1.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
Which type of attack involves flooding a target system with traffic to exhaust resources and bandwidth, rendering the system unresponsive?
1 out of 90
2.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
In the context of cybersecurity, what is 'social engineering'?
2 out of 90
3.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
Which of the following is a type of malware that requires user interaction to activate and replicate, often disguised as legitimate software?
3 out of 90
4.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
In cybersecurity, what is a 'honeypot' primarily used for?
4 out of 90
5.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
What is the primary purpose of a 'zero-day' exploit in cybersecurity?
5 out of 90
6.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
Which type of attack is characterized by the insertion or "injection" of a SQL query via the input data from the client to the application?
6 out of 90
7.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
What type of cyber attack involves intercepting and altering communications between two parties without their knowledge?
7 out of 90
8.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
What is a 'buffer overflow' attack in the context of cybersecurity?
8 out of 90
9.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
In cybersecurity, what does 'phishing' primarily refer to?
9 out of 90
10.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
Which type of cybersecurity attack involves exploiting vulnerabilities in web applications by sending malicious scripts to end users?
10 out of 90
11.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
What kind of attack involves the unauthorized interception and retransmission of a valid data transmission, often to bypass authentication processes?
11 out of 90
12.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
In cybersecurity, what is 'vishing'?
12 out of 90
13.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
Which type of cybersecurity threat involves exploiting a flaw in software before a patch or solution is implemented?
13 out of 90
14.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
In the context of cybersecurity, what is 'spear phishing'?
14 out of 90
15.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
What is the primary purpose of 'watering hole' attacks in cybersecurity?
15 out of 90
16.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
Which cybersecurity term describes a small piece of data used to identify and authenticate a user's session?
16 out of 90
17.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
What is the main difference between a virus and a worm in the context of cybersecurity threats?
17 out of 90
18.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
What type of cyber attack uses multiple compromised systems to target a single system, causing a Denial of Service (DoS)?
18 out of 90
19.
CompTIA Security+: Threats Attacks and Vulnerabilities
In cybersecurity, what does 'ransomware' do?
19 out of 90
20.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
What is the primary purpose of a HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System)?
20 out of 90
21.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
What is the primary purpose of the tcpdump tool in network security?
21 out of 90
22.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
What is the primary purpose of using a WAF (Web Application Firewall)?
22 out of 90
23.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
In the context of network security, what is the main function of an IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)?
23 out of 90
24.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
In cybersecurity, what is the primary function of a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system?
24 out of 90
25.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
Which tool is primarily used for vulnerability scanning in a network?
25 out of 90
26.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
Which technology is most effective for preventing data leakage via email?
26 out of 90
27.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
Which of the following is a primary use case for a protocol analyzer in network security?
27 out of 90
28.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
What is the primary security function of a UTM (Unified Threat Management) appliance?
28 out of 90
29.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
In a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), what is the role of a Certificate Authority (C
29 out of 90
30.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
Which security technology is primarily used to inspect SSL/TLS encrypted traffic at the perimeter of a network?
30 out of 90
31.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
What is the main function of a CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)?
31 out of 90
32.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
In the context of digital forensics, what is the main purpose of a write blocker?
32 out of 90
33.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
What is the primary purpose of a Network Access Control NAC system?
33 out of 90
34.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
In network security, what is the primary purpose of using a honeypot?
34 out of 90
35.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
Which tool is used in cybersecurity to simulate attacks on a system or network to identify vulnerabilities?
35 out of 90
36.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
In cybersecurity, what is the primary function of a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW)?
36 out of 90
37.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
Which technology is essential for securing a network against Zero Day exploits?
37 out of 90
38.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
What is the primary use of a Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)?
38 out of 90
39.
CompTIA Security+: Technologies and Tools
In network security, what is the main function of an IDS (Intrusion Detection System)?
39 out of 90
40.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
What is the primary security function of a WAF (Web Application Firewall)?
40 out of 90
41.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
Which technology is primarily used for isolating network traffic to improve security and performance in a virtualized environment?
41 out of 90
42.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
What is the primary function of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) / Transport Layer Security (TLS) in network security?
42 out of 90
43.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
In the context of cloud computing, what is the main purpose of a Cloud Access Security Broker CASB?
43 out of 90
44.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
Which of the following is a security concept that ensures that data is only modified by authorized users and in authorized ways?
44 out of 90
45.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
In the context of secure network design, what is the primary purpose of a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)?
45 out of 90
46.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
In a security context, what is the main purpose of employing a honeypot in a network?
46 out of 90
47.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
In cybersecurity, what is the primary purpose of employing containerization?
47 out of 90
48.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
What is the primary function of a network-based Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)?
