AMT MLS Practice Test Welcome to your AMT MLS Practice Test 1. AMT MLS: General Laboratory Which of the following is the primary reason for conducting a daily quality control check on laboratory balances? To ensure accurate patient billing To verify the balance is operating within specified tolerances To comply with manufacturer warranty requirements To confirm the balance is clean and free of contaminants None 2. AMT MLS: General Laboratory In the context of laboratory safety, what is the primary purpose of a fume hood? To store chemicals safely To reduce the risk of fire To contain and exhaust toxic vapors To maintain a sterile environment None 3. AMT MLS: General Laboratory When calibrating a spectrophotometer, why is it necessary to use a blank solution? To reset the device to zero absorbance To measure the solvent's absorbance as a control To clean the internal components of the spectrophotometer To check the power supply of the spectrophotometer None 4. AMT MLS: General Laboratory What is the primary reason for performing a daily check on the centrifuge's speed calibration? To ensure the centrifuge reaches the set speed accurately To verify the timer is functioning correctly To prevent sample cross-contamination To assess the noise level of the centrifuge None 5. AMT MLS: General Laboratory Why is it important to routinely test the emergency eyewash station in the laboratory? To ensure it provides the correct water temperature To confirm it is accessible and unobstructed To verify the water flow is adequate and continuous To check for the presence of microbial contamination in the water None 6. AMT MLS: General Laboratory The selection of appropriate PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) in the laboratory is primarily determined by what factor? The comfort and preference of the laboratory staff The type of chemical being used in the procedure The cost and availability of the PPE The color-coding of the PPE items None 7. AMT MLS: General Laboratory In laboratory quality control, what is the purpose of running a Levey-Jennings chart? To track the temperature of the laboratory environment To monitor and evaluate the precision and accuracy of test results over time To record the daily attendance of laboratory personnel To calculate the monthly budget for laboratory supplies None 8. AMT MLS: General Laboratory The principle of 'Right to Know' in laboratory safety primarily ensures that: Patients are informed about their test results Laboratory personnel have access to information about chemicals they work with The public has access to the laboratory's safety protocols Management is aware of the laboratory's safety compliance status None 9. AMT MLS: General Laboratory What is the primary purpose of a biological safety cabinet in a microbiology lab? To store biological samples To incubate cultures at controlled temperatures To provide a sterile environment and contain aerosols To dispose of biological waste None 10. AMT MLS: General Laboratory When a laboratory instrument malfunctions, what is the first action that should be taken? Attempt to repair the instrument using the manual Continue using the instrument until it completely fails Report the malfunction according to the laboratory's protocol Discard the instrument and order a new one None 11. AMT MLS: General Laboratory The process of verifying that a new lot of reagent performs the same as the previous lot is known as: Calibration Lot-to-lot verification Quality assurance Proficiency testing None 12. AMT MLS: General Laboratory In the context of laboratory waste management, what is the most appropriate action to take with a container of expired chemicals? Pour them down the sink with plenty of water Follow the laboratory's chemical disposal protocol Leave them on the shelf for future disposal Use them for non-critical experiments None 13. AMT MLS: General Laboratory What is the primary function of a laboratory information system (LIS)? To automate the ordering of laboratory supplies To manage patient data and laboratory test results To control the laboratory's environmental conditions To monitor the staff's work hours and productivity None 14. AMT MLS: General Laboratory Why is it important to validate a new analytical method before its routine use in the laboratory? To ensure it is cost-effective To determine its impact on laboratory workflow To assess its accuracy, precision, and reproducibility To train laboratory personnel on the new method None 15. AMT MLS: Chemistry In gas chromatography, what is the primary purpose of the carrier gas? To provide a medium for the sample to interact with the stationary phase To react chemically with the sample To detect the components of the sample To transport the sample through the column None 16. AMT MLS: Chemistry Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of a spectrophotometer in clinical chemistry? It measures the concentration of a substance by detecting the amount of light absorbed