Career Employer

Your FREE PTCB Flashcards 2026 – 250+ Cards

Realistic, PTCB-aligned pharmacy technician flashcards — flip, match, type, and quiz yourself, all at the PTCE level.

How well do you know them?

To find us again, just search “Career Employer PTCB”

By

Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of PTCB cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the four PTCE content-outline domains, so you study exactly what the Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam tests.[1]

Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide. Want extra insurance for exam day? Capital Prep’s PTCB premium study materials come with a PTCB exam pass guarantee: your money back if you don’t pass, plus up to $129 toward your retake fee — and Career Employer students get a special discount.

PTCB Flashcard Study Modes

Flip mode lets you study each card front and back at your own pace, Match times you pairing terms with definitions, Type shows the definition and asks you to key the term back, such as producing Statin suffix from its description, and Quiz turns the same 280 cards into multiple choice. Rotate all four so recall stays active rather than passive.

Free PTCB flashcards from Career Employer — active recall for the Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam (PTCE)

Why Flashcards Work for the PTCB Exam

Medications carries 127 cards and matches the 35% weighting the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board gives this area, so it is the bulk of the deck. The cards drill drug classes, suffix patterns, brand-to-generic pairs, and the vocabulary that surrounds therapy, including Indication, Prophylaxis, ARB suffix, and PPI suffix. Brand recognition cards such as Brand: Lasix and Brand: Cozaar train the pairing you will need to read orders quickly, while pattern cards like Suffix ’-vir’ let you infer a class you have not memorized outright.

Order Entry and Processing holds 69 cards covering the mechanics of taking a prescription from intake through fill. Third-party billing terms appear as BIN / PCN, compounding technique shows up in Levigation, Trituration, and Reconstitution, and calculation-adjacent prompts include Alligation use and Sig: ’gr’ unit. Substitution logic gets its own treatment in DAW 1 vs DAW 0, and documentation appears in the card that asks What is an MAR?

Federal Requirements has 46 cards on the laws, agencies, and forms that govern practice. Reporting and monitoring systems appear as PDMP, MedWatch, and VAERS, privacy and counseling rules as HIPAA and OBRA-90, and controlled substance paperwork as DEA Form 41. Older statutes such as PPPA (1970) and risk programs like REMS round out the terminology you are expected to recognize by name.

Patient Safety and Quality Assurance rounds out the deck with 38 cards. Compounding standards are drilled through USP <795>, USP <797>, and USP <800>, error-prevention vocabulary through LASA drugs and Smart pump, and quality systems through prompts like What is FMEA? and What is an ISMP? Geriatric prescribing caution appears as Beers Criteria.

That matters on the PTCE, where facts like drug-class suffixes, brand-generic pairs, the DEA schedules, antidotes, and pharmacy conversions must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.

PTCB Flashcards by Topic

The cards are organized by the four PTCE content-outline domains. Weight your study toward the heaviest one — Medications is 35% of the scored items:[1]

PTCE domains and their scored-item weight (effective Jan 6, 2026)
PTCE domainWeight
Medications35%
Patient Safety & Quality Assurance23.75%
Order Entry & Processing22.5%
Federal Requirements18.75%

How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards

  • Start with the heaviest domain. Medications is 127 cards and 35% of the exam, so open there and keep cycling it even after the other three domains feel solid.
  • Type-drill the pattern cards. Force yourself to key Statin suffix and ARB suffix from their definitions, because suffix recognition is what lets you classify unfamiliar drug names on test day.
  • Use Match for brand pairs. Timed matching suits Brand: Lasix and similar brand-to-generic cards, where speed of recall matters more than being able to explain the concept.
  • Switch to the practice test once recall holds. When Quiz mode on Federal Requirements and Patient Safety and Quality Assurance stops surprising you, move to full-length questions and the study guide for gaps.
  • Work in domain-sized sittings. Take the 69 Order Entry and Processing cards or the 46 Federal Requirements cards as one block, then revisit missed cards the next day.

PTCB Flashcards FAQ

Hundreds of free PTCB flashcards, organized across the four PTCE content-outline domains tested on the Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam — from drug classes and brand-generic pairs through federal law, DEA schedules, patient safety, pharmacy math, and order processing. They're free with no account required.

PTCB flashcard bank

All 280 cards, by topic

A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.

Medications (127)

Lisinopril class & use
Show answer

ACE inhibitor — treats hypertension and heart failure. Watch for dry cough and hyperkalemia; contraindicated in pregnancy.

Metoprolol class & use
Show answer

Beta-blocker (cardioselective, beta-1) — hypertension, angina, heart failure, post-MI. Slows heart rate.

Amlodipine class & use
Show answer

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker — hypertension and angina. Common side effect: peripheral (ankle) edema.

Atorvastatin class & use
Show answer

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin) — lowers LDL cholesterol. Take at any time of day; monitor for muscle pain (myopathy).

Metformin class & use
Show answer

Biguanide — first-line for type 2 diabetes. Lowers hepatic glucose output; hold before contrast dye (lactic acidosis risk).

