Career Employer

Your FREE CFA Level 2 Flashcards 2026 – 200+ Cards

Realistic, CFA exam-style flashcards across all 10 topic areas — flip, match, type, and quiz yourself.

How well do you know them?

To find us again, just search “Career Employer CFA Level 2”

By

Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — 200+ CFA Level 2 cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the 10 CFA Institute topic areas, so you study exactly what the vignette exam tests.[1] Pair them with our free practice test and study guide.

CFA Level 2 Flashcard Study Modes

Flip mode is for first passes: read the front, recall the answer, turn the card. Match is a timed pairing game that rewards speed on short definitions. Type shows the definition and asks you to produce the term, so a card like What is multicollinearity? becomes a meaning-and-wording test. Quiz turns the same 225 cards into multiple choice for checking retention.

Free CFA Level 2 flashcards from Career Employer — active recall for all 10 topic areas

Why Flashcards Work for the CFA Level 2 Exam

Ethical and Professional Standards is the largest block at 29 cards, and it leans on GIPS mechanics and Standard-by-Standard recall. You get definitional prompts like What is GIPS? and What is a GIPS composite?, alongside applied judgment cards such as Law vs. Code — which governs? and Recommended control for MNPI?

Quantitative Methods, at 24 cards, drills regression diagnostics and hypothesis-testing vocabulary, with prompts like What is multicollinearity? and Fix for multicollinearity? sitting beside Type I vs Type II error? Financial Statement Analysis, also 24 cards, covers intercorporate investments, pensions and earnings-quality flags through cards such as What is the equity method?, Temporal translation method? and What is the Beneish M-score?

Three valuation domains sit at 24 cards each. Equity Investments moves from Two-stage DDM? and What is the H-model? to multiples logic in Why is EV/EBITDA useful? Fixed Income pairs term-structure theories like Preferred habitat theory? with spread work in Z-spread vs OAS? Derivatives centers on the Greeks and pricing, including Option vega? and How is a swap priced?

Portfolio Management contributes 22 cards on performance measures and risk models, including Treynor ratio?, M-squared (M²) measure? and Main limitation of VaR? Alternative Investments adds 19 cards spanning real estate, private equity and commodities, with prompts like Direct capitalization method?, What is carried interest? and Contango vs backwardation?

Economics closes out the currency material in 18 cards, running from Covered interest rate parity? to Marshall-Lerner condition? and Carry trade — what is it? Corporate Issuers, at 17 cards, handles capital structure and payout policy through WACC formula?, Pecking-order theory? and When does a buyback raise EPS?

That matters for the CFA Level 2 exam, which is dense with valuation models (FCFF/FCFE, residual income, the binomial option model) and accounting rules that reward repetition. Used alongside our practice test and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.[3]

CFA Level 2 Flashcards by Topic

The cards are organized by the 10 CFA Institute topic areas. Weight your study toward the heaviest ones — Ethics, Financial Statement Analysis, Equity, Fixed Income, and Portfolio Management each carry the higher 10–15% band:[1]

CFA Level 2 flashcards by topic (2026 weight ranges)
CFA Level 2 topic% of exam
Ethical & Professional Standards10–15%
Financial Statement Analysis10–15%
Equity Investments10–15%
Fixed Income10–15%
Portfolio Management10–15%
Quantitative Methods5–10%
Economics5–10%
Corporate Issuers5–10%
Derivatives5–10%
Alternative Investments5–10%

How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards

  • Start with ethics. Ethical and Professional Standards is the deck’s biggest domain at 29 cards, and GIPS wording rewards repetition, so run it in Flip until the Standards feel automatic.
  • Type-drill the confusable pairs. Cards like Z-spread vs OAS? and R² vs adjusted R²? punish vague recall, so typing the term forces the distinction instead of letting recognition carry you.
  • Use Match for the Greeks. Option delta?, Option gamma? and Option theta? are short, sortable definitions, and timed pairing quickly exposes which one you are still guessing at.
  • Move to the practice test after two clean passes. Once Quiz accuracy holds across Fixed Income and Financial Statement Analysis, vignette-length questions show whether the terms survive item-set pressure.
  • Keep a rotating cadence. With 225 cards, work two domains per session, revisit Ethical and Professional Standards weekly, and open the study guide when a card’s answer raises a follow-up question.

CFA Level 2 Flashcards FAQ

Hundreds of free CFA Level 2 flashcards, organized across all 10 topic areas tested on the exam, with extra depth on the valuation topics. They're free to use with no account required.

CFA Level 2 flashcard bank

All 225 cards, by topic

A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.

Ethical and Professional Standards (29)

Code & Standards at Level II — what changes?
Show answer

The Code and seven Standards are identical to Level I, but tested inside richer vignettes. You must identify the exact sub-standard violated and the recommended action from competing facts.

Law vs. Code — which governs?
Show answer

Follow the stricter of applicable law or the Code and Standards. If a law is less strict or silent, you still meet the Code; if a law requires violating the Code, comply with the law.

The seven Standards of Professional Conduct?
Show answer

I Professionalism, II Integrity of Capital Markets, III Duties to Clients, IV Duties to Employers, V Investment Analysis, VI Conflicts of Interest, VII Responsibilities as a Member/Candidate.

