1.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
Which phenomenon explains the improvement in hearing threshold when a sound is presented binaurally compared to monaurally?
1 out of 120
2.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
In audiology, which test is specifically designed to assess the function of the superior olivary complex in the brainstem?
2 out of 120
3.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
Which of the following factors most significantly influences the speed of sound propagation in human tissue?
3 out of 120
4.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
The phenomenon where a bilateral hearing aid user perceives a single auditory image in the center of the head, despite sound stimulation to both ears, is known as:
4 out of 120
5.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
In the context of auditory neuropathy, which characteristic is typically observed in otoacoustic emissions (OAEs) and auditory brainstem responses (ABRs)?
5 out of 120
6.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
Which of the following best describes the primary role of the stapedius muscle in the auditory system?
6 out of 120
7.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
In auditory signal processing, the phenomenon where a sound's perceived location is affected by the frequency content is known as:
7 out of 120
8.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
Which of the following best describes the primary function of the efferent auditory pathway?
8 out of 120
9.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
What is the primary auditory deficit associated with damage to the hair cells at the base of the cochlea?
9 out of 120
10.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
The phenomenon where a person perceives a sound to be louder in one ear than in the other, despite being presented at equal levels, is known as:
10 out of 120
11.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
In audiological diagnostics, what is the primary purpose of using masking noise during pure-tone audiometry?
11 out of 120
12.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
What principle underlies the use of otoacoustic emissions (OAEs) in audiological assessments?
12 out of 120
13.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
What is the primary audiological concern associated with presbycusis?
13 out of 120
14.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
The auditory phenomenon where two tones close in frequency produce a beating sensation is known as:
14 out of 120
15.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
In terms of auditory processing disorders, the difficulty in understanding speech in the presence of background noise is referred to as:
15 out of 120
16.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
In the context of audiology, the term "temporal resolution" primarily refers to an individual's ability to:
16 out of 120
17.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
The Weber test in audiology is used primarily to:
17 out of 120
18.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
What is the primary diagnostic utility of the Spondee Threshold (SRT) in audiological evaluations?
18 out of 120
19.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
What is the primary audiological implication of a steeply sloping audiogram configuration?
19 out of 120
20.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
The term "recruitment" in audiology is best defined as:
20 out of 120
21.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
In the context of central auditory processing disorders, the difficulty in focusing on one sound source in the presence of competing background noise is termed:
21 out of 120
22.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
The primary purpose of the QuickSIN test in audiological evaluations is to assess:
22 out of 120
23.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
The primary role of the medial olivocochlear bundle in the auditory system is to:
23 out of 120
24.
Praxis Audiology: Foundations of Audiology
In audiological testing, the "rollover" effect is most commonly associated with:
24 out of 120
25.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
In newborn hearing screening, the use of Automated Auditory Brainstem Response (AABR) primarily aims to:
25 out of 120
26.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
What is the primary focus of an educational audiologist in a school setting?
26 out of 120
27.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
The primary goal of Tinnitus Retraining Therapy (TRT) in a prevention and screening context is to:
27 out of 120
28.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
What is the primary purpose of acoustic immittance testing in audiological screening?
28 out of 120
29.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
The primary goal of universal newborn hearing screening (UNHS) programs is to:
29 out of 120
30.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
What is the key objective of presbycusis screening in older adults?
30 out of 120
31.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
In audiological screening, what is the main advantage of using otoacoustic emissions (OAE) testing in infants and young children?
31 out of 120
32.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
In the context of hearing screening, the term "minimal hearing loss" typically refers to a hearing threshold of:
32 out of 120
33.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
Which factor is most critical when implementing a hearing conservation program in a workplace environment?
33 out of 120
34.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
In the context of occupational audiology, what is the primary focus of audiometric monitoring?
34 out of 120
35.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
What is the primary reason for conducting periodic hearing screenings in school-age children?
35 out of 120
36.
Praxis Audiology: Prevention and Screening
What is the primary purpose of ototoxic monitoring in audiological prevention and screening?
36 out of 120
37.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In audiological assessments, the Threshold Equalizing Noise (TEN) test is used to:
37 out of 120
38.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In audiological assessments, what is the primary purpose of using tympanometry?
38 out of 120
39.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
The primary advantage of using the Masking Level Difference MLD test in audiological assessments is to:
39 out of 120
40.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
Which test is most suitable for assessing auditory function in infants under 6 months of age?
40 out of 120
41.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
The use of the Auditory Steady State Response (ASSR) test in audiology is particularly useful for:
41 out of 120
42.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
The primary purpose of electrocochleography (ECochG) in audiological assessments is to:
42 out of 120
43.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
When conducting speech audiometry, what does the Speech Recognition Threshold (SRT) specifically measure?
