Career Employer

Your FREE EMR Flashcards 2026 – 250+ Cards

Realistic, NREMT-aligned Emergency Medical Responder flashcards — flip, match, type, and quiz yourself, all at the entry-level EMR scope.

How well do you know them?

To find us again, just search “Career Employer EMR”

By

Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of EMR cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the NREMT content areas and written to the entry-level Emergency Medical Responder scope, so you study exactly what the EMR certification exam tests.[1] Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide.

EMR Flashcard Study Modes

Flip mode lets you work through the cards one at a time and check yourself. Match turns terms and definitions into a timed pairing game. Type shows a definition and asks you to spell the term back, so a card like DCAP-BTLS has to come from memory, not recognition. Quiz builds multiple-choice questions from the same 252 cards.

Free EMR flashcards from Career Employer — active recall for the NREMT Emergency Medical Responder exam

Why Flashcards Work for the EMR

Patient Treatment & Transport is the biggest block in the deck at 58 cards, and it covers the hands-on interventions an EMR is expected to perform before a transporting unit arrives. You get bleeding and trauma management through fronts like Wound packing, Evisceration, and Impaled object, immobilization basics such as Splinting and Flail chest, plus movement decisions on cards like Emergency move and environmental emergencies including Heat stroke.

Primary Assessment carries 49 cards and drills the fast, ordered look that decides everything after it. Fronts like XABC order and AVPU scale fix the sequence and the level-of-response tool in your head, while Stridor, Cyanosis, Agonal gasps, and Tripod position train you to read airway and perfusion findings at a glance. Resuscitation appears here too, with Hands-only CPR and AED steps.

Operations holds 44 cards on the parts of the job outside patient contact: START triage, JumpSTART, and Re-triage for multiple-patient scenes, ICS at an MCI for command structure, Hazmat hot zone for scene control, and legal terms such as Duty to act, Breach of duty, and Abandonment. EMR Scope & Foundations adds 37 cards on role and responsibility, including the card that asks What is an EMR?, along with Medical direction, Standards of care, Mandatory reporting, and Stress in EMS.

Secondary Assessment runs 36 cards on the detailed exam and history that follow the primary survey, with mnemonic fronts like OPQRST and SAMPLE history beside findings such as Diaphoresis, Mottled skin, Capillary refill, and Distal CMS check. Scene Size-up & Safety closes the deck with 28 cards on what you do before touching anyone, including Scene size-up, MOI vs NOI, Counting patients, Index of suspicion, and Standard precautions.

That matters on the EMR, where facts like CPR parameters, the bleeding-control order, AVPU, SAMPLE and OPQRST, and START triage criteria must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.

EMR Flashcards by Topic

The cards are organized by the NREMT content areas. Weight your study toward the heaviest ones — the Primary Assessment is by far the largest domain (about 37–41%), followed by Patient Treatment & Transport and Scene Size-up & Safety:[1]

EMR domains and NREMT weighting
NREMT content areaWeight
Primary Assessment37–41%
Patient Treatment & Transport20–24%
Scene Size-up & Safety19–23%
Operations10–14%
Secondary Assessment4–8%

How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards

  • Start with Patient Treatment & Transport. At 58 cards it is the largest domain in the deck, and the interventions there show up inside scenario questions from every other section.
  • Type-drill the mnemonics first. Cards like XABC order and SAMPLE history are easy to recognize and hard to reproduce, so typing them exposes the letters you actually cannot recall.
  • Use Match for look-alike terms. The Operations legal cards pair well here, since Duty to act, Breach of duty, and Abandonment blur together until you sort them against definitions under time pressure.
  • Move to the practice test once Quiz holds steady. When Primary Assessment and Secondary Assessment cards stop producing misses, full-length questions will test sequencing and judgment the cards only set up.
  • Keep the cadence one domain per sitting. With 252 cards spread across six domains, a single block plus a short Flip review of yesterday’s domain beats one long pass through everything.

EMR Flashcards FAQ

Hundreds of free EMR flashcards, organized across the five NREMT content areas tested on the Emergency Medical Responder cognitive exam — from scene size-up and the primary assessment through treatment and operations — plus a deck on EMR scope and foundations. They're free to use with no account required.

EMR flashcard bank

All 252 cards, by topic

A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.

EMR Scope & Foundations (37)

What is an EMR?
Show answer

Emergency Medical Responder — the entry-level national EMS certification, below the EMT, providing immediate basic life support with minimal equipment until a transporting unit arrives.

EMR vs EMT vs AEMT vs Paramedic
Show answer

EMR = entry-level BLS; EMT = transporting BLS (adds NPA, oral glucose, etc.); AEMT adds IV/IO, fluids & supraglottic airways; Paramedic adds intubation, cardiac monitoring & most IV drugs.

