Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of CMA cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the AAMA CMA (AAMA) content categories, so you study exactly what the Certified Medical Assistant exam tests.[1]
Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide. Want extra insurance for exam day? Capital Prep’s CMA premium study materials come with a CMA exam pass guarantee: your money back if you don’t pass, plus up to $250 toward your retake fee — and Career Employer students get a special discount.
CMA Flashcard Study Modes
Four ways to work the same 341 cards: Flip for quiet study, Match for a timed race pairing terms with their meanings, Type for recall where you read the definition and key the term back, and Quiz for multiple choice drawn from the deck. Type is where abbreviations like NPO stop feeling familiar and start being known cold.

Why Flashcards Work for the CMA Exam
Clinical Competency carries 59% of the exam and 173 cards, making it the heaviest block in the deck by a wide margin. Much of it is the shorthand that appears on orders and charts: dosing route and frequency terms such as PO, PRN and NPO, the scheduling abbreviations BID, TID and QID, and lab shorthand like CBC and ESR. These are pure recognition items, which is exactly what a flashcard deck is built to drill.
General accounts for 21% of the exam and 84 cards in this deck, concentrated on the legal, ethical and privacy vocabulary a medical assistant is expected to use precisely. You will see PHI and HIPAA alongside statute-level terms such as PSDA, GINA and ADAAA, plus the liability language that separates one wrong from another, including Tort, Libel and Assault. The distinctions here are narrow, so read the definitions closely rather than pattern-matching the first few words.
Administrative is 20% of the exam and also 84 cards, covering insurance, coding and front-office terms. Payer names and programs show up as Medicare, Medicaid and SCHIP, patient-cost language as Premium and Co-pay, and billing practice terms as Upcoding and Bundling. Scheduling and records vocabulary such as No-show rounds it out.
Taken together, the two smaller domains match each other in size while the clinical block outweighs both. Let the weighting guide how you split sessions, and let the card counts tell you how many passes each domain realistically needs before it holds.
That matters on the CMA, where facts like the order of draw, the injection angles, the normal vital-sign ranges, and the rights of medication administration must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.
CMA Flashcards by Topic
The cards are organized by the three AAMA CMA content categories. Weight your study toward the heaviest one — Clinical Competency is 59% of the scored items:[1]
| AAMA CMA category | Weight |
|---|---|
| Clinical Competency | 59% |
| General | 21% |
| Administrative | 20% |
How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards
- Start clinical. Clinical Competency is 59% of the exam and 173 cards, so open there while you are fresh and give it more sessions than the other two domains combined.
- Type the abbreviations. Order and lab shorthand like QID and CBC has to come back instantly, and typing the term from its definition exposes the ones you only half recognize.
- Match the legal terms. Use Match on General cards such as Tort and Libel, where speed pairing similar-sounding concepts forces you to hold the distinctions apart under time pressure.
- Switch when Quiz stops teaching. Once multiple choice runs clean across all three domains, move to the practice test for full-length pacing and use the study guide to fill gaps.
- Work in short repeated passes. With 341 cards, run one domain per sitting, revisit missed cards the next day, and cycle the full deck several times rather than cramming it once.
CMA Flashcards FAQ
Hundreds of free CMA (AAMA) flashcards, organized across the three AAMA Certified Medical Assistant content categories — Clinical Competency (vitals, infection control, procedures, specimen collection, lab/EKG, pharmacology), General (legal/ethics and communication), and Administrative (coding, insurance, and scheduling). They're free with no account required.
Yes. Flashcards use active recall — retrieving an answer from memory — which research shows is one of the most effective ways to make information stick, especially in short sessions spread over several days. That matters for facts like the order of draw, injection angles, normal vital-sign ranges, and ICD-10 versus CPT coding.
Every AAMA CMA category: Clinical Competency (the largest — vitals, safety and infection control, procedures and examinations, anatomy, specimen collection, CLIA lab testing, EKG, and pharmacology), General (legal and ethical issues, HIPAA, consent, and communication), and Administrative (CPT/ICD-10/HCPCS coding, insurance, and scheduling).
Yes. Every card is written to the official AAMA CMA (AAMA) Content Outline — Clinical Competency (59%), General (21%), and Administrative (20%) — and to official guidance from the CDC, OSHA, HHS, and NIH, so you study exactly what the exam tests.
Both certify medical assistants, but the CMA is the AAMA credential (200 questions, four 40-minute segments, three content categories) while the CCMA is the NHA credential (180 scored items, seven categories). The clinical and administrative skills overlap, so these cards reinforce the same bench skills, but the cert facts differ.
