Career Employer

Your FREE FNP Flashcards 2026 – 300+ Cards

Realistic FNP flashcards for the FNP-BC and AANP exams — flip, match, type, and quiz yourself across all five nursing-process domains.

How well do you know them?

To find us again, just search “Career Employer FNP”

By

Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of FNP cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the five nursing-process domains shared by the ANCC FNP-BC and AANP exams and written at advanced-practice depth, so you study exactly what the certification exam tests.[1] Pair them with our free practice test and study guide.

FNP Flashcard Study Modes

Flip mode lets you turn cards one at a time and rate what stuck. Match is a timed game that pairs terms with definitions under pressure. Type shows the definition and asks you to produce the term, so a prompt for OLDCARTS has to come back exactly. Quiz builds multiple-choice items from the same cards, mixing domains the way the exam does.

Free FNP flashcards from Career Employer — active recall for the ANCC FNP-BC and AANP family nurse practitioner exams

Why Flashcards Work for the FNP Exam

Implementation is the largest section of the deck at 87 cards and the heaviest slice of the exam at 29 percent, so it is where the terminology load is deepest. The cards drill interventions, patient safety language, and the legal and ethical vocabulary that surrounds care delivery, from HIV PrEP and Informed consent to Just culture, Sentinel event, and HIPAA exceptions. Screening and communication content sits here too, including Autism screening and Health literacy.

Assessment holds 58 cards and 19 percent of the exam. These are the data-gathering terms: structured history taking with OLDCARTS, functional status with ADLs and IADLs, cognitive screening with Mini-Cog, and the physical exam findings you have to name on hearing a description, such as Wheezes, Rhonchi, and Egophony.

Planning also carries 19 percent and 57 cards, covering treatment selection, prescribing guardrails, and prevention. Expect goal-setting and target language like SMART goals and A1c goal, prescribing references such as Beers Criteria and Allopurinol, and preventive and chronic-care content including HPV vaccine, LARC, and GERD management.

Diagnosis brings 53 cards and 17 percent, concentrating on clinical decision rules and the interpretation of common labs. Wells criteria and CURB-65 sit alongside D-dimer use, Troponin, and Anion gap, with diagnostic criteria cards such as GAD diagnosis and Mononucleosis rounding out the set.

Evaluation closes the deck with 46 cards and 15 percent, focused on what happens after the plan is in place. The cards cover monitoring intervals and response checks, including Warfarin INR follow-up, Statin response check, and Abnormal Pap follow-up, plus the process language of Outcome evaluation and Care plan revision.

That matters on the FNP exam, where primary-care facts like first-line drugs, screening ages, and diagnostic cutoffs must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice test and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.

FNP Flashcards by Topic

The cards are organized by the five nursing-process domains. On the ANCC FNP-BC, weight your study toward Implementation (29%) — the largest domain — and the diagnosis-and-planning cardiometabolic content, which is the highest-yield clinical material:[1]

FNP nursing-process domains and ANCC FNP-BC weighting
Nursing-process domainANCC weight
IV · Implementation29%
I · Assessment19%
III · Planning19%
II · Diagnosis17%
V · Evaluation15%

How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards

  • Start with Implementation. It is 87 cards and 29 percent of the exam, so early passes there return the most, especially the safety and ethics cards like Just culture and HIPAA exceptions.
  • Type-drill the precise terms. Recall, not recognition, is what fails under pressure, so run cards such as OLDCARTS and Beers Criteria in Type until you produce them without hesitation.
  • Use Match for the sound-alike sets. Exam findings pair well with speed, so run the Assessment lung sounds together and force quick separation of Wheezes, Rhonchi, and Stridor.
  • Move to the practice test once Quiz holds. When mixed-domain Quiz rounds stop surprising you, shift to the practice test and the study guide for full-length case reasoning.
  • Keep a steady cadence. With 301 cards, work one domain per session in Flip, close with Quiz on that domain, and reserve short Match rounds for the cards you missed.

FNP Flashcards FAQ

Hundreds of free FNP flashcards, organized across the five nursing-process domains shared by the ANCC FNP-BC and AANP exams — Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation. They're free with no account required.

FNP flashcard bank

All 301 cards, by topic

A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.

Assessment (58)

Nursing process — step 1
Show answer

Assessment: systematic collection of subjective and objective data (history, physical exam, screening, diagnostics).

Subjective vs objective data
Show answer

Subjective = what the patient reports (symptoms, history). Objective = measurable/observable findings (vital signs, exam, labs).

OLDCARTS
Show answer

Symptom history mnemonic: Onset, Location, Duration, Character, Aggravating, Relieving, Timing, Severity.

Aortic stenosis murmur
Show answer

Harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border (2nd intercostal space), radiating to the carotids.

Mitral regurgitation murmur
Show answer

Holosystolic (pansystolic) blowing murmur at the apex, radiating to the left axilla.

Aortic regurgitation murmur
Show answer

High-pitched, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur at the left sternal border, heard best leaning forward.

Mitral stenosis murmur
Show answer

Low-pitched diastolic rumble at the apex with an opening snap, best heard in the left lateral decubitus position.

S3 heart sound
Show answer

Early diastolic 'ventricular gallop'; suggests volume overload/heart failure in adults (can be normal in children and young adults).

S4 heart sound
Show answer

Late diastolic 'atrial gallop'; reflects a stiff, noncompliant ventricle (e.g., LVH, hypertension, ischemia).

Crackles (rales)
Show answer

Discontinuous popping lung sounds; suggest fluid in the alveoli (heart failure, pneumonia, pulmonary fibrosis).

Wheezes
Show answer

Continuous high-pitched musical sounds from narrowed airways; classic in asthma and COPD.

Rhonchi
Show answer

Low-pitched continuous sounds from secretions in larger airways; often clear with coughing.

Stridor
Show answer

High-pitched inspiratory sound indicating upper-airway obstruction (croup, epiglottitis, foreign body) — an emergency.