43 out of 120
44.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
Which test is most effective for assessing the vestibular component of the inner ear?
44 out of 120
45.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
The primary advantage of using Distortion Product Otoacoustic Emissions (DPOAEs) in hearing assessments is to:
45 out of 120
46.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
The primary clinical application of otoacoustic emissions (OAEs) testing is to:
46 out of 120
47.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
Which test assesses the ability to understand speech in the presence of competing noise at different signal-to-noise ratios (SNRs)?
47 out of 120
48.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In audiological assessments, the Stenger test is primarily used to:
48 out of 120
49.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
The "rollover" phenomenon observed in speech audiometry is most indicative of:
49 out of 120
50.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In pediatric audiology, the main purpose of using Visual Reinforcement Audiometry (VR
50 out of 120
51.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In the assessment of tinnitus, the primary purpose of pitch and loudness matching is to:
51 out of 120
52.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
Which test is most effective for differentiating between cochlear and retrocochlear hearing loss?
52 out of 120
53.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In auditory steady-state response (ASSR) testing, what is primarily assessed?
53 out of 120
54.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
What does an absent acoustic reflex indicate in tympanometry?
54 out of 120
55.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
Which audiological test is most appropriate for assessing auditory processing disorders in children?
55 out of 120
56.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In audiological assessments, the use of a Bekesy audiogram is particularly effective in identifying:
56 out of 120
57.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In auditory brainstem response (ABR) testing, what is indicated by the absence of waves I and II but the presence of later waves?
57 out of 120
58.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In tympanometry, what does a Type As tympanogram indicate?
58 out of 120
59.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
What is the most likely audiometric finding in a patient with Meniere's disease?
59 out of 120
60.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In otoacoustic emissions (OAE) testing, what does the absence of OAEs indicate in a patient with normal tympanometry and acoustic reflexes?
60 out of 120
61.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In auditory brainstem response (ABR) testing, which wave is most crucial for estimating hearing sensitivity in infants?
61 out of 120
62.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
What is the primary purpose of using otoacoustic emissions (OAEs) in audiological assessments?
62 out of 120
63.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
During a speech audiometry test, what does the Speech Recognition Threshold (SRT) specifically measure?
63 out of 120
64.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In tympanometry, what does a Type As tympanogram indicate?
64 out of 120
65.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
When conducting pure-tone audiometry, what is the primary purpose of using bone conduction testing?
65 out of 120
66.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In electrophysiological testing, what is the primary application of Cortical Auditory Evoked Potentials (CAEPs)?
66 out of 120
67.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
What does a "rising" audiogram configuration indicate?
67 out of 120
68.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In pediatric audiology, what is the primary purpose of Visual Reinforcement Audiometry (VR
68 out of 120
69.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
What does an interaural attenuation of 40 dB in air-conduction testing indicate?
69 out of 120
70.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In the assessment of tinnitus, what is the primary purpose of using pitch matching tests?
70 out of 120
71.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In assessing auditory processing disorders, which test primarily evaluates temporal processing abilities?
71 out of 120
72.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
When performing acoustic reflex threshold testing, what does the absence of a reflex at normal levels typically indicate?
72 out of 120
73.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In pediatric audiology, what is the primary advantage of using conditioned play audiometry (CP
73 out of 120
74.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
In the context of electrophysiological assessments, what does the presence of a cochlear microphonic in the absence of wave I in an ABR suggest?
74 out of 120
75.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
What is the primary purpose of using the Speech Perception in Noise (SPIN) test in audiological assessments?
75 out of 120
76.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
During a high-frequency audiometry test, which frequency range is typically assessed beyond the conventional audiometric range?
76 out of 120
77.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
What aspect of hearing does the Lombard Test assess in patients?
77 out of 120
78.
Praxis Audiology: Assessment
What does a "cookie-bite" audiogram configuration typically indicate?
78 out of 120
79.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In the context of aural rehabilitation for older adults, which factor is crucial for the successful adaptation to hearing aids?
79 out of 120
80.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In pediatric auditory habilitation, which approach is most effective in developing listening skills in children with hearing aids?
80 out of 120
81.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
Which of the following is least effective in managing tinnitus?
81 out of 120
82.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In vestibular rehabilitation therapy (VRT) for a patient with unilateral vestibular hypofunction, which exercise is least likely to be beneficial?
82 out of 120
83.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
When considering cochlear implantation in adults, which factor is least likely to predict a successful outcome?
83 out of 120
84.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
Which of the following is a primary consideration when selecting an appropriate amplification device for a pediatric client with severe to profound sensorineural hearing loss?
84 out of 120
85.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In auditory processing disorder APD intervention, which strategy is least effective for improving phonological awareness in children?