Mix the modes: flip to learn, type to test recall, match for speed, and quiz to check yourself. Spend the most time on Clinical Competency — at 59% it is well over half the exam — and master vital-sign ranges, the order of draw, and the rights of medication administration first.
Yes — 100% free, all four study modes, no paywall.
CMA flashcard bank
All 341 cards, by topic
A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.
Clinical Competency (173)
- Normal adult pulse
Show answerHide answer
60–100 beats per minute.
- Normal adult respirations
Show answerHide answer
12–20 breaths per minute.
- Normal adult temperature
Show answerHide answer
97.8–99.1 °F (average ~98.6 °F).
- Normal adult blood pressure
Show answerHide answer
Under 120/80 mmHg.
- Normal pulse oximetry (SpO₂)
Show answerHide answer
95–100%.
- IM injection angle
Show answerHide answer
90° — into muscle (e.g., deltoid, ventrogluteal).
- SubQ injection angle
Show answerHide answer
45° — into the fatty tissue beneath the skin.
- Intradermal (ID) injection angle
Show answerHide answer
10–15° — a shallow angle into the dermis.
- BMI of 30 or higher
Show answerHide answer
Classified as obese.
- BMI 25–29.9
Show answerHide answer
Classified as overweight.
- BMI 18.5–24.9
Show answerHide answer
Classified as normal weight.
- Lavender (purple) tube additive
Show answerHide answer
EDTA — used for CBC and hematology.
- Light-blue tube additive
Show answerHide answer
Sodium citrate — used for coagulation (PT/INR, PTT).
- Red / gold (SST) tube additive
Show answerHide answer
Clot activator / gel — serum chemistry and serology.
- Green tube additive
Show answerHide answer
Heparin — plasma chemistry and STAT electrolytes.
- Gray tube additive
Show answerHide answer
Sodium fluoride — glucose and lactate testing.
- Order of draw
Show answerHide answer
Cultures, light blue, red/gold, green, lavender, gray.
- Most common venipuncture site
Show answerHide answer
The median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa.
- Rights of medication administration
Show answerHide answer
Right patient, drug, dose, route, time, and documentation.
- Two patient identifiers
Show answerHide answer
Full name and date of birth — verified before any procedure.
- Most important infection-control measure
Show answerHide answer
Hand hygiene.
- Chain of infection (six links)
Show answerHide answer
Agent, reservoir, portal of exit, transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host.
- Standard precautions
Show answerHide answer
Treat every patient's blood and body fluids as infectious.
- Medical asepsis
Show answerHide answer
Clean technique that reduces and contains microorganisms.
- Surgical asepsis
Show answerHide answer
Sterile technique that eliminates all microorganisms.
- Sterile field 1-inch border
Show answerHide answer
Treated as non-sterile (contaminated).
- Sharps disposal rule
Show answerHide answer
Never recap by hand; drop point-first into a puncture-proof container.
- OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
Show answerHide answer
Federal rule governing sharps safety, PPE, and exposure control.
- 12-lead EKG electrodes
Show answerHide answer
10 electrodes (4 limb + 6 precordial) produce 12 views.
- P wave
Show answerHide answer
Represents atrial depolarization.
- QRS complex
Show answerHide answer
Represents ventricular depolarization.
- T wave
Show answerHide answer
Represents ventricular repolarization.
- V1 electrode position
Show answerHide answer
4th intercostal space, right sternal border.
- EKG paper speed (standard)
Show answerHide answer
25 mm/sec — one small box = 0.04 s, one large box = 0.20 s.
- Wandering baseline artifact
Show answerHide answer
Drifting EKG baseline, often from patient movement or breathing.
- 60-cycle interference
Show answerHide answer
Uniform fuzzy EKG artifact from nearby electrical equipment.
- CLIA-waived test
Show answerHide answer
A simple, low-risk lab test a medical assistant may perform.
- Common CLIA-waived tests
Show answerHide answer
Blood glucose, rapid strep, urinalysis dipstick, urine hCG, hemoglobin A1c.
- Hemoglobin A1c measures
Show answerHide answer
Average blood glucose over about three months.
- Hematocrit
Show answerHide answer
The percentage of red blood cells in whole blood.
- Word root
Show answerHide answer
The core meaning of a medical term (e.g., cardi = heart).
- Prefix
Show answerHide answer
A word part at the beginning that modifies meaning (e.g., brady- = slow).
- Suffix
Show answerHide answer
A word part at the end, often naming a condition or procedure (e.g., -itis).