Standard II(A) — Material Nonpublic Information?
Show answer

Members must not act, or cause others to act, on material nonpublic information. Information is material if a reasonable investor would want it or it would affect price.

What is the mosaic theory?
Show answer

Combining public information with non-material non-public information to reach a conclusion is permitted — even if the conclusion is material. It is a defense against an MNPI allegation under II(A).

Recommended control for MNPI?
Show answer

An information barrier (firewall) restricting the flow of information between departments, plus restricted and watch lists.

Standard III(B) — Fair Dealing?
Show answer

Treat all clients fairly when disseminating recommendations and taking action — fair, not necessarily identical, treatment. Don't favor some clients in a hot issue.

Standard III(C) — Suitability?
Show answer

Recommendations must fit the client's written objectives and constraints (the IPS). Judge a single security in the context of the total portfolio.

Standard VI — Conflicts of Interest?
Show answer

Disclose conflicts (VI-A), give clients and employers priority over personal transactions (VI-B), and disclose referral fees (VI-C).

Standard V(A) — Diligence & Reasonable Basis?
Show answer

Have a reasonable and adequate basis, supported by research and investigation, for any analysis, recommendation, or action.

What is GIPS?
Show answer

Global Investment Performance Standards — voluntary, ethical standards for calculating and presenting investment performance so results are fair and comparable across firms.

Who can claim GIPS compliance?
Show answer

Only an entire firm (a distinct business entity), not a single composite, product, or individual. Compliance is firm-wide and all-or-nothing.

What is a GIPS composite?
Show answer

An aggregation of all discretionary portfolios managed to a similar strategy or objective. Performance is presented at the composite level.

Time-weighted vs money-weighted return for presentation?
Show answer

GIPS and Standard III(D) favor time-weighted returns for performance presentation because they remove the effect of client cash-flow timing the manager doesn't control.

Standard IV(A) — Loyalty to employer?
Show answer

Act for the employer's benefit; don't deprive it of your skills or take confidential information or client lists when leaving.

Standard VII — Reference to the CFA designation?
Show answer

Use the marks correctly; don't overstate the meaning of the designation or misrepresent candidacy. 'CFA' is an adjective, never a noun.

Standard I(B) — Independence & Objectivity?
Show answer

Maintain independence and objectivity; pay your own travel, refuse lavish gifts from issuers you cover, and don't let relationships compromise analysis.

Standard III(E) — Confidentiality?
Show answer

Keep current, former, and prospective client information confidential unless it concerns illegal activity, disclosure is required by law, or the client permits it.

Standard III(A) — Loyalty, Prudence, and Care?
Show answer

Act for the benefit of clients, place their interests before the firm's and your own, and exercise reasonable care and prudent judgment.

Standard I(C) — Misrepresentation?
Show answer

Do not knowingly make false or misleading statements about investments, your qualifications, or performance, including plagiarism and guaranteeing returns.

Standard I(D) — Misconduct?
Show answer

Do not engage in conduct involving dishonesty, fraud, or deceit, or any act that reflects adversely on professional reputation or integrity.

Standard II(B) — Market Manipulation?
Show answer

Do not engage in practices that distort prices or artificially inflate trading volume to mislead market participants — transaction- or information-based.

Standard V(B) — Communication with clients?
Show answer

Disclose the basic format and general principles of the investment process, identify limitations and risks, and distinguish fact from opinion.

Standard V(C) — Record Retention?
Show answer

Develop and maintain records supporting analyses, recommendations, and actions. Records are the firm's property; keep them per regulation (often 7 years).

Standard IV(B) — Additional Compensation?
Show answer

Do not accept gifts or compensation that compete with or create a conflict with your employer's interest without written consent from all parties.

Standard IV(C) — Responsibilities of Supervisors?
Show answer

Make reasonable efforts to prevent and detect violations by those under your supervision, with adequate compliance procedures in place.

Standard VI(B) — Priority of Transactions?
Show answer

Client and employer transactions take priority over a member's personal transactions; personal interests must not disadvantage clients.

GIPS — minimum performance history?
Show answer

A firm claiming compliance must present a minimum of five years of compliant history (or since inception if shorter), then build to ten years.

GIPS verification — required?
Show answer

Independent third-party verification is recommended but not required; it applies firm-wide, not to a single composite.

Quantitative Methods (24)

Multiple regression equation?
Show answer

Y = b0 + b1·X1 + b2·X2 + … + ε. Each slope b_j is the effect of that variable holding the others constant.

t-test vs F-test in regression?
Show answer

The t-test checks whether one coefficient is individually significant; the F-test checks whether the regression is jointly significant (at least one slope ≠ 0).

R² vs adjusted R²?
Show answer

R² is the fraction of the dependent variable's variation explained. Adjusted R² penalizes adding variables, so it can fall when a useless variable is added.

What is heteroskedasticity?
Show answer

Non-constant variance of the regression error term. Conditional heteroskedasticity (variance related to the X's) biases standard errors, making t- and F-tests unreliable.

Detect & fix heteroskedasticity?
Show answer

Detect with the Breusch-Pagan test; fix with robust (White) standard errors or generalized least squares. Coefficients stay unbiased; only standard errors are wrong.

