Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — 100+ Med-Surg (CMSRN) cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the MSNCB blueprint, so you study exactly what the exam measures.[1]
Pair them with our free practice test and study guide. Want extra insurance for exam day? Capital Prep’s Med-Surg premium study materials come with a Med-Surg exam pass guarantee: your money back if you don’t pass, plus up to $315 toward your retake fee — and Career Employer students get a special discount.
Med-Surg Flashcard Study Modes
Flip mode is for first passes: read Atelectasis, recall the definition, move on. Type mode hands you a definition and asks you to produce the term, so a card like Digoxin toxicity has to come from memory rather than recognition. Match mode times you pairing terms with definitions, and Quiz mode builds multiple choice questions from the same 128 cards.

Why Flashcards Work for the Med-Surg Exam
Clinical Med-Surg by Body System is the largest domain at 35 cards, and it carries the bedside content: anticoagulants such as Heparin and Warfarin, respiratory findings like Flail chest, and complications you have to catch early, including Neutropenic fever. Cards such as ROME (acid-base) and Pancreatitis push you toward interpretation rather than pure recall, so treat this block as the backbone of your review.
Patient/Care Management holds 28 cards covering credentialing, safety tools, and process. You get the card that asks about CMSRN and the one on MSNCB alongside risk-assessment and reporting language such as Braden Scale and Sentinel event. Restraint rules, Universal Protocol, and Refeeding syndrome round out the mix, so expect a blend of policy definitions and clinical monitoring terms in one place.
Professional Concepts runs 19 cards and drills the vocabulary behind practice: regulatory terms like HIPAA and EMTALA, ethical principles including Veracity and Autonomy, and inquiry frameworks such as PICOT. Nursing Teamwork & Collaboration adds 18 cards on how work gets distributed and escalated, with SBAR, LPN/LVN scope, and Chain of command as representative fronts.
Holistic Patient Care contributes 15 cards on goals of care and teaching, from Advance directive and Hospice care to the Teach-back method and Health literacy. Elements of Interprofessional Care closes the deck with 13 cards on structured communication and system safeguards, including CUS words, Two-challenge rule, and Medication reconciliation. These two domains are small but dense, and the terms show up in scenario wording more often than as straight definitions.
That matters for the Med-Surg exam, which rewards instant recall of the five rights of delegation, isolation precautions, electrolyte values, and drug antidotes. Used alongside our practice test and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.[4]
Med-Surg Flashcards by Domain
The cards are organized by the five MSNCB domains and the clinical content tested within them. Spend the most time on Patient/Care Management and Teamwork & Collaboration, which together are more than half the exam:[1]
| Domain | What the cards cover |
|---|---|
| Patient/Care Management | Safety, precautions, high-alert meds, IV potassium, pain, surgical care |
| Clinical Med-Surg by Body System | Cardiac, respiratory, GI/renal, neuro, electrolytes, sepsis, anticoagulants |
| Holistic Patient Care | Patient-centered care, interpreters, teach-back, advance directives, end-of-life |
| Elements of Interprofessional Care | Nursing process, clinical judgment, SBAR, med reconciliation, documentation |
| Professional Concepts | Ethics, advocacy, HIPAA/EMTALA, quality, evidence-based practice |
| Nursing Teamwork & Collaboration | Delegation, RN/LPN/UAP scope, escalation, leadership, conflict |
How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards
- Start with the body systems. Clinical Med-Surg by Body System is the biggest block at 35 cards, and its drug and acid-base content takes the most repetitions before it holds.
- Type-drill the look-alikes. Heparin and Warfarin blur together under time pressure, and Digoxin toxicity rewards exact recall, so force yourself to produce those terms instead of recognizing them.
- Let Match handle the acronyms. Short fronts such as SBAR, TeamSTEPPS, and CMSRN pair quickly, and the timer exposes which credential and communication abbreviations you only half know.
