Your FREE TSI Assessment (TSIA2) Practice Test 2026 – 140+ Q&A
Prepare with realistic, TSIA2-style questions — take a full TSI practice test or drill one content area at a time across ELAR and Mathematics.
How ready are you?
TSI Test Prep
To find us again, just search Find us again. Search “Career Employer TSI”
Lock each answer to reveal the explanation instantly as you go.
To find us again, just search Find us again. Search “Career Employer TSI”
Practice by domain
More ways to study TSI
Study GuideTSI Study GuideThe most essential TSI topics to master before exam day — with interactive chapter quizzes and flashcards built in.FlashcardsTSI FlashcardsHundreds of TSI flashcards in multiple study modes — flip, match, type, and quiz.
TSI Practice Questions
Read the following lines from a short story: "When her sister announced the engagement, Priya smiled and raised her glass with everyone else, but later that night she scrubbed the same clean pot at the sink for nearly an hour." What can the reader most reasonably infer about Priya?
She is exhausted from preparing the celebration dinner
She is delighted and cannot stop thinking about the wedding plans
She is troubled by feelings she did not show at the celebration
She did not hear her sister's announcement clearly
Correct answer: She is troubled by feelings she did not show at the celebration
The reader can infer Priya is troubled by feelings she did not show. Her public smile and toast contrast sharply with the private, repetitive scrubbing of an already-clean pot, a sign of inner agitation she is masking rather than fatigue, delight, or having missed the news.
Read this line from a poem: "The harbor lay flat and patient, a held promise the tide had not yet kept." The poet's description of the harbor most clearly establishes which tone?
Frantic and chaotic
Quietly expectant
Bitter and resentful
Coldly scientific
Correct answer: Quietly expectant
The tone is quietly expectant. Words like "patient" and "a held promise" suggest calm anticipation of something still to come, not frenzy, bitterness, or detached observation.
Read the sentence: "The veteran diplomat was famous for his sangfroid, remaining utterly calm even as shouting erupted across the negotiating table." As used here, "sangfroid" most nearly means
Quickness to anger
Skill at telling jokes
Fear of confrontation
Composure under pressure
Correct answer: Composure under pressure
"Sangfroid" most nearly means composure under pressure. The clue that he remained "utterly calm" amid shouting points to coolness and self-control, ruling out anger, humor, or fear.
A literary passage states directly that Marcus left his umbrella by the door, walked three blocks in the rain, and arrived at the office soaked to the skin. Which detail is explicitly stated rather than inferred?
Marcus was distracted that morning
Marcus left his umbrella by the door
Marcus disliked rainy weather
Marcus was running late for work
Correct answer: Marcus left his umbrella by the door
The explicitly stated detail is that Marcus left his umbrella by the door. That fact appears word-for-word in the passage, while distraction, dislike of rain, and lateness are inferences a reader might draw from his behavior rather than stated facts.
Read the excerpt: "Each evening Ravi set two cups of tea on the small table, drank from one, and left the other to grow cold across from the photograph on the wall." Which inference is best supported by this detail?
Ravi is preparing tea for a guest who will arrive shortly
Ravi cannot decide which cup of tea he prefers
Ravi dislikes drinking tea while alone
Ravi keeps a ritual to honor someone he has lost
Correct answer: Ravi keeps a ritual to honor someone he has lost
The best-supported inference is that Ravi keeps a ritual to honor someone he has lost. Pouring a second cup that goes cold beside a photograph suggests remembrance of an absent person, not an arriving guest, indecision, or a dislike of solitude.
In a novel, the author writes: "The mansion's chandeliers blazed, but the laughter that rose to meet them was thin and brittle, like ice that knows it is about to crack." The simile in this sentence primarily serves to
Describe the building's expensive decorations
Hint that the guests' cheer is fragile and forced
Explain why the room felt physically cold
Show that a real accident is about to occur
Correct answer: Hint that the guests' cheer is fragile and forced
The simile hints that the guests' cheer is fragile and forced. Comparing the "thin and brittle" laughter to ice about to crack signals that the gaiety is precarious and strained, not a comment on decorations, temperature, or a literal accident.
Read the sentence: "Her praise for the new recruit was tepid, offered with a shrug and a quick change of subject." As used here, "tepid" most nearly means
Loud and exaggerated
Harsh and insulting
Lacking warmth or enthusiasm
Detailed and thoughtful
Correct answer: Lacking warmth or enthusiasm
"Tepid" most nearly means lacking warmth or enthusiasm. The accompanying shrug and quick subject change signal half-hearted approval, which excludes exaggeration, insult, or careful thoroughness.
Read the excerpt: "Asked whether he had finished the manuscript, Owen tapped the thick stack of pages, said only 'almost,' and slid the whole pile back into a drawer he then locked." What does Owen's behavior most strongly suggest?
He has lost interest in the manuscript entirely
He is reluctant to let anyone see the unfinished work
He has already published the manuscript
He has forgotten what the manuscript is about
Correct answer: He is reluctant to let anyone see the unfinished work
Owen's behavior most strongly suggests reluctance to let anyone see the unfinished work. Giving a clipped "almost" and locking the pages away points to guardedness about the incomplete draft rather than lost interest, publication, or forgetfulness.
Read these lines from a poem: "Spring arrives like an apology, soft-footed, unsure whether it is welcome after so long a winter." The poet's choice to describe spring this way chiefly conveys
Scientific facts about seasonal change
Anger at the harshness of winter
Excitement about summer's quick arrival
A sense of hesitant, tentative renewal
Correct answer: A sense of hesitant, tentative renewal
The description chiefly conveys a sense of hesitant, tentative renewal. Personifying spring as a "soft-footed" apology "unsure whether it is welcome" suggests cautious return rather than scientific reporting, anger, or eager anticipation of another season.
A story states directly: "The captain logged the storm, secured the cargo, and ordered the crew below deck before the first wave broke over the bow." Which of these must the reader infer rather than read explicitly?
The captain logged the storm
The captain expected the conditions to grow dangerous
The captain secured the cargo
The captain ordered the crew below deck
Correct answer: The captain expected the conditions to grow dangerous
The reader must infer that the captain expected conditions to grow dangerous. His preparations before the first wave broke imply foresight, while logging the storm, securing the cargo, and sending the crew below are all directly stated actions.
Read the sentence: "The river's course was meandering, looping lazily through the valley as if in no hurry to reach the sea." As used here, "meandering" most nearly means
Flowing with violent speed
Drying up in the heat
Running perfectly straight
Following a winding, indirect path
Correct answer: Following a winding, indirect path
"Meandering" most nearly means following a winding, indirect path. The image of looping "lazily" through the valley "in no hurry" signals a curving, unhurried route, which excludes violent speed, drying up, or a straight line.
Read the excerpt: "The boy clutched the ticket stub long after the carnival lights had gone dark, turning it over and over in the dim glow of the bus window." Which inference about the boy is best supported?
He plans to return the ticket for a refund
He is holding onto a memory he does not want to end
He has never attended a carnival before
He is checking the ticket for printing errors
Correct answer: He is holding onto a memory he does not want to end
The best-supported inference is that he is holding onto a memory he does not want to end. Clutching and repeatedly turning the stub long after the lights go dark suggests sentimental attachment to the experience, not a refund, first-time attendance, or a search for errors.
In a short story, the author writes: "The committee's decision fell on the small town like a verdict, final and without appeal." The author's comparison of the decision to a "verdict" primarily emphasizes
The town's pride in its legal system
That the decision was felt as harsh and unchangeable
That the committee acted illegally
That the townspeople agreed with the outcome
Correct answer: That the decision was felt as harsh and unchangeable
The comparison primarily emphasizes that the decision was felt as harsh and unchangeable. Calling it a "verdict" that was "final and without appeal" stresses its severity and irreversibility, not civic pride, illegality, or agreement.
Read the sentence: "After weeks of silence, his sudden, voluble explanation of every detail surprised everyone in the room." As used here, "voluble" most nearly means
Talking freely and at great length
Whispered and secretive
Brief and reluctant
Angry and threatening
Correct answer: Talking freely and at great length
"Voluble" most nearly means talking freely and at great length. The contrast with "weeks of silence" and the detail that he explained "every detail" signal a sudden flood of speech, ruling out whispering, brevity, or anger.
Read the excerpt: "Every report card she ever brought home is taped inside the cabinet door, the oldest now yellowed and curling at the corners, where only her father ever sees them." What can the reader most reasonably infer about the father?
He is disappointed by his daughter's grades
He is required to keep the records for school
He cannot afford to frame the report cards properly
He quietly treasures his daughter's achievements
Correct answer: He quietly treasures his daughter's achievements
The reader can infer the father quietly treasures his daughter's achievements. Keeping years of report cards taped in a private spot only he sees signals personal pride and sentiment, not disappointment, an external requirement, or a money problem.
A literary passage states that the actress took a deep breath, stepped into the spotlight, and delivered her opening line in a steady, ringing voice. Which statement is explicitly supported by the passage rather than merely inferred?
The actress had rehearsed for many months
The actress delivered her line in a steady voice
The actress was nervous before the performance
The actress hoped to win an award
Correct answer: The actress delivered her line in a steady voice
The explicitly supported statement is that the actress delivered her line in a steady voice. The passage states this directly, while months of rehearsal, nervousness, and hopes of an award are inferences not stated in the text.
