1.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
In UV-Vis spectroscopy, what does the term 'bathochromic shift' refer to?
1 out of 130
2.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
Which of the following is a common use of differential scanning calorimetry DSC in analytical chemistry?
2 out of 130
3.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
In ion chromatography, what is the role of the suppressor?
3 out of 130
4.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
In mass spectrometry, what is the significance of the base peak in a mass spectrum?
4 out of 130
5.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
What is the principle behind isocratic elution in chromatography?
5 out of 130
6.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
What is the primary advantage of using a diode-array detector in HPLC?
6 out of 130
7.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
What is the primary purpose of using an internal standard in quantitative analytical chemistry?
7 out of 130
8.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
Which analytical technique is most suitable for determining the molecular weight of high polymers?
8 out of 130
9.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
In potentiometric analysis, what does a Nernstian response of an electrode indicate?
9 out of 130
10.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
In fluorescence spectroscopy, what causes the Stokes shift?
10 out of 130
11.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
In electroanalytical chemistry, what is the main purpose of a reference electrode?
11 out of 130
12.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
What is the primary use of a chelating agent in titrimetric analysis?
12 out of 130
13.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
In electroanalytical methods, what does a cyclic voltammogram primarily measure?
13 out of 130
14.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
What is the primary advantage of using Fourier-transform infrared (FTIR) spectroscopy over dispersive IR spectroscopy?
14 out of 130
15.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
In analytical chemistry, what principle does thermogravimetric analysis TGA primarily rely on?
15 out of 130
16.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
In the context of molecular orbital theory, which of the following is true for a homonuclear diatomic molecule of oxygen (O\(_2\))?
16 out of 130
17.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
What is the oxidation state of chromium in potassium dichromate (K\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\))?
17 out of 130
18.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following statements about the lanthanide contraction is true?
18 out of 130
19.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which statement correctly describes the properties of isotopes?
19 out of 130
20.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following is a characteristic of a sigma (\(\sigma\)) bond?
20 out of 130
21.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which element commonly forms a hexaaqua complex with a +3 oxidation state in aqueous solution?
21 out of 130
22.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following geometries is expected for a molecule with the formula AX\(_3\)E\(_2\) according to VSEPR theory?
22 out of 130
23.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
In the solid state, which compound exhibits ionic bonding?
23 out of 130
24.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
What is the correct formula for the compound formed between aluminum and sulfur?
24 out of 130
25.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following statements best describes a property of transition metals?
25 out of 130
26.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
What is the hybridization of the central atom in SF\(_4\)?
26 out of 130
27.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
In a crystal field splitting diagram for an octahedral complex, which of the following electronic configurations will result in the highest crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE)?
27 out of 130
28.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which element typically forms a colored aqueous solution due to d-d electron transitions?
28 out of 130
29.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
What is the electron configuration of the Fe\(^{2+}\) ion?
29 out of 130
30.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which statement is true about the ionic character of a bond?
30 out of 130
31.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
What type of isomerism is exhibited by [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_4\)(NO\(_2\))\(_2\)]\(^+\)?
31 out of 130
32.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
What is the molecular geometry of XeF\(_4\) according to VSEPR theory?
32 out of 130
33.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following molecular shapes is associated with an AX\(_4\)E\(_2\) molecule according to VSEPR theory?
33 out of 130
34.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following ions has a noble gas electron configuration?
34 out of 130
35.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following statements accurately describes the bonding in [Ni(CN)\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)?
35 out of 130
36.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
In the context of acid-base chemistry, which of the following is a Lewis acid?
36 out of 130
37.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following is true for a molecule with a square pyramidal molecular geometry?
37 out of 130
38.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following elements is most likely to form a colored compound in its highest oxidation state?
38 out of 130
39.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
What is the coordination number of the central metal in a hexadentate ligand complex?
39 out of 130
40.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
What is the electron configuration of the Fe\(^{2+}\) ion?
40 out of 130
41.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In organic chemistry, which reaction type involves the transition of an alkyl halide into an alkene?
41 out of 130
42.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
Which statement best describes the Hammond postulate?
42 out of 130
43.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In the context of aromatic compounds, what is electrophilic aromatic substitution?
43 out of 130
44.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
Which type of isomerism is exhibited by compounds having the same molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms in space?
44 out of 130
45.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In an SN2 reaction, what is the effect of increasing the steric hindrance of the substrate?