- Move to the practice test early enough. Once Flip and Quiz stop surprising you across two or three domains, take practice questions and use the study guide for whatever the results expose.
- Keep the cadence small. Work one or two domains per sitting across the 128 cards, then reshuffle missed items from Professional Concepts and Holistic Patient Care into the next round.
Med-Surg Flashcards FAQ
Over 100 free Med-Surg (CMSRN) flashcards, organized across the exam's five domains — Patient/Care Management, Holistic Patient Care, Elements of Interprofessional Care, Professional Concepts, and Nursing Teamwork and Collaboration, plus a clinical body-systems deck. They're free with no account required.
Yes. Flashcards use active recall — retrieving an answer from memory — which research shows is one of the most effective ways to make information stick, especially for the delegation rules, isolation precautions, electrolyte values, antidotes, and drug facts the Med-Surg exam tests.
All five MSNCB domains and the clinical content tested within them: the five rights of delegation, transmission-based precautions, high-alert medications, electrolyte imbalances, post-op complications, sepsis, DKA, anticoagulants, advance directives, ethics, and SBAR communication.
Mix the modes: flip to learn, type to test recall, match for speed, and quiz to check yourself. Drill delegation, precautions, and electrolytes until they're automatic, and use the daily review to revisit the cards you previously missed.
They cover the same exam — "Med-Surg certification" is the everyday name for the CMSRN. If you prefer to study under the CMSRN name, we also maintain a dedicated CMSRN flashcard set in the nursing section.
Yes — 100% free, all four study modes, no paywall.
Med-Surg Certification flashcard bank
All 128 cards, by topic
A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.
Patient/Care Management (28)
- CMSRN
Show answerHide answer
Certified Medical-Surgical Registered Nurse — the most widely held med-surg credential, awarded by the MSNCB to RNs who pass the medical-surgical nursing certification exam.
- MSNCB
Show answerHide answer
Medical-Surgical Nursing Certification Board — the credentialing arm of the Academy of Medical-Surgical Nurses (AMSN), which owns the CMSRN exam.
- Five rights of medication administration
Show answerHide answer
Right patient (two identifiers), right drug, right dose, right route, and right time — expanded sets add documentation, reason, response, education, and the right to refuse.
- High-alert medication
Show answerHide answer
A drug with a heightened risk of serious harm if given in error (insulin, anticoagulants, opioids, concentrated electrolytes); requires an independent double-check.
- IV potassium chloride administration
Show answerHide answer
Always diluted and infused slowly by pump (≤10 mEq/hr peripherally) with cardiac monitoring — NEVER given IV push and never undiluted, because a rapid bolus can be fatal.
- Standard precautions
Show answerHide answer
Infection control applied to every patient at all times; treat all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious. Hand hygiene is the single most important measure.
- Contact precautions
Show answerHide answer
Gown and gloves and dedicated equipment for organisms spread by touch — MRSA, VRE, C. difficile, RSV, and scabies.
- Droplet precautions
Show answerHide answer
A surgical mask within about 6 feet for organisms spread by respiratory droplets — influenza, pertussis, and meningococcus.
- Airborne precautions
Show answerHide answer
An N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room with the door closed for airborne organisms — tuberculosis, measles, and varicella.
- C. difficile hand hygiene
Show answerHide answer
Use soap and water (and bleach cleaning), not alcohol-based rub — alcohol does not kill C. difficile or norovirus spores.
- Restraint rules
Show answerHide answer
A last resort after least-restrictive alternatives fail; requires a provider order (never PRN), is time-limited and monitored, and is tied with quick-release knots to the movable bed frame.
- Sentinel event
Show answerHide answer
A patient-safety event causing death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm; it triggers a root cause analysis.
- Just culture
Show answerHide answer
A safety culture that distinguishes honest human error from at-risk and reckless behavior, encouraging non-punitive reporting of errors and near-misses.