Egophony
Show answer

'E' to 'A' change on auscultation; sign of lung consolidation (e.g., pneumonia).

Murphy's sign
Show answer

Inspiratory arrest on RUQ palpation; suggests acute cholecystitis.

McBurney's point tenderness
Show answer

Tenderness 1/3 of the way from the ASIS to the umbilicus; suggests appendicitis.

Rovsing's sign
Show answer

RLQ pain elicited by palpating the LLQ; suggests appendicitis.

Homans' sign
Show answer

Calf pain on dorsiflexion; historically associated with DVT but unreliable — use Wells criteria and ultrasound instead.

Korotkoff sounds
Show answer

Sounds heard during BP measurement; phase I onset = systolic, phase V disappearance = diastolic pressure.

Orthostatic hypotension
Show answer

Drop of ≥20 mmHg systolic or ≥10 mmHg diastolic within 3 minutes of standing; assess for volume depletion or autonomic dysfunction.

Ankle-brachial index (ABI)
Show answer

Ankle SBP ÷ arm SBP; <0.90 indicates peripheral arterial disease; >1.40 suggests noncompressible (calcified) vessels.

Normal adult respiratory rate
Show answer

12–20 breaths per minute.

Normal adult heart rate
Show answer

60–100 beats per minute.

Social smile (milestone)
Show answer

Appears around 2 months of age.

Sits without support (milestone)
Show answer

Around 6 months of age.

Pulls to stand (milestone)
Show answer

Around 9 months of age.

Walks independently (milestone)
Show answer

Around 12 months (range 9–15 months).

Two-word phrases (milestone)
Show answer

Around 24 months; vocabulary ~50 words.

Anterior fontanelle closure
Show answer

Closes between 12 and 18 months of age.

Posterior fontanelle closure
Show answer

Closes by about 2 months of age.

Tanner staging
Show answer

Sexual maturity rating (stages 1–5) describing pubertal development of breasts, genitalia, and pubic hair.

Failure to thrive (FTT)
Show answer

Weight (or weight-for-length) persistently below the 5th percentile or crossing ≥2 major percentile lines downward; evaluate organic vs nonorganic causes.

Plotting growth
Show answer

Use CDC growth charts (2–20 yr) and WHO charts (0–2 yr) to track weight, length/height, and head circumference over time.

BMI percentile (children)
Show answer

Overweight = 85th–94th percentile; obesity = ≥95th percentile for age and sex.

Red reflex
Show answer

Screen all newborns/infants; an abnormal or absent red reflex may indicate cataract, retinoblastoma, or glaucoma — refer urgently.

Ortolani and Barlow maneuvers
Show answer

Newborn hip exam screening for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH).

Geriatric assessment essentials
Show answer

Function (ADLs/IADLs), cognition, mood, falls, polypharmacy, sensory deficits, nutrition, and social support.

Get Up and Go test
Show answer

Timed Up and Go: ≥12 seconds suggests increased fall risk in older adults.

Mini-Cog
Show answer

Brief cognitive screen: 3-item recall plus clock draw; quick screen for dementia.

ADLs
Show answer

Activities of daily living: bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, continence, feeding.

IADLs
Show answer

Instrumental ADLs: shopping, cooking, managing finances, medications, transportation, housekeeping, using the phone.

USPSTF Grade A/B
Show answer

Recommendation grades indicating high/moderate certainty of net benefit; services that should be offered/provided (covered without cost-sharing under the ACA).

USPSTF Grade D
Show answer

Recommendation against the service (no net benefit or harms outweigh benefits).

Colorectal cancer screening start age
Show answer

Begin at age 45 for average-risk adults (USPSTF); options include colonoscopy q10y or annual FIT.

Mammography screening (USPSTF 2024)
Show answer

Biennial screening mammography for women ages 40–74.

Cervical cancer screening
Show answer

Ages 21–29: Pap cytology every 3 years. Ages 30–65: Pap q3y, HPV testing q5y, or co-testing q5y.

Lung cancer screening
Show answer

Annual low-dose CT for adults 50–80 with a 20 pack-year history who currently smoke or quit within 15 years.

AAA screening
Show answer

One-time ultrasound for men ages 65–75 who have ever smoked.

Osteoporosis screening
Show answer

DEXA bone density for women ≥65 (and younger postmenopausal women at increased risk).

Depression screening
Show answer

USPSTF recommends screening all adults, including pregnant/postpartum women; PHQ-9 is commonly used.

HIV screening
Show answer

Screen all persons aged 15–65 at least once; screen all pregnant women.

Newborn screening
Show answer

State-mandated heel-stick panel (e.g., PKU, congenital hypothyroidism, sickle cell, CF), plus hearing and critical congenital heart disease (pulse oximetry) screening.

Lead screening (peds)
Show answer

Risk-based or universal blood lead screening at 12 and 24 months per local guidance.

Prenatal first-visit labs
Show answer

Blood type/Rh and antibody screen, CBC, rubella, hepatitis B, HIV, syphilis (RPR/VDRL), urine culture, and Pap if due.

Fundal height
Show answer

After ~20 weeks, fundal height in cm approximately equals gestational age in weeks (±2 cm).

Cullen's sign / Grey Turner's sign
Show answer

Periumbilical (Cullen) or flank (Grey Turner) ecchymosis; suggest retroperitoneal/hemorrhagic pancreatitis.

Diabetic foot exam
Show answer

Annual comprehensive exam including 10-g monofilament testing for protective sensation (peripheral neuropathy).

Cranial nerve quick check
Show answer

CN II–XII assessment; e.g., facial droop sparing the forehead suggests a central (UMN) lesion vs peripheral Bell's palsy involving the whole side.

Diagnosis (53)

Stage 1 hypertension (ACC/AHA)
Show answer

Systolic 130–139 mmHg OR diastolic 80–89 mmHg, on the average of ≥2 readings on ≥2 occasions.