Who certifies the EMR exam?
Show answer

The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT).

EMR cognitive exam format
Show answer

A computer adaptive test (CAT) of about 90–110 items, up to 1 hour 45 minutes; the test ends once it can decide your competency with confidence.

How is the EMR exam scored?
Show answer

Pass/fail against a criterion-referenced cut score; there is no fixed passing percentage.

Five EMR exam content areas
Show answer

Scene Size-up & Safety, Primary Assessment (heaviest), Secondary Assessment, Patient Treatment & Transport, and Operations.

Heaviest EMR exam domain
Show answer

Primary Assessment — about 37–41% of the exam.

Smallest EMR exam domain
Show answer

Secondary Assessment — about 4–8% of the exam.

National EMS Scope of Practice Model
Show answer

The NHTSA document defining the four EMS levels (EMR, EMT, AEMT, Paramedic) and what each may do — the authoritative baseline for the EMR scope.

Skills WITHIN the EMR scope
Show answer

Scene safety, CPR, AED, bleeding control (pressure, packing, tourniquet), manual airway (head-tilt/jaw-thrust), OPA, suction, BVM, oxygen, naloxone, manual spinal stabilization, cervical collar, splinting, emergency childbirth.

Skills OUTSIDE the EMR scope (EMT+)
Show answer

Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA), pulse oximetry, oral glucose, aspirin, nitroglycerin, inhalers, CPAP, long backboard — these begin at the EMT level.

Skills that begin at the AEMT level
Show answer

IV and IO access, IV fluids, and supraglottic (blind-insertion) airways — NOT in the EMR scope.

Skills that begin at the Paramedic level
Show answer

Endotracheal intubation, cardiac rhythm interpretation, manual defibrillation, and most IV medications.

EMR airway adjunct
Show answer

The oropharyngeal airway (OPA), for an unresponsive patient with no gag reflex. The NPA is an EMT-level adjunct.

Is naloxone within the EMR scope?
Show answer

Yes — an EMR can give naloxone (intranasal or auto-injector) for an opioid overdose. Support ventilation first.

Does the EMR transport patients?
Show answer

Generally no — the EMR provides immediate care and stabilizes, then hands off to a transporting (EMT/ALS) unit.

BLS
Show answer

Basic life support — the non-invasive emergency care an EMR provides: CPR, AED, airway maneuvers, BVM, oxygen, bleeding control, and splinting.

EMR certification period
Show answer

Two years; renew through NCCP continuing education plus a current state EMS credential.

EMR initial eligibility
Show answer

Complete a state-approved EMR course meeting the National EMS Education Standards, meet the state BLS skills requirement, and pass the cognitive exam.

Medical direction
Show answer

Physician oversight of EMS care — offline (protocols/standing orders) or online (real-time orders by radio/phone).

Do state EMR scopes vary?
Show answer

Yes — many states expand the EMR scope beyond the national baseline, so always follow local protocol. The exam is written to the national Model.

Chain of survival (links EMR controls)
Show answer

Early recognition/activation, early CPR, and early defibrillation are the first links — and the ones an EMR, often first on scene, controls.

First link in the EMS chain
Show answer

The EMR — frequently the first trained provider on scene, beginning care before the transporting crew arrives.

Continuous quality improvement (CQI)
Show answer

An ongoing system of reviewing and improving the quality of EMS care delivered.

Standards of care
Show answer

The care expected of an EMR with similar training in a similar situation — the benchmark used to judge negligence.

Patient care report (PCR)
Show answer

The accurate, objective written record of an EMR's assessment and care; a legal document that supports continuity of care.

Mandatory reporting
Show answer

Conditions an EMR must report per state law, such as suspected child, elder, or domestic abuse.

Stress in EMS
Show answer

EMRs face critical-incident stress; recognize warning signs and use healthy coping and peer/professional support.

Therapeutic communication
Show answer

Communicating with the patient and family with empathy, eye contact, and clear language to gain trust and information.

Lifting & moving — body mechanics
Show answer

Use the power lift (legs, not back), keep the load close, and avoid twisting to prevent injury.

EMS levels (lowest to highest)
Show answer

EMR → EMT → AEMT → Paramedic. Each level builds on the one below it.

Is the EMR a transporting provider?
Show answer

Typically no — the EMR stabilizes and hands off; the EMT is the first transporting (BLS) provider.

Where naloxone fits in the EMR scope
Show answer

Naloxone (IN or auto-injector) is one of the few medications in the national EMR scope — alongside oxygen.

Wellness and lifting safety for an EMR
Show answer

Maintain fitness, use proper body mechanics, get rest, and manage stress to stay able to respond safely.

