1.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
In a patient with a Bombay phenotype (hh), which of the following blood group antigens would be expected to be absent?
1 out of 100
2.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action if an ABO discrepancy is identified during pre-transfusion testing?
2 out of 100
3.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
What phenotype would you expect in an individual who is homozygous for the Rh_null allele?
3 out of 100
4.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
In the context of blood banking, the term "universal donor" refers to individuals with which blood type?
4 out of 100
5.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
Which of the following blood groups is associated with resistance to certain forms of malaria?
5 out of 100
6.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
The Kell blood group system is significant in transfusion medicine because:
6 out of 100
7.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
The presence of which antigen is tested to differentiate between weak D and partial D phenotypes?
7 out of 100
8.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
In transfusion medicine, which antibody is typically implicated in cases of delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
8 out of 100
9.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
What is the most likely blood type of a child born to a mother with type O blood and a father with type AB blood?
9 out of 100
10.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
Which of the following is a key feature of the Duffy blood group system?
10 out of 100
11.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
What blood component is preferred for transfusion in patients with IgA deficiency to prevent anaphylactic reactions?
11 out of 100
12.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
The Lewis blood group system is unique because:
12 out of 100
13.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
In the Rh blood group system, which antigen is most commonly associated with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?
13 out of 100
14.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
Which of the following is true about the P1 antigen?
14 out of 100
15.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
What is the most likely cause of a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) in a newborn?
15 out of 100
16.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
Which antibody screening result would you expect in a patient with the Chido/Rodgers (Ch/Rg) null phenotype?
16 out of 100
17.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
What is the significance of detecting anti-E in a patient's serum during pre-transfusion testing?
17 out of 100
18.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
For a patient with a known anti-Jka antibody, which of the following blood types would be safe to transfuse?
18 out of 100
19.
ASCP MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids
When observing a urine sediment under a microscope, you identify oval fat bodies. What condition do these structures most likely indicate?
19 out of 100
20.
ASCP MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids
In urinalysis, the presence of "muddy brown" granular casts most likely suggests:
20 out of 100
21.
ASCP MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids
Which of the following findings in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is most indicative of a bacterial meningitis?
21 out of 100
22.
ASCP MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids
A urine sample demonstrates a specific gravity of 1.005 and a pH of 5.0. These findings are most consistent with:
22 out of 100
23.
ASCP MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids
In urinalysis, the identification of hexagonal crystals is most indicative of:
23 out of 100
24.
ASCP MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids
The presence of Schistosoma haematobium eggs in urine is most suggestive of:
24 out of 100
25.
ASCP MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids
A patient's urine shows the presence of broad and waxy casts. This finding is typically associated with:
25 out of 100
26.
ASCP MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids
The detection of "teardrop" red blood cells in a urine sediment is most commonly associated with:
26 out of 100
27.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
In enzymology, what is the effect of a competitive inhibitor on the Km and Vmax of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
27 out of 100
28.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
When assessing liver function, which of the following enzyme levels is most indicative of cholestatic disease?
28 out of 100
29.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
In gas chromatography, what is the primary purpose of the stationary phase?
29 out of 100
30.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
What is the primary clinical significance of measuring serum osmolality?
30 out of 100
31.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
In clinical chemistry, what does an increased anion gap typically indicate?
31 out of 100
32.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
Which of the following tests is most specific for diagnosing myocardial infarction?
32 out of 100
33.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
In lipid profiling, what is the Friedewald equation used to calculate?
33 out of 100
34.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
Which hormone's level would be most indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?
34 out of 100
35.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
What is the clinical significance of measuring serum ferritin levels in the context of anemia?
35 out of 100
36.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
In the evaluation of kidney function, why is cystatin C considered a reliable marker?
36 out of 100
37.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
Which of the following is a primary function of the bicarbonate buffer system in maintaining blood pH?
37 out of 100
38.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
What does the measurement of HbA1c levels indicate in diabetic management?
38 out of 100
39.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
Which of the following compounds is primarily measured in the assessment of bone turnover markers?
39 out of 100
40.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
In the context of porphyrias, which laboratory test is essential for diagnosing acute intermittent porphyria?
40 out of 100
41.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
What is the significance of measuring serum lactate levels in patients with suspected sepsis?
41 out of 100
42.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
In therapeutic drug monitoring, why is it important to measure the trough level of a drug?
42 out of 100
43.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
What does an elevated level of serum myoglobin indicate in the context of cardiovascular disorders?
43 out of 100
44.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
In the context of lipid metabolism, what is the significance of measuring apolipoprotein B?
44 out of 100
45.
ASCP MLS: Chemistry
In diagnosing diabetes insipidus, which parameter is crucial in the water deprivation test?
45 out of 100
46.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
When analyzing a bone marrow aspirate, the presence of which cell type is indicative of a primary myelofibrosis diagnosis?
46 out of 100
47.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
What is the significance of detecting BCR-ABL1 fusion gene in a patient's leukocytes?
47 out of 100
48.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
In the context of hemostasis, what role does von Willebrand factor (vWF) play in platelet adhesion?
48 out of 100
49.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
What is the primary defect in Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
49 out of 100
50.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
In a patient with suspected Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation 'DIC', which laboratory finding is typically observed?
50 out of 100
51.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
What is the most likely diagnosis when a blood smear shows schistocytes, helmet cells, and a negative Coombs test?
51 out of 100
52.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is characteristic of which hematologic disorder?
52 out of 100
53.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
Which of the following mutations is most commonly associated with Polycythemia Vera?