Read these lines from a poem: "The factory stood mute now, its great windows blank as the eyes of something that had once known how to work." The poet's description most strongly conveys a tone of
Hopeful renewal
Desolate abandonment
Cheerful nostalgia
Clinical neutrality
Correct answer: Desolate abandonment
The tone is desolate abandonment. Describing the factory as "mute" with windows "blank as the eyes" of something that "once knew how to work" evokes lifelessness and loss, not hope, cheer, or detached neutrality.
Read the sentence: "The trail grew increasingly arduous, each switchback steeper than the last until even the strongest hikers stopped to gasp for breath." As used here, "arduous" most nearly means
Gentle and easy
Demanding great effort
Short and pleasant
Scenic and colorful
Correct answer: Demanding great effort
"Arduous" most nearly means demanding great effort. The clue that even strong hikers "stopped to gasp for breath" on ever-steeper switchbacks signals strenuous difficulty, which excludes ease, brevity, or scenery.
Read the excerpt: "In the final scene the playwright gives the grieving widow no dialogue at all; she simply folds her husband's coat, sets it on the empty chair, and turns off the lamp." The playwright's choice to leave the widow silent most likely serves to
Suggest the widow has nothing important to express
Let her wordless actions convey grief more powerfully than speech
Indicate that the actor forgot her lines
Show that the play is unfinished
Correct answer: Let her wordless actions convey grief more powerfully than speech
The choice most likely serves to let her wordless actions convey grief more powerfully than speech. Folding the coat, placing it on an empty chair, and dimming the lamp express loss through gesture, a deliberate craft decision rather than a sign of emptiness, a mistake, or an incomplete play.
Read the following paragraph from an informational article: "Community gardens do more than supply fresh produce. Studies link them to lower neighborhood crime, stronger social ties among residents, and measurable drops in household grocery spending. In short, a plot of soil can quietly reshape a whole block." What is the central idea of this paragraph?
Community gardens benefit neighborhoods in ways that go well beyond producing food
Community gardens are the most effective way to reduce crime in cities
Growing vegetables is cheaper than buying them at a grocery store
Most neighborhoods would be improved by adding more green space
Correct answer: Community gardens benefit neighborhoods in ways that go well beyond producing food
The central idea is that community gardens benefit neighborhoods far beyond producing food. The paragraph opens by stating gardens "do more than supply fresh produce" and then lists social, safety, and financial effects as support; the crime, cost, and green-space statements are individual details or overreaches, not the unifying point.
An informational passage argues that remote work increases productivity. Which of the following sentences from the passage functions as a supporting detail rather than the main idea?
Remote work has reshaped how companies measure employee output
Working from home tends to make employees more productive
One survey found remote employees completed 13 percent more calls per hour than office staff
The future of the workplace is likely to be far more flexible
Correct answer: One survey found remote employees completed 13 percent more calls per hour than office staff
The supporting detail is the survey finding that remote employees completed 13 percent more calls per hour. A specific statistic provides evidence for the broader claim that working from home boosts productivity; the other choices state general claims or predictions rather than backing up the argument with concrete proof.
Passage 1 argues that cities should ban gas-powered leaf blowers because of their noise and emissions. Passage 2 argues that such bans unfairly burden small landscaping businesses that cannot afford electric replacements. A reader synthesizing both passages would most accurately conclude that the two authors
Completely agree that leaf blowers should be banned immediately
Disagree about whether a ban's benefits outweigh its costs to small businesses
Both believe gas leaf blowers cause no real harm
Are writing about entirely unrelated topics
Correct answer: Disagree about whether a ban's benefits outweigh its costs to small businesses
Synthesizing the two passages shows the authors disagree about whether the ban's benefits outweigh its costs to small businesses. Passage 1 stresses environmental and noise benefits while Passage 2 stresses the economic burden on small landscapers, so they share the topic but weigh the tradeoffs differently rather than fully agreeing, denying all harm, or addressing unrelated subjects.
Read this sentence from an informational report: "The new policy was intended to streamline the permit process, but the additional review boards it created only compounded the delays applicants already faced." As used in this sentence, the word "compounded" most nearly means
Reduced gradually over time
Made worse by adding to
Explained in detail
Reversed completely
Correct answer: Made worse by adding to
In this informational context, "compounded" most nearly means made worse by adding to. The contrast word "but" and the phrase "delays applicants already faced" show the new boards increased existing problems, which rules out reducing, explaining, or reversing them.
An informational article about sleep states, "Adults who consistently get fewer than six hours of sleep show impaired memory, slower reaction times, and a higher risk of chronic illness." Which statement best expresses the main idea this sentence supports?
Six hours of sleep is the exact amount every adult needs
Chronic illness is caused entirely by lack of sleep
Insufficient sleep harms adults across several areas of health and function
Reaction time is the most important measure of good sleep
Correct answer: Insufficient sleep harms adults across several areas of health and function
The main idea this sentence supports is that insufficient sleep harms adults across several areas of health and function. The sentence lists memory, reaction time, and illness risk as parallel consequences of too little sleep, rather than declaring an exact requirement, claiming sleep is the sole cause of illness, or elevating one measure above the rest.
Read the paragraph: "Critics of the highway expansion point to induced demand: when roads are widened, the added capacity attracts more drivers, so congestion soon returns to its previous level. Far from solving traffic, they argue, bigger highways may simply invite more of it." Which sentence best states the paragraph's main point?
Widening highways often fails to relieve congestion because it draws additional drivers
Highway expansion is too expensive for most cities to undertake
Drivers prefer wider roads to narrow ones
Induced demand is a term invented by traffic engineers
Correct answer: Widening highways often fails to relieve congestion because it draws additional drivers
The main point is that widening highways often fails to relieve congestion because it draws additional drivers. The paragraph explains induced demand and concludes bigger highways "may simply invite more" traffic, while cost, driver preference, and the term's origin are not the paragraph's claim.
Passage 1 presents evidence that early exposure to a second language improves children's problem-solving skills. Passage 2 reports that bilingual children sometimes reach certain vocabulary milestones slightly later than monolingual peers. Reading both passages together, a reader can best synthesize them by concluding that
Bilingualism is harmful to children's overall development
The two passages directly contradict each other and cannot both be true
Early bilingualism carries cognitive advantages alongside some minor, temporary tradeoffs
Vocabulary size is the only meaningful measure of language ability
Correct answer: Early bilingualism carries cognitive advantages alongside some minor, temporary tradeoffs
Synthesizing both passages, a reader can conclude that early bilingualism carries cognitive advantages alongside minor, temporary tradeoffs. Passage 1 shows a problem-solving benefit while Passage 2 notes a small vocabulary lag, so the two combine into a balanced view rather than proving harm, an outright contradiction, or that vocabulary alone defines language ability.
Read the sentence from a science article: "Although the experiment's results were promising, the researchers were careful to frame them as preliminary, cautioning that a single trial cannot establish a definitive conclusion." As used here, the word "preliminary" most nearly means
Final and conclusive
Coming before more complete work is done
Unrelated to the study
Widely accepted by experts
Correct answer: Coming before more complete work is done
In this informational context, "preliminary" most nearly means coming before more complete work is done. The researchers' caution that "a single trial cannot establish a definitive conclusion" signals an early, not-yet-final stage, which excludes conclusive, unrelated, or widely accepted meanings.
An informational essay opens by describing a coastal town's shrinking fishing industry, then presents data on warming ocean temperatures, and closes by urging policymakers to act on climate change. Which choice best identifies the overall main idea of the essay?
Fishing has always been an unstable way to earn a living
Ocean temperatures naturally rise and fall over the centuries
Climate change is harming coastal economies and requires policy action
Coastal towns should diversify away from fishing entirely
Correct answer: Climate change is harming coastal economies and requires policy action
The overall main idea is that climate change is harming coastal economies and requires policy action. The essay moves from a concrete example of harm, to supporting data, to a call for policy response, so the closing argument unifies the parts; the other options seize on isolated details or unsupported claims.
Passage 1 claims that standardized tests give colleges an objective benchmark for comparing applicants from different schools. Passage 2 claims that standardized tests mainly reflect a family's wealth and access to test preparation. A student asked to synthesize the two passages would most accurately say that
Both authors agree standardized tests should be eliminated
The authors disagree about whether standardized tests measure ability fairly
Neither author has any evidence for their position
The passages are about two completely different kinds of tests
Correct answer: The authors disagree about whether standardized tests measure ability fairly
A synthesis of the two passages shows the authors disagree about whether standardized tests measure ability fairly. One author treats the tests as an objective benchmark while the other sees them as a proxy for wealth, so they share the topic but reach opposing judgments rather than agreeing on elimination, lacking evidence, or discussing different tests.
Read the paragraph: "The museum's renovation was praised for its glass atrium and expanded galleries. Yet some longtime visitors mourned the loss of the cramped, dimly lit rooms where they had first fallen in love with the collection." Which statement best captures the main idea of this paragraph?
The renovation improved every aspect of the museum
The museum's collection was sold during the renovation
Glass atriums are the best feature any museum can have
The renovation brought both celebrated improvements and a sense of loss
Correct answer: The renovation brought both celebrated improvements and a sense of loss
The main idea is that the renovation brought both celebrated improvements and a sense of loss. The paragraph balances praise for the new atrium and galleries against the regret of visitors who missed the old rooms, so a one-sided claim of total improvement, a sold collection, or a generalization about atriums all miss the dual point.
