Click Study Flashcards above to open the flashcard hub — hundreds of NCLEX-RN cards you can flip, match, type, or quiz yourself on. Every card is drawn from the NCSBN Client Needs categories and written to the RN scope, so you study exactly what the licensure exam tests.[1] Pair them with our free practice questions and study guide.
NCLEX-RN Flashcard Study Modes
Flip mode is straight study, one card front at a time with the answer hidden until you turn it. Match is a timed game that pairs terms to definitions under pressure. Type shows the definition and makes you produce the term, so a front like NPH insulin has to come from memory. Quiz turns the same 310 cards into multiple-choice questions.
Why Flashcards Work for the NCLEX-RN
Physiological Adaptation is the deck’s largest domain at 70 cards, and it drills the conditions and emergency patterns you are expected to recognize on sight. Abbreviation cards such as DKA, HHS, and SIADH sit next to comparison prompts like AKI vs CKD, plus obstetric mnemonics including VEAL CHOP and acute presentations like Meningitis and DIC.
Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies follows with 46 cards covering drug classes, food and drug interactions, and administration rules — think Mannitol, MAOI diet, and the KCl IV rule, along with Mixing insulin and Warfarin diet. Reduction of Risk Potential adds 42 cards built almost entirely on lab and diagnostic interpretation, where fronts like BNP, aPTT, and ABG pH train you to read a value and name the problem.
Management of Care brings 33 cards on delegation, legal duty, ethics, and handoff language, with SBAR and UAP scope beside ethical principle cards such as Veracity and Autonomy. Health Promotion & Maintenance contributes 29 cards on maternal, newborn, and developmental content, including GTPAL, Naegele’s rule, APGAR, and age-staged prompts like Play — preschool.
Safety & Infection Prevention and Control holds 25 cards on protective practice, from PPE donning order and Contact precautions to Restraints and Oxygen safety. Psychosocial Integrity matches that count with 25 cards on mental health response, where The 3 Ds, De-escalation, and Alcohol withdrawal test what you say and do first.
Exam Structure & Clinical Judgment covers 22 cards on the test itself and the reasoning model behind it, including NCJMM 6 steps, Bow-tie item, and NCLEX-RN time limit. Basic Care & Comfort closes with 18 cards on fundamentals such as Cane use, Clear liquid diet, and Postmortem care.
That matters on the NCLEX-RN, where facts like lab values, drug watch points, and isolation precautions must be instantly available. Used alongside our practice questions and study guide, flashcards turn review time into measurable progress.
NCLEX-RN Flashcards by Topic
The cards are organized by the NCSBN Client Needs categories. Weight your study toward the heaviest ones — Physiological Integrity (about 51% across four subcategories) and Management of Care (the single largest subcategory at 15–21%) carry the most points:[1]
| NCSBN Client Needs subcategory | RN % range |
|---|---|
| Management of Care | 15–21% |
| Safety & Infection Prevention and Control | 10–16% |
| Health Promotion & Maintenance | 6–12% |
| Psychosocial Integrity | 6–12% |
| Basic Care & Comfort | 6–12% |
| Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies | 13–19% |
| Reduction of Risk Potential | 9–15% |
| Physiological Adaptation | 11–17% |
How to Get the Most Out of These Flashcards
- Start with Physiological Adaptation. At 70 cards it is the biggest block in the deck, and the emergency patterns behind DKA and DIC resurface in labs, drugs, and priority questions.
- Type-drill the precise ones. Cards like the KCl IV rule and aPTT punish vague recall, so force yourself to produce the exact term and value rather than recognizing it.
- Use Match for short labels. The ethics fronts in Management of Care — Justice, Fidelity, Veracity — pair fast under a clock and expose the ones you keep confusing.
- Move to the practice test when Quiz stops surprising you. Once Physiological Adaptation and Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies run clean, test the recall in question format and use the study guide for gaps.
- Keep the cadence steady. With 310 cards, one domain per session works better than marathon runs; re-Flip yesterday’s misses first, then add the next domain.
NCLEX-RN Flashcards FAQ
Hundreds of free NCLEX-RN flashcards, organized across the NCSBN Client Needs categories tested on the RN licensure exam. They're free to use with no account required.
Yes. Flashcards use active recall — retrieving an answer from memory — which research shows is one of the most effective ways to make information stick, especially in short sessions spread over several days.
All eight NCSBN subcategories: Management of Care, Safety and Infection Prevention and Control, Health Promotion and Maintenance, Psychosocial Integrity, Basic Care and Comfort, Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies, Reduction of Risk Potential, and Physiological Adaptation, plus exam logistics and clinical judgment.
Yes. Every card is written to the RN scope the NCLEX-RN actually tests — assessment, care planning, initial teaching, evaluation, triage, delegation to LPNs and UAP, and the care of unstable clients.
Mix the modes: flip to learn, type to test recall, match for speed, and quiz to check yourself. Spend the most time on Physiological Integrity (about 51%) and Management of Care (15–21%) — together they are the bulk of the exam.
Yes — 100% free, all four study modes, no paywall.
NCLEX-RN flashcard bank
All 310 cards, by topic
A reference copy of every card in this deck. Each answer stays hidden until you choose to show it. To study with Flip, Match, Type and Quiz modes and track what you have mastered, use Study Flashcards at the top of the page.
Exam Structure & Clinical Judgment (22)
- ABCs
Show answerHide answer
Airway, Breathing, Circulation — the first prioritization framework; airway always comes first.