What is serial correlation?
Show answer

Correlation between regression errors across observations. It biases the standard errors (often understating them), inflating t-statistics. Detect with Durbin-Watson.

What is multicollinearity?
Show answer

High correlation among independent variables. It inflates coefficient standard errors, so individual t-tests are insignificant even with a high R² and a significant F-test.

The classic multicollinearity symptom?
Show answer

A high R² and a significant F-test but insignificant individual t-statistics — the model explains the data, yet no single variable looks important.

Fix for multicollinearity?
Show answer

Drop one of the correlated variables, or collect more or different data. Do not simply add more correlated predictors.

What is a dummy variable?
Show answer

A 0/1 variable representing a qualitative condition. Use n − 1 dummies for n categories to avoid the dummy-variable trap (perfect multicollinearity).

Assumptions of the classical linear model?
Show answer

Linearity, independent variables uncorrelated with the error, homoskedasticity (constant error variance), no serial correlation, and normally distributed errors.

What is a unit root / random walk?
Show answer

A time series with a unit root is non-stationary (a random walk: x_t = x_t-1 + ε). Test with Dickey-Fuller; difference the series to make it stationary.

What is covariance stationarity?
Show answer

A time series has a constant mean, constant variance, and constant covariance with lagged values over time — required before fitting an autoregressive model.

What is an autoregressive (AR) model?
Show answer

A model where the variable is regressed on its own past values: x_t = b0 + b1·x_t-1 + ε. Check for serial correlation in residuals and seasonality.

Supervised vs unsupervised learning?
Show answer

Supervised learning trains on labeled data to predict an output (regression, classification); unsupervised learning finds structure in unlabeled data (clustering, dimension reduction).

What is overfitting?
Show answer

A model that fits the training data's noise rather than its signal, so it performs poorly out of sample. Combat it with cross-validation and regularization.

Standard error of estimate (SEE)?
Show answer

The standard deviation of the regression residuals; a smaller SEE means the model's predictions fit the data more tightly.

Confidence interval for a slope coefficient?
Show answer

Estimated coefficient ± (critical t) × (coefficient standard error). If the interval excludes zero, the coefficient is significant at that level.

Type I vs Type II error?
Show answer

A Type I error rejects a true null (probability equals the significance level α); a Type II error fails to reject a false null.

What is a p-value?
Show answer

The smallest significance level at which the null can be rejected. Reject the null when the p-value is below the chosen α.

Log-linear time-series model — when to use?
Show answer

When a series grows at a roughly constant rate (exponential growth); modeling the natural log linearizes it for an AR or trend model.

Mean reversion in an AR(1) model?
Show answer

A series reverts to b0 ÷ (1 − b1); if the current value is above this level it tends to fall, and below it tends to rise, when |b1| < 1.

Root mean squared error (RMSE)?
Show answer

A measure of out-of-sample forecast accuracy; the model with the lower RMSE is preferred for forecasting.

Cointegration?
Show answer

Two non-stationary series share a long-run equilibrium relationship, so a regression between them can be valid despite each having a unit root.

Economics (18)

Covered interest rate parity?
Show answer

A no-arbitrage condition: the forward premium or discount on a currency equals the interest-rate differential between the two currencies. It holds exactly because the position is hedged with a forward.

Uncovered interest rate parity?
Show answer

The unhedged version: the expected change in the spot exchange rate equals the interest-rate differential. It relies on expectations and holds only on average over time.

Purchasing power parity (PPP)?
Show answer

The expected change in the exchange rate equals the inflation differential between the two countries. Relative PPP links currency moves to relative inflation.

International Fisher relation?
Show answer

The nominal interest-rate differential between two countries equals their expected inflation differential, assuming equal real rates.

Higher-yielding currency under covered parity?
Show answer

It trades at a forward discount. The interest advantage is exactly offset by an expected depreciation embedded in the forward rate — so no arbitrage.

Direct vs indirect exchange-rate quote?
Show answer

A direct quote is domestic currency per one unit of foreign currency; an indirect quote is the reverse (foreign per one unit of domestic).

Sources of long-run economic growth?
Show answer

Growth in labor, growth in capital, and total factor productivity (technology/efficiency), combined in a production-function (growth-accounting) framework.

Why does regulation exist (economic rationale)?
Show answer

To address market failures: externalities, public goods, information asymmetry, and the need to protect consumers and ensure market integrity.

What is a forward premium?
Show answer

When a currency's forward rate is higher than its spot rate. Under covered parity, the lower-interest-rate currency trades at a forward premium.

Bid-ask spread in FX — what drives it?
Show answer

Dealer spreads widen with lower liquidity, higher volatility, and larger transaction size, and differ across currency pairs and times of day.

Mundell-Fleming model — what does it analyze?
Show answer

How monetary and fiscal policy affect output and exchange rates under different capital mobility and exchange-rate regimes.

Carry trade — what is it?
Show answer

Borrowing in a low-interest-rate currency to invest in a high-interest-rate currency, profiting if uncovered parity fails. It earns the differential but bears crash risk.

Real vs nominal exchange rate?
Show answer

The nominal rate is the quoted price of one currency in another; the real rate adjusts for relative price levels and measures purchasing-power competitiveness.

Marshall-Lerner condition?
Show answer

A currency depreciation improves the trade balance only if the sum of the export and import demand elasticities exceeds one.