Omeprazole class & use
Show answer

Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) — GERD, peptic ulcers. Take 30–60 minutes before the first meal.

Levothyroxine use
Show answer

Synthetic T4 thyroid hormone — treats hypothyroidism. Take on an empty stomach; narrow therapeutic index.

Albuterol class & use
Show answer

Short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) — rescue inhaler for acute bronchospasm/asthma. Fast onset.

Warfarin antidote
Show answer

Vitamin K (phytonadione). Warfarin is an anticoagulant monitored by INR (target usually 2–3).

Heparin antidote
Show answer

Protamine sulfate. Heparin is monitored by aPTT.

Opioid overdose antidote
Show answer

Naloxone (Narcan) — an opioid antagonist that reverses respiratory depression.

Acetaminophen overdose antidote
Show answer

N-acetylcysteine (NAC, Acetadote/Mucomyst).

Benzodiazepine overdose antidote
Show answer

Flumazenil.

Insulin onset: rapid-acting
Show answer

Lispro, aspart, glulisine — onset ~15 minutes. Give right before a meal.

Insulin: long-acting (basal)
Show answer

Glargine (Lantus) and detemir (Levemir) — no pronounced peak, ~24-hour duration.

Lasix (furosemide) class
Show answer

Loop diuretic — edema and hypertension. Can cause hypokalemia (low potassium).

Spironolactone class
Show answer

Potassium-sparing diuretic / aldosterone antagonist. Risk of hyperkalemia.

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) class
Show answer

Thiazide diuretic — first-line for hypertension. Can cause hypokalemia and raise glucose/uric acid.

Losartan class & use
Show answer

Angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) — hypertension. Alternative when ACE inhibitors cause cough.

Clopidogrel (Plavix) class
Show answer

Antiplatelet (P2Y12 inhibitor) — prevents clots after stents and in ACS.

Apixaban (Eliquis) class
Show answer

Direct oral anticoagulant (factor Xa inhibitor) — atrial fibrillation, DVT/PE. No routine INR monitoring.

Amoxicillin class
Show answer

Penicillin (beta-lactam) antibiotic. Augmentin = amoxicillin + clavulanate.

Azithromycin (Z-Pak) class
Show answer

Macrolide antibiotic. Common 5-day Z-Pak regimen for respiratory infections.

Ciprofloxacin class & warning
Show answer

Fluoroquinolone antibiotic. Boxed warning: tendon rupture; avoid with antacids/dairy (chelation).

Doxycycline class & caution
Show answer

Tetracycline antibiotic. Avoid in pregnancy and young children (tooth staining); photosensitivity.

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim
Show answer

Bactrim — a sulfonamide combination antibiotic for UTIs and MRSA. Sulfa allergy caution.

Gabapentin use
Show answer

Anticonvulsant also used for neuropathic pain. Now a controlled substance in some states.

Sertraline (Zoloft) class
Show answer

SSRI antidepressant. Used for depression and anxiety; takes weeks for full effect.

Fluoxetine (Prozac) class
Show answer

SSRI antidepressant with a long half-life.

Duloxetine (Cymbalta) class
Show answer

SNRI — depression, anxiety, and neuropathic pain.

Alprazolam (Xanax) class & schedule
Show answer

Benzodiazepine, Schedule IV controlled substance — anxiety. Risk of dependence.

Zolpidem (Ambien) class
Show answer

Non-benzodiazepine 'Z-drug' hypnotic for insomnia. Schedule IV.

Hydrocodone/acetaminophen schedule
Show answer

Norco/Vicodin — Schedule II opioid combination.

Oxycodone schedule
Show answer

Schedule II opioid analgesic (OxyContin = extended release).

Prednisone class
Show answer

Oral corticosteroid — anti-inflammatory/immunosuppressant. Taper to stop; take with food.

Montelukast (Singulair) class
Show answer

Leukotriene receptor antagonist — asthma maintenance and allergic rhinitis.

Tamsulosin (Flomax) use
Show answer

Alpha-1 blocker — benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Can cause orthostatic hypotension.

Sildenafil (Viagra) class
Show answer

Phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor — erectile dysfunction. Never combine with nitrates.

Allopurinol use
Show answer

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor — lowers uric acid to prevent gout (not for an acute attack).

Digoxin use & caution
Show answer

Cardiac glycoside — heart failure and atrial fibrillation. Narrow therapeutic index; toxicity worsened by low potassium.

Phenytoin (Dilantin) use
Show answer

Antiepileptic — seizures. Narrow therapeutic index; monitor levels.

Carbamazepine genetic test
Show answer

HLA-B*1502 testing before use in at-risk patients (severe skin reactions/SJS).

Lithium caution
Show answer

Mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder. Narrow therapeutic index; monitor levels, sodium, and hydration.

Metronidazole (Flagyl) warning
Show answer

Antibiotic/antiprotozoal — avoid alcohol (disulfiram-like reaction).