- Certifying body of the NCLEX-RN
Show answerHide answer
NCSBN (National Council of State Boards of Nursing).
- NCLEX-RN delivery method
Show answerHide answer
Computerized Adaptive Testing (CAT) via Pearson VUE.
- Minimum / maximum NCLEX-RN items
Show answerHide answer
85 minimum / 150 maximum.
- NCLEX-RN time limit
Show answerHide answer
5 hours (includes all breaks).
- Current NCLEX-RN passing standard
Show answerHide answer
0.00 logits (no fixed % correct); upheld through March 31, 2029.
- Pretest items per exam
Show answerHide answer
15 unscored items, indistinguishable from scored items.
- NGN case study
Show answerHide answer
6 items per case study; 3 case studies (18 items) per exam.
- NCJMM 6 steps
Show answerHide answer
Recognize cues → Analyze cues → Prioritize hypotheses → Generate solutions → Take action → Evaluate outcomes.
- Bow-tie item
Show answerHide answer
Drag tokens into Actions to take | Condition/complication | Parameters to monitor.
- NCLEX retake rule
Show answerHide answer
45 test-free days between attempts; up to 8 attempts per year.
- Registration fee
Show answerHide answer
USD 200 (paid to Pearson VUE; non-refundable; verify current).
- Maximum-length exam rule
Show answerHide answer
If ability hovers at the standard, the exam runs to 150 items, then the final ability estimate alone decides pass/fail.
- Run-out-of-time (R.O.O.T.) rule
Show answerHide answer
Fewer than 85 items answered = fail; 85+ answered = scored on the final ability estimate.
- Why exam length doesn't predict result
Show answerHide answer
A candidate can pass or fail at 85 items or at 150 — length reflects how quickly ability is estimated, not performance.
- Highlight item (NGN)
Show answerHide answer
Click to highlight the relevant findings within a chart or medical record.
- Cloze drop-down item (NGN)
Show answerHide answer
Select answers from in-text drop-down menus to complete sentences or tables.
- Matrix/grid item (NGN)
Show answerHide answer
A grid of rows by columns; choose one (matrix multiple-choice) or several (matrix multiple-response) answers per row.
- Trend item (NGN)
Show answerHide answer
Interpret data across multiple time points, such as serial vital signs or labs.
- Partial-credit scoring
Show answerHide answer
Many NGN multi-key items award partial credit (plus/minus, zero/one, or rationale scoring).
- Adult assumption rule
Show answerHide answer
If no age is stated, assume the client is an adult; cultural/spiritual beliefs are self-reported.
- Integrated processes
Show answerHide answer
Caring, clinical judgment, communication/documentation, culture/spirituality, nursing process, teaching/learning — woven through every category.
Management of Care (33)
- Management of Care
Show answerHide answer
The largest RN subcategory (15-21%): prioritization, delegation, scope, ethics, advocacy, care coordination.
- Why 'Management of Care' (RN), not 'Coordinated Care' (PN)
Show answerHide answer
The RN plan names Category 1 'Management of Care'; the PN plan calls it 'Coordinated Care' — the RN directs and manages care.
- First priority framework
Show answerHide answer
ABCs: Airway → Breathing → Circulation (then Disability/neuro).
- When ABCs are equal, prioritize by
Show answerHide answer
Maslow: physiologic > safety > love/belonging > esteem > self-actualization.
- 'Assess first' rule
Show answerHide answer
See the most unstable/acute client or the one with an airway or breathing threat first.
- Acute vs chronic priority
Show answerHide answer
Acute, unstable, or unexpected findings take priority over chronic, stable, or expected ones.
- Actual vs potential problem
Show answerHide answer
Actual problems generally come before potential/at-risk problems, unless airway or safety is threatened.
- 5 Rights of Delegation
Show answerHide answer
Right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction/communication, right supervision/evaluation.
- RN-only tasks
Show answerHide answer
Assessment, initial teaching, evaluation, care planning, triage, IV-push meds, initiating blood/TPN, unstable clients.
- LPN/LVN scope (what RN may delegate to LPN)
Show answerHide answer
Stable clients, reinforcing teaching, most PO/IM/SubQ meds, routine dressing changes, monitoring, focused data collection.
- UAP scope
Show answerHide answer
ADLs, bathing, feeding (stable, no aspiration risk), ambulation, vital signs on stable clients, I&O, positioning.
- Never delegate to UAP
Show answerHide answer
Assessment, teaching, evaluation, nursing judgment, or the care of an unstable client.
- Delegation accountability
Show answerHide answer
The delegating RN retains accountability for the outcome even after delegating the task.
- SBAR
Show answerHide answer
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation — a structured handoff/communication format.
- Informed consent — nurse's role
Show answerHide answer
Witness the signature and confirm understanding; the provider explains the procedure, risks, and alternatives and obtains consent.
- Who can give consent
Show answerHide answer
A competent adult, an emancipated minor, or a legal guardian/health-care power of attorney.
- Nursing process (ADPIE)
Show answerHide answer
Assessment, Diagnosis (analysis), Planning, Implementation, Evaluation.
- Triage in the ED
Show answerHide answer
Emergent (life threat) first, then urgent, then non-urgent — the RN performs triage; the LPN does not.
- Case management goal
Show answerHide answer
Coordinate care across the team to achieve quality outcomes cost-effectively.
