1.
PTCB: Medications
Which of the following medications is a non-selective Beta-Adrenergic Antagonist used primarily for the management of hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias?
1 out of 100
2.
PTCB: Medications
Which antiepileptic drug requires genetic testing prior to initiation due to a risk of severe skin reactions in patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele?
2 out of 100
3.
PTCB: Medications
A patient with atrial fibrillation is most likely to be prescribed which medication to prevent stroke?
3 out of 100
4.
PTCB: Medications
Which medication is considered a first-line treatment for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
4 out of 100
5.
PTCB: Medications
What is the mechanism of action of Allopurinol in the treatment of gout?
5 out of 100
6.
PTCB: Medications
Which medication is primarily used as a thrombolytic agent in the management of acute myocardial infarction?
6 out of 100
7.
PTCB: Medications
In the management of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, which medication works by inhibiting the DPP-4 enzyme, thereby increasing incretin levels?
7 out of 100
8.
PTCB: Medications
Which medication is indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches and works by modulating serotonergic and other neurotransmitter systems?
8 out of 100
9.
PTCB: Medications
A patient with COPD is likely to be prescribed which class of medication for maintenance therapy?
9 out of 100
10.
PTCB: Medications
What is the primary action of Aprepitant when used as part of antiemetic therapy in patients undergoing chemotherapy?
10 out of 100
11.
PTCB: Medications
Which of the following medications is an antiretroviral agent that inhibits the CCR5 co-receptor, preventing HIV entry into cells?
11 out of 100
12.
PTCB: Medications
Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody used for the treatment of osteoporosis by inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption?
12 out of 100
13.
PTCB: Medications
What is the primary function of Sofosbuvir in the treatment regimen of Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) infection?
13 out of 100
14.
PTCB: Medications
Which medication, used in the management of Multiple Sclerosis (MS), functions by trapping immune cells in lymph nodes, preventing them from crossing the blood-brain barrier?
14 out of 100
15.
PTCB: Medications
In the treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), which medication targets the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase created by the Philadelphia chromosome?
15 out of 100
16.
PTCB: Medications
Which of the following is an oral antidiabetic agent that works by inhibiting the sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) in the kidneys?
16 out of 100
17.
PTCB: Medications
A patient on antipsychotic therapy experiencing extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) may benefit from the administration of which of the following medications?
17 out of 100
18.
PTCB: Medications
In the context of chemotherapy, what is the mechanism of action of Methotrexate?
18 out of 100
19.
PTCB: Medications
Which of the following inhalational anesthetics is known for its minimal effect on the cardiovascular system, making it suitable for patients with cardiac risk factors?
19 out of 100
20.
PTCB: Medications
What is the primary clinical use of Rituximab, a monoclonal antibody?
20 out of 100
21.
PTCB: Medications
Which of the following medications acts as an inhibitor of the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme, playing a crucial role in the management of hyperlipidemia?
21 out of 100
22.
PTCB: Medications
In the treatment of Bipolar Disorder, which of the following medications is classified as a mood stabilizer and also acts on the inositol triphosphate pathway?
22 out of 100
23.
PTCB: Medications
Which antibiotic is known for its effectiveness against MRSA and works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis at the 50S ribosomal subunit?
23 out of 100
24.
PTCB: Medications
What is the primary mechanism of action of Tamsulosin used in the management of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
24 out of 100
25.
PTCB: Medications
For the management of acute migraine headaches, which medication functions as a serotonin (5-HT1) receptor agonist, causing vasoconstriction of intracranial blood vessels?
25 out of 100
26.
PTCB: Medications
Which antidiabetic medication class does Empagliflozin belong to, known for reducing glucose reabsorption in the kidneys by inhibiting SGLT2?
26 out of 100
27.
PTCB: Medications
Which medication is used as a last resort in patients with multidrug-resistant tuberculosis 'MDR-TB' and functions by inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis?
27 out of 100
28.
PTCB: Medications
What is the role of Dabigatran in anticoagulant therapy?
28 out of 100
29.