Tramadol class & schedule
Show answer

Centrally acting opioid analgesic, Schedule IV. Seizure and serotonin syndrome risk.

Pregabalin (Lyrica) schedule
Show answer

Schedule V — neuropathic pain, fibromyalgia, seizures.

Methotrexate use & schedule note
Show answer

DMARD/antimetabolite — rheumatoid arthritis and cancer. Often dosed WEEKLY (a daily error is fatal); give folic acid.

Levodopa/carbidopa use
Show answer

Parkinson disease — replaces dopamine; carbidopa prevents peripheral breakdown.

Epinephrine (EpiPen) use
Show answer

Treats anaphylaxis — give intramuscularly in the outer thigh.

Ondansetron (Zofran) class
Show answer

5-HT3 antagonist antiemetic — prevents nausea/vomiting.

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) class
Show answer

First-generation (sedating) antihistamine.

Loratadine/cetirizine class
Show answer

Second-generation (non-/less-sedating) antihistamines for allergies.

Pantoprazole class
Show answer

Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) — GERD; available IV in hospitals.

Ranitidine status
Show answer

An H2 blocker (Zantac) withdrawn from the U.S. market over NDMA impurity; famotidine is the H2-blocker alternative.

Warfarin drug interactions
Show answer

Many — including antibiotics, NSAIDs, and vitamin-K-rich foods. Monitored by INR.

Insulin storage
Show answer

Unopened: refrigerate. Opened/in-use: usually room temperature for ~28 days (check the product). Never freeze.

Nitroglycerin SL storage & use
Show answer

Sublingual tablet for angina — store in original amber glass, away from light/heat; may repeat every 5 minutes ×3.

Beta-blocker suffix
Show answer

Generic names ending in '-olol' (metoprolol, atenolol, propranolol).

ACE inhibitor suffix
Show answer

Generic names ending in '-pril' (lisinopril, enalapril, ramipril).

ARB suffix
Show answer

Generic names ending in '-sartan' (losartan, valsartan, olmesartan).

Statin suffix
Show answer

Generic names ending in '-statin' (atorvastatin, simvastatin, rosuvastatin).

PPI suffix
Show answer

Generic names ending in '-prazole' (omeprazole, pantoprazole, esomeprazole).

Triptan suffix & use
Show answer

'-triptan' (sumatriptan) — abortive treatment of migraine.

Benzodiazepine suffix
Show answer

Often end in '-pam' or '-lam' (lorazepam, diazepam, alprazolam).

Aminoglycoside suffix
Show answer

Antibiotics ending in '-micin/-mycin' such as gentamicin; monitor for nephro-/ototoxicity.

Calcium channel blocker (dihydropyridine) suffix
Show answer

'-dipine' (amlodipine, nifedipine).

Brand: Lipitor
Show answer

Generic atorvastatin (a statin).

Brand: Synthroid
Show answer

Generic levothyroxine.

Brand: Glucophage
Show answer

Generic metformin.

Brand: Coumadin
Show answer

Generic warfarin.

Brand: Prilosec
Show answer

Generic omeprazole.

Brand: Norvasc
Show answer

Generic amlodipine.

Brand: Zestril/Prinivil
Show answer

Generic lisinopril.

Brand: Ventolin/ProAir
Show answer

Generic albuterol.

Brand: Lasix
Show answer

Generic furosemide.

Brand: Neurontin
Show answer

Generic gabapentin.

Brand: Lopressor/Toprol XL
Show answer

Generic metoprolol (tartrate / succinate XL).

Brand: Cozaar
Show answer

Generic losartan.

Brand: Crestor
Show answer

Generic rosuvastatin.

Brand: Eliquis
Show answer

Generic apixaban.

Brand: Xarelto
Show answer

Generic rivaroxaban (factor Xa inhibitor).

Brand: Januvia
Show answer

Generic sitagliptin (a DPP-4 inhibitor).

Brand: Ozempic
Show answer

Generic semaglutide (a GLP-1 receptor agonist).

Brand: Humira
Show answer

Generic adalimumab (a TNF-inhibitor biologic).

DPP-4 inhibitor suffix
Show answer

'-gliptin' (sitagliptin, saxagliptin) — type 2 diabetes.

GLP-1 agonist suffix
Show answer

'-glutide/-tide' (semaglutide, liraglutide, dulaglutide) — type 2 diabetes and weight loss.

SGLT2 inhibitor suffix
Show answer

'-gliflozin' (empagliflozin, dapagliflozin) — diabetes and heart/kidney benefit.

Monoclonal antibody suffix
Show answer

'-mab' (adalimumab, infliximab) — biologic agents.

Proton pump inhibitors take when?
Show answer

30–60 minutes before the first meal of the day.

Bisphosphonate (alendronate) directions
Show answer

Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water; stay upright 30 minutes (esophageal irritation).

Tetracycline / fluoroquinolone food caution
Show answer

Avoid taking with dairy, antacids, or iron — these cations chelate the drug and reduce absorption.