- Continuity of care
Show answerHide answer
Safe admission, transfer, discharge, referral, and follow-up with accurate handoff.
- Advocacy
Show answerHide answer
Acting in the client's best interest and supporting client rights and informed decision-making.
- Questioning an unsafe order
Show answerHide answer
Clarify any unclear, incomplete, or unsafe order with the prescriber before carrying it out; never act on an order you believe is wrong.
- Autonomy
Show answerHide answer
The client's right to make their own health-care decisions.
- Beneficence
Show answerHide answer
Acting to do good for the client.
- Nonmaleficence
Show answerHide answer
'Do no harm.'
- Justice
Show answerHide answer
Fair, equal, and equitable treatment of clients.
- Fidelity
Show answerHide answer
Keeping promises and commitments to the client.
- Veracity
Show answerHide answer
Truthfulness with the client.
- Negligence vs malpractice
Show answerHide answer
Malpractice is professional negligence; it requires duty, breach, causation, and damages.
- Mandatory reporting
Show answerHide answer
Report abuse/neglect, certain communicable diseases, and gunshot/stab wounds — suspicion is enough, proof is not required.
- Advance directive types
Show answerHide answer
Living will, durable power of attorney for health care, and DNR orders.
- HIPAA
Show answerHide answer
Protects the confidentiality of a client's health information; disclose only on a need-to-know basis.
- Incident/occurrence report
Show answerHide answer
Documents an error or near-miss; kept separate from the chart, and the chart never notes that one was filed.
Safety & Infection Prevention and Control (25)
- Standard precautions
Show answerHide answer
Used for ALL clients at all times; hand hygiene plus PPE for anticipated body-fluid exposure.
- Hand hygiene
Show answerHide answer
The single most important measure to prevent infection.
- Contact precautions
Show answerHide answer
Gown + gloves; e.g., MRSA, VRE, C. difficile, RSV, scabies, draining wounds.
- C. difficile hand hygiene
Show answerHide answer
Soap and water (alcohol does NOT kill spores); clean with bleach.
- Droplet precautions
Show answerHide answer
Surgical mask within ~6 ft, private room; e.g., influenza, pertussis, meningococcus, mumps, rubella, group A strep.
- Airborne precautions
Show answerHide answer
N95/fit-tested respirator + negative-pressure (AIIR) room, door closed.
- Airborne diseases ('My Chicken Hez TB')
Show answerHide answer
Measles (rubeola), Chickenpox/varicella, disseminated Herpes zoster, and Tuberculosis.
- Neutropenic/protective precautions
Show answerHide answer
For the immunocompromised; private room, no fresh flowers or raw produce, screen out ill visitors.
- PPE donning order
Show answerHide answer
Gown → mask/respirator → goggles/face shield → gloves (last, over cuffs).
- PPE removal (doffing) order
Show answerHide answer
Gloves → goggles/face shield → gown → mask/respirator, then hand hygiene last.
- Two client identifiers
Show answerHide answer
Name plus date of birth or medical record number — never the room number.
- Restraints
Show answerHide answer
Least restrictive option, provider order required (not PRN), time-limited, frequent monitoring; document alternatives tried.
- Fire response (RACE)
Show answerHide answer
Rescue, Alarm, Confine (close doors), Extinguish/Evacuate.
- Fire extinguisher (PASS)
Show answerHide answer
Pull the pin, Aim at the base, Squeeze, Sweep.
- Disaster triage colors
Show answerHide answer
Red = immediate, Yellow = delayed, Green = minor/walking, Black = expectant/deceased.
- Seizure precautions
Show answerHide answer
Padded rails, suction and oxygen at bedside, side-lying; do NOT restrain or put anything in the mouth.
- Oxygen safety
Show answerHide answer
No smoking, open flame, or sparks; post signage and secure cylinders upright.
- Latex allergy
Show answerHide answer
Identify and band the client; avoid all latex products.
- Correct-site/surgery safety
Show answerHide answer
Use a pre-procedure checklist and time-out with two identifiers to prevent wrong-site or wrong-client errors.
- Ergonomics / safe lifting
Show answerHide answer
Use proper body mechanics and mechanical lifts to prevent staff and client injury.
- Aseptic (sterile) technique
Show answerHide answer
Maintain a sterile field; once below the waist or out of sight it is contaminated; a 1-inch border is non-sterile.
- Sharps safety
Show answerHide answer
Do not recap needles; dispose of sharps in a puncture-resistant container.
- Hand hygiene — when
Show answerHide answer
Before and after client contact, before aseptic tasks, after body-fluid exposure, and after touching surroundings.
- Error/near-miss reporting
Show answerHide answer
Report and escalate errors, near-misses, and unsafe staff practice through the chain of command.
- Newborn/infant security
Show answerHide answer
Match ID bands, restrict unit access, and verify staff identity before releasing an infant.
Health Promotion & Maintenance (29)
- Health Promotion & Maintenance
Show answerHide answer
6-12% of the exam; growth/development, screening, prevention, prenatal/postpartum, and teaching across the lifespan.
- Primary prevention
Show answerHide answer
Stops disease before it occurs — immunizations, education, seat belts, healthy diet.
- Secondary prevention
Show answerHide answer
Detects disease early through screening — blood pressure, mammogram, Pap, glucose, newborn screen.