- Root cause analysis (RCA)
Show answerHide answer
A reactive, retrospective method used after an adverse event to find the underlying system causes — 'why did this happen?'
- Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
Show answerHide answer
A proactive method used before a process launches to identify and reduce risk — 'what could go wrong?'
- Braden Scale
Show answerHide answer
A validated tool that predicts pressure-injury risk by scoring sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction/shear.
- Unstageable pressure injury
Show answerHide answer
An injury whose base is obscured by slough or eschar, so its depth — and therefore its stage — cannot be determined until the wound bed is exposed.
- Multimodal analgesia
Show answerHide answer
Combining analgesics with different mechanisms (a non-opioid plus an opioid plus an adjuvant) to maximize relief and lower the opioid dose.
- Opioid safety: sedation vs respiratory depression
Show answerHide answer
Sedation precedes respiratory depression — monitor sedation level and respiratory rate; naloxone is titrated to respirations.
- Universal Protocol
Show answerHide answer
The Joint Commission process to prevent wrong-site surgery: pre-procedure verification, site marking, and a time-out before incision.
- Nurse's role in informed consent
Show answerHide answer
The provider explains the procedure and obtains consent; the nurse witnesses the signature, confirms understanding, and verifies it is voluntary.
- Evisceration first action
Show answerHide answer
Cover the protruding viscera with sterile saline-soaked gauze, position low-Fowler's with knees flexed, keep NPO, and notify the surgeon — never push the organs back in.
- Post-op urinary retention
Show answerHide answer
Bladder-scan first to confirm distension before catheterizing; perform intermittent catheterization if needed.
- Enteral tube placement verification
Show answerHide answer
An X-ray is the gold standard before first use of a blind tube; keep the head of the bed at 30–45°. Auscultating an air 'whoosh' does NOT verify placement.
- Refeeding syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Dangerous drops in phosphate, potassium, and magnesium when nutrition is reintroduced to a severely malnourished patient; start low, go slow, replace electrolytes, give thiamine.
- Two patient identifiers
Show answerHide answer
Verifying a patient with two pieces of identifying information (name plus date of birth or MRN) before any med, procedure, specimen, or transfusion — never the room number.
- Dysphagia precaution before oral intake
Show answerHide answer
In a stroke or neuro patient, screen for dysphagia and keep NPO until the swallow screen passes to prevent aspiration.
- Falls prevention after a fall
Show answerHide answer
Assess the patient for injury FIRST, then notify the provider, document objectively, and file an incident report (never charted in the medical record).
Clinical Med-Surg by Body System (35)
- Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) priorities
Show answerHide answer
Obtain a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes; troponin is the most specific marker; a STEMI needs door-to-balloon PCI within 90 minutes.
- When to hold nitroglycerin
Show answerHide answer
Hold nitro if systolic BP is below 90, in right-ventricular/inferior MI, or with a PDE-5 inhibitor (e.g., sildenafil) in the past 24–48 hours.
- Left-sided vs right-sided heart failure
Show answerHide answer
Left-sided = pulmonary congestion (crackles, orthopnea, dyspnea); right-sided = systemic congestion (jugular venous distention, peripheral edema, ascites).
- Heart failure key teaching
Show answerHide answer
Daily weights at the same time — report a gain over 2–3 lb in a day or 5 lb in a week; restrict sodium and fluids as ordered.
- Digoxin toxicity
Show answerHide answer
Worsened by hypokalemia; shows nausea, yellow-green halos, and bradycardia. Hold for an apical pulse below 60; antidote is digoxin immune Fab.
- COPD oxygen target
Show answerHide answer
Titrate oxygen to an SpO2 of about 88–92% to avoid suppressing the hypoxic drive; teach pursed-lip and diaphragmatic breathing.
- Silent chest in asthma
Show answerHide answer
A silent chest with diminishing wheezing signals impending respiratory failure — an ominous emergency sign.
