Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of CPC cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from AAPC’s content areas of physician/outpatient coding, so you study exactly what the exam tests.[1] Pair them with our free practice test and study guide.
CPC Flashcard Study Modes
Flip mode lets you work through each card front and back at your own pace. Match turns term-to-definition recall into a timed game. Type shows the definition and asks you to produce the term, so a card like Modifier 25 has to come from memory. Quiz builds multiple-choice questions from the same cards for a quick check under pressure.

Why Flashcards Work for the CPC
Coding Guidelines, Modifiers & Compliance is the biggest block at 62 cards, and it covers the rules layer sitting over every code you assign. You get compliance terms like Upcoding and Unbundling, payer policy distinctions such as LCD vs NCD, and a run of modifier fronts including Modifier 25, Modifier 26 and Modifier 24. Credentialing context shows up too, on the card that contrasts CPC vs CCS and the one on OIG (HHS).
CPT Surgery by Body System holds 44 cards and organizes the surgical section the way the manual does. Fronts like 10000 series CPT, 30000 series CPT and 50000 series CPT anchor the ranges, while a procedure-level card such as Tympanostomy tests whether you can place a specific service in the right family. The CPT code set card frames the numbering system the rest of the domain depends on.
ICD-10-CM & HCPCS Level II brings 38 cards on diagnosis and supply coding: ICD-10-CM itself, convention pairs like NOS vs NEC, and situational concepts such as Underdosing and Z codes, alongside letter-series fronts including HCPCS A codes and HCPCS E codes. Medical Terminology & Anatomy adds 32 cards of word parts and structures, with Suffix ’-ectomy’, Prefix ’dys-’ and Body cavities among the fronts that make an unfamiliar procedure description readable.
Anesthesia, Radiology, Path/Lab & Medicine covers 29 cards across the specialty sections, from Anesthesia formula and Modifier 26 vs TC to Modifier 91 (lab) and Radiology subsections. Evaluation & Management closes the deck with 27 cards on visit-level coding, including Three elements of MDM, Risk in MDM and Modifier 57 (E/M), plus setting-specific fronts like Nursing facility E/M and ED E/M codes.
The CPC is dense with terminology — CPT modifiers and symbols, E/M leveling rules, ICD-10-CM conventions, and HCPCS codes.[3] Spaced flashcards are the most efficient way to keep it all fresh. Used alongside our practice test and study guide, they turn review time into measurable progress.
CPC Flashcards by Topic
The cards are organized by AAPC’s content blocks. Drill the highest-yield ones first — the CPT surgery sections and the modifiers that decide answers across the exam:[1]
| Topic | What it covers |
|---|---|
| CPT Surgery by Body System | 10000–60000 series: lesion excision, repairs, packages, add-on codes |
| Evaluation & Management | New vs established, leveling by MDM or time (2021+) |
| Anesthesia, Radiology, Path/Lab & Medicine | Time units, 26/TC components, lab panels, immunizations |
| Medical Terminology & Anatomy | Prefixes, suffixes, combining forms, body systems |
| ICD-10-CM & HCPCS Level II | Conventions, 7th character, J codes, modifiers |
| Coding Guidelines, Modifiers & Compliance | Modifiers, NCCI edits, fraud vs abuse, ABN |
How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards
- Start with the rules. Coding Guidelines, Modifiers & Compliance carries 62 cards, more than any other domain, and its modifier and compliance vocabulary resurfaces inside surgery, E/M and specialty questions alike.
- Type the look-alikes. Fronts such as Unbundling and LCD vs NCD reward exact recall, so typing the term from its definition exposes the pairs you only half know.
- Match the word parts. The Medical Terminology & Anatomy prefix and suffix cards, Suffix ’-pexy’ and Prefix ’a-/an-’ among them, are short enough that timed matching builds real speed.
- Switch when Quiz stops surprising you. Once multiple choice on modifiers and code ranges feels routine, move to the practice test, where cases make you apply guidelines instead of recognizing terms.
- Keep the cadence small. With 232 cards, work one domain per session, recycle missed cards into the next Flip pass, and revisit Evaluation & Management often since its 27 cards compound.
CPC Flashcards FAQ
Hundreds of free CPC flashcards, organized across the AAPC content areas — CPT surgery coding, Evaluation & Management, anesthesia/radiology/path-lab/medicine, medical terminology & anatomy, ICD-10-CM, HCPCS Level II, and coding guidelines/modifiers/compliance. They're free with no account required.
Yes. Flashcards use active recall — retrieving an answer from memory — which research shows is one of the most effective study methods, especially in short, spaced sessions. They're ideal for the CPC's heavy terminology: CPT modifiers, E/M rules, ICD-10-CM conventions, and HCPCS codes.
All the AAPC content blocks: CPT surgery by body system (10000–60000), E/M leveling, anesthesia/radiology/pathology-lab/medicine, medical terminology & anatomy, ICD-10-CM diagnosis coding, HCPCS Level II, and coding guidelines, modifiers, NCCI edits, and compliance.
Lead with the CPT surgery sections and the high-yield modifiers (25, 59, 51, 50, 26/TC) — they decide answers throughout the exam — then drill E/M leveling and ICD-10-CM conventions. Mix the modes: flip to learn, type to test recall, match for speed, and quiz to check yourself before a full practice test.
Yes — 100% free, all four study modes, no paywall.
Yes. The cards are organized to AAPC's current CPC content areas and the 100-question, open-book format, including the 2021+ office E/M leveling rules and current modifier and ICD-10-CM conventions.
CPC flashcard bank
All 232 cards, by topic
A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.
CPT Surgery by Body System (44)
- CPT code set
Show answerHide answer
The AMA's Current Procedural Terminology — codes that report physician and outpatient procedures and services; the core code set for the CPC exam.
