Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — over a hundred ABFM Family Medicine cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the five domains of care the ABFM blueprint tests, so you study exactly what the boards measure.[1] Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide.
ABFM Flashcard Study Modes
Four modes run off the same 114 cards. Flip is for first passes, when you want the answer in front of you. Match times you on pairing terms with definitions. Type shows the definition and asks you to produce the term, so a card like qSOFA criteria has to come out of memory. Quiz turns the same cards into multiple choice.
Why Flashcards Work for the ABFM Exam
Chronic Care Management carries the heaviest official weight at 25% and holds 27 cards, so it is the block that repays the most attention. The prompts drill long-term management logic rather than isolated facts: HFrEF — the four pillars, COPD step-up, and A1c monitoring frequency all ask you to place a drug or a check-in at the right point in an ongoing plan, and Sulfonylurea caution tests the safety side of the same thinking.
Acute Care & Diagnosis is the largest block in the deck at 28 cards, covering the office and same-day problems that turn on a threshold or a red flag. CURB-65 makes you recall a scoring rule, Cauda equina red flags makes you recall the findings that stop routine back-pain care, and Strep pharyngitis testing pushes you toward when a test is actually indicated.
Emergent & Urgent Care holds 23 cards against a 20% weight, and the terms are time-sensitive by design. Prompts like qSOFA criteria and STEMI — immediate goal drill what you do first and how fast, while ACE-inhibitor angioedema covers the adverse reaction you have to recognize on sight rather than work up slowly.
Preventive Care is weighted at 15% with 20 cards on screening intervals, vaccine timing, and routine obstetric work, including Cervical cancer screening, First prenatal visit labs, and Hepatitis B vaccine timing. Foundations of Care is the smallest at 16 cards and 5%, but it underwrites the rest: SpPin, SnNout, and Number needed to treat (NNT) are the test-characteristic terms that make the screening and diagnosis cards make sense.
That matters on the ABFM exam, where fact sets like the four heart-failure pillars, the anaphylaxis dose, the comorbidity-driven diabetes add-ons, and the current screening ages must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.
ABFM Flashcards by Domain of Care
The cards are organized by the five domains of care the ABFM blueprint tests. Most of the exam is Acute Care and Diagnosis (35%) and Chronic Care Management (25%), so weight your time there — but make the recognizable emergencies and the screening numbers guaranteed points:[1]
| Flashcard domain | Blueprint weight |
|---|---|
| Acute Care and Diagnosis | 35% (largest domain) |
| Chronic Care Management | 25% |
| Emergent and Urgent Care | 20% |
| Preventive Care | 15% |
| Foundations of Care | 5% |
Because every card is framed as the first-line treatment, the best next step, or the guideline number, drilling the deck builds exactly the single-best-answer reflex the boards reward.
How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards
- Start with Chronic Care Management. It carries the 25% weight and 27 cards, so early passes there move your score more than time spent anywhere else in the deck.
- Type-drill the rule cards. CURB-65 and qSOFA criteria are easy to half-remember in Flip mode; typing them forces the full criteria out instead of a vague sense of recognition.
- Use Match for the lookalike pairs. The Foundations of Care terms, especially SpPin and SnNout, separate fastest under time pressure when you have to pair them against their definitions.
- Move to the practice test once recall holds. When Quiz stops surprising you across Acute Care & Diagnosis and Emergent & Urgent Care, work full questions and use the study guide on misses.
- Keep the cadence small and repeated. Take one domain per sitting across the 114 cards, then revisit the previous domain in Match before starting the next block.
ABFM Flashcards FAQ
Over 100 free ABFM Family Medicine flashcards, spanning all five domains of care — Acute Care and Diagnosis, Chronic Care Management, Emergent and Urgent Care, Preventive Care, and Foundations of Care. They're free with no account required.
Yes. Flashcards use active recall — retrieving an answer from memory — which research shows is one of the most effective ways to make facts stick, especially in short sessions spread over several days. That matters for the high-yield rule sets the boards test: first-line drugs, screening ages and intervals, and the emergencies you must recognize on sight.