by a solution. It identifies compounds based on their molecular weight. It is primarily used for measuring the pH of solutions. It separates compounds based on their charge. None 17. AMT MLS: Chemistry In the context of clinical chemistry, what is the significance of the anion gap? It is a measure of the charge balance between cations and anions in the blood. It determines the pH level of the blood. It is used to assess kidney function. It indicates the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells. None 18. AMT MLS: Chemistry What is the principle of flame emission spectroscopy? It measures the intensity of molecular vibrations. It detects the emission of light by atoms or ions in a flame. It quantifies the heat absorption by molecules. It identifies substances based on their crystalline structure. None 19. AMT MLS: Chemistry Which of the following techniques is used in clinical chemistry to separate proteins based on their size and electrical charge? High-performance liquid chromatography 'HPLC' Electrophoresis Mass spectrometry Flame photometry None 20. AMT MLS: Chemistry In clinical chemistry, what is the primary purpose of using a buffer solution in a biochemical assay? To stabilize the pH of the solution To increase the reaction rate To act as a catalyst in the reaction To isolate specific molecules from a mixture None 21. AMT MLS: Chemistry What is the clinical significance of measuring lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) activity in the blood? It is specific for diagnosing liver diseases. It is an indicator of myocardial infarction. It measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. It is used to determine blood glucose levels. None 22. AMT MLS: Chemistry In mass spectrometry, what does the m/z ratio represent? Mass to charge ratio of ions Molecular weight of the compound Intensity of the ion signal Concentration of the analyte in the sample None 23. AMT MLS: Chemistry Why is the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay 'ELISA' significant in clinical chemistry? It determines the molecular weight of proteins. It identifies the presence of specific ions in a solution. It quantifies specific proteins or antibodies in a sample. It measures the pH level of bodily fluids. None 24. AMT MLS: Chemistry In clinical chemistry, what is the significance of measuring serum creatinine? It assesses carbohydrate metabolism. It evaluates lipid profiles. It indicates renal function. It measures blood pH. None 25. AMT MLS: Chemistry What is the principle of the biuret method for protein determination? It measures the rate of protein hydrolysis. It detects the presence of peptide bonds in proteins. It quantifies proteins based on their aromatic amino acid content. It separates proteins based on their molecular weight. None 26. AMT MLS: Chemistry In the context of clinical chemistry, why is it important to measure serum electrolytes like sodium and potassium? To assess nutritional status To determine blood alcohol level To evaluate fluid and electrolyte balance To identify the presence of metabolic waste products None 27. AMT MLS: Chemistry What is the clinical relevance of measuring blood urea nitrogen (BUN)? It is a marker for protein intake and renal excretory function. It indicates the rate of hemoglobin synthesis. It assesses the buffering capacity of blood. It measures the concentration of blood glucose. None 28. AMT MLS: Chemistry How does high-performance liquid chromatography 'HPLC' differ from traditional column chromatography? HPLC uses a liquid mobile phase exclusively. HPLC provides higher resolution and faster analysis. HPLC is used only for organic compounds. HPLC requires larger sample volumes. None 29. AMT MLS: Chemistry What is the purpose of using a reference standard in quantitative assays? To provide a medium for the reaction To control the temperature of the assay To compare the test result for calibration To increase the reaction rate None 30. AMT MLS: Chemistry What is the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction within the clinical chemistry laboratory? To increase the reaction rate without being consumed To act as a reactant in the reaction To decrease the product yield To stabilize the reactants None 31. AMT MLS: Chemistry In clinical chemistry, the measurement of what substance is crucial for diagnosing diabetes mellitus? Serum albumin Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Blood glucose Serum bilirubin None 32. AMT MLS: Chemistry Why is ion-selective electrode (ISE) technology important in clinical chemistry? It measures the viscosity of biological fluids. It provides specific measurement of ion concentrations. It determines the molecular weight of proteins. It identifies the presence of organic compounds. None 33. AMT MLS: Chemistry In the context of enzymatic assays in clinical chemistry, what is the significance of the Michaelis-Menten constant (Km)? It indicates the maximum reaction rate. It determines the