Read the sentence from an informational article: "The mayor's plan was ambitious, but its vague funding details left council members skeptical that it could ever move beyond the drawing board." As used in this sentence, the phrase "move beyond the drawing board" most nearly means
Be designed by an architect
Actually be put into practice
Be drawn on a large board
Be canceled by the council
Correct answer: Actually be put into practice
In context, the phrase "move beyond the drawing board" most nearly means to actually be put into practice. The council members' skepticism about vague funding suggests doubt that the plan would advance from idea to reality, not that it concerns architectural drawing, a literal board, or cancellation.
Two paired passages discuss urban beekeeping. Passage 1 emphasizes that rooftop hives boost pollination and local honey production. Passage 2 warns that an overcrowding of managed honeybees can outcompete native wild pollinators for limited flowers. Which conclusion best synthesizes the information from both passages?
Urban beekeeping should be banned in all cities
Native pollinators are more valuable than honeybees in every situation
Honeybees and native pollinators never compete for the same resources
Urban beekeeping offers real benefits but must be managed to protect native pollinators
Correct answer: Urban beekeeping offers real benefits but must be managed to protect native pollinators
The best synthesis is that urban beekeeping offers real benefits but must be managed to protect native pollinators. Passage 1 highlights pollination and honey gains while Passage 2 raises the risk of crowding out wild bees, so combining them points to balance rather than an outright ban, a blanket ranking of pollinators, or a denial that competition occurs.
An informational passage states: "The bridge has stood for over a century, surviving floods, heavy traffic, and decades of deferred maintenance. Its endurance is less a tribute to luck than to the engineers who overbuilt it for an age of horse-drawn carts." What is the main idea of this passage?
The bridge should be replaced because it is over a hundred years old
Horse-drawn carts were heavier than modern vehicles
Deferred maintenance has had no effect on the bridge
The bridge survives mainly because its original engineers built it far stronger than required
Correct answer: The bridge survives mainly because its original engineers built it far stronger than required
The main idea is that the bridge survives mainly because its engineers built it far stronger than required. The passage credits its endurance to engineers who "overbuilt it," not to luck, so the claims about replacement, cart weight, and maintenance are either unsupported or merely background details.
Solve the quadratic equation x2−5x+6=0. What are the solutions?
X = -2 and x = -3
X = 2 and x = 3
X = 1 and x = 6
X = -1 and x = 6
Correct answer: X = 2 and x = 3
The solutions are x = 2 and x = 3. The trinomial factors as (x−2)(x−3)=0 because -2 and -3 multiply to 6 and add to -5; setting each factor equal to zero gives the two positive roots, while the negative-root options fail the original equation.
What is the value of the expression x2+3x−4 when x=2?
2
8
6
10
Correct answer: 6
The value is 6. Substituting x = 2 gives (2)2+3(2)−4=4+6−4, which simplifies to 6; the other choices result from arithmetic slips such as dropping the -4 or mishandling the squaring.
A function is defined by f(x)=2x2−3x+1. What is f(3)?
16
13
19
10
Correct answer: 10
The value f(3) equals 10. Replacing x with 3 gives 2(9)−3(3)+1=18−9+1=10; the larger answers come from forgetting to subtract 3x or from squaring incorrectly.
Solve the system of equations: y=2x+1 and y=−x+7. What is the solution (x, y)?
(2, 5)
(3, 7)
(1, 3)
(5, 2)
Correct answer: (2, 5)
The solution is (2, 5). Setting the two expressions for y equal gives 2x+1=−x+7, so 3x=6 and x=2; substituting back yields y=2(2)+1=5, and only this pair satisfies both equations.
Which of the following represents the solutions to the quadratic equation x2−9=0?
X = 3 and x = -3
X = 9 and x = -9
X = 3 only
X = 81 and x = -81
Correct answer: X = 3 and x = -3
The solutions are x = 3 and x = -3. This is a difference of squares, factoring as (x−3)(x+3)=0, so x equals positive or negative 3; taking only the positive value or using 9 directly ignores that squaring either 3 or -3 returns 9.
A population of bacteria doubles every hour and starts at 50 cells. Which expression gives the number of cells after t hours?
50+2t
2×50t
50×2t
50×t2
Correct answer: 50×2t
The correct expression is 50×2t. Exponential growth that doubles each period uses the form (initial amount) times (growth factor) raised to the number of periods, so the base 2 carries the exponent t; the other choices model linear, mislabeled, or polynomial growth instead of doubling.
Solve the radical equation: x+4=5. What is the value of x?
1
21
9
29
Correct answer: 21
The value of x is 21. Squaring both sides of x+4=5 gives x+4=25, so x=21; checking confirms 21+4=25=5, while the smaller answers come from forgetting to square the 5.
At a fundraiser, adult tickets cost $8 and child tickets cost $5. If 30 tickets were sold for a total of $204, how many adult tickets were sold?
12
20
10
18
Correct answer: 18
The number of adult tickets sold is 18. Letting a be adults and c be children, a+c=30 and 8a+5c=204; substituting c = 30 - a gives 8a+5(30−a)=204, so 3a=54 and a=18, which leaves 12 child tickets and checks out at $204.
Solve the rational equation: x12=4. What is the value of x?
48
3
8
16
Correct answer: 3
The value of x is 3. Multiplying both sides of x12=4 by x gives 12=4x, so x=3; the choice 48 mistakenly multiplies instead of dividing, and the others do not satisfy the original equation.
The quadratic equation x2+2x−8=0 is solved by factoring. Which factored form is correct, and what are its roots?
(x−4)(x+2)=0; roots x=4 and x=−2
(x+4)(x+2)=0; roots x=−4 and x=−2
(x+4)(x−2)=0; roots x=−4 and x=2
(x−4)(x−2)=0; roots x=4 and x=2
Correct answer: (x+4)(x−2)=0; roots x=−4 and x=2
The correct factored form is (x+4)(x−2)=0 with roots x=−4 and x=2. The constants must multiply to -8 and add to +2, which only 4 and -2 do; the alternative sign arrangements either add to -2 or fail to produce -8.
An investment of $1,000 grows according to the function A=1000(1.05)t, where t is the number of years. What does the 1.05 represent in this model?
A flat $5 added each year
A 105 percent loss each year
The total amount after one year
A 5 percent annual growth factor applied each year
Correct answer: A 5 percent annual growth factor applied each year
The 1.05 represents a 5 percent annual growth factor applied each year. In an exponential model A=P(1+r)t, the base equals 1 plus the rate, so 1.05 means the balance is multiplied by 1.05 (a 5 percent increase) every year, rather than adding a flat amount, representing a loss, or being the final total.
If g(x)=4x−7, for what value of x does g(x)=9?
2
4
16
-4
Correct answer: 4
The value of x is 4. Setting 4x−7=9 gives 4x=16, so x=4; substituting back confirms g(4)=4(4)−7=9, while the other options either skip adding 7 or divide incorrectly.
A rectangular garden has a length that is 3 feet more than its width. If the area is 40 square feet, which equation correctly models the situation, where w is the width?
w+(w+3)=40
w(w+3)=40
w(w−3)=40
2w+2(w+3)=40
Correct answer: w(w+3)=40
The correct model is w(w+3)=40. Area equals length times width, and the length is the width plus 3, so multiplying w by (w+3) and setting it equal to 40 captures the relationship; the addition and perimeter forms describe sums or perimeter, not area.
Solve the system of equations using elimination: 3x+2y=12 and 3x−2y=0. What is the value of x?
4
6
2
3
Correct answer: 2
The value of x is 2. Adding the two equations eliminates y because 2y and −2y cancel, leaving 6x=12, so x=2; the larger answers come from mis-adding the constants or not canceling the y-terms correctly.
Which statement best explains why the equation x2+4=0 has no real-number solutions?
The equation is missing a middle term
No real number squared can equal a negative number such as -4
Quadratic equations always have exactly one solution
The constant 4 cannot be moved to the other side
Correct answer: No real number squared can equal a negative number such as -4
The equation has no real solutions because no real number squared can equal a negative number such as -4. Isolating x2 gives x2=−4, but squaring any real number yields zero or a positive result, so no real value works; the missing middle term and the claim about a single solution are not the reason, and the constant can in fact be moved.
A car's value depreciates so that each year it is worth 80 percent of its value the previous year. If it is worth $20,000 now, which expression gives its value after 3 years?
20000(1.8)3
20000−0.8(3)
20000(0.8)3
20000(0.2)3
Correct answer: 20000(0.8)3
The correct expression is 20000(0.8)3. Losing value to 80 percent of the prior year is exponential decay with a base of 0.80, applied three times, so the initial value is multiplied by 0.8 raised to the third power; a base of 1.8 would model growth, 0.2 would drop 80 percent each year, and the subtraction form is linear.
Two numbers have a sum of 15 and a difference of 3. Using a system of equations, what are the two numbers?
12 and 3
10 and 5
8 and 7
9 and 6
Correct answer: 9 and 6
The two numbers are 9 and 6. Writing x+y=15 and x−y=3, adding the equations gives 2x=18 so x=9, and then y=6; this pair has a sum of 15 and a difference of 3, while the other pairs fail one of the two conditions.
A rectangular storage room measures 14 feet long, 9 feet wide, and 8 feet high. What is the total surface area of all six walls, floor, and ceiling of the room?
620 square feet
504 square feet
868 square feet
1,008 square feet
Correct answer: 620 square feet
The total surface area is 620 square feet. For a rectangular box the surface area is 2(lw+lh+wh)=2(14×9+14×8+9×8)=2(126+112+72)=2(310)=620; the 1,008 figure is the volume, and the other values drop a pair of faces or add the areas only once.