- Chest tube continuous bubbling
Show answerHide answer
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber means an air leak; expect intermittent tidaling with respiration as normal.
- Dislodged chest tube
Show answerHide answer
If the tube is pulled out, cover the site with an occlusive dressing taped on three sides; if it disconnects, submerge the end in sterile water.
- Tension pneumothorax
Show answerHide answer
Tracheal deviation away from the affected side, absent breath sounds, and hypotension — needs immediate needle decompression.
- ROME (acid-base)
Show answerHide answer
Respiratory Opposite (pH and CO2 move opposite ways), Metabolic Equal (pH and bicarbonate move the same way).
- Pancreatitis
Show answerHide answer
Epigastric pain radiating to the back with elevated lipase (more specific than amylase); keep NPO to rest the pancreas.
- AV fistula protection
Show answerHide answer
No blood pressure or venipuncture in the fistula arm; check the thrill (palpate) and bruit (auscultate) to confirm patency.
- Most life-threatening AKI complication
Show answerHide answer
Hyperkalemia is the most life-threatening complication of acute kidney injury and chronic kidney disease.
- DKA management order
Show answerHide answer
IV isotonic fluids first, then a continuous regular-insulin infusion, with potassium replacement (hold insulin if K is below 3.3); add dextrose at glucose ~200 mg/dL.
- Rapid-acting insulin (lispro, aspart)
Show answerHide answer
Onset ~15 min, peak ~1 hour, duration 3–5 hours — give with food.
- Regular (short-acting) insulin
Show answerHide answer
Onset ~30 min, peak 2–3 hours, duration 5–8 hours; it is the ONLY insulin that can be given IV.
- Long-acting insulin (glargine, detemir)
Show answerHide answer
Onset 1–2 hours, no pronounced peak, duration up to 24 hours; do not mix with other insulins.
- Mixing regular and NPH insulin
Show answerHide answer
Draw up the clear (regular) before the cloudy (NPH) — 'clear before cloudy.'
- Ischemic stroke first step
Show answerHide answer
An immediate non-contrast CT to rule out a hemorrhage before giving tPA; 'time is brain.'
- Earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure
Show answerHide answer
A change in level of consciousness is the earliest sign; Cushing's triad (hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respirations) is late and ominous.
- Increased ICP positioning
Show answerHide answer
Keep the head of the bed at about 30°, head midline, to promote venous drainage; avoid neck flexion and Valsalva.
- Compartment syndrome early sign
Show answerHide answer
Pain out of proportion and pain on passive stretch; do NOT elevate the limb above heart level — prepare for fasciotomy.
- Transfusion reaction first action
Show answerHide answer
STOP the transfusion immediately, keep the line open with normal saline through new tubing, then notify the provider and blood bank.
- Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
Show answerHide answer
Usually ABO incompatibility — the most dangerous reaction; fever, flank/back pain, dark urine, and hypotension within minutes.
- Hypokalemia ECG and signs
Show answerHide answer
Serum K below 3.5 mEq/L; flat T waves, U waves, muscle weakness, and worsened digoxin toxicity. Replace diluted by pump — never IV push.
- Hyperkalemia ECG and treatment order
Show answerHide answer
Serum K above 5.0; peaked T waves → widened QRS. Order: calcium gluconate (stabilize) → insulin + dextrose/albuterol (shift) → diuretics/resin/dialysis (remove).
- Hypocalcemia signs
Show answerHide answer
Positive Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs, tetany, and tingling; a positive Trousseau's sign (carpal spasm with BP cuff inflation) indicates hypocalcemia.
- Surviving Sepsis hour-1 bundle
Show answerHide answer
Measure lactate, draw blood cultures before antibiotics, give broad-spectrum antibiotics, start 30 mL/kg crystalloid, and add vasopressors (norepinephrine first) to keep MAP ≥ 65.
- Heparin
Show answerHide answer
High-alert anticoagulant monitored by aPTT; antidote is protamine sulfate. Watch platelets for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).
- Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Show answerHide answer
An immune platelet drop ~5–10 days into heparin therapy that paradoxically causes clotting; stop all heparin and switch to argatroban or bivalirudin.
- Warfarin
Show answerHide answer
Anticoagulant monitored by INR (target 2.0–3.0); antidote is vitamin K. Teach a consistent — not zero — vitamin-K intake.
- Atelectasis
Show answerHide answer
A common post-op complication (diminished breath sounds, low fever POD 1–2); prevent with incentive spirometry, early ambulation, and splinted coughing.
- Neutropenic fever
Show answerHide answer
An absolute neutrophil count below 500 with fever is an oncologic emergency requiring prompt broad-spectrum antibiotics and protective measures.
- Flail chest
Show answerHide answer
Paradoxical, asymmetrical chest-wall movement after blunt trauma from multiple adjacent rib fractures — a recognition clue for chest trauma.
Holistic Patient Care (15)
- Patient-centered care
Show answerHide answer
Care that respects and responds to individual patient preferences, needs, and values, with mutual, patient-driven goals; the patient is the locus of control.
- Responding to a patient complaint
Show answerHide answer
Listen and acknowledge feelings FIRST, then apologize for the experience, act to resolve it, and escalate or document — never defend the staff first.
- Qualified medical interpreter
Show answerHide answer
Required for any patient with limited English proficiency or who is deaf — never family, friends, children, or untrained staff, for accuracy, confidentiality, and legal reasons.
- Implicit bias
Show answerHide answer
Unconscious attitudes that can affect care; recognize it and assess each patient's actual cultural, religious, and linguistic needs rather than assuming them.
- Teach-back method
Show answerHide answer
Confirm understanding by having the patient explain the instructions in their own words; a nod to 'do you understand?' is not adequate evidence of learning.
- Readiness to learn
Show answerHide answer
Assess it first — manage pain or anxiety before teaching — and address barriers such as language, literacy, and sensory deficits.
- Spiritual care request
Show answerHide answer
Facilitate the chaplain or spiritual-care visit and incorporate the patient's spiritual needs into the plan of care; accommodate rituals with privacy.
- Advance directive
Show answerHide answer
A legal document stating a patient's treatment wishes or naming a decision-maker; it takes effect only when the patient loses decision-making capacity.
- Living will
Show answerHide answer
A written advance directive stating which treatments a person does or does not want under specific end-of-life conditions.
- Durable power of attorney for health care
Show answerHide answer
An advance directive naming a health care proxy to make medical decisions once the patient loses capacity; while capable, the patient's own wishes govern.
- Patient Self-Determination Act
Show answerHide answer
Requires hospitals to inform adult patients of their right to make health care decisions and to formulate an advance directive, and to document whether one exists.
- DNR (Do Not Resuscitate)
Show answerHide answer
An order that CPR will not be attempted; it does NOT mean 'do not treat' — comfort and other care continue.
- Palliative care
Show answerHide answer
Relieves symptoms and improves quality of life at any stage of serious illness; can run alongside curative treatment, with no prognosis requirement.
- Hospice care
Show answerHide answer
Comfort-focused care for a terminal prognosis of about six months or less; curative treatment is stopped. All hospice care is palliative, but not all palliative care is hospice.
- Health literacy
Show answerHide answer
A patient's ability to obtain and understand health information; use plain language at about a 5th–6th-grade level and confirm with teach-back.
Elements of Interprofessional Care (13)
- ADPIE (nursing process)
Show answerHide answer
Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation — a continuous cycle; assessment is always first and evaluation closes the loop.
- Clinical judgment model steps
Show answerHide answer
Recognize cues, analyze cues, prioritize hypotheses, generate solutions, take action, evaluate outcomes — the NCSBN framework for safe decision-making.
- First step with new patient data
Show answerHide answer
Recognize and analyze the cues — gather and interpret more data before acting — except in a true airway, breathing, or circulation emergency.