- CPT surgery sections (by series)
Show answerHide answer
10000 Integumentary, 20000 Musculoskeletal, 30000 Respiratory/Cardiovascular/Hemic-Lymphatic, 40000 Digestive, 50000 Urinary/Genital/Maternity, 60000 Endocrine/Nervous/Eye/Auditory.
- 10000 series CPT
Show answerHide answer
The Integumentary System — skin, subcutaneous tissue, and accessory structures (lesion excision, repairs, skin grafts, breast procedures).
- How is a benign skin lesion excision coded?
Show answerHide answer
By the EXCISED DIAMETER = greatest clinical diameter of the lesion + the narrowest margins required, then by anatomic site and benign vs malignant.
- Excised diameter formula
Show answerHide answer
Excised diameter = lesion diameter plus two times the narrowest margin. Code each lesion separately; choose benign (11400–11471) or malignant (11600–11646) by anatomic site.
- Wound repair classification
Show answerHide answer
Simple (superficial, one-layer), Intermediate (layered closure), Complex (more than layered — debridement, extensive undermining). Coded by site and total length.
- Multiple wound repairs — same classification
Show answerHide answer
Add together the lengths of repairs in the same classification and anatomic group and report a single code for that combined length.
- 20000 series CPT
Show answerHide answer
The Musculoskeletal System — fractures, dislocations, casting/strapping, arthroscopy, spine, joints, and grafts.
- Fracture care: open vs closed treatment
Show answerHide answer
Refers to the TREATMENT method, not the fracture type. Closed = no surgical opening; open = surgical exposure of the fracture; percutaneous = fixation through the skin.
- 30000 series CPT
Show answerHide answer
Respiratory, Cardiovascular, Hemic & Lymphatic, and Mediastinum & Diaphragm systems.
- Cardiac catheterization coding
Show answerHide answer
Combination codes bundle the catheter placement, imaging supervision, and injection; selective vs non-selective catheter placement determines the code.
- 40000 series CPT
Show answerHide answer
The Digestive System — mouth to anus plus the liver, biliary tract, and pancreas (endoscopy, hernia repair, cholecystectomy).
- Endoscopy 'extent' rule
Show answerHide answer
Code the endoscopy to the FURTHEST extent reached. If a surgical endoscopy is performed, it includes the diagnostic endoscopy of the same procedure.
- Hernia repair coding factors
Show answerHide answer
Code by hernia type (inguinal, ventral, umbilical), whether it is initial vs recurrent, reducible vs incarcerated/strangulated, and patient age (for inguinal).
- 50000 series CPT
Show answerHide answer
Urinary, Genital (male and female), and Maternity Care & Delivery systems.
- Global obstetric (maternity) package
Show answerHide answer
Antepartum care + delivery + postpartum care reported with one global code (e.g., 59400 vaginal). Report components separately only when the same provider doesn't furnish all care.
- 60000 series CPT
Show answerHide answer
Endocrine, Nervous, Eye & Ocular Adnexa, and Auditory systems.
- Global surgical package
Show answerHide answer
A surgical CPT code includes the operation plus related pre-op evaluation, local anesthesia, and routine post-op care during the global period — not billed separately.
- What is a separate procedure (CPT)?
Show answerHide answer
A code designated '(separate procedure)' is bundled when done with a more comprehensive related procedure; report it alone only when it is the only/independent service.
- Bilateral procedure reporting
Show answerHide answer
Append modifier 50 to the CPT code for a procedure performed on both sides of the body in the same session (one line, increased payment), unless the code is inherently bilateral.
- Skin graft coding factors
Show answerHide answer
Coded by graft type (autograft, allograft, xenograft, skin substitute), recipient site, and size in square centimeters (sq cm).
- Debridement coding
Show answerHide answer
Reported by depth (skin, subcutaneous, muscle/fascia, bone) and total surface area; deeper level codes are chosen when deeper tissue is removed.
- Arthroscopy vs arthrotomy
Show answerHide answer
Arthroscopy = joint surgery through a scope; arthrotomy = open surgical incision into a joint. A surgical arthroscopy includes the diagnostic arthroscopy.
- Maternity: when to use 59025
Show answerHide answer
59025 = fetal non-stress test, reported separately from the global OB package.
- Mohs micrographic surgery
Show answerHide answer
A single physician acts as both surgeon and pathologist, removing skin cancer in stages; coded by stage and number of tissue blocks (17311–17315).
- Destruction of lesions (CPT)
Show answerHide answer
Codes 17000–17286 report destruction (e.g., laser, cryosurgery, electrosurgery) of benign, premalignant, or malignant lesions, often by lesion count.
- Breast biopsy vs mastectomy
Show answerHide answer
Biopsy removes a sample for diagnosis; mastectomy (partial, simple, modified radical, radical) removes breast tissue therapeutically — coded by extent.
- Application of casts and strapping
Show answerHide answer
Reported separately only when the cast/strap is NOT part of the global fracture-care code (e.g., a replacement cast or when no restorative treatment is done).
- Spinal procedure components
Show answerHide answer
Vertebral approach, arthrodesis (fusion), instrumentation, and bone graft may each be reported; many graft/instrumentation codes are add-on (+) codes.
- Bronchoscopy coding
Show answerHide answer
Reported by approach and the most extensive procedure performed (diagnostic vs with biopsy, brushing, or therapeutic intervention); the surgical bronchoscopy includes the diagnostic.
- Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
Show answerHide answer
Coded by the NUMBER and TYPE of grafts: venous (33510–33516), arterial (33533–33536), and combined arterial-venous (add-on 33517–33523 with arterial codes).
- Pacemaker vs defibrillator coding
Show answerHide answer
Coded by single vs dual vs biventricular lead system and whether it is an initial insertion, replacement, or revision of the generator and/or leads.
