PHR Practice Test Welcome to your PHR Practice Test 1. PHR: Business Management Which of the following best describes the process of "benchmarking" in a business context? A. Setting employee performance standards based on industry averages B. Comparing a company's processes and performance metrics to industry bests or best practices C. Evaluating employee job satisfaction through annual surveys D. Implementing the latest technology to improve productivity None 1 out of 100 2. PHR: Business Management Which principle of management is primarily concerned with making the best use of an organization's resources to achieve its goals? A. Equity B. Esprit de corps C. Unity of direction D. Efficiency None 2 out of 100 3. PHR: Business Management What term describes a business strategy focusing on reducing costs across various segments of the production and delivery process to offer products or services at lower prices than competitors? A. Differentiation strategy B. Cost leadership strategy C. Focus strategy D. Market segmentation strategy None 3 out of 100 4. PHR: Business Management In a global business environment, which of the following best represents the concept of "cultural intelligence"? A. The ability to understand and apply accounting norms across different countries B. The capacity to relate and work effectively across cultures C. The process of hiring employees from diverse cultural backgrounds D. The strategy of expanding a business into new international markets None 4 out of 100 5. PHR: Business Management What is the primary focus of "corporate social responsibility" (CSR) in business? A. Maximizing shareholder wealth B. Ensuring compliance with global labor standards C. Managing the organization's impact on society and the environment D. Focusing solely on environmental sustainability initiatives None 5 out of 100 6. PHR: Business Management In the context of change management, what does the acronym ADKAR stand for? A. Assessment, Development, Knowledge, Action, Review B. Awareness, Desire, Knowledge, Ability, Reinforcement C. Analysis, Design, Knowledge, Application, Results D. Action, Determination, Knowledge, Assessment, Reevaluation None 6 out of 100 7. PHR: Business Management Which of the following best describes the term "blue ocean strategy"? A. A market segmentation strategy that focuses on competitive pricing B. A corporate strategy that seeks to enter into crowded market spaces or "red oceans" C. A business approach that involves creating a new, uncontested market space D. A growth strategy where a company expands its existing product line into new markets None 7 out of 100 8. PHR: Business Management Which of the following terms best describes a systematic approach to managing the entire workflow in an organization from raw materials through to the finished product? A. Total Quality Management (TQM) B. Supply Chain Management (SCM) C. Business Process Reengineering (BPR) D. Customer Relationship Management (CRM) None 8 out of 100 9. PHR: Business Management What is meant by "organizational agility"? A. The ability of an organization to quickly adapt to market changes and opportunities B. The financial capacity of a company to invest in new technologies C. The speed at which a company can lay off employees in response to market downturns D. The process of restructuring an organization to reduce costs None 9 out of 100 10. PHR: Business Management In the realm of strategic human resource management, what does the term "balanced scorecard" refer to? A. A method for evaluating employee performance based on a balanced set of criteria B. A strategic planning and management system used to align business activities to the vision and strategy of the organization C. A compensation strategy that balances base pay with performance-based rewards D. A workforce planning tool that balances employee skills across various departments None 10 out of 100 11. PHR: Business Management Which term describes the strategic approach to managing employee relationships in a manner that maximizes their contribution towards the achievement of business objectives? A. Employee Engagement B. Organizational Development C. Strategic Human Resource Management (SHRM) D. Performance Management None 11 out of 100 12. PHR: Business Management What does the term "stakeholder analysis" refer to in a business context? A. Analyzing the financial stakes of investors in the company B. The process of identifying the groups or individuals who have a stake in the success of the organization and understanding their needs and expectations C. A method for determining the salaries of top executives based on company performance D. Evaluating the impact of environmental changes on stakeholder attitudes None 12 out of 100 13. PHR: Business Management Which of the following best represents the concept of "Lean Six Sigma"? A. A process improvement methodology that focuses exclusively on financial outcomes B. A project management technique that emphasizes the importance of team leadership and motivation C. A quality management approach that combines lean manufacturing/lean enterprise and Six Sigma to eliminate waste D. A customer service strategy that prioritizes customer satisfaction above all other business objectives None 13 out of 100 14. PHR: Business Management In the context of global business, what is the primary goal of "localization"? A. To standardize