A1c diagnostic threshold for diabetes
Show answer

A1c ≥6.5% (confirmed). Prediabetes is 5.7–6.4%.

Centor criteria
Show answer

Score for strep pharyngitis: fever, tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical nodes, absence of cough (age-adjusted). Guides testing/treatment.

Elevated blood pressure (ACC/AHA)
Show answer

Systolic 120–129 AND diastolic <80 mmHg.

Stage 2 hypertension (ACC/AHA)
Show answer

Systolic ≥140 OR diastolic ≥90 mmHg.

Hypertensive crisis
Show answer

BP >180/120 mmHg. 'Urgency' = no target-organ damage; 'emergency' = acute target-organ damage requiring rapid, controlled lowering.

Normal blood pressure (ACC/AHA)
Show answer

Systolic <120 AND diastolic <80 mmHg.

Fasting plasma glucose for diabetes
Show answer

FPG ≥126 mg/dL (no caloric intake ≥8 h), confirmed.

OGTT diagnostic value
Show answer

2-hour plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL during a 75-g oral glucose tolerance test diagnoses diabetes.

Random glucose diagnosis
Show answer

Random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL with classic hyperglycemia symptoms (polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss) diagnoses diabetes.

Prediabetes criteria
Show answer

A1c 5.7–6.4%, FPG 100–125 mg/dL (impaired fasting glucose), or 2-h OGTT 140–199 mg/dL (impaired glucose tolerance).

Type 1 vs type 2 diabetes
Show answer

Type 1 = autoimmune beta-cell destruction, insulin-dependent, often younger, prone to DKA. Type 2 = insulin resistance + relative deficiency, often adult/obese.

Anion gap
Show answer

Na − (Cl + HCO3); normal 8–12. Elevated gap metabolic acidosis: MUDPILES (e.g., DKA, lactic acidosis, toxins).

Hypothyroidism labs
Show answer

Elevated TSH with low free T4 (primary hypothyroidism). Subclinical = high TSH with normal free T4.

Hyperthyroidism labs
Show answer

Low (suppressed) TSH with elevated free T4 and/or T3.

Iron deficiency anemia
Show answer

Microcytic (low MCV), low ferritin, low serum iron, high TIBC. Most common anemia worldwide.

B12/folate deficiency anemia
Show answer

Macrocytic (high MCV) megaloblastic anemia; B12 deficiency may add neurologic deficits.

Anemia of chronic disease
Show answer

Normocytic (sometimes microcytic), normal/high ferritin, low TIBC.

Reticulocyte count interpretation
Show answer

High retic = appropriate marrow response (blood loss/hemolysis). Low retic = production problem (deficiency, marrow failure).

Urinalysis: nitrites and leukocyte esterase
Show answer

Positive nitrites (gram-negative bacteria) and leukocyte esterase support urinary tract infection.

Microalbuminuria
Show answer

Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 30–300 mg/g; early marker of diabetic/hypertensive nephropathy.

eGFR and CKD staging
Show answer

CKD staged G1–G5 by eGFR; G3a = 45–59, G3b = 30–44, G4 = 15–29, G5 <15 mL/min/1.73 m². Albuminuria (A1–A3) further stratifies risk.

BNP / NT-proBNP
Show answer

Elevated natriuretic peptides support heart failure; useful to rule out HF when low in dyspneic patients.

Troponin
Show answer

Cardiac-specific marker; elevation indicates myocardial injury (e.g., acute coronary syndrome).

D-dimer use
Show answer

Sensitive but nonspecific; a negative D-dimer in a low-probability patient helps rule out PE/DVT.

Wells criteria
Show answer

Clinical probability score for DVT/PE to guide D-dimer vs imaging decisions.

Spirometry for asthma
Show answer

Obstructive pattern (reduced FEV1/FVC) with ≥12% and ≥200 mL improvement in FEV1 after bronchodilator (reversibility).

Spirometry for COPD
Show answer

Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC <0.70 confirms persistent airflow limitation (not fully reversible).

Strep pharyngitis testing
Show answer

Rapid antigen detection test; in children a negative rapid test is backed up by throat culture.

Mononucleosis
Show answer

EBV; fatigue, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly; positive monospot (heterophile antibody); avoid contact sports.

CURB-65
Show answer

Pneumonia severity score: Confusion, Urea >19 mg/dL, RR ≥30, BP <90/60, age ≥65; guides outpatient vs inpatient care.

Community-acquired pneumonia diagnosis
Show answer

Cough, fever, dyspnea with focal exam findings and an infiltrate on chest x-ray.

Acute otitis media diagnosis
Show answer

Bulging tympanic membrane with impaired mobility plus signs of acute inflammation/middle-ear effusion.

Bacterial vs viral sinusitis
Show answer

Suspect bacterial if symptoms persist ≥10 days, are severe (≥3–4 days fever ≥39°C/purulence), or worsen after initial improvement ('double sickening').

UTI vs pyelonephritis
Show answer

Cystitis = dysuria/frequency/urgency without systemic signs. Pyelonephritis adds fever, flank pain, and CVA tenderness.

Major depressive disorder (SIG E CAPS)
Show answer

≥5 symptoms ≥2 weeks including depressed mood or anhedonia: Sleep, Interest, Guilt, Energy, Concentration, Appetite, Psychomotor, Suicidality.

GAD diagnosis
Show answer

Excessive worry more days than not for ≥6 months plus ≥3 physical symptoms; GAD-7 screens.

Diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome
Show answer

≥3 of: waist circumference (central obesity), triglycerides ≥150, HDL low, BP ≥130/85, fasting glucose ≥100.

Gout diagnosis
Show answer

Acute monoarthritis (classically first MTP joint); definitive = negative birefringent needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals on synovial fluid.

Differential diagnosis
Show answer

A prioritized list of possible conditions explaining the findings; refine with history, exam, and targeted testing.