Designated agent / off-duty EMR
Show answer

Off-duty good-faith aid is generally covered by Good Samaritan laws; on-duty an EMR has a duty to act.

Quality vs scope
Show answer

Scope = what you're allowed to do; quality (CQI) = how well the system does it. Both shape good EMR care.

Communicable disease exposure
Show answer

Report any blood/body-fluid exposure, follow your agency's exposure-control plan, and seek medical follow-up.

Scene Size-up & Safety (28)

Scene size-up
Show answer

The quick pre-patient assessment: standard precautions, scene safety, mechanism of injury or nature of illness, number of patients, and the need for more resources.

First priority on every call
Show answer

Responder safety — you cannot help anyone if you become a patient.

BSI (body substance isolation)
Show answer

Treating all blood and body fluids as infectious and using barriers (gloves, eye protection, mask, gown) matched to the exposure risk.

Standard precautions
Show answer

Infection-control practices applied to every patient — hand hygiene plus barriers — regardless of known infectious status.

When to wear a gown, mask & eye protection
Show answer

When splashing or large fluid volumes are likely — e.g., a childbirth or major bleeding.

What to do if a glove tears mid-care
Show answer

Stop, remove the damaged glove, perform hand hygiene, and apply a fresh glove before continuing.

Mechanism of injury (MOI)
Show answer

The forces/energy that caused a trauma patient's injury (fall height, vehicle speed, blade path) — used to predict likely injuries.

Nature of illness (NOI)
Show answer

The general type of medical problem a non-trauma patient has, gathered from the patient, family, bystanders, and scene.

MOI vs NOI
Show answer

MOI applies to TRAUMA patients (the forces involved); NOI applies to MEDICAL patients (the type of illness).

Index of suspicion
Show answer

Your level of concern for serious, hidden injury based on the mechanism; a significant mechanism (high fall, high-speed crash) raises it.

Significant mechanism of injury
Show answer

Forces likely to cause serious injury — a high fall, ejection, high-speed crash, or rollover — warranting a higher index of suspicion and a rapid exam.

Rapid deceleration injury
Show answer

Injury from energy transferred to the body when motion stops suddenly, as in a head-on crash — even without obvious external wounds.

What to do at a potentially violent scene
Show answer

Stage at a safe distance and wait for law enforcement to secure the scene before approaching.

Scene hazards to size up
Show answer

Traffic, violence, fire, electricity/downed wires, hazardous materials, unstable structures, and environmental dangers.

Why call for resources early
Show answer

Recognizing extra patients or a serious situation up front lets you summon more units before being overwhelmed — it speeds definitive care.

Counting patients
Show answer

Part of the scene size-up — determine the number of patients before committing to one, so you can request the right resources.

When a call becomes a mass-casualty incident (MCI)
Show answer

When the number and severity of patients exceed the resources on scene, triggering a shift to triage.

Downed power line on a crashed car
Show answer

Do not approach — the vehicle and ground may be energized. Stage, keep bystanders back, and call the power company and fire/rescue.

Approaching a hazmat or fire scene
Show answer

Approach from uphill and upwind, identify the hazard from a distance, and stay clear of the danger zone.

Personal protective equipment (PPE)
Show answer

Gear that protects the responder — gloves, eye protection, mask, gown, and, for hazards, turnout gear or specialized PPE as trained.

Why standard precautions on EVERY patient
Show answer

A patient's infectious status is usually unknown, so barriers protect the responder regardless.

Number of patients exceeds resources
Show answer

Triggers a mass-casualty response and START triage.

Sizing up a fall
Show answer

A higher fall onto a harder surface raises the index of suspicion for serious injury (greater energy).

Penetrating-trauma MOI
Show answer

Consider the likely path and depth of the object (e.g., a blade through the chest) to anticipate injuries.

Forming a scene read before exiting the vehicle
Show answer

Begin assessing scene safety from the rig as you approach, before you step out.

Staging area
Show answer

A safe location where EMS waits until a hazardous scene (violence, hazmat, fire) is secured.

Why a fast initial scene size-up
Show answer

Hazards and patient needs must be recognized quickly to guide a safe approach and early resource calls.

Number of patients — why it matters
Show answer

Determines whether you have enough resources or must triage and call for help.

Primary Assessment (49)

Primary assessment
Show answer

The rapid search for and treatment of immediate life threats, in the order XABC: control massive bleeding, then Airway, Breathing, Circulation.

XABC order
Show answer

eXsanguinating (massive) bleeding, Airway, Breathing, Circulation — treat each life threat the moment it is found.