- Tertiary prevention
Show answerHide answer
Limits disability after disease — rehabilitation, cardiac rehab, support groups.
- Live vaccine contraindication
Show answerHide answer
Pregnancy and immunocompromised clients (MMR, varicella, intranasal flu, rotavirus) — hold and notify the provider.
- Erikson — Infant (0-1 yr)
Show answerHide answer
Trust vs. Mistrust.
- Erikson — Toddler (1-3)
Show answerHide answer
Autonomy vs. Shame/Doubt.
- Erikson — Preschool (3-6)
Show answerHide answer
Initiative vs. Guilt.
- Erikson — School-age (6-12)
Show answerHide answer
Industry vs. Inferiority.
- Erikson — Adolescent (12-18)
Show answerHide answer
Identity vs. Role Confusion.
- Erikson — Young adult
Show answerHide answer
Intimacy vs. Isolation.
- Erikson — Middle adult
Show answerHide answer
Generativity vs. Stagnation.
- Erikson — Older adult
Show answerHide answer
Ego Integrity vs. Despair.
- Play — toddler
Show answerHide answer
Parallel play.
- Play — preschool
Show answerHide answer
Associative play.
- Play — school-age
Show answerHide answer
Cooperative play.
- Naegele's rule
Show answerHide answer
First day of LMP - 3 months + 7 days + 1 year = estimated date of delivery.
- GTPAL
Show answerHide answer
Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortions, Living children.
- APGAR
Show answerHide answer
Scored 0-10 at 1 and 5 minutes: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex, color; 7-10 reassuring.
- Normal newborn heart rate
Show answerHide answer
110-160 bpm.
- Newborn reflexes
Show answerHide answer
Moro, rooting, sucking, Babinski, tonic neck.
- Postpartum assessment (BUBBLE-HE)
Show answerHide answer
Breasts, Uterus, Bladder, Bowel, Lochia, Episiotomy, Homans/extremities, Emotions.
- Lochia progression
Show answerHide answer
Rubra (red) → serosa (pink-brown) → alba (white-yellow).
- Postpartum hemorrhage #1 cause
Show answerHide answer
Uterine atony; first action is fundal massage.
- Teach-back
Show answerHide answer
Confirm understanding by having the client explain or demonstrate in their own words.
- Barriers to learning
Show answerHide answer
Language, literacy, sensory deficits, pain, anxiety, developmental level, and cultural beliefs.
- Acute confusion in an elder
Show answerHide answer
NOT normal aging — investigate infection, dehydration, hypoxia, or medications.
- Developmental milestones
Show answerHide answer
Social smile ~2 mo; sits unsupported ~6-8 mo; walks ~12-15 mo; anterior fontanel closes ~12-18 mo.
- Targeted screenings
Show answerHide answer
Vision, nutrition, and depression screening matched to the client's age and risk.
Psychosocial Integrity (25)
- Psychosocial Integrity
Show answerHide answer
6-12% of the exam; therapeutic communication, coping, mental illness, abuse, substance use, grief.
- Therapeutic communication
Show answerHide answer
Open-ended questions, reflection, silence, clarifying — keep the client talking and address feelings first.
- Non-therapeutic responses
Show answerHide answer
False reassurance, giving advice, 'why' questions, and changing the subject.
- Suicide risk — highest point
Show answerHide answer
When depression begins to lift and energy returns (the client can now act on a plan).
- Suicide precaution priority
Show answerHide answer
Ask directly about a plan and means; ensure safety, remove means, use 1:1 observation.
- Schizophrenia — positive symptoms
Show answerHide answer
Hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech (added behaviors).
- Schizophrenia — negative symptoms
Show answerHide answer
Flat affect, anhedonia, social withdrawal (lost behaviors).
- Hallucination response
Show answerHide answer
Acknowledge the feeling and present reality calmly: 'I don't hear the voices, but you seem frightened.'
- Delusion response
Show answerHide answer
Do not argue with or reinforce it; focus on the underlying feeling and reality.
- Mania nursing care
Show answerHide answer
Decrease stimulation, provide high-calorie finger foods, set firm consistent limits.
- Alcohol withdrawal
Show answerHide answer
Tremors, tachycardia, seizures; delirium tremens at 48-72 hr can be fatal.
- Wernicke's encephalopathy
Show answerHide answer
Thiamine (B1) deficiency in alcoholism; give thiamine.
- Defense mechanism — denial
Show answerHide answer
Refusing to accept a painful reality.
- Defense mechanism — projection
Show answerHide answer
Attributing one's own unacceptable feelings to another person.
- Defense mechanism — displacement
Show answerHide answer
Redirecting feelings from the real target to a safer one.
- Defense mechanism — regression
Show answerHide answer
Reverting to behavior from an earlier developmental stage under stress.
- Kübler-Ross stages of grief
Show answerHide answer
Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance (not linear).
- The 3 Ds
Show answerHide answer
Dementia (gradual, irreversible), Delirium (acute, reversible), Depression (mood).
- Delirium priority
Show answerHide answer
Identify and treat the underlying acute, reversible cause.
- Crisis intervention
Show answerHide answer
Short-term and focused on the immediate problem and safety.
- De-escalation
Show answerHide answer
Calm voice, personal space, offer choices, set firm limits; restraints are a last resort.
- Panic-level anxiety
Show answerHide answer
Stay with the client, never leave them alone, use short simple sentences, reduce stimuli.