Atrial fibrillation on EKG
Show answer

Irregularly irregular rhythm — relevant because warfarin/DOACs and rate-control drugs are prescribed for it.

Warfarin monitoring lab
Show answer

INR (international normalized ratio); therapeutic range usually 2–3.

Drug for hypothyroidism vs hyperthyroidism
Show answer

Hypothyroid → levothyroxine (replace). Hyperthyroid → methimazole/PTU (suppress).

Aspirin low-dose use
Show answer

81 mg daily as an antiplatelet to reduce heart-attack/stroke risk in selected patients.

NSAID examples & caution
Show answer

Ibuprofen, naproxen — anti-inflammatory; GI bleeding and kidney risk, especially with anticoagulants.

Acetaminophen max daily dose
Show answer

Generally no more than 4 g (4000 mg) per day in healthy adults; less with liver disease/alcohol use.

Antibiotic that needs level monitoring
Show answer

Vancomycin and aminoglycosides (gentamicin) — monitor trough levels for efficacy and toxicity.

Insulin sliding scale
Show answer

Dosing insulin based on measured blood glucose — a high-alert process; double-check the units.

Anticoagulant vs antiplatelet
Show answer

Anticoagulants (warfarin, heparin, DOACs) target clotting factors; antiplatelets (aspirin, clopidogrel) stop platelets clumping.

Suffix '-cycline'
Show answer

Tetracycline antibiotics (doxycycline, minocycline).

Suffix '-floxacin'
Show answer

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin).

Suffix '-cillin'
Show answer

Penicillin antibiotics (amoxicillin, ampicillin).

Suffix '-azole' (antifungal)
Show answer

Azole antifungals (fluconazole, ketoconazole).

Suffix '-vir'
Show answer

Antiviral agents (acyclovir, oseltamivir, tenofovir).

Drug for acute gout attack
Show answer

NSAIDs, colchicine, or corticosteroids — NOT allopurinol (which is for long-term prevention).

Levothyroxine narrow therapeutic index
Show answer

Small dose changes matter; keep patients on the same manufacturer/product when possible.

Common opioid side effects
Show answer

Constipation (does not improve with time), sedation, respiratory depression, nausea.

Statin time of administration
Show answer

Short-acting statins (simvastatin) work best in the evening; long-acting (atorvastatin, rosuvastatin) any time.

Why give folic acid with methotrexate?
Show answer

To reduce methotrexate's side effects (mucositis, GI upset); methotrexate is a folate antagonist.

MAOI dietary caution
Show answer

Avoid tyramine-rich foods (aged cheese, cured meats) — hypertensive crisis risk.

Serotonin syndrome
Show answer

Excess serotonin (e.g. SSRI + tramadol/triptan) — agitation, fever, tremor, rapid heart rate.

EpiPen storage
Show answer

Room temperature, protected from light; do not refrigerate. Inspect that the solution is clear.

Bioavailability
Show answer

The fraction of a dose that reaches systemic circulation; IV = 100%; oral is reduced by first-pass metabolism.

First-pass effect
Show answer

Oral drugs are metabolized by the liver before reaching circulation, lowering the amount that takes effect.

Half-life (t½)
Show answer

The time for the drug concentration to fall by half; ~4–5 half-lives to reach steady state or clear the drug.

Contraindication
Show answer

A condition under which a drug should NOT be used (e.g. ACE inhibitors in pregnancy).

Indication
Show answer

The FDA-approved condition a drug is used to treat.

Adverse drug reaction (ADR)
Show answer

An unwanted, harmful response to a drug at normal doses; report serious ones via MedWatch.

Prophylaxis
Show answer

Use of a medication to PREVENT a condition (e.g. propranolol for migraine prophylaxis).

Synergistic interaction
Show answer

Two drugs together produce a greater effect than the sum of each alone.

Loading dose vs maintenance dose
Show answer

A loading dose rapidly reaches therapeutic level; a maintenance dose keeps it there.

What is titration?
Show answer

Gradually adjusting a dose up or down to reach the best effect with the fewest side effects.

Therapeutic index
Show answer

The ratio between a drug's effective and toxic dose; a NARROW index (warfarin, digoxin, lithium) needs monitoring.

Pharmacokinetics (ADME)
Show answer

What the body does to a drug: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion.

Pharmacodynamics
Show answer

What the drug does to the body — its mechanism and effect at the site of action.

Agonist vs antagonist
Show answer

An agonist activates a receptor (produces a response); an antagonist blocks it (e.g. naloxone blocks opioid receptors).

Federal Requirements (46)

Controlled Substances Act: schedules
Show answer

Five schedules (I–V) by abuse potential. Schedule I has no accepted medical use; II–V do, with decreasing abuse potential.

Schedule I examples
Show answer

No accepted U.S. medical use, high abuse: heroin, LSD, ecstasy, (federally) marijuana.

Schedule II examples & refills
Show answer

High abuse, accepted use: oxycodone, fentanyl, morphine, Adderall. NO refills allowed.

Schedule III–V refills
Show answer

May be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months of the original date.