- Laparoscopic vs open approach
Show answerHide answer
CPT distinguishes laparoscopic from open procedures; if a laparoscopy converts to an open procedure, report only the open code.
- Cholecystectomy coding
Show answerHide answer
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy 47562–47564 (with or without cholangiography/exploration); open 47600–47620. Code the approach actually completed.
- Cystourethroscopy
Show answerHide answer
Endoscopic exam of the bladder and urethra (52000 series); the code reflects the most extensive procedure performed (biopsy, stone removal, fulguration).
- Maternity delivery-only codes
Show answerHide answer
Used when one provider does the delivery but not all global care (e.g., 59409 vaginal delivery only); separate antepartum/postpartum codes apply for split care.
- Cesarean section coding
Show answerHide answer
59510 = routine global C-section (antepartum + cesarean delivery + postpartum); 59514 = cesarean delivery only.
- Craniectomy vs craniotomy
Show answerHide answer
Craniotomy = bone flap removed and replaced; craniectomy = bone removed and not replaced. Coded in the 61000–62258 nervous-system range.
- Cataract extraction coding
Show answerHide answer
Coded by technique — extracapsular, phacoemulsification, or with intraocular lens (IOL) insertion (66982–66984); complex cataract codes require documentation.
- Tympanostomy
Show answerHide answer
Insertion of ventilating tubes (69433/69436) in the auditory section; general anesthesia vs local affects code selection.
- Endocrine surgery (thyroid)
Show answerHide answer
Thyroidectomy coded by extent — partial/total lobectomy, total/subtotal, with or without limited neck dissection (60210–60271).
- Operative report components
Show answerHide answer
Header (patient, date, surgeon), preoperative and postoperative diagnoses, procedure(s) performed, and the body describing what was done — the coder's source for CPT selection.
- Greatest clinical diameter
Show answerHide answer
For lesion excision, measured BEFORE removal (the lesion plus margins), not the pathology specimen size after fixation/shrinkage.
- Surgical vs diagnostic endoscopy
Show answerHide answer
When a lesion is treated during a scope, report the surgical endoscopy code; it includes the diagnostic endoscopy of the same site.
Evaluation & Management (27)
- Evaluation and Management (E/M)
Show answerHide answer
CPT codes (99202–99499) reporting non-procedural physician visits — office, hospital, ED, consults, critical care — the signature CPC topic.
- 2021+ office/outpatient E/M leveling
Show answerHide answer
Codes 99202–99215 are leveled by Medical Decision Making (MDM) OR total time on the date of the encounter. History and exam no longer determine the level.
- Three elements of MDM
Show answerHide answer
(1) Number and complexity of problems addressed, (2) amount/complexity of data reviewed, (3) risk of complications/morbidity. The level needs 2 of the 3 met or exceeded.
- New vs established patient (E/M)
Show answerHide answer
New = not seen by the provider (or same-specialty group) in the prior 3 years; established = seen within 3 years. New-patient visits require/allow higher work.
- MDM complexity levels
Show answerHide answer
Straightforward, Low, Moderate, High — these map to the office/outpatient E/M levels (e.g., 99213 = low, 99214 = moderate, 99215 = high).
- E/M time (2021+ office)
Show answerHide answer
Total time = all time the physician/QHP personally spends on the date of the encounter (face-to-face AND non-face-to-face), not just counseling time.
- Critical care time coding
Show answerHide answer
99291 = first 30–74 minutes of critical care; +99292 = each additional 30 minutes. Time-based and includes bundled services (e.g., interpretation of certain data).
- Key components (legacy E/M categories)
Show answerHide answer
History, Examination, and Medical Decision Making — still used to level E/M categories other than 2021+ office/outpatient (e.g., some hospital/consult rules vary by year).
- Consultation requirements
Show answerHide answer
A request from another provider for opinion/advice, the rendering of that opinion, and a written report back to the requesting provider (the classic 'three R's').
- Modifier 57 (E/M)
Show answerHide answer
'Decision for surgery' — appended to the E/M visit at which the decision to perform a MAJOR (90-day global) surgery was made.
- Prolonged services (office)
Show answerHide answer
+99417 reports each additional 15 minutes beyond the highest-level office E/M (99205/99215), used when leveling by total time.
- ED E/M codes
Show answerHide answer
99281–99285 report emergency department visits; ED codes have no new vs established distinction (all ED patients are treated the same way).
- Preventive medicine vs problem E/M
Show answerHide answer
Preventive (99381–99397) is age-based wellness; if a significant problem is also addressed, report a problem E/M with modifier 25 in addition.
- Subsequent hospital care
Show answerHide answer
99231–99233 report follow-up inpatient visits; leveled (low/moderate/high) by MDM or time per the current E/M rules.
- Initial hospital inpatient/observation
Show answerHide answer
99221–99223 report the first encounter of the admitting provider; observation and inpatient initial-care codes were merged in the CPT update.
- Office consult codes status
Show answerHide answer
99241–99245 (office consults) and inpatient consults 99251–99255 exist in CPT, but Medicare does not pay consultation codes — report the appropriate E/M visit instead.
- Discharge day management
Show answerHide answer
99238 (30 minutes or less) and 99239 (more than 30 minutes) report hospital discharge services; time-based on the total discharge-day work.
- Nursing facility E/M
Show answerHide answer
99304–99318 report nursing-facility initial and subsequent care visits.
- Home/residence E/M
Show answerHide answer
99341–99350 report E/M services in a patient's home or residence (new and established).
- Chronic care management (CCM)
Show answerHide answer
99490 and related codes report non-face-to-face care coordination for patients with multiple chronic conditions, by clinical staff time per month.