A road sign indicates a distance of 4.5 kilometers to the next town. Knowing that 1 kilometer equals 1,000 meters, how many meters is the distance to the next town?
450 meters
45,000 meters
4,500 meters
4.5 meters
Correct answer: 4,500 meters
The distance is 4,500 meters. Converting from kilometers to meters multiplies by 1,000 because each kilometer contains 1,000 meters, so 4.5×1,000=4,500; dividing instead of multiplying gives 450, and shifting the decimal incorrectly produces 45,000 or 4.5.
A cylindrical water tank has a radius of 3 meters and a height of 10 meters. Using 3.14 for pi, approximately how many cubic meters of water can the tank hold when full?
About 94.2 cubic meters
About 282.6 cubic meters
About 188.4 cubic meters
About 942 cubic meters
Correct answer: About 282.6 cubic meters
The tank holds about 282.6 cubic meters. The volume of a cylinder is pi times the radius squared times the height, so 3.14×32×10=3.14×9×10=282.6; using the radius without squaring gives 94.2, and the other answers misplace a factor of the radius or height.
A point located at (4,2) on the coordinate plane is reflected across the y-axis. What are the coordinates of the reflected point?
(4, -2)
(-4, 2)
(-4, -2)
(2, 4)
Correct answer: (-4, 2)
The reflected point is (-4, 2). Reflecting across the y-axis reverses the sign of the x-coordinate while leaving the y-coordinate unchanged, so (4,2) becomes (−4,2); changing the y-sign would reflect across the x-axis, changing both signs is a rotation, and swapping the coordinates is a different transformation entirely.
A right triangle has an angle of 30 degrees, and the side opposite that angle measures 5 inches. If the hypotenuse is needed and sin(30∘)=0.5, what is the length of the hypotenuse?
2.5 inches
5 inches
15 inches
10 inches
Correct answer: 10 inches
The hypotenuse is 10 inches. The sine of an angle equals the opposite side divided by the hypotenuse, so 0.5=hypotenuse5, which means the hypotenuse =0.55=10; multiplying 5 by 0.5 instead of dividing gives 2.5, and the other choices ignore the sine relationship.
A recipe calls for 2 quarts of broth, but a cook only has a measuring cup marked in cups. Knowing that 1 quart equals 4 cups, how many cups of broth does the recipe require?
6 cups
2 cups
16 cups
8 cups
Correct answer: 8 cups
The recipe requires 8 cups. Because each quart equals 4 cups, converting 2 quarts multiplies 2×4=8 cups; adding instead of multiplying yields 6, using only one quart gives 4, and squaring the conversion produces 16.
Two rectangular gift boxes have the same height, but the second box has a length and width each twice as large as the first box's length and width. Which statement best describes how the area of the top face of the second box compares to that of the first?
The top area is twice as large
The top area is four times as large
The top area is the same
The top area is eight times as large
Correct answer: The top area is four times as large
The top area is four times as large. The area of a rectangular top is length times width, so doubling both dimensions multiplies the area by 2×2=4; the answer is not simply doubled because two dimensions changed, and it is not eight times larger because height does not affect the top face's area.
A standard six-sided die is rolled once. What is the probability of rolling a number greater than 4?
31
61
21
32
Correct answer: 31
The probability is 1/3. The outcomes greater than 4 are 5 and 6, giving 2 favorable results out of 6 equally likely outcomes, and 62 reduces to 31; choosing 1/6 counts only one outcome, while 1/2 and 2/3 overcount the favorable rolls.
The number of hours seven students studied for an exam were 3, 5, 5, 6, 8, 9, and 12. What is the median number of hours studied?
5
8
7
6
Correct answer: 6
The median is 6 hours. With seven values already listed from least to greatest, the median is the fourth value, which is 6; the value 5 is the mode, while 8 and 7 are not the center value of the ordered list.
A bag contains 4 red marbles, 3 blue marbles, and 5 green marbles. If one marble is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is blue?
123 reduced to 41
31
93
125
Correct answer: 123 reduced to 41
The probability of drawing a blue marble is 3/12, which reduces to 1/4. There are 3 blue marbles out of a total of 4+3+5=12 marbles, so the favorable count is 3 over 12; using 9 in the denominator ignores the green marbles, and 5/12 counts green instead of blue.
A teacher recorded these quiz scores: 7, 9, 9, 10, and 15. What is the mean of the scores?
9
11
10
12
Correct answer: 10
The mean is 10. Adding the scores gives 7+9+9+10+15=50, and dividing the sum by the 5 values yields 10; the value 9 is the mode, and the other choices come from dividing by the wrong count or mis-adding the scores.
Two data sets have the same mean. Set A has values clustered tightly around the mean, while Set B has values spread far from the mean. Which statement correctly compares their standard deviations?
Set A has the larger standard deviation
Set B has the larger standard deviation
The standard deviations are equal because the means are equal
Standard deviation cannot be compared without the median
Correct answer: Set B has the larger standard deviation
Set B has the larger standard deviation. Standard deviation measures how far values typically fall from the mean, so the set whose values are spread farther out has the greater standard deviation regardless of having the same mean; equal means do not force equal spread, and the median is not needed to make this comparison.
A weather station records the daily high temperatures for a week as 70, 72, 68, 75, 80, 66, and 71 degrees. What is the range of these temperatures?
10 degrees
14 degrees
12 degrees
80 degrees
Correct answer: 14 degrees
The range is 14 degrees. Range is found by subtracting the smallest value from the largest, so 80−66=14; the value 80 alone is just the maximum, and the other answers come from using the wrong endpoints in the subtraction.
A scatter plot shows that as the number of hours spent exercising per week increases, resting heart rate tends to decrease. Which type of association does this scatter plot display?
A positive association
No association
A negative association
An exponential association
Correct answer: A negative association
The scatter plot displays a negative association. When one variable increases while the other consistently decreases, the relationship is negative, which matches more exercise pairing with a lower resting heart rate; a positive association would show both rising together, and no association would show no clear trend.
A bar graph shows the number of books read by four students: Ana read 12, Ben read 8, Cara read 15, and Dan read 5. According to the graph, how many more books did the student who read the most read than the student who read the fewest?
7 books
3 books
15 books
10 books
Correct answer: 10 books
The difference is 10 books. The graph shows Cara read the most at 15 and Dan read the fewest at 5, so subtracting gives 15−5=10; the value 7 compares the wrong pair, 3 compares Ana and Ben, and 15 is only the highest single bar.
A spinner is divided into 8 equal sections numbered 1 through 8. What is the probability that a single spin lands on an even number?
41
81
83
21
Correct answer: 21
The probability is 1/2. The even numbers from 1 to 8 are 2, 4, 6, and 8, giving 4 favorable outcomes out of 8 equally likely sections, and 84 reduces to 21; the smaller fractions undercount the even results among the eight sections.
A small company reports these annual salaries: $40,000, $42,000, $45,000, $43,000, and $300,000. Why is the median a better measure of a typical salary than the mean for this data set?
The median is always larger than the mean
The mean ignores the highest value entirely
The $300,000 outlier pulls the mean upward, while the median is not distorted by it
The median uses every value, so it is more accurate
Correct answer: The $300,000 outlier pulls the mean upward, while the median is not distorted by it
The median is better here because the $300,000 outlier pulls the mean upward, while the median is not distorted by it. An extreme value greatly raises the average but barely affects the middle value, so the median better reflects a typical salary; the mean does include every value rather than ignoring the high one, and the median is not always larger than the mean.
A student is writing an essay arguing that schools should start later in the day. Which sentence would best serve as the essay's thesis statement?
Many high school students feel tired in the morning.
Sleep is an important topic that scientists study often.
Because adolescents are biologically wired to sleep later, schools should push start times to at least 8:30 a.m. to improve student health and learning.
This essay will talk about why school start times matter to a lot of people.
Correct answer: Because adolescents are biologically wired to sleep later, schools should push start times to at least 8:30 a.m. to improve student health and learning.
Option C is the best thesis because it makes a clear, arguable claim and previews the supporting reasons (biology, health, learning). The others are too general, are mere facts, or simply announce the topic without taking a position.
Consider this paragraph: "Recycling reduces landfill waste. (1) It also conserves raw materials. (2) Many cities now offer curbside pickup. (3) My uncle collects vintage stamps. (4)" Which sentence should be deleted because it is irrelevant to the paragraph's focus?
Sentence 1
Sentence 2
Sentence 3
Sentence 4
Correct answer: Sentence 4
Sentence 4 about an uncle collecting stamps has nothing to do with recycling's benefits and should be deleted. Sentences 1 through 3 all develop the paragraph's focus on recycling.
A writer wants to add a transition at the start of the second paragraph to show that the new idea contrasts with the first paragraph's point. Which transition best signals contrast?
In addition,
For example,
However,
As a result,
Correct answer: However,
However signals contrast. In addition adds information, for example introduces an illustration, and as a result shows cause and effect.
Read the sentence from an essay's introduction: "Today's teenagers spend hours scrolling." The writer wants a stronger opening that introduces the essay's argument about social media's effect on attention. Which revision best accomplishes this?
Teenagers really like their phones a lot these days.
While endless scrolling feels harmless, mounting evidence shows that constant social media use is quietly eroding teenagers' ability to focus.
Social media is something many people use every single day.
Phones have screens that show many different applications.