Pretest probability
Show answer

Likelihood of disease before testing; combined with sensitivity/specificity to interpret results (Bayesian reasoning).

Sensitivity vs specificity
Show answer

Sensitivity = true-positive rate (rule OUT when negative, SnNout). Specificity = true-negative rate (rule IN when positive, SpPin).

Positive predictive value
Show answer

Probability that a positive test reflects true disease; rises with higher disease prevalence.

Likelihood ratio
Show answer

How much a test result changes the odds of disease; LR >10 strongly rules in, LR <0.1 strongly rules out.

Shingles (herpes zoster)
Show answer

Painful unilateral vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution; antivirals within 72 h reduce postherpetic neuralgia.

Cellulitis vs abscess
Show answer

Cellulitis = spreading erythema, warmth, tenderness without fluctuance. Abscess = fluctuant, walled-off collection needing incision and drainage.

Tinea infections
Show answer

Dermatophyte; annular scaly plaques with central clearing; KOH prep shows hyphae; topical antifungals (oral for scalp/nails).

Contact dermatitis
Show answer

Pruritic, erythematous, sometimes vesicular eruption in the pattern of allergen/irritant exposure.

Hyperkalemia ECG changes
Show answer

Peaked T waves → widened QRS → loss of P waves → sine wave; an emergency requiring stabilization with calcium.

Hyponatremia symptoms
Show answer

Headache, nausea, confusion, lethargy, and (severe) seizures; correct slowly to avoid osmotic demyelination.

TSH as the screening test
Show answer

TSH is the most sensitive first-line screen for thyroid dysfunction; reflex to free T4 if abnormal.

Lipid panel interpretation
Show answer

Assess LDL, HDL, triglycerides, total cholesterol; combine with 10-year ASCVD risk to guide statin therapy.

HbA1c reflects
Show answer

Average glycemia over the prior ~2–3 months; unreliable with hemoglobinopathies, anemia, or recent transfusion.

Planning (57)

First-line drug for type 2 diabetes
Show answer

Metformin (biguanide); reduces hepatic glucose output and improves insulin sensitivity. Hold for eGFR <30 and around iodinated contrast.

Asthma controller cornerstone
Show answer

Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS); a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) is the rescue medication.

Antihypertensive first-line classes
Show answer

Thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or calcium channel blocker (CCB) for most adults.

HTN first-line in diabetes/CKD
Show answer

ACE inhibitor or ARB (renal protection, especially with albuminuria) — do not combine ACEi + ARB.

HTN first-line in Black adults (no CKD)
Show answer

Thiazide diuretic or calcium channel blocker is preferred initial therapy.

ACE inhibitor cough
Show answer

Dry cough from bradykinin accumulation; switch to an ARB, which does not cause cough.

ACEi/ARB monitoring
Show answer

Check potassium and serum creatinine within 1–2 weeks of starting or dose increase; expect a small Cr rise (≤30% acceptable).

ACEi/ARB in pregnancy
Show answer

Contraindicated (teratogenic — fetal renal and skeletal injury). Use labetalol, nifedipine, or methyldopa instead.

Thiazide diuretic adverse effects
Show answer

Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia (gout), and hypercalcemia.

Beta-blocker indications
Show answer

Not first-line for uncomplicated HTN; preferred with compelling indications (post-MI, heart failure, certain arrhythmias).

BP treatment goal
Show answer

Generally <130/80 mmHg for most adults per ACC/AHA, individualized by risk and tolerance.

A1c goal
Show answer

Generally <7% for most nonpregnant adults; individualize (looser for limited life expectancy/hypoglycemia risk).

Metformin cautions
Show answer

Hold for eGFR <30 (avoid initiating <45) and around iodinated contrast; risk of lactic acidosis; GI side effects and B12 deficiency.

SGLT2 inhibitors
Show answer

Preferred add-on with heart failure, CKD, or ASCVD; cardiorenal benefit; watch for genital infections, euglycemic DKA, volume depletion.

GLP-1 receptor agonists
Show answer

Preferred with ASCVD/obesity; promote weight loss and lower CV risk; GI side effects; avoid with personal/family history of medullary thyroid cancer or MEN2.

Insulin basics
Show answer

Basal (long-acting) controls fasting glucose; bolus (rapid-acting) covers meals; hypoglycemia is the key adverse effect.

Statin intensity
Show answer

High-intensity (atorvastatin 40–80, rosuvastatin 20–40) lowers LDL ≥50%; moderate-intensity lowers LDL 30–49%.

Statin indications (ACC/AHA)
Show answer

Clinical ASCVD; LDL ≥190; diabetes age 40–75; or elevated 10-year ASCVD risk after risk discussion.

Statin monitoring
Show answer

Baseline lipid panel and ALT; recheck lipids 4–12 weeks after starting; counsel on myalgia/rhabdomyolysis.

Asthma stepwise therapy
Show answer

Step up with persistent symptoms; ICS (± LABA) is controller; reassess control and step down when stable.

Asthma SABA-only caution
Show answer

SABA monotherapy is no longer recommended for persistent asthma; even mild asthma benefits from ICS-containing therapy.

COPD pharmacotherapy
Show answer

Long-acting bronchodilators (LAMA/LABA); add ICS for frequent exacerbations/eosinophilia; smoking cessation is the most important intervention.

Levothyroxine for hypothyroidism
Show answer

Replace with levothyroxine (T4); take on an empty stomach; recheck TSH in 6–8 weeks after dose changes.

Strep pharyngitis treatment
Show answer

Penicillin V or amoxicillin first-line; cephalexin/azithromycin/clindamycin for penicillin allergy.

Uncomplicated cystitis treatment
Show answer

Nitrofurantoin, TMP-SMX, or fosfomycin first-line (per local resistance).

Nitrofurantoin cautions
Show answer

Avoid with eGFR <30 (ineffective) and in pyelonephritis (doesn't reach tissue); avoid near term in pregnancy.