- Transitional care management (TCM)
Show answerHide answer
99495/99496 report care after discharge to a community setting, including a timely interactive contact and a face-to-face visit within a set window.
- Newborn care codes
Show answerHide answer
99460–99463 report initial and subsequent normal newborn care; separate codes apply to attendance at delivery and resuscitation.
- Counseling/coordination dominance (legacy)
Show answerHide answer
When counseling/coordination dominates a non-2021-office visit (>50% of time), total time may drive the E/M level — document the time and content.
- Risk in MDM
Show answerHide answer
The risk element considers diagnostic/treatment options, including prescription drug management, decisions about surgery, and social determinants affecting management.
- Problems addressed in MDM
Show answerHide answer
Counts the number and complexity of problems managed at the encounter — self-limited, stable chronic, undiagnosed new problem, acute with systemic symptoms, etc.
- Concurrent care
Show answerHide answer
Similar services provided to the same patient by more than one provider on the same day; each reports their own E/M, with documentation distinguishing the work.
- Time-based vs component-based E/M
Show answerHide answer
Office/outpatient (2021+) use MDM or total time; other categories may still use the three key components or counseling-dominated time rules.
Anesthesia, Radiology, Path/Lab & Medicine (29)
- Anesthesia time reporting
Show answerHide answer
Begins when the anesthesiologist prepares the patient and ends when the patient is safely placed under post-anesthesia care; reported in time units plus base units.
- Anesthesia formula
Show answerHide answer
Payment = (base units + time units + modifying units) times a conversion factor. Each CPT anesthesia code carries assigned base units for the procedure's complexity.
- Physical status modifiers (anesthesia)
Show answerHide answer
P1 (normal healthy) through P6 (brain-dead organ donor) — describe the patient's condition; P3–P5 may add complexity units.
- Qualifying circumstances (anesthesia)
Show answerHide answer
Add-on codes 99100–99140 for situations that complicate anesthesia (extreme age, hypothermia, emergency); reported in addition to the anesthesia code.
- Radiology component coding
Show answerHide answer
Professional component (modifier 26) = the physician's interpretation; technical component (modifier TC) = the equipment/technician; global = both together.
- Modifier 26 vs TC
Show answerHide answer
26 = professional component (interpretation and report only); TC = technical component (equipment, supplies, technician). No modifier = global (both).
- Contrast 'with contrast' rule
Show answerHide answer
'With contrast' in radiology means contrast administered intravascularly, intra-articularly, or intrathecally — oral/rectal contrast alone is coded 'without contrast.'
- Radiologic supervision and interpretation (S&I)
Show answerHide answer
Codes that report the imaging guidance and interpretation portion of a procedure, often paired with the surgical/injection CPT code.
- Pathology & Laboratory panels
Show answerHide answer
Organ/disease panels (e.g., 80053 comprehensive metabolic) bundle specific tests; all listed tests must be performed to report the panel code.
- Modifier 91 (lab)
Show answerHide answer
Repeat clinical diagnostic laboratory test — appended when the same test is repeated on the same day to obtain subsequent results (not for confirming an initial result).
- Surgical pathology levels
Show answerHide answer
88300–88309 are leveled (I–VI) by the specimen's complexity and the work of examination; each specimen is reported separately.
- Medicine section (90000 series)
Show answerHide answer
Reports non-surgical services: immunizations, injections, dialysis, cardiovascular (ECG, stress test), pulmonary, ophthalmology, psychiatry, and physical medicine.
- Vaccine coding: two codes
Show answerHide answer
Report the vaccine/toxoid product code AND the administration code (e.g., 90471 first immunization administration) — both are required.
- Therapeutic vs diagnostic injection
Show answerHide answer
96372 = therapeutic/prophylactic/diagnostic subcutaneous or intramuscular injection; report the drug supplied separately with a HCPCS J code.
- Monitored anesthesia care (MAC)
Show answerHide answer
Anesthesia modifiers QS (MAC service), G8, and G9 describe MAC; the same base/time-unit methodology applies.
- Anesthesia provider modifiers
Show answerHide answer
AA (anesthesiologist personally), QK (medical direction of 2–4 concurrent), QX (CRNA with direction), QZ (CRNA without medical direction).
- Moderate (conscious) sedation
Show answerHide answer
Reported with 99151–99157 by patient age and time; some procedures include sedation inherently and it is not separately reported.
- Radiology subsections
Show answerHide answer
Diagnostic radiology, diagnostic ultrasound, radiologic guidance, mammography, bone/joint studies, radiation oncology, and nuclear medicine.
- Radiation oncology coding
Show answerHide answer
A treatment course is coded across phases: consultation, clinical treatment planning, simulation, dosimetry, treatment delivery, and management.
- Nuclear medicine coding
Show answerHide answer
Includes the imaging study; the radiopharmaceutical (diagnostic or therapeutic) is reported separately, often with a HCPCS code.
- Drug testing (presumptive vs definitive)
Show answerHide answer
Presumptive (80305–80307) screens for a drug class; definitive (80320 series) identifies specific drugs/metabolites — code per the methodology and number of analytes.
- Molecular pathology tiers
Show answerHide answer
Tier 1 codes report specific gene analyses; Tier 2 codes group analyses by level of complexity when no Tier 1 code exists.
- Clinical lab vs anatomic pathology
Show answerHide answer
Clinical lab = chemistry, hematology, microbiology on specimens; anatomic pathology = surgical pathology and cytopathology of tissue/cells.
- Cardiovascular medicine codes
Show answerHide answer
ECG (93000 components), echocardiography, cardiac stress testing, and catheter-based diagnostics live in the Medicine section (93000 series).
- Dialysis coding
Show answerHide answer
End-stage renal disease (ESRD) services are reported per month by patient age and number of visits (90951–90970).