- End-of-life care
Show answerHide answer
Manage comfort, honor advance directives, support the family, and allow expression of grief.
- Cultural & spiritual care
Show answerHide answer
Plan care around self-reported beliefs and preferences within the standard of care.
- Abuse/neglect
Show answerHide answer
Assess and report suspected abuse; the nurse is a mandatory reporter and does not need proof.
Basic Care & Comfort (18)
- Basic Care & Comfort
Show answerHide answer
6-12% of the exam; ADLs, nutrition, elimination, mobility, rest, comfort, and nonpharmacologic relief.
- Pain — 5th vital sign
Show answerHide answer
Believe the client's self-report; pain is what the client says it is; reassess after intervention.
- Aspiration precautions
Show answerHide answer
Sit upright 90 degrees, chin tuck, thickened liquids, small bites.
- Tube-feeding aspiration prevention
Show answerHide answer
Keep the head of the bed at 30-45 degrees; verify placement and check residual per policy.
- Clear liquid diet
Show answerHide answer
Broth, gelatin, apple juice, popsicles — nothing with milk or pulp.
- Cane use
Show answerHide answer
Hold on the stronger (unaffected) side; advance the cane with the weaker leg.
- Crutch gait on stairs
Show answerHide answer
'Up with the good, down with the bad.'
- Walker use
Show answerHide answer
Move the walker first, then step into it.
- Pressure injury prevention
Show answerHide answer
Reposition every 2 hours, offload bony prominences, optimize nutrition and moisture control.
- Normal ostomy stoma
Show answerHide answer
Pink/red and moist; report a dusky or purple stoma immediately.
- Postmortem care
Show answerHide answer
Provide dignity and follow the client's cultural and spiritual preferences.
- Nonpharmacologic comfort
Show answerHide answer
Repositioning, heat/cold, imagery, music, distraction, and relaxation.
- Sleep and rest
Show answerHide answer
Promote routine, limit caffeine and naps, and cluster care to reduce nighttime interruptions.
- Range of motion / mobility
Show answerHide answer
Early mobilization and ROM prevent contractures, VTE, and deconditioning.
- Intake & output (I&O)
Show answerHide answer
Track all fluids in and out; daily weight is the best indicator of fluid status (1 kg ~ 1 L).
- Enteral feeding placement
Show answerHide answer
Verify tube placement (pH/x-ray per policy) before each feeding or medication.
- Pain scales
Show answerHide answer
0-10 numeric (adults), FACES (pediatric/nonverbal), FLACC (infants).
- Complementary therapies
Show answerHide answer
Know benefits and contraindications of therapies the client uses alongside conventional care.
Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies (46)
- Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies
Show answerHide answer
13-19% of the exam — the largest RN subcategory after Management of Care; meds, IV therapy, and high-alert drugs.
- 6 rights of medication administration
Show answerHide answer
Right patient, drug, dose, route, time, and documentation.
- High-alert medications
Show answerHide answer
Insulin, anticoagulants, opioids, and concentrated electrolytes — require an independent double-check.
- Heparin lab & antidote
Show answerHide answer
Monitor aPTT; antidote is protamine sulfate.
- Warfarin lab & antidote
Show answerHide answer
Monitor PT/INR; antidote is vitamin K (phytonadione).
- Warfarin diet
Show answerHide answer
Keep vitamin K (green leafy vegetables) consistent — avoid large swings.
- Opioid overdose antidote
Show answerHide answer
Naloxone (Narcan).
- Benzodiazepine antidote
Show answerHide answer
Flumazenil.
- Acetaminophen antidote
Show answerHide answer
Acetylcysteine; max ~4 g/day; hepatotoxic in overdose.
- Digoxin toxicity antidote
Show answerHide answer
Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind).
- Magnesium sulfate toxicity antidote
Show answerHide answer
Calcium gluconate.
- Iron overdose antidote
Show answerHide answer
Deferoxamine.
- Digoxin — hold parameters
Show answerHide answer
Hold if adult apical HR < 60 bpm; check potassium (hypokalemia increases toxicity).
- Digoxin toxicity signs
Show answerHide answer
Anorexia, nausea/vomiting, yellow-green visual halos, bradycardia.
- KCl IV rule
Show answerHide answer
NEVER give potassium chloride IV push; always dilute and infuse via pump.
- Insulin given IV
Show answerHide answer
Only regular insulin may be given IV.
- Rapid-acting insulin (lispro/aspart)
Show answerHide answer
Onset ~15 min; give with a meal.
- Regular insulin
Show answerHide answer
Onset 30-60 min; peak 2-4 hr.
- NPH insulin
Show answerHide answer
Intermediate-acting; peak ~4-12 hr; appears cloudy.
- Mixing insulin
Show answerHide answer
Draw up clear (regular) before cloudy (NPH).
- Hypoglycemia treatment
Show answerHide answer
Shaky, sweaty, confused; give 15 g fast carbohydrate (rule of 15); if unconscious, IV dextrose or glucagon.
- Metformin & contrast
Show answerHide answer
Hold before and after IV contrast due to lactic-acidosis risk.
- ACE inhibitor (-pril)
Show answerHide answer
Dry cough, angioedema, hyperkalemia, first-dose hypotension.
- Loop diuretic (furosemide)
Show answerHide answer
Monitor for hypokalemia and ototoxicity (don't push too fast).
- Aminoglycosides (-mycin)
Show answerHide answer
Ototoxic and nephrotoxic; monitor peak and trough levels.