Why bleeding comes before airway (XABC)
Show answer

A person can bleed to death faster than an airway problem will kill them, so massive hemorrhage is controlled first.

General impression
Show answer

The immediate sick-versus-not-sick judgment from the patient's appearance, work of breathing, and skin color as you approach.

AVPU scale
Show answer

A rapid level-of-consciousness check: Alert, responds to Verbal, responds to Pain, Unresponsive.

AVPU — what does A mean?
Show answer

Alert — spontaneously alert and aware of surroundings.

AVPU — patient responds only to pain
Show answer

P — responsive to Painful stimulus only.

AVPU trend A → V → P → U
Show answer

Deteriorating level of consciousness — the patient is getting worse.

Head-tilt chin-lift
Show answer

The basic airway maneuver for an unresponsive patient with NO suspected spinal injury — tilts the head back and lifts the chin off the airway.

Jaw-thrust maneuver
Show answer

Opens the airway WITHOUT moving the neck — used when a spinal injury is suspected.

Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
Show answer

A rigid airway adjunct for an unresponsive patient with NO gag reflex — an EMR-level skill.

Suctioning limit
Show answer

Suction for no more than about 15 seconds per attempt (less in children) to avoid hypoxia.

Signs of inadequate breathing
Show answer

Rate too fast or too slow, shallow/irregular effort, accessory-muscle use, cyanosis, one- to two-word dyspnea, and altered mental status.

BVM (bag-valve mask)
Show answer

The device used to deliver positive-pressure ventilation to a patient breathing inadequately or not at all.

Adult ventilation rate (no pulse changes aside)
Show answer

About once every 5–6 seconds (10–12/min) for a non-breathing adult with a pulse — do not over-ventilate.

Risk of over-ventilation
Show answer

Raises pressure in the chest, lowers cardiac output, and causes gastric distension and aspiration.

Pulse to check if no radial pulse (unresponsive adult)
Show answer

The carotid pulse in the neck — a large central artery that stays palpable when peripheral pulses fade.

Where to check a pulse in an infant
Show answer

The brachial pulse (inside the upper arm).

Signs of shock (early)
Show answer

Fast heart rate, anxiety/restlessness, pale, cool, clammy skin, and delayed capillary refill — with near-normal blood pressure.

Late (decompensated) shock signs
Show answer

Falling blood pressure and a declining mental status — ominous signs that the patient is decompensating.

High-quality CPR rate
Show answer

100–120 compressions per minute.

High-quality CPR depth (adult)
Show answer

At least 2 inches (5 cm).

Single-rescuer adult CPR ratio
Show answer

30 compressions to 2 breaths (30:2).

Two-rescuer CHILD/INFANT CPR ratio
Show answer

15 compressions to 2 breaths (15:2).

How often to switch compressors
Show answer

About every 2 minutes, to limit fatigue and keep compressions high-quality.

Full chest recoil
Show answer

Letting the chest return fully between compressions so the heart refills — essential for effective CPR.

AED (automated external defibrillator)
Show answer

Analyzes the rhythm and delivers a shock to a shockable rhythm; applying an AED is a core EMR skill.

AED steps
Show answer

Power on, attach pads, clear the patient, let it analyze, deliver a shock if advised, then resume CPR immediately.

Agonal gasps
Show answer

Occasional gasping in cardiac arrest — NOT adequate breathing; treat as arrest and begin CPR.

Transport-priority decision
Show answer

The sick-vs-not-sick call ending the primary assessment; a high-priority patient needs a transporting unit summoned early.

High-priority patient signs
Show answer

Poor general impression, airway/breathing trouble, uncontrolled bleeding, signs of shock, or an altered mental status.

Cyanosis
Show answer

Bluish skin or lips signaling inadequate oxygenation.

Tripod position
Show answer

Sitting upright leaning forward on the arms to ease breathing — a sign of respiratory distress.

Adequate breathing
Show answer

Normal rate and depth, regular rhythm, and good, equal chest rise.

Responsive patient — what does it tell you about the airway?
Show answer

A patient who is speaking/crying has an open airway and at least minimally adequate breathing.

Recovery position purpose
Show answer

Lets fluids drain and keeps the tongue clear of the airway in an unresponsive but adequately breathing patient.

Primary assessment goal
Show answer

Find and treat immediate threats to life — nothing else takes priority during it.

Order of the primary assessment components
Show answer

Responsiveness/impression → (massive bleeding) → airway → breathing → circulation.

Look, listen, feel
Show answer

The quick check for adequate breathing — look for chest rise, listen and feel for air movement.

Stridor
Show answer

A high-pitched sound on inspiration signaling upper-airway obstruction (croup, swelling, foreign body, anaphylaxis).