They follow the official ABFM blueprint, weighted toward Acute Care and Diagnosis (35%) and Chronic Care Management (25%), which together are 60% of the exam, with cards across Emergent and Urgent Care (20%), Preventive Care (15%), and Foundations of Care (5%) — covering diabetes, hypertension, heart failure, anaphylaxis, cancer screening, immunizations, and biostatistics.
Yes. Every card is written to the level the ABFM expects of a board-eligible family physician — the first-line treatments, the best next step, the current screening guidelines, and the medical emergencies — framed the way the exam asks them, as single-best-answer clinical reasoning.
Mix the modes: flip to learn, type to test recall, match for speed, and quiz to check yourself. Spend most of your time on Acute Care and Chronic Care, and treat the recognizable emergencies — anaphylaxis, STEMI, DKA, severe hyperkalemia — and the screening numbers as guaranteed points to bank.
Yes — 100% free, all four study modes, no paywall.
ABFM flashcard bank
All 114 cards, by topic
A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.
Acute Care & Diagnosis (28)
- CAP — healthy outpatient first-line
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High-dose amoxicillin, or doxycycline as a single-agent alternative; both cover typical and atypical organisms such as Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
- CAP — outpatient with comorbidities
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A respiratory fluoroquinolone (e.g., levofloxacin) alone, OR a beta-lactam plus a macrolide or doxycycline.
- CURB-65
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Pneumonia severity score: Confusion, Urea elevated, Respiratory rate ≥30, Blood pressure low (SBP <90 or DBP ≤60), age ≥65 — guides outpatient vs hospital care.
- Pneumonia Severity Index (PSI)
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A more detailed validated tool that stratifies pneumonia mortality risk to decide the site of care.
- Atypical CAP organism in young adults
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Mycoplasma pneumoniae — a common atypical cause covered by doxycycline or a macrolide.
- CAP recovery counseling
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Cough and fatigue may persist for several weeks after antibiotics finish; routine repeat imaging is not required if recovery is on track.
- Acute otitis media — first-line
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High-dose amoxicillin; a cephalosporin such as cefdinir for a mild, non-anaphylactic penicillin allergy.
- Acute sinusitis / acute bronchitis
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Usually viral — no antibiotics; treat symptoms. Reserve antibiotics for persistent, severe, or worsening bacterial sinusitis.
- Orbital cellulitis warning signs
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Periorbital swelling, proptosis, and painful or limited eye movement with sinusitis — urgent imaging and admission.
- Infectious mononucleosis clues
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Posterior cervical adenopathy, marked fatigue, splenomegaly; avoid amoxicillin and avoid contact sports while the spleen is enlarged.
- Strep pharyngitis testing
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Use the Centor/McIsaac criteria; do not test or treat patients with clear viral features (cough, rhinorrhea, oral ulcers).
- Low back pain — malignancy red flag
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Night pain unrelieved by rest, plus weight loss — warrants further evaluation/imaging.
- Cauda equina red flags
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Saddle anesthesia, urinary retention or incontinence, bilateral leg weakness — emergent MRI and surgical decompression.
- Uncomplicated cystitis — first-line
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Short-course nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (low local resistance), or fosfomycin; reserve fluoroquinolones.
- UTI — when to culture
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Obtain a urine culture when symptoms persist after appropriate first-line therapy, to identify resistant organisms.
- Asymptomatic bacteriuria
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Do NOT treat — except in pregnancy or before a urologic procedure.
- Recurrent cellulitis of one limb
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Treat the underlying cause (chronic lymphedema, tinea pedis) and consider prophylactic antibiotics.
- Freshwater wound coverage
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Add coverage for Aeromonas to usual streptococcal/staphylococcal therapy for cellulitis.
- Acute gout flare — first-line
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NSAIDs, colchicine, or corticosteroids — whichever is safest for the patient.
- Allopurinol during a gout flare
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Continue it without interruption in a patient already established on it; do not stop it during the flare.
- Migraine with aura
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Transient, fully reversible neurologic symptoms (e.g., scintillating scotoma lasting ~20 minutes) preceding headache.
- Medication-overuse headache
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Headache on ≥10–15 days/month from frequent acute medication use; managed by withdrawing the overused drug.
- Acute pancreatitis — top causes
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Gallstones and alcohol account for most cases; diagnose with 2 of 3 (epigastric pain, lipase/amylase ≥3× normal, imaging).
