the audiology scope.

Vestibular & balance assessment — what each test probes
VNG / ENGSpontaneous, gaze, positional & caloric responses — lateralizes peripheral weakness (horizontal canal).
Rotary chairWhole-VOR gain/phase across frequencies — best for bilateral vestibular loss and infants.
vHIT (video head impulse)High-frequency VOR per individual semicircular canal; detects covert/overt catch-up saccades.
cVEMPSaccule & inferior vestibular nerve (via sternocleidomastoid).
oVEMPUtricle & superior vestibular nerve (via inferior oblique / extraocular muscles).
PosturographyFunctional balance & sensory-integration (vision, somatosensory, vestibular) for fall-risk.

Together these isolate which canal/otolith organ and which branch of the vestibular nerve is involved. BPPV — the most common cause of vertigo — is identified positionally (Dix–Hallpike) and treated with canalith-repositioning (Epley).

Pediatric Assessment & Audiogram Interpretation

Match the method to the child’s developmental level: behavioral observation audiometry in infancy, visual reinforcement audiometry (≈ 6 months–2 years), and conditioned play audiometry (≈ 2–5 years), backed by physiologic measures. On the audiogram, read degree (mild → profound), configuration, and type, then apply the cross-check principle — every result must agree with at least one independent measure.

Reading an audiogram — frequency vs. hearing level, with degree-of-loss bands
Normal (−1025 dB)Mild (2640 dB)Moderate (4155 dB)Mod-severe (5670 dB)Severe (7190 dB)Profound (91120 dB)2505001000200040008000speech bananadB HLFrequency (Hz)

Threshold (softest tone heard) is plotted per frequency. Here a high-frequency sensorineural loss drops into the speech banana, so the patient misses soft, high-pitched consonants (s, f, th). Right-ear air conduction uses O; left uses X.

Checkpoint · Category · Assessment

Question 1 of 10

In audiological assessments, what is the primary purpose of using tympanometry?

4 · Intervention

About 25% of the exam. Treatment planning, device selection, verification and validation, and audiological (re)habilitation — translating the diagnosis into a patient-centered plan.[1]

Hearing Aids — Fitting, REM & Verification

Select features and coupling (earmold mods, dome and venting) from the audiogram and the patient’s needs, then verify with against a prescriptive target (NAL-NL2, DSL). REM is the evidence-based standard because ear-canal acoustics vary; the real-ear-to-coupler difference (RECD) individualizes pediatric fittings. Validate with outcome measures.

Cochlear & Bone-Anchored Implants, ALDs

A bypasses damaged hair cells for severe-to-profound sensorineural loss when appropriately fit hearing aids no longer provide adequate aided speech understanding. Bone-anchored (osseointegrated) implants serve conductive/mixed loss or single-sided deafness. Assistive listening devices (FM/DM systems, loops) improve the signal-to-noise ratio in difficult settings.

Aural Rehabilitation & Counseling

goes beyond the device: counseling on impact and realistic expectations, communication-strategy training for the patient and their partners, auditory training, and support for psychosocial adjustment, self-advocacy, and coping across the lifespan — delivered through interprofessional, person-centered care.

Checkpoint · Category · Intervention

Question 1 of 10

When considering cochlear implantation in adults, which factor is least likely to predict a successful outcome?

5 · Professional & Ethical Responsibilities

About 10% of the exam. Scope of practice, codes of ethics, confidentiality and informed consent, evidence-based practice, infection control, documentation, applicable laws, and professional liability.[1]

Code of Ethics, Scope & Infection Control

The ASHA Code of Ethics and the audiology define what you may do and when you must refer. Core duties include informed consent, avoiding conflicts of interest, cultural responsiveness, and standard infection-control precautions for equipment and patient contact. When a need falls outside your competence, the ethical course is referral.[3]

EBP, Laws & Documentation

integrates research, clinical expertise, and patient values. Know the laws that shape audiology: IDEA (early intervention and school services), the ADA (access and accommodations), and HIPAA (protected health information and confidentiality). Accurate documentation supports continuity of care, billing, and professional liability protection.