Suspected epiglottitis in a child
Show answer

Keep the child calm, do NOT inspect the throat, give oxygen, and transport — agitation can worsen the airway.

When to ventilate vs give oxygen
Show answer

Ventilate with a BVM for inadequate/absent breathing; give oxygen (cannula/NRB) for hypoxia in a patient breathing adequately.

Child compression depth
Show answer

About one-third the depth of the chest.

Bradycardia in a child
Show answer

Usually means hypoxia — open the airway and oxygenate or ventilate.

Why minimize CPR interruptions
Show answer

Pauses drop blood flow; keep compressions nearly continuous and resume immediately after a shock.

Hands-only CPR
Show answer

Continuous chest compressions without breaths, taught for untrained or unwilling bystanders — EMRs add ventilations.

Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)
Show answer

A from-the-doorway impression of a child: Appearance, Work of Breathing, and Circulation to the skin.

AVPU vs general impression
Show answer

General impression is the overall sick/not-sick sense; AVPU is the specific level-of-consciousness rating.

Rescue breathing rate (adult, pulse present, not breathing)
Show answer

1 breath every 6 seconds (about 10 per minute).

Secondary Assessment (36)

Secondary assessment
Show answer

The detailed exam after life threats are addressed — a focused or rapid head-to-toe exam, vital signs, and a history.

SAMPLE history
Show answer

Signs/symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Pertinent past history, Last oral intake, Events leading up.

OPQRST
Show answer

Onset, Provocation/Palliation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Time — a pain-assessment mnemonic.

OPQRST — 'What were you doing when it started?'
Show answer

Onset.

OPQRST — 'Describe how it feels'
Show answer

Quality (e.g., sharp, dull, crushing).

OPQRST — 'How long has it lasted?'
Show answer

Time.

SAMPLE — sudden rash after a new food
Show answer

A — Allergies.

SAMPLE — 'What medications do you take?'
Show answer

M — Medications.

SAMPLE — past illnesses and conditions
Show answer

P — Pertinent past medical history.

Vital signs an EMR assesses
Show answer

Pulse, breathing (rate & quality), skin (color/temperature/moisture), pupils, and — where trained — a manual blood pressure.

Capillary refill
Show answer

Press a nail bed until it blanches; color should return in under 2 seconds. A delay suggests poor peripheral perfusion.

Skin signs and perfusion
Show answer

Pale, cool, clammy skin points to poor perfusion; assessing skin is a fast window on circulation.

What pupils tell you
Show answer

Pupil findings reflect the brain/head; unequal or non-reactive pupils can indicate a serious head problem.

PEARRL / pupil check
Show answer

Pupils Equal And Round, Reactive to Light — a normal pupil exam.

DCAP-BTLS
Show answer

Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures/penetrations, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations, Swelling — what to look for in the physical exam.

Focused vs rapid exam
Show answer

Responsive medical patient → focused exam of the relevant system; unresponsive or major-trauma patient → rapid head-to-toe exam.

Jugular vein distension (JVD)
Show answer

Distended neck veins felt/seen during the exam — can indicate a chest or cardiac problem.

Tracheal deviation
Show answer

A shift of the trachea away from midline — a late sign of a tension pneumothorax.

Paradoxical chest movement
Show answer

A section of chest wall moving opposite to the rest during breathing — a flail-chest sign found on the exam.

Weak, thready radial pulse with cool skin
Show answer

Suggests developing poor perfusion (early shock).

Reassessment intervals
Show answer

Repeat the primary assessment, vitals, and interventions every 5 minutes for an unstable patient and every 15 minutes for a stable one.

Baseline vital signs
Show answer

The first set of vitals; later sets are compared against them to detect trends.

Where to get history if the patient can't answer
Show answer

From family, bystanders, medical-alert tags, and the scene.

Chief complaint
Show answer

The main problem the patient (or others) report — the reason EMS was called, in the patient's own words when possible.

Normal adult resting pulse
Show answer

About 60–100 beats per minute.

Normal adult respiratory rate
Show answer

About 12–20 breaths per minute.

Why a focused vs rapid exam choice
Show answer

It matches the depth of assessment to the patient's condition and mechanism.

SAMPLE — Last oral intake importance
Show answer

Matters for surgery timing, diabetic emergencies, and possible aspiration.

OPQRST — Severity
Show answer

How bad the symptom is, usually rated 0–10.

OPQRST — Region/Radiation
Show answer

Where the pain is and where it travels (e.g., chest pain radiating to the arm).

Trending vital signs
Show answer

Comparing repeated vitals against the baseline to detect improvement or deterioration.

Diaphoresis
Show answer

Profuse sweating — a sign that can accompany shock, a heart attack, or hypoglycemia.