Acute otitis media treatment
Show answer

High-dose amoxicillin first-line; amoxicillin-clavulanate if recent antibiotics/treatment failure; observation option in select older children.

Community-acquired pneumonia (outpatient)
Show answer

Healthy adult: amoxicillin or doxycycline (or a macrolide where resistance is low); comorbidities: respiratory fluoroquinolone or beta-lactam + macrolide.

Acute sinusitis treatment
Show answer

Most are viral — supportive care; if bacterial, amoxicillin-clavulanate first-line.

Folic acid in pregnancy
Show answer

400–800 mcg daily for all women of childbearing potential to prevent neural tube defects; higher doses for prior NTD-affected pregnancy.

Contraception — combined hormonal
Show answer

Estrogen + progestin; contraindicated with migraine with aura, age ≥35 + smoking, history of VTE, or uncontrolled hypertension.

LARC
Show answer

Long-acting reversible contraception (IUDs, implant) — most effective reversible methods; first-line for most including adolescents.

Emergency contraception
Show answer

Levonorgestrel (within 72 h), ulipristal acetate (within 120 h), or a copper IUD (most effective, up to 5 days).

Iron deficiency anemia treatment
Show answer

Oral ferrous sulfate with vitamin C; identify and treat the source of blood loss.

GERD management
Show answer

Lifestyle changes plus a proton pump inhibitor; evaluate for alarm features (dysphagia, weight loss, bleeding, anemia).

Acute gout treatment
Show answer

NSAIDs, colchicine, or corticosteroids for the flare; do not start/stop urate-lowering therapy during an acute attack.

Allopurinol
Show answer

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor for chronic urate lowering; target uric acid <6 mg/dL; titrate gradually.

Antibiotic stewardship
Show answer

Use the narrowest effective agent for the shortest effective duration; avoid antibiotics for viral illness to limit resistance.

Smoking cessation pharmacotherapy
Show answer

Nicotine replacement, varenicline, or bupropion combined with counseling improves quit rates.

Adult immunizations — influenza
Show answer

Annual inactivated influenza vaccine for everyone ≥6 months.

Tdap/Td schedule
Show answer

Tdap once (substituting for a Td), then Td or Tdap booster every 10 years; Tdap in each pregnancy (27–36 weeks).

Pneumococcal vaccine (adults)
Show answer

Recommended for adults ≥65 and younger adults with risk conditions (PCV15/PCV20 ± PPSV23 per current ACIP guidance).

Shingles vaccine
Show answer

Recombinant zoster vaccine (RZV), 2 doses, for adults ≥50.

HPV vaccine
Show answer

Routine at ages 11–12 (can start at 9); catch-up through age 26; shared decision-making 27–45.

Infant immunization schedule (2-month visit)
Show answer

DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV, rotavirus, and hepatitis B (per ACIP schedule).

MMR and varicella timing
Show answer

First doses at 12–15 months; second doses at 4–6 years.

Live vaccine contraindications
Show answer

Avoid live vaccines (MMR, varicella, LAIV) in pregnancy and significant immunocompromise.

Hepatitis B birth dose
Show answer

Give the first hepatitis B vaccine dose within 24 hours of birth.

Anticoagulation for atrial fibrillation
Show answer

Use CHA2DS2-VASc to decide; anticoagulate (DOAC preferred over warfarin for most) when score warrants.

Warfarin monitoring
Show answer

Monitor INR; target 2–3 for most indications; many food (vitamin K) and drug interactions.

Opioid prescribing safety
Show answer

Use lowest effective dose/duration, screen risk, check the PDMP, and offer naloxone; nonopioid options first for most acute pain.

Beers Criteria
Show answer

AGS list of potentially inappropriate medications in older adults (e.g., benzodiazepines, anticholinergics, long-acting sulfonylureas) — raise fall and delirium risk.

Start low, go slow
Show answer

Geriatric prescribing principle: begin medications at low doses and titrate slowly due to altered pharmacokinetics and polypharmacy risk.

SMART goals
Show answer

Patient-centered goals that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound.

Shared decision-making
Show answer

Collaborative process where clinician and patient weigh options, evidence, and patient values to choose a plan.

Teach-back method
Show answer

Ask the patient to restate instructions in their own words to confirm understanding and improve adherence.

Chemoprophylaxis examples
Show answer

Aspirin (selected ASCVD prevention), tamoxifen/raloxifene (high breast-cancer risk), statins, PrEP for HIV prevention.

Implementation (87)

Nursing process — implementation
Show answer

Carrying out the plan: prescribing/treatments, education, counseling, referrals, and coordinating care.

Hypertension lifestyle (DASH)
Show answer

DASH diet, sodium reduction (<1500–2300 mg/day), weight loss, physical activity, limited alcohol — each lowers BP measurably.

Resistant hypertension
Show answer

BP above goal on 3 drugs (including a diuretic) at optimal doses; add an aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone) and evaluate for secondary causes.

Secondary hypertension clues
Show answer

Young age, abrupt onset, resistant HTN, hypokalemia (hyperaldosteronism), or episodic symptoms (pheochromocytoma) prompt workup.

Diabetes self-management education
Show answer

Teach glucose monitoring, hypoglycemia recognition/treatment, foot care, sick-day rules, and carbohydrate awareness.

Hypoglycemia treatment
Show answer

Rule of 15: 15 g fast carbohydrate, recheck in 15 minutes, repeat if still <70 mg/dL; glucagon if unable to take orally.

Diabetic complication monitoring
Show answer

Annual dilated eye exam, urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio, comprehensive foot exam, and lipid panel.

DKA recognition
Show answer

Hyperglycemia, anion-gap metabolic acidosis, ketones, dehydration; refer/admit for IV fluids, insulin, and electrolyte correction.

Asthma action plan
Show answer

Written green/yellow/red zone plan based on symptoms and peak flow to guide self-management and escalation.