- Vancomycin red man syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Flushing from rapid infusion — slow the rate.
- Lithium toxicity
Show answerHide answer
Tremor, GI upset, confusion; maintain sodium and fluid intake; toxic > 1.5 mEq/L.
- SSRI/SNRI risk
Show answerHide answer
Serotonin syndrome — agitation, hyperthermia, clonus.
- MAOI diet
Show answerHide answer
Avoid tyramine (aged cheese, cured meats, wine) to prevent hypertensive crisis.
- Antipsychotic NMS
Show answerHide answer
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome: hyperthermia, rigidity, autonomic instability — a medical emergency.
- Tardive dyskinesia
Show answerHide answer
Involuntary movements from long-term antipsychotics; may be irreversible.
- Phenytoin
Show answerHide answer
Therapeutic level 10-20 mcg/mL; causes gingival hyperplasia.
- Corticosteroids
Show answerHide answer
Do NOT stop abruptly (taper); monitor glucose, infection, and cushingoid effects.
- Spironolactone
Show answerHide answer
Potassium-sparing diuretic — watch for hyperkalemia.
- Mannitol
Show answerHide answer
Osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure.
- Injection angles
Show answerHide answer
Intradermal 5-15 degrees, subcutaneous 45-90 degrees, intramuscular 90 degrees.
- Heparin SubQ technique
Show answerHide answer
Do not aspirate or massage the site.
- Beta-blocker (-olol)
Show answerHide answer
Hold for low HR or BP; do not stop abruptly.
- Statin (-statin)
Show answerHide answer
Monitor liver enzymes and for muscle pain (rhabdomyolysis).
- Fluoroquinolone (-floxacin)
Show answerHide answer
Risk of tendon rupture.
- Tetracycline (-cycline)
Show answerHide answer
Causes photosensitivity; avoid in children and pregnancy.
- Blood transfusion — first step on reaction
Show answerHide answer
STOP the transfusion and keep the line open with normal saline.
- Isotonic fluids
Show answerHide answer
0.9% NS, lactated Ringer's, D5W (in the bag) — expand intravascular volume.
- Hypotonic fluid
Show answerHide answer
0.45% NS — shifts fluid INTO cells.
- Hypertonic fluid
Show answerHide answer
3% NS, D10W — pulls fluid OUT of cells; monitor for overload.
- Medication reconciliation
Show answerHide answer
Compare the client's full medication list at every transition of care to prevent errors.
Reduction of Risk Potential (42)
- Reduction of Risk Potential
Show answerHide answer
9-15% of the exam; vital-sign trends, diagnostics, labs, and preventing complications of conditions/procedures.
- Sodium (Na+) normal
Show answerHide answer
135-145 mEq/L.
- Potassium (K+) normal
Show answerHide answer
3.5-5.0 mEq/L.
- Calcium (total) normal
Show answerHide answer
9.0-10.5 mg/dL.
- Magnesium normal
Show answerHide answer
1.5-2.5 mEq/L.
- Phosphorus normal
Show answerHide answer
3.0-4.5 mg/dL.
- BUN normal
Show answerHide answer
10-20 mg/dL.
- Creatinine normal
Show answerHide answer
0.6-1.2 mg/dL.
- Fasting glucose normal
Show answerHide answer
70-110 mg/dL.
- HbA1c
Show answerHide answer
Good control < 7%; diabetes is diagnosed at >= 6.5%.
- WBC normal
Show answerHide answer
5,000-10,000 /mm3.
- Hemoglobin normal
Show answerHide answer
Male 14-18, Female 12-16 g/dL.
- Hematocrit normal
Show answerHide answer
Male 42-52%, Female 37-47%.
- Platelets normal
Show answerHide answer
150,000-400,000 /mm3.
- INR normal vs therapeutic
Show answerHide answer
Normal 0.8-1.1; therapeutic on warfarin 2.0-3.0 (up to 3.5 for mechanical valves).
- aPTT
Show answerHide answer
Normal 30-40 sec; therapeutic on heparin 1.5-2.5x control.
- Troponin
Show answerHide answer
< 0.04 ng/mL; elevation indicates myocardial infarction.
- BNP
Show answerHide answer
< 100 pg/mL; elevation indicates heart failure.
- ABG pH
Show answerHide answer
7.35-7.45.
- PaCO2
Show answerHide answer
35-45 mmHg.
- HCO3 (bicarbonate)
Show answerHide answer
22-26 mEq/L.
- PaO2 / SpO2
Show answerHide answer
PaO2 80-100 mmHg; oxygen saturation 95-100%.
- Digoxin therapeutic level
Show answerHide answer
0.5-2.0 ng/mL.
- Hyperkalemia ECG
Show answerHide answer
Peaked T waves; risk of fatal dysrhythmia — a reportable emergency.
- Hypokalemia ECG
Show answerHide answer
Flat T waves and U waves; potentiates digoxin toxicity.
- Hypercalcemia
Show answerHide answer
'Stones, bones, groans' — kidney stones, bone pain, weakness, constipation.
- Hypocalcemia signs
Show answerHide answer
Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs, tetany.
- Hypermagnesemia
Show answerHide answer
Loss of deep tendon reflexes and respiratory depression.
- ROME
Show answerHide answer
Respiratory Opposite, Metabolic Equal — relates pH to CO2 vs HCO3 direction.