Mottled skin
Show answer

A blotchy skin pattern reflecting poor perfusion, often seen in shock.

Why check the neck during a rapid exam
Show answer

To find distended neck veins or a deviated trachea, which point to serious chest/cardiac problems.

Distal CMS check
Show answer

Checking distal Circulation, Motor, and Sensory function before and after splinting an injured limb.

Pertinent negatives
Show answer

Important findings the patient does NOT have (e.g., no chest pain), which help rule conditions in or out.

Patient Treatment & Transport (58)

EMR bleeding control order
Show answer

Direct pressure first; then a tourniquet for limb bleeding it can't control; wound packing for junctional wounds.

Direct pressure
Show answer

Firm, steady pressure directly over a bleeding wound — the first and primary method to control external bleeding.

Tourniquet placement
Show answer

A few inches above the wound on the limb, NOT over a joint; apply high and tight, note the time, and leave it on.

Who removes a field tourniquet?
Show answer

Hospital or higher-level providers — not the EMR in the field.

Wound packing
Show answer

Firmly packing gauze (plain or hemostatic) into a deep junctional wound and holding direct pressure when a tourniquet can't reach.

Hemostatic gauze
Show answer

Gauze treated to speed clotting; packed into a wound and held with firm direct pressure.

Tourniquet for a partial hand amputation
Show answer

Place it on the forearm above the wound (a limb, not over a joint).

Shock positioning — current guidance
Show answer

Keep the patient supine and warm; routine head-down (Trendelenburg) tilt is NO longer recommended for shock.

EMR shock care
Show answer

Control bleeding, maintain airway/breathing, give oxygen, keep warm and supine, and arrange rapid transport.

Recovery position — when to use
Show answer

Unresponsive (or decreased LOC) BUT breathing adequately, has a pulse, and NO suspected spinal injury.

Recovery position — when NOT to use
Show answer

Inadequate breathing (ventilate/CPR instead) or a suspected spinal injury (keep aligned, manage airway in place).

Burn care (EMR)
Show answer

Stop the burning, remove jewelry and non-stuck clothing, cover with a dry sterile dressing, keep warm — do NOT pop blisters or apply ice/ointment.

Rule of nines (adult)
Show answer

Head 9%, each arm 9%, each leg 18%, anterior trunk 18%, posterior trunk 18%, genitals 1%.

Airway-burn warning signs
Show answer

Singed nasal hair, soot in the mouth, hoarseness, or stridor — possible airway involvement; manage the airway and transport.

Open (sucking) chest wound
Show answer

Seal with an occlusive (vented) dressing; if signs of a tension pneumothorax develop, burp the dressing.

Impaled object
Show answer

Stabilize it in place — do NOT remove it; control bleeding around it and transport.

Evisceration
Show answer

Cover protruding abdominal organs with a moist, sterile dressing — never push them back in.

Manual in-line spinal stabilization
Show answer

Hold the head neutral with eyes forward (nose in line with the navel) for a suspected spinal injury, before and during a collar.

Cervical collar
Show answer

Supports the neck for a suspected spinal injury but does NOT fully immobilize — continue manual stabilization with it.

When NOT to force the head to neutral
Show answer

If moving the head toward neutral causes severe pain or resistance — hold it where found and stabilize.

Naloxone (Narcan)
Show answer

An opioid antagonist an EMR can give intranasally or by auto-injector to reverse opioid respiratory depression. Support ventilation first.

Opioid overdose signs
Show answer

Pinpoint pupils, slow or absent breathing, and a decreased level of consciousness.

Goal of naloxone dosing
Show answer

Restore adequate breathing, not full alertness; over-aggressive dosing can trigger agitation and withdrawal.

FAST (stroke screen)
Show answer

Face droop, Arm drift, Speech difficulty, Time to call for help and note the last-known-well time.

EMR stroke care
Show answer

Recognize with FAST, note last-known-well, support airway/breathing, check glucose if trained, and transport rapidly to a stroke center.

Heart-attack signs
Show answer

Crushing chest pressure radiating to the arm/jaw, dyspnea, diaphoresis, nausea — subtler in women, the elderly, and diabetics.

EMR cardiac-chest-pain care
Show answer

Keep the patient calm and at rest, give oxygen if hypoxic, monitor, and transport rapidly. (Aspirin/nitro are EMT-level.)

Conscious choking adult
Show answer

Give abdominal thrusts (Heimlich) above the navel until the object clears or the patient becomes unresponsive.

Choking patient becomes unresponsive
Show answer

Lower them to the ground and begin CPR, checking the mouth for the object before giving breaths.