Schedule III / IV / V examples
Show answer

III: ketamine, anabolic steroids, Tylenol #3. IV: alprazolam, lorazepam, tramadol. V: low-dose codeine cough syrups, pregabalin.

DEA Form 222
Show answer

Used to order/transfer SCHEDULE II controlled substances (or the electronic CSOS equivalent).

DEA Form 41
Show answer

Used to record the DESTRUCTION of controlled substances.

DEA Form 106
Show answer

Used to report the THEFT or significant LOSS of controlled substances.

DEA Form 224
Show answer

Application for a pharmacy to register (and dispense) controlled substances.

DEA number check digit
Show answer

Add 1st+3rd+5th digits, then (2nd+4th+6th)×2; the last digit of that sum must equal the 7th (check) digit.

DEA number first letter
Show answer

Identifies registrant type (e.g. A/B/F = hospital/pharmacy/practitioner; M = mid-level); the 2nd letter = first letter of the last name.

Controlled substance inventory frequency
Show answer

A complete inventory at least every 2 years; an initial inventory when first handling controlled substances.

Schedule II record-keeping
Show answer

Must be kept SEPARATE from other records; many states require perpetual inventory for CII.

Pseudoephedrine limits (CMEA)
Show answer

Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act: max 3.6 g/day and 9 g/30 days per purchaser; kept behind the counter with a logbook and ID.

PPPA (1970)
Show answer

Poison Prevention Packaging Act — requires child-resistant packaging for most oral prescription drugs (patient may waive).

FDCA (1938)
Show answer

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act — required drugs to be proven SAFE before marketing; created the FDA's authority.

Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1962)
Show answer

Required drugs to be proven EFFECTIVE (not just safe) — prompted by the thalidomide tragedy.

Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951)
Show answer

Created the legend (Rx-only) vs OTC distinction and the 'Rx only' label.

HIPAA
Show answer

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act — protects patients' protected health information (PHI).

OBRA-90
Show answer

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 — requires DUR and an offer to counsel patients on new prescriptions.

Controlled Substances Act (1970)
Show answer

Created the DEA scheduling system (I–V) for drugs with abuse potential.

DSCSA (part of DQSA)
Show answer

Drug Supply Chain Security Act — tracks drugs through the supply chain to keep counterfeits out (drug pedigree/track-and-trace).

Ryan Haight Act
Show answer

Requires an in-person (or qualifying telehealth) evaluation before prescribing controlled substances online.

Anabolic Steroid Control Act (1990)
Show answer

Added anabolic steroids to Schedule III of the Controlled Substances Act.

REMS
Show answer

Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy — an FDA safety program for certain high-risk drugs (e.g. isotretinoin/iPLEDGE, clozapine).

MedWatch
Show answer

The FDA program for voluntarily reporting adverse events and product problems.

VAERS
Show answer

Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (CDC/FDA) — reporting adverse events after vaccination.

Adulterated vs misbranded
Show answer

Adulterated = the product is contaminated/impure or improperly made. Misbranded = the labeling is false or misleading.

Who issues DEA registrations?
Show answer

The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) — part of the Department of Justice.

Who approves drugs / oversees labeling?
Show answer

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

C-II emergency oral order rule
Show answer

Allowed in a genuine emergency for the amount needed; a written/e-prescription must follow within 7 days.

Transfer of controlled Rx (III–V)
Show answer

Generally a one-time transfer of remaining refills (shared real-time databases may allow more); CII cannot be refilled or transferred.

What must be on a controlled Rx?
Show answer

Patient name/address, drug, strength, quantity, directions, date, prescriber name/address and DEA number, and signature.

Drug recall: who initiates?
Show answer

The manufacturer (often at the FDA's request); the pharmacy quarantines affected stock and notifies patients as directed.

Reverse distributor
Show answer

A DEA-registered company that processes the return/destruction of expired or unwanted controlled substances.

What is diversion?
Show answer

Theft or redirection of (usually controlled) medications for non-medical use; prevented by counts, audits, and ADC tracking.

Perpetual inventory
Show answer

A running, real-time count of certain drugs (often CII) updated with each transaction.

Vaccine handling (cold chain)
Show answer

Maintain required temperatures throughout storage/transport; log fridge/freezer temps and report excursions.

C-V purchase without Rx
Show answer

Some Schedule V products may be sold without a prescription where state law allows, with ID and a logbook.

Partial fill of CII
Show answer

Permitted under federal rules; the remainder is generally supplied within 30 days of the written date.

Recordkeeping retention
Show answer

Pharmacy records (including controlled-substance records) are generally kept at least 2 years (states may require longer).

Tamper-resistant Rx pad
Show answer

Required for many written prescriptions (especially Medicaid) to deter forgery.

PDMP
Show answer

Prescription Drug Monitoring Program — a state database tracking controlled-substance dispensing to curb misuse.

What is a wholesaler's role?
Show answer

A licensed distributor that supplies drugs to pharmacies; the DSCSA tracks products through them.