- TeamSTEPPS
Show answerHide answer
An AHRQ teamwork framework: leadership, situation monitoring, mutual support, and communication, used to improve safety and reduce errors.
- Two-challenge rule
Show answerHide answer
Voice a safety concern at least twice and escalate if it is not acknowledged — never stay silent and never follow an unsafe order.
- CUS words
Show answerHide answer
An escalation script: 'I'm Concerned, I'm Uncomfortable, this is a Safety issue' — a TeamSTEPPS tool to stop an unsafe action.
- Medication reconciliation
Show answerHide answer
Comparing a patient's current medications to new orders at every transition (admission, transfer, discharge) to catch omissions, duplications, and interactions.
- Discharge planning timing
Show answerHide answer
Begins on admission; integrate PT/OT for functional status and the safest destination, and screen social determinants to prevent readmission.
- Documentation correction (paper)
Show answerHide answer
Draw a single line through the error, label it 'error,' and add your date, time, and initials — never erase or obscure the original entry.
- Incident report charting
Show answerHide answer
Never chart in the medical record that an incident report was filed; the report is a separate risk-management document.
- EHR downtime procedure
Show answerHide answer
Initiate the facility's downtime procedures, document care on paper forms, and enter it into the EHR once systems return.
- Alarm fatigue
Show answerHide answer
Desensitization from frequent alarms; manage it with appropriate, individualized alarm settings — never by silencing or disabling safety alarms.
- Social determinants of health
Show answerHide answer
Conditions such as housing, food security, transportation, and income that affect a patient's ability to follow the plan and must inform discharge and resource planning.
Professional Concepts (19)
- ANA Code of Ethics
Show answerHide answer
The nursing profession's nonnegotiable ethical standard, organized into nine provisions with interpretive statements.
- Autonomy
Show answerHide answer
The ethical principle of respecting a patient's right to self-determination; a competent patient's informed refusal is honored even over beneficence.
- Beneficence
Show answerHide answer
The ethical principle of acting in the patient's best interest — doing good.
- Nonmaleficence
Show answerHide answer
The ethical principle of 'do no harm,' including avoiding undue risk and reporting unsafe practice.
- Veracity
Show answerHide answer
The ethical principle of truth-telling, including honest disclosure of an error to the patient.
- Justice
Show answerHide answer
The ethical principle of fairness and equitable distribution of resources — equal care regardless of ability to pay.
- Fidelity
Show answerHide answer
The ethical principle of keeping promises and being loyal — following through on what you told the patient.
- Patient advocacy
Show answerHide answer
Acting to protect and promote a patient's rights, values, and best interests within the health care system.
- HIPAA
Show answerHide answer
The federal law protecting the privacy and security of patient health information; PHI may be used for treatment, payment, and operations on a minimum-necessary basis.
- EMTALA
Show answerHide answer
The federal law requiring an emergency medical screening exam and stabilization regardless of ability to pay.
- Scope of practice
Show answerHide answer
Defined by the state Nurse Practice Act and Board of Nursing; the nursing process and nursing judgment cannot be delegated.
- Mandatory reporter
Show answerHide answer
The nurse must report a reasonable suspicion of abuse or neglect to the proper authority — even without proof, as required by law.
- Nursing-sensitive indicators
Show answerHide answer
Outcomes shaped by nursing care — falls, pressure injuries, CAUTI, and CLABSI rates — benchmarked through the NDNQI.
- PDSA cycle
Show answerHide answer
Plan-Do-Study-Act — an iterative, small-cycle quality-improvement method to test a change before spreading it.
- Evidence-based practice (EBP)
Show answerHide answer
Integrating the best available evidence with clinical expertise and patient values to guide care; framed with a PICO(T) question.
- PICOT
Show answerHide answer
Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, Time — the framework for an answerable evidence-based-practice question.
