CCT Practice Test Welcome to your CCT Practice Test 1. CCT: Conducting Pre-procedural Activities Prior to conducting an ECG, what is the most critical step to ensure the patient's skin is conducive for electrode placement? Shaving excessive hair at the electrode sites Applying a thick layer of gel on the electrode sites Administering an antipyretic if the patient has a fever Ensuring the patient has been fasting for at least 6 hours None 2. CCT: Conducting Pre-procedural Activities In the context of holter monitor placement, why is it important to verify the patient's understanding of the device's operation? To ensure they do not tamper with the device To confirm they know how to replace electrodes if they come off To guarantee they understand the importance of maintaining normal daily activities To make sure they avoid showering or bathing during the monitoring period None 3. CCT: Conducting Pre-procedural Activities When explaining the procedure for a 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to a patient, what is the most important instruction to emphasize? The need to stay within a close proximity to the testing facility The requirement to document meals and medication times The importance of keeping the monitoring device dry The necessity of remaining physically inactive during the test None 4. CCT: Conducting Pre-procedural Activities What is the primary reason for performing a skin sensitivity test before attaching long-term monitoring electrodes? To determine the patient's pain threshold To check for potential allergic reactions to the electrode adhesive To assess the skin's conductivity level To ensure the electrodes will remain affixed for the required duration None 5. CCT: Conducting Pre-procedural Activities How should a technician ensure that a telemetry unit is functioning correctly before patient application? By performing a battery check and signal strength test By confirming the unit's waterproof rating By checking the unit's compatibility with different ECG leads By ensuring the device's memory is fully cleared from previous patients None 6. CCT: Conducting Pre-procedural Activities When preparing a patient for an ECG, why is it important to ensure the patient's torso is exposed? To facilitate easy removal in case of an emergency To prevent artifacts caused by static electricity from clothing To ensure proper ventilation and prevent overheating To allow for the immediate application of defibrillation pads if needed None 7. CCT: Conducting Pre-procedural Activities Why is it essential to confirm the patient's identity before conducting any cardiographic procedure? To ensure that the patient's billing information is accurate To prevent potential legal issues To avoid performing the procedure on the wrong patient To tailor the procedure according to the patient's medical history None 8. CCT: Conducting Pre-procedural Activities In the context of pre-procedural activities, why is it important for a technician to review the patient's current medications? To adjust the medication dosages before the procedure To understand potential effects on the patient's heart rate and rhythm To ensure the patient has taken all their medications on time To check for contraindications with the contrast agent None 9. CCT: Conducting Pre-procedural Activities What is the primary purpose of explaining the procedure and obtaining informed consent from a patient before a cardiographic test? To fulfill insurance requirements To ensure the patient is aware of potential risks and benefits To allow the patient to refuse the test To provide legal protection for the technician None 10. CCT: Conducting Pre-procedural Activities When instructing a patient on how to prepare for a tilt table test, what is the most critical piece of information to convey? The need to maintain a strict posture during the test The importance of fasting for several hours before the test The requirement to bring a family member or friend The necessity of discontinuing certain medications before the test None 11. CCT: Performing ECG What is the appropriate action if a patient experiences a vasovagal reaction during an ECG procedure? Continue the ECG as planned Elevate the patient's legs and monitor vital signs Immediately stop the ECG and sit the patient up Administer anti-arrhythmic medication as a precaution None 12. CCT: Performing ECG In ECG interpretation, what does a significantly elevated ST segment suggest? Myocardial infarction Atrial fibrillation Ventricular tachycardia Sinus bradycardia None 13. CCT: Performing ECG How should the skin be prepared before attaching ECG electrodes to ensure optimal signal quality? Apply a thick layer of gel on the skin Shave the area if it is hairy, then clean with alcohol Attach the electrodes over