Asthma exacerbation management
Show answer

Oxygen, repeated SABA (± ipratropium), systemic corticosteroids; assess response and need for higher care.

COPD exacerbation management
Show answer

Short-acting bronchodilators, systemic steroids, antibiotics if increased purulence/volume; oxygen targeting 88–92% saturation.

Heart failure management
Show answer

Guideline-directed therapy: ARNI/ACEi/ARB, beta-blocker, MRA, and SGLT2 inhibitor for HFrEF; diuretics for congestion; sodium/fluid counseling.

Chronic kidney disease management
Show answer

BP and glucose control, ACEi/ARB for albuminuria, SGLT2 inhibitor, avoid nephrotoxins, adjust drug doses, and refer to nephrology in advanced stages.

Hypothyroidism follow-up
Show answer

After starting/adjusting levothyroxine, recheck TSH in 6–8 weeks and titrate to target.

Anemia workup implementation
Show answer

Order CBC with indices, reticulocyte count, iron studies, B12/folate; treat the underlying cause.

Acute coronary syndrome — initial
Show answer

MONA-B context: aspirin, nitroglycerin, oxygen if hypoxic, and emergent transfer; obtain ECG within 10 minutes of presentation.

Stroke recognition (BE-FAST)
Show answer

Balance, Eyes, Face, Arm, Speech, Time — activate emergency response; time-sensitive thrombolysis/thrombectomy window.

Anaphylaxis treatment
Show answer

Intramuscular epinephrine (anterolateral thigh) is first-line; supine positioning, oxygen, IV fluids; antihistamines/steroids are adjuncts.

Otitis media — pain control
Show answer

Acetaminophen or ibuprofen for analgesia regardless of antibiotic decision.

Conjunctivitis management
Show answer

Most viral/allergic — supportive care; bacterial gets topical antibiotics; refer for vision loss, severe pain, or contact-lens-related keratitis.

Low back pain (acute)
Show answer

Reassurance, stay active, NSAIDs/acetaminophen; imaging only with red flags (neuro deficit, cancer, infection, cauda equina).

Cauda equina syndrome
Show answer

Red-flag emergency: saddle anesthesia, urinary retention/incontinence, bilateral leg weakness — urgent imaging and surgery.

Migraine management
Show answer

Abortive triptans/NSAIDs; prophylaxis (e.g., beta-blockers, topiramate, CGRP antagonists) when frequent; lifestyle/trigger counseling.

Depression treatment
Show answer

SSRIs first-line plus psychotherapy; reassess in 1–2 weeks for safety and 4–6 weeks for response; all antidepressants carry the <25 suicidality warning.

Hypertension in pregnancy
Show answer

Treat with labetalol, nifedipine, or methyldopa; evaluate for preeclampsia (BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with proteinuria/end-organ signs).

Preeclampsia red flags
Show answer

Severe headache, visual changes, RUQ pain, BP ≥160/110 — urgent evaluation; magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis.

Well-child visit components
Show answer

Growth/development surveillance, immunizations, anticipatory guidance, screening (vision, hearing, lead, autism), and safety counseling.

Autism screening
Show answer

M-CHAT-R/F at 18 and 24 months; refer for early intervention if positive.

Adolescent confidentiality (HEEADSSS)
Show answer

Psychosocial interview (Home, Education, Eating, Activities, Drugs, Sexuality, Suicide, Safety) conducted confidentially when appropriate.

Acute pharyngitis education
Show answer

Complete the full antibiotic course for strep; return-to-school after 12–24 h of antibiotics and afebrile.

UTI prevention counseling
Show answer

Adequate hydration, postcoital voiding; consider prophylaxis for recurrent UTIs; vaginal estrogen for postmenopausal women.

Obesity management
Show answer

Comprehensive lifestyle intervention; pharmacotherapy (e.g., GLP-1 agonists) for BMI ≥30 or ≥27 with comorbidity; bariatric surgery for severe obesity.

Hyperlipidemia lifestyle
Show answer

Heart-healthy diet, physical activity, weight management, and smoking cessation alongside statin therapy.

Tobacco cessation (5 A's)
Show answer

Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange — the brief intervention framework at every visit.

Motivational interviewing
Show answer

Patient-centered counseling using OARS (open questions, affirmations, reflective listening, summaries) to strengthen motivation for change.

Alcohol screening
Show answer

Use AUDIT-C or single-item screen; brief intervention and referral to treatment (SBIRT) for risky use.

Immunization documentation
Show answer

Record vaccine, dose, date, site, lot number, and provide the Vaccine Information Statement (VIS).

HIV PrEP
Show answer

Daily emtricitabine/tenofovir for high-risk individuals; baseline and periodic HIV, renal, and STI testing.

STI treatment — gonorrhea
Show answer

Ceftriaxone IM; treat for chlamydia co-infection if not excluded; partner treatment and reporting.

STI treatment — chlamydia
Show answer

Doxycycline (preferred) or azithromycin; partner therapy; retest in 3 months.

Mandatory reporting
Show answer

Report suspected child abuse, elder abuse, and certain communicable diseases per state law.

Scope of practice
Show answer

Defined by state nurse practice acts; NP authority ranges from full to reduced to restricted practice.

Full practice authority
Show answer

State licensure allows NPs to evaluate, diagnose, order/interpret tests, and prescribe independently under the board of nursing.

Reduced/restricted practice
Show answer

State law limits ≥1 element of NP practice and may require a collaborative or supervisory agreement with a physician.

Prescriptive authority & DEA
Show answer

NPs prescribe per state authority; a DEA registration is required to prescribe controlled substances.

Controlled substance schedules
Show answer

Schedule II (high abuse, no refills) through V; opioids and stimulants are commonly Schedule II.

Informed consent
Show answer

Process requiring capacity, disclosure of risks/benefits/alternatives, understanding, and voluntariness — not merely a signature.