48 out of 90
49.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
Which of the following best describes the concept of defense in depth in network security?
49 out of 90
50.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
In network security, what is the main purpose of a VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)?
50 out of 90
51.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
What is the primary purpose of implementing an IDS (Intrusion Detection System) in tandem with an IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)?
51 out of 90
52.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
What is the primary purpose of a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system in a cybersecurity infrastructure?
52 out of 90
53.
CompTIA Security+: Architecture and Design
In a cloud computing environment, what is the primary security benefit of implementing microsegmentation?
53 out of 90
54.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
What is the primary security concern addressed by the implementation of a Zero Trust model?
54 out of 90
55.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
Which authentication protocol primarily relies on tickets for client-server authentication and does not transmit passwords over the network?
55 out of 90
56.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
In Identity and Access Management, what is the primary purpose of a Federation Service?
56 out of 90
57.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
What is the primary function of TACACS+ in network security?
57 out of 90
58.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
Which of the following best describes a 'Privileged Access Management' (PAM) system?
58 out of 90
59.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
Which authentication factor category does a fingerprint scanner fall under?
59 out of 90
60.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
In a Single Sign-On (SSO) implementation, what is the primary security risk?
60 out of 90
61.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
Which term best describes a system where different authentication methods are used at different times or in different contexts for the same user?
61 out of 90
62.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
In the context of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), what role does the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) play?
62 out of 90
63.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
What is the main advantage of implementing a Role-Based Access Control RBAC system in an organization?
63 out of 90
64.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
What is the main purpose of implementing a Directory Service in network security?
64 out of 90
65.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
In a PKI, what is the function of a Key Escrow?
65 out of 90
66.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
In Identity and Access Management, what is a primary security feature of using smart cards as an authentication factor?
66 out of 90
67.
CompTIA Security+: Identity and Access Management
Which access control model dynamically assigns roles to users based on attributes and environmental conditions?
67 out of 90
68.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
Which of the following best describes a 'risk register' in the context of risk management?
68 out of 90
69.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
In risk management, what does the term 'risk appetite' refer to?
69 out of 90
70.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
In the context of risk management, what is 'residual risk'?
70 out of 90
71.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
Which term describes the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing their likelihood and impact?
71 out of 90
72.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
In the context of risk management, what is 'risk transference'?
72 out of 90
73.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
What is the primary purpose of 'quantitative risk analysis' in risk management?
73 out of 90
74.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
Which approach in risk management prioritizes risks based on their severity and likelihood of occurrence?
74 out of 90
75.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
In risk management, what is the primary purpose of 'Continuous Monitoring'?
75 out of 90
76.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
Which document in risk management outlines the overall risk strategy and policies of an organization?
76 out of 90
77.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
What role does 'Due Diligence' play in risk management?
77 out of 90
78.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
Which concept in risk management involves determining the impact of an adverse event that may affect the assets, resources, or operations of an organization?
78 out of 90
79.
CompTIA Security+: Risk Management
In risk management, what does 'Annual Loss Expectancy' (ALE) represent?
79 out of 90
80.
CompTIA Security+: Cryptography and PKI
In cryptography, what is the main purpose of a Certificate Revocation List (CRL)?
80 out of 90
81.
CompTIA Security+: Cryptography and PKI
Which cryptographic principle prevents the sender of a message from denying the message's content and transmission?
81 out of 90
82.
CompTIA Security+: Cryptography and PKI
Which cryptographic attack involves attempting to decrypt a cipher by trying every possible key?
82 out of 90
83.
CompTIA Security+: Cryptography and PKI
In the context of public key infrastructure (PKI), what is the role of a Certificate Authority (C
83 out of 90
84.
CompTIA Security+: Cryptography and PKI
What is the main difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption?
84 out of 90
85.
CompTIA Security+: Cryptography and PKI
In asymmetric cryptography, what is the primary purpose of a digital signature?
85 out of 90
86.
CompTIA Security+: Cryptography and PKI
Which property of cryptographic hash functions ensures that, if two different messages produce the same hash, it's computationally infeasible to find them?
86 out of 90
87.
CompTIA Security+: Cryptography and PKI
In the context of PKI, what does the term 'chain of trust' refer to?
87 out of 90
88.
CompTIA Security+: Cryptography and PKI
What cryptographic concept involves the use of two keys, a public key for encryption, and a private key for decryption?
88 out of 90
89.
CompTIA Security+: Cryptography and PKI
Which of the following algorithms is not a symmetric key algorithm?
89 out of 90
90.
CompTIA Security+: Cryptography and PKI
What cryptographic concept involves splitting data into parts where individual parts do not reveal the whole?
90 out of 90