enzyme's affinity for its substrate. It measures the enzyme concentration. It calculates the final product yield. None 34. AMT MLS: Chemistry What is the principle behind turbidimetry in clinical chemistry? Measuring the light emitted by a sample Measuring the light absorbed by a sample Measuring the light scattered by a sample Measuring the fluorescence of a sample None 35. AMT MLS: Chemistry In clinical chemistry, the term "analytical specificity" refers to what? The ability to measure the desired analyte accurately without interference The range of conditions over which an assay is effective The comparison between two different analytical methods The percentage of false positives in a given set of tests None 36. AMT MLS: Hematology When evaluating a peripheral blood smear, the presence of which of the following cells is indicative of a severe allergic reaction or parasitic infection? Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils Monocytes None 37. AMT MLS: Hematology Which of the following genetic mutations is most commonly associated with Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)? JAK2 V617F mutation BCR-ABL fusion gene FLT3-ITD mutation PML-RARA fusion gene None 38. AMT MLS: Hematology In the context of hemostasis, which pathway is primarily assessed by the Prothrombin Time (PT) test? Intrinsic pathway Extrinsic pathway Common pathway Fibrinolytic pathway None 39. AMT MLS: Hematology Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in patients with: Hemolytic anemia Sickle cell anemia Iron deficiency anemia Megaloblastic anemia None 40. AMT MLS: Hematology The presence of Heinz bodies is indicative of which of the following conditions? G6PD deficiency Hemophilia A Vitamin B12 deficiency Acute lymphoblastic leukemia None 41. AMT MLS: Hematology What is the primary function of von Willebrand factor in hemostasis? Catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin Acts as a carrier for factor VIII Promotes platelet adhesion to the subendothelium Activates the intrinsic pathway None 42. AMT MLS: Hematology The Philadelphia chromosome is a result of which chromosomal translocation? t(9;22)(q34;q11) t(15;17)(q22;q12) t(8;21)(q22;q22) t(14;18)(q32;q21) None 43. AMT MLS: Hematology Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which type of lymphoma? Hodgkin's lymphoma Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma Burkitt's lymphoma Mantle cell lymphoma None 44. AMT MLS: Hematology The coagulation factor deficiency in Hemophilia A affects which pathway? Intrinsic pathway Extrinsic pathway Common pathway Fibrinolytic pathway None 45. AMT MLS: Hematology Which of the following is a major criterion for the diagnosis of polycythemia vera? Elevated white blood cell count Low erythropoietin level Elevated red blood cell mass Elevated platelet count None 46. AMT MLS: Hematology In a patient with suspected disseminated intravascular coagulation 'DIC', which laboratory finding is typically observed? Increased fibrinogen level Decreased D-dimer Prolonged PT and aPTT Increased platelet count None 47. AMT MLS: Hematology Which of the following is characteristic of a leukemoid reaction? Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score Presence of the Philadelphia chromosome Elevated white blood cell count Low neutrophil count None 48. AMT MLS: Hematology The M:E ratio in bone marrow refers to the ratio of: Myeloblasts to erythroblasts Megakaryocytes to erythrocytes Myeloid cells to erythroid cells Monocytes to eosinophils None 49. AMT MLS: Hematology In which condition is the presence of schistocytes typically observed on a peripheral blood smear? Hemolytic uremic syndrome Chronic lymphocytic leukemia Iron deficiency anemia Thalassemia None 50. AMT MLS: Hematology Target cells are commonly seen in which of the following conditions? Acute myeloid leukemia Thalassemia Polycythemia vera Vitamin B12 deficiency None 51. AMT MLS: Coagulation and Hemostasis What is the role of thrombomodulin in the coagulation cascade? It activates protein C. It converts fibrinogen to fibrin. It catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. It serves as a cofactor for factor VIII. None 52. AMT MLS: Coagulation and Hemostasis Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation 'DIC'? Prolonged PT, normal aPTT, decreased fibrinogen, and normal D-dimer Prolonged PT, prolonged aPTT, decreased fibrinogen, and increased D-dimer Normal PT, normal aPTT, increased fibrinogen, and normal D-dimer Prolonged PT, normal aPTT, increased fibrinogen, and decreased D-dimer None 53. AMT MLS: Coagulation and Hemostasis What is the primary function of von Willebrand factor (vWF) in hemostasis? It catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. It mediates platelet adhesion to the subendothelial matrix. It serves as a cofactor for the activation of factor X. It accelerates the degradation of factor VIII. None 54. AMT MLS: Coagulation and Hemostasis In the context of coagulation, what is