J-curve effect?
Show answer

After a depreciation, the trade balance worsens before it improves, because volumes adjust more slowly than prices.

Cross rate?
Show answer

An exchange rate between two currencies derived from each one's rate against a third currency (often the U.S. dollar).

Triangular arbitrage?
Show answer

Exploiting inconsistent cross rates among three currencies to lock in a riskless profit; it forces quoted cross rates into alignment.

Capital mobility and policy effectiveness?
Show answer

Under high capital mobility and a floating rate, monetary policy is potent and fiscal policy is weaker (the Mundell-Fleming result).

Financial Statement Analysis (24)

Intercorporate investments — what drives the method?
Show answer

The degree of influence: under ~20% a financial asset (fair value/amortized cost); 20–50% significant influence (equity method); over 50% control (consolidation).

What is the equity method?
Show answer

For significant influence (20–50%): the investment is one balance-sheet line, increased by the investor's share of the associate's profit and reduced by dividends received.

What is consolidation?
Show answer

For control (over 50%): the parent combines all of the subsidiary's assets, liabilities, revenues, and expenses, reporting any non-controlling interest in equity and income.

Equity method vs consolidation — net income?
Show answer

Net income is the SAME under both. Consolidation grosses up revenue, assets, and liabilities, so margins fall and leverage rises versus the equity method.

What is goodwill?
Show answer

The excess of a business combination's purchase price over the fair value of identifiable net assets acquired. It is tested for impairment, not amortized.

Funded status of a defined-benefit plan?
Show answer

Fair value of plan assets minus the benefit obligation (PV of promised benefits). Positive = overfunded (net asset); negative = underfunded (net liability).

Effect of a lower pension discount rate?
Show answer

A lower discount rate raises the present value of the benefit obligation, worsening the funded status and increasing the reported pension liability.

Key DB pension actuarial assumptions?
Show answer

The discount rate, the expected rate of compensation growth, and (where used) the expected return on plan assets. Optimistic assumptions can flatter results.

Current-rate translation method?
Show answer

Used when the local currency is functional: assets and liabilities at the current rate, income at the average rate, with the translation gain/loss reported in equity (CTA).

Temporal translation method?
Show answer

Used when the parent's currency is functional: monetary items at the current rate, non-monetary items at historical rates, with the gain/loss in net income.

Which translation method makes earnings more volatile?
Show answer

The temporal method, because it runs the translation gain or loss through net income rather than equity.

Signs of low financial reporting quality?
Show answer

Aggressive revenue recognition, capitalizing costs that should be expensed, classifying operating cash outflows as investing, and frequent 'one-time' charges.

What is the Beneish M-score?
Show answer

A statistical model combining eight ratios to estimate the likelihood that earnings have been manipulated. A higher score flags higher manipulation risk.

Clean-surplus relation — why it matters?
Show answer

Ending book value = beginning book value + net income − dividends. It underlies the residual income model; items bypassing income (dirty surplus) require adjustment.

Equity method impairment trigger?
Show answer

Objective evidence that the recoverable amount of the investment is below its carrying value; the loss is recognized in profit or loss.

Proportionate consolidation vs equity method (JV)?
Show answer

IFRS requires the equity method for joint ventures; proportionate consolidation (combining your share line-by-line) is generally not permitted under current standards.

Acquisition method for business combinations?
Show answer

Identifiable assets and liabilities are recorded at fair value at acquisition; the excess of price over fair value of net assets is goodwill.

Bargain purchase gain?
Show answer

When the fair value of net assets exceeds the purchase price, the difference is recognized as a gain in profit or loss.

Held-to-maturity vs available-for-sale (debt)?
Show answer

Held-to-maturity (amortized cost) for fixed-maturity debt the firm intends to hold; fair value (with changes in OCI or P&L) otherwise.

Service cost in pension expense?
Show answer

The present value of benefits earned by employees during the current period; it is recognized in profit or loss.

Past service cost?
Show answer

The change in the obligation from a plan amendment affecting prior service; recognized in P&L under IFRS, in OCI then amortized under U.S. GAAP.

Remeasurements / actuarial gains and losses?
Show answer

Changes in the obligation or asset return from assumption changes; reported in OCI under IFRS (not recycled) and OCI under U.S. GAAP (amortized).

FIFO vs LIFO under rising prices (recap)?
Show answer

FIFO gives higher ending inventory and net income; LIFO gives higher COGS, lower income and taxes. IFRS prohibits LIFO.

Why analysts adjust for off-balance-sheet items?
Show answer

Operating leases, special-purpose entities, and the like can hide debt; analysts capitalize them to compare leverage fairly across firms.

Corporate Issuers (17)

Modigliani-Miller Proposition I (no taxes)?
Show answer

In perfect markets with no taxes, a firm's value and its WACC are independent of its capital structure — leverage doesn't change firm value.

Modigliani-Miller Proposition II (no taxes)?
Show answer

The cost of equity rises linearly with the debt-to-equity ratio, exactly offsetting the cheaper debt, so the WACC stays constant.

MM with corporate taxes?
Show answer

Interest is tax-deductible, so debt creates a tax shield that raises firm value as leverage increases — favoring more debt, absent other costs.