Correct answer: While endless scrolling feels harmless, mounting evidence shows that constant social media use is quietly eroding teenagers' ability to focus.
Option B introduces a clear argument (social media erodes focus) and engages the reader, which fits the writer's purpose. The others are vague, off-purpose, or merely descriptive.
In a paragraph explaining how to plant a tree, the steps appear in this order: dig the hole, choose a sunny spot, place the tree, fill with soil. Which revision improves the logical organization?
Leave the order unchanged because all steps are present.
Move 'choose a sunny spot' to the beginning, before 'dig the hole.'
Move 'fill with soil' to the beginning.
Delete 'place the tree' since it is obvious.
Correct answer: Move 'choose a sunny spot' to the beginning, before 'dig the hole.'
Choosing the location must come before digging the hole, so moving that step to the beginning fixes the chronological order. The other choices either ignore the sequence error or remove a necessary step.
A concluding paragraph currently reads: "In conclusion, recycling is good." Which revision provides a more effective conclusion that reinforces the essay's argument?
In conclusion, recycling is good and also fun.
To sum up, recycling is a topic.
Ultimately, by recycling consistently, communities can cut waste, conserve resources, and protect the environment for future generations.
In conclusion, I have written about recycling in this essay.
Correct answer: Ultimately, by recycling consistently, communities can cut waste, conserve resources, and protect the environment for future generations.
Option C synthesizes the essay's main points and ends with a meaningful takeaway. The others are vague, merely restate the topic, or comment on the essay itself rather than reinforcing the argument.
Read these two sentences from a draft: "The museum opened in 1920. The museum has welcomed millions of visitors since then." Which revision combines them most effectively without changing the meaning?
The museum opened in 1920, it has welcomed millions of visitors since then.
Opened in 1920, the museum has welcomed millions of visitors since then.
The museum opened in 1920 and the museum has welcomed millions of visitors.
The museum, opening in 1920, millions of visitors have come since then.
Correct answer: Opened in 1920, the museum has welcomed millions of visitors since then.
Option B combines the ideas concisely using an introductory participial phrase while preserving meaning. Option A is a comma splice, option C is wordy and repetitive, and option D is grammatically garbled.
A writer's body paragraph makes a claim but offers no support. Which sentence would best develop the claim "Exercise improves mental health"?
Exercise is something everyone should think about.
A 2019 study found that adults who exercised three times a week reported a 26 percent drop in symptoms of depression.
Many gyms are open late for people who work.
Mental health is a very important issue today.
Correct answer: A 2019 study found that adults who exercised three times a week reported a 26 percent drop in symptoms of depression.
Option B develops the claim with specific evidence (a study and statistic). The others are vague, tangential, or restate the topic without supporting the claim.
Which sentence contains an unnecessary shift in verb tense that an editor should correct?
The chef chopped the onions and then sauteed them in oil.
She studied for hours and finally passed the exam.
He walks into the room and immediately sat down at the desk.
They will travel to Austin and visit the capitol.
Correct answer: He walks into the room and immediately sat down at the desk.
The third sentence shifts from present tense (walks) to past tense (sat) without reason, which an editor should fix. The other sentences keep tense consistent.
An essay's paragraph jumps abruptly from describing a problem to proposing a solution with no connecting sentence. What revision would most improve the paragraph's coherence?
Delete the description of the problem.
Add a transitional sentence such as 'To address this issue, the city could take several steps.'
Move the solution to a different essay.
Repeat the problem statement twice.
Correct answer: Add a transitional sentence such as 'To address this issue, the city could take several steps.'
Adding a transitional sentence bridges the problem and the solution, improving coherence. Deleting content, relocating it, or repeating the problem does not connect the two ideas.
Read the sentence: "The new policy was implemented in order to provide a reduction in the amount of paperwork that employees are required to complete." Which revision is the most concise without losing meaning?
The new policy was put into place so as to reduce the paperwork employees do.
The new policy reduced employees' paperwork.
The new policy, which was implemented, reduced paperwork for the employees who work there.
In order to provide a reduction, the new policy was implemented for paperwork.
Correct answer: The new policy reduced employees' paperwork.
Option B conveys the full meaning in the fewest words. The other versions retain wordy, redundant phrasing such as 'in order to provide a reduction.'
A writer wants the reader to understand the rhetorical purpose of a paragraph that lists statistics about plastic pollution. The paragraph most likely serves to
Entertain the reader with a humorous anecdote
Establish the scope of the problem with concrete evidence
Summarize the essay's counterarguments
Provide a personal narrative about the writer's childhood
Correct answer: Establish the scope of the problem with concrete evidence
Listing statistics about pollution functions to establish the problem's scope with concrete evidence. It is not humorous, it does not summarize counterarguments, and it is not a personal narrative.
Read the draft sentence: "Although the experiment failed but the team learned valuable lessons." How should an editor revise it?
Although the experiment failed, but the team learned valuable lessons.
Although the experiment failed, the team learned valuable lessons.
Although the experiment failed; the team learned valuable lessons.
The experiment failed although but the team learned lessons.
Correct answer: Although the experiment failed, the team learned valuable lessons.
Although and but both signal contrast, so using them together is redundant. Removing but and keeping the introductory clause with a comma produces a correct sentence.
An essay's paragraphs are ordered: childhood, adulthood, teenage years. To present the subject's life in chronological order, the writer should
Leave the order as is
Place the teenage years paragraph between childhood and adulthood
Delete the adulthood paragraph
Place adulthood first
Correct answer: Place the teenage years paragraph between childhood and adulthood
Chronological order requires childhood, then teenage years, then adulthood, so the teenage years paragraph should be moved between the other two. The other options ignore the time sequence.
Which revision best improves the flow between these sentences: "The hurricane caused widespread damage. Thousands of homes were destroyed."
The hurricane caused widespread damage; for instance, thousands of homes were destroyed.
The hurricane caused widespread damage, thousands of homes were destroyed.
The hurricane caused widespread damage but thousands of homes were destroyed.
The hurricane caused widespread damage thousands of homes were destroyed.
Correct answer: The hurricane caused widespread damage; for instance, thousands of homes were destroyed.
Joining the sentences with 'for instance' shows that the destroyed homes are an example of the damage. Option B is a comma splice, option C misuses a contrast word, and option D is a run-on.
A writer is revising for audience. The essay, intended for elementary school students, contains the sentence: "The photosynthetic process necessitates chlorophyll." Which revision best fits the audience?
Photosynthesis necessitates the presence of chlorophyll molecules.
Plants need a green substance called chlorophyll to make food from sunlight.
The photosynthetic mechanism requires chlorophyllous pigmentation.
Chlorophyll is necessitated by the process of photosynthesis.
Correct answer: Plants need a green substance called chlorophyll to make food from sunlight.
For young students, plain wording and a brief explanation work best, so option B is the strongest revision. The other choices use technical or wordy language unsuitable for the audience.
Read the sentence that a writer wants to make more precise: "The food at the restaurant was good." Which revision adds the most precise, vivid detail?
The food at the restaurant was really good.
The food at the restaurant tasted nice and was good.
The restaurant's smoky barbecue brisket was tender enough to fall apart at the touch of a fork.
The food at the restaurant was very, very good indeed.
Correct answer: The restaurant's smoky barbecue brisket was tender enough to fall apart at the touch of a fork.
Option C replaces the vague word 'good' with specific, vivid detail. The other revisions merely add intensifiers or repeat the vague description.
A paragraph contains five sentences, but sentence 3 repeats the same idea already stated in sentence 1. What is the best editorial action?
Add a sixth sentence to balance the paragraph.
Delete the redundant sentence 3.
Move sentence 1 to the end.
Combine sentences 4 and 5.
Correct answer: Delete the redundant sentence 3.
Deleting the redundant sentence removes repetition and tightens the paragraph. The other options do not address the redundancy.
Which sentence would most effectively serve as a topic sentence for a paragraph that goes on to describe the benefits of reading: longer attention span, larger vocabulary, and greater empathy?
Reading is a hobby that some people enjoy.
Regular reading offers wide-ranging benefits, from sharper focus to a richer vocabulary and deeper empathy.
Books come in many genres and lengths.
Some people read on tablets instead of paper books.
Correct answer: Regular reading offers wide-ranging benefits, from sharper focus to a richer vocabulary and deeper empathy.
Option B previews the paragraph's three benefits and states a clear main idea. The other sentences do not introduce the benefits that follow.
Read the sentence: "After reviewing the data, it was decided that the project should continue." An editor wants to eliminate the dangling modifier and passive construction. Which revision is best?
After reviewing the data, the decision was made to continue the project.
It was decided to continue the project after reviewing the data.
After reviewing the data, the committee decided to continue the project.
The project should continue after the data was reviewed by someone.
Correct answer: After reviewing the data, the committee decided to continue the project.
The committee is the logical agent who reviewed the data, so naming it fixes the dangling modifier and removes the passive voice. The other options keep the modifier dangling or remain passive.
An essay about climate change includes a paragraph on the writer's favorite vacation spot. To improve unity, the writer should
Expand the vacation paragraph with more detail
Delete or substantially revise the off-topic paragraph so it connects to climate change
Move the vacation paragraph to the introduction
Add a vacation paragraph to each section
Correct answer: Delete or substantially revise the off-topic paragraph so it connects to climate change
Unity requires every paragraph to support the essay's main topic, so the off-topic paragraph should be deleted or revised to relate to climate change. The other options keep or multiply the irrelevant content.