clothing for patient comfort Use adhesive tape to secure the electrodes if the patient sweats None 14. CCT: Performing ECG During a 12-lead ECG, where should the V4 electrode be placed? In the fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line In the second intercostal space, right sternal border At the fourth intercostal space, right sternal border On the left anterior axillary line, fifth intercostal space None 15. CCT: Performing ECG What is the significance of ensuring that the ground electrode is properly attached during an ECG recording? It helps in amplifying the heart's electrical signals It reduces the risk of electric shock to the patient It minimizes interference and enhances signal clarity It increases the speed of the ECG recording process None 16. CCT: Performing ECG When performing a 12-lead ECG, what is the impact of incorrectly placing the limb leads? It will invert the PQRST complexes throughout the ECG It may simulate pathological conditions, leading to misdiagnosis It will cancel out the heart's electrical activity, resulting in a flat line It will double the amplitude of the electrical signals recorded None 17. CCT: Performing ECG What is the most appropriate course of action if the ECG machine starts to display a flat line during a test? Immediately perform CPR on the patient Check the patient's pulse and respiration Assume there is an error with the ECG machine or electrodes Increase the gain on the ECG machine None 18. CCT: Performing ECG When analyzing an ECG, what does a prolonged QT interval indicate? Hyperkalemia Risk of ventricular arrhythmias Digitalis effect Atrial enlargement None 19. CCT: Performing ECG What adjustment should be made when the ECG trace shows small and low voltage QRS complexes throughout the leads? Decrease the paper speed Increase the gain or amplitude setting Switch the lead cables Re-calibrate the ECG machine None 20. CCT: Performing ECG In the context of ECG, what does the term 'electrical axis' refer to? The total duration of the ventricular depolarization process The primary direction of the heart's electrical activity The voltage difference between the limb leads The speed of the heart's electrical impulses None 21. CCT: Performing ECG Why is it crucial to inform the patient to remain still and avoid talking during an ECG recording? It prevents the machine from overheating It reduces the risk of electrode detachment It ensures the patient's comfort and relaxation It minimizes motion artifacts on the ECG trace None 22. CCT: Performing ECG What is the primary concern when an ECG shows a 'tombstone' appearance in the ST segment? Hypercalcemia Acute myocardial infarction Pericarditis Ventricular hypertrophy None 23. CCT: Performing ECG Which lead placement is recommended to best capture the electrical activity of the lateral wall of the left ventricle? Leads V5 and V6 Leads II, III, and aVF Leads V1 and V2 Leads I and aVL None 24. CCT: Performing ECG In ECG, what does a sawtooth pattern in the inferior leads typically indicate? Atrial flutter Ventricular fibrillation Atrial fibrillation Right bundle branch block None 25. CCT: Performing ECG What should be the initial step if an ECG lead consistently shows no electrical activity? Administer anti-arrhythmic medication Replace the ECG machine Check and re-secure the electrode connection Increase the paper speed None 26. CCT: Performing ECG When performing a pediatric ECG, why is it important to adjust the electrode size and placement? To enhance the electrical conductivity To prevent skin irritation To accommodate the smaller body size To increase the ECG recording speed None 27. CCT: Performing ECG How can you differentiate between ventricular tachycardia and supraventricular tachycardia with aberrant conduction on an ECG? Ventricular tachycardia will have a narrower QRS complex Supraventricular tachycardia will show a 'sawtooth' pattern Ventricular tachycardia typically presents with a wide QRS complex Supraventricular tachycardia always presents with a P wave before each QRS None 28. CCT: Performing ECG What is the implication of an inverted U wave on an ECG? Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Myocardial ischemia None 29. CCT: Performing ECG During an ECG, why is it crucial to avoid electrode placement over bony prominences? To prevent discomfort or pain to the patient To reduce impedance and improve signal quality To avoid misinterpretation of the heart's electrical axis To prevent movement of the electrodes during the recording None 30. CCT: Performing ECG What does a consistent PR interval prolongation indicate on an ECG? First-degree atrioventricular block Second-degree atrioventricular block Third-degree atrioventricular block Atrial fibrillation None 31. CCT: Performing ECG Why is it essential to ensure the patient's limbs are not crossed during an ECG recording? It can lead to an inaccurate heart rate calculation It may introduce additional electrical interference It can alter the limb lead measurements and axis interpretation It increases the risk of electrode detachment None 32. CCT: Performing ECG What is the best course of action if an ECG recording exhibits intermittent interruptions in the tracing? Adjust the machine's filter settings Check for loose or faulty electrode connections Increase the gain setting Decrease the paper speed None 33. CCT: Performing ECG In which scenario would you use a right-sided ECG lead placement? Suspected left ventricular hypertrophy Evaluation of a right ventricular infarction Monitoring for atrial fibrillation Assessment of the QT interval None 34. CCT: Performing ECG What is the implication of a delta wave observed on an ECG? Ventricular fibrillation Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome Atrial flutter First-degree heart block None 35. CCT: Performing ECG When observing a prolonged PR interval that suddenly drops a QRS complex, what condition should be suspected? First-degree AV block Second-degree AV block, Mobitz type I Second-degree AV block, Mobitz type II Third-degree AV block None 36. CCT: Performing ECG What does a bifid P wave on an ECG typically indicate? Left atrial enlargement Right atrial enlargement Ventricular hypertrophy Myocardial ischemia None 37. CCT: Performing ECG In the context of ECG, what does electrical alternans primarily suggest? Pericardial effusion Myocardial infarction Hyperkalemia Ventricular hypertrophy None 38. CCT: Performing ECG How should the electrode be placed to monitor the posterior wall of the heart? On the left scapular area In the standard V1 and V2 positions In the V7 to V9 positions along the left posterior axillary line On the right chest area None 39. CCT: Performing ECG What does the presence of Q waves in leads V1 to V3 suggest on an ECG? Left ventricular hypertrophy Anteroseptal myocardial infarction Lateral myocardial infarction Right ventricular overload None 40. CCT: Performing ECG What is the clinical significance of observing tall R waves in lead V1 on an ECG? Right ventricular hypertrophy Left ventricular hypertrophy Posterior myocardial infarction Anterior myocardial infarction None 41. CCT: Performing ECG How is the heart's axis determined on an ECG? By the amplitude of the P wave By the direction of the QRS complex in the limb leads By the duration of the QT interval By the polarity of the T wave None 42. CCT: Performing ECG What does a notched R wave in leads V5 and V6 suggest on an ECG? Right bundle branch block Left bundle branch block Atrial fibrillation Ventricular tachycardia None 43. CCT: Performing ECG In which condition is an ECG most likely to show ST-segment elevation in all leads? Acute pericarditis Pulmonary embolism Acute myocardial infarction Hyperkalemia None 44. CCT: Performing ECG When assessing an ECG, what does a monophasic R wave progression in the precordial leads suggest? Normal variant Anterior myocardial infarction Ventricular aneurysm Electrode misplacement None 45. CCT: Performing ECG What is the clinical significance of an ECG showing Osborn waves (J waves)? Hypothermia or hypercalcemia Myocardial ischemia Ventricular fibrillation Hyperkalemia None 46. CCT: Performing ECG In the context of an ECG, what does the presence of peaked T waves indicate? Hypocalcemia Hyperkalemia Hypokalemia Hypercalcemia None 47. CCT: Performing ECG What is indicated by a PR interval shorter than 120 ms on an ECG? Accelerated AV nodal conduction AV block Myocardial ischemia Atrial enlargement None 48. CCT: Performing ECG How should you interpret a regular rhythm with a rate of 250 beats per minute and wide QRS complexes on an ECG? Atrial flutter with rapid ventricular response Ventricular tachycardia Supraventricular tachycardia with aberrancy Sinus tachycardia None 49. CCT: Performing ECG When interpreting an ECG, what does a biphasic P wave in lead V1 suggest? Left atrial enlargement Right atrial enlargement Atrial septal defect Mitral valve prolapse None 50. CCT: Performing Stress Tests During a stress test, a patient exhibits a drop in blood pressure along with dizziness and nausea. This is indicative of: Positive ischemic response Rate-related left bundle branch block Hypotensive response Normal exercise response None 51. CCT: Performing Stress Tests When performing a stress test, which of the following is the most appropriate action if a patient develops ventricular tachycardia? Continue the test, monitoring the patient closely Administer a beta-blocker immediately Terminate the test and initiate appropriate emergency care Decrease the treadmill speed slightly and