- Combining vowel
Show answerHide answer
Usually 'o' — joins word parts to ease pronunciation.
- -itis
Show answerHide answer
Suffix meaning inflammation (e.g., arthritis).
- -ectomy
Show answerHide answer
Suffix meaning surgical removal (e.g., appendectomy).
- -emia
Show answerHide answer
Suffix meaning a blood condition (e.g., anemia).
- brady-
Show answerHide answer
Prefix meaning slow (e.g., bradycardia).
- tachy-
Show answerHide answer
Prefix meaning fast (e.g., tachycardia).
- hyper-
Show answerHide answer
Prefix meaning excessive or above normal.
- hypo-
Show answerHide answer
Prefix meaning deficient or below normal.
- PRN
Show answerHide answer
As needed (pro re nata).
- STAT
Show answerHide answer
Immediately / at once.
- NPO
Show answerHide answer
Nothing by mouth (nil per os).
- PO
Show answerHide answer
By mouth (per os).
- BID
Show answerHide answer
Twice a day.
- TID
Show answerHide answer
Three times a day.
- QID
Show answerHide answer
Four times a day.
- Sagittal plane
Show answerHide answer
Divides the body into right and left portions.
- Frontal (coronal) plane
Show answerHide answer
Divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back).
- Transverse plane
Show answerHide answer
Divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower).
- Anatomical position
Show answerHide answer
Standing erect, facing forward, arms at sides, palms forward.
- Superior
Show answerHide answer
Toward the head (opposite: inferior).
- Anterior (ventral)
Show answerHide answer
Toward the front (opposite: posterior/dorsal).
- Medial
Show answerHide answer
Toward the midline (opposite: lateral).
- Proximal
Show answerHide answer
Toward the trunk or point of origin (opposite: distal).
- Supine position
Show answerHide answer
Lying flat on the back — used for abdominal exams.
- Fowler's position
Show answerHide answer
Semi-sitting (45–60°) — used for breathing or head/neck exams.
- Lithotomy position
Show answerHide answer
On the back with feet in stirrups — pelvic/gynecologic exams.
- Sims' position
Show answerHide answer
Left side with right knee flexed — rectal exams and enemas.
- Prone position
Show answerHide answer
Lying face down — back and spine exams.
- Knee-chest position
Show answerHide answer
Kneeling with chest down — sigmoidoscopy and rectal exams.
- Auscultation
Show answerHide answer
Listening to body sounds, usually with a stethoscope.
- Palpation
Show answerHide answer
Examining by touch (feeling).
- Percussion
Show answerHide answer
Tapping the body and listening to the resulting sounds.
- Inspection
Show answerHide answer
Examining the body by looking.
- Autoclave
Show answerHide answer
Sterilizes instruments with pressurized steam.
- Sterilization indicator
Show answerHide answer
Confirms an autoclave load reached sterilizing conditions.
- Midstream clean-catch urine
Show answerHide answer
Cleansed collection of the middle portion of the urine stream.
- 24-hour urine collection
Show answerHide answer
A timed specimen collecting all urine over a full day.
- Chain of custody (drug screen)
Show answerHide answer
Documented control of a specimen to ensure legal integrity.
- Capillary (dermal) puncture
Show answerHide answer
A fingerstick or heelstick to collect a small blood sample.
- Six classes of nutrients
Show answerHide answer
Carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, and water.
- Main energy nutrients
Show answerHide answer
Carbohydrates and fats.
- Z-track method
Show answerHide answer
An IM technique that seals irritating medication in the muscle.
- Dosage formula
Show answerHide answer
(Desired dose ÷ dose on hand) × quantity on hand.
- Metric conversion: 1 gram
Show answerHide answer
Equals 1000 milligrams.
- Metric conversion: 1 milligram
Show answerHide answer
Equals 1000 micrograms.
- Contraindication
Show answerHide answer
A reason a drug or procedure should NOT be used for a patient.
- VIS (Vaccine Information Statement)
Show answerHide answer
A CDC document given to patients before a vaccination.
- VAERS
Show answerHide answer
Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System — for reporting reactions.
- Insulin shock
Show answerHide answer
Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) — give fast-acting sugar if conscious.
- Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Show answerHide answer
Hyperglycemic emergency with ketones — needs urgent care.
- First aid for bleeding
Show answerHide answer
Apply firm, direct pressure to the wound.
- Spill kit
Show answerHide answer
Supplies used to safely clean a blood or body-fluid spill.
- SDS (Safety Data Sheet)
Show answerHide answer
Describes a chemical's hazards, handling, and first aid.
- Crash cart
Show answerHide answer
A mobile cart of emergency medications and equipment.