products and services for the global market to minimize costs B. To adapt products, services, and business practices to meet the cultural and regulatory requirements of different countries C. To relocate company headquarters to a country with lower tax rates D. To centralize all business operations in the company's country of origin None 14 out of 100 15. PHR: Business Management Which of the following best describes "enterprise resource planning" (ERP) systems? A. Software applications designed for managing employee benefits and compensation B. Systems focused solely on improving customer relationship management C. Integrated management of main business processes, often in real-time and mediated by software and technology D. Tools used exclusively for financial planning and analysis None 15 out of 100 16. PHR: Business Management What does the "triple bottom line" concept in business emphasize? A. Profit, Loss, and Revenue B. People, Planet, and Profit C. Production, Performance, and Profitability D. Personnel, Process, and Product None 16 out of 100 17. PHR: Business Management In strategic planning, what is meant by the term "value chain analysis"? A. A financial assessment to determine the value of the company's stock B. An examination of the steps required to reduce operational costs C. The process of analyzing the activities through which a firm creates value for its customers D. A method for evaluating employee performance and contribution to company profits None 17 out of 100 18. PHR: Business Management What is a primary characteristic of "agile" project management methodologies? A. Strict adherence to project schedules and budgets B. Emphasis on sequential project phases with no overlap C. Flexibility and adaptability in response to changes D. Focus on comprehensive documentation before starting any project phase None 18 out of 100 19. PHR: Business Management What is the primary goal of "knowledge management" within an organization? A. To ensure compliance with intellectual property laws B. To capture, distribute, and effectively use knowledge and expertise C. To reduce the workforce to essential personnel only D. To monitor and manage employee use of social media None 19 out of 100 20. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition What is the primary purpose of conducting a job analysis in the talent planning and acquisition process? A. To determine the market competitiveness of salaries B. To establish the qualifications needed for a job C. To identify potential candidates for promotion D. To evaluate the performance of current employees None 20 out of 100 21. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition In the context of workforce planning, what does the term 'succession planning' primarily focus on? A. Identifying short-term staffing needs B. Managing employee turnover C. Preparing for future leadership needs D. Enhancing employee skills through training None 21 out of 100 22. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition Which of the following is considered a best practice for conducting effective talent acquisition strategies? A. Focusing primarily on external recruitment to bring in new ideas B. Using only one channel for recruitment to simplify the process C. Leveraging employee referrals and internal talent pools D. Prioritizing candidates who demand the highest salaries None 22 out of 100 23. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition What role does employer branding play in talent acquisition? A. It ensures that the organization complies with labor laws. B. It reduces the need for employee training and development. C. It helps attract and retain top talent by showcasing the organization's values. D. It simplifies the job analysis process. None 23 out of 100 24. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition What is a critical first step in developing a workforce planning strategy? A. Implementing a robust performance management system B. Conducting a gap analysis between current skills and future needs C. Increasing the budget for talent acquisition D. Outsourcing non-core functions None 24 out of 100 25. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition Which of the following is a key component of a strategic talent acquisition plan? A. Focusing solely on immediate hiring needs B. Developing a long-term relationship with a single staffing agency C. Aligning the talent acquisition strategy with business goals D. Limiting the sources of recruitment to traditional channels None 25 out of 100 26. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition In talent acquisition, what is the primary advantage of utilizing social media platforms for recruitment? A. They offer a platform for conducting formal job interviews. B. They eliminate the need for background checks. C. They provide access to a broader pool of candidates. D. They guarantee the hiring of top talent. None 26 out of 100 27. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition What is the significance of diversity and inclusion in the talent planning and acquisition process? A. It is primarily a legal requirement to avoid discrimination lawsuits. B. It enhances team creativity, problem-solving, and organizational performance. C. It simplifies the recruitment process by focusing on a narrower candidate pool. D. It ensures that all hires come from the same geographic location. None 27 out of 100 28. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition How does an effective onboarding process impact talent acquisition? A. It primarily serves to streamline payroll processing for new hires. B. It reduces the likelihood of new hire turnover and increases engagement. C. It eliminates the need for performance management systems. D. It guarantees promotions within the first year of employment. None 28 out of 100 29. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition What is a critical consideration when developing an employee value proposition (EVP) for talent acquisition? A. Ensuring it is identical to those of competitors to maintain industry standards B. Making it vague enough to apply to a wide variety of roles and departments C. Tailoring it to reflect the unique benefits and culture of the organization D. Focusing exclusively on financial compensation as the primary attractor None 29 out of 100 30. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition Which of the following best describes the role of technology in talent acquisition? A. It is only useful for large corporations with extensive budgets. B. It replaces the need for human judgment in the recruitment process. C. It enhances efficiency and reach in sourcing and attracting candidates. D. It should be avoided to maintain personal touch in recruitment. None 30 out of 100 31. PHR: Business Management In the context of strategic HR planning, what does SWOT analysis stand for? A. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats B. Strategies, Workflows, Objectives, Technologies C. Systematic Work Organization and Timing D. Skills, Workforce, Optimization, Trends None 31 out of 100 32. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition What is the primary benefit of implementing an internal mobility program within an organization? A. It completely removes the need for external recruitment. B. It reduces the overall compensation packages due to internal hires. C. It encourages employee retention and career development. D. It ensures all employees have the same job role throughout their tenure. None 32 out of 100 33. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition How does the concept of "employer brand" differ from "employer reputation" in the context of talent acquisition? A. Employer brand is exclusively focused on the benefits offered, while employer reputation is about the organizational culture. B. Employer brand is a marketing effort aimed at potential candidates, while employer reputation is the public perception formed over time. C. Employer brand and employer reputation are interchangeable terms with no difference. D. Employer reputation is legally binding, while employer brand is not. None 33 out of 100 34. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition In the context of global talent acquisition, what is a critical factor to consider when recruiting employees from different countries? A. Implementing a one-size-fits-all recruitment strategy B. Understanding and adhering to local labor laws and cultural norms C. Focusing exclusively on English-speaking candidates D. Avoiding the use of technology in the recruitment process None 34 out of 100 35. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition What role does data analytics play in modern talent acquisition strategies? A. It is used solely for tracking the number of applications received. B. It helps in understanding recruitment trends and improving decision-making. C. It eliminates the need for human recruiters by automating the entire process. D. It is limited to assessing the effectiveness of job advertisements. None 35 out of 100 36. PHR: Talent Planning and Acquisition What is the significance of using behavioral interview questions in the talent acquisition process? A. They help predict a candidate's future performance based on past behaviors. B. They eliminate the need for reference checks. C. They focus solely on the candidate's educational background. D. They guarantee a candidate's success in the role. None 36 out of 100 37. PHR: Learning and Development Which learning theory posits that behavior is influenced by its consequences, either in the form of rewards or punishments? A. Constructivism B. Social Learning Theory C. Behaviorism D. Cognitive Development Theory None 37 out of 100 38. PHR: Learning and Development What is the primary focus of transformational learning theory? A. Acquiring new information or skills through instruction or study B. Changing one's perspective through critical reflection of assumptions C. Developing habits of action for skill acquisition D. Mimicking behaviors observed in others None 38 out of 100 39. PHR: Learning and Development In talent development, which process systematically develops an organization's talent pool to ensure leadership continuity? A. Succession Planning B. Performance Management C. Employee Onboarding D. Career Pathing None 39 out of 100 40. PHR: Learning and Development What aspect of the training evaluation process involves analyzing whether targets for change (in behavior, skills, knowledge) have been met post-training? A. Reaction B. Learning C. Behavior D. Results None 40 out of 100 41. PHR: Learning and Development Which method is particularly effective for delivering complex content to a diverse group of learners, allowing for interaction and