Which transition word best completes this sentence to show a cause-and-effect relationship: "The bridge had not been inspected in years; ____, engineers were not surprised when cracks appeared."
Nevertheless
Consequently
Meanwhile
Similarly
Correct answer: Consequently
Consequently signals that the cracks resulted from the lack of inspection, the cause-and-effect link the sentence needs. The other options signal contrast, simultaneity, or comparison.
Choose the word that correctly completes the sentence: "Each of the students ____ responsible for bringing a calculator to the exam."
Are
Is
Were
Have been
Correct answer: Is
The subject 'Each' is singular, so it takes the singular verb 'is.' The other options are plural verbs that do not agree with the singular subject.
Which version of the sentence is punctuated correctly?
My sister who lives in Dallas is a nurse.
My sister, who lives in Dallas, is a nurse.
My sister who lives in Dallas, is a nurse.
My sister, who lives in Dallas is a nurse.
Correct answer: My sister, who lives in Dallas, is a nurse.
The nonessential clause 'who lives in Dallas' must be set off by a pair of commas, as in option B. The other versions omit one or both required commas.
Choose the option that corrects the misplaced modifier: "Running down the street, the backpack fell off the boy."
Running down the street, the backpack fell off the boy.
The backpack fell off the boy running down the street.
Running down the street, the boy's backpack fell off.
While running down the street, the boy's backpack fell off.
Correct answer: The backpack fell off the boy running down the street.
The modifier 'running down the street' should describe the boy, not the backpack. Option B places the phrase next to 'the boy' so it modifies him correctly. The others leave the modifier attached to the backpack.
Which sentence uses the correct pronoun?
The teacher gave the awards to Jamal and I.
The teacher gave the awards to Jamal and me.
The teacher gave the awards to Jamal and myself.
The teacher gave the awards to I and Jamal.
Correct answer: The teacher gave the awards to Jamal and me.
After the preposition 'to,' the object pronoun 'me' is correct, as in option B. 'I' is a subject pronoun, 'myself' is a reflexive that needs an antecedent, and option D also misuses 'I.'
Select the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement.
The committee of doctors meet every Friday.
The list of supplies were on the desk.
Neither the manager nor the employees was informed.
The box of old photographs is in the attic.
Correct answer: The box of old photographs is in the attic.
In option D the singular subject 'box' takes the singular verb 'is'; the prepositional phrase 'of old photographs' does not change the subject. The other sentences pair plural verbs or wrong forms with singular subjects.
Choose the correctly punctuated sentence.
We packed sandwiches, fruit, and water for the trip.
We packed sandwiches fruit, and water for the trip.
We packed sandwiches, fruit and, water for the trip.
We packed, sandwiches, fruit, and water for the trip.
Correct answer: We packed sandwiches, fruit, and water for the trip.
Items in a series are separated by commas, and option A places them correctly. The other versions misplace or omit commas in the list.
Which choice best completes the sentence with correct parallel structure: "On weekends she enjoys hiking, swimming, and ____."
To ride her bike
She rides her bike
Biking
Bike rides
Correct answer: Biking
Parallel structure requires the third item to match the gerund form of the others (hiking, swimming), so 'biking' is correct. The other options break the pattern.
Identify the sentence that is free of run-on errors.
The rain stopped the game continued.
The rain stopped, the game continued.
The rain stopped, so the game continued.
The rain stopped the game, continued.
Correct answer: The rain stopped, so the game continued.
Option C correctly joins two independent clauses with a comma and the coordinating conjunction 'so.' Option A is a fused sentence, option B is a comma splice, and option D changes the meaning and is still faulty.
Choose the correct verb form: "By the time we arrived, the movie ____ already started."
Has
Had
Have
Having
Correct answer: Had
The past perfect 'had started' shows that the movie began before the past moment of arriving, so 'had' is correct. The other forms do not fit the sequence of past events.
Which sentence correctly uses an apostrophe?
The dogs bowl was empty.
The dog's bowl was empty.
The dogs' bowl was empty for the single dog.
The dogs bowl's was empty.
Correct answer: The dog's bowl was empty.
For a single dog, the possessive is 'dog's,' as in option B. Option A omits the apostrophe, option C uses the plural possessive for one dog, and option D misplaces the apostrophe.
Which revision corrects the faulty comparison: "The traffic in Houston is worse than Austin."
The traffic in Houston is worse than Austin.
The traffic in Houston is worse than the traffic in Austin.
The traffic in Houston is more worse than Austin.
The traffic in Houston is worst than Austin's.
Correct answer: The traffic in Houston is worse than the traffic in Austin.
The original illogically compares traffic to a city. Option B compares traffic to traffic. Option C uses a double comparative, and option D uses the superlative incorrectly.
Choose the sentence with correct capitalization.
We visited the grand canyon last Summer.
We visited the Grand Canyon last summer.
We visited the Grand canyon last Summer.
We visited the Grand Canyon last summer
Correct answer: We visited the Grand Canyon last summer.
Proper nouns like 'Grand Canyon' are capitalized, while seasons and mid-sentence common words are not, making option B correct. The others miscapitalize or fail to capitalize the proper noun or sentence start.
Which option correctly completes the sentence: "If I ____ more time, I would learn another language."
Have
Had
Will have
Having
Correct answer: Had
The hypothetical conditional uses the past subjunctive 'had' in the if-clause paired with 'would,' so 'had' is correct. The other forms do not fit the contrary-to-fact condition.
Identify the sentence with a correctly used semicolon.
I have a big test tomorrow; I can't go out tonight.
I have a big test tomorrow; because I can't go out tonight.
I have a big test; tomorrow I can't go out tonight.
I have a big test tomorrow; and I can't go out tonight.
Correct answer: I have a big test tomorrow; I can't go out tonight.
A semicolon joins two related independent clauses, as in option A. Option B follows the semicolon with a dependent clause, and options C and D create faulty constructions.
Choose the correct word: "The principal asked the students to remain quiet during the ____ assembly."
Hole
Whole
Holy
Wholly
Correct answer: Whole
'Whole' means entire and correctly describes the assembly. 'Hole' is an opening, 'holy' means sacred, and 'wholly' is an adverb meaning completely.
Which sentence corrects the dangling modifier: "To pass the test, the material must be studied carefully."
To pass the test, the material must be studied carefully.
To pass the test, you must study the material carefully.
To pass the test, careful study of the material is needed.
The material, to pass the test, must be studied carefully.
Correct answer: To pass the test, you must study the material carefully.
The phrase 'to pass the test' needs a person to perform the action; option B supplies 'you' as the logical subject. The other versions leave the modifier dangling.
Select the sentence with correct usage of 'fewer' and 'less.'
There were less people at the concert this year.
We had fewer rain this spring than last spring.
This express lane is for shoppers with fewer than ten items.
She has less books than her brother.
Correct answer: This express lane is for shoppers with fewer than ten items.
'Fewer' is used with countable nouns like items, so option C is correct. 'People' and 'books' are countable and need 'fewer,' while 'rain' is uncountable and needs 'less.'
Choose the option that completes the sentence with correct verb agreement: "There ____ several reasons for the team's success."
Is
Was
Are
Has been
Correct answer: Are
The plural subject 'reasons' requires the plural verb 'are.' The singular verbs 'is,' 'was,' and 'has been' do not agree with the plural subject.
Which sentence correctly uses a colon?
The recipe needs three ingredients: flour, sugar, and eggs.
The recipe needs: flour, sugar, and eggs.
The recipe needs three ingredients; flour, sugar, and eggs.
The recipe: needs three ingredients, flour, sugar, and eggs.
Correct answer: The recipe needs three ingredients: flour, sugar, and eggs.
A colon follows a complete independent clause to introduce a list, as in option A. Option B places a colon after a verb, option C misuses a semicolon, and option D interrupts the clause.
Choose the best word to complete the sentence: "The committee will ____ the proposal before voting."
Affect
Effect
Review
Reviews
Correct answer: Review
'Review' is the correct base verb after 'will' and fits the meaning of examining the proposal. 'Affect' and 'effect' do not fit the meaning, and 'reviews' is the wrong form after 'will.'
Which sentence correctly maintains pronoun-antecedent agreement?
Every player must bring their own water bottle.
Each of the girls turned in her assignment on time.
Neither of the boys finished their lunch.
Somebody left their coat in the classroom.
Correct answer: Each of the girls turned in her assignment on time.
In option B the singular antecedent 'Each' agrees with the singular pronoun 'her.' The other sentences pair singular antecedents (Every player, Neither, Somebody) with the plural pronoun 'their' in formal usage.
A recipe that serves 4 people requires 3 cups of flour. How many cups of flour are needed to serve 10 people, keeping the same ratio?
6 cups
7 cups
7.5 cups
8.5 cups
Correct answer: 7.5 cups
Set up the proportion 43=10x. Cross-multiplying gives 4x=30, so x=7.5 cups.
A jacket originally priced at $80 is on sale for 25 percent off. What is the sale price?
$55
$60
$65
$75
Correct answer: $60
A 25 percent discount on $80 is 0.25×80=20. Subtracting, 80−20=60, so the sale price is $60.
A car travels 150 miles in 3 hours at a constant speed. At this rate, how far will it travel in 5 hours?
200 miles
225 miles
250 miles
300 miles
Correct answer: 250 miles
The speed is 150÷3=50 miles per hour. In 5 hours the car travels 50×5=250 miles.
In a class of 30 students, 18 are girls. What percent of the class is girls?