- Before IV contrast — check
Show answerHide answer
Renal function (creatinine), iodine/shellfish allergy, and hold metformin.
- Moderate (conscious) sedation monitoring
Show answerHide answer
Continuously monitor airway, oxygenation, vital signs, and level of consciousness.
- Best indicator of fluid status
Show answerHide answer
Daily weight (1 kg ~ 1 L).
- Fluid volume deficit
Show answerHide answer
Increased HR, decreased BP, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, high urine specific gravity.
- Fluid volume overload
Show answerHide answer
Edema, crackles, jugular venous distention, bounding pulse, weight gain.
- Catheter (CAUTI) prevention
Show answerHide answer
Sterile insertion, secure tubing below bladder level, remove as early as possible.
- VTE prevention
Show answerHide answer
Anti-embolism stockings, sequential compression devices, early ambulation, anticoagulation.
- Pre-op care
Show answerHide answer
Verify witnessed consent, NPO status, baseline vitals, and remove jewelry/dentures.
- Post-op atelectasis prevention
Show answerHide answer
Incentive spirometry, cough and deep breathe, early ambulation.
- Lithium therapeutic level
Show answerHide answer
0.6-1.2 mEq/L; toxic above 1.5 mEq/L.
- Vancomycin trough
Show answerHide answer
10-20 mcg/mL.
- Ammonia
Show answerHide answer
15-45 mcg/dL; elevated in hepatic encephalopathy.
- Albumin
Show answerHide answer
3.5-5.0 g/dL; low in malnutrition and liver disease.
Physiological Adaptation (70)
- Physiological Adaptation
Show answerHide answer
11-17% of the exam; managing acute, chronic, and life-threatening conditions and emergencies.
- MI components (MONA)
Show answerHide answer
Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin — assess and treat acute coronary syndrome.
- Left-sided heart failure
Show answerHide answer
Pulmonary congestion: crackles, dyspnea, orthopnea, frothy sputum.
- Right-sided heart failure
Show answerHide answer
Systemic congestion: jugular venous distention, peripheral edema, ascites, hepatomegaly.
- Heart failure teaching
Show answerHide answer
Daily weights — report a gain over 2-3 lb/day or 5 lb/week; low-sodium diet.
- Nitroglycerin
Show answerHide answer
Vasodilator for angina; may repeat every 5 min up to 3 doses; causes headache and hypotension.
- Cushing's triad (increased ICP)
Show answerHide answer
Rising systolic BP with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respirations.
- Increased ICP positioning
Show answerHide answer
Head of bed 30 degrees, head midline, avoid hip flexion and Valsalva.
- DVT
Show answerHide answer
Unilateral swelling, warmth, and pain; risk of PE; do not massage.
- PE (pulmonary embolism)
Show answerHide answer
Sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, hypoxia — an emergency.
- Hypovolemic shock
Show answerHide answer
Low BP, high HR, cool clammy skin; treat with fluids/blood.
- Anaphylactic shock
Show answerHide answer
Treat with epinephrine first (IM).
- Neurogenic shock
Show answerHide answer
Bradycardia + hypotension from loss of sympathetic tone (distinguishes it from other shock).
- Sepsis priority
Show answerHide answer
Early recognition; obtain cultures before antibiotics, give fluids, monitor lactate.
- COPD oxygen caution
Show answerHide answer
Give low-flow oxygen (1-3 L) to avoid suppressing the hypoxic drive.
- Asthma rescue
Show answerHide answer
Short-acting beta agonist (albuterol) first.
- Suctioning rule
Show answerHide answer
Apply suction only on withdrawal, <= 10-15 sec, and hyperoxygenate first.
- Chest tube — continuous bubbling
Show answerHide answer
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber means an air leak — investigate.
- Chest tube falls out
Show answerHide answer
Cover the site with a sterile occlusive dressing taped on three sides.
- Tension pneumothorax
Show answerHide answer
Tracheal deviation, absent breath sounds — needs emergency decompression.
- Stroke (FAST)
Show answerHide answer
Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call 911.
- Ischemic stroke tPA window
Show answerHide answer
Within ~3-4.5 hr of symptom onset, after CT rules out hemorrhage.
- Autonomic dysreflexia
Show answerHide answer
Spinal-cord-injury emergency: severe HTN and pounding headache; sit the client UP and remove the trigger (often a full bladder).
- Guillain-Barré priority
Show answerHide answer
Ascending paralysis — monitor respiratory function closely.
- DKA
Show answerHide answer
Type 1: hyperglycemia, ketones, Kussmaul respirations, fruity breath, metabolic acidosis; give IV fluids first, then insulin, watch K+.
- HHS
Show answerHide answer
Type 2: very high glucose, no significant ketosis, severe dehydration.
- Addisonian crisis
Show answerHide answer
Shock from adrenal insufficiency; needs immediate hydrocortisone and fluids.
- SIADH
Show answerHide answer
Too much ADH: water retention, dilutional hyponatremia; restrict fluids.
- Diabetes insipidus
Show answerHide answer
Too little ADH: large volumes of dilute urine, hypernatremia, dehydration risk.
- Hepatic encephalopathy
Show answerHide answer
Elevated ammonia; treat with lactulose and a low-protein diet; watch for asterixis.
- Bowel obstruction
Show answerHide answer
Distension, vomiting, absent or high-pitched bowel sounds; NPO with NG decompression.