- Bacteria vs virus
Show answerHide answer
Bacteria are treated with antibiotics; viruses are not.
- Direct transmission
Show answerHide answer
Spread by direct contact between an infected and a susceptible host.
- Indirect transmission
Show answerHide answer
Spread through a contaminated object, surface, or vector.
- PPE (personal protective equipment)
Show answerHide answer
Gloves, gown, mask, and eye protection against exposure.
- Chief concern
Show answerHide answer
The main reason, in the patient's words, for the visit.
- SOAP note
Show answerHide answer
Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan — a documentation format.
- Open-ended question
Show answerHide answer
A question that invites a detailed, narrative answer.
- Correcting a charting error
Show answerHide answer
Single line through it, then initial and date — never erase.
- Medication-error reporting
Show answerHide answer
Document and report per facility policy immediately.
- Centrifuge
Show answerHide answer
Spins a specimen to separate components (e.g., serum from cells).
- Wet mount
Show answerHide answer
A slide prep (saline or KOH) examined under the microscope.
- Quality control (lab)
Show answerHide answer
Routine checks confirming test accuracy and reliability.
- Calibration
Show answerHide answer
Adjusting an instrument to a known standard for accuracy.
- Korotkoff sounds
Show answerHide answer
The tapping sounds heard when taking a manual blood pressure.
- Systolic pressure
Show answerHide answer
The top number — pressure when the heart contracts.
- Diastolic pressure
Show answerHide answer
The bottom number — pressure when the heart rests.
- Apical pulse site
Show answerHide answer
Heard at the apex of the heart, 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line.
- Radial pulse site
Show answerHide answer
Felt at the thumb side of the wrist.
- Carotid pulse site
Show answerHide answer
Felt at the side of the neck.
- Tachycardia
Show answerHide answer
A fast heart rate (over 100 bpm in an adult).
- Bradycardia
Show answerHide answer
A slow heart rate (under 60 bpm in an adult).
- BP cuff size rule
Show answerHide answer
The bladder should encircle about 80% of the arm circumference.
- Too-small BP cuff
Show answerHide answer
Produces a falsely HIGH reading.
- Febrile
Show answerHide answer
Having a fever (elevated body temperature).
- Pyrexia
Show answerHide answer
Another word for fever.
- Pediatric vital signs
Show answerHide answer
Pulse and respiratory rates are higher than adults' and fall with age.
- Growth chart
Show answerHide answer
Plots a child's measurements against age-based percentiles.
- CBC
Show answerHide answer
Complete blood count — RBCs, WBCs, hemoglobin, hematocrit, platelets.
- WBC differential
Show answerHide answer
The breakdown of white blood cell types.
- ESR
Show answerHide answer
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate — a nonspecific marker of inflammation.
- INR
Show answerHide answer
International Normalized Ratio — monitors warfarin/anticoagulation.
- Lipid profile
Show answerHide answer
Measures cholesterol and triglycerides.
- Glucose tolerance test
Show answerHide answer
Measures how the body handles a glucose load over time.
- Urinalysis components
Show answerHide answer
Physical, chemical (dipstick), and microscopic exam of urine.
- PPD / TB skin test
Show answerHide answer
An intradermal test read at 48–72 hours for tuberculosis exposure.
- Rapid Group A strep test
Show answerHide answer
A throat-swab test for streptococcal pharyngitis.
- hCG test
Show answerHide answer
Detects pregnancy in urine or blood.
- Spirometry
Show answerHide answer
A pulmonary function test measuring how much/fast air is exhaled.
- Snellen chart
Show answerHide answer
Measures distance visual acuity (e.g., 20/20).
- Audiometry
Show answerHide answer
Hearing testing using pure tones and speech recognition.
- Holter monitor
Show answerHide answer
A continuous portable EKG worn for 24–48 hours.
- Disinfection vs sterilization
Show answerHide answer
Disinfection kills most microbes; sterilization kills all.
- Sanitization
Show answerHide answer
Cleaning to remove debris and reduce microorganisms before disinfection.
- Biohazard symbol
Show answerHide answer
Marks containers for infectious or regulated medical waste.
- Regulated medical waste
Show answerHide answer
Blood, body fluids, sharps, and contaminated materials.
- Post-exposure protocol
Show answerHide answer
Steps after a needlestick: wash, report, and seek evaluation.
- Eyewash station
Show answerHide answer
Used to flush the eyes after a chemical or fluid splash.
- Body mechanics
Show answerHide answer
Using proper posture and lifting technique to prevent injury.