- Physical medicine & rehab
Show answerHide answer
97000-series codes report PT/OT modalities and therapeutic procedures; many are timed (per 15 minutes) under the 8-minute rule.
- Ophthalmology E/M alternative
Show answerHide answer
92002–92014 (eye exam codes) may be reported instead of E/M for eye visits, by new/established and intermediate/comprehensive.
- Psychiatry codes
Show answerHide answer
Psychotherapy 90832–90838 are time-based; add-on codes report psychotherapy provided with an E/M service.
- Allergy coding
Show answerHide answer
Allergy testing (95004 series, by number of tests) is separate from allergen immunotherapy (95115–95170).
Medical Terminology & Anatomy (32)
- Prefix 'hyper-' vs 'hypo-'
Show answerHide answer
hyper- = excessive/above normal; hypo- = deficient/below normal (e.g., hyperglycemia vs hypoglycemia).
- Suffix '-ectomy'
Show answerHide answer
Surgical removal/excision (e.g., appendectomy = removal of the appendix).
- Suffix '-otomy' vs '-ostomy'
Show answerHide answer
-otomy = a surgical incision into; -ostomy = creation of an artificial opening (stoma). Colotomy = incision; colostomy = opening.
- Suffix '-plasty'
Show answerHide answer
Surgical repair or reconstruction (e.g., rhinoplasty = repair of the nose).
- Suffix '-itis'
Show answerHide answer
Inflammation (e.g., appendicitis, gastritis).
- Prefix 'a-/an-'
Show answerHide answer
Without or absence of (e.g., apnea = without breathing).
- Combining form 'cardi/o'
Show answerHide answer
Heart (e.g., cardiomyopathy = disease of the heart muscle).
- Combining form 'nephr/o' vs 'ren/o'
Show answerHide answer
Both mean kidney; nephr/o is Greek-derived (nephrectomy) and ren/o is Latin-derived (renal).
- Anatomical position planes
Show answerHide answer
Sagittal (left/right), coronal/frontal (front/back), transverse/axial (upper/lower). Used to describe imaging and surgical orientation.
- Directional terms
Show answerHide answer
Proximal (nearer the trunk) vs distal (farther); anterior/ventral (front) vs posterior/dorsal (back); medial (toward midline) vs lateral (away).
- Body cavities
Show answerHide answer
Dorsal (cranial + spinal) and ventral (thoracic + abdominopelvic). The diaphragm divides the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.
- Abdominal quadrants
Show answerHide answer
RUQ, LUQ, RLQ, LLQ — used to localize symptoms and surgical sites (e.g., appendicitis pain classically in the RLQ).
- Integumentary system layers
Show answerHide answer
Epidermis (outer), dermis (middle, with vessels/nerves), subcutaneous/hypodermis (fat). Lesion-excision depth affects CPT selection.
- Major body systems (coding-relevant)
Show answerHide answer
Integumentary, musculoskeletal, respiratory, cardiovascular, digestive, urinary, reproductive, endocrine, nervous, and special senses — mirror the CPT surgery sections.
- Suffix '-pexy'
Show answerHide answer
Surgical fixation or suspension (e.g., nephropexy = fixation of the kidney).
- Suffix '-rrhaphy'
Show answerHide answer
Surgical suturing/repair (e.g., herniorrhaphy = suture repair of a hernia).
- Suffix '-scopy' vs '-graphy'
Show answerHide answer
-scopy = visual examination with a scope; -graphy = the process of recording an image (e.g., angiography).
- Suffix '-centesis'
Show answerHide answer
Surgical puncture to remove fluid (e.g., thoracentesis, amniocentesis).
- Suffix '-lysis'
Show answerHide answer
Breakdown, destruction, or freeing from adhesions (e.g., adhesiolysis).
- Prefix 'brady-' vs 'tachy-'
Show answerHide answer
brady- = slow (bradycardia); tachy- = fast (tachycardia).
- Prefix 'dys-'
Show answerHide answer
Painful, difficult, or abnormal (e.g., dysphagia = difficulty swallowing).
- Combining form 'hepat/o'
Show answerHide answer
Liver (e.g., hepatomegaly = enlargement of the liver).
- Combining form 'oste/o'
Show answerHide answer
Bone (e.g., osteoarthritis, osteotomy).
- Combining form 'cyt/o' vs 'hist/o'
Show answerHide answer
cyt/o = cell; hist/o = tissue (cytology vs histology).
- Combining form 'enter/o' vs 'gastr/o'
Show answerHide answer
enter/o = small intestine; gastr/o = stomach (gastroenteritis = inflammation of stomach and intestine).
- Combining form 'pneum/o' vs 'pulmon/o'
Show answerHide answer
Both relate to lung/air; pneum/o (pneumonia, pneumothorax) and pulmon/o (pulmonary).
- Cardiovascular anatomy: chambers
Show answerHide answer
Two atria (upper, receiving) and two ventricles (lower, pumping); the right side handles deoxygenated blood, the left side oxygenated.
- Respiratory tract order
Show answerHide answer
Nose/pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli (site of gas exchange).
- Digestive tract order
Show answerHide answer
Mouth → esophagus → stomach → small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, ileum) → large intestine (colon) → rectum → anus.
- Urinary system order
Show answerHide answer
Kidneys → ureters → bladder → urethra; the nephron is the functional filtering unit of the kidney.
- Skeletal divisions
Show answerHide answer
Axial skeleton (skull, vertebral column, rib cage) and appendicular skeleton (limbs and girdles).
- Muscle types
Show answerHide answer
Skeletal (voluntary, striated), cardiac (involuntary, striated, in the heart), and smooth (involuntary, in organs/vessels).
ICD-10-CM & HCPCS Level II (38)
- ICD-10-CM
Show answerHide answer
The U.S. diagnosis code set used in all settings to report the reason for the encounter; 3–7 alphanumeric characters with a required decimal after the third character.