Capacity vs competency
Show answer

Capacity is a clinical, decision-specific judgment a clinician makes; competency is a global legal determination only a court makes.

HIPAA Privacy Rule
Show answer

Protects PHI while permitting use for treatment, payment, and operations; disclose only the minimum necessary.

HIPAA exceptions
Show answer

Disclosure allowed for mandatory reporting, serious threats to safety, public health, and court orders.

Four bioethical principles
Show answer

Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice.

Advance directives
Show answer

Living will and durable power of attorney for healthcare document patient wishes and surrogate decision-makers.

Delegation principles
Show answer

Delegate the right task to the right person with the right direction and supervision; the NP retains accountability.

Care coordination
Show answer

Organizing patient care across providers and settings to improve outcomes and reduce fragmentation/duplication.

Referral criteria
Show answer

Refer when the condition exceeds scope, requires specialized testing/procedures, or fails to respond to appropriate management.

Cultural humility
Show answer

Lifelong self-reflection and respect for patients' cultural beliefs; use a professional interpreter (never a family member) for language barriers.

Social determinants of health
Show answer

Conditions where people live, work, and age (income, housing, education, food access) that strongly shape health outcomes.

Health literacy
Show answer

A patient's ability to obtain and understand health information; use plain language and teach-back to improve outcomes.

Sick-day management (diabetes)
Show answer

Continue insulin, monitor glucose/ketones frequently, stay hydrated, and seek care for persistent vomiting or high ketones.

Wound care basics
Show answer

Clean, assess for infection, moisture balance, and tetanus status; refer chronic/nonhealing wounds.

Tetanus prophylaxis
Show answer

For dirty wounds: Tdap/Td if last dose >5 years; add tetanus immune globulin if unvaccinated/uncertain.

Hypertension medication adherence
Show answer

Simplify regimens (once-daily, combination pills), address cost and side effects, and use home BP monitoring.

Polypharmacy management
Show answer

Perform medication reconciliation, deprescribe when appropriate, and screen with Beers/STOPP criteria in older adults.

Falls prevention
Show answer

Review medications, vision, gait/balance, home hazards, and vitamin D; recommend strength/balance exercise.

Pressure injury prevention
Show answer

Reposition regularly, manage moisture, optimize nutrition, and use support surfaces in at-risk patients.

Pain management approach
Show answer

Assess with a validated scale; use the analgesic ladder, multimodal/nonopioid strategies, and function-based goals.

Palliative vs hospice care
Show answer

Palliative care = symptom-focused care at any stage alongside curative treatment; hospice = comfort care when prognosis is ≤6 months.

Telehealth practice
Show answer

Verify licensure for the patient's location, ensure privacy/consent, and document as for in-person care.

Quality improvement (PDSA)
Show answer

Plan-Do-Study-Act cycle: test small changes, measure results, and refine to improve care processes.

Evidence-based practice
Show answer

Integrating best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values to guide decisions.

Levels of evidence
Show answer

Systematic reviews/meta-analyses of RCTs rank highest; expert opinion lowest.

Sentinel event
Show answer

An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious harm; triggers root-cause analysis and reporting.

Just culture
Show answer

A safety culture balancing accountability and learning — focuses on system errors rather than individual blame.

Medication reconciliation
Show answer

Compare a patient's medication orders to all medications they are taking at every transition of care to prevent errors.

Anticipatory guidance
Show answer

Age-appropriate counseling on safety, nutrition, development, and behavior at well visits.

Car seat guidance
Show answer

Rear-facing as long as possible (at least to age 2), then forward-facing with harness, then booster per height/weight.

Safe sleep (infants)
Show answer

Back to sleep, firm flat surface, no soft bedding, room-share without bed-share to reduce SIDS risk.

Fluoride and dental health
Show answer

Fluoride varnish for young children; establish a dental home by age 1.

Iron supplementation (infants)
Show answer

Breastfed infants generally need iron supplementation starting around 4 months until iron-rich foods are introduced.

Postpartum depression
Show answer

Screen with the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale; treat with therapy and/or SSRIs; ensure safety.

Menopause management
Show answer

Lifestyle measures; hormone therapy for moderate-severe vasomotor symptoms in appropriate candidates (weigh CV/breast risks).

Asthma trigger control
Show answer

Identify and reduce triggers (allergens, smoke, exercise, infections) as part of comprehensive management.

COPD nonpharmacologic care
Show answer

Smoking cessation, pulmonary rehab, vaccinations, and oxygen therapy for chronic hypoxemia (improves survival).

Statin-associated muscle symptoms
Show answer

Assess CK if severe; consider dose reduction, switching statins, or alternate-day dosing; rule out rhabdomyolysis.

Acute diarrhea management
Show answer

Oral rehydration and supportive care; antibiotics only for specific bacterial/parasitic causes; avoid antimotility agents in bloody diarrhea.

Constipation management
Show answer

Increase fiber/fluids/activity; osmotic laxatives first-line; evaluate alarm features and secondary causes.

Allergic rhinitis treatment
Show answer

Intranasal corticosteroids are most effective; antihistamines and allergen avoidance as adjuncts.

Evaluation (46)

Nursing process — evaluation
Show answer

Determining whether outcomes/goals were met; revise assessment, diagnosis, or plan as needed (the cycle continues).

Hypertension follow-up
Show answer

Recheck BP and adjust therapy monthly until controlled, then every 3–6 months; reinforce adherence and lifestyle.

Diabetes A1c monitoring
Show answer

Check A1c every 3 months until at goal and stable, then at least twice yearly.

Statin response check
Show answer

Recheck lipid panel 4–12 weeks after initiation/dose change, then every 3–12 months.

Levothyroxine titration
Show answer

Recheck TSH 6–8 weeks after each dose change; adjust to keep TSH in the target range.

Antidepressant follow-up
Show answer

Reassess in 1–2 weeks for safety/side effects and at 4–6 weeks for response; full effect may take 6–8 weeks.