- Incident report
Show answerHide answer
Documents an unexpected event or safety variance.
- Surgical scrub
Show answerHide answer
A thorough hand and forearm wash before sterile procedures.
- Surgical asepsis use
Show answerHide answer
Setting up a sterile field, minor surgery, certain injections.
- Suture vs staple removal
Show answerHide answer
Removing closures once a wound has healed, per order.
- Cast care
Show answerHide answer
Keeping a cast clean and dry; watch for swelling or numbness.
- Eye irrigation direction
Show answerHide answer
Flush from the inner to the outer canthus.
- Specimen labeling
Show answerHide answer
Label at the patient's side with two identifiers and date/time.
- Specimen contamination
Show answerHide answer
Improper collection or handling that invalidates a result.
- Refrigeration (specimen)
Show answerHide answer
A common preservation method for certain specimens.
- Microscope use
Show answerHide answer
Examines cells and microorganisms (e.g., on a wet mount).
- Drug action / indication
Show answerHide answer
What a drug does and the condition it treats.
- Adverse drug reaction
Show answerHide answer
An unintended, harmful response to a medication.
- Generic vs brand name
Show answerHide answer
Generic is the chemical name; brand is the trademarked name.
- Drug storage
Show answerHide answer
Per label — some require refrigeration or light protection.
- Sublingual route
Show answerHide answer
Medication dissolved under the tongue.
- Transdermal route
Show answerHide answer
Medication absorbed through the skin via a patch.
- Inhalation route
Show answerHide answer
Medication breathed into the lungs (e.g., nebulizer, inhaler).
- Instillation route
Show answerHide answer
Drops placed into the eye, ear, or nose.
- Needle gauge
Show answerHide answer
The diameter of a needle — a higher number is a thinner needle.
- Deltoid site
Show answerHide answer
A common adult IM injection site in the upper arm.
- Ventrogluteal site
Show answerHide answer
A preferred IM site for larger volumes.
- Vastus lateralis site
Show answerHide answer
The preferred IM site for infants.
- Immunization schedule source
Show answerHide answer
The CDC publishes childhood and adult immunization schedules.
- Cell, tissue, organ
Show answerHide answer
The structural units of the body, from smallest to largest.
- Integumentary system
Show answerHide answer
Skin, hair, and nails — the body's protective barrier.
- Cardiovascular system
Show answerHide answer
The heart and vessels that circulate blood.
- Respiratory system
Show answerHide answer
The lungs and airways for gas exchange.
- Four abdominal quadrants
Show answerHide answer
RUQ, LUQ, RLQ, LLQ — used to locate findings.
General (84)
- HIPAA
Show answerHide answer
Protects patients' protected health information (PHI).
- PHI
Show answerHide answer
Protected health information — identifiable health data kept private.
- Minimum necessary standard
Show answerHide answer
Limit PHI access and disclosure to only what a task requires.
- HITECH Act
Show answerHide answer
Strengthened HIPAA rules for electronic records and breach notice.
- Informed consent
Show answerHide answer
Documented voluntary agreement after the provider explains risks.
- Implied consent
Show answerHide answer
Consent inferred from actions or assumed in a true emergency.
- Who obtains informed consent?
Show answerHide answer
The provider — the medical assistant may witness the signature.
- Negligence
Show answerHide answer
Failing to provide the accepted standard of care, causing harm.
- Assault
Show answerHide answer
Threatening or attempting unwanted touch (creating fear).
- Battery
Show answerHide answer
Actual unauthorized or unwanted touching of a patient.
- Slander
Show answerHide answer
Spoken defamation of character.
- Libel
Show answerHide answer
Written defamation of character.
- Abandonment
Show answerHide answer
Ending the provider-patient relationship without proper notice.
- Respondeat superior
Show answerHide answer
Employer is liable for an employee's on-the-job negligence.
- Good Samaritan law
Show answerHide answer
Protects those who give reasonable emergency aid in good faith.
- Standard of care
Show answerHide answer
The level of care a reasonably prudent professional would provide.
- Subpoena duces tecum
Show answerHide answer
A legal order to produce documents or records.
- Deposition
Show answerHide answer
Sworn out-of-court testimony recorded for use in a case.
- Scope of practice
Show answerHide answer
Tasks an MA is trained, delegated, and legally allowed to do.
- An MA may NOT
Show answerHide answer
Diagnose, prescribe, or independently interpret results.
- Drug schedules
Show answerHide answer
DEA classifications I–V by abuse potential (e.g., II = high).
- Controlled substance
Show answerHide answer
A drug regulated under federal law due to abuse potential.