OTC vs legend drug
Show answer

OTC = available without a prescription; legend (Rx-only) requires a prescription (Durham-Humphrey).

Behind-the-counter (BTC)
Show answer

OTC products kept behind the counter requiring a sale interaction (e.g. pseudoephedrine).

Patient Safety and Quality Assurance (38)

What is a high-alert medication?
Show answer

A drug that carries a heightened risk of significant patient harm if used in error — e.g. insulin, heparin, opioids, chemotherapy.

ISMP do-not-use: 'U'
Show answer

Write out 'unit' — 'U' can be misread as 0, 4, or cc, causing overdose (especially insulin).

ISMP do-not-use: trailing zero
Show answer

Never write 1.0 mg (can be read as 10). Do use a leading zero: 0.5 mg, never .5 mg.

ISMP do-not-use: 'MS / MSO4 / MgSO4'
Show answer

Ambiguous (morphine vs magnesium sulfate). Write the full drug name.

Tall man lettering
Show answer

Mixed-case lettering to distinguish look-alike names, e.g. predniSONE vs prednisoLONE, hydrOXYzine vs hydrALAZINE.

What are 'the five rights' of medication?
Show answer

Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time.

What is a 'near miss'?
Show answer

An error caught and corrected before it reaches the patient.

What is a sentinel event?
Show answer

An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical/psychological injury, requiring immediate investigation.

What is root cause analysis (RCA)?
Show answer

A retrospective process that identifies the underlying cause(s) of an error to prevent recurrence.

What is FMEA?
Show answer

Failure Mode and Effects Analysis — a PROACTIVE method that anticipates how a process could fail before harm occurs.

What is a black box warning?
Show answer

The FDA's strongest warning, on the label, alerting to serious or life-threatening risks.

What is medication reconciliation?
Show answer

Comparing a patient's current medication list against new orders at care transitions to avoid errors and omissions.

What is therapeutic duplication?
Show answer

Two drugs from the same class (or with the same effect) prescribed together, raising overdose/side-effect risk.

LASA drugs
Show answer

Look-Alike/Sound-Alike medications (e.g. hydralazine/hydroxyzine) — a leading source of errors; use tall man lettering and barcodes.

What is an ISMP?
Show answer

Institute for Safe Medication Practices — a nonprofit that publishes high-alert and confused-name lists and error-prevention guidance.

USP <797>
Show answer

Standard for sterile compounding (preventing contamination of injectables, IVs).

USP <800>
Show answer

Standard for safe handling of HAZARDOUS drugs to protect workers and the environment.

USP <795>
Show answer

Standard for NON-sterile compounding (oral, topical preparations).

Laminar airflow hood: clean-to-dirty
Show answer

Work at least 6 inches inside; never block (shadow) airflow between the HEPA filter and the sterile object.

Horizontal vs vertical flow hood
Show answer

Horizontal LAFW protects the PRODUCT (non-hazardous sterile). Vertical/BSC protects the WORKER (hazardous drugs).

PPE for hazardous drugs
Show answer

Chemo-rated gloves (often double), gown, and respiratory/eye protection per USP <800>; compound in a containment device.

Sharps disposal rule
Show answer

Never recap needles by hand; drop them point-first into a puncture-proof sharps container (OSHA).

What is a recall: Class I / II / III?
Show answer

Class I = reasonable probability of serious harm or death; Class II = temporary/reversible harm; Class III = unlikely to cause harm.

What is a barcode (BCMA) scan for?
Show answer

Verifying the right drug/dose at dispensing and bedside to prevent the wrong-drug error.

What does a pharmacy tech do for an allergy alert?
Show answer

Stop and flag it for the pharmacist — the technician does not override clinical alerts.

Beers Criteria
Show answer

A list of potentially inappropriate medications in older adults (e.g. avoiding certain sedatives/anticholinergics).

Counseling: who may counsel?
Show answer

Only the pharmacist may counsel on a new prescription; the technician facilitates the offer (OBRA-90).

What does a technician NOT do?
Show answer

Counsel patients clinically, make therapeutic decisions, perform the final verification, or override clinical alerts.

Two patient identifiers
Show answer

Verify at least two identifiers (e.g. full name and date of birth) before dispensing — never the room number.

Hand hygiene importance
Show answer

The single most effective measure to prevent the spread of infection in the pharmacy/healthcare setting.

Hazardous drug spill kit
Show answer

Used to contain and clean a hazardous-drug spill per USP <800>; includes PPE, absorbent pads, and disposal bags.

Quarantine of recalled stock
Show answer

Physically separate recalled/expired drugs from usable stock and label clearly to prevent dispensing.

What is a P&T committee?
Show answer

Pharmacy and Therapeutics committee — decides the formulary and medication-use policy in a hospital/health plan.

Smart pump
Show answer

An IV infusion pump with a dose-error-reduction software library to catch programming errors.

Independent double check
Show answer

A second qualified person independently verifies a high-alert preparation (e.g. insulin, chemo, pediatric doses).