- ICD-10-CM 7th character (injuries)
Show answerHide answer
A = initial encounter (active treatment), D = subsequent encounter (healing/recovery), S = sequela (late effect). Placeholder X fills empty positions before the 7th.
- ICD-10-CM placeholder X
Show answerHide answer
A dummy 'X' that fills an empty character position so a required 7th character lands in the correct slot (e.g., T36.0X1A).
- Excludes1 vs Excludes2
Show answerHide answer
Excludes1 = NOT coded here — the two conditions cannot occur together. Excludes2 = 'not included here' — both conditions MAY be coded together if documented.
- 'Code first' note
Show answerHide answer
Instructs the coder to sequence the underlying/etiology condition before the manifestation code (e.g., code the underlying disease first, then the manifestation).
- 'Use additional code' note
Show answerHide answer
Tells the coder to add a secondary code to fully describe the condition (e.g., add a code for the infectious organism or causal agent).
- Coding signs & symptoms
Show answerHide answer
Do NOT code signs/symptoms that are integral to a confirmed definitive diagnosis; code them when no definitive diagnosis is established or when they are not routinely associated.
- Outpatient 'probable/suspected' rule
Show answerHide answer
In the OUTPATIENT setting, never code 'probable,' 'suspected,' 'rule out,' or 'questionable' diagnoses — code to the highest degree of certainty (the signs/symptoms).
- Combination code (ICD-10-CM)
Show answerHide answer
A single code that classifies two diagnoses, or a diagnosis with an associated manifestation or complication (e.g., type 2 diabetes with diabetic neuropathy).
- Z codes
Show answerHide answer
ICD-10-CM codes for factors influencing health status and encounters for reasons other than disease (screenings, aftercare, exposure, status).
- Laterality in ICD-10-CM
Show answerHide answer
Many codes specify right, left, or bilateral. If the side isn't documented and laterality is required, an unspecified-side code may be needed or the provider queried.
- Underdosing
Show answerHide answer
ICD-10-CM coding for taking LESS of a medication than prescribed; coded with a T36–T50 code with the 5th/6th character '6' for underdosing — never with a poisoning code.
- NOS vs NEC
Show answerHide answer
NOS = Not Otherwise Specified (= unspecified; lacking detail). NEC = Not Elsewhere Classifiable (the detail exists but no specific code is available).
- Etiology/manifestation convention
Show answerHide answer
When 'code first' and 'use additional code' appear together, the etiology is sequenced first and the manifestation second; manifestation codes are never first-listed.
- HCPCS Level II
Show answerHide answer
An alphanumeric code set (A–V) for products, supplies, and services not in CPT — drugs, DME, ambulance, prosthetics, orthotics, and supplies.
- HCPCS J codes
Show answerHide answer
Report injectable/infusion drugs and their dosage amounts (e.g., a J code for a specific drug per unit) — pair with the CPT administration code.
- HCPCS vs CPT
Show answerHide answer
CPT (HCPCS Level I) reports physician/outpatient procedures; HCPCS Level II reports supplies, drugs, and equipment not described by CPT.
- HCPCS modifiers
Show answerHide answer
Level II modifiers are alphanumeric (e.g., LT/RT for left/right, GA for ABN on file, the X{EPSU} subset of modifier 59) and refine the service.
- Sequela (late effect)
Show answerHide answer
A residual condition produced after the acute phase of an injury/illness has ended; coded with the condition first, then the cause with 7th character S.
- Default code (ICD-10-CM Index)
Show answerHide answer
The code listed next to the main term in the Alphabetic Index — used when the documentation doesn't specify a more detailed condition.
- Acute vs chronic same condition
Show answerHide answer
When both acute and chronic forms are documented and separately indexed at the same indentation, code BOTH, sequencing the ACUTE/subacute first.
- Impending/threatened condition
Show answerHide answer
If it occurred, code as a confirmed diagnosis; if it did not, reference the Index for 'impending' or 'threatened' and code the underlying signs/symptoms.
- Coding for diabetes mellitus
Show answerHide answer
Use the combination codes in E08–E13 by type and the manifestation/complication; 'with' presumes a causal link unless documentation states otherwise.
- Neoplasm table columns
Show answerHide answer
Malignant primary, malignant secondary, Ca in situ, benign, uncertain behavior, and unspecified — select the column matching the documented behavior.
- Coding the reason for the encounter
Show answerHide answer
List first the diagnosis/condition chiefly responsible for the services provided (first-listed diagnosis in the outpatient setting).
- Chronic conditions coding
Show answerHide answer
Chronic conditions treated on an ongoing basis may be coded as many times as the patient receives treatment for them.
- External cause codes (V–Y)
Show answerHide answer
Optional ICD-10-CM codes describing how an injury happened, the place, activity, and status; never sequenced first.
- ICD-10-CM code length
Show answerHide answer
3 to 7 characters; the first character is a letter, the second is a number, and a decimal follows the third character when more characters are present.
- 'In diseases classified elsewhere'
Show answerHide answer
A manifestation-code title that means the code is never first-listed; it must follow the underlying etiology code.
- HCPCS A codes
Show answerHide answer
Transportation/ambulance, medical/surgical supplies, and administrative/miscellaneous services.
- HCPCS E codes
Show answerHide answer
Durable medical equipment (DME) — wheelchairs, hospital beds, walkers, and similar reusable equipment.
- HCPCS G codes
Show answerHide answer
Temporary procedure/professional service codes established by CMS, often for Medicare-specific services not yet in CPT.
- HCPCS Q codes
Show answerHide answer
Temporary codes for drugs, biologicals, and certain services/supplies assigned by CMS.