Infant choking relief
Show answer

Alternate 5 back blows and 5 chest thrusts (not abdominal thrusts).

Emergency childbirth — EMR role
Show answer

Support the head as it delivers, suction mouth then nose if needed, keep the newborn warm and dry, and stimulate it.

Newborn heart rate below 100
Show answer

If it stays below 100 despite warming, drying, positioning, and stimulating, begin positive-pressure ventilation with a BVM.

Late-pregnancy transport position
Show answer

Tilt to the LEFT side to avoid supine hypotensive syndrome (the uterus compressing the vena cava).

Splinting
Show answer

Immobilize a suspected fracture to reduce pain and bleeding; check distal circulation, motor, and sensation before and after.

Oxygen — nasal cannula vs non-rebreather
Show answer

Nasal cannula for mild need; non-rebreather (10–15 L/min) for significant hypoxia in a patient breathing adequately.

Hypothermia handling
Show answer

Handle gently (rough movement can trigger fibrillation), remove wet clothing, rewarm passively, and give warm humidified oxygen.

Heat stroke
Show answer

Hot skin with altered mentation — a true emergency needing rapid active cooling and transport.

Seizure care (EMR)
Show answer

Protect the patient from injury, do NOT restrain or put anything in the mouth, and protect the airway afterward.

Emergency move
Show answer

Used only when there is immediate danger, you can't reach a critical patient, or you must access another patient.

Eye irrigation
Show answer

For a chemical eye exposure, flush the eye with copious water/saline, sweeping away from the unaffected eye.

Hemorrhagic shock
Show answer

Shock from blood loss — control the bleeding, give oxygen, keep warm and supine, and transport rapidly.

Flail chest
Show answer

Two or more adjacent ribs broken in two or more places, causing paradoxical movement — support ventilation.

Tension pneumothorax signs
Show answer

Severe dyspnea, absent breath sounds on one side, distended neck veins, hypotension, and late tracheal deviation.

Sucking chest wound dressing
Show answer

An occlusive (vented) dressing; burp it if a tension pneumothorax develops.

Amputated part care
Show answer

Wrap the part in moist sterile gauze, place it in a bag, keep it cool (not directly on ice), and transport it with the patient.

Nosebleed (epistaxis) control
Show answer

Have the patient sit, lean forward, and pinch the soft part of the nose; transport if severe or uncontrolled.

Hypoglycemia signs
Show answer

Rapid-onset altered mental status, sweating, fast heart rate, tremor, and weakness; check glucose where trained.

EMR and oral glucose
Show answer

Oral glucose is an EMT-level skill in the national scope — the EMR provides supportive care and rapid transport.

Anaphylaxis recognition
Show answer

A severe, multi-system allergic reaction with airway swelling, wheezing, hives, and hypotension.

EMR and the epinephrine auto-injector
Show answer

Giving agency epinephrine for anaphylaxis is generally EMT-level; follow local protocol, support the airway, and transport.

Carbon monoxide and SpO2
Show answer

CO can read a falsely normal oxygen saturation — give high-flow oxygen and remove the patient from the source.

Behavioral emergency safety
Show answer

Ensure scene safety, stay calm, set limits, and use restraints only when necessary, monitored, and per protocol — never prone.

Positional asphyxia
Show answer

Suffocation risk from restraining a patient face-down — avoid the prone position during restraint.

Prolapsed umbilical cord
Show answer

Relieve pressure with knee-chest positioning and a gloved hand keeping the presenting part off the cord; transport rapidly.

Cold-emergency rewarming (EMR)
Show answer

Passive rewarming — remove wet clothing, insulate, and move to a warm environment; handle gently.

Why oxygen is not withheld from a hypoxic COPD patient
Show answer

Hypoxia kills; give needed oxygen and monitor — do not withhold it over an unfounded 'hypoxic drive' fear.

Splint position-of-function
Show answer

Splint a limb in a natural, supported position; immobilize the joints above and below the injury.

Why a tourniquet is left in place
Show answer

Loosening it in the field can restart life-threatening bleeding and release harmful byproducts — leave it for the hospital.

Operations (44)

Mass-casualty incident (MCI)
Show answer

An incident whose patient numbers and severity exceed available resources — that mismatch is the defining feature.

START triage
Show answer

Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment — sorts patients by Respirations, Perfusion, and Mental status into four categories.

START — first step
Show answer

Direct everyone who can walk to one area; they are tagged Green (Minor). Then assess the rest where they lie.

START — Green (Minor)
Show answer

The walking wounded — can get up and move on command.

START — Red (Immediate)
Show answer

Breathing over 30/min, no radial pulse or capillary refill over 2 seconds, OR can't follow commands.