- Mandatory reporting
Show answerHide answer
Required reporting of abuse, communicable diseases, and certain wounds.
- Advance directive
Show answerHide answer
A document stating care wishes if a patient can't decide.
- Living will
Show answerHide answer
An advance directive specifying desired treatments.
- DNR order
Show answerHide answer
Do Not Resuscitate — no CPR if the heart or breathing stops.
- DNI order
Show answerHide answer
Do Not Intubate — no breathing tube placed.
- Durable power of attorney (health)
Show answerHide answer
Names a person to make medical decisions for a patient.
- PSDA
Show answerHide answer
Patient Self-Determination Act — informs patients of directive rights.
- GINA
Show answerHide answer
Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act — protects genetic data.
- Authorization to release PHI
Show answerHide answer
Written patient permission to disclose records.
- Patients' Bill of Rights
Show answerHide answer
Outlines a patient's rights to care, privacy, and information.
- Therapeutic communication
Show answerHide answer
Techniques (open questions, reflection) that build trust.
- Active listening
Show answerHide answer
Full attention, no interrupting, and confirming understanding.
- Communication block
Show answerHide answer
Advice, false reassurance, or changing the subject.
- False reassurance
Show answerHide answer
A communication block — 'Don't worry, it's nothing.'
- Nonverbal communication
Show answerHide answer
Posture, tone, facial expression, eye contact, gestures.
- De-escalation
Show answerHide answer
Calming an upset patient to reduce tension safely.
- Empathy
Show answerHide answer
Understanding and sharing another person's feelings.
- ADAAA
Show answerHide answer
Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments Act — accessibility compliance.
- Interpreter use
Show answerHide answer
Required for non-English-speaking and some impaired patients.
- Patient navigator / advocate
Show answerHide answer
An MA role helping patients access and coordinate care.
- Sender-receiver-feedback
Show answerHide answer
The basic communication cycle with confirmation of meaning.
- Defense mechanism
Show answerHide answer
An unconscious coping behavior (e.g., denial, projection).
- Cultural competence
Show answerHide answer
Respecting and adapting to a patient's cultural beliefs.
- Service recovery
Show answerHide answer
Resolving a complaint to restore patient satisfaction.
- Telephone screening
Show answerHide answer
Gathering data and triaging calls by urgency.
- Ethics vs law
Show answerHide answer
Ethics are moral standards; law is enforceable rules.
- Encryption
Show answerHide answer
Encoding electronic PHI so only authorized users can read it.
- Continuity of care release
Show answerHide answer
Sharing records with another provider for ongoing treatment.
- Confidentiality
Show answerHide answer
Keeping patient information private — verbal and written.
- Bias / stereotype
Show answerHide answer
An unfair generalization the MA must recognize and avoid.
- Emancipated minor
Show answerHide answer
A minor legally able to consent to their own care.
- Reportable wounds of violence
Show answerHide answer
Gunshot, stab, and similar wounds must be reported.
- Privacy vs confidentiality
Show answerHide answer
Privacy is the patient's right; confidentiality is the duty to protect it.
- Breach of confidentiality
Show answerHide answer
Disclosing PHI without authorization or a care reason.
- Verbal vs written consent
Show answerHide answer
Verbal may suffice for minor care; invasive procedures need written.
- Patient's right to refuse
Show answerHide answer
A competent adult may refuse care; document the refusal.
- Mature minor
Show answerHide answer
A minor judged able to understand and consent to certain care.
- Tort
Show answerHide answer
A civil wrong causing harm, leading to legal liability.
- Intentional vs unintentional tort
Show answerHide answer
Intentional (assault/battery) vs negligence (unintentional).
- Malpractice
Show answerHide answer
Professional negligence by a health-care provider.
- Statute of limitations
Show answerHide answer
The time limit for filing a lawsuit.
- Express contract
Show answerHide answer
An agreement stated clearly in words (spoken or written).
- Implied contract
Show answerHide answer
An agreement shown by actions or circumstances.
- Termination of care
Show answerHide answer
Ending a provider-patient relationship with proper written notice.
- e-Prescribing
Show answerHide answer
Electronically sending a prescription to a pharmacy.
- Schedule II drug
Show answerHide answer
High abuse potential, accepted medical use (e.g., opioids).
- Reportable communicable disease
Show answerHide answer
Certain infections must be reported to public health.
- Vital statistics
Show answerHide answer
Records of births, deaths, and similar events.
- Ethical standards
Show answerHide answer
Professional codes guiding honest, respectful conduct.
- Conflict of interest
Show answerHide answer
A personal interest that could improperly influence duties.