- Peritonitis
Show answerHide answer
Rigid, board-like abdomen with rebound tenderness — a surgical emergency.
- Hemodialysis AV fistula care
Show answerHide answer
Protect the arm — no BP, IV, or venipuncture; assess for thrill and bruit.
- Hyperkalemia treatment
Show answerHide answer
Calcium gluconate (cardioprotection), insulin + glucose, kayexalate, dialysis.
- Compartment syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Severe pain unrelieved by meds, paresthesia, pulselessness — an emergency.
- Fat embolism
Show answerHide answer
After a long-bone fracture: dyspnea, petechiae, confusion.
- Hip-replacement precautions
Show answerHide answer
No flexion beyond 90 degrees, no crossing legs, use an abduction pillow.
- Pressure injury stages
Show answerHide answer
Stage 1 non-blanchable redness; 2 partial-thickness; 3 fat visible; 4 muscle/bone; unstageable obscured by slough/eschar.
- Burn priority
Show answerHide answer
Assess airway first (inhalation injury); fluid resuscitation by the Parkland formula.
- DIC
Show answerHide answer
Simultaneous clotting and bleeding; low platelets, high PT/PTT, high D-dimer.
- Neutropenia (ANC < 500)
Show answerHide answer
High infection risk; institute protective precautions.
- Magnesium sulfate (OB)
Show answerHide answer
Prevents seizures in preeclampsia; toxicity = loss of DTRs and respiratory depression (antidote calcium gluconate).
- FHR — late decelerations
Show answerHide answer
Uteroplacental insufficiency — reposition, give oxygen, stop oxytocin.
- VEAL CHOP
Show answerHide answer
Variable=Cord compression, Early=Head compression, Accelerations=Okay, Late=Placental insufficiency.
- Wound dehiscence/evisceration
Show answerHide answer
Cover with sterile saline-soaked gauze, place in low Fowler's, and notify the surgeon.
- Active TB meds (RIPE)
Show answerHide answer
Rifampin (orange fluids), Isoniazid (B6/neuropathy, hepatotoxic), Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol (vision).
- Malignant hyperthermia
Show answerHide answer
Anesthesia emergency: rapid temperature rise and muscle rigidity; give dantrolene.
- Croup vs epiglottitis
Show answerHide answer
Croup: barking cough, give cool mist. Epiglottitis: drooling and tripod position — do NOT examine the throat.
- Sickle cell crisis
Show answerHide answer
Hydration, oxygen, and pain management; avoid cold and dehydration triggers.
- Pancreatitis labs
Show answerHide answer
Elevated amylase and lipase; severe epigastric pain radiating to the back.
- Cholecystitis
Show answerHide answer
RUQ pain, positive Murphy's sign, fatty-food intolerance.
- Crohn's vs ulcerative colitis
Show answerHide answer
Crohn's: whole GI tract, skip lesions, transmural. UC: continuous colon/rectum, bloody diarrhea.
- Kidney stones
Show answerHide answer
Severe flank pain and hematuria; strain the urine and increase fluids.
- AKI vs CKD
Show answerHide answer
Acute kidney injury is often reversible; chronic kidney disease is irreversible and progressive.
- Peritoneal dialysis complication
Show answerHide answer
Peritonitis — cloudy effluent is the key sign.
- Hyperthyroidism (Graves')
Show answerHide answer
Weight loss, tachycardia, heat intolerance, exophthalmos; thyroid storm is life-threatening.
- Hypothyroidism
Show answerHide answer
Fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, bradycardia; severe form is myxedema coma.
- Addison's disease
Show answerHide answer
Adrenal insufficiency: hypotension, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, bronze skin.
- Cushing's syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Excess cortisol: moon face, buffalo hump, truncal obesity, hyperglycemia.
- Meningitis
Show answerHide answer
Droplet precautions; nuchal rigidity, positive Kernig/Brudzinski signs; frequent neuro checks.
- Parkinson's hallmark
Show answerHide answer
Tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, shuffling gait.
- Glasgow Coma Scale
Show answerHide answer
Ranges from 3 (worst) to 15 (best).
- Tumor lysis syndrome
Show answerHide answer
Oncologic emergency: hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia.
- Choking (conscious adult)
Show answerHide answer
Perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver).
- Anaphylaxis first drug
Show answerHide answer
Epinephrine IM.
- Pyloric stenosis
Show answerHide answer
Projectile vomiting, olive-shaped mass, hungry again after vomiting.
- Intussusception
Show answerHide answer
'Currant jelly' stools and a sausage-shaped abdominal mass.
- Cystic fibrosis
Show answerHide answer
Thick secretions; chest physiotherapy and pancreatic enzymes.
- Dehydration in infants
Show answerHide answer
Sunken fontanel, decreased urine output, poor skin turgor.
- Lumbar puncture aftercare
Show answerHide answer
Lie flat and increase fluids to prevent a post-dural-puncture (spinal) headache.
References
- 1.National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN). “2026 NCLEX-RN Test Plan (effective April 2026).” NCSBN.org. ↑
- 2.National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN). “Computerized Adaptive Testing (CAT) & NGN.” NCLEX.com. ↑
- 3.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). “Transmission-Based Precautions.” CDC.gov. ↑
- 4.U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). “Narrow Therapeutic Index Drugs.” FDA.gov. ↑
Career Employer
Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.
All PostsCareer Employer’s Editorial Process
Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.