Trade-off theory of capital structure?
Show answer

The optimal capital structure balances the tax shield benefit of debt against the rising expected costs of financial distress and agency costs.

Pecking-order theory?
Show answer

Firms prefer internal funds first, then debt, and issue equity last, because financing choices signal information to the market.

Dividends vs share repurchases — equivalence?
Show answer

Absent taxes, a cash dividend and an equal-size buyback are economically equivalent; they differ in signaling, flexibility, and tax treatment.

When does a buyback raise EPS?
Show answer

Only when the after-tax cost of funds used for the repurchase is less than the earnings yield (E/P) of the stock.

Residual dividend policy?
Show answer

Pay out as dividends whatever earnings remain after funding all positive-NPV projects at the target capital structure — so dividends are volatile.

Agency costs of equity vs debt?
Show answer

Equity agency costs arise from manager-shareholder conflicts (perks, empire building); debt agency costs arise from shareholder-creditor conflicts (asset substitution).

Role of ESG in issuer analysis?
Show answer

Environmental, social, and governance factors are integrated into credit and equity analysis as material risks affecting cash flows and the cost of capital.

Static trade-off — optimal debt level?
Show answer

The point where the marginal tax-shield benefit of additional debt equals the marginal expected cost of financial distress.

Cost of equity via CAPM?
Show answer

Required return = risk-free rate + beta × (market return − risk-free rate). It prices only systematic risk.

WACC formula?
Show answer

WACC = wd·rd·(1 − tax) + we·re, weighting the after-tax cost of debt and the cost of equity by their market-value proportions.

Why use the after-tax cost of debt?
Show answer

Interest is tax-deductible, so the firm's true cost of debt is rd × (1 − tax rate). Omitting (1 − tax) overstates the WACC.

Operating vs financial leverage?
Show answer

Operating leverage comes from fixed operating costs (magnifies sales → operating income); financial leverage comes from debt (magnifies operating income → net income).

Degree of total leverage?
Show answer

The product of the degree of operating leverage and the degree of financial leverage — the combined sensitivity of net income to a change in sales.

Capital budgeting decision rule?
Show answer

Accept positive-NPV projects; for mutually exclusive projects in conflict, follow NPV over IRR. Use incremental after-tax cash flows and ignore sunk costs.

Equity Investments (24)

Choosing an equity valuation model?
Show answer

Match the model to the firm: DDM for stable dividend payers, FCFF/FCFE for non-payers, residual income for negative early cash flow, multiples for quick relative checks.

Gordon constant-growth model?
Show answer

V0 = D1 ÷ (r − g), valid only when g < r. It values a stock as the present value of dividends growing at a constant rate forever.

Two-stage DDM?
Show answer

Model an explicit high-growth period of dividends, then capitalize a terminal value with the Gordon model at a stable long-run growth rate, and discount both to today.

What is the H-model?
Show answer

A two-stage DDM where the growth rate declines linearly from a high initial rate to a stable long-run rate over 2H years, approximating a gradually maturing firm.

Free cash flow to the firm (FCFF)?
Show answer

Cash available to all capital providers after operating costs, taxes, and investment: FCFF = NI + NCC + Int(1 − tax) − FCInv − WCInv. Discount at the WACC.

Free cash flow to equity (FCFE)?
Show answer

Cash for shareholders after debt flows: FCFE = FCFF − Int(1 − tax) + net borrowing. Discount at the cost of equity to value equity directly.

FCFF vs FCFE — when to use which?
Show answer

Use FCFE when leverage is stable; use FCFF when leverage is changing or FCFE is negative, because the WACC is more stable than the cost of equity then.

Residual income model?
Show answer

Value = current book value + present value of future residual income, where residual income = net income − (equity × cost of equity). It recognizes value early.

When is the residual income model preferred?
Show answer

When a firm pays no dividends, has negative early free cash flow, or has an uncertain terminal value — book value anchors much of the value upfront.

Justified P/E from fundamentals?
Show answer

Leading justified P/E = (D1/E1) ÷ (r − g) — the payout ratio divided by (required return minus growth). Compare it to the market multiple.

Enterprise value (EV)?
Show answer

Market value of equity + debt − cash. It is the cost to acquire the whole firm; EV/EBITDA is capital-structure-neutral.

Why is EV/EBITDA useful?
Show answer

It is independent of capital structure and ignores non-cash depreciation, so it compares firms with different leverage and depreciation policies.

Private company valuation approaches?
Show answer

The income approach (DCF/capitalized cash flow), the market approach (guideline public companies/transactions), and the asset-based approach.

DLOM and DLOC discounts?
Show answer

A discount for lack of marketability (private shares are illiquid) and a discount for lack of control (minority stakes can't direct the firm) reduce private-company value.

Sustainable growth rate?
Show answer

g = retention ratio × return on equity (b × ROE). It is the growth a firm can fund without changing leverage or issuing equity.

Blume vs fundamental beta adjustment?
Show answer

Beta is adjusted toward 1.0 (e.g., 0.67·raw + 0.33·1.0) because estimated betas tend to revert to the market beta over time.

Yield to maturity (YTM)?
Show answer

The single discount rate that makes a bond's price equal the present value of its cash flows, assuming it is held to maturity and coupons reinvest at the YTM.