START — Yellow (Delayed)
Show answer

Breathing, perfusing, and following commands — but cannot walk.

START — Black (Deceased/Expectant)
Show answer

No breathing even after the airway is repositioned.

Only treatments during START
Show answer

Opening the airway and controlling major bleeding — you keep sorting rather than stopping to treat.

JumpSTART
Show answer

The pediatric version of START triage.

Incident Command System (ICS)
Show answer

The standardized NIMS structure for organizing personnel and resources at an incident.

Hazmat hot zone
Show answer

The contaminated danger area — entered only by trained, properly equipped responders.

Hazmat warm zone
Show answer

The decontamination corridor between the hot and cold zones.

Hazmat cold zone
Show answer

The safe area where EMS stages and command operates — where an untrained EMR works.

Where an EMR works at a hazmat scene
Show answer

The cold zone, unless specifically trained and equipped; patients must be decontaminated before treatment/transport.

Identifying a hazmat from a distance
Show answer

Use binoculars and reference placards/labels; approach from uphill and upwind.

Expressed consent
Show answer

Informed agreement to care from a competent adult told the condition, the proposed care, and its risks.

Implied consent
Show answer

The assumption that an unresponsive patient or an unaccompanied minor in an emergency would consent to lifesaving care.

Refusal of care
Show answer

A competent adult may refuse care after being informed of the risks; ensure an informed refusal and document thoroughly.

Duty to act
Show answer

A legal obligation to respond and provide care — e.g., when an EMR is on duty or dispatched on a call.

Abandonment
Show answer

Leaving a patient you've started caring for without transferring to a provider of equal or higher training.

Transfer of care
Show answer

Handing the patient to a receiving provider of equal/higher training who takes responsibility and receives a report.

Four elements of negligence
Show answer

Duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages — all four must be present.

Breach of duty
Show answer

Failing to provide the standard of care, such as skipping a step local protocol clearly requires.

Good Samaritan law
Show answer

Protects a responder who renders reasonable, good-faith aid within their training from liability.

Does a Good Samaritan law cover out-of-scope care?
Show answer

No — it does not protect care that goes beyond the responder's training and scope.

HIPAA / patient privacy
Show answer

Protect a patient's health information; share it only with those involved in the patient's care.

Advance directive / DNR
Show answer

A valid order (e.g., a DNR) directing the limits of care — honor it when present and valid.

Due regard (ambulance/emergency driving)
Show answer

Operating safely with concern for others — slow at intersections (most crashes) and wear seatbelts.

Negligence — what 'causation' means
Show answer

The breach of duty actually caused harm to the patient.

Minor at a scene with no parent
Show answer

Implied consent allows emergency care, since a reasonable parent would consent to lifesaving treatment.

ICS at an MCI
Show answer

Provides a clear chain of command and resource tracking so a chaotic scene is managed safely.

Re-triage
Show answer

Reassessing and re-tagging patients as their condition changes during an MCI.

START decision — no breathing after airway opened
Show answer

Tag Black (Deceased/Expectant) and move on.

START decision — respirations over 30/min
Show answer

Tag Red (Immediate).

Triage priority logic
Show answer

Do the greatest good for the greatest number — sort and treat the salvageable critical patients first.

Decontamination before transport
Show answer

Hazmat patients must be decontaminated before EMS treats or transports them, to protect responders and the ambulance.

Extrication phases
Show answer

Gain access, assess/stabilize, disentangle, and remove — patient care drives the process.

Scene documentation
Show answer

Document objectively and accurately on the PCR; it is a legal record supporting continuity of care.

Competent adult refuses care
Show answer

Honor an informed refusal from a competent adult; explain the risks, document thoroughly, and offer to return.

Why a report is required at transfer of care
Show answer

So the receiving provider has the full assessment and treatment picture and care continues seamlessly.

On-duty EMR delays a response
Show answer

Failing to respond promptly while on duty can be a breach of the duty to act.

Confidentiality exceptions
Show answer

Limited sharing is allowed for continuity of care, mandated reporting, and legal requirements.

What defines an MCI vs a routine multi-patient call
Show answer

Patient numbers and severity that overwhelm available resources — not the time of day or distance to a hospital.

Green-tag patients during START
Show answer

Anyone who can walk to a designated area on command — assessed last.

References

  1. 1.NREMT. “Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) Certification & Cognitive Exam.” NREMT.org. ↑
  2. 2.NHTSA, Office of EMS. “National EMS Scope of Practice Model.” ems.gov. ↑
  3. 3.American Heart Association. “CPR & Emergency Cardiovascular Care Guidelines.” cpr.heart.org. ↑
Career Employer

Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.

Follow Us:

All Posts

Career Employer’s Editorial Process

Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.