- Ankle sprain — initial care
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Relative rest, ice, compression, elevation, early protected weight-bearing, then functional rehabilitation.
- DVT workup — low Wells score
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A low Wells score plus a negative high-sensitivity D-dimer effectively rules out DVT without imaging.
- DVT with active cancer
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Anticoagulation is required; consider drug interactions and bleeding risk in this population.
- Neonatal hyperacute purulent conjunctivitis
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Within the first days of life suggests gonococcal infection — a medical emergency requiring systemic treatment.
- Acute bronchitis in a smoker
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Beyond symptomatic care, counsel and support smoking cessation — the highest-yield intervention.
Chronic Care Management (27)
- Type 2 diabetes — first-line drug
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Metformin plus lifestyle change — effective, weight-neutral, low hypoglycemia risk; check eGFR before starting.
- Diabetes — typical A1c goal
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Under 7% for most adults; relax to ~7.5–8% in frail patients or recurrent severe hypoglycemia.
- Diabetes add-on — established ASCVD
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A GLP-1 receptor agonist (or SGLT2 inhibitor) for proven cardiovascular benefit, independent of the A1c.
- Diabetes add-on — HFrEF
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An SGLT2 inhibitor — it reduces heart-failure hospitalizations and cardiovascular death.
- Diabetes add-on — albuminuric CKD
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An SGLT2 inhibitor — it slows progression of diabetic kidney disease and lowers albuminuria.
- Diabetes add-on — weight a priority
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A GLP-1 receptor agonist, for meaningful weight loss alongside glucose lowering.
- Sulfonylurea caution
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Glimepiride/glyburide cause hypoglycemia and weight gain; glyburide is hazardous in chronic kidney disease.
- A1c monitoring frequency
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Every 6 months once at goal and stable; every 3 months if therapy changed or not at goal.
- Marked hyperglycemia (A1c ~10%+, symptoms)
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Initiate insulin therapy in addition to metformin and lifestyle measures.
- Stage 2 hypertension — initial therapy
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Start two first-line agents from different classes plus lifestyle change (BP far above goal for one drug).
- First-line antihypertensive classes
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Thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor or ARB, and calcium channel blocker (beta-blockers are not preferred first-line without a compelling indication).
- Hypertension in pregnancy — safe agents
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Labetalol, nifedipine, or methyldopa; avoid ACE inhibitors and ARBs (teratogenic).
- HFrEF — the four pillars
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ARNI (or ACEi/ARB), a beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor — all reduce mortality.
- Loop diuretics in heart failure
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Relieve congestion symptomatically but do NOT improve survival.
- Digoxin in HFrEF
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A reasonable adjunct for rate control and symptom reduction (reduces hospitalizations), especially with atrial fibrillation.
- High-intensity statin indications
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Clinical ASCVD, LDL ≥190 mg/dL, or diabetes in adults aged 40–75.
- Asthma step-up after low-dose ICS
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Add a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) to the inhaled corticosteroid.
- COPD step-up
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Escalate from a single long-acting bronchodilator to dual long-acting therapy (LAMA + LABA) for persistent symptoms.
- GERD without alarm features
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Empiric proton pump inhibitor; reserve endoscopy for dysphagia, weight loss, bleeding, or anemia.
- Osteoporosis — first-line treatment
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A bisphosphonate (e.g., alendronate) with calcium and vitamin D; diagnosis is a DEXA T-score ≤ −2.5 or a fragility fracture.
- Levothyroxine in pregnancy
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Increase the dose for a patient with hypothyroidism — demand rises early in pregnancy.
- Asthma controller in pregnancy
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Continue inhaled corticosteroids — uncontrolled asthma is the bigger risk to the pregnancy.
- Hyperkalemia from RAAS therapy in CKD
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Address the elevated potassium (diet, dose adjustment, potassium binders) before stopping a beneficial ACEi/ARB outright.
- Diabetic kidney disease — best protection
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Blood-pressure control with an ACE inhibitor or ARB, plus an SGLT2 inhibitor, slows progression.
- Knee osteoarthritis clues
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Pain worse with use, brief morning stiffness (<30 minutes), no systemic features; treat with exercise, weight loss, analgesics.
- Depression — inadequate SSRI response
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After an adequate dose and duration, switch agents or augment; reassess diagnosis and adherence.