45 out of 130
46.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In the Diels-Alder reaction, which of the following dienes is the most reactive?
46 out of 130
47.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the major product of the ozonolysis of 1-methylcyclohexene?
47 out of 130
48.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In the context of organic reactions, what is the purpose of a protecting group?
48 out of 130
49.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
Which reaction mechanism is typically involved in the hydroboration-oxidation of alkenes?
49 out of 130
50.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In the Friedel-Crafts acylation reaction, what is the role of AlCl??
50 out of 130
51.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the outcome of the reaction between an aldehyde and a Grignard reagent followed by acid work-up?
51 out of 130
52.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In organic synthesis, what role does a Grignard reagent typically play?
52 out of 130
53.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the product of the reaction of benzene with Cl? in the presence of FeCl??
53 out of 130
54.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the effect of increasing the temperature on the product distribution of the reaction between 2-methylbutane and chlorine under radical conditions?
54 out of 130
55.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In the Cannizzaro reaction, what is the outcome when formaldehyde is treated with concentrated NaOH?
55 out of 130
56.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the outcome of a Wittig reaction?
56 out of 130
57.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What type of stereochemistry is observed in the products of the E2 elimination reaction?
57 out of 130
58.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the major organic product formed when cyclohexene is treated with N-bromosuccinimide (NBS) in the presence of light?
58 out of 130
59.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the outcome of treating a vicinal diol with periodic acid (HIO?)?
59 out of 130
60.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In a Sharpless epoxidation reaction, what is the outcome when using L-(+)-diethyl tartrate?
60 out of 130
61.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the major product of the ozonolysis of 1,3-cyclohexadiene followed by reduction with zinc in acetic acid?
61 out of 130
62.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In the Robinson annulation reaction, what types of compounds are generally involved?
62 out of 130
63.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
Which reaction involves the conversion of an aldehyde or ketone into an imine?
63 out of 130
64.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the product of the reaction between a nitrile and a Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis?
64 out of 130
65.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In the context of carbon-carbon bond formation, what role does palladium play in a Suzuki coupling?
65 out of 130
66.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the outcome of the reaction of an acyl chloride with a Gilman reagent (lithium diorganocopper)?
66 out of 130
67.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the result of the Wittig reaction between benzaldehyde and methylidenetriphenylphosphorane?
67 out of 130
68.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the major product in the Birch reduction of benzene?
68 out of 130
69.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the major organic product when but-2-yne reacts with excess hydrogen in the presence of a Lindlar catalyst?
69 out of 130
70.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In the Baeyer-Villiger oxidation, what is the major product formed from cyclohexanone and peroxyacetic acid?
70 out of 130
71.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
What does the term "kinetic isotope effect" refer to in chemical kinetics?
71 out of 130
72.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
What is the primary characteristic of a reaction that follows zero-order kinetics?
72 out of 130
73.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In the context of molecular orbital theory, which of the following statements accurately describes a bonding molecular orbital?
73 out of 130
74.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
What is the primary assumption of the collision theory of chemical kinetics?
74 out of 130
75.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
What is the primary function of a buffer solution?
75 out of 130
76.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In quantum mechanics, the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle primarily asserts that:
76 out of 130
77.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
The Lindemann mechanism is often used to describe:
77 out of 130
78.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In a system at equilibrium, what is the relationship between the rates of the forward and reverse reactions?
78 out of 130
79.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In quantum mechanics, what does the Pauli Exclusion Principle state about electrons in an atom?
79 out of 130
80.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
Which principle explains the increase in entropy when a solute dissolves in a solvent?
80 out of 130
81.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In a chemical system, the term "activity" is best described as:
81 out of 130
82.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In electrochemistry, what is the Nernst equation primarily used to calculate?
82 out of 130
83.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In a chemical reaction at equilibrium, which of the following changes will shift the equilibrium position to the right according to Le Chatelier's Principle?
83 out of 130
84.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
What is the primary reason for the increase in entropy (disorder) in a system when a solid dissolves in a solvent?
84 out of 130
85.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In a reaction where the rate-determining step is the second step of a multi-step mechanism, which of the following is most likely true?
85 out of 130
86.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In a chemical reaction obeying Arrhenius equation, what effect does an increase in temperature have on the rate constant (k)?