Par, premium, and discount bonds?
Show answer

Coupon = market yield → priced at par; coupon > yield → premium; coupon < yield → discount. Prices pull to par as maturity nears.

Money duration vs duration?
Show answer

Duration is a percentage price sensitivity; money (dollar) duration is the price change in currency units for a given yield move.

Key rate (partial) duration?
Show answer

The sensitivity of a bond's price to a change in the yield at one specific maturity, holding others constant — captures non-parallel curve shifts.

Convexity — what it adds?
Show answer

Convexity corrects duration's straight-line estimate for large yield changes; positive convexity helps the holder, gaining more when yields fall than it loses when they rise.

Z-spread definition?
Show answer

The constant spread added to each spot rate that makes the present value of a bond's cash flows equal its market price.

Forward rate from spot rates?
Show answer

(1 + z2)² = (1 + z1) × (1 + 1y1y forward), so the implied one-year forward one year out is solved from the two- and one-year spot rates.

Expected loss on a bond?
Show answer

Probability of default × loss given default × exposure. Loss given default = 1 − recovery rate.

Fixed Income (24)

Spot rate vs forward rate?
Show answer

A spot rate is today's yield on a single payment received at one future date (zero-coupon). A forward rate is an interest rate set today for a loan starting in the future.

What is bootstrapping (spot rates)?
Show answer

Deriving spot (zero-coupon) rates from the prices of coupon bonds one maturity at a time, so each cash flow can be discounted at its own spot rate.

Spot curve slopes up — implied forwards?
Show answer

When the spot curve slopes upward, implied forward rates lie above the spot rates.

Pure (unbiased) expectations theory?
Show answer

Forward rates equal expected future spot rates; the yield curve's shape reflects only rate expectations, with no term premium.

Liquidity preference theory?
Show answer

Investors demand a term premium for holding longer maturities, so forward rates are upward-biased estimates of expected future spot rates.

Segmented markets theory?
Show answer

Supply and demand within each maturity sector set its rate independently; investors don't move across maturities.

Preferred habitat theory?
Show answer

Investors have a preferred maturity but will move for a sufficient premium, allowing premiums to be positive or negative across the curve.

Arbitrage-free valuation of a bond?
Show answer

Discount each individual cash flow at its own spot rate. If the bond's price differs from this value, a risk-free arbitrage exists between it and a portfolio of strips.

Binomial interest-rate tree — use?
Show answer

To value bonds with embedded options. Calibrate the tree to the benchmark curve and roll values back, applying the call/put rule at each node.

Callable bond node value rule?
Show answer

At each node the value is the lower of the call price and the computed value — the issuer calls when it benefits the issuer.

Putable bond node value rule?
Show answer

At each node the value is the higher of the put price and the computed value — the holder puts when it benefits the holder.

Option-adjusted spread (OAS)?
Show answer

The constant spread added to the rate tree that makes the model price equal the market price after removing the embedded option, allowing comparison across bonds.

Z-spread vs OAS?
Show answer

The Z-spread is the constant spread over the spot curve ignoring options. OAS = Z-spread minus the option cost, so OAS reflects only credit and liquidity risk.

Effective duration vs modified duration?
Show answer

Effective duration is used for bonds with embedded options because their cash flows change with rates; modified duration assumes fixed cash flows.

Structural credit model?
Show answer

Models default as the equity holders' option to default when firm asset value falls below debt — based on option-pricing theory (Merton model).

Reduced-form credit model?
Show answer

Models default as a statistical hazard driven by observable variables, without modeling the firm's asset value directly.

Credit spread components?
Show answer

The spread compensates for expected loss (probability of default × loss given default) plus a risk premium for liquidity and uncertainty.

Forward rate agreement (FRA)?
Show answer

An OTC forward on an interest rate: one party locks a rate on a notional deposit for a future period, settling on the difference from the reference rate.

Notional principal in a swap?
Show answer

The amount used to compute swap payments; it is generally not exchanged in an interest-rate swap, only the net interest difference is.

Plain-vanilla interest-rate swap?
Show answer

One party pays a fixed rate and receives floating; the fixed rate is set so the swap's value is zero at initiation.

Replicating portfolio for an option?
Show answer

A position of n shares of the underlying plus risk-free borrowing/lending that reproduces the option's payoff — the basis of no-arbitrage pricing.

Why convenience yield lowers the forward price?
Show answer

Holding the physical asset provides a benefit (availability), reducing the net cost of carry and thus the no-arbitrage forward price.

Cost of carry — full expression?
Show answer

Forward = spot compounded at the risk-free rate, plus storage costs, minus income and any convenience yield over the contract life.

Lower bound on a European call?
Show answer

A European call is worth at least the underlying minus the present value of the strike (and never less than zero).

Derivatives (24)

No-arbitrage forward price?
Show answer

F0 = S0 × (1 + r)ᵀ, adjusted for carry: add storage costs and subtract any income or convenience yield on the underlying.

Value of a forward after initiation?
Show answer

The present value of the difference between the current forward price and the original contract price — zero at inception, then moving with the underlying.

How is a swap priced?
Show answer

As a series of forwards (or off-market forwards) so its value at initiation is zero; that condition determines the fixed swap rate.