observe None 52. CCT: Performing Stress Tests In the context of exercise stress testing, the term "double product" refers to: Heart rate multiplied by systolic blood pressure Heart rate multiplied by diastolic blood pressure Diastolic blood pressure plus systolic blood pressure Heart rate plus systolic blood pressure None 53. CCT: Performing Stress Tests A patient undergoing a treadmill stress test suddenly develops a wide QRS complex with no preceding P wave. This is most indicative of: Atrial fibrillation Ventricular tachycardia Supraventricular tachycardia Complete heart block None 54. CCT: Performing Stress Tests The Bruce protocol in a stress test involves: A steady increase in speed and incline every 3 minutes A steady increase in incline only, keeping speed constant An initial high incline that decreases over time A constant speed and incline throughout the test None 55. CCT: Performing Stress Tests If a patient's stress test is terminated due to ST-segment elevation, what is the most likely underlying condition? Myocardial infarction Stable angina Unstable angina Vasospastic angina None 56. CCT: Performing Stress Tests In stress testing, a 'false positive' result refers to: An indication of coronary artery disease when none exists An indication of no coronary artery disease when it is present Accurate detection of myocardial ischemia Accurate identification of ventricular hypertrophy None 57. CCT: Performing Stress Tests The appropriate action if a patient experiences severe shortness of breath during a stress test is to: Increase the intensity to complete the test quickly Maintain the current intensity and monitor symptoms Terminate the test and monitor the patient Switch from treadmill to a stationary bike None 58. CCT: Performing Stress Tests What is the significance of a downsloping ST-segment during a stress test? It is generally considered a normal response It may indicate myocardial ischemia It signifies an excellent cardiovascular response to exercise It indicates a decrease in blood pressure None 59. CCT: Performing Stress Tests When a patient develops a second-degree AV block Type II during a stress test, the technician should: Decrease the treadmill speed by half Continue the test while closely observing the patient Immediately stop the test and provide necessary assistance Switch to a pharmacological stress test None 60. CCT: Performing Ambulatory Monitoring When analyzing a Holter monitor recording, what is the significance of identifying a Mobitz Type II second-degree AV block? It indicates a high risk of progression to third-degree AV block. It signifies improved cardiac function. It represents normal heart rhythm variation. It indicates an artifact caused by poor electrode placement. None 61. CCT: Performing Ambulatory Monitoring During ambulatory monitoring, a patient exhibits a pattern of grouped beating. This is most likely indicative of which of the following? Sinus arrhythmia Bigeminy Atrial fibrillation Ventricular tachycardia None 62. CCT: Performing Ambulatory Monitoring What is the primary concern when a patient undergoing Holter monitoring experiences episodes of ventricular tachycardia (VT)? VT may progress to ventricular fibrillation. It can indicate an electrolyte imbalance. VT is typically asymptomatic. It may necessitate a pacemaker implantation. None 63. CCT: Performing Ambulatory Monitoring In the context of ambulatory monitoring, what is the significance of a prolonged QT interval? It indicates an increased risk of torsades de pointes. It suggests a slow heart rate. It is a common finding and typically benign. It indicates an artifact and requires no further action. None 64. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis When interpreting a 12-lead ECG, which lead is crucial for identifying atrial enlargement? Lead I Lead II Lead V1 Lead V5 None 65. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis In ECG analysis, how is the axis deviation determined in the presence of a right bundle branch block 'RBBB'? By the direction of the QRS complex in leads I and aVF By the S wave depth in lead V1 By the R wave progression in the chest leads By the PR interval in leads II and III None 66. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis What ECG feature is indicative of a ventricular tachycardia? Narrow QRS complex P wave before each QRS complex Wide QRS complex without preceding P wave Regular R-R interval with a rate of 60-100 bpm None 67. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis In the context of atrial flutter, which characteristic is most indicative of the condition on an ECG? Sawtooth-like flutter waves at a rate of 250-350 bpm Prolonged PR interval Consistently wide QRS complexes Randomly occurring P waves None 68. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis How is a premature ventricular contraction 'PVC' identified on an ECG? A QRS complex that is narrow and preceded by a P wave A QRS complex that occurs earlier than expected, is wide, and not preceded by a P wave A QRS complex that is wide and followed by a compensatory pause Both B and C are correct None 69. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis What is the significance of a U wave on an ECG? It indicates severe hypokalemia. It is a normal variant and has no clinical significance. It can be associated with conditions like hypercalcemia or hypokalemia. It signifies an imminent ventricular tachycardia. None 70. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis On an ECG, how is an atrial fibrillation identified? Regular R-R intervals Presence of distinct P waves before each QRS complex Irregularly irregular R-R intervals and absence of distinct P waves Wide QRS complexes at a rate of less than 60 bpm None 71. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis Which ECG finding is indicative of a first-degree atrioventricular block? PR interval less than 0.12 seconds PR interval consistently more than 0.20 seconds Alternating short and long PR intervals Absence of a QRS complex following each P wave None 72. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis What does a delta wave on an ECG signify? Presence of an accessory conduction pathway Indication of myocardial infarction Sign of a prolonged QT interval Evidence of a second-degree AV block None 73. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis How is electrical alternans best identified on an ECG? By varying amplitude of the QRS complexes Through the presence of an additional P wave By a consistent pattern of ST segment elevation Through the alternating polarity of T waves None 74. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis What is the most likely ECG finding in a case of hyperkalemia? Peaked T waves Absence of P waves Short QT interval Wide, flattened T waves None 75. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis In the context of ECG interpretation, what does a 'saddleback' ST segment represent? Myocardial infarction Brugada syndrome Pericarditis Early repolarization None 76. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis Which condition is characterized by a short PR interval and a broad QRS complex with slurred upstroke in the ECG? Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome Long QT syndrome Atrial fibrillation Ventricular tachycardia None 77. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis On an ECG, what does an inverted T wave generally indicate? Normal cardiac function Myocardial ischemia Ventricular hypertrophy Atrial enlargement None 78. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis What rhythm is characterized by a sawtooth pattern of atrial activity with a variable ventricular response? Atrial flutter with variable conduction Ventricular fibrillation Sinus rhythm Atrial fibrillation None 79. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis What ECG changes are typical in a patient with left ventricular hypertrophy? Tall R waves in lead V1 Deep S waves in lead V1 and tall R waves in lead V5 or V6 Prolonged PR interval Decreased R wave amplitude in lead V5 None 80. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis An ECG that shows regular R-R intervals with a rate of 150 bpm, no visible P waves, and broad QRS complexes is most indicative of what? Sinus tachycardia Atrial fibrillation Supraventricular tachycardia Ventricular tachycardia None 81. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a Mobitz Type II second-degree AV block on an ECG? Progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped A dropped QRS complex without a preceding change in the PR interval Alternating long and short PR intervals Presence of an additional P wave for every QRS complex None 82. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis How is sinus arrhythmia identified on an ECG? By a consistent P wave morphology with varying R-R intervals By a consistent R-R interval with varying P wave morphology By the absence of P waves before each QRS complex By a consistent PR interval but variable QRS width None 83. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis On an ECG, what is the significance of a biphasic P wave in lead V1? Right atrial enlargement Left atrial enlargement Ventricular hypertrophy Myocardial ischemia None 84. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis In the context of ECG interpretation, what does the presence of Q waves in leads II, III, and aVF suggest? Normal cardiac activity Inferior wall myocardial infarction Anterior wall myocardial infarction Lateral wall myocardial infarction None 85. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis What is indicated by a PR interval greater than 0.20 seconds in a child's ECG? First-degree atrioventricular block Normal pediatric ECG pattern Sinus bradycardia Sinus tachycardia None 86. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis On an ECG, how is a junctional escape rhythm identified? By P waves that occur after the QRS complex By the absence of P waves with a narrow QRS complex By a wide QRS complex without preceding P waves By P waves with an inverted morphology preceding the QRS complex None 87. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis What ECG findings are typical of a patient with hypothermia? Tall T waves Osborn waves (J waves) Peaked P waves Widened QRS complexes None 88. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis Which rhythm is characterized by three or more consecutive premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)? Ventricular bigeminy Ventricular trigeminy Ventricular tachycardia Ventricular fibrillation None 89. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis An ECG shows a regular rhythm with a heart rate of 75 bpm, P waves inverted in leads II, III, and aVF, and a normal QRS complex. What is the most likely rhythm? Sinus rhythm Atrial tachycardia Junctional rhythm Ventricular rhythm None 90. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis What does a QR pattern in the V1 lead of an ECG suggest? Right ventricular hypertrophy Left ventricular hypertrophy Anterior myocardial infarction Posterior myocardial infarction None 91. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis In an ECG, what does a monomorphic V tachycardia imply? The ventricular tachycardia has varying QRS complex morphologies. The ventricular tachycardia originates from multiple ectopic foci. The ventricular tachycardia has a consistent QRS complex shape. The QRS complexes alternate in polarity. None 92. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis Which of the following ECG characteristics is consistent with a diagnosis of torsades de pointes? A rapid, regular ventricular rate with a narrow QRS complex A slow, irregular ventricular rate with a wide QRS complex A rapid, irregular ventricular rate with changing QRS morphology A consistent ventricular rate with biphasic QRS complexes None 93. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis On an ECG, which finding is characteristic of a Type 1 Brugada pattern? ST elevation in leads I and aVL with a negative T wave Coved ST elevation in leads V1 to V3 followed by a negative T wave Saddleback ST elevation in leads V1 to V3 ST depression and T wave inversion in leads V5 and V6 None 94. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis What is the primary ECG characteristic of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome? Prolonged PR interval Delta wave Peaked T waves ST-segment elevation None 95. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis In ECG interpretation, what is the significance of a notched R wave in the right precordial leads? Right atrial enlargement Left atrial enlargement Right ventricular hypertrophy Left ventricular hypertrophy None 96. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis An ECG that displays a regular rhythm, heart rate of 100 bpm, P waves hidden within QRS complexes, and a PR interval less than 0.12 seconds is indicative of what? Sinus rhythm Atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT) Ventricular tachycardia Atrial flutter None 97. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis On an ECG, a PR interval that progressively lengthens until a QRS complex is dropped characterizes which type of block? First-degree AV block Second-degree AV block, Mobitz Type I (Wenckebach) Second-degree AV block, Mobitz Type II Third-degree (complete) AV block None 98. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis An ECG showing a regular rhythm with a heart rate of 160 bpm, absent P waves, and a wide QRS complex most likely indicates what condition? Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) Atrial fibrillation Ventricular tachycardia Ventricular fibrillation None 99. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis What is suggested by the presence of a significant Q wave and ST elevation in leads V1 to V4 on an ECG? Inferior myocardial infarction Anterior myocardial infarction Lateral myocardial infarction Posterior myocardial infarction None 100. CCT: Performing Rhythm Analysis An ECG with a heart rate of 120 bpm, narrow QRS complexes, and a 'sawtooth' appearance in the inferior leads is most indicative of what? Atrial tachycardia Atrial flutter Atrial fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation None 1 out of 100 Time is Up! Time's up