Checkpoint · Category · Professional & Ethical Responsibilities

Question 1 of 10

Which of the following best describes an audiologist's ethical responsibility when encountering a conflict of interest in professional practice?

How to Use This Study Guide

A study guide is a map, not the whole territory — use it alongside the official ETS study companion and full-length practice. Lead with the heaviest areas (Assessment is 35% and Intervention 25% — together 60% of the exam), but don’t neglect Foundations, which underpins every clinical decision. Spaced, mixed practice beats one long cram.

How the Praxis 5343 is scored — scaled 100–200, ASHA cut score 162
100 — below the ASHA cut
162–200 passing zone (ASHA CCC-A)
100162 — ASHA CCC-A cut score200

Scores are reported on a 100–200 scale in 1-point increments. ASHA requires 162 on the 5343 for the CCC-A. (The retired 5342 cut was 170 on a different scale — the two are not comparable.) Some state boards set their own cut — verify your state.

Praxis 5343 by content category (2026 approximate shares)
III · Assessment
35%
IV · Intervention
25%
I · Foundations
20%
II · Prevention & Screening
10%
V · Professional & Ethical
10%

Assessment is the single largest slice at 35% (≈ 42 questions). Together, Assessment and Intervention make up 60% of the exam — lead your study there.

A study loop that actually works
  1. 1

    Read a category here

    Work through one content category at a time — Foundations, Prevention & Screening, Assessment, Intervention, then Professional & Ethical.

  2. 2

    Take the checkpoint

    The quick check at the end of each category exposes what didn't stick.

  3. 3

    Drill the gaps

    Send your weak area straight into the free practice questions and flashcards.

  4. 4

    Take full, timed practice

    Sit a full 120-question, 120-minute set to build pacing and stamina, then review every miss.

Praxis 5343 Concept Questions

Common Praxis 5343 clinical concepts the test actually measures — across all five content categories, weighted toward Assessment. Tap any card for a short, exam-ready answer backed by the official ETS study companion or ASHA, then test yourself on them as flashcards.

Praxis 5343 Glossary

Quick definitions for the terms you’ll see most across the Praxis Audiology (5343):