- ABN-related HCPCS modifiers
Show answerHide answer
GA (waiver of liability/ABN on file), GX (voluntary ABN), GY (statutorily excluded), GZ (expected denial, no ABN).
- Primary vs secondary diagnosis (outpatient)
Show answerHide answer
First-listed = the main reason for the encounter; secondary diagnoses are coexisting conditions that affect treatment at this visit.
- Aftercare Z codes
Show answerHide answer
Used for routine, planned care during the healing/recovery phase (e.g., attention to an artificial opening); not for active injury treatment, which uses 7th character A.
- Coding for screening encounters
Show answerHide answer
Z11–Z13 screening codes are first-listed when the visit is solely for screening; any finding may be added as a secondary code.
- Modifier LT / RT
Show answerHide answer
HCPCS Level II modifiers indicating the left (LT) or right (RT) side; used to identify which side a one-sided procedure was performed on.
Coding Guidelines, Modifiers & Compliance (62)
- Modifier 25
Show answerHide answer
A significant, separately identifiable E/M service by the same provider on the same day as a procedure — billed in addition to the procedure.
- Modifier 59
Show answerHide answer
Distinct procedural service — flags a procedure not normally reported together that is appropriate here (separate session, site, or lesion).
- Modifier 51
Show answerHide answer
Multiple procedures performed at the same session by the same provider — appended to the secondary/lesser procedures (the primary is reported without it).
- X{EPSU} modifiers
Show answerHide answer
More specific subsets of modifier 59: XE (separate encounter), XS (separate structure), XP (separate practitioner), XU (unusual non-overlapping service).
- Modifier 50
Show answerHide answer
Bilateral procedure — one procedure performed on both sides of the body in the same operative session.
- Modifier 22
Show answerHide answer
Increased procedural services — work substantially greater than typically required; requires supporting documentation.
- Modifier 52 vs 53
Show answerHide answer
52 = reduced services (procedure partially reduced/eliminated at provider discretion); 53 = discontinued procedure (stopped due to patient risk after anesthesia/start).
- Modifiers 58 / 78 / 79
Show answerHide answer
58 = staged/related procedure in the global period; 78 = unplanned return to the OR for a related problem; 79 = unrelated procedure during the global period.
- Add-on codes (+)
Show answerHide answer
Reported in addition to a primary procedure code, never alone, and are modifier-51 exempt. The '+' symbol designates them in CPT.
- Modifier 51 exempt codes
Show answerHide answer
Marked with the ⊘ symbol; add-on codes and certain others are exempt from multiple-procedure reduction — do not append modifier 51.
- CPT symbol: ● (filled circle)
Show answerHide answer
Indicates a NEW code added to CPT for the current edition.
- CPT symbol: ▲ (triangle)
Show answerHide answer
Indicates a code whose DESCRIPTOR was REVISED in the current edition.
- CPT semicolon convention
Show answerHide answer
The text before the semicolon is the common (parent) description shared by the indented child codes that follow; read the parent + indented portion together.
- CPT symbols ◄ ►
Show answerHide answer
Enclose NEW or REVISED text within the guidelines or a code descriptor in the current edition.
- # (pound/hash) CPT symbol
Show answerHide answer
Marks a RESEQUENCED code — placed out of numeric order to keep it with related codes.
- Unlisted procedure codes
Show answerHide answer
Used when no specific CPT code describes the service; require a special report (operative note) and are governed by the section guidelines for that CPT range.
- Category I vs II vs III CPT
Show answerHide answer
Category I = standard 5-digit procedure codes; Category II = optional performance-measurement tracking codes (4 digits + F); Category III = temporary emerging-technology codes (4 digits + T).
- NCCI PTP edits
Show answerHide answer
National Correct Coding Initiative procedure-to-procedure edits prevent improper code pairs (unbundling); a modifier indicator shows whether a modifier (e.g., 59) may override.
- Medically Unlikely Edits (MUE)
Show answerHide answer
NCCI limits on the maximum units of a code reportable for one patient on one day — flag claims exceeding the expected unit count.
- Unbundling
Show answerHide answer
Reporting components of a service separately to gain higher payment when a single comprehensive code applies — a compliance/fraud risk that NCCI edits target.
- Upcoding
Show answerHide answer
Assigning a higher-level or more expensive code than the documentation supports — fraud; never code beyond what the record shows.
- Medical necessity
Show answerHide answer
A service must be reasonable and necessary for the diagnosis or treatment; the ICD-10-CM diagnosis must support the CPT/HCPCS procedure billed.
- Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)
Show answerHide answer
A notice given to a Medicare patient before a service likely to be denied as not medically necessary, transferring financial responsibility; signaled by modifier GA.
- LCD vs NCD
Show answerHide answer
NCD = national coverage determination (CMS, nationwide); LCD = local coverage determination (set by a Medicare Administrative Contractor for its region).
- Fraud vs abuse
Show answerHide answer
Fraud = knowing/intentional deception for unauthorized benefit; abuse = practices inconsistent with sound fiscal/medical practice causing unnecessary cost (intent is the key difference).
- False Claims Act
Show answerHide answer
Federal law imposing liability for knowingly submitting false or fraudulent claims to the government (e.g., Medicare); a core CPC compliance topic.
- OIG (HHS)
Show answerHide answer
The Office of Inspector General — investigates health-care fraud/abuse and publishes compliance program guidance and the annual Work Plan.
- Compliance program (7 elements)
Show answerHide answer
OIG's voluntary program elements: written policies, a compliance officer, training, communication, auditing/monitoring, enforcement/discipline, and corrective action.
- CPC open-book rule
Show answerHide answer
The exam allows the CPT, ICD-10-CM, and HCPCS Level II code books only — tab and index them in advance; 100 questions in 4 hours is ~2.4 minutes each.