PTCB: Medications
Which of the following is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor used in the management of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease 'COPD' to decrease inflammation and relax airway smooth muscles?
29 out of 100
30.
PTCB: Medications
Which of the following medications is used as an adjunct in the treatment of partial seizures and operates by modulating synaptic release of glutamate through an effect on SV2A proteins?
30 out of 100
31.
PTCB: Medications
In the setting of anticoagulation for atrial fibrillation, which of the following medications functions as a direct Factor Xa inhibitor?
31 out of 100
32.
PTCB: Medications
Which medication, indicated for the treatment of Chronic Hepatitis B infection, is a nucleoside analogue that inhibits viral DNA polymerase?
32 out of 100
33.
PTCB: Medications
A medication used to prevent organ transplant rejection that inhibits calcineurin, thereby reducing IL-2 production and T-cell activation is:
33 out of 100
34.
PTCB: Medications
What is the mechanism of action of Prazosin when used in the management of hypertension?
34 out of 100
35.
PTCB: Medications
Which of the following is an anti-VEGF (Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor) medication used in the treatment of wet age-related macular degeneration 'AMD'?
35 out of 100
36.
PTCB: Medications
A patient diagnosed with Clostridium difficile infection is likely to benefit from which of the following antibiotics, known for its specificity to the gut and minimal systemic absorption?
36 out of 100
37.
PTCB: Medications
Which medication is primarily used as a thrombolytic agent in the management of acute myocardial infarction?
37 out of 100
38.
PTCB: Medications
Which medication, used in the management of Multiple Sclerosis (MS), functions by trapping immune cells in lymph nodes, preventing them from crossing the blood-brain barrier?
38 out of 100
39.
PTCB: Medications
What is the role of Dabigatran in anticoagulant therapy?
39 out of 100
40.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
What section of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) requires drug manufacturers to provide proof of safety and effectiveness before marketing a new drug?
40 out of 100
41.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
Under the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003, which provision directly impacts pharmacies?
41 out of 100
42.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
Under which circumstances can a pharmacy process electronic prescriptions for controlled substances (EPCS)?
42 out of 100
43.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
Under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which type of drug labeling is most strictly regulated due to potential risks?
43 out of 100
44.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
Which of the following is a requirement under the Federal Anti-Tampering Act?
44 out of 100
45.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
Which act requires electronic health record systems to be interoperable and prohibits blocking patient health information?
45 out of 100
46.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
What specific provision does the Anabolic Steroid Control Act of 1990 add to the Controlled Substances Act 'CSA'?
46 out of 100
47.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
What is the required action for a pharmacy when a prescription drug is found to be adulterated or misbranded after being dispensed?
47 out of 100
48.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
Which DEA form is used for the transfer of Schedule II controlled substances between pharmacies?
48 out of 100
49.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
What requirement is outlined by the Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act of 2010 for pharmacies participating in take-back programs?
49 out of 100
50.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
What is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine that an individual can purchase within a 30-day period under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005?
50 out of 100
51.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
According to the Ryan Haight Online Pharmacy Consumer Protection Act, which activity is explicitly prohibited?
51 out of 100
52.
PTCB: Federal Requirements
Which DEA form is used by pharmacies to report the theft or significant loss of controlled substances?
52 out of 100
53.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
"Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies" (REMS) are required by the FDA for certain medications to:
53 out of 100
54.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
Which of the following is considered a best practice for preventing medication errors associated with look-alike/sound-alike medications?
54 out of 100
55.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
In the pharmacy setting, a "near miss" refers to:
55 out of 100
56.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
The concept of "formulary management" in a healthcare setting primarily involves:
56 out of 100
57.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
In the context of medication safety, "pharmacovigilance" primarily aims to:
57 out of 100
58.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
In pharmacy practice, the primary purpose of a "black box warning" is to:
58 out of 100
59.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
Which regulatory body is primarily responsible for enforcing safety guidelines for the handling of hazardous drugs in the pharmacy?
59 out of 100
60.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
The term "therapeutic duplication" in pharmacy practice refers to:
60 out of 100
61.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
A "medication use review" (MUR) in a community pharmacy setting is primarily intended to:
61 out of 100
62.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
What is the primary purpose of the ISMP's list of high-alert medications?