Who counsels on OTC vs Rx?
Show answer

The pharmacist provides clinical counseling; technicians may direct customers and answer non-clinical questions.

Look-alike packaging risk
Show answer

Similar vials/boxes cause selection errors — separate storage, barcodes, and alerts reduce the risk.

Leading vs trailing zero (recap)
Show answer

Use a leading zero (0.5 mg). Never use a trailing zero (write 5 mg, not 5.0 mg) — prevents 10-fold errors.

Order Entry and Processing (69)

Route abbreviation: PO
Show answer

By mouth (orally).

Route abbreviation: IV / IM / SubQ
Show answer

IV = intravenous; IM = intramuscular; SubQ/SC = subcutaneous.

Route abbreviation: SL / PR
Show answer

SL = sublingual (under the tongue); PR = per rectum.

Frequency: QD / BID / TID / QID
Show answer

Once, twice, three times, four times daily. (QD/QOD are on the ISMP do-not-use list — write 'daily'.)

Frequency: QH / Q4H / PRN
Show answer

QH = every hour; Q4H = every 4 hours; PRN = as needed.

Timing: AC / PC / HS
Show answer

AC = before meals; PC = after meals; HS = at bedtime.

Abbreviation: gtt / ung / supp
Show answer

gtt = drop(s); ung = ointment; supp = suppository.

Abbreviation: stat / NPO
Show answer

stat = immediately; NPO = nothing by mouth.

Sig: 'i tab PO BID'
Show answer

Take one tablet by mouth twice a day.

Sig: 'ii gtts OU QID'
Show answer

Instill two drops in both eyes four times a day. (OD = right eye, OS = left eye, OU = both eyes.)

What is an NDC number?
Show answer

National Drug Code — a 10- or 11-digit number identifying the labeler, product, and package size of a drug.

What is a DUR / DUE?
Show answer

Drug Utilization Review — a check (often automated) for interactions, duplications, dose problems, and allergies during processing.

What is an auxiliary label?
Show answer

A supplemental warning/instruction label on a dispensed prescription (e.g. 'Take with food', 'May cause drowsiness').

What is prior authorization?
Show answer

Insurer approval required before a drug is covered; the pharmacy/prescriber submits clinical justification.

Days' supply: 30 tablets, take 1 BID
Show answer

Take 2 per day → 30 ÷ 2 = 15 days' supply.

Days' supply for eye drops
Show answer

Use ~20 drops per mL; divide total drops by drops used per day. (Account for both eyes and doses per day.)

Days' supply for an inhaler
Show answer

Total actuations (puffs) ÷ puffs used per day. (Albuterol HFA = 200 actuations.)

Days' supply for insulin
Show answer

Total units in the vial/pen(s) ÷ units used per day. (A 10 mL U-100 vial = 1000 units.)

What is compounding?
Show answer

Preparing a customized medication by combining/altering ingredients for an individual patient when a commercial product won't work.

Trituration
Show answer

Reducing a substance to a fine powder by grinding, often with a mortar and pestle.

Geometric dilution
Show answer

Mixing a small amount of potent drug with an equal amount of diluent, then doubling repeatedly — ensures uniform distribution.

Levigation
Show answer

Adding a small amount of liquid (levigating agent) to a powder to make a smooth paste and reduce particle size.

Reconstitution
Show answer

Adding a specified volume of diluent (often sterile water) to a powdered drug to make a solution/suspension just before dispensing.

Beyond-use date (BUD)
Show answer

The date after which a compounded or repackaged product should not be used — based on USP, not the manufacturer's expiration date.

Expiration date vs BUD
Show answer

Expiration = manufacturer's date on the original container. BUD = assigned to compounded/repackaged products (usually shorter).

Unit-dose vs bulk
Show answer

Unit-dose = a single packaged dose (common in hospitals). Bulk/multi-dose = larger stock containers.

What is a formulary?
Show answer

An approved list of medications (often with preferred/tiered choices) a health plan or facility will cover or stock.

Therapeutic substitution
Show answer

Dispensing a different drug in the same class than prescribed — requires prescriber/protocol approval (unlike generic substitution).

Generic substitution
Show answer

Dispensing an AB-rated generic for the brand; allowed unless 'dispense as written' (DAW) is specified.

DAW 1 vs DAW 0
Show answer

DAW 0 = substitution allowed (no restriction). DAW 1 = prescriber requires brand ('dispense as written').

What is adjudication?
Show answer

The real-time electronic claim process where the insurer approves the prescription and returns the patient's copay.

BIN / PCN
Show answer

Insurance routing numbers on the card: BIN (Bank Identification Number) and PCN (Processor Control Number) direct the claim.

What is a copay?
Show answer

The fixed amount a patient pays for a covered prescription; the plan pays the rest.

Rejected claim: 'refill too soon'
Show answer

The plan won't pay because too much supply remains; the patient may wait or pay cash.

NDC mismatch / wrong NDC
Show answer

A claim or dispense error where the billed NDC doesn't match the product dispensed — correct before dispensing.