Warfarin INR follow-up
Show answer

Monitor INR frequently after initiation/dose change, then at least every 4 weeks when stable.

Asthma control assessment
Show answer

Use symptom frequency, rescue-inhaler use, nighttime awakenings, and (optionally) the ACT/peak flow to gauge control and step therapy.

CKD monitoring frequency
Show answer

Monitor eGFR and urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio at a frequency based on CKD stage and risk.

Outcome evaluation
Show answer

Compare results to the goals set during planning; document whether goals were met, partially met, or unmet.

When to step down asthma therapy
Show answer

Consider stepping down after ≥3 months of well-controlled asthma to find the lowest effective controller dose.

Treatment failure response
Show answer

Reassess diagnosis, adherence, dosing, and barriers before escalating therapy or referring.

Medication adherence assessment
Show answer

Ask nonjudgmentally, review refill data, and address barriers (cost, side effects, complexity, beliefs).

Re-evaluating the differential
Show answer

If the patient doesn't respond as expected, broaden or revisit the differential diagnosis.

Surveillance vs screening
Show answer

Screening detects disease in asymptomatic people; surveillance monitors a known condition for change/progression.

Goal attainment scaling
Show answer

Method to measure progress toward individualized patient goals over time.

Follow-up after ED/hospital
Show answer

Transitional-care visit within ~7 days reduces readmissions; reconcile medications and reinforce the plan.

Documentation of evaluation
Show answer

Record outcomes, patient response, plan modifications, and the next follow-up interval.

PHQ-9 to track depression
Show answer

Repeat the PHQ-9 to monitor treatment response; a ≥50% score reduction suggests adequate response.

Reassessing pain
Show answer

Re-evaluate pain after intervention using the same scale and assess functional improvement, not just the number.

Blood pressure goal not met
Show answer

If BP remains above goal, verify technique/adherence, intensify lifestyle, and add or up-titrate medication.

Glycemic target not met
Show answer

Intensify therapy (add agent/insulin), reinforce education, and address adherence and lifestyle barriers.

Vaccine response/titers
Show answer

Check titers when documentation is unavailable or response is uncertain (e.g., hepatitis B in healthcare workers).

Evaluating screening results
Show answer

Communicate results, arrange appropriate follow-up for abnormal findings, and document recall intervals.

Abnormal Pap follow-up
Show answer

Manage per ASCCP risk-based guidelines — repeat testing, colposcopy, or treatment depending on cytology/HPV results.

Positive depression screen follow-up
Show answer

Conduct a full diagnostic assessment, evaluate suicide risk, and initiate or refer for treatment.

Microalbuminuria trend
Show answer

Rising urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio signals progressing nephropathy; intensify ACEi/ARB and risk-factor control.

Therapeutic drug monitoring
Show answer

Check levels for narrow-index drugs (lithium, warfarin/INR, digoxin, certain antiepileptics) to ensure efficacy and avoid toxicity.

Evaluating patient education
Show answer

Confirm understanding with teach-back and assess whether behavior change/self-management goals were achieved.

Re-screening intervals
Show answer

Define the next screening based on results and guidelines (e.g., normal colonoscopy → 10 years; normal co-test → 5 years).

Reassessment after antibiotic course
Show answer

Evaluate symptom resolution; persistent or worsening symptoms prompt reassessment for resistance, complications, or wrong diagnosis.

Monitoring for medication side effects
Show answer

Schedule labs/visits to detect adverse effects (e.g., potassium with ACEi, LFTs with certain drugs).

HbA1c discordance
Show answer

If A1c and glucose logs disagree, suspect a hemoglobin variant, anemia, or measurement issue and use alternative markers.

Care plan revision
Show answer

Modify diagnoses, goals, or interventions based on evaluation findings — the nursing process is cyclical.

Patient-reported outcomes
Show answer

Use validated questionnaires to capture symptoms, function, and quality of life from the patient's perspective.

Evaluating fall-prevention plan
Show answer

Reassess fall risk and home safety periodically; adjust interventions after any new fall.

Chronic disease registry
Show answer

Population-health tool to track and recall patients due for monitoring or overdue for goals.

Closing the referral loop
Show answer

Confirm the consult occurred, review recommendations, and integrate them into the care plan.

Evaluating immunization status
Show answer

Review the record at each visit and administer due/overdue vaccines (every visit is an opportunity).

Reassessing function in elders
Show answer

Periodically re-evaluate ADLs/IADLs, cognition, and mobility to detect decline early.

Treatment de-escalation
Show answer

Once control is sustained, consider reducing therapy to the lowest effective regimen and monitor for relapse.

Quality metric evaluation
Show answer

Track measures (BP control, A1c <7%, screening rates) to assess and improve practice performance.

Evaluating anticoagulation
Show answer

Reassess bleeding/clotting risk over time (e.g., HAS-BLED, CHA2DS2-VASc) and adjust therapy accordingly.

Recheck after dose titration
Show answer

Re-evaluate efficacy and tolerability at an appropriate interval after each medication change.

Documentation as evaluation tool
Show answer

Accurate, timely documentation supports continuity, legal protection, and outcome evaluation.

Outcome not met — root causes
Show answer

Consider adherence, diagnosis accuracy, dosing, comorbidity, and social barriers before concluding treatment failure.

References

  1. 1.American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC). “Family Nurse Practitioner Certification (FNP-BC).” ANCC. ↑
  2. 2.American Academy of Nurse Practitioners Certification Board (AANPCB). “Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) Certification.” aanpcert.org. ↑
  3. 3.American Diabetes Association (ADA). “Standards of Care in Diabetes.” diabetesjournals.org. ↑
  4. 4.U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF). “Published Recommendations — screening & prevention.” uspreventiveservicestaskforce.org. ↑
Career Employer

Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.

Follow Us:

All Posts

Career Employer’s Editorial Process

Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.