the primary role of tissue factor? It activates factor VII. It converts prothrombin to thrombin. It is a cofactor for factor XIII. It inhibits protein C activation. None 55. AMT MLS: Coagulation and Hemostasis Which test is primarily used to assess the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation system? Prothrombin Time (PT) Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) Thrombin Time (TT) Platelet Function Analysis (PFA) None 56. AMT MLS: Coagulation and Hemostasis What is the primary effect of activated protein C in the coagulation process? It converts fibrinogen to fibrin. It promotes platelet aggregation. It inactivates factors Va and VIIIa. It activates factor VII. None 57. AMT MLS: Coagulation and Hemostasis Which factor is involved in stabilizing the fibrin clot? Factor V Factor VII Factor XIII Factor IX None 58. AMT MLS: Immunology and Serology In the ELISA technique, what is the purpose of adding a substrate after the enzyme-conjugated antibody? To visualize the antibody-antigen complexes To stabilize the antibody-antigen binding To neutralize unbound antibodies To detach the antibody from the plate None 59. AMT MLS: Immunology and Serology Which of the following best describes the primary role of the complement system in the immune response? Direct neutralization of viruses Phagocytosis of bacteria Lysis of foreign cells Presentation of antigens to T cells None 60. AMT MLS: Immunology and Serology What is the significance of the Fc receptor on phagocytic cells? It recognizes and binds to the Fab region of antibodies. It mediates the uptake and destruction of pathogens. It is involved in the release of cytokines. It prevents the non-specific binding of antibodies. None 61. AMT MLS: Immunology and Serology In a Western blot test, what is the purpose of transferring proteins from a gel to a membrane? To separate proteins by size To enhance the sensitivity of antigen detection To facilitate the binding of antibodies to proteins To preserve the proteins for long-term storage None 62. AMT MLS: Immunohematology In the context of immunohematology, what is the primary significance of the Duffy blood group system? It is the main determinant of the ABO blood group. It affects susceptibility to Plasmodium vivax malaria. It determines the Rh factor positivity or negativity. It is crucial for platelet compatibility. None 63. AMT MLS: Immunohematology When performing a crossmatch test, which phase is most critical for detecting antibodies against high-frequency antigens? Immediate spin phase Antiglobulin phase Saline phase Albumin phase None 64. AMT MLS: Immunohematology What is the primary role of the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) in blood bank testing? Detection of ABO incompatibilities Identification of unexpected antibodies in the patient's serum Determination of hemoglobin levels Measurement of clotting factors None 65. AMT MLS: Immunohematology Which antigen is associated with the Kell blood group system and is significant for its immunogenicity? K Jka Fya M None 66. AMT MLS: Immunohematology In immunohematology, what is the significance of detecting a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)? It confirms the presence of anti-A or anti-B antibodies on the red cell surface. It indicates compatibility between donor and recipient blood. It signifies that there are antibodies or complement bound to the patient's red cells. It determines the blood group of an individual. None 67. AMT MLS: Immunohematology What is the purpose of the elution procedure in immunohematology? To remove antibodies from the patient's plasma To concentrate red blood cells for transfusion To detach and identify antibodies bound to red blood cells To confirm the ABO blood grouping None 68. AMT MLS: Immunohematology When considering Rh compatibility, which scenario is most likely to lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)? Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative fetus Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative fetus Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive fetus Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive fetus None 69. AMT MLS: Immunohematology In transfusion medicine, what is the primary concern when a patient has an antibody against the 'e' antigen of the Rh system? Difficulty in finding compatible blood, as 'e' is a high-frequency antigen. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction. No significant concern, as the 'e' antigen is not clinically significant. Risk of graft-versus-host disease. None 70. AMT MLS: Immunohematology What is the primary reason for performing a serum-to-cell ratio study in immunohematology? To determine the optimal ratio for antibody detection To identify the ABO blood type To assess the potency of an anticoagulant To evaluate the efficiency of platelet transfusion None 71. AMT MLS: Immunohematology Why is it important to test for the presence of the S and s antigens during pre-transfusion testing? They are associated with immediate transfusion reactions. They are involved in the rapid clearance of transfused platelets. They can lead to delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions. They determine the plasma volume required for transfusion. None 72. AMT MLS: Immunohematology Which molecular technique is commonly used in immunohematology to determine zygosity for blood group antigens? Western blotting Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) Flow cytometry None 73. AMT MLS: Blood Banking and Transfusion Services In the context of blood transfusion, what is the primary concern when a patient has an anti-Jka antibody? Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction Allergic transfusion reaction Anaphylactic transfusion reaction None 74. AMT MLS: Blood Banking and Transfusion Services What is the significance of detecting a Bombay phenotype (hh) in a patient requiring a blood transfusion? The patient can receive O negative blood without any concern. The patient lacks H antigen and can only receive blood from another Bombay phenotype donor. The patient can receive any type of blood as they lack common antigens. The patient is at a higher risk of developing anti-A1 antibodies. None 75. AMT MLS: Blood Banking and Transfusion Services Which of the following is true regarding the Rh null phenotype? It is characterized by the lack of all Rh antigens but has no clinical significance. Individuals with Rh null phenotype can safely receive Rh positive blood. The Rh null phenotype can lead to a compensatory increase in other blood group antigens. Individuals with Rh null phenotype are immune to developing antibodies against Rh antigens. None 76. AMT MLS: Blood Banking and Transfusion Services In the context of transfusion medicine, what is the primary reason for performing an elution? To remove antibodies attached to the patient's red cells To identify the specific blood group antigen present on red cells To determine the volume of plasma in a blood sample To assess the viability of transfused red cells None 77. AMT MLS: Blood Banking and Transfusion Services What is the primary concern when a patient with a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) requires a blood transfusion? The patient may have an autoimmune hemolytic anemia. The patient is likely to experience an anaphylactic transfusion reaction. The patient will have an increased risk of fluid overload. The patient can only receive irradiated blood products. None 78. AMT MLS: Blood Banking and Transfusion Services In transfusion medicine, what is the primary purpose of using leukoreduced blood products? To prevent febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions To increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells To reduce the risk of viral transmission To enhance the platelet function in the recipient None 79. AMT MLS: Blood Banking and Transfusion Services Which of the following is a possible complication of an ABO-incompatible blood transfusion? Graft-versus-host disease Hypothermia Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction Citrate toxicity None 80. AMT MLS: Blood Banking and Transfusion Services What is the primary purpose of crossmatching in blood transfusion? To check the compatibility of donor and recipient plasma To ensure the recipient's antibodies will not react with the donor's red cells To confirm the blood type of the donor blood To screen for infectious diseases in the donor blood None 81. AMT MLS: Microbiology Which of the following bacterial species is known to produce a red pigment at room temperature and is a common contaminant in laboratory environments? Staphylococcus aureus Serratia marcescens Escherichia coli Pseudomonas aeruginosa None 82. AMT MLS: Microbiology In the identification of Mycobacterium tuberculosis using the niacin accumulation test, what is the significance of a positive result? Indicates the presence of cell wall lipids Demonstrates niacin production Confirms mycolic acid synthesis Suggests protein synthesis inhibition None 83. AMT MLS: Microbiology Which of the following organisms is a gram-positive rod that can cause food poisoning and is also known for its ability to grow at refrigeration temperatures? Salmonella typhi Clostridium botulinum Listeria monocytogenes Vibrio parahaemolyticus None 84. AMT MLS: Microbiology Which of the following is the most appropriate media for the primary isolation of Campylobacter jejuni from stool samples? MacConkey Agar Blood Agar Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) agar Campylobacter-selective agar (e.g., Preston or Skirrow) None 85. AMT MLS: Microbiology When differentiating between Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis, which test is crucial? Catalase test Coagulase test Oxidase test Urease test None 86. AMT MLS: Microbiology In the context of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, what does the term "Minimum Inhibitory