- Firewall
Show answerHide answer
A security barrier protecting electronic health information.
- Activity log / audit trail
Show answerHide answer
A record of who accessed electronic PHI and when.
- Geriatric communication
Show answerHide answer
Speak clearly, allow time, and respect dignity with older adults.
- Pediatric communication
Show answerHide answer
Use simple words and involve the caregiver as appropriate.
- Health literacy
Show answerHide answer
A patient's ability to understand health information.
- Teach-back
Show answerHide answer
Asking a patient to restate instructions to confirm understanding.
- Personal boundaries
Show answerHide answer
Limits protecting against harassment and unwanted attention.
- Clarification
Show answerHide answer
A therapeutic technique confirming the meaning of a message.
- Reflection
Show answerHide answer
Restating a patient's feelings to show understanding.
- Plan of care communication
Show answerHide answer
Coordinating the care team and referrals around the patient.
- Identifying medical specialties
Show answerHide answer
Knowing which specialist treats which condition for referrals.
- Message protocols (phone)
Show answerHide answer
Standardized handling of patient phone messages.
Administrative (84)
- ICD-10-CM codes
Show answerHide answer
Describe the diagnosis — why care was given.
- CPT codes
Show answerHide answer
Describe the procedure or service — what was done.
- HCPCS Level II
Show answerHide answer
Codes for supplies, equipment, and services not in CPT.
- Medical necessity
Show answerHide answer
A procedure code must be supported by a diagnosis code.
- CPT modifier
Show answerHide answer
A two-character add-on that refines a CPT code's meaning.
- Upcoding
Show answerHide answer
Billing a higher-level code than documented — fraud.
- Downcoding
Show answerHide answer
Billing a lower-level code than documented.
- Unbundling
Show answerHide answer
Separately billing services that should be billed together — fraud.
- Medicare
Show answerHide answer
Federal insurance for people 65+ and certain disabilities.
- Medicare Advantage
Show answerHide answer
A private-plan alternative to Original Medicare (Part C).
- Medicaid
Show answerHide answer
State-administered, income-based coverage.
- SCHIP
Show answerHide answer
State Children's Health Insurance Program for low-income children.
- TRICARE / CHAMPVA
Show answerHide answer
Coverage for military members, retirees, and dependents.
- Workers' compensation
Show answerHide answer
Covers job-related injuries and illnesses.
- Managed care (HMO/PPO)
Show answerHide answer
Plans that control cost through networks and referrals.
- EOB (Explanation of Benefits)
Show answerHide answer
A statement to the patient explaining claim payment.
- Remittance advice
Show answerHide answer
A statement to the provider explaining claim payment.
- Eligibility verification
Show answerHide answer
Confirming a patient's active insurance coverage.
- Prior authorization
Show answerHide answer
Insurer approval required before certain services or drugs.
- Denial / appeal
Show answerHide answer
A rejected claim and the request to reconsider it.
- ABN (Advance Beneficiary Notice)
Show answerHide answer
Warns a Medicare patient they may owe for a service.
- Deductible
Show answerHide answer
The amount a patient pays before insurance begins to pay.
- Co-pay
Show answerHide answer
A fixed amount the patient pays at the time of service.
- Co-insurance
Show answerHide answer
A percentage of the cost the patient shares after the deductible.
- Accounts receivable (A/R)
Show answerHide answer
Money owed TO the practice.
- Accounts payable (A/P)
Show answerHide answer
Money the practice OWES to others.
- Aging of accounts
Show answerHide answer
Tracking how long balances have been unpaid (30/60/90 days).
- End-of-day reconciliation
Show answerHide answer
Balancing the day's charges, payments, and adjustments.
- Write-off / adjustment
Show answerHide answer
Removing an uncollectible or contractual amount from a balance.
- Itemized statement
Show answerHide answer
A bill listing each charge and payment in detail.
- Insurance fraud
Show answerHide answer
Intentional deception for unauthorized benefit (e.g., upcoding).
- Insurance abuse
Show answerHide answer
Practices inconsistent with sound billing, causing improper payment.
- Time-specified (stream) scheduling
Show answerHide answer
Each patient gets a set appointment time.
- Wave scheduling
Show answerHide answer
Several patients booked at the top of the hour, seen in order.
- Modified wave scheduling
Show answerHide answer
Patients booked at intervals within the hour.
- Cluster scheduling
Show answerHide answer
Grouping similar visit types together.
- Double-booking
Show answerHide answer
Two patients in one slot — used sparingly for urgent add-ons.