- Atrial fibrillation + mechanical valve — anticoagulation
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Warfarin is required (DOACs are contraindicated with mechanical valves and rheumatic mitral stenosis).
Emergent & Urgent Care (23)
- Anaphylaxis — first-line treatment
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Intramuscular epinephrine into the anterolateral thigh, immediately; antihistamines and steroids are adjuncts only and never delay it.
- Adult epinephrine dose for anaphylaxis
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0.3 mg of the 1 mg/mL (1:1000) concentration intramuscularly; the 0.1 mg/mL (1:10,000) form is for IV use in cardiac arrest.
- Anaphylaxis diagnostic criteria
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Acute onset with skin/mucosal involvement PLUS respiratory compromise or hypotension — or ≥2 organ systems after a likely allergen.
- Refractory anaphylaxis on a beta-blocker
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Add intravenous glucagon when hypotension persists despite IM epinephrine and fluids.
- Biphasic anaphylactic reaction
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Return of symptoms hours after initial resolution without re-exposure — observe ~4–6 hours (longer if severe).
- Anaphylaxis discharge plan
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Prescribe and train an epinephrine auto-injector, refer to allergy, and counsel on avoidance.
- ACE-inhibitor angioedema
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Bradykinin-mediated facial/tongue swelling and stridor; stop the ACE inhibitor and protect the airway.
- STEMI — immediate goal
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Urgent reperfusion: primary PCI within 90 minutes, or fibrinolysis if PCI is not available in time.
- Acute coronary syndrome — initial drugs
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Aspirin, a P2Y12 inhibitor, anticoagulation, and a high-intensity statin; nitrates and morphine for ongoing pain.
- Stroke BP for thrombolysis candidate
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Carefully lower a BP above ~185/110 mm Hg to below the thrombolysis threshold before giving the drug.
- qSOFA criteria
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Altered mental status, respiratory rate ≥22, and systolic blood pressure ≤100 mm Hg — flags higher sepsis risk.
- Early sepsis bundle
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Lactate and blood cultures, broad-spectrum antibiotics within the hour, and IV fluid resuscitation — then reassess perfusion.
- Septic shock vasopressor
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Norepinephrine is first-line when fluids do not restore adequate perfusion.
- Diabetic ketoacidosis treatment
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IV fluids, a continuous insulin infusion, and potassium repletion; continue insulin until the anion gap closes, adding dextrose as glucose falls.
- Kussmaul respirations
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Deep, rapid breaths that blow off CO₂ to compensate for the metabolic acidosis of DKA.
- Severe asthma exacerbation signs
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Single-word speech, accessory-muscle use, tripod posture, marked tachypnea — needs aggressive continuous bronchodilators and systemic steroids.
- Severe hyperkalemia — order of treatment
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Calcium (stabilize the myocardium) → insulin/glucose or albuterol (shift) → remove (diuresis, binders, dialysis).
- Definitive hyperkalemia therapy in ESRD
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Hemodialysis when medical management fails in end-stage kidney disease.
- Hematochezia
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Bright red blood per rectum — usually a lower GI source (a brisk upper GI bleed can also cause it).
- Glasgow-Blatchford score
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Risk-stratifies acute upper GI bleeding; a very low score may allow safe outpatient management.
- Seizure vs syncope clue
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Prolonged postictal confusion and tongue biting favor seizure; rapid recovery favors syncope.
- Status asthmaticus disposition
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After improving on continuous albuterol and steroids, observe for relapse before discharge with a clear action plan.
- Anaphylaxis criteria after a sting
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Skin plus respiratory and GI involvement meets criteria even with normal blood pressure — give epinephrine.
Preventive Care (20)
- Colorectal cancer screening — start age
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Age 45 for average-risk adults, continued through age 75 (individualized 76–85).
- Normal screening colonoscopy interval
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Repeat in 10 years for an average-risk patient with no polyps.
- FIT (fecal immunochemical test) interval
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Every year; a positive result must be followed by a diagnostic colonoscopy.
- Multitarget stool DNA interval
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Every 3 years for average-risk colorectal cancer screening.
- Flexible sigmoidoscopy interval
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Every 5 years (or every 10 years with annual FIT) as a colorectal screening option.