85 out of 120
86.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In pediatric aural rehabilitation, which approach is least effective for developing listening skills in children with hearing aids?
86 out of 120
87.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In selecting an appropriate hearing aid for a patient with high-frequency hearing loss, which feature is least important?
87 out of 120
88.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
When counseling a client about tinnitus management, which of the following approaches is most appropriate for a chronic, severe tinnitus case?
88 out of 120
89.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In auditory training for individuals with a newly implanted cochlear implant, which strategy is most effective in developing speech recognition skills?
89 out of 120
90.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
For patients with single-sided deafness SSD, which intervention is least likely to improve localization ability?
90 out of 120
91.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
For an adult with bilateral moderate sensorineural hearing loss, which hearing aid fitting strategy typically yields the best speech understanding in noisy environments?
91 out of 120
92.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In vestibular rehabilitation therapy (VRT), which of the following exercises is most effective for a patient with unilateral vestibular hypofunction?
92 out of 120
93.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
When selecting a frequency-modulated (FM) system for a child in a classroom setting, which factor is most important to consider?
93 out of 120
94.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
For a patient with Meniere's disease, which of the following management strategies is most effective in reducing the frequency and severity of vertigo attacks?
94 out of 120
95.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In assessing a patient for a cochlear implant, which criterion is most critical in determining candidacy?
95 out of 120
96.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In selecting an appropriate hearing aid for a musician with mild high-frequency hearing loss, which feature is most important?
96 out of 120
97.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In counseling parents of a child newly diagnosed with bilateral profound sensorineural hearing loss, which recommendation is most critical for promoting the child's language development?
97 out of 120
98.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
When implementing an auditory processing disorder APD intervention program, which strategy is most beneficial?
98 out of 120
99.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
When working with a client who has recently acquired a hearing loss due to ototoxicity, which aspect is most crucial for effective aural rehabilitation?
99 out of 120
100.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In the management of auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder ANSD, which intervention is most effective in improving speech perception in affected individuals?
100 out of 120
101.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In the fitting of bone-anchored hearing systems, which factor is most critical for successful outcomes in patients with conductive hearing loss?
101 out of 120
102.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
For an adult with a unilateral profound sensorineural hearing loss and normal hearing in the other ear, which intervention is most appropriate?
102 out of 120
103.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
For a patient with presbycusis and significant difficulty in speech understanding in noisy environments, which advanced hearing aid feature is most beneficial?
103 out of 120
104.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In electrophysiological testing, what is the primary advantage of using Auditory Steady-State Responses (ASSR) over traditional Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR) in estimating hearing thresholds?
104 out of 120
105.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In managing a patient with sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), which initial treatment approach is generally considered most effective?
105 out of 120
106.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In vestibular assessment, which test is most effective in identifying a bilateral vestibular hypofunction?
106 out of 120
107.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
In the context of real-ear measurements (REM) for hearing aid fitting, which parameter is most critical to assess for ensuring optimal gain and output for speech frequencies?
107 out of 120
108.
Praxis Audiology: Intervention
When selecting an FM system for a classroom setting, what is the most important feature to ensure speech signal clarity for a child with hearing impairment?
108 out of 120
109.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
Which of the following best describes an audiologist's ethical responsibility when encountering a conflict of interest in professional practice?
109 out of 120
110.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
What should an audiologist do if they receive a request to provide services outside of their area of competence?
110 out of 120
111.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
What is an audiologist's ethical obligation when advertising their services?
111 out of 120
112.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
Which action is most appropriate for an audiologist when they realize a colleague is engaging in unethical behavior?
112 out of 120
113.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
When an audiologist encounters a situation that is not covered by existing laws but poses a potential ethical dilemma, what is the best course of action?
113 out of 120
114.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
What is the ethical course of action for an audiologist when a new, but not yet widely accepted, treatment becomes available?
114 out of 120
115.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
When obtaining informed consent for a new treatment procedure, what is the most critical ethical consideration for an audiologist?
115 out of 120
116.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
When dealing with a patient who has a progressive hearing loss, what is the audiologist's ethical responsibility in terms of informing the patient about the prognosis and potential future needs?
116 out of 120
117.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
What action is ethically mandatory for an audiologist when a conflict of interest arises with a hearing aid manufacturer?
117 out of 120
118.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
In the context of audiology, what is the primary ethical consideration when dealing with patient information?
118 out of 120
119.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
In the context of research ethics, what is the primary role of an Institutional Review Board IRB in an audiology study?
119 out of 120
120.
Praxis Audiology: Professional and Ethical Responsibilities
When an audiologist encounters a novel treatment method with limited evidence of efficacy, what is the most ethical approach to consider when discussing it with a patient?
120 out of 120