- Scheduling matrix
Show answerHide answer
Blocking off times when a provider is unavailable.
- No-show
Show answerHide answer
A patient who misses an appointment without canceling.
- Routine vs urgent visit
Show answerHide answer
Urgent needs are triaged ahead of routine appointments.
- New vs established patient
Show answerHide answer
Established patients have been seen within three years.
- Ancillary services
Show answerHide answer
Lab, X-ray, surgery, and outpatient services coordinated by the MA.
- Patient demographics
Show answerHide answer
Identifying data: name, DOB, address, insurance, contact.
- Identity theft protection
Show answerHide answer
Verifying ID and safeguarding patient information.
- EHR (electronic health record)
Show answerHide answer
The digital chart storing a patient's medical information.
- Patient portal
Show answerHide answer
A secure website where patients view records and message staff.
- History and physical (H&P)
Show answerHide answer
A report documenting the patient's history and exam.
- Discharge summary
Show answerHide answer
A report summarizing a hospital stay at discharge.
- Operative note
Show answerHide answer
A report documenting a surgical procedure.
- Progress note
Show answerHide answer
A clinic note documenting an ongoing course of care.
- Consultation report
Show answerHide answer
A specialist's findings sent back to the referring provider.
- Pre-visit planning
Show answerHide answer
Preparing the chart and records before the patient arrives.
- Coordinate facility/equipment
Show answerHide answer
Booking rooms, staff, and equipment for an appointment.
- Collection agency
Show answerHide answer
A third party used to recover seriously overdue patient balances.
- Diagnostic coding
Show answerHide answer
Using ICD-10-CM to report the patient's condition.
- Procedural coding
Show answerHide answer
Using CPT to report the service or procedure performed.
- Bundling
Show answerHide answer
Combining related services under a single code.
- Clean claim
Show answerHide answer
A complete, accurate claim that processes without rejection.
- Claim rejection
Show answerHide answer
A claim returned for errors before processing.
- Explanation of benefits vs RA
Show answerHide answer
EOB goes to the patient; remittance advice goes to the provider.
- Birthday rule
Show answerHide answer
Determines primary coverage for a child with two insured parents.
- Coordination of benefits
Show answerHide answer
Rules deciding which plan pays first when there are two.
- Capitation
Show answerHide answer
A fixed per-patient payment to a provider regardless of services.
- Fee-for-service
Show answerHide answer
Payment based on each service provided.
- Premium
Show answerHide answer
The regular amount paid to keep an insurance policy active.
- Self-pay
Show answerHide answer
A patient paying out of pocket without insurance.
- Credit balance
Show answerHide answer
An overpayment owed back to the patient or payer.
- Posting payments
Show answerHide answer
Recording received payments to patient accounts.
- Day sheet
Show answerHide answer
A daily record of charges, payments, and adjustments.
- Encounter form / superbill
Show answerHide answer
Lists services and codes for a single patient visit.
- Precertification
Show answerHide answer
Insurer approval obtained before a planned procedure.
- Formulary
Show answerHide answer
An insurer's approved list of covered medications.
- Beneficiary
Show answerHide answer
A person covered by an insurance plan.
- Subscriber / policyholder
Show answerHide answer
The person who holds the insurance policy.
- Established patient (3-year rule)
Show answerHide answer
Seen by the practice within the past three years.
- Open-hours scheduling
Show answerHide answer
Patients seen on a first-come, first-served basis.
- Cancellation policy
Show answerHide answer
Rules for rescheduling and handling missed appointments.
- Recall system
Show answerHide answer
Reminding patients of needed follow-up or preventive visits.
- Triage (scheduling)
Show answerHide answer
Prioritizing patients by the urgency of their needs.
- Patient registration
Show answerHide answer
Collecting demographics and insurance at check-in.
- Release of information
Show answerHide answer
Disclosing records only with proper authorization.
- Record retention
Show answerHide answer
Keeping medical records for the legally required period.
- Active vs inactive record
Show answerHide answer
Current patients vs those not seen recently.
- Problem-oriented record (POMR)
Show answerHide answer
A chart organized around the patient's problem list.
References
- 1.American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA). “Content Outline for the CMA (AAMA)® Certification Exam & Certification.” AAMA.org. ↑
- 2.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). “Standard Precautions & Infection Control in Healthcare.” CDC.gov. ↑
- 3.National Institutes of Health / National Library of Medicine. “StatPearls & MedlinePlus (anatomy, vitals, medication administration, phlebotomy).” NIH/NLM. ↑

Career Employer
Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.
All PostsCareer Employer’s Editorial Process
Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.