One-period binomial — up/down?
Show answer

The underlying moves to S0·u (up) or S0·d (down) over one period. u > 1 and d < 1 define the size of the moves.

Risk-neutral probability formula?
Show answer

π = (1 + r − d) ÷ (u − d), where r is the per-period risk-free rate. It is a pricing device, not a real-world probability.

Why are real-world probabilities irrelevant?
Show answer

Because the option can be replicated with the stock and risk-free borrowing, no-arbitrage pricing depends only on the risk-neutral probability.

Binomial option value?
Show answer

Discount the risk-neutral expected payoff: value = [π·c⁺ + (1 − π)·c⁻] ÷ (1 + r), rolling back through the tree.

American option in a binomial tree?
Show answer

At each node compare the value of holding versus exercising, and take the higher — capturing the early-exercise premium.

Black-Scholes-Merton inputs?
Show answer

Five: the underlying price, strike, time to expiration, risk-free rate, and volatility. Volatility is the only input not directly observable.

BSM assumptions / limits?
Show answer

Lognormal prices, constant volatility and rates, no early exercise (European), frictionless markets. It does not directly value American options.

What is implied volatility?
Show answer

The volatility that makes the BSM model price equal the option's market price — the market's expectation of future movement, backed out of prices.

Option delta?
Show answer

The change in option price for a small change in the underlying. Calls have delta 0 to 1; puts 0 to −1. It is the hedge ratio.

Option gamma?
Show answer

The rate of change of delta as the underlying moves. It is largest for at-the-money, near-expiry options, requiring more frequent re-hedging.

Option vega?
Show answer

The change in option price for a 1-point change in volatility. Long options have positive vega; it is largest for at-the-money options.

Option theta?
Show answer

The change in option price as time passes (time decay). It is generally negative for long options — value erodes as expiration approaches.

Delta hedging — what it achieves?
Show answer

Holding the underlying in the opposite direction of the option's delta to neutralize small price moves; it must be rebalanced as delta changes (gamma).

Put-call parity (deeper)?
Show answer

c + PV(X) = p + S0 for European options. Rearranging builds synthetic positions; a violation is an arbitrage.

Direct vs sequential real-estate cash flows?
Show answer

Direct capitalization uses a single stabilized NOI and cap rate; discounted cash flow models each year's NOI plus a terminal value, useful for changing cash flows.

Going-in vs terminal cap rate?
Show answer

The going-in cap rate values the property today; the terminal (exit) cap rate values the expected sale at the end of the holding period.

REIT — funds from operations (FFO)?
Show answer

Net income plus real-estate depreciation and amortization, minus gains on property sales — a better cash-earnings measure than net income for REITs.

Committed vs invested capital (PE)?
Show answer

Limited partners commit capital that the GP draws down (calls) over time to make investments; uncalled commitments are 'dry powder'.

J-curve in private equity?
Show answer

Returns are negative early (fees and write-downs) before investments mature and are exited, producing the J-shaped cumulative return path.

Vintage year?
Show answer

The year a private fund makes its first investment; comparing funds within a vintage controls for the market environment.

Hurdle rate and clawback?
Show answer

The hurdle is the LP return earned before the GP takes carried interest; a clawback returns excess carry to LPs if later losses occur.

Alternative Investments (19)

Three approaches to value real estate?
Show answer

The income approach (capitalize NOI or discount cash flows), the cost approach (replacement cost less depreciation plus land), and the sales-comparison approach.

Direct capitalization method?
Show answer

Value = NOI ÷ cap rate. A lower cap rate implies a higher value and typically a lower-risk, prime property.

What is net operating income (NOI)?
Show answer

Potential rental income minus vacancy and collection losses and operating expenses, before financing and taxes — the numerator in direct capitalization.

Cost approach — when used?
Show answer

For special-purpose properties (e.g., a school or hospital) with few comparable sales; value = land + replacement cost − depreciation.

REIT valuation multiples?
Show answer

Net asset value (NAV), price-to-FFO (funds from operations), and price-to-AFFO (adjusted FFO) — FFO adds back real-estate depreciation to net income.

Private equity — buyout vs venture?
Show answer

Buyout funds acquire mature companies using leverage; venture capital funds back early-stage, high-growth startups. Both target high IRRs over a multi-year horizon.

The 2-and-20 fee structure?
Show answer

A typical private fund charges a 2% annual management fee on assets plus 20% carried interest on profits, often above a hurdle rate.

What is carried interest?
Show answer

The share of fund profits (often 20%) paid to the general partner as a performance incentive, usually after limited partners earn a hurdle return.

Hedge fund strategy categories?
Show answer

Equity long/short, event-driven (e.g., merger arbitrage), relative value (arbitrage), and global macro / managed futures.

Commodities — sources of return?
Show answer

Spot price changes, collateral yield (on cash margin), and roll yield (positive in backwardation, negative in contango).

Contango vs backwardation?
Show answer

Contango: the futures price exceeds the expected spot (upward curve) → negative roll yield. Backwardation: futures below spot (downward curve) → positive roll yield.

Why do alternatives appeal — and their drawbacks?
Show answer

They add diversification and potentially higher returns, but bring illiquidity, high fees, leverage, and valuation difficulty (often appraisal-based, smoothed returns).