Acoustic reflex
The reflexive contraction of the stapedius muscle to loud sound; its presence, threshold, and decay help localize middle-ear, cochlear, and neural disorders.
Air-bone gap
The difference between air-conduction and bone-conduction thresholds at a frequency; a significant gap indicates a conductive component.
Audiogram
A graph of hearing thresholds (in dB HL) across frequencies (Hz). Air-conduction symbols are O for the right ear and X for the left; the pattern shows degree, configuration, and type of loss.
Auditory brainstem response
ABR — an auditory evoked potential reflecting neural synchrony along the VIII nerve and brainstem, used for threshold estimation and retrocochlear screening.
Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder
A disorder with present OAEs but absent or abnormal ABR — outer hair cells function but neural transmission is disordered.
Aural rehabilitation
The person-centered process of counseling, communication-strategy training, auditory training, and technology that supports adjustment to hearing loss.
BPPV
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo — the most common cause of vertigo, caused by displaced otoconia, diagnosed with Dix–Hallpike and treated with canalith repositioning (Epley).
Cochlea
The snail-shaped inner-ear organ of hearing, containing the organ of Corti and hair cells that transduce vibration into neural signals.
Cochlear implant
A surgically implanted device that bypasses damaged hair cells and stimulates the auditory nerve directly, for severe-to-profound loss when hearing aids are insufficient.
Conductive hearing loss
Loss originating in the outer or middle ear, with elevated air conduction but normal bone conduction, producing an air-bone gap.
dB HL
Decibels hearing level — a decibel scale referenced to average normal-hearing thresholds at each frequency, so 0 dB HL means normal hearing. The audiometer is calibrated in dB HL.
dB SL
Decibels sensation level — decibels above an individual's own threshold for a given signal; speech testing is often done at a set SL above the SRT.
dB SPL
Decibels sound pressure level — a decibel scale referenced to a fixed physical pressure (20 micropascals), used to describe the physical intensity of a sound.
EHDI
Early Hearing Detection and Intervention — the 1-3-6 framework: screen by 1 month, diagnose by 3 months, enroll in early intervention by 6 months.
Evidence-based practice
Integrating the best external scientific evidence with clinical expertise and the patient's values and circumstances when choosing assessment and intervention.
Masking
Presenting noise to the non-test ear to prevent it from responding to a signal that crosses the skull (cross-hearing), so the test ear's true threshold is measured.
Ossicles
The three middle-ear bones — malleus, incus, and stapes — that transmit and amplify vibration from the eardrum to the oval window.
Otoacoustic emissions
OAEs — low-level sounds generated by healthy outer hair cells, recorded in the ear canal; present with near-normal cochlear function, absent with loss above ~30–40 dB.
Ototoxicity
Damage to the cochlea or vestibular system from drugs or chemicals (e.g., aminoglycosides, cisplatin), typically starting as high-frequency sensorineural loss.
Outer hair cells
Cochlear hair cells that act as the cochlear amplifier, sharpening tuning and sensitivity; their function is measured by otoacoustic emissions.
Praxis 5343
ETS's Audiology test — 120 selected-response questions in 120 minutes, the national examination in audiology required by ASHA for the Certificate of Clinical Competence in Audiology (CCC-A).
Real-ear measurement
REM — probe-microphone verification of the sound-pressure level a hearing aid produces in the patient's own ear canal, compared to a prescriptive target.
Scope of practice
The range of professional activities an audiologist is qualified and authorized to perform; practicing outside it, or beyond one's competence, requires referral.
Sensorineural hearing loss
Loss originating in the cochlea or auditory nerve, with air and bone conduction both elevated and no significant air-bone gap.
Speech-recognition threshold
SRT — the lowest level at which a listener repeats 50% of spondee words correctly; it should agree with the pure-tone average, validating the audiogram.
Tympanic membrane
The eardrum — the boundary between the outer and middle ear that vibrates in response to sound and drives the ossicular chain.
Tympanometry
An immittance test that measures eardrum mobility against changing ear-canal pressure, classified as Types A, As, Ad, B, or C.
VEMP
Vestibular evoked myogenic potential — cVEMP tests the saccule/inferior vestibular nerve; oVEMP tests the utricle/superior vestibular nerve.
Word-recognition score
WRS — the percent of monosyllabic words repeated correctly at a comfortable suprathreshold level, measuring speech clarity rather than detection.

Free Praxis 5343 Study Materials & Resources

Everything you need to prepare for the Praxis Audiology (5343) is free here — no paywall, no sign-up. This guide is the foundation; pair it with the rest of our free Praxis 5343 study materials for active recall, timed practice, and last-minute review:

Praxis 5343 Study Guide FAQ

The Praxis Audiology (5343) has 120 selected-response questions and a testing time of 120 minutes (2 hours). It is computer-delivered. Some questions may not count toward your score, but you should answer every item because there is no penalty for guessing.

References

  1. 1.ETS. “The Praxis Study Companion: Audiology (5343).” ETS.
  2. 2.ETS. “Audiology (5343) Test Overview.” ETS.
  3. 3.American Speech-Language-Hearing Association. “About the Audiology Praxis Exam.” ASHA.
  4. 4.American Speech-Language-Hearing Association. “Praxis Exam Scores.” ASHA.
  5. 5.ETS. “Understanding Your Praxis Scores.” ETS.

Sources for the concept answers

Every answer in the Praxis 5343 concept questions above is drawn from an official primary source:

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