- Strongest level of evidence
Show answerHide answer
A systematic review or meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials is the highest level of evidence.
- EBP vs research vs quality improvement
Show answerHide answer
Research generates new generalizable knowledge, EBP applies existing evidence, and quality improvement refines a local process.
- Informed consent in research
Show answerHide answer
Human-subjects research requires voluntary informed consent from participants and Institutional Review Board (IRB) review and approval.
Nursing Teamwork & Collaboration (18)
- Delegation
Show answerHide answer
Transferring the authority to perform a task while the RN retains accountability for the outcome.
- Five rights of delegation
Show answerHide answer
Right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction/communication, and right supervision/evaluation.
- Tasks the RN never delegates
Show answerHide answer
Assessment, nursing diagnosis, planning, evaluation, the initial teaching, triage, and the care of an unstable patient — they require nursing judgment.
- UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel)
Show answerHide answer
May perform ADLs, vital signs on stable patients, intake and output, daily weights, transfers, and routine specimen collection — never anything requiring judgment.
- Assignment vs delegation
Show answerHide answer
Assignment shifts tasks already within a person's existing job role; delegation transfers a specific task normally within the RN's scope while the RN keeps accountability.
- LPN/LVN scope
Show answerHide answer
Reinforces teaching the RN started, cares for stable patients, gives most routine meds (state-dependent), and does dressing changes — not the initial assessment, care plan, or unstable patient.
- Delegating aspiration-risk feeding
Show answerHide answer
Feeding a patient at risk for aspiration stays with the nurse — it requires ongoing assessment and judgment and is not delegated to a UAP.
- Supervision (the right supervision)
Show answerHide answer
Monitor, stay available, intervene as needed, follow up to confirm the task was done correctly, and evaluate the patient's response.
- SBAR
Show answerHide answer
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation — a structured handoff and escalation format so nothing critical is omitted.
- SBAR 'Recommendation'
Show answerHide answer
The clear request or action you need — e.g., 'I think the patient needs to be evaluated now and a 12-lead ECG ordered.'
- Closed-loop communication
Show answerHide answer
A check-back in which the receiver repeats the message and the sender confirms it; used for verbal orders and critical values.
- Chain of command
Show answerHide answer
The hierarchy for escalating an unresolved patient-safety concern; keep escalating up until the patient is safe.
- Rapid response team
Show answerHide answer
A bedside team summoned for a deteriorating, non-arrest patient to prevent a code; a 'nurse is worried' gut feeling is a valid trigger.
- Transformational leadership
Show answerHide answer
A style that inspires and motivates change through a shared vision; the Magnet-preferred style (autocratic is appropriate only in a true emergency).
- Conflict resolution
Show answerHide answer
Address the conflict directly and collaboratively, focused on the shared goal of patient safety, rather than avoiding it or going around the person.
- Mentor vs coach vs preceptor
Show answerHide answer
A mentor guides long-term career growth, a coach builds a specific skill, and a preceptor guides the clinical orientation of a new nurse.
- Safety huddle
Show answerHide answer
A brief team stand-up to establish a shared mental model of the unit's plan and proactively identify safety risks.
- Team nursing
Show answerHide answer
The most common med-surg care-delivery model, in which an RN leads a team (LPNs/LVNs and UAPs) caring for a group of patients.
References
- 1.Medical-Surgical Nursing Certification Board (MSNCB). “CMSRN Certification — Exam Content and Eligibility.” MSNCB. ↑
- 2.National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN). “National Guidelines for Nursing Delegation (Five Rights of Delegation).” NCSBN. ↑
- 3.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). “Transmission-Based Precautions.” CDC. ↑
- 4.Institute of Education Sciences (U.S. Dept. of Education). “Organizing Instruction and Study to Improve Student Learning (Practice Guide).” What Works Clearinghouse, IES. ↑

Career Employer
Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.
All PostsCareer Employer’s Editorial Process
Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.