What is a 340B program?
Show answer

A federal drug-pricing program that lets eligible safety-net providers buy outpatient drugs at reduced prices.

DUR rejection at point of sale
Show answer

An online edit flags an interaction/duplication/early refill; the technician routes it to the pharmacist to resolve.

Order entry: what does the tech verify first?
Show answer

That the prescription is complete and valid — patient info, drug, strength, quantity, directions, prescriber, and date.

Why split a tablet?
Show answer

Cost or dose flexibility — but only scored/film-coated immediate-release tablets; never split extended-release or enteric-coated.

Roman numeral: V, X, L, C
Show answer

V = 5, X = 10, L = 50, C = 100. (I = 1.)

Sig: 'gr' unit
Show answer

Grain — an apothecary unit; 1 grain ≈ 65 mg (often rounded to 60 mg).

Conversion: 1 kg / 1 lb
Show answer

1 kg = 2.2 lb; 1 lb = 16 oz. Convert pounds to kg by dividing by 2.2.

Conversion: 1 tsp / 1 tbsp
Show answer

1 teaspoon = 5 mL; 1 tablespoon = 15 mL.

Conversion: 1 fluid ounce / 1 pint
Show answer

1 fl oz = 30 mL; 1 pint = 480 mL; 1 gallon = 3840 mL.

Conversion: 1 inch / 1 mL
Show answer

1 inch = 2.54 cm. 1 mL = 1 cc.

Percent strength meaning
Show answer

% w/v = grams of drug per 100 mL; % w/w = grams per 100 g; % v/v = mL per 100 mL.

Ratio strength 1:1000
Show answer

1 gram of drug in 1000 mL (or g) → 1 mg/mL. (Epinephrine 1:1000 = 1 mg/mL.)

Alligation use
Show answer

Calculates how to mix two strengths (high and low) to make a desired in-between concentration.

Flow rate (mL/hr) basics
Show answer

mL/hr = total volume ÷ infusion time (hours). Drops/min = (volume × drop factor) ÷ time in minutes.

Dimensional analysis
Show answer

A calculation method that cancels units step by step to reach the desired unit — reduces dosing errors.

Body surface area (BSA) dosing
Show answer

Used mainly for chemotherapy — dose per square meter (mg/m²); BSA from height and weight.

Specific gravity
Show answer

The ratio of a substance's weight to the weight of an equal volume of water; water = 1. Used to convert weight and volume.

Storage: refrigerator range
Show answer

About 2–8 °C (36–46 °F).

Storage: controlled room temperature
Show answer

About 20–25 °C (68–77 °F).

Storage: freezer range
Show answer

About −25 to −10 °C (−13 to 14 °F).

What is repackaging?
Show answer

Moving a drug from a bulk container into unit-dose or smaller packages — assign a BUD and label fully.

What is a PAR level?
Show answer

Periodic Automatic Replenishment level — the minimum stock that triggers reordering for inventory control.

FEFO inventory rule
Show answer

First Expired, First Out — stock the shortest-dated product to be used first to minimize waste.

What is an automated dispensing cabinet (ADC)?
Show answer

A computerized cabinet (e.g. Pyxis/Omnicell) that stores and tracks medications on nursing units.

What is an MAR?
Show answer

Medication Administration Record — documents each dose given to an inpatient.

What is e-prescribing (eRx)?
Show answer

Electronic transmission of a prescription from prescriber to pharmacy; EPCS covers controlled substances.

What is a drug monograph?
Show answer

A standardized reference summarizing a drug's uses, dosing, interactions, and warnings.

Suspension vs solution
Show answer

A suspension has undissolved particles (shake well); a solution is fully dissolved (clear).

Enteric coating purpose
Show answer

Protects the drug from stomach acid (or the stomach from the drug); do not crush — it bypasses the stomach.

Extended-release (ER/XR/SR) caution
Show answer

Do not crush or split — it releases the full dose at once (overdose risk).

Buccal vs sublingual
Show answer

Buccal = dissolved between cheek and gum; sublingual = under the tongue. Both bypass first-pass metabolism.

Transdermal patch
Show answer

Delivers drug through the skin over time (e.g. fentanyl, nicotine); rotate sites and remove the old patch.

Compounding vs manufacturing
Show answer

Compounding is patient-specific; manufacturing makes large commercial batches (FDA-regulated differently).

503A vs 503B facility
Show answer

503A = traditional patient-specific compounding pharmacy; 503B = an FDA-registered outsourcing facility making larger batches.

References

  1. 1.Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB). “PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026).” PTCB.org. ↑
  2. 2.U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA). “Drug Scheduling (Controlled Substances Act).” DEA.gov. ↑
  3. 3.Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP). “High-Alert Medications & Error-Prone Abbreviations.” ISMP.org. ↑
  4. 4.National Institutes of Health / National Library of Medicine. “StatPearls & DailyMed (drug classes, calculations, stability).” NIH/NLM. ↑
Career Employer

Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.

Follow Us:

All Posts

Career Employer’s Editorial Process

Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.