55 percent
60 percent
62 percent
65 percent
Correct answer: 60 percent
The fraction of girls is 3018=0.6, which equals 60 percent.
A map uses a scale of 1 inch = 25 miles. Two towns are 4.5 inches apart on the map. What is the actual distance between the towns?
100 miles
112.5 miles
125 miles
150 miles
Correct answer: 112.5 miles
Multiply the map distance by the scale: 4.5×25=112.5 miles.
A water tank is filled at a constant rate. After 6 minutes it holds 90 gallons. Assuming it started empty, how many gallons will it hold after 10 minutes?
120 gallons
135 gallons
150 gallons
160 gallons
Correct answer: 150 gallons
The rate is 90÷6=15 gallons per minute. After 10 minutes the tank holds 15×10=150 gallons.
A shirt costs $24 after a 20 percent discount was applied. What was the original price?
$28.80
$30
$32
$36
Correct answer: $30
The sale price is 80 percent of the original, so 0.80×p=24. Dividing, p=24÷0.80=30, so the original price was $30.
The ratio of cats to dogs at a shelter is 3 to 5. If there are 24 cats, how many dogs are there?
30 dogs
32 dogs
40 dogs
45 dogs
Correct answer: 40 dogs
Set up 53=d24. Cross-multiplying gives 3d=120, so d=40 dogs.
A phone plan charges a $15 monthly fee plus $0.10 per minute of calls. What is the total cost in a month with 200 minutes of calls?
$25
$30
$35
$50
Correct answer: $35
The call charge is 0.10×200=20 dollars. Adding the fee, 15+20=35, so the total is $35.
A bag contains 5 red marbles, 3 blue marbles, and 2 green marbles. If one marble is drawn at random, what is the probability it is blue?
51
103
31
21
Correct answer: 103
There are 5+3+2=10 marbles total and 3 are blue, so the probability is 103.
A worker earns $18 per hour and time-and-a-half (1.5 times the rate) for hours beyond 40 in a week. What is the pay for a 46-hour week?
$828
$882
$900
$972
Correct answer: $882
Regular pay is 40×18=720. Overtime is 6×(18×1.5)=6×27=162. The total is 720+162=882, so $882.
A survey of 250 people found that 40 percent prefer tea over coffee. How many people prefer tea?
80 people
90 people
100 people
110 people
Correct answer: 100 people
Compute 0.40×250=100, so 100 people prefer tea.
If 3 pounds of apples cost $4.50, what is the cost of 7 pounds at the same unit price?
$9.50
$10.50
$11.00
$12.50
Correct answer: $10.50
The unit price is 4.50÷3=1.50 dollars per pound. For 7 pounds, 7×1.50=10.50, so $10.50.
A population of bacteria doubles every hour. If it starts at 200, how many bacteria are present after 3 hours?
600
800
1200
1600
Correct answer: 1600
Doubling three times multiplies by 23=8. Thus 200×8=1600 bacteria after 3 hours.
A store increases the price of a $50 item by 10 percent, then later decreases the new price by 10 percent. What is the final price?
$49.50
$50.00
$50.50
$45.00
Correct answer: $49.50
After the increase the price is 50×1.10=55. After the decrease it is 55×0.90=49.50, so the final price is $49.50.
Three friends share a restaurant bill of $72 equally and add a 15 percent tip on the total bill. How much does each friend pay?
$24.00
$26.40
$27.60
$28.80
Correct answer: $27.60
The tip is 0.15×72=10.80, so the total is 72+10.80=82.80. Dividing by 3 gives 82.80÷3=27.60, so each pays $27.60.
A line passes through the points (0,2) and (4,10). What is its slope?
21
1
2
3
Correct answer: 2
The slope is 4−010−2=48=2.
A spinner is divided into 8 equal sections numbered 1 through 8. What is the probability of landing on a number greater than 5?
41
83
21
85
Correct answer: 83
The numbers greater than 5 are 6, 7, and 8, which is 3 of 8 sections, so the probability is 83.
A printer prints 24 pages in 3 minutes at a constant rate. How long will it take to print 200 pages?
20 minutes
24 minutes
25 minutes
30 minutes
Correct answer: 25 minutes
The rate is 24÷3=8 pages per minute. Time for 200 pages is 200÷8=25 minutes.
A table shows that a gym had 120 members in January and 150 members in March. What was the percent increase in membership over that period?
20 percent
25 percent
30 percent
33 percent
Correct answer: 25 percent
The increase is 150−120=30 members. As a percent of the original, 12030=0.25, or 25 percent.
A recipe calls for 2 parts juice to 3 parts soda to make punch. To make 20 cups of punch, how many cups of juice are needed?
6 cups
8 cups
10 cups
12 cups
Correct answer: 8 cups
The total parts are 2+3=5, so each part is 20÷5=4 cups. Juice is 2 parts, so 2×4=8 cups.
A driver uses 12 gallons of gas to travel 348 miles. What is the car's fuel efficiency in miles per gallon?
27 miles per gallon
29 miles per gallon
31 miles per gallon
33 miles per gallon
Correct answer: 29 miles per gallon
Divide miles by gallons: 348÷12=29 miles per gallon.
A rectangle has a length of 12 cm and a width of 5 cm. What is its perimeter?
17 cm
34 cm
60 cm
68 cm
Correct answer: 34 cm
The perimeter is 2(l+w)=2(12+5)=2×17=34 cm.
A right triangle has legs of length 6 and 8. What is the length of the hypotenuse?
10
12
14
48
Correct answer: 10
By the Pythagorean theorem, c=62+82=36+64=100=10.
A circle has a radius of 7. Using π≈3.14, what is its area, rounded to the nearest whole number?
44
144
154
308
Correct answer: 154
The area is πr2=3.14×72=3.14×49=153.86, which rounds to 154.
A rectangular box has dimensions 4 cm by 5 cm by 3 cm. What is its volume?
12 cubic cm
47 cubic cm
60 cubic cm
94 cubic cm
Correct answer: 60 cubic cm
The volume is l×w×h=4×5×3=60 cubic cm.
Two angles are complementary. If one angle measures 35 degrees, what is the measure of the other angle?
45 degrees
55 degrees
65 degrees
145 degrees
Correct answer: 55 degrees
Complementary angles sum to 90 degrees, so the other angle is 90−35=55 degrees.
A triangle has angles measuring 50 degrees and 60 degrees. What is the measure of the third angle?
60 degrees
70 degrees
80 degrees
110 degrees
Correct answer: 70 degrees
The angles of a triangle sum to 180 degrees, so the third angle is 180−50−60=70 degrees.
Two similar triangles have corresponding sides in the ratio 2 to 3. If a side of the smaller triangle is 8, what is the corresponding side of the larger triangle?
10
12
16
24
Correct answer: 12
Set up 32=x8. Cross-multiplying gives 2x=24, so x=12.
What is the distance between the points (1,2) and (4,6) in the coordinate plane?
5
6
7
25
Correct answer: 5
The distance is (4−1)2+(6−2)2=9+16=25=5.
A square has an area of 81 square inches. What is the length of one side?
8 inches
9 inches
18 inches
40.5 inches
Correct answer: 9 inches
The side length is 81=9 inches.
A triangle has a base of 10 cm and a height of 6 cm. What is its area?
16 square cm
30 square cm
60 square cm
32 square cm
Correct answer: 30 square cm
The area of a triangle is 21×b×h=21×10×6=30 square cm.
Two angles are supplementary. If one angle measures 110 degrees, what is the measure of the other angle?
20 degrees
70 degrees
80 degrees
90 degrees
Correct answer: 70 degrees
Supplementary angles sum to 180 degrees, so the other angle is 180−110=70 degrees.
A cylinder has a radius of 3 and a height of 10. Using π≈3.14, what is its volume, rounded to the nearest whole number?
94
188
283
565
Correct answer: 283
The volume is πr2h=3.14×32×10=3.14×9×10=282.6, which rounds to 283.
A circle has a diameter of 10. Using π≈3.14, what is its circumference?
15.7
31.4
62.8
78.5
Correct answer: 31.4
The circumference is πd=3.14×10=31.4.
The midpoint of a line segment has coordinates (3,4). If one endpoint is (1,2), what are the coordinates of the other endpoint?
(2,3)
(4,6)
(5,6)
(6,8)
Correct answer: (5,6)
The midpoint formula gives 21+x=3 so x=5, and 22+y=4 so y=6. The other endpoint is (5,6).
A right triangle has a hypotenuse of 13 and one leg of 5. What is the length of the other leg?
8
10
12
18
Correct answer: 12
By the Pythagorean theorem, the other leg is 132−52=169−25=144=12.
To find us again, just search “Career Employer TSI”
Read the following lines from a short story: "When her sister announced the engagement, Priya smiled and raised her glass with everyone else, but later that night she scrubbed the same clean pot at the sink for nearly an hour." What can the reader most reasonably infer about Priya?
Pick an answer to see the explanation
Click Start Test above to launch a full-length TSI practice test weighted across both TSIA2 sections, or drill a single content area — literary and informational reading, essay and sentence revision, or any of the four math areas. Every question includes a clear explanation so you learn the reasoning, not just the answer.
The TSI (Texas Success Initiative) is the Texas program that determines whether incoming college students are ready for college-level coursework, and the TSIA2 is the assessment that measures that readiness.
It is administered under the Texas Higher Education Coordinating Board (THECB) and delivered by the College Board.[1] The TSIA2 measures readiness across two sections: English Language Arts and Reading (ELAR) and Mathematics.