clarification? A. Asynchronous e-learning B. Synchronous virtual classroom C. Self-paced online modules D. Printed manuals None 41 out of 100 42. PHR: Learning and Development Which concept in learning and development emphasizes the creation of a culture where learning is integrated into the daily work life? A. Continuous Learning B. On-the-job Training C. Formal Education D. E-Learning None 42 out of 100 43. PHR: Learning and Development When applying the concept of transfer of learning, what factor is most crucial for ensuring that skills learned in training are effectively applied on the job? A. The use of high-end technology in training B. The trainer's expertise and knowledge C. The alignment between training content and job tasks D. The length of the training program None 43 out of 100 44. PHR: Learning and Development In the context of organizational development, which method is most effective for diagnosing the current state of an organization to identify areas for improvement? A. SWOT Analysis B. Performance Appraisal C. Cost-Benefit Analysis D. Employee Satisfaction Survey None 44 out of 100 45. PHR: Learning and Development In the scope of global training programs, what is a critical challenge to overcome for ensuring effectiveness across all participant groups? A. Time zone differences B. Language barriers C. Technology access D. All of the above None 45 out of 100 46. PHR: Learning and Development In terms of employee training and development, what does ROI stand for, and what is its significance? A. Return on Investment, measuring the financial return on the cost of training B. Range of Influence, assessing the impact of training on employee influence C. Rate of Implementation, evaluating the speed of training application D. Review of Integration, examining the incorporation of training into work practices None 46 out of 100 47. PHR: Total Rewards In terms of employee benefits, what is COBRA? A. A type of health insurance plan offered exclusively to senior executives. B. A federal law that allows employees and their families to continue their health insurance coverage after a job loss or other qualifying event. C. A health savings account that employees can contribute to on a pre-tax basis. D. A wellness program aimed at reducing healthcare costs by encouraging healthy living habits among employees. None 47 out of 100 48. PHR: Total Rewards What is the primary goal of a broad-banding salary structure? A. To decrease the number of pay grades and increase the breadth of each, thereby providing more flexibility in employee promotions and lateral moves. B. To increase the number of distinct pay grades, allowing for more granular differentiation of job roles and responsibilities. C. To reduce overall payroll costs by consolidating similar job functions into fewer categories. D. To align the company's salary structure more closely with industry standards and competitive benchmarks. None 48 out of 100 49. PHR: Total Rewards Which of the following best exemplifies the concept of "total rewards"? A. Implementing a competitive base salary program. B. Offering employees a comprehensive package that includes salary, benefits, work-life balance, recognition, and development opportunities. C. Focusing solely on performance bonuses and incentive pay. D. Prioritizing long-term equity awards over immediate cash compensation. None 49 out of 100 50. PHR: Total Rewards The concept of "total compensation statement" is best described as: A. A detailed breakdown of an employee's base salary, bonuses, and stock options. B. A document that outlines all the cash and non-cash benefits provided to an employee, including salary, benefits, retirement contributions, and other perks. C. A yearly statement required by the IRS to report an employee's earnings and taxes withheld. D. A comparative analysis of compensation packages offered by different companies within the same industry. None 50 out of 100 51. PHR: Total Rewards The use of "pay scales" in compensation management helps to: A. Eliminate the need for performance appraisals and merit-based increases. B. Ensure that employees performing similar work receive similar pay, based on their experience and performance. C. Provide a minimum guaranteed income for all employees, regardless of their position. D. Automatically adjust employee salaries for inflation on an annual basis. None 51 out of 100 52. PHR: Total Rewards What is the purpose of a "market pricing" approach in compensation management? A. To ensure that all employees are paid at least the minimum wage. B. To base pay structures on the prevailing market rates for similar positions in the industry. C. To adjust salaries based on the cost of living in different geographical locations. D. To set prices for products and services based on the labor costs involved in production. None 52 out of 100 53. PHR: Total Rewards A "tiered" benefits plan is designed to: A. Offer all employees the same level of benefits regardless of their position or tenure. B. Provide different levels of benefits based on employee grade or tenure, allowing for customization and flexibility. C. Restrict the most expensive healthcare options to higher-level executives only. D. Implement a standard cost-sharing formula for all types of benefits across the organization. None 53 out of 100 54. PHR: Total Rewards Which principle of compensation states that pay should be equivalent