Concentration" refer to? The lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that will inhibit the visible growth of a microorganism after overnight incubation The highest concentration of an antimicrobial that a microorganism can resist The concentration of an antimicrobial required to kill a microorganism The amount of an antimicrobial that results in bactericidal activity None 87. AMT MLS: Microbiology Which organism is responsible for causing diphtheria, and what is the key virulence factor? Corynebacterium diphtheriae; diphtheria toxin Streptococcus pyogenes; M protein Haemophilus influenzae; capsule Bordetella pertussis; pertussis toxin None 88. AMT MLS: Microbiology In laboratory identification, what is the primary purpose of using a bile esculin test? To distinguish between Enterococcus and Streptococcus species To identify members of the genus Salmonella To differentiate lactose-fermenting from non-lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria To detect the presence of capsule in bacteria None 89. AMT MLS: Microbiology Which of the following statements accurately describes the Quellung reaction? It is used to differentiate between types of hemolysis on blood agar. It involves the swelling of the capsule of bacteria when specific antibodies are present. It distinguishes between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. It identifies bacterial species based on their motility. None 90. AMT MLS: Microbiology What is the significance of detecting beta-lactamase production in bacteria? It indicates the ability of the bacterium to ferment lactose. It suggests the bacterium can resist beta-lactam antibiotics through enzyme production. It signifies the ability of the bacterium to produce lactic acid. It demonstrates the bacterium's capacity for aerobic respiration. None 91. AMT MLS: Microbiology When considering fungi, which of the following is a dimorphic fungus associated with bird and bat droppings and can cause pulmonary infections? Candida albicans Histoplasma capsulatum Aspergillus fumigatus Cryptococcus neoformans None 92. AMT MLS: Microbiology Which of the following is the gold standard test for diagnosing Clostridioides (formerly Clostridium) difficile infection? Stool culture Enzyme immunoassay for toxins Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) Gram staining of stool None 93. AMT MLS: Microbiology What is the primary reason for performing a D-test in clinical microbiology? To detect the presence of an inducible clindamycin resistance in staphylococci and streptococci To determine the minimum inhibitory concentration (MI of an antibiotic C) To identify the bacterial species based on DNA sequencing To assess the bactericidal activity of an antibiotic None 94. AMT MLS: Microbiology Why is the detection of galactomannan considered significant in diagnosing invasive aspergillosis? It indicates the presence of Aspergillus species antigens in body fluids. It confirms the bacterial origin of a pulmonary infection. It detects the enzymatic activity of Aspergillus in the host. It identifies the specific species of Aspergillus causing the infection. None 95. AMT MLS: Microbiology In the laboratory, what is the significance of detecting "safety pin" appearance in Yersinia pestis under a microscope? It indicates the presence of a capsule. It signifies the bacterium's resistance to antibiotics. It reveals the characteristic bipolar staining of the organism. It demonstrates the organism's ability to produce toxins. None 96. AMT MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids When observing urine sediment, which of the following structures is considered most indicative of a glomerular origin when associated with proteinuria? Renal tubular epithelial cells Waxy casts Hyaline casts Acanthocytes None 97. AMT MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids In the context of urine crystal identification, which of the following crystals is considered abnormal at any pH level? Calcium oxalate Uric acid Cystine Amorphous phosphates None 98. AMT MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids The presence of "muddy brown" granular casts in urine sediment most likely suggests: Acute tubular necrosis Glomerulonephritis Nephrotic syndrome Pyelonephritis None 99. AMT MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids The detection of "oval fat bodies" in urine microscopy is most suggestive of which condition? Nephritic syndrome Acute cystitis Nephrotic syndrome Ureterolithiasis None 100. AMT MLS: Urinalysis and Body Fluids Which of the following findings in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is typically associated with a bacterial infection? Decreased glucose, increased protein, and increased neutrophils Increased glucose, decreased protein, and increased lymphocytes Decreased glucose, decreased protein, and increased monocytes Increased glucose, increased protein, and increased eosinophils None 1 out of 100 Time is Up! Time's up