- CPC passing score
Show answerHide answer
70% — at least 70 of the 100 multiple-choice questions correct.
- CPC-A (apprentice)
Show answerHide answer
Designation for a coder who passes the CPC without the required experience; the '-A' is removed once 2 years of experience (or the alternate path) is documented.
- Modifier 26
Show answerHide answer
Professional component — the physician's interpretation and report portion of a service that has both a professional and technical component.
- Modifier 76 vs 77
Show answerHide answer
76 = repeat procedure by the SAME physician; 77 = repeat procedure by a DIFFERENT physician.
- Modifier 24
Show answerHide answer
Unrelated E/M service by the same physician during a postoperative (global) period.
- Telehealth modifier 95
Show answerHide answer
Synchronous telemedicine service rendered via real-time interactive audio and video; the ★ symbol flags CPT codes eligible for synchronous telemedicine.
- Modifier 47
Show answerHide answer
Anesthesia by the surgeon — appended to the surgical code when the operating surgeon also provides regional/general anesthesia (not the anesthesia codes).
- Modifier 32
Show answerHide answer
Mandated services — a service required by a third party (e.g., payer, governmental, or regulatory mandate).
- Modifier 62
Show answerHide answer
Two surgeons — each acting as a primary (co-)surgeon for distinct parts of the same procedure; each appends modifier 62.
- Modifier 80 / 81 / 82
Show answerHide answer
80 = assistant surgeon; 81 = minimum assistant surgeon; 82 = assistant surgeon when a qualified resident is unavailable.
- Modifier 66
Show answerHide answer
Surgical team — a highly complex procedure requiring several physicians of different specialties working together.
- Modifier 90 / 99
Show answerHide answer
90 = reference (outside) laboratory; 99 = multiple modifiers (when more modifiers apply than the claim line allows).
- Modifier ordering
Show answerHide answer
Pricing/payment modifiers (e.g., 26, 50, 51, 80) are generally listed before informational/statistical modifiers on the claim.
- Special report
Show answerHide answer
Documentation accompanying an unlisted, new, or rarely used service that describes the nature, extent, need, time, and effort of the procedure.
- CPT index search strategy
Show answerHide answer
Look up the procedure/service, anatomic site, condition, synonym, or eponym in the alphabetic Index, then VERIFY the code in the main (tabular) text — never code from the Index alone.
- Bundling/global concept
Show answerHide answer
Services integral to a procedure (prepping, closing, routine post-op) are bundled into the surgical code and not reported separately.
- EHR cloning / cut-and-paste risk
Show answerHide answer
Copying forward documentation that doesn't reflect the current encounter can support an inaccurate code and is a compliance/audit risk.
- Stark Law (physician self-referral)
Show answerHide answer
Prohibits a physician from referring designated health services payable by Medicare to an entity with which they have a financial relationship, absent an exception.
- Anti-Kickback Statute
Show answerHide answer
Criminal law prohibiting knowingly offering/paying/soliciting/receiving remuneration to induce referrals for items/services payable by a federal health-care program.
- HIPAA in coding
Show answerHide answer
Protects patient health information; coders access only the minimum necessary PHI to assign and report codes.
- Place of service (POS) codes
Show answerHide answer
Two-digit codes identifying where a service was furnished (e.g., 11 office, 21 inpatient hospital, 22 outpatient hospital, 23 ED); affects payment.
- Clean claim
Show answerHide answer
A claim with no defects or missing information that can be processed without additional documentation; reduces denials and delays.
- Modifier 73 / 74 (ASC/hospital outpatient)
Show answerHide answer
73 = discontinued outpatient procedure BEFORE anesthesia; 74 = discontinued AFTER anesthesia administration (facility reporting).
- CCI modifier indicator
Show answerHide answer
On an NCCI PTP edit, an indicator of 0 = no modifier allowed (always bundled); 1 = a modifier may bypass the edit when clinically appropriate; 9 = edit not applicable.
- CPC certifying body
Show answerHide answer
AAPC — the credentialing organization for the Certified Professional Coder; CPC is the standard for physician/outpatient (professional-fee) coding.
- CPC vs CCS
Show answerHide answer
CPC (AAPC) = physician/outpatient, CPT+HCPCS heavy. CCS (AHIMA) = hospital facility/inpatient, ICD-10-PCS and MS-DRG heavy. Different bodies, different settings.
- CPC exam length
Show answerHide answer
100 multiple-choice questions in 4 hours, open-book with the CPT, ICD-10-CM, and HCPCS Level II code books.
- RBRVS / MPFS
Show answerHide answer
The Resource-Based Relative Value Scale underlying the Medicare Physician Fee Schedule; payment is based on work, practice-expense, and malpractice RVUs, adjusted geographically and multiplied by a conversion factor.
- Relative value unit (RVU)
Show answerHide answer
The unit measuring the resources for a service under RBRVS: physician work, practice expense, and malpractice components.
- Modifier 27
Show answerHide answer
Multiple outpatient hospital E/M encounters on the same date (facility reporting).
- Modifier 33
Show answerHide answer
Preventive services — identifies a service furnished as a recommended preventive benefit (often waiving cost-sharing).
- Bilateral vs unilateral codes
Show answerHide answer
Some CPT/ICD codes are inherently bilateral (don't add modifier 50); read the descriptor before appending laterality.
- Add-on code rule (reporting)
Show answerHide answer
Always reported with its designated primary procedure on the same claim; never reported as a standalone service.
References
- 1.AAPC. “Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Certification.” aapc.com. ↑
- 2.American Medical Association. “CPT (Current Procedural Terminology).” ama-assn.org. ↑
- 3.CDC / National Center for Health Statistics. “ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting.” cdc.gov. ↑

Career Employer
Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.
All PostsCareer Employer’s Editorial Process
Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.