These practice questions follow the published TSIA2 content specifications, mirroring the content of the real assessment so you can build readiness across every area.[2] To prepare further, pair these with our free study guide, flashcards, and cheat sheet.
Fees, cut scores, and placement policies are set locally and can change — always verify the current details with your college’s testing center before you test.
TSI at a Glance
TSIA2 at a glance
Detail
TSIA2
Sections
Two: English Language Arts and Reading (ELAR) and Mathematics
Question type
Multiple-choice (computer-adaptive) plus an ELAR essay (WritePlacer)
Time limit
Untimed — work at your own pace
Result
Placement, not pass/fail: college-ready vs. developmental / co-requisite
College-ready cut
ELAR 945+ with essay 5+; Mathematics 950+ (or diagnostic level)
Administered by
Texas Higher Education Coordinating Board (THECB), delivered by the College Board
Eligibility
Most students entering Texas public colleges, unless exempt
Cost
Set by each college/testing center (often free to ~$10-40)
Retakes
Allowed; waiting periods and fees vary by college
What Is on the TSIA2?
The TSIA2 has two sections — ELAR and Mathematics — and each begins with a multiple-choice College-Readiness Classification (CRC) test. ELAR also includes the WritePlacer essay, and students who do not meet the CRC cut take a diagnostic that pinpoints specific skill gaps.[2]
Our practice pool covers eight TSIA2 content areas, split evenly between ELAR and Mathematics. Our full practice test mirrors these proportions:
TSIA2 content coverage (ELAR and Mathematics)
ELAR: Literary Text Analysis13% · Reading
ELAR: Informational Text & Synthesis13% · Reading
ELAR: Essay Revision & Editing13% · Writing
ELAR: Sentence Revision & Completion13% · Writing
Math: Quantitative Reasoning13% · Math
Math: Algebraic Reasoning13% · Math
Math: Geometric & Spatial Reasoning11% · Math
Math: Probabilistic & Statistical Reasoning11% · Math
Practice Questions by Content Area
Use Start Test for a full weighted TSIA2 simulation, or open the hub and pick a single content area to drill your weak spot. After each full exam, your results show a per-area breakdown so you know exactly where to focus — whether that’s reading inference, sentence editing, or algebraic reasoning.
Who Has to Take the TSI?
Most students entering a Texas public college or university must take the TSIA2 to show they are ready for college-level reading, writing, and math — unless they qualify for an exemption.[5]
Common exemptions include qualifying SAT, ACT, or STAAR end-of-course scores, prior satisfactory college-level coursework, an associate or higher degree, and certain military service.
Because exemption rules and local requirements vary, confirm with your college whether you need to test and which sections apply to your intended program. Additional details are provided in the official THECB TSI resources.
How Do You Register for the TSIA2?
You register for the TSIA2 through your college or its testing center rather than through a national portal, and the institution sets the fee and scheduling.[5]
Before testing, Texas requires you to complete a Pre-Assessment Activity (PAA) that explains the test, score meanings, and the importance of college readiness. Many colleges will not let you test until you finish the PAA.
After scheduling, you take the assessment at the testing center (or via approved remote proctoring where offered). Verify the current fee, the PAA requirement, and any ID rules with your college before your appointment.
Because the TSIA2 is administered locally, costs and retake rules differ from one campus to the next, so the testing center is always your authoritative source.
How Is the TSIA2 Scored?
The TSIA2 is a placement assessment, not pass/fail — each section classifies you as college-ready or in need of developmental or co-requisite support.[4]
For ELAR, college readiness means a College-Readiness Classification (CRC) score of 945 or higher with an essay score of 5 or higher, or a diagnostic level of 5-6 plus an essay of 5+ if your CRC is below 945.
For Mathematics, college readiness means a CRC score of 950 or higher, or a diagnostic level of 6 if your CRC is below 950. Scores are reported quickly, and your college uses them to place you into the right courses.
Because individual colleges may apply local placement rules and corequisite options, always confirm how your scores will be used with your institution.
How Hard Is the TSIA2?
The TSIA2 is challenging mainly for its breadth — it spans literary and informational reading, writing and editing, an essay, and four distinct math areas — rather than any single hard section.[3] Because it is untimed, the real test is sustained focus and careful reading.
The reading items reward close inference and the ability to analyze tone, purpose, and structure, while the writing items test how cleanly you can revise sentences and develop ideas across an essay.
The Mathematics section rewards fluency with quantitative reasoning, algebra, geometry, and statistics — many students find the algebraic and statistical reasoning items the biggest score-movers.
2
Sections
ELAR + Mathematics
945 / 950
College-ready CRC
ELAR / Math
1-8
Essay (WritePlacer)
5+ for ELAR readiness
The takeaway: drill until you’re consistently meeting the college-readiness cut on full-length, content-weighted practice — especially the math areas and the essay — before you sit for the real assessment.
What to Expect on Test Day
Arrive at your testing center on time with a valid, unexpired government-issued photo ID and confirmation that you completed the required Pre-Assessment Activity.[5] You’ll store phones and personal items as the center directs; no outside notes are allowed.
You work through the multiple-choice ELAR and Mathematics sections at your own pace, since the TSIA2 is untimed, and complete the WritePlacer essay as part of ELAR.
Scores are typically available quickly, and your college uses them to place you into the right courses. Having simulated the full set of content areas with practice tests makes the real sitting feel routine.
How to Use This TSI Practice Test
Cover all eight areas. Practice reading, writing, and all four math areas.[3]
Diagnose, then drill. Use a full TSIA2 simulation to find weak areas, then drill them.
Practice the essay. Write timed-feel essays so the WritePlacer feels familiar.
Learn the why. Read every explanation — understanding beats memorizing.
Answer everything. There’s no guessing penalty, so never leave a question blank.
Why the TSI Matters
Your TSIA2 results decide whether you start directly in credit-bearing college courses or in developmental or co-requisite coursework — which affects your time, tuition, and momentum toward a degree.[1] Meeting the college-readiness cut on both ELAR and Mathematics lets you enroll in entry-level courses right away, so strong preparation across every content area pays off immediately. These free TSI practice tests are the most efficient way to get there.
Conclusion
Doing well on the TSIA2 comes down to broad readiness across reading, writing, and math — plus a confident essay — rather than cramming one topic. Use this free TSI practice test to find your weak areas, drill them to mastery, and pair it with our free study guide, flashcards, and cheat sheet to place into college-level courses with confidence.
TSI Practice Test FAQ
The TSI (Texas Success Initiative) is a Texas program that determines whether students entering public colleges and universities are ready for college-level coursework. Most incoming students take the TSIA2 (the assessment) unless they qualify for an exemption — for example, through high enough SAT, ACT, or STAAR end-of-course scores, prior college work, or military service. It is a placement program, not an admissions test.
The TSIA2 is the Texas Success Initiative Assessment 2.0, administered under the Texas Higher Education Coordinating Board (THECB) and delivered by the College Board. It has two sections: English Language Arts and Reading (ELAR) and Mathematics. Each section begins with a multiple-choice College-Readiness Classification (CRC) test, and ELAR also includes an essay (the WritePlacer), scored from 1 to 8.
No — the TSIA2 is not pass/fail. It is a placement assessment that classifies you as either college-ready or in need of developmental education or co-requisite support for that subject. Meeting the college-readiness cut means you can enroll directly in entry-level college courses; not meeting it means you are placed into developmental or co-requisite coursework to build the needed skills.
For ELAR, you are college-ready with a CRC score of 945 or higher together with an essay score of 5 or higher (or, if your CRC is below 945, a diagnostic level of 5 or 6 plus an essay of 5 or higher). For Mathematics, you are college-ready with a CRC score of 950 or higher (or, if below 950, a diagnostic level of 6). Always confirm current cut scores and any local placement rules with your college.
The ELAR section includes the WritePlacer essay, which is scored on a scale of 1 to 8 by an automated scoring engine. For college readiness in ELAR you generally need an essay score of at least 5, combined with a qualifying CRC or diagnostic result. The essay asks you to take a position on a given topic and develop it with clear reasoning and supporting detail.
The TSIA2 is untimed, so you can work at your own pace, but most students finish each section in a few hours. Because there is no time limit, the practical challenge is staying focused and reading carefully rather than racing the clock. Plan for a single sitting with the option of a break depending on your testing center's rules.
There is no single statewide fee — each college or testing center sets its own price, so the TSIA2 is often free or runs roughly $10 to $40 depending on the institution. Retake policies also vary by college: some allow you to retest after a waiting period or after completing a review module, sometimes for an additional fee. Check your college's testing center for its exact fee and retake rules.
Because the TSIA2 places you across reading, writing, and math, the most effective preparation is repeated practice across all eight content areas, paired with timed-feel essay practice for the ELAR WritePlacer. Take full, content-weighted practice tests, read every explanation to learn the reasoning, and reinforce weak areas with a study guide, flashcards, and a cheat sheet before you test.
Career Employer is the ultimate resource to help you get started working the job of your dreams. We cover topics from general career information, career searching, exam preparation with free study materials, career interviewing, and becoming successful in your career of choice.
Here at Career Employer, we focus a lot on providing factually accurate information that is always up to date. We strive to provide correct information using strict editorial processes, article editing, and fact-checking for all of the information found on our website. We only utilize trustworthy and relevant resources. To find out more, make sure to read our full editorial process page here.