53 out of 100
54.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
In the evaluation of iron deficiency anemia, which of the following lab findings is most indicative of the condition?
54 out of 100
55.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
What is the characteristic laboratory finding in a patient with hereditary spherocytosis?
55 out of 100
56.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
Which coagulation factor is deficient in Hemophilia B?
56 out of 100
57.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
The Philadelphia chromosome is a result of which of the following chromosomal translocations?
57 out of 100
58.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
In acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL), the presence of which chromosomal translocation is considered pathognomonic?
58 out of 100
59.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
What is the most common inherited cause of hypercoagulability, leading to an increased risk of venous thrombosis?
59 out of 100
60.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
Which of the following is a key laboratory finding in Thalassemia Major?
60 out of 100
61.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
The presence of "teardrop cells" on a peripheral blood smear is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?
61 out of 100
62.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
Auer rods are most typically associated with which type of leukemia?
62 out of 100
63.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
Which of the following is the primary storage form of iron in the body?
63 out of 100
64.
ASCP MLS: Hematology
In the context of coagulation, what is the primary function of thrombin?
64 out of 100
65.
ASCP MLS: Immunology
In the context of immunology, what is the primary function of dendritic cells in the adaptive immune response?
65 out of 100
66.
ASCP MLS: Immunology
Which of the following cytokines is primarily involved in the differentiation of Th2 cells?
66 out of 100
67.
ASCP MLS: Immunology
What is the primary role of the Fc region of an antibody?
67 out of 100
68.
ASCP MLS: Immunology
Which MHC class molecule presents antigen to CD8+ T cells?
68 out of 100
69.
ASCP MLS: Immunology
In the context of hypersensitivity reactions, which type is associated with antibody-mediated cytotoxicity?
69 out of 100
70.
ASCP MLS: Immunology
What is the role of the complement system in innate immunity?
70 out of 100
71.
ASCP MLS: Immunology
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of natural killer (NK) cells?
71 out of 100
72.
ASCP MLS: Immunology
In autoimmune diseases, what mechanism is primarily responsible for the loss of self-tolerance?
72 out of 100
73.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
Which organism is most commonly associated with cold autoantibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
73 out of 100
74.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
In a patient with a prosthetic valve, which organism is a common cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis?
74 out of 100
75.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular parasite known to cause Q fever?
75 out of 100
76.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
What is the primary virulence factor of Vibrio cholerae that contributes to its pathogenicity?
76 out of 100
77.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
Which organism is known to produce a red pigment at room temperature and is a common cause of urinary tract infections?
77 out of 100
78.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
What is the characteristic morphology of Campylobacter jejuni on a gram stain?
78 out of 100
79.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
Which organism is primarily responsible for causing atypical pneumonia and is known for its lack of a cell wall?
79 out of 100
80.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
In the identification of fungi, what is the significance of observing a "spaghetti and meatballs" appearance under the microscope?
80 out of 100
81.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
What is the main reason for performing an acid-fast stain in microbiology?
81 out of 100
82.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
Which of the following bacteria is known to cause gas gangrene?
82 out of 100
83.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
In the context of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, what does the minimum inhibitory concentration 'MIC' indicate?
83 out of 100
84.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
Which organism is known to cause a "bull's-eye" rash in humans and is a common vector-borne pathogen in North America?
84 out of 100
85.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
What is the primary reservoir for the bacteria Yersinia pestis, which causes plague?
85 out of 100
86.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
In laboratory diagnostics, what is the significance of detecting "safety pin" appearance in a Gram stain for a rod-shaped bacterium?
86 out of 100
87.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
Which of the following organisms is a Gram-negative rod that can cause gastroenteritis and is notably resistant to third-generation cephalosporins?
87 out of 100
88.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
What is the hallmark microscopic feature of Cryptococcus neoformans when visualized using India ink?
88 out of 100
89.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
Which of the following tests is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci?
89 out of 100
90.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
Legionella pneumophila, the bacterium responsible for Legionnaires' disease, primarily infects which of the following human organs?
90 out of 100
91.
ASCP MLS: Microbiology
In the identification of Enterobacteriaceae, what does a positive result in the methyl red test indicate?
91 out of 100
92.
ASCP MLS: Laboratory Operations
When calibrating a spectrophotometer, which of the following solutions is typically used to adjust the instrument's baseline?
92 out of 100
93.
ASCP MLS: Laboratory Operations
In the context of laboratory quality control, what is the primary purpose of implementing a Levey-Jennings chart?
93 out of 100
94.
ASCP MLS: Laboratory Operations
Which of the following best describes the purpose of proficiency testing in a clinical laboratory?
94 out of 100
95.
ASCP MLS: Laboratory Operations
What is the primary reason for performing daily temperature checks on a refrigerator used to store reagents and samples in a laboratory?
95 out of 100
96.
ASCP MLS: Laboratory Operations
In laboratory waste management, what is the most appropriate action to take with a container of expired, but unused, chemical reagent?
96 out of 100
97.
ASCP MLS: Laboratory Operations
When establishing a new laboratory test, which of the following parameters must be rigorously evaluated first?
97 out of 100
98.
ASCP MLS: Laboratory Operations
What is the primary purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments 'CLIA'?
98 out of 100
99.
ASCP MLS: Laboratory Operations
When a laboratory encounters an unexpected spike in QC (Quality Control) data, what is the most appropriate initial action?
99 out of 100
100.
ASCP MLS: Blood Banking
What is the primary purpose of the direct antiglobulin test (DAT)?
100 out of 100