Smoothed (appraisal) returns — effect?
Show answer

Appraisal-based real-estate returns are smoothed, understating true volatility and overstating diversification benefits; analysts unsmooth them.

Survivorship bias in hedge-fund indexes?
Show answer

Failed funds drop out of indexes, so reported index returns overstate the average fund's performance and understate risk.

Strategic vs tactical asset allocation?
Show answer

Strategic allocation sets long-run target weights from the IPS; tactical allocation makes short-term deviations to exploit perceived mispricing.

Rebalancing — why and how?
Show answer

Returning a portfolio to target weights controls risk drift; calendar rebalancing uses fixed dates, percentage-of-portfolio uses tolerance bands.

Liability-driven investing (LDI)?
Show answer

Structuring assets to match the characteristics of liabilities (e.g., a pension's), focusing on funding the obligations rather than a market benchmark.

Risk budgeting?
Show answer

Allocating a portfolio's total risk among positions or factors deliberately, so active risk is spent where the manager has the most skill.

Behavioral biases in markets?
Show answer

Cognitive errors (anchoring, availability) and emotional biases (loss aversion, overconfidence) can move prices and challenge market efficiency.

Portfolio Management (22)

What is a multifactor model?
Show answer

Expected return = risk-free rate + Σ (factor sensitivity × factor risk premium). It generalizes the single-factor CAPM to several systematic factors.

Arbitrage pricing theory (APT)?
Show answer

A multifactor model in which expected return is a linear function of several systematic factor betas and their risk premiums, derived from a no-arbitrage condition.

Carhart four-factor model?
Show answer

Extends Fama-French with market, size (SMB), value (HML), and momentum (WML) factors to explain equity returns and judge active managers.

Macroeconomic vs fundamental factor models?
Show answer

Macroeconomic models use surprises in variables like inflation and growth as factors; fundamental models use attributes like size, value, and momentum.

What is the information ratio?
Show answer

Active return (portfolio − benchmark) divided by tracking error. It measures consistent value added by active management per unit of active risk.

What is tracking error?
Show answer

The standard deviation of a portfolio's active return (its return minus the benchmark's). It quantifies how closely the portfolio follows the benchmark.

Fundamental law of active management?
Show answer

The information ratio ≈ information coefficient × √breadth — skill times the number of independent active decisions, scaled by the transfer coefficient.

What is value at risk (VaR)?
Show answer

An estimate of the minimum loss over a period at a given confidence level — e.g., a 5% one-day VaR of $1M means a 5% chance of losing at least $1M in a day.

Three ways to compute VaR?
Show answer

Parametric (variance-covariance, assumes normality), historical simulation (uses past returns), and Monte Carlo simulation (generates random scenarios).

Main limitation of VaR?
Show answer

It says nothing about the magnitude of losses beyond the cutoff. Use conditional VaR (expected shortfall) to capture the tail, plus stress tests.

What is conditional VaR (CVaR)?
Show answer

The expected loss given that the loss exceeds the VaR threshold — the average of the tail beyond VaR. It captures tail severity that VaR ignores.

Active return vs active risk?
Show answer

Active return is portfolio return minus benchmark return; active risk (tracking error) is its standard deviation. The information ratio relates the two.

Stress testing vs scenario analysis?
Show answer

Stress testing pushes risk factors to extreme values; scenario analysis evaluates the portfolio under specific hypothetical or historical event sets.

Sharpe vs information ratio?
Show answer

The Sharpe ratio uses total risk relative to the risk-free rate; the information ratio uses active risk relative to a benchmark — isolating manager skill.

Treynor ratio?
Show answer

Excess return per unit of systematic risk: (Rp − Rf) ÷ beta. It rewards return earned for market exposure, suitable for diversified portfolios.

Backtesting — purpose and pitfalls?
Show answer

Testing a strategy on historical data to gauge performance; pitfalls include look-ahead bias, survivorship bias, and overfitting to the sample.

Capital allocation line (CAL)?
Show answer

The line of risk-return combinations from mixing the risk-free asset with a risky portfolio; its slope is the Sharpe ratio.

Capital market line (CML)?
Show answer

The CAL using the market portfolio; only total risk (standard deviation) is priced for efficient portfolios on the line.

Security market line (SML)?
Show answer

The graph of CAPM: required return versus beta. A security above the SML is undervalued; below it is overvalued.

M-squared (M²) measure?
Show answer

Risk-adjusted performance stated as the return a portfolio would earn if levered to the market's risk — comparable directly to the market return.

Active vs passive management trade-off?
Show answer

Active management seeks alpha but adds fees and tracking error; passive management minimizes cost and tracking error but forgoes outperformance.

Factor investing — smart beta?
Show answer

Rules-based strategies that tilt toward rewarded factors (value, size, momentum, quality, low volatility) between pure active and pure passive.

References

  1. 1.CFA Institute. “CFA Program Level II Exam.” CFA Institute. ↑
  2. 2.CFA Institute. “Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct.” CFA Institute. ↑
  3. 3.Institute of Education Sciences (U.S. Dept. of Education). “Organizing Instruction and Study to Improve Student Learning (Practice Guide).” What Works Clearinghouse, IES. ↑
Career Employer

Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.

Follow Us:

All Posts

Career Employer’s Editorial Process

Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.