86 out of 130
87.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In the context of statistical thermodynamics, the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution primarily describes the:
87 out of 130
88.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
What is the significance of the term "enthalpy" (H) in a chemical reaction?
88 out of 130
89.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
What is the effect of a catalyst on the equilibrium constant (K) of a reversible chemical reaction?
89 out of 130
90.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In a homogenous catalysis, the catalyst:
90 out of 130
91.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In molecular spectroscopy, what does the term "rotational transition" refer to?
91 out of 130
92.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
The term "phase diagram" in physical chemistry is best described as:
92 out of 130
93.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
The term "Hammett equation" in physical organic chemistry is used to relate:
93 out of 130
94.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
The Clausius-Clapeyron equation is used to estimate:
94 out of 130
95.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In quantum chemistry, the term "orbital hybridization" refers to:
95 out of 130
96.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
For a reaction that follows the Arrhenius equation, what is the significance of the Arrhenius pre-exponential factor (
96 out of 130
97.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In the context of electrochemistry, what does a positive electrode potential indicate?
97 out of 130
98.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In a reaction mechanism, a "rate-determining step" is characterized by:
98 out of 130
99.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In a gas mixture, Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures states that the total pressure is:
99 out of 130
100.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In a chemical reaction, the transition state refers to:
100 out of 130
101.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
What is the primary purpose of a guard column in HPLC?
101 out of 130
102.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
Which technique would be most appropriate for separating and identifying small amounts of different proteins in a complex mixture?
102 out of 130
103.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
In analytical chemistry, what is the primary advantage of using a flame ionization detector FID in gas chromatography?
103 out of 130
104.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
In chromatography, what is the term for the ratio of the time a solute spends in the stationary phase to the time it spends in the mobile phase?
104 out of 130
105.
GRE Chemistry: Analytical Chemistry
What is the primary purpose of using an internal standard in quantitative analytical chemistry?
105 out of 130
106.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following statements is true about a coordination complex with a coordination number of 6?
106 out of 130
107.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following is not a characteristic of ionic compounds?
107 out of 130
108.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
In the periodic table, moving down the group 1 elements, what trend is observed in the atomic radius?
108 out of 130
109.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
What is the most likely oxidation state of sulfur in the thiosulfate ion (S\(_2\)O\(_3\)\(^{2-}\))?
109 out of 130
110.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which one of the following is a characteristic property of a metallic bond?
110 out of 130
111.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
Which of the following correctly defines the electron affinity?
111 out of 130
112.
GRE Chemistry Practice Test: Inorganic Chemistry
In which of the following ions is the central atom expected to exhibit sp\(^3\)d\(^2\) hybridization?
112 out of 130
113.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In the context of chemical kinetics, the steady-state approximation is often used to:
113 out of 130
114.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
The quantum mechanical model of the atom differs from the Bohr model in that it:
114 out of 130
115.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
The Bronsted-Lowry theory of acids and bases differs from the Lewis theory in that it:
115 out of 130
116.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In photochemistry, the quantum yield of a reaction is defined as the ratio of:
116 out of 130
117.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In surface chemistry, the term "adsorption" refers to:
117 out of 130
118.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
The concept of "chemical potential" in thermodynamics is used to describe:
118 out of 130
119.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
The concept of "fugacity" in real gases is introduced to:
119 out of 130
120.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In molecular symmetry, the term "chirality" refers to:
120 out of 130
121.
GRE Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
In electrochemistry, the overpotential is necessary to:
121 out of 130
122.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In organic chemistry, which reagent is most appropriate for converting a primary alcohol to an aldehyde?
122 out of 130
123.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What type of reaction mechanism is involved in the nitration of benzene?
123 out of 130
124.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In an SN2 reaction, what is the effect of increasing steric hindrance at the carbon center undergoing substitution?
124 out of 130
125.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
Which compound would exhibit the highest boiling point?
125 out of 130
126.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In Diels-Alder reactions, what type of diene is most reactive?
126 out of 130
127.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
Which of the following is the major product of an E2 elimination reaction?
127 out of 130
128.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the stereochemical outcome of a syn-addition reaction?
128 out of 130
129.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
What is the role of a catalyst in a reaction mechanism?
129 out of 130
130.
GRE Chemistry: Organic Chemistry
In the presence of a strong acid, what is the most likely reaction pathway for an alcohol?
130 out of 130