- Best colorectal screening test
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The one the patient will actually complete — both stool-based and direct-visualization tests are acceptable.
- Screening mammography — start age
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Age 40 for average-risk women, every two years through age 74.
- Dense breasts on mammography
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Reduce mammographic sensitivity and modestly raise risk; may prompt a discussion of supplemental imaging.
- Lung cancer screening eligibility
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Annual low-dose CT for adults 50–80 with a 20 pack-year history who smoke or quit within 15 years.
- Abdominal aortic aneurysm screening
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One-time ultrasound for men aged 65–75 who have ever smoked.
- Cervical cancer screening
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Begin at 21 with cytology every 3 years; from 30, cytology q3y, HPV testing, or co-testing options through 65.
- Hepatitis B vaccine timing
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Recommended at birth to prevent perinatal and early childhood infection.
- MMR and varicella timing
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First dose at 12–15 months of age (second MMR/varicella at 4–6 years).
- Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) start
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Begins at 2 months of age in the routine childhood series.
- Adult without measles immunity
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Provide MMR vaccination unless contraindicated (pregnancy, significant immunosuppression).
- Most effective smoking cessation
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Combining behavioral counseling with pharmacotherapy (varenicline, bupropion, or nicotine replacement) — better than either alone.
- Prediabetes A1c range
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5.7%–6.4% — warrants intensive lifestyle intervention and follow-up to prevent progression.
- First prenatal visit labs
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Blood type, Rh status, and an antibody screen, plus other baseline labs (CBC, infectious screens).
- Family history of premature heart disease
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Supports earlier lipid screening to detect familial hyperlipidemia.
- Vaccine reaction to a component
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A history of anaphylaxis to a vaccine component is a contraindication to that vaccine; evaluate alternatives.
Foundations of Care (16)
- Sensitivity
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The proportion of people WITH disease who test positive (true-positive rate). High sensitivity → a negative result rules disease OUT (SnNout).
- Specificity
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The proportion of people WITHOUT disease who test negative (true-negative rate). High specificity → a positive result rules disease IN (SpPin).
- SnNout
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A SeNsitive test, when Negative, helps rule a disease OUT.
- SpPin
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A SPecific test, when Positive, helps rule a disease IN.
- Lowering a test's cutoff
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Sensitivity increases (more cases caught) and specificity decreases (more false positives).
- Positive predictive value (PPV)
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The probability that a positive test reflects true disease; it rises with disease prevalence (and with a higher pretest probability).
- Negative predictive value (NPV)
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The probability that a negative test reflects no disease; computed from true negatives ÷ (true negatives + false negatives).
- PPV in low-prevalence screening
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Falls — many false positives relative to true positives, producing anxious false alarms when screening rare conditions.
- Sensitivity/specificity vs prevalence
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They are fixed properties of the test and do NOT change with prevalence (unlike predictive values).
- Positive likelihood ratio (LR+)
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How much a positive result raises the odds of disease; a higher LR+ is better for ruling in, and it does not vary with prevalence.
- ROC curve / area under the curve
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A larger area under the ROC curve means greater overall ability to discriminate diseased from non-diseased patients.
- Number needed to treat (NNT)
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The number treated for one to benefit = 1 ÷ absolute risk reduction; a smaller NNT means a more effective therapy.
- Number needed to harm (NNH)
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Patients treated before one is harmed; comparing NNT to NNH weighs benefit against risk (NNT 25 vs NNH 100 favors treatment).
- Absolute vs relative risk reduction
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Relative risk reduction can exaggerate benefit; anchor on absolute measures (ARR and NNT) for clinical context.
- Confidence interval and significance
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A 95% CI for a difference that crosses zero (or 1 for a ratio) means the result is not statistically significant.
- Screening test trade-off
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Screening tests favor high sensitivity (don't miss cases); confirmatory tests favor high specificity (don't false-positive).
References
- 1.American Board of Family Medicine. “Family Medicine Exam Blueprint.” theabfm.org. ↑
- 2.American Board of Family Medicine. “One-Day Exam.” theabfm.org. ↑
- 3.National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI). “Heart Failure.” nhlbi.nih.gov. ↑
- 4.U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF). “Colorectal Cancer: Screening.” uspreventiveservicestaskforce.org. ↑
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