62 out of 100
63.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
What does the term "pharmacy informatics" primarily refer to?
63 out of 100
64.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
Which term best describes an error that occurs during the medication use process but is intercepted and corrected before the medication is actually administered to the patient?
64 out of 100
65.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
The use of bar-code scanning in medication administration primarily aims to:
65 out of 100
66.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
What is the significance of using a "universal precaution" approach when handling medications?
66 out of 100
67.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
The primary goal of the USP guidelines is to:
67 out of 100
68.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
The utilization of "automated dispensing cabinets" in pharmacy practice enhances safety by:
68 out of 100
69.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
The principle of "Just Culture" in pharmacy practice emphasizes:
69 out of 100
70.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
Which of the following describes the purpose of a root cause analysis in pharmacy practice?
70 out of 100
71.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
What does a "time-out" procedure before medication administration ensure?
71 out of 100
72.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
When dealing with hazardous drugs, which of the following is an appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) requirement?
72 out of 100
73.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
In the context of risk management, what does the term "FMEA" stand for?
73 out of 100
74.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
When developing a Quality Risk Management (QRM) plan, what is the primary objective?
74 out of 100
75.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
The primary goal of medication reconciliation is to:
75 out of 100
76.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
The process of continually measuring and comparing outcomes against a set standard in order to reduce variability in processes and improve patient care is known as:
76 out of 100
77.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
The process of "compounding" in pharmacy practice refers to:
77 out of 100
78.
PTCB: Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
A high-alert medication is best defined as:
78 out of 100
79.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
When calculating the amount of a reconstituted antibiotic needed for a pediatric patient, which factor is most crucial for determining the accurate dose?
79 out of 100
80.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
In processing a prescription for a controlled substance, what is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule III medication within a six-month period?
80 out of 100
81.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
When entering prescription information into a pharmacy management system, which of the following patient information is critical for checking drug interactions?
81 out of 100
82.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
For a medication requiring prior authorization, which of the following steps is essential before the medication can be dispensed?
82 out of 100
83.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
In the context of compounding, what is the significance of the term "trituration"?
83 out of 100
84.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a "DUR" (Drug Utilization Review) in pharmacy practice?
84 out of 100
85.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
What is the primary consideration when selecting a tablet splitting device for pharmacy use?
85 out of 100
86.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
In calculating the days' supply for a prescription of eye drops, what unique factor must be considered?
86 out of 100
87.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
When dealing with a high-alert medication, what is a critical step in the order entry and processing phase to prevent medication errors?
87 out of 100
88.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
When processing a medication order, what is the significance of the "auxiliary label"?
88 out of 100
89.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
In the process of verifying a prescription for a topical medication, what factor is crucial to ensure correct application and efficacy?
89 out of 100
90.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
What is the primary consideration when handling a medication that requires reconstitution with a specific diluent?
90 out of 100
91.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
In preparing a compound sterile preparation (CSP), what is the most critical aspect to ensure sterility and patient safety?
91 out of 100
92.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
When verifying a prescription for a patient with multiple allergies, what is the most important step?
92 out of 100
93.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
For a medication that exhibits a narrow therapeutic index (NTI), what factor is crucial in its dispensing?
93 out of 100
94.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
In dealing with a medication that is sensitive to light exposure, what is the most important packaging consideration?
94 out of 100
95.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
When processing orders for a biologic medication, what unique storage consideration is typically required?
95 out of 100
96.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
What is the most critical consideration when dispensing a prescription that includes a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) medication?
96 out of 100
97.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
In the context of electronic prescription processing, what is a critical security measure?
97 out of 100
98.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
When a medication is on backorder, what is the most important action for a pharmacy technician to take?
98 out of 100
99.
PTCB: Order Entry and Processing
What is essential to ensure the accuracy of a compounded medication's strength?
99 out of 100
100.
PTCB: Medications
In the context of anticoagulant therapy, which of the following is the antidote for Warfarin?
100 out of 100