to the value of the work performed? A. Equity theory B. Pay-for-performance C. Labor market competition D. Job evaluation None 54 out of 100 55. PHR: Total Rewards The equity theory in compensation management primarily focuses on: A. Legal compliance with minimum wage laws and regulations. B. The fairness and equality of pay structures within an organization. C. The return on investment for employee training and development programs. D. Aligning executive compensation with company performance. None 55 out of 100 56. PHR: Total Rewards The primary goal of "variable pay" is to: A. Reduce the fixed costs associated with employee compensation. B. Align employee compensation with organizational performance and individual achievement. C. Standardize compensation across similar job titles to prevent pay inequity. D. Offset the higher costs of providing comprehensive health benefits. None 56 out of 100 57. PHR: Total Rewards A "living wage" policy is designed to ensure that: A. Employees earn enough to meet their basic needs, such as housing, food, and healthcare, based on the cost of living in their area. B. All employees within the organization earn the same wage, regardless of their job function or seniority. C. Employees are compensated based on their living situation, with adjustments made for those with dependents. D. The minimum wage set by the government is adjusted annually to reflect inflation and cost of living increases. None 57 out of 100 58. PHR: Total Rewards The principle of "internal equity" in compensation is concerned with: A. Ensuring that the company's pay rates are competitive with the external job market. B. Guaranteeing that employees in different departments receive equitable pay for equivalent positions. C. Providing equal pay for work of equal value within the organization, regardless of the job or department. D. Aligning compensation with the strategic goals and financial capabilities of the organization. None 58 out of 100 59. PHR: Total Rewards In the context of total rewards, which of the following best defines "benchmarking"? A. The process of setting minimum and maximum pay rates for specific job categories. B. Comparing an organization's practices and compensation levels against those of leading companies in the industry. C. Evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's benefits offerings through employee surveys. D. Establishing performance standards for incentive pay and bonuses. None 59 out of 100 60. PHR: Total Rewards What is the primary function of a salary survey in compensation management? A. To determine the highest paying jobs within the industry to set executive salaries. B. To assess the average cost of living increases and adjust salaries accordingly. C. To collect data on compensation rates for similar positions in the market to inform an organization's pay structure. D. To survey employees on their satisfaction with their current salary and benefits package. None 60 out of 100 61. PHR: Total Rewards "Glassdoor" and similar employee review sites impact compensation strategy by: A. Providing a platform for employees to anonymously share salary information and company reviews. B. Offering companies a way to advertise their jobs directly to potential employees. C. Allowing employers to benchmark their compensation against competitors without conducting formal surveys. D. Reducing the need for traditional job descriptions and salary negotiations. None 61 out of 100 62. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations Which action best demonstrates an employer's adherence to the duty of fair representation under the National Labor Relations Act? A. Refusing to negotiate with a minority union that represents less than 50% of employees B. Bargaining in good faith with a certified union for contract renewal C. Implementing a last-best-offer without union approval to avoid a strike D. Disciplining an employee for misconduct, regardless of union membership status None 62 out of 100 63. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations In the context of labor relations, what is an unfair labor practice charge most likely to be filed against an employer for? A. Increasing wages to match inflation without union consent B. Failing to provide timely responses to information requests by the union C. Offering above-market compensation to retain skilled employees D. Implementing flexible work schedules as per employee feedback None 63 out of 100 64. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations What principle is most directly at issue when a union engages in a "wildcat strike"? A. The right to collective bargaining B. The duty to bargain in good faith C. The adherence to the no-strike clause during a contract term D. The protection of workers' rights under the Occupational Safety and Health Act None 64 out of 100 65. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations Which statement best reflects the purpose of the Wagner Act, also known as the National Labor Relations Act (NLR A. of 1935? A) To restrict the operations of labor unions within federal and state government workplaces B. To provide a framework for the resolution of disputes between employers and employees C. To establish the right of employees to engage in collective bargaining through representatives of their own choosing D. To enforce minimum wage standards and address child labor issues None 65 out of 100 66. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations When an employer engages in "surface bargaining," what are they likely accused of? A. Negotiating with the intent to reach a mutual agreement B. Bargaining without the intent to reach an agreement C. Offering concessions beyond what the union has demanded D. Finalizing an agreement without union input or consent None 66 out of 100 67. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations Under the Taft-Hartley Act, which practice is considered an unfair labor practice by unions? A. Engaging in collective bargaining B. Conducting strike action after a contract expires C. Demanding union dues from non-members in a right-to-work state D. Picketing for employee rights None 67 out of 100 68. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations What is the primary legal significance of a "Weingarten meeting" in the context of employee and labor relations? A. It allows employees to request union representation during disciplinary meetings. B. It mandates employers to disclose financial information to unions during bargaining. C. It provides a framework for discussing voluntary retirement plans with employees. D. It obligates unions to represent non-union members in collective bargaining. None 68 out of 100 69. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations In labor relations, what does the term "secondary boycott" refer to? A. A strike targeting the primary employer with whom the union has a dispute B. A protest demanding higher safety standards in the workplace C. A boycott or strike targeting a business that is not the primary employer but is associated with a labor dispute D. A union's refusal to negotiate with an employer over contract terms None 69 out of 100 70. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations Which best describes the purpose of the "hot cargo" agreements prohibited under the Taft-Hartley Act? A. Agreements that allow employers to hire replacement workers during a strike B. Agreements between unions and employers to improve workplace safety standards C. Agreements that prevent employers from handling, using, or dealing in goods of other employers produced by nonunion labor D. Agreements that mandate automatic dues deduction from union members' paychecks None 70 out of 100 71. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations What legal doctrine, established by the Supreme Court, limits the right to strike when it would create a national emergency? A. The Taft-Hartley Act's national emergency injunction B. The Norris-LaGuardia Act's anti-injunction provisions C. The "clear and present danger" test D. The "national interest" doctrine None 71 out of 100 72. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The concept of "good faith bargaining" requires that parties to a collective bargaining agreement: A. Meet at reasonable times and confer in good faith B. Agree to all proposals presented by the other party C. Only negotiate wages and ignore other terms and conditions of employment D. Conduct negotiations in public to ensure transparency None 72 out of 100 73. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations When implementing a "bargaining to impasse" strategy, what is the primary risk an employer faces? A. Increased productivity due to streamlined negotiation processes B. Enhanced employee morale from perceived firm negotiation stances C. Legal challenges for failing to negotiate in good faith D. Immediate agreement on contract terms by the union None 73 out of 100 74. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations In labor relations, the term "salting" refers to which of the following practices? A. Employers adding non-union employees to dilute union membership B. Unions sending their members to seek employment at non-union sites to organize from within C. Negotiating contracts with excessive benefits to attract employees away from unions D. Employers using subcontractors to avoid union contracts None 74 out of 100 75. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The "duty of fair representation" imposed on unions requires them to: A. Represent all members equally, without discrimination or negligence B. Only represent employees who are union members in good standing C. Focus exclusively on negotiating wage increases during collective bargaining D. Avoid engaging in collective bargaining to prevent labor disputes None 75 out of 100 76. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations What does the "Beck Rights" principle established by the Supreme Court entail for unionized workers? A. The right to refrain from participating in union activities and political actions unrelated to collective bargaining B. The obligation to join a union as a condition of employment C. The right to exclusive representation by a single union in a workplace D. The obligation to pay full union dues regardless of membership status None 76 out of 100 77. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The "Excelsior List" is significant in labor relations for what reason? A. It is a list of employees eligible for overtime pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act B. It is a list of all bargaining unit members that must be provided to the union by the employer after a union election is ordered C. It details unfair labor practices committed by employers D. It enumerates the legal grounds for terminating an employee without cause None 77 out of 100 78. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The "permissive subjects of bargaining" include which of the following? A. Wage rates and overtime pay B. Health insurance benefits and retirement plans C. The decision to subcontract work D. Work schedules and break times None 78 out of 100 79. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations A "neutrality agreement" between an employer and a union typically ensures that: A. The employer will not express support for any political party B. The employer will not support or oppose the union during an organizing campaign C. The employer will remain neutral in disputes between employees D. The employer will not engage in collective bargaining None 79 out of 100 80. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations Under the Labor Management Reporting and Disclosure Act (LMRD A. of 1959, also known as the Landrum-Griffin Act, union members are granted specific rights, including: A) The right to participate in union strikes without facing disciplinary actions B. The right to a fair hearing before being fined or expelled from the union C. The obligation to support all political activities initiated by the union D. The right to demand the union to engage in collective bargaining on their behalf None 80 out of 100 81. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations Which of the following best describes an employer's legal obligation under the "duty to bargain" in the United States? A. To agree to all demands made by the union during negotiations B. To bargain over mandatory subjects of bargaining to the point of agreement or impasse C. To ensure that all employees are members of the union before bargaining D. To negotiate exclusively with external third-party negotiators, not with the union directly None 81 out of 100 82. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The principle of "just cause" in employee discipline and termination cases primarily ensures that: A. Employees can only be terminated for reasons unrelated to work performance. B. Employers must provide evidence of wrongdoing or inadequate performance before terminating an employee. C. All employees have the right to a severance package upon termination, regardless of the reason. D. Termination decisions are based solely on the length of service of the employee. None 82 out of 100 83. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations A "closed shop" agreement requires that: A. Employees must join the union within a certain period after being hired. B. All employees must be members of the union as a condition of employment. C. Employers must close their facilities during a strike. D. Unions must close their membership, limiting the number of employees who can join. None 83 out of 100 84. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The term "union shop" is best described as a workplace where: A. Employees are required to join the union as a condition for obtaining employment. B. Employees must join the union within a specified period after being hired. C. Union membership is strictly prohibited. D. Union membership is voluntary and not tied to employment. None 84 out of 100 85. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations When an employer engages in "direct dealing," it means they: A. Negotiate directly with employees, bypassing the union. B. Deal directly with the union, excluding employee input. C. Engage in negotiations with the intention of reaching an immediate agreement. D. Handle all employee grievances directly without involving union representatives. None 85 out of 100 86. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The process of "interest arbitration" is used in labor relations to: A. Determine the interest rates on union dues. B. Resolve disputes over the interpretation of a collective bargaining agreement. C. Decide on the terms of a new collective bargaining agreement when parties cannot reach an agreement. D. Arbitrate between different unions interested in representing the same group of employees. None 86 out of 100 87. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations A "no-solicitation policy" in the workplace typically restricts: A. Employees from distributing union literature in work areas during working hours. B. The sale of goods and services among employees during work hours. C. Any form of solicitation, including union organizing, without employer approval. D. Solicitation for charitable causes unless sanctioned by the employer. None 87 out of 100 88. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The "duty to mitigate damages" in wrongful termination cases requires that: A. Employers must minimize the financial impact of termination on employees. B. Employees must make a reasonable effort to find comparable employment after being wrongfully terminated. C. Unions must compensate employees for lost wages and benefits due to wrongful termination. D. Employers must rehire employees who were wrongfully terminated within a specified period. None 88 out of 100 89. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations "Secondary actions" in labor disputes refer to: A. Backup plans if primary negotiations fail. B. Strikes or boycotts aimed at a secondary employer not directly involved in the labor dispute. C. The secondary effects of a strike, such as increased workload for non-striking employees. D. Actions taken by secondary unions in support of the primary union involved in a dispute. None 89 out of 100 90. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The "right to work" laws primarily ensure that: A. Employees have the right to work without joining a union. B. All workers have a guaranteed right to employment in any field. C. Unions have the right to organize in any workplace. D. Employers have the right to hire non-union workers exclusively. None 90 out of 100 91. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The principle of "collective bargaining" primarily involves: A. Individual negotiations between an employee and employer regarding work conditions. B. A group of employees deciding to form a union without employer interference. C. Negotiations between the employer and a group of employees for setting wages and work conditions. D. Unilateral decision-making by employers on employment terms, later communicated to employees. None 91 out of 100 92. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations An employer's policy that prohibits employees from discussing their wages could be considered: A. A violation of the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA). B. A standard confidentiality practice. C. Permissible under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA). D. Only applicable to non-unionized workplaces. None 92 out of 100 93. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The term "grievance procedure" in the context of labor relations is best described as: A. A legal process for resolving workplace disputes through the court system. B. A structured process for resolving disputes between employees and management regarding contract interpretation or violation. C. A series of informal negotiations between an employee and their supervisor. D. A public forum for airing complaints about workplace safety. None 93 out of 100 94. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations "Picketing" during a labor dispute is primarily intended to: A. Physically block employees or customers from entering the workplace. B. Serve as a public demonstration of a grievance against the employer. C. Privately negotiate terms directly with the employer without union interference. D. Encourage employees to work overtime without additional compensation. None 94 out of 100 95. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations "Mediation" in the context of labor relations is best described as: A. A process where a neutral third party assists in resolving a dispute through arbitration. B. A legal requirement for all labor disputes before proceeding to court. C. A voluntary process where a neutral third party helps the union and employer reach a mutually acceptable agreement. D. A mandatory step in the grievance procedure specified in all collective bargaining agreements. None 95 out of 100 96. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The concept of "union security clause" in a collective bargaining agreement is intended to: A. Ensure the physical security of union members within the workplace. B. Protect the union's role as the bargaining representative by requiring employees to maintain union membership or pay dues. C. Secure employment for union leaders within the company. D. Guarantee the financial investments of the union in the company. None 96 out of 100 97. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations The "free rider problem" in the context of labor relations refers to: A. Employees who benefit from union negotiations without contributing to union dues. B. Employers who benefit from other companies' collective bargaining agreements. C. Union members who do not participate in strikes but still receive wage increases. D. Non-union companies that adopt wage standards set by unionized sectors. None 97 out of 100 98. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations "Decertification" of a union occurs when: A. The union voluntarily dissolves itself. B. The employer decides to stop recognizing the union as the representative of its employees. C. Employees vote to remove the union as their bargaining representative. D. The National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) revokes the union's certification due to misconduct. None 98 out of 100 99. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations In the context of labor relations, "featherbedding" refers to: A. The practice of hiring more workers than are necessary for the task. B. A strategy used by employers to reduce labor costs by employing part-time workers. C. The use of technology to replace manual labor. D. A union demand for higher wages without corresponding increases in productivity. None 99 out of 100 100. PHR: Employee and Labor Relations An "agency shop" arrangement in a collective bargaining agreement requires that: A. Employees must use the union as their exclusive agent for bargaining but are not required to join the union. B. All employees must join the union, but they are free to choose another agency for representation if desired. C. Employees must pay union dues but are not required to participate in union activities or meetings. D. Employers must act as the agent for the union in collecting dues directly from employees' paychecks. None